Graduate Admission Test (GAT)

Model exams

Set by:

Tesfaye Tefera (PhD)

Debre Berhan University

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Introduction
The Graduate Admission Test (GAT) is a general aptitude test designed to assess verbal,
quantitative, and analytical reasoning abilities as predictors of success in graduate studies. GAT
results help to screen and identify candidate that are eligible to apply for admission to a graduate
program in any public and private university in the country. The test is divided into three
sections, each targeting a specific aspect of reasoning. The first section is dedicated to verbal
reasoning. It assesses candidates’ ability to understand and analyze written passages,
comprehend complex ideas, draw inferences, and evaluate arguments. The second section
focuses on quantitative reasoning, which measures the test takers’ proficiency in understanding
and interpreting numerical data, solving mathematical problems, and applying quantitative
concepts. The third section focuses on analytical reasoning. It gauges the candidates’ capacity to
analyze and evaluate logical relationships, recognize patterns, and draw conclusions based on
given information.

Administration of GAT

The administration of the GAT is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Education
(MoE), the Addis Ababa University (AAU), the Institute of Educational Research (IER) -
Testing Center, Ethio-telecom, and public universities. The test is conducted digitally through
AAU's testing portal at gat.aau.edu.et, utilizing the private network infrastructure of MoE. The
digital format of the GAT offers several advantages, including enhanced efficiency, streamlined
test administration, and automated scoring processes. Test takers are required to take the test in
designated computer labs at public universities, ensuring standardized conditions for all
participants.

About the Exam

✓ The Graduate Admission Test (GAT) is composed of three sections: Verbal Reasoning,
(60 questions), Quantitative Reasoning (40 questions) and Analytical Reasoning (25
questions). Each of these tests lasts for one hour and you will need to stay working on

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 the actual exams for three hours. Students with Visual impairment will work only the
Verbal Reasoning Section. Before starting your actual exam you are required to fill out a
brief survey questionnaire. The system will not let you take the exam unless you
complete the survey.

✓ While working on the Verbal Reasoning sub-test you can move forward or backwards to
correct your earlier responses. Once the 60 minutes is finished you will have no access to
the Verbal Reasoning Section. Rather the system will automatically redirect you to the
second sub-test on Quantitative Reasoning and you will work for 60 minutes where your
time will count down and deny you access to this section by the end of the hour. The
same principle applies to the third section on Analytical Reasoning for one hour. At the
end of the three hours test you will be immediately notified about your raw scores. You
need to wait for more than two weeks until all test takers complete the GAT to get the
cut-off score for passing the GAT test. Cut off score for passing the GAT will be notified
by the AAU web-site.

✓ Note: the score on GAT is not the only requirement for admission into the graduate
program. The minimum required score on GAT is a prerequisite for department level
examination. Hence, after getting the pass score on the GAT each candidate shall sit for
department level testing.

Responsibilities of GAT Test Takers

✓ Please identify your respective testing site ahead of time, preferably one day before the
test date.

✓ You can bring your own calculator to the exam hall to do the Quantitative Section.
However, you are not allowed to bring any calculator that has facilities of copying or
sending /receiving information.
✓ You will be given scratch papers for the quantitative and Analytical Sections where you
are required to write your full name and registration number on the top of each page of
the scratch papers. Before leaving the exam hall each candidate is expected to submit all

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 scratch papers to the invigilators. No test taker is allowed to take the scratch papers with
them. Defiance to all instructions associated with the GAT administration shall have
serious consequences when and if reported by the test supervisor/s.

✓ You are required to produce valid identification document (e.g. passport, Kebele/Woreda
ID card, driving license, employee ID card). No candidate shall be admitted to a
testing hall unless he/she produces valid identification document, GAT-admission
ticket and Bank receipt showing the payment of 1000 birr to take the GAT.
Covering the face is not allowed except using face masks. The test taker should uncover
his/her face mask or other covering material during checking by the test supervisor.

✓ You are required to show your ID card to the gate keeping security staff at your
respective testing site. Please don’t leave your identification document at the gate as you
need it for admission to the testing hall.

✓ Please print out your Admission Ticket and keep it with you during testing. Invigilators
will check your Admission Ticket with your identification card and your personal details
on the computer screen during testing. Please place them on your desk ready for this
validation process.

✓ Keep note of your password as it is essential for logging in. Never share your password
to any other person.

