11/06/2023 Code-B

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Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry : Solutions
Botany : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Zoology : Human Reproduction

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. An external agent brought a charge of 8 C 2. An air filled parallel plate capacitor has
slowly from infinity to a point in an capacitance C. When a dielectric medium of
electrostatic field and performs 400 J of dielectric constant K is introduced to fill half
work. The potential at the given point is of the space between the plates as shown,
(1) 200 V the capacitance become 3C. The value of K
is
(2) 10 V
(3) –20 V
(4) 50 V

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

3. Which of the following graphs correctly 6. In the combination shown in figure, the
represents the variation of charge q and charge on 2.5 μF in steady state is
energy stored U in a capacitor?
(1)

(1) 625 μC
(2) 1250 μC
(3) 2500 μC
(2)
(4) 2000 μC

7. A capacitor of capacitance 10 μF is charged

to a potential of 100 V after charging, it is
connected in parallel to an uncharged
(3) identical capacitor. The energy, loss in
redistribution of charge in steady state is
(1) 2.5 × 10–2 J
(2) 5 × 10–4 J
(3) 4 × 10–2 J
(4) (4) 7.5 × 10–4 J

8. Two capacitors of capacitance 2 μF and 4

j
μF ,having breakdown voltage 200 V and

4. An electric dipole of dipole moment P is ⃗

ra 250 V respectively are connected in parallel.
The maximum charge that can be stored on
the combination is
(1) 1200 μC
located in a region of uniform electric field E
rth
making an angle θ to the field. The dipole is (2) 1500 μC
to be rotated by 180° from the initial position (3) 1000 μC
of dipole. Then work done by external agent (4) 400 μC
is
(1) pE cosθ
9. Figure shows the electric field lines due to a
ia

(2) 2pE cosθ point charge. The potential difference (VB –

(3) 2pE sinθ VA ) is
(4) –2pE cosθ
@

5. In a region electric potential V(x, y, z) is

given as xyz. The electric field at point P(1, –
2, 3) is
(1) 12^ ^ ^
i + 3 j + 2k

(2) ^ ^ ^
−6 i − 3 j + 2k

(3) ^ ^ ^
6 i − 3 j + 2k

(4) ^ ^ ^
−12 i + 3 j − 2k

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) None of the above

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

10. Sixty four identical drops of water having 14. The electric potential, at the centre of the
equal charge combine to form a bigger drop. given regular hexagon of side 1 m, due to
The factor by which potential of bigger drop the charges placed at its vertices, as shown
change in comparison to a small drop is in figure is
(1) 64
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 8

11. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of

4μC. The potential difference, through which
it should move to acquire a speed of 10 m/s,
starting from rest, is
(1) 100 kV (1) 700 V
(2) 75 kV (2) Zero
(3) 50 kV (3) 7 V
(4) 25 kV (4) 70 V

12. Two capacitors of capacitance 2 μF and 15. Electric potential energy of a uniformly
5 μF are connected across a 7 V battery in charged metal sphere of charge Q and
series as shown in figure. radius R in free space is
(1) Q 2

2πε0 R

(2) Q
2

8πε0 R

(3) 2Q
2

π ε0 R

(4) Q
2

4πε0 R

16. On closing the switch S, the amount of

charge flows from A to B is
After the 2 capacitors are fully charged the
battery is replaced by a closed switch.
The common potential (VC ) across the two
capacitors is
(1) Zero
(2) 7 V (1) 5 μC
(3) 7 V (2) 10 μC
10
(3) 3.15 μC
(4) 7
​V
2 (4) Zero

13. Capacitance of a conductor depends on 17. Flow of charge through the switch S on
(1) Charge on it (Q) closing it, is
(2) Its potential (V)
(3) Shape and size of conductor
(4) All of these

(1) Zero
(2) Q
(3) Q
3

(4) 2Q

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

18. The capacitance between the points A and B 22. Figure shows three equipotential surfaces in
of the combination is the uniform electric field. If t1 and t2 be the
distance between them, then

(1) 9
μF
4

(2) 92
μF
12

(3) 32
μF
12

(4) 87
μF
12

19. Figure shows a set of equipotential surface. (1) t1 > t2

An electron is being moved from one point to (2) t1 = t2
other.
(3) t1 < t2
(4) None of the above

23. Equivalent capacitance of the circuit across

the points A and B shown below will be

Work done by the electric field, in moving the

electron
(1) From A to B is more than from B to C
(2) From A to B is less than from B to C
(3) From A to B and from B to C are zero
(4) From A to B is same as from B to C

20. Figure shows the electric lines of force

emerging from a point charge. The shape of
the equipotential surface is
(1) C
(2) 6C
(3) 4
C
7

(4) 15C

12

24. In the figure given below a potential of

+1200 V is given to point A. Potential of the
(1) Planer
point P will be
(2) Cylindrical
(3) Spherical
(4) May be planer or cylindrical

21. A proton is accelerated from rest through a

pontential of 100 volts. Its final kinetic energy
is
(1) 50 eV (1) 100 V
(2) 100 eV (2) 200 V
(3) 200 eV (3) 400 V
(4) 400 eV (4) 600 V

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

25. An electric dipole of dipole moment P

⃗
is 30. The capacitance C of capacitor is
(1) Independent of the geometrical
placed in uniform electric field E⃗ , has configuration of capacitor
maximum potential energy when the angle
(2) Independent of the dielectric medium
between E⃗ and P will
⃗
be between the two conducting surfaces of
(1) 0° a capacitor
(2) 90° (3) Independent of charge and potential of
(3) 120° the capacitor
(4) 180° (4) Dependent on the charge and
independent of potential.

