G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

SOS HERMANN GMEINER SCHOOL, BAHIR DAR

BIOLOGY SECOND ROUND MODEL EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 12 STUDENTS

APRIL, 2015 /MIAZIYA 2007 EC/

BOOKLET CODE: 32 SUBJECT CODE: 08

TIME ALLOWED: 2 HOURS

GENERAL DIRECTIONS:

THE BOOKLET CONTAINS BIOLOGY EXAMINATION. THE SUBJECT CODE FOR THIS
EXAMINATION IS 32 PLEASE COPY THIS CODE ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET.

THE EXAMINATION CONTAINS A TOTAL OF 100 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. ATTEMPT ALL
THE ITEMS. FOLLOW THE INSTRUCTION ON THE ANSWER SHEET AND THE EXAMINATION PAPER
EXACTLY. USE ONLY PENCIL TO MARK YOUR ANSWRS.

THERE IS ONLY ONE CORRECT ANSWER FOR EACH ITEM. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER
FROM THE SUGGESTED OPTIONS AND BLACKEN THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE ON THE ANSWER
SHEET. YOUR ANSWER MARK SHOULD BE HEAVY AND DARK, COVERING THE ANSWER SPACE
COMPLETELY. PLEASE ERASE ALL UNNECESSARY PENCIL MARKS COMPLETELY FROM YOUR
ANSWER SHEET.

YOU WILL BE ALLOWED TO WORK FOR 2 HOURS. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, YOU
MAY GO BACK AND REVIEW. WHEN TIME IS CALLED, YOU MUST IMMEDIATELY STOP WORKING,
LAY YOUR PENCIL DOWN, AND WAIT FOR FURTHER INSTRUCTIONS.

ANY FORM OF CHEATING OR AN ATTEMPT TO CHEAT IN THE EXAMINATION HALL WILL RESULT
IN AN AUTOMATIC DISMISSAL FROM THE EXAMINATION HALL AND CANCELLATION OF YOUR
SCORE(S)

DO NOT TURN THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

STOP

0 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

I. EVOLUTION
1. The fossil record supports which of the following descriptions of the evolution of life on Earth?
A. Life first appeared with the diversity found today.
B. The importance of natural selection diminished over time.
C. Complex organisms evolved from more simple organisms.
D. Large organisms appeared before single-celled organisms.

2. In humans, the appendix is small and is not needed for digestion. In rabbits, the appendix is well
developed and is used in the digestion of plant fibers. Which of the following provides the best
scientific explanation for the presence of the appendix in both humans and rabbits?
A. Rabbits and humans live in environments with similar conditions.
B. Rabbits and humans are both eukaryotes with similar cell structures.
C. The appendix is evolving into a new type of organ in rabbits and humans.
D. The appendix is inherited from a common ancestor of rabbits and humans.
3. More than 1.5 million species of animals have been described, yet all of them have DNA that is made of
the same building blocks. This is evidence that all animals have
A. a common ancestor. * C. identical fossils.
B. similar appearances. D. the exact same DNA sequences.
4. How is natural selection in the evolution of long necks in giraffes best explained?
A. Shorter-necked giraffes were killed by long-necked giraffes.
B. Giraffe necks grew longer because of the bone structure of the animals.
C. Giraffes with longer necks survived because they were better suited to the environment.
D. Long-necked giraffes mated only with other long-necked giraffes.
5. Which scientific evidence would show that two species of birds are closely related?
A. The two bird species have similar DNA sequences
B. The two bird species eat many of the same insects
C. The two bird species are found in the same area
D. The two bird species have similar feather colors
6. A population of termites initially consists of darkly colored and brightly colored members. After
several generations, the termite population consists almost entirely of darkly colored members
because the brightly colored termites are easier for a predatory species of insectivores to locate.
This situation is an example of
A. The evolution of a new species B. natural selection.
C. artificial selection D. adaptive radiation