✓ Candidates scheduled for morning session testing, are required to arrive at their
respective testing site at 8:00 am/2 hours in the morning in local time/ whereas
candidates scheduled for the afternoon session testing are required to arrive at their
respective testing site at 1:00 pm/7 hours in the afternoon in local time/. Test takers who
are late by 30 minutes will not be allowed to enter to the testing hall.

✓ After passing the check point at the gate of the test site, you need to proceed to the
testing hall immediately.

✓ It is important that you should follow instructions given by the supervisor and
invigilators of your test center.

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 ✓ Any attempt of cheating on the exam, sharing answers with other, or copying the test
materials using any form shall have serious legal consequences.

Materials prohibited in the testing hall

✓ Any electronic device including mobile phone, smart watches, camera, or other electric
devices are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If such materials are brought to the testing
hall, they need to be kept in personal bags at locations designated by the
supervisor/invigilators. It is strictly forbidden to keep such materials in pocket or on the
desk.
✓ You need to bring a bag or a name identifier plaster to tag your name with your phone or
other materials.
✓ Books, handouts, pamphlets, scratch papers or any material in hard or soft copies are
prohibited

✓ Food and drinks are not allowed in the testing hall.

NOTE:-
In this model exam paper, there are 60 verbal, 40 quantitative and 25 logical/analytical reasoning
sample/model exam questions with answer. These model exams will test you on the knowledge
areas of English, Math, and Logic. Some of these sample exam questions may appear on the
GAT. The last page on each section contains the Answer Key. I encourage you to first respond to
the questions, and then refer to the Answer Key to check your answers.

Contents of the GAT

A. Verbal reasoning section
The verbal reasoning contains mainly the following types of questions:

Reading comprehension

Sentence completion

Vocabulary

Sentence equivalence
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 Grammar

B. Quantitative reasoning section

Quantitative reasoning contains the basic mathematical facts and concepts. It tests your
ability and being able to apply these mathematical facts to real world scenarios. It
contains:

Percentage, ratio, age problems, …

Squares, square roots, exponential laws, logarithm, …

Word problems that involves equations with one or two variables

Linear equations in one and two variables, inequalities, …

Perimeter, area, volume, polygons, …

Mean, median, variance, …

C. Logical reasoning section

Logical/ analytical reasoning questions include:

Syllogism(Valid deductive argument)

Small paragraph understanding

Interpretation of graphs, histogram, line chart, pie-chart, …

Good luck

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 PART -I-
Verbal Reasoning Section

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SENTENCE COMPLETION:
Instructions (1-9): In this part of test, you have 9 MCQs about English. Each sentence below
has one or two blanks, each blank shows that something has been omitted. Choose the correct answer
from the four answer choices given with each question, numbered (A), (B), (C), (D).
1. Viruses are invisible through the microscope; but we know that they are there
because we can see the they cause.
(A) Cheap; Damage (B) Elementary; Harm
(C) Simple; Danger (D) Ordinary; Havoc
2. The sea was coming after me as high as a great hill and as a enemy.
(A) Furious; Charging (B) Dreadful; Advancing
(C) Terrible; Charging (D) Angry; Attacking
3. Although its publicity has been , the film itself is intelligent, well-acted,
handsomely produced and altogether .
(A) Tasteless; Respectable (B) Extensive; Moderate
(C) Sophisticated; Moderate (D) Risqué; Crude
4. It takes character to the extremities of the arctic region.
(A) An unflappable; Sustain (B) A dictatorial; Brook
(C) A Spartan; Negotiate (D) An inimitable; Resist
5. As a journalist who works to overturn erroneous convictions, Griffin Nicholson
was opposed to the court ruling appeals for
inmates who might be .
(A) Barring; Culpable (B) Curbing; Exonerated
(C) Encouraging; Innocent (D) Scrutinizing; Eligible
6. Their conversation was unsettling, for the gravity of their topic contrasted so
oddly with the of their tone.
(A) Uniqueness (B) Rapidity
(C) Lightness (D) Precision
7. The driver suddenly applied the brakes when he saw a truck ahead of him.
(A) Stationary (B) Moving
(C) Static (D) Immobile
8. Salma is much too to have anything to do with that obnoxious affair.
(A) Noble (B) Proud
(C) Happy (D) Difficult

9. Roberto Clement was seen as during his life because of both his
selflessness on the baseball field and his humanitarian work in his native
Nicaragua.
(A) An individualist (B) A grandstander

(C) A sybarite (D) An altruist

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 ANTONYMS:
Directions: In each of the following antonym questions, a word printed in capital
letters precedes four or five lettered words or phrases. From these five lettered words
or phrases, pick the one most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.