26. An infinite sheet of charge has a surface

charge density of 8.85 ×10–7 C/m2 . The 31. Three capacitors, with capacitance equal to
separation between two equipotential 6 μF, 6 μF and 3 μF respectively are
surfaces, whose potentials differ by 10 V is connected in series with 20 volt line. Find
the charge on 3 μF.
(1) 0.2 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 20 cm

27. A : Capacity of a given conductor remains

same even if charge is varied on it.
R : Capacitance depends upon medium,
shape and size of conductor.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and
(1) 20 μC
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (2) 30 μC
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but (3) 40 μC
the reason is not the correct (4) 50 μC
explanation of the assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but
32. The electric potential energy of the system of
Reason is false
four point charges as shown in the figure is
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

28. A hollow metal sphere of radius 7 cm is

charged so that the potential on its surface is
20 V. The potential at the centre of the
sphere is
(1) 0 V
(1) 97.4 J
(2) 20 V
(2) 974 × 10–5 J
(3) Same as at point 7 cm away from the
surface (3) 97.4 × 10–3 J
(4) Same as at point 25 cm away from the (4) 9.74 J
surface
33. Two capacitor of 6 μF and 12 μF, each rated
29. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor is 5 to 200 V respectively are connected in
μF. When a glass plate is placed between series. The maximum voltage that can be
the plates of the capacitor, its potential applied to the series combination of the
becomes 1/8 th of the original value. The given capacitors is
value of dielectric constant will be (1) 200 V
(1) 1.6 (2) 400 V
(2) 5 (3) 300 V
(3) 8 (4) 600 V
(4) 40

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

34. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is

given by V = – xy2 – x2 z3 + 4. The electric
field at that point is
(1) 2 3 ˆ ˆ 2 2ˆ
(y + 2z ) i + 2xy j + 3x z k

(2) 2 3 ˆ ˆ 2 2ˆ
(y + 2z x) i + 2xy j + 3x z k

(3) 2 3 ˆ ˆ 2 2ˆ
(y + 2z x) i + 2x j + 3x z k

(4) 2 3 ˆ ˆ 2 2ˆ
(y + 2z ) i + 2y j + 3x z k

35. Figure shows a set of equipotential surface.

The magnitude and direction of electric field
that exists in the region will be

(1) 10 V/m along positive x-axis

(2) 10 V/m along negative x-axis
(3) 5 V/m along positive y-axis
(4) 5 V/m along negative y-axis

SECTION-B

36. Several 10 pF capacitors are given, each 38. →

capable of withstanding 100 V. To construct An electric field E = 10xˆ i exists in the

an arrangement of capacitors with minimum space. Taking potential at(5 m, 8 m) to be

number of capacitors having capacity 10 pF zero, the potential at the origin is
and capable of withstanding of 500 V, the (1) –100 V
minimum number of capacitors in the (2) –150 V
arrangement should be
(3) 175 V
(1) 50
(4) 125 V
(2) 25
(3) 75
39. The separation between the plates of a
(4) 100 parallel plate capacitor after disconnected
from a battery, is increased. The electric field
37. As shown in figure initially S1 is closed and between the plates
S2 is open. Then S1 is opened, after that S2 (1) Increases
is closed. Energy lost in the second process (2) Decreases
is (3) Remains same
(4) First increases then decreases

40. How much kinetic energy will be gained by

an α-particle which is going from a point 80
V to another point 40 V?
(1) CE2 (1) 40 eV
(2) 60 eV
(2) 2CE2
(3) 80 eV
(3) 3CE
2

2
(4) 20 eV
(4) CE
2

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

41. The work done in taking a –1 nC charge 46. A dielectric slab is inserted between the
from point P to Q through a circular path plates of an isolated capacitor, the force
shown is (OP = OQ = 1 m) between the plates will
(1) Become zero
(2) Remain same
(3) Increase
(4) Decrease

47. The capacitance of capacitor of plate areas

A1 and A2 (A1 < A2 ) at a distance d is

(1) 18 μJ
(2) 36 μJ
(3) 9 μJ
(4) Zero

42. Equipotential surfaces corresponding to

electric field due to infinite charged sheet
are
(1) Spherical (1) ε0 A1

d
(2) Cylindrical
(2) ε0 A2

(3) Circular d

(4) Planar (3) ε0 ( A1 + A2 )

d

(4)
43. In bringing an electron towards a proton the ε0 √A1 A2

electrostatic potential energy of the system d

(1) Becomes zero

(2) Increases 48. The angle between electric lines of force
(3) Decreases and equipotential surface is
(4) Remains same (1) 30º
(2) 60º
44. A particle having charge –q and mass m is (3) 90º
released from rest on the axis of a fixed ring (4) 180º
of total charge Q and radius R from a
–
distance √3 R . Its kinetic energy when it
reaches the centre of ring is

(1) Qq

4πε0 R

(2) Qq

8πε0 R

(3) Qq

2πε0 R

(4) Qq

16πε0 R

45. The gradient of electric potential is a

(1) Constant
(2) Conversion factor
(3) Scalar quantity
(4) Vector quantity

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

49. The capacitance of infinite circuit, consisting

of identical capacitors of 10 μF each is

–
(1) 5( √5 + 1)μF
−−
(2) 10( √10 + 1)μF
−−
(3) 10( √10 − 1)μF
–
(4) 5( √5 − 1)μF