1 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

7. Suppose an archeologist discovered remains of plant material which contains one-eight (1/8) of its original
content of C14. If the half-life of C14 is 5,600 years. How old is the plant material?
A. 50,000 yrs B. 16,800 yrs C. 28,000 yrs D. 11,200 yrs
8. Human babies with birth weight far above and below the average weight have less chance of survival than
babies with birth around the average. What sort of natural selection is operating?
A. Disruptive selection C. Stabilizing selection
B. Directional selection D. Diversifying selection
9. Among the following fossil forms of the human evolutionary ancestors, which one was oldest fossil found
in Ethiopia?
A. Homo erectus C. Homo habilis
B. Ardipithecus ramidus D. Australopithecus afarencis
10. Which one of the following is most important for speciation to occur?
A. Hybridization among population C. Isolation of the gene pool
B. Migration between populations D. Free flow of genes between populations
11. Animals without close evolutionary relations are sometimes seen to have similar structures adapted for the
same function. Which evolutionary principle is illustrated by this observation?
A. Convergent evolution C. Divergent evolution
B. Sympatric evolution D. Allopathic evolution
12. The condition in which there are barriers to successful interbreeding between individuals of different
species in the same community is referred to as
A. Sterility B. Structural difference C. Geographical isolation D. Reproductive isolation
13. All of the following were likely present on the primitive Earth during the evolution of self-replicating
molecules EXCEPT
A. Amino acids and nucleotides C. Simple carbohydrates
B. An O2-rich atmosphere D. Freestanding water
II. GENETICS
14. Which of the following occurs during mitosis but not during meiosis I?
A. The chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles of the spindle fibers
B. The chromatids of each chromosomes are separated
C. The nuclear envelope breaks down
D. Both synapsis and crossing over takes place
15. Which of the following best describes the inheritance of a sex-linked trait?
A. a recessive allele carried by females that affects only males
B. a dominant allele carried by females that affects only males
C. an allele carried on the Y chromosome that can affect both males and females
D. an allele carried on an X chromosome that can affect males or females

2 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

16. Which factor most affects the order of amino acids in a protein?
A. the DNA located in the nucleus of the cell
B. the amount of ATP available for the cell’s use
C. the cell in which the protein is located
D. the area in a cell where proteins are produced
17. A scientist puts nucleotide chains of UUUUUU in a test tube under conditions allowing protein synthesis.
Soon the test tube is full of polypeptide chains composed of only the amino acid phenylalanine. What does
this experiment indicate?
A. The amino acid phenylalanine is composed of uracil.
B. UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine.
C. Protein synthesis malfunctions in test tubes.
D. Most proteins contain only one type of amino acid.
18. A scientist wants to prevent a culture of live cells from producing a particular protein. Which of the
following will the scientist most likely modify to prevent the production of the protein?
A. the DNA in the nucleus C. an enzyme in the lysosomes
B. the polysaccharides in the cytoplasm D. a phospholipid in the plasma membrane
19. A genetic mutation resulted in a change in the sequence of amino acids of a protein, but the function of the
protein was not changed. Which statement best describes the genetic mutation?
A. It was a silent mutation that caused a change in the DNA of the organism.
B. It was a silent mutation that caused a change in the phenotype of the organism.
C. It was a nonsense mutation that caused a change in the DNA of the organism.
D. It was a nonsense mutation that caused a change in the phenotype of the organism.
20. Domestic horses have 64 chromosomes. How many chromosomes should be in an egg cell of a female
horse?
A. 16 B. 32 C. 64 D. 128

21. Although there are a limited number of amino acids, many different types of proteins exist because the
A. size of a given amino acid can vary.
B. chemical composition of a given amino acid can vary.
C. sequence and number of amino acids is different.
D. same amino acid can have many different properties.
22. Semi-conservative replication of DNA refers to the idea that
A. DNA molecules need to unwind before duplication begins.
B. each new DNA molecule contains two new single RNA strands.
C. the two strands of DNA molecules run in opposite directions.
D. each half of the original DNA molecule is joined with a new complementary DNA strand.