10. ABBREVIATE :
(A) abridge (B) expand
(C) achieve (D) Accept
11. ABJURE :
(A) Acknowledge (B) disown
(C) Deny (D) hate
12. ABSURD :
(A) Scarcity (B) adorn
(C) Rational (D) flourish
13. ABUNDANT :
(A) ample (B) enough
(C) Great (D) scant
14. ACERBITY :
(A) Sweat (B) gentleness
(C) Tasty (D) account
15. BLOOMING :
(A) Fading (B) flowering
(C) Quiet (D) mild
16. BLISS :
(A) Merge (B) disseminate
(C) Dull (D) suffering
17. BEWITCH :
(A) Disenchant (B) rapture
(C) Profit (D) avail
18. BAUBLE :
(A) Plaything (B) valuable
(C) Modest (D) besiege
ANALOGIES:
Directions: Each of the following analogy questions presents a related pair of
words linked by a colon. Four or Five lettered pairs of words follow the linked pair.
Choose the lettered pair of words whose relationship is most like the relationship
expressed in the original linked pair.
19. BOOK: READ
(A) Ointment: Apply (B) Bat: Ball (C) Watch: Time (D) Marriage: Home

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 20. SUSPICION: FAITH
(A) Prisoner: (B) Court: Justice (C) Rule: Serve (D) Dawn: Morning
Punishment
21. ENGINE: COMPARTMENT
(A) Gear: Car (B) Heart: Lungs (C) Needle: Thread (D) Pen: Write
22. EDUCATION: SCHOOL
(A) Medicine: (B) Production: (C) Wood: Furniture (D) Milk: Cow
Hospital Factory
23. RENOVATION: RENEWAL
(A) Fail: Examination (B) Tumble: Topple (C) Poor: Poverty (D) Up: Climb
224. BUSH: FLORA
(A) Plant: Fauna (B) Horse: Carriage (C) Fish: Water (D) Blue: Color
25. HEAVY: LIGHT
(A) Loophole: Fool (B) Weight: Bulb (C) Dark: Night (D) Water: Fire
Proof
26. BOOK: PAGE
(A) Parliament: (B) Rope: Fiber (C) Ship: Wood (D) Star: Space
Minister
27. EXAMINATION: DEGREE
(A) Doctor: Ph.D (B) Music: (C) Interview: (D) Sports: Medal
Instrument Selection

READING COMPREHENSION:

Passage (Question 28-30): The purpose of education is to make the student an expert in his
subject. This must be clearly understood, and mere muddling through lessons and lectures and
books and passing examinations are relegated to secondary importance as means to end- which
is excellence in the field chosen. But there are so many fields, and no man can become an expert
in all the fields. It is necessary to decide which fields are the important ones that a man should
know well. It is clear that one's own work is the most important. This has been realized and
modern civilization has accordingly provided vocational education. It is now possible to acquire
high professional skill in the various fields, medicine, engineering production, commerce and so
on-but with good and bad mixed together, and no standard for guidance.

28. The purpose of education is to make the student:

(A) An expert in all fields
(B) An expert in his subject
(C) Only capable of earning
(D) Confident only

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29. What, according to the writer, is the end ?
(A) Excellence in the field chosen
(B) Passing the examination
(C) Earning more and more money
(D) Cramming lectures and books
30. The modern civilization has provided:
(A) Vocational education (B) Art of conversation
(C) Adult education (D) Higher education

Passage (Question 31-32): According to Aristotle, the most important question in the
physical world was the search for happiness. He was not an idealist preaching
impossible ideals and counsels of perfection. His scientific training made him a realist
who believed that happiness was the aim of life and every activity, even ethics, was
subordinate to it. He tries to explore the nature of happiness and explains it by
differentiating man from other animals in that he possesses the thinking faculty by
which he masters the earth and surpasses all living beings and its development will
give him fulfillment and happiness.
31. In the given paragraph:
(A) Aristotle surpasses the earth and all living beings
(B) Aristotle tries to explore the nature of physical world
(C) Aristotle speaks about all living beings
(D) Aristotle tries to explore the nature of happiness
32. Man differs from other animals in having:

(A) A brain (B) Speaking faculty

(C) Thinking faculty (D) Eating faculty

Passage (Question 33-37): A duty is an obligation. It is something we owe to others

as social beings when we live together. We must let others live with us. May right of
living implies my duty to my fellowmen to allow them the same conditions of life.
Infact, rights and duties are co-related. What is a right in regard to one is a duty in
regard to others. Rights and duties are two sides of the same coin. We should always
observe from the stand point of others. Thus they are duties. Moral duty is more
effective than the legal. A moral duty is that which is upon the people on moral
grounds. It is my moral duty to help the poor because of being a member of the
society. I must try to create these conditions which contribute to the welfare of
humanity. Similarly, I owe a duty to my parents-to be obedient and respectful to them.
This duty originates from the sense of responsibility which is directly related with our
conscience. So this maxim is concerned with a moral duty which a man should owe
without the legal bondage. Sense of duty is paramount for the proper development of
civilization in the 20th century. Hypocrisy and diplomacy are quite reverse to the
sense of duty. Hypocrisy involves wickedness duty involves sincerity and faithfulness.
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33. Rights and duties according to the passage are:
(A) Co-related
(B) Two sides of the same coin
(C) Neither of the above
(D) Both (A) and (B)
34. According to the author, the moral duty is:
(A) Enjoined upon animals
(B) Helping the rich
(C) More effective than the legal duty
(D) Secondary to the legal duty
35. Where does the duty originate from?
(A) From responsibility but not from conscience
(B) From responsibility which is related with conscience
(C) From legal bondage
(D) From hypocrisy and diplomacy
36. Point out the incorrect statement.

(A) Hypocrisy and diplomacy do not support the sense of duty

(B) Hypocrisy involves wickedness
(C) Duty involves sincerity
(D) Sense of duty is not important for the development of civilization
37. The author:

(A) Has sense of responsibility

(B) Doesn't have sense of duty
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Passage (Question 38-40): When we are suddenly confronted with any terrible
danger, the change of nature we undergo is equally great. In some cases, fear
paralyses us. Like animals, we stand still, powerless to move a step in fright or to lift a
hand in defence of our lives, and sometimes we are seized with panic, and again, act
more like the inferior animals than rational beings. On the other hand, frequently in
cases of sudden extreme peril, which cannot be escaped by fright, and must be
instantly faced, even the most timid men at once as if by miracle, become possessed
of the necessary courage, sharp quick apprehension, and swift decision. This is a
miracle very common in nature. Man and the inferior animals alike, when confronted
with almost certain death ‘gather resolution from despair’ but there can really be no
trace of so debilitating a feeling in the person fighting, or prepared to fight for dear
life. At such times, the mind is clearer than it has ever been; the nerves are steel,
there is nothing felt but a wonderful strength and daring. Looking back at certain
perilous moments in my own life, I remember them with a kind of joy, not that there

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 was any joyful excitement then; but because they brought me a new experience, a new
nature, as it were and lifted me for a time above myself.

38. An appropriate title for the above passage would be:

(A) The change of nature
(B) Courage and panic
(C) The will to fight
(D) The miracle of confronting danger
39. The author names three different ways in which a man may react to sudden
danger. What are they?
(A) He may be paralyzed with fear, or seized with panic, or as if by
miracle, become possessed of the necessary courage, and
face the danger
(B) He may be paralyzed with fear, run away or fight
(C) He may flee in panic, or fight back or stand still
(D) He may be paralyzed with fear, seized with panic or act like
an inferior animal
40. The distinction between ‘inferior animals’ and ‘rational beings’ is that:
(A) The latter are stronger
(B) The latter are capable of reasoning things out whereas the
former cannot do so
(C) The former are incapable of fighting
(D) The latter are clever
41. Student A: I am having a lot of trouble with this assignment Student B: Please try
and do it as____ as you can.

(A) Well (B) good (C) possible (D) soon

42. He should have taken more time his essay.

(A) to edit (B) editing (C) for edits (D) to editing

43. Student A: It’s good news that Rashid passed his first-year exams,
Student B: Yes, let’s hope he’s next year, too.
(A) isn’t it?; succeeded
(B) doesn’t he?; succeed
(C) weren’t they?; succeeded
(D) isn’t it?; successful

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 44. sure you adhere to all the ethical procedures when carrying ______your
medical research project.

(A)To make; off (B) Making; up (C) Make; out (D) To make; out

Please choose the word that is most similar to the underlined word in the sentence given.

45. “Have you altered the introduction to your essays?”

Which word is most like altered?

(A) Forgotten (B) selected (C) composed (D) amended

46. “I assume that