50. A point charge Q is placed inside an

uncharged conducting spherical shell of
inner radius 3R and outer radius 5R at a
distance R from the centre of the shell. The
electric potential at the centre of the shell will
be
(1) 1 7Q
4πε0 9R

(2) 1 Q

4πε0 R

(3) 1 5Q

4πε0 6R

(4) 1 13Q

4πε0 15R

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. 100 ml 2 M glucose solution is diluted by 56. 3% (w/v) aqueous solution of glucose would
adding 700 ml of water. Molarity of the be isotonic with
resultant solution becomes (1) 1%(w/v) aqueous solution of urea
(1) 0.35 M (2) 1% (w/v) aqueous solution of Benzoic
(2) 0.75 M acid
(3) 0.25 M (3) 1% (w/v) aqueous solution of CaCl2
(4) 1.2 M (4) 1% (w/v) aqueous solution of NaCl

52. 64 g methanol is dissolved in 126 g of water. 57. The system that forms minimum boiling
The mole fraction of methanol in the solution azeotrope is
is (1) CHCl3 + C6 H6
(1) 2
7 (2) CH3 OH + H2 O
(2) 2
(3) HNO3 + H2 O
9

(3) 2 (4) n-hexane + n-heptane

5

(4) 4

7
58. The mass of urea that would be dissolved in
180 g of water in order to produce the same
lowering of vapour pressure as is produced
53. If the mole fraction of acetone in water is 0.2 by dissolving 19 g of cane sugar
then the mass percentage (w/w) of acetone (C12 H22 O11 ) in 100 g of water is
in the solution will be (Molar mass of
(1) 10 g
acetone = 58 g mol–1 )
(2) 5 g
(1) 44.6%
(3) 3.5 g
(2) 52.4%
(4) 6 g
(3) 32.8%
(4) 18.5%
59. Which of the following is not a colligative
property?
54. Consider the following
(1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
Henry’s law constant (2) Elevation in the boiling point
Gas (K /kbar) at 298 K
H
(3) Freezing point
He 144.97 (4) Osmotic pressure
H2 69.16
O2 34.86 60. Which of the following is/are correct
statement about azeotropic mixture?
N2 76.48
(1) Mixture of two liquids
The correct order of increasing solubility is
(2) Constant boiling mixtures
(1) He < N2 < H2 < O2
(3) Cannot be separated by fractional
(2) O2 < H2 < N2 < He distillation
(3) N2 < H2 < He < O2 (4) All of these
(4) N2 < He < O2 < H2
61. Which of the following solution will exhibit
highest boiling point?
55. Which of the following is true for an ideal
solution? (1) 0.1 M glucose
(1) ΔmixH = 0 (2) 0.1 M NaCl
(3) 0.1 M CaCl2
(2) ΔmixV > 0
(4) 0.1 M AlCl3
(3) ΔmixG = 0
(4) ΔmixS = 0

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

62. If 0.1 molal aqueous solution of MgSO4 69. The tanks used by scuba divers are filled
freezes at –0.225°C, then degree of with
dissociation of MgSO4 is (1) He
(Kf for H2 O is 1.86 Kkg mol–1 ) (2) N2
(1) 1.85 (3) O2
(2) 1.21 (4) All of these
(3) 0.21
(4) 1.9 70. van’t Hoff factor of acetic acid which shows
10% dimerization in water is
63. The osmotic pressure of 0.5 M aqueous (1) 0.95
solution of cane sugar at 300 K is (R = (2) 0.75
0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1 ) (3) 0.80
(1) 0.123 atm (4) 0.90
(2) 6.12 atm
(3) 1.23 atm 71. If 5 mol of liquid A and 10 mol of liquid B are
(4) 12.3 atm mixed to form an ideal solution then the total
pressure of the solution will be (P0A = 200
64. Azeotropic composition of nitric acid and mm Hg and P0B = 400 mm Hg)
water mixture is (by mass) (1) 310 mm Hg
(1) 50% nitric acid and 50% water (2) 423 mm Hg
(2) 1% nitric acid and 99% water
(3) 333.3 mm Hg
(3) 99% nitric acid and 1% water
(4) 410 mm Hg
(4) 68% nitric acid and 32% water

72.
65. The Relative lowering of vapour pressure of The ratio ΔTf for K4 [Fe(CN)6 ] solution
aqueous solution containing a non–volatile (assuming complete ionization) to sugar
solute is 0.0125. The molality of the solution solution of equimolal concentrations is
is nearly (1) 4:1
(1) 0.70 (2) 5:2
(2) 0.50 (3) 5:1
(3) 0.80
(4) 4:15
(4) 0.40

73. Which of the following would produce

66. The vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A maximum elevation in boiling point?
is 0.80 atm. When a non–volatile substance (1) 0.1 M glucose
B is added to the solvent, its vapour
pressure drops to 0.60 atm. What is the mole (2) 0.1 M Urea
fraction of component B in the solution? (3) 0.1 M barium chloride
(1) 0.75 (4) 0.1 M magnesium sulphate
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.40 74. If osmotic pressure of 1 M of the following
(4) 0.60 aqueous solution can be measured. Which
one will show the maximum osmotic
pressure? (Assuming 100% ionisation)
67. Which colligative property is widely used to (1) AgNO3
determine molar masses of biomolecules?
(1) Osmotic pressure (2) MgCl2
(2) Depression in freezing point (3) (NH4 )3 PO4
(3) Elevation in boiling point (4) Na2 SO4
(4) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

68. 18 g of glucose is present in 250 g of water.