3 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

23. Which of the following helps to explain why X-linked recessive traits in humans occur more frequently in
males than in females?
A. Transcription of the X chromosome occurs often in males but rarely in females.
B. Males and females have different sets of hormones that regulate the expression of traits.
C. Males reach physical maturity more slowly than females, giving recessive traits more time to
appear.
D. Only one copy of the X chromosome is found in cells of males, but two copies are found in cells
of females.
24. Which of these would most likely cause a mutation?
A. the placement of ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum
B. the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA
C. the movement of transfer RNA out of the nucleus
D. the release of messenger RNA from DNA
25. In pea plants, smooth pods are dominant to wrinkled pods, and green pods are dominant to yellow pods.
Two pea plants with smooth green pods are crossed. Both plants are heterozygous for pod texture and pod
color. Which phenotype ratio in the offspring would best support the conclusion that the genes for pod
texture and pod color are on different chromosomes?
A. 6 smooth green: 6 smooth yellow: 2 wrinkled green: 2 wrinkled yellow

B. 8 smooth green: 0 smooth yellow: 0 wrinkled green: 8 wrinkled yellow

C. 9 smooth green: 3 smooth yellow: 3 wrinkled green: 1 wrinkled yellow

D. 16 smooth green: 0 smooth yellow: 0 wrinkled green: 0 wrinkled yellow

26. In a sample of double-stranded DNA, 30% of the nitrogenous bases are thymine. What percentage of the
nitrogenous bases in the sample is adenine?
A. 20% B. 30% C. 60% D. 70%

27. Which of the following statements explains why the insertion of a nucleotide in a DNA sequence could
result in a phenotypic change in an organism?
A. Fatty acids would no longer attach to the DNA strands to transcribe the DNA.

B. DNA would no longer fit through the nuclear membrane to get to ribosomes for translation.

C. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in the DNA would no longer code for the correct amino acids.

D. Antibodies would no longer recognize the DNA as belonging to the cell and would destroy the DNA.

4 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

28. A woman with green eyes and a man with blue eyes have one biological child. Which of the following
statements describes the child’s inheritance of her genes for eye color?
A. The child inherited genes for eye color from her father only.
B. The child inherited genes for eye color from her mother only.
C. The child inherited more genes for eye color from her mother than her father.
D. The child inherited an equal number of genes for eye color from her mother and her father.
29. Which of the following is a source of genetic variation within a species?
A. Cloning B. Mutation C. Selective breeding D. Natural selection
30. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a high rate of crossing over between two
genes?
A. The two genes are far apart on the same chromosome C. The two genes are sex-linked
B. The two genes are both located near the centromere D. The two genes code for the same
protein

III. ECOLOGY
31. The water cycle would not occur if which of the following were missing?
A. animals B. bacteria C. ice caps D. solar energy
32. What is the function of autotrophs in the carbon cycle?
A. to use oxygen to produce glucose C. to take in excess water
B. to use carbon dioxide to produce glucose D. to feed on herbivores
33. Which of the following explains why legume plants are less likely than other terrestrial plants to
experience nitrogen limitation?
A. Legume plants need less nitrogen than other plants do.
B. Legume plants have nitrogen-fixing bacteria on their roots.
C. Legume plants catch insects to supply themselves with nitrogen.
D. Legume plants can absorb nitrogen directly from the atmosphere.
34. The natural cycling of oxygen between organisms and their environment is most directly accomplished
through which of the following pairs of processes?
A. fermentation and oxidation C. transpiration and evaporation
B. precipitation and condensation D. photosynthesis and respiration
35. Which statement correctly describes how nitrogen in the soil returns to the atmosphere?
A. Soil bacteria convert nitrates into nitrogen gas.
B. Decomposers directly convert ammonium into nitrogen gas.
C. Plants assimilate nitrites and convert them into nitrogen gas.
D. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in plant roots convert nitrates into nitrogen gas.