The freezing point of the aqueous solution of
glucose is (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1 )
(1) –1.52°C
(2) –2.5°C
(3) –0.74°C
(4) –1.85°C

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

75. Which of the following options represent the 80. The van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M AlCl3 solution
correct relation? is found to be 2.74. The percentage
(1) K = R×M ×Δ H 1 fus dissociation of the salt is
f
(1) 85%
2
1000×T
f

(2) R×M1 ×T
2

f
(2) 58%
Kf =
1000×Δfus H (3) 65%
(3) Kf =
Δfus H×1000
(4) 50%
2
R×M1 ×T
f

(4) Kf =
R×M1 ×1000
81. A non-volatile solute is dissolved in water to
2
Δfus H×T
f
prepare 1 molal solution. Relative lowering
of vapour pressure of the solvent would be
76. The molal elevation constant for water is (1) 0.0015
0.513o C kg/mol. When 0.1 mole of sugar is (2) 0.0176
dissolved in 200 ml of water the solution (3) 0.056
boils under a pressure of one atmosphere at
(4) 0.17
(1) 100.513o C
(2) 100.0513o C 82. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in
(3) 100.256o C benzene is determined by depression in
freezing point method. This involves
(4) 101.025o C
(1) Ionisation of benzoic acid
(2) Dimerization of benzoic acid
77. What is the freezing point of a solution (3) Trimerization of benzoic acid
containing 8.1 g HBr in 100 g water
assuming the acid to be 90%. Ionised (Kf for (4) Tetramerization of benzoic acid

water =1.86 K mole–1 )

(1) 0.85o C 83. Which one of the following is correct for
non–ideal solution?
(2) –3.53o C
(1) Δ Hmix = 0
(3) 0o C
(2) Δ Vmix = 0
(4) –0.35o C
(3) Δ Smix = 0

(4) Δ Gmix ≠ 0
78. The Azeotropic mixture of water (BP =
100o C) and HCl (BP = 85o C) boils at
108.5o C. When this mixture is distilled it is 84. If 6.2g of ethylene glycol (C2 H6 O2 ) is
possible to obtain mixed with 500g of water. The freezing point
(1) Pure HCl of the solution obtained will be (Kf for water
(2) Pure water = 1.86 K kg mol–(1)
(3) Pure water as well as pure HCl (1) 270.95 K
(4) Neither HCl nor H2 O in their pure (2) 272.63 K
states (3) 169.5 K
(4) 373.372 K
79. One mole of non–volatile solute is dissolved
in 3 moles of water. The vapour pressure of 85. If 0.3 molal monobasic acid is 30% ionised
solution relative to that of water would be in an aqueous solution, then the freezing
(1) 2 point of the solution will be (Given Kf = 1.86
3
Km–1 )
(2) 3

4 (1) –0.51°C
(3) 3
(2) –0.73°C
2
(3) –0.85°C
(4) 1

4
(4) –0.25°C

SECTION-B

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

86. Molal elevation constant (Kb ) is also known 93. Which of the following solutions in water
as possesses the highest vapour pressure at
(1) Cryoscopic constant room temperature?
(2) Ebullioscopic constant (1) 0.1M NaCl
(3) Henry’s law constant (2) 0.1M MgCl
2
(4) Solubility product (3) 0.1M glucose
(4) 0.1M AgNO
3
87. Vapour pressure of B in binary solution of A (
0 0
P
A
= 400 mm Hg) and B (PB = 600 mm Hg)
in which A and B are added in molar ratio of 94. A : When 10 ml of benzene is mixed with 20
2 : 3, is ml of toluene then net volume of solution is
30 ml
(1) 520 mm Hg R : Benzene and toluene on mixing form
(2) 360 mm Hg ideal solution.
(3) 200 mm Hg (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) 600 mm Hg the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
88. Solution having same osmotic pressure is the reason is not the correct
known
explanation of the assertion
(1) Isotonic
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) Isobaric is false
(3) Hypertonic (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) Hypotonic statements

89. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B 95. Assertion (A) : The van’t Hoff factor of Hg2 l2
are 200 and 350 mm Hg respectively, at 300 when it 100% ionised is 3.
K. Mole fraction of liquid A in a mixture Reason (R) : It is dissociated to form
having its vapour pressure 305 mm of Hg is mercurous (dimer) and iodide ions.
(1) 0.5 (1) (A) is True, (R) is True; (R) is a correct
(2) 0.4 explanation for (A)
(3) 0.3 (2) (A) is True, (R) is True; (R) is NOT a
correct explanation for (A)
(4) 0.2
(3) (A) is True, (R) is False
(4) (A) is False, (R) is True
90. Colligative properties are defined only when
(1) Solute is non-volatile and solvent is
volatile 96. 0.05 molar, 200 ml A and 0.1 molar, 50 ml B
are mixed at 27°C. Vapour pressure of pure
(2) Solvent is non-volatile and solute is
A and pure B is 200 mm Hg and 50 mm Hg
volatile
respectively at 27°C. Then ratio of partial
(3) Both solute and solvent are volatile pressures of A and B (in vapour phase) after
(4) Both solute and solvent are non- mixing is
volatile (1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
91. Select the correct statement. (3) 2 : 3
(1) For association of a solute, i = 1 (4) 4 : 1
(2) For complete dissociation of K2 SO4 , i =
2
(3) For urea solution i = 1
(4) For dissociation of solute, i = 1

92. 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte

X3 Y2 is 25% ionised. The boiling point of the
solution is (Kb for H2 O = 0.52 K kg/mol)
(1) 375.5 K
(2) 374.04 K
(3) 377.12 K
(4) 373.25 K

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

97. A : Vapour pressure of 0.1M aqueous NaCl 99. 3.7 g of calcium hydroxide is dissolved in
is less than 0.1M aqueous urea solution at 100 g of water. Assuming the base to be
25°C 80% ionised, the freezing point of the
R : More the surface area, more will be the solution will be (Kf for water = 1.86 K mole–1
vapour pressure of a liquid at a fixed kg)
temperature.
(1) –2.79°C
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of (2) –0.9°C
the assertion (3) –2.418°C
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (4) –0.744°C
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
100. What will be the value of PBo if total pressure
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
of the solution is given by PTotal = 75 +
is false
150XB mm Hg?
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (1) 225 mm Hg
(2) 200 mm Hg
98. At 100ºC, the vapour pressure of a solution (3) 75 mm Hg
of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 722 mm (4) 150 mm Hg
of Hg. Mole fraction of the solute in the
solution is (vapour pressure of water = 760
mm of Hg)
(1) 0.01
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.25

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Water pollinated flowers are neither 106. Perisperm is

colourful nor produce nectar because (1) Present in all dicot plants
(1) Plants use colourful flowers and nectar (2) Persistent nucellus
to attract insects for pollination
(3) Rudimentary endosperm
(2) Colour and nectar are destroyed in the
flowers due to water (4) Present only in monocot plants
(3) They do not get sufficient light
(4) Pollen grains of hydrophilous flower 107. Which of the following adaptations ensures
are toxic and animals get sick seed formation even in the absence of any
pollinating agent?
(1) Protogyny
102. Which of the following has been used in the
(2) Dichogamy
form of tablets as a food supplement?
(3) Cleistogamy
(1) Pollens
(2) Sepals (4) Protandry
(3) Pistils
(4) Petals 108. How apomixis can be beneficial to the
hybrid seed industry?
(1) Seeds will become too expensive for
103. Which of the following statements are the farmers
correct w.r.t. development of embryo sac in
(2) Progeny plants will not be able to
majority of angiosperms?
maintain hybrid characters
a. Occurence of asymmetric meiotic
divisions. (3) There will be no segregation of
b. Organisation of three nuclei to form egg characters in the hybrid progeny
apparatus. (4) Hybrid seed cultivation will decrease
c. Organisation of diploid antipodal cells at productivity
chalazal end.
d. Occurence of free-nuclear mitotic division
to form 8-nucleated stage. 109. When the pollen grain in angiosperms is
mature then
(1) a & b
(1) It has two diploid nuclei
(2) b & c
(2) Its plasma membrane is broken down
(3) a & c to release the pollens
(4) b & d (3) It contains two cells
(4) It has single cell only with single
104. In Citrus, seeds haploid nucleus
(1) May have genetically identical embryos
(2) Can never be apomictic 110. In angiosperm which one is not haploid?
(3) Have coleorhiza as the covering of (1) Egg cell
radicle (2) Synergid cell
(4) Contain haploid embryos only (3) PEN
(4) Antipodal cell
105. Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils
because of the
111. In which of the following plants, the mature
(1) Absence of sporopollenin in germ
seeds have endosperm?
pores
(1) Pea
(2) Pecto-cellulosic intine
(2) Groundnut
(3) Presence of sporopollenin in exine
(3) Castor
(4) Long viability and spherical shape
(4) Bean

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

112. All of the following are the features of flowers 117. The female reproductive organ of Papaver
pollinated by insects, except and Michelia have respectively
(1) Large size (1) Multicarpellary, syncarpus pistil, and
(2) Presence of nectaries monocarpellary, apocarpus pistil
(3) Colourful petals (2) Multicarpellary, apocarpus pistil, and
multicarpellary, syncarpus pistil
(4) Non-sticky pollen grains
(3) Multicarpellary, syncarpus pistil, and
multicarpellary, apocarpus pistil
113. Triple fusion is required for the formation of (4) Bicarpellary syncarpus, and
(1) Embryo bicarpellary, apocarpus
(2) Seed coat
(3) Fruit wall 118. An aquatic plant that is not pollinated by
(4) Endosperm water is
(1) Vallisneria
114. Consider the following assertion (A) and (2) Hydrilla
reason (R) and choose the correct option (3) Zostera
A : Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless. (4) Water lily
R : Parthenogenesis is the formation of fruit
without fertilisation.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true 119. Number of megasporangium per ovary is
and the reason is the correct one in
explanation of the assertion (1) Papaya
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but (2) Paddy
the reason is not the correct (3) Water melon
explanation of the assertion
(4) Orchids
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 120. Select the odd one w.r.t. ploidy level of given
statements structures/cells regarding ovule of flowering
plants.
(1) MMC
115. A typical angiosperm female gametophyte,
(2) Integument
at maturity
(1) Has an egg-apparatus in the large (3) Nucellus
central cell (4) Megaspore
(2) Is 7-celled though 8-nucleate
(3) Shows three cells at the micropylar end 121. Chasmogamous and cleistogamous both
called antipodals types of flowers are produced in
(4) Is a two celled structure, one called the (1) Oxalis
vegetative cell and other the generative (2) Hibiscus
cell
(3) Maize
(4) Papaya
116. Which of the following sequence shows the
correct development of female
gametophyte in flowering plants? 122. Read the following statements and select
the correct option.
(1) meiosis meiosis
Nucellus −−→ megaspore −−→ female Statement A : Single large shield-shaped
gametophyte cotyledon of maize seed is called epiblast.
Statement B : Coconut water from tender
(2) mitosis
coconut is its free nuclear endosperm.
Nucellus −−→ megaspore mother cell
meiosis mitosis (1) Only statement A is incorrect
−−→megaspore −−→ female (2) Only statement B is incorrect
gametophyte
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) meiosis
Megaspore mother cell −−→ nucellus (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
mitosis
−−→
123. The correct sequence of different parts of
megaspore → female gametophyte
an ovule from outside to inside is
(4) meiosis
Nucellus −−→ megaspore mother cell (1) Nucellus, Integument, Embryo sac
mitosis meiosis (2) Integument, Nucellus, Embryo sac
−−→ megaspore −−→ female
(3) Nucellus, Funicle, Chalaza
gametophyte
(4) Integument, Funicle, Nucellus