5 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

36. All of the following are likely to increase after large areas of tropical rain forests are cut down except the
A. Species diversity of the areas C. rate of nutrient loss from the areas
B. Erosion by rivers flowing through the areas D. average surface temperature of soil in the areas
37. What will most likely happen if the human population continues to grow at current rates?
A. There will be fewer natural resources available for future generations.
B. There will be an increase in nitrogen levels in the atmosphere.
C. There will be a decrease in water pollution.
D. There will be a decrease in the number of strong hurricanes.
38. If worldwide deforestation is not regulated, what could most likely result?
A. Acid rain could lower the pH of rivers and lakes to dangerous levels for aquatic life.
B. CO2 levels in the atmosphere could increase and contribute to global warming problems.
C. Plants and animals could become better adapted to living in desert conditions.
D. Future generations of humans could have an excess of wood and paper products.
39. Which one is an example of secondary succession?
A. Water plants at pond edge C. Plowed field
B. Lichens at bare rock D. shrubs fill pond
40. The sequence of phases in population growth curve is
A. log-lag-stationary-decline C. log-lag-decline-stationary
B. lag-log-stationary-decline D. lag-stationary-log-decline
41. A higher index of diversity [(d=N(N-1)/Ʃn (n-1)] where, d= index of diversity, N=total number of
organisms in the area, n= total number of organisms of each species, suggests
A. more stable community C. less hostile environment
B. availability of more ecological niches D. all of the above are answers
42. The graph below shows the change in the size of a mammal population.

Which of the following statements could explain the change in population size in region X?

A. Birth rate is greater than death rate.

B. Emigration rate is greater than birth rate.
C. Death rate is greater than immigration rate.
D. Emigration rate is greater than immigration rate.
6 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

IV. MICROORGANISMS
43. Which one is wrong about benefits of bacteria?
A. They are used in recycling of minerals in an ecosystem
B. They are beneficial in production of vinegar
C. They are useful in production of insulin
D. Most gram positive bacteria cause disease as compared with gram negative bacteria
44. Viruses are not sometimes considered as microorganisms because:
A. they cannot carry out independent life C. they can carry out reproduction inside cells
B. they can cause diseases that cannot be cured D. they do have organelles like multicellular organisms
45. Which one comes first in viral infection and multiplication within cells?
A. Uncoating B. Attachment C. Replication D. Assembly
46. A researcher is studying a particular disease-causing agent. The agent has a protein coat, but it lacks a
nucleus, contains no other organelles, and can reproduce only when it is inside an animal cell. The
researcher should classify the agent as which of the following?
A. a bacterium B. a fungus C. a protozoa D. a virus
47. Which of the following best describes where microorganisms live?
A. Underwater. C. In warm, humid places.
B. Nearly everywhere D. Sunny, dry areas.
48. Which of the following practices is based on an understanding of microorganisms?
A. Walking downhill instead of running. C. Looking both ways before crossing a street.
B. Wearing lightweight clothes in the summer. D. Washing your hands before eating.
49. What important function do microorganisms have in an ecosystem?
A. They produce food from sunlight. C. They reduce the number of large animals.
B. They decompose dead organisms. D. They help to clean the air.
50. How does adding yeast change bread dough?
A. Bubbles of gas form in the dough C. Yeast changes the breads’ color.
B. More dough is produced as yeast multiply. D. Yeast makes it more less lumpy.
51. Which of the following correctly pairs a microorganism with the disease it creates?
A. protozoa-the flu C. bacteria-syphilis
B. virus-athlete’s foot D. fungi-a cold
52. Which of the following is not a term used to describe organisms that have had foreign genes added to
them?
A. transgenic organisms C. genetically modified organisms
B. pathogenic organisms D. genetically engineered organisms

7 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

V. CELL ENERGY TRANSFORMATION

53. In mammals, which of the following substances is produced in a muscle that operates anaerobically?
A. Acetyl CoA B. Citrate C. NADPH D. Lactate
54. Production of ATP occurs in all of the following processes except
A. Krebs (tri-carboxylic acid ) cycle C. Electron transport system and chemiosmosis
B. Light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis D. Light-independent reactions of photosynthesis
55. Which statement best compares aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
A. Less ATP is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
B. More water is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
C. More oxygen is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
D. Less lactic acid is generated during anaerobic respiration than during aerobic respiration.
56. Which of the following occurs in both fermentation and aerobic cellular respiration?
A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are consumed
B. FAD is reduced, driving ATP synthesis
C. Proton gradients are produced across membranes
D. ATP is synthesized from ADP and inorganic phosphate
57. Which of the following is true of C4 plants such as corn?
A. The Calvin cycle is confined to the bundle sheath cells
B. Their stomata open at night rather than during the day
C. They will not grow in climates where the temperature exceeds 700F
D. They have anatomy that is found only in gymnosperms
58. The energy from the breakdown of carbohydrates is used to synthesize ATP. The process requires
A. chloroplasts and oxygen. C. mitochondria and oxygen.
B. chloroplasts, carbon dioxide and water. D. mitochondria, carbon dioxide and water.
59. A scientist studying the oxygen concentration in sealed chambers containing cultured plant cells find that
when the chambers are illuminated, the concentration of oxygen increases. However, when the chambers
are kept in the dark, the concentration of oxygen decreases. Why does the concentration of oxygen
decrease when the chamber is kept in the dark?
A. Plant cell mitochondria consume oxygen by aerobic respiration
B. Plant cell chloroplasts run photosynthetic pathways backward to consume oxygen
C. Plant cell chloroplasts switch their structure and function and become mitochondria
D. The chambers must not be properly sealed, so that oxygen is leaking out
60. The flow of which of the following into the mitochondrial matrix provides the chemiosmotic energy for
the synthesis of ATP?
A. Inorganic phosphate C. Electrons
B. Glucose D. Protons