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

124. Seeds of black pepper and beet 130. Vegetative cell of pollen grain
(1) Lack seed coat (1) Has large irregular shaped nucleus
(2) Have persistent nucellus (2) Is spindle shaped with dense
(3) Lack embryo cytoplasm
(4) Are not covered within fruit wall (3) Floats in the cytoplasm of generative
cell
(4) Divides into two male gametes
125. In the seeds of some grasses, there are
remains of second cotyledon. It is called
(1) Coleorhiza 131. Male gametophyte in angiosperms is
(2) Epiblast represented by
(1) Pollen grain
(3) Coleoptile
(2) Male gamete
(4) Radicle
(3) Microsporangium
(4) Stamen
126. A typical mature anther in angiosperms
is/has
(1) Dithecous 132. In non-albuminous seeds
(2) Bisporangiate structure (1) Endosperm is not formed
(3) Open vascular bundles (2) Endosperm is rich in proteins only
(4) Wrapped around by filament (3) Endosperm is completely consumed by
developing embryo
(4) Endosperm is haploid
127. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
tapetum.
(1) It is the innermost layer of anther 133. Formation of zygote in angiosperms is the
(2) It nourishes the developing pollen result of
grains (1) Syngamy
(3) Its cells possess dense cytoplasm (2) Gametogenesis
(4) Its cells generally have more than one (3) Pseudofertilization
haploid nucleus (4) Fusion of two haploid polar nuclei

128. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis is 134. Hilum represents the junction between

referred to (1) Funicle and ovary wall
(1) Formation of pollen mother cell from (2) Ovule and funicle
megaspore
(3) Chalaza and integument
(2) Formation of pollen mother cell from
microspore (4) Funicle and micropyle
(3) Germination of pollen grain on the
stigma 135. Apomixis is
(4) Formation of microspores by meiotic (1) Fruit formation without fertilisation
division (2) Seed formation without fertilisation
(3) A type of sexual reproduction
129. As an outbreeding device, self (4) An important step of double fertilisation
incompatibility is process
(1) A genetically controlled mechanism
(2) The germination of pollen grains before
its maturity
(3) The germination of pollen grains within
the anther
(4) Failure of pollination due to lack of
pollinating agents

SECTION-B

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

136. Water pollination is commonly seen in some 143. All of the following involve landing of
genera of genetically similar pollen grains to the
(1) Dicots stigma, except
(2) Monocots (1) Autogamy
(3) Pteridophytes (2) Bud pollination
(4) Gymnosperms (3) Geitonogamy
(4) Xenogamy
137. A dicot seed which retain a part of
endosperm as it is not completely used is 144. Outbreeding devices promote
(1) Barley (1) Self pollination
(2) Castor (2) Inbreeding depression
(3) Maize (3) Xenogamy
(4) Wheat (4) Loss of genetic variation

138. In most of the flowering plants, the entry of 145. Select the odd one w.r.t. female reproductive
pollen tube into ovule takes place through structure of a flower
(1) Chalaza (1) Micropyle
(2) Integument (2) Embryo sac
(3) Hilum (3) Nucellus
(4) Micropyle (4) Germ pore

139. An event unique to flowering plants is 146. After how much recorded years of dormancy
(1) Embryo formation Lupinus arcticus seed germinated and
flowered?
(2) Seed formation
(1) 500 years
(3) Syngamy
(2) 2000 years
(4) Triple fusion
(3) 10,000 years
(4) 1,00,000 years
140. Water pollination is observed in
(1) Grasses
147. Female flowers of Vallisneria do not have
(2) Water hyacinth
(1) Sticky stigma
(3) Water lily
(2) Unwettable stigma
(4) Hydrilla
(3) Nectaries
(4) Very long pedicel
141. Which of the following cell/nuclei is only one
in a typical embryo sac?
(1) Synergids 148. Which of the following adaptations of flowers
/ plant promote inbreeding depression?
(2) Polar nuclei
(1) Dioecy, hermaphrodite flowers,
(3) Antipodals homogamy
(4) Central cell
(2) Self-incompatibility, heterostyly
(3) Homogamy, bisexuality, cleistogamy
142. Which of the following is the most important (4) Bud pollination, dichogamy
advantage that seeds provide to
angiosperms?
(1) Being products of sexual reproduction 149. Non-essential whorls of a flower are
they generate new genetic (1) Androecium and calyx
combinations leading to variations (2) Gynoecium and corolla
(2) Seed is the basis of our agriculture (3) Gynoecium and androecium
(3) They can be stored and used as food (4) Calyx and corolla
throughout the year
(4) They stop the dispersal of angiosperms
to new habitats 150. Pollen grains of cereals, such as wheat,
loose viability
(1) After several months
(2) In 20 hours
(3) After 60 minutes
(4) Within 30 minutes

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. The part of fallopian tube that is funnel 155. Regulation of gonadal function during
shaped and closer to the ovary is reproductive phase of a human is given in
(1) Isthmus following figure. Identify A, B, C and D.
(2) Ampulla
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Uterine fundus

152. How many sperms and ova will be produced

from 100 primary spermatocytes and 100
primary oocytes respectively?
(1) 200 sperms and 50 ova
(2) 400 sperms and 100 ova
(3) 100 sperms and 100 ova
(4) 400 sperms and 400 ova

153. Choose the incorrect statement with respect

to mammary gland and lactation
(1) Each mammary gland has 15-20
mammary lobes
(2) Estrogen is an ovarian hormone
(3) Progesterone causes secretion of milk
(1) (1)
in mammary duct
(2) (2)
(4) Oxytocin causes ejection of milk
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
154. A temporary gland which is a remnant of the
Graafian follicle after ovulation is
(1) Corpus spongiosum 156. Mammary ampulla is connected to ‘X’
(2) Corpus luteum through which milk is sucked out. This ‘X’ is
known as
(3) Corpus callosum
(1) Mammary duct
(4) Corpora quadrigemina
(2) Lactiferous duct
(3) Alveolar duct
(4) Mammary tubule

157. The first menstruation in the female primates

begins at puberty and is called
(1) Amenorrhea
(2) Menarche
(3) Menopause
(4) Dysmenorrhea

158. Glans penis is covered by a loose fold of

skin which is known as
(1) Hymen
(2) Scrotal sac
(3) Foreskin
(4) Clitoris

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

159. FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates 166. The sequential phases of a single menstrual
secretion of some factors which help in the cycle in uterus are
process of (1) Menstrual → Secretory → Follicular
(1) Ejaculation (2) Follicular → Ovulatory → Luteal
(2) Spermiogenesis (3) Ovulatory → Luteal → Follicular
(3) Insemination (4) Menstrual → Proliferative → Secretory
(4) Ovulation
167. Approximately, by the end of which month of
160. Choose the incorrect statement regarding pregnancy do the eyelids separate and
reproduction in human beings. eyelashes are formed?
(1) Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli (1) 2nd month
cells
(2) 3rd month
(2) Interstitial cells synthesize androgens
(3) 5th month
(3) Ovulation is induced by a hormone
called progesterone (4) 6th month
(4) During ovulation, one ovum is released
per menstrual cycle.
168. The urethra originates from the (a) and
¯¯¯¯¯¯
161. Transfer of sperms into the female genital extends through the (b) and opens outside
¯¯¯¯¯¯
tract is known as via an opening called the (c) .
(1) Implantation Select the option that ¯¯¯fills
¯¯¯
the blanks
(2) Fertilization correctly.
(3) Insemination (1) (a) Urinary bladder, (b) Penis, (c)
Urethral meatus
(4) Ejaculation
(2) (a) Penis, (b) Ejaculatory duct, (c)
Urethral meatus
162. Interstitial space is present outside the
(3) (a) Urinary bladder, (b) Penis, (c)
seminiferous tubules, containing Leydig
Foreskin
cells which synthesize and secrete
hormones called (4) (a) - Prostate, (b) - Penis, (c) Urethral
(1) Progesterone meatus
(2) Cortisol
(3) Androgens 169. Mitochondria is present in which part of
human sperm?
(4) Estrogen
(1) Tail
(2) Neck
163. Which hormone is produced during
(3) Head
pregnancy only?
(1) Estrogen (4) Middle piece

(2) hPL
(3) Progesterone 170. In a human female, menstruation can be
deferred by the administration of
(4) LH
(1) FSH
(2) LH
164. Spermatids are formed from
(3) Relaxin
(1) Primary spermatocytes
(4) Progesterone
(2) Spermatogonia
(3) Secondary spermatocytes
171. Zygote moves through the isthmus of the
(4) Spermatozoan oviduct towards the uterus with the help of
(1) Ciliary movement of sperms
165. In human females, how many primary (2) Ciliary movement of epithelium in
follicles are left in each ovary at puberty? oviduct
(1) 6,000 – 8,000 (3) Fimbriae
(2) 6 – 8 (4) Pseudopodial movement
(3) 60,000 – 80,000
(4) 600 – 800