8 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

61. Which step in the process of photosynthesis is dependent on light energy?

A. splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen C. combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water
B. splitting carbon dioxide into carbon and oxygen D. combining carbon and oxygen into carbon
dioxide
62. Which statement is true about cellular respiration?
A. It produces glucose, which provides energy for the cell.
B. It produces ATP, which stores energy that is used by the cell.
C. It produces carbon dioxide, which combines with hydrogen to form sugar.
D. It produces oxygen, which combines with hydrogen to prevent cell poisoning.
63. A plant biochemist received a specimen from a fellow scientist who noticed that the plant’s stomata are
closed during the day. The biochemist observed that radioactive carbon in the form of carbon dioxide, fed
to the plant at night, was first found in organic acids that accumulate in the vacuole. During the day it
moved to sugars being manufactured in the chloroplast. What was the conclusion of the biochemist?
A. The plant fixes carbon by crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM)
B. The plant is a C4 plant
C. The plant is a C3 plant
D. The plant is using mitochondria as chloroplasts
64. If eight molecules of pyruvic acids are used up in aerobic respiration. The number of NAD+ molecules
reduced to NADH in transition reaction and Krebs’s cycle are
A. 64 B. 32 C. 16 D. 48

VI. CELL BIOLOGY

65. If energy is needed to move materials into or out of a cell, what is most likely occurring?
A. active transport B. passive transport C. osmosis D. diffusion
66. A freshwater plant is placed in a container of saltwater. What will most likely happen to the cells of the
plant?
A. They will swell because water will move into them.
B. They will swell because salt will move into them.
C. They will shrink because water will move out of them.
D. They will shrink because salt will move out of them.
67. Which would be the best evidence that a cell is using active transport to move a substance across its cell
membrane?
A. Substances are moving rapidly across the cell membrane.
B. ATP is being rapidly consumed near the cellular membrane.
C. Substances are moving from high to low concentrations.
D. Substances are moving through channels in the cell membrane.

9 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

68. The plasma membrane of a cell consists of

A. protein molecules arranged in two layers with polar areas forming the outside of the
membrane.
B. two layers of lipids organized with the nonpolar tails forming the interior of the membrane.
C. lipid molecules positioned between two carbohydrate layers.
D. protein molecules with polar and nonpolar tails.
69. Which of the following would decrease the rate of diffusion of molecules across a semi-permeable
membrane?
A. increasing the temperature C. decreasing the size of the molecules
B. decreasing the concentration gradient D. increasing the size of the pores in the membrane
70. Glycolipids in the cell membrane function to
A. repel water. C. act as a carrier molecule.
B. identify the cell to the immune system. D. allow lipids to diffuse by facilitated transport.
71. Which of the following organelles contain enzymes that digest macromolecules?
A. Vacuoles B. Ribosomes C. Lysosomes D. Golgi bodies
72. Which of the following pathways describes the synthesis and secretion of pepsin by a cell?
A. vacuole → Golgi body → vacuole → plasma membrane
B. rough endoplasmic reticulum → vesicle → Golgi body → vesicle
C. rough endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi body → lysosome → vesicle
D. smooth endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi body → vesicle → plasma membrane
73. Where are the structures that distinguish rough endoplasmic reticulum from smooth endoplasmic reticulum
produced?
A. in the nucleolus B. in the Golgi bodies C. in the mitochondria D. in the cell membrane
74. How are prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells similar?
A. Both contain a nucleus C. Both contain ribosomes
B. Both contain membrane-bound organelles D. Both contain cell walls
VII. ENZYMES
75. There are many different enzymes located in the cytoplasm of a single cell. How is a specific
enzyme able to catalyze a specific reaction?
A. Different enzymes are synthesized in specific areas of the cytoplasm.
B. Most enzymes can catalyze many different reactions.
C. An enzyme binds to a specific substrate (reactant) for the reaction catalyzed.
D. Enzymes are transported to specific substrates (reactants) by ribosomes.
76. Which of the following substances, when added to an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, will cause the rate of a
reaction to slow down?
A. Acids B. enzymes C. substrates D. coenzymes
10 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