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

172. At full term, pregnant women undergo ____ 179. The hormone which remains at its lowest
to deliver the foetus. Choose the option concentration during ovulation is
which correctly fills the blank. (1) LH
(1) Lactation (2) FSH
(2) Gestation (3) Estrogen
(3) Parturition (4) Progesterone
(4) Embryogenesis
180. Fleshy folds of tissue which extend down the
173. The process of release of mature mons pubis and surround vaginal opening
spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into the are
lumen of seminiferous tubules is called (1) Labia minora
(1) Spermateleosis (2) Labia majora
(2) Ejaculation (3) Hymen
(3) Spermiation (4) Clitoris
(4) Spermiogenesis
181. Select the correct sequence of reproductive
174. Mucous plug is formed in cervix during events in humans.
pregnancy under the influence of hormone (1) Fertilization → Insemination →
(1) Estrogen Gestation → Parturition
(2) Progesterone (2) Insemination → Gestation →
(3) LH Implantation → Parturition
(4) Estrogen and progesterone (3) Gametogenesis → Fertilization →
Implantation → Parturition
(4) Gametogenesis → Implantation →
175. Temporary endocrine glands in humans Insemination → Gestation
is/are
(1) Mammary glands
182. Ovarian follicles are present in
(2) Placenta
(1) Ovarian capsule
(3) Bartholin gland
(2) Cortex of ovarian stroma
(4) Prostate gland
(3) Medulla of ovarian stroma
(4) Ovarian ligament
176. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of embryonic development
stages? 183. Match following column A and B.
(1) Zygote → Morula → Blastocyst → Column-A Column-B
Gastrula Human heart is th
(2) Morula → Zygote → Blastocyst → a. (i) During 5 month
formed of gestation
Gastrula
At the end of first
(3) Blastocyst → Zygote → Gastrula → Development of
b. (ii) trimester of
Morula limbs and digits
pregnancy
(4) Gastrula → Zygote → Blastocyst → Major organ By the end of 2nd
Morula c. systems are (iii) month of
formed pregnancy
177. The major source of gonadotropin in a post- First movement of After one month
pubertal human female between day 7 to 12 d. (iv)
foetus is observed of pregnancy
of the menstrual cycle is Choose the option containing all correct
(1) Ovarian follicle match.
(2) Corpus luteum (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Pituitary gland (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Graafian follicles (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
178. The process of fusion of a sperm with an
ovum is called
(1) Spermiation
(2) Fertilization
(3) Insemination
(4) Ejaculation

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

184. Oogonia formed in female fetus start division

in early embryonic life and are arrested at
which stage of meiotic division?
(1) Metaphase I
(2) Prophase I
(3) Anaphase I
(4) Prophase II

185. How many ova will be released by each

ovary in a year?
(1) 13
(2) 12
(3) Less then 6
(4) 6

SECTION-B

186. Below is the diagrammatic sectional view of 188. Spermatogenesis in males begins
female pelvis showing reproductive system. (1) Before birth
(2) At puberty
(3) Before puberty
(4) During third trimester of embryonic
development

189. The non-cellular layer known as zona

pellucida is secreted by
(1) Primary oocyte
Select the option with correct labelling. (2) Secondary oocyte
(1) a – Urethra, b – Clitoris, c – Labia (3) Granulosa cells
minora, d – Labia majora (4) Primary follicle
(2) a – Pubic symphysis, b – urethra, c –
Labia minora, d – Labia majora
190. Which of the following is constituent of
(3) a – Urethra, b – Clitoris, c – Vagina, d – semen?
Labia minora (1) Seminal plasma only
(4) a – Pubic symphysis, b – Vaginal (2) Sperm only
orifice, c – Clitoris, d – Labia minora
(3) Seminal plasma along with sperm
(4) Seminal plasma along with ovum
187. Milk can be temporarily stored in which part
of mammary gland?
(1) Mammary duct 191. The term 'birth hormone' is associated with
(2) Mammary alveoli (1) Oxytocin
(3) Lactiferous duct (2) Progesterone
(4) Areola (3) Estrogen
(4) FSH

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TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE02B

192. Capacitation occurs in 197. For the sex of the baby to be a normal
(1) Ejaculatory duct female, the female gamete must fuse with
sperm with sex chromosome
(2) Vasa efferentia
(1) XX
(3) Female reproductive tract
(2) XY
(4) Vas deferens
(3) Y
(4) X
193. Transport of sperms in human male
reproductive system does not involve
(1) Urethra 198. Development of motile sperm from non-
motile spermatid is known as
(2) Cochlear duct
(1) Spermatogenesis
(3) Epididymis
(2) Spermiation
(4) Rete testis
(3) Spermiogenesis
(4) Gametogenesis
194. A pregnant female underwent surgical
removal of both ovaries for medical reasons
in the second trimester. There still would be 199. Choose the correct sequence of structure of
normal growth of fetus because ovum from outside to inside.
(1) Progesterone is not needed for (1) Corona radiata → Zona pellucida →
maintenance of pregnancy after first Vitelline membrane → Perivitelline
trimester space
(2) Mammary glands start secreting (2) Zona pellucida → Corona radiata →
progesterone Vitelline membrane → Perivitelline
(3) Estrogen is secreted in large amounts space
enough for pregnancy duration (3) Corona radiata → Zona pellucida →
(4) After first trimester, placenta secretes Perivitelline space → Vitelline
sufficient progesterone membrane
(4) Corona radiata → Perivitelline space
→ Vitelline membrane → Zona
195. A 25-year old healthy female who was pellucida
otherwise having regular menstrual cycles
suddenly skips menstruation for two
consecutive cycles. The most likely cause of 200. A : GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone is
this is needed in reproduction.
(1) Degradation of corpus luteum R : It stimulates neurohypophysis for
secretion of LH and FSH.
(2) Fertilization of ovum
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(3) Oversecretion of FSH
the reason is the correct explanation of
(4) Onset of menopause the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
196. Which structure lies at the upper junction of the reason is not the correct
the two labia minora above the urethral explanation of the assertion
opening? (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(1) Mons pubis is false
(2) Labia majora (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Oviduct statements
(4) Clitoris

22