77. How do vitamins function in cells?

A. They act as coenzymes. C. They catalyze reactions.
B. They provide energy for reactions. D. They act as substrates in hydrolysis.
78. Feedback inhibition can occur when
A. the substrate of a reaction is decreased.
B. a coenzyme binds to an enzyme’s active site.
C. the amount of an enzyme in a reaction is increased.
D. the product of a reaction binds to an enzyme’s active site.
Use the following information to answer question 79

E1 E2 E3

A B C D

79. What would occur if a competitive inhibitor for enzyme E2 was added to the metabolic pathway above?
A. Less of D would be produced. C. Enzyme 1 would be denatured.
B. There would be a decrease in B. D. There would be an increase in C.
80. In an experiment, a molecule known to be a competitive inhibitor to the enzyme helicase is added to a
culture of actively dividing cells. Which of the following would likely occur?
A. The cells would reproduce more rapidly.
B. The rate of transcription would increase.
C. The rate of DNA production by cells would decrease.
D. The amount of free nucleotide molecules in the cells would decrease.
Use the following graph to answer question 81.

81. Which of the following statements explains what is happening at Time X?

A. the active sites are saturated C. coenzymes have been added
B. the enzyme has been denatured D. the activation energy has been lowered
82. Which of the following the following best describes allosteric inhibition of an enzyme?
A. The inhibitor binds to mRNA to prevent translation of the enzyme
B. The inhibitor binds to the enzyme substrate
C. The inhibitor binds to the enzyme but not at its active site
D. The inhibitor binds to the enzyme at its active site
11 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

83. Substance A is converted to substance B in a metabolic reaction. Which statement best describes the role
of an enzyme during this reaction?
A. It adjusts the pH of the reaction medium.
B. It provides energy to carry out the reaction.
C. It dissolves substance A in the reaction medium.
D. It speeds up the reaction without being consumed.
84. A scientist observes that, when the pH of the environment surrounding an enzyme is changed, the rate the
enzyme catalyzes a reaction greatly decreases. Which statement best describes how a change in pH can
affect an enzyme?
A. A pH change can cause the enzyme to change its shape.
B. A pH change can remove energy necessary to activate an enzyme.
C. A pH change can add new molecules to the structure of the enzyme.
D. A pH change can cause an enzyme to react with a different substrate.
VIII. BIOCHEMICAL MOLECULES
85. Which statement correctly describes how carbon’s ability to form four bonds makes it uniquely suited to
form macromolecules?
A. It forms short, simple carbon chains.
B. It forms large, complex, diverse molecules.
C. It forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.
D. It forms covalent bonds that can exist in a single plane.
86. Which statement best describes an effect of the low density of frozen water in a lake?
A. When water freezes, it contracts, decreasing the water level in a lake.
B. Water in a lake freezes from the bottom up, killing most aquatic organisms.
C. When water in a lake freezes, it fl oats, providing insulation for organisms below.
D. Water removes thermal energy from the land around a lake, causing the lake to freeze.
87. Carbohydrates and proteins are two types of macromolecules. Which functional characteristic of proteins
distinguishes them from carbohydrates?
A. large amount of stored information C. ability to catalyze biochemical reactions
B. efficient storage of usable chemical energy D. tendency to make cell membranes hydrophobic
88. An important biological function of carbohydrates is to
A. insulate organs C. initiate cell growth
B. maintain constant blood pH D. store energy for ATP production
89. The formation of a neutral fat (triglyceride) molecule requires
A. one glycogen and three fatty acids. C. three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule.
B. three phospholipids and one glycerol molecule. D. two fatty acids, a phosphate and a glycerol
molecule.

12 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

90. Which of the following molecules is soluble in both polar and non-polar substances?
A. Oils B. Water C. Glycerol D. Phospholipid
91. Analysis of a strand of DNA shows that it contains 23% thymine. What is the percentage of guanine that it
contains?
A. 23% B. 27% C. 46% D. 54%
92. Which of the following best describes how DNA and RNA are similar?
A. They both contain the nitrogen bases thymine and adenine.
B. They both are formed in a double-helix structure.
C. They both are composed of five different nucleotides.
D. They both contain the nitrogen bases cytosine and guanine.
IX. THE SCIENCE OF BIOLOGY
93. A mineral supplement designed to prevent the common cold was given to two groups of people during a
scientific study.
Dosage

Group 1 50 mg/day

Group 2 100 mg/day

After eight weeks, neither group reported a case of the common cold. Which of the following would have
made the outcome of this study more valid?

A. Test only one group with 150 mg of the supplement.

B. Give the supplement to both groups for only 6 weeks
C. Create a third group that receives 75 mg of the supplement.
D. Create a third group that does not receive the supplement.
94. The rat population sometimes decreases dramatically in Bale Mountains National Park. One
possible explanation for this decrease is that the red fox population has increased. This
explanation is a scientific
A. conclusion B. experiment C. hypothesis D law
95. If after dividing plant materials into two groups, an experimenter wants to test the effect of fertilizer and
has applied a fertilizer to group A plants and not to group B plants, what are group B plants called?
A. control group B. test group C. experimental group D. variable group
96. Which of the following is not in agreement with the scientific method?
A. putting forward testable hypothesis
B. carrying out experiments in duplicates
C. putting forward personal value judgments
D. analyzing results and drawing conclusions
13 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

97. What is the reason that Louis Pasteur used a swan – necked flask instead of straight necked one in his
experiment designed to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation?
A. to allow free passage of air to the broth inside the flask
B. to prevent the escape of any microorganisms from the flask
C. to keep the broth in the flask hot to kill microorganisms
D. to trap particles from the air that might enter the flask before reaching the broth
98. Which of the following is not recommended in an experiment?
A. omitting the control group B. using large sample size
C. testing one variable at a time D. proper recording of the result

99. The reliability of an experiment is increased by

A. carrying out repeat experiments C. working as quickly as possible
B. minimizing personal judgment D. using the most appropriate apparatus
100. Which biological tool is used to measure the height of trees or slopes in an area?
A. Data logger B. Theodolite C. Flow meter D. Field microscope

14 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015
 G-12 Biology 2nd Round Model Exam; April 2015

SOS HERMANN GMEINER SCHOOL, BAHIR DAR

Biology Second Round Model Examination for Grade 12 Students, April 2015

Answer Key

1. C 21. C 41. D 61. A 81. A

2. D 22. D 42. A 62. B 82. C

3. A 23. D 43. D 63. A 83. D

4. C 24. B 44. A 64. A 84. A

5. A 25. C 45. B 65. A 85. C

6. B 26. B 46. D 66. C 86. C

7. B 27. C 47. B 67. B 87. C

8. C 28. D 48. D 68. B 88. D

9. B 29. B 49. B 69. B 89. C

10. C 30. A 50. A 70. B 90. D

11. A 31. D 51. C 71. C 91. B

12. D 32. B 52. B 72. B 92. D

13. B 33. B 53. D 73. A 93. D

14. B 34. D 54. D 74. C 94. C

15. D 35. A 55. A 75. C 95. A

16. A 36. A 56. D 76. C 96. C

17. B 37. A 57. A 77. A 97. D

18. A 38. B 58. C 78. D 98. A

19. A 39. C 59. A 79. A 99. A

20. B 40. B 60. D 80. D 100. B

Note: - Dear teachers, please do not hesitate to contact us if you have any query!

15 | A loving home for every child SOS HGS, BAHIR DAR Set By: Asmamaw Leul April, 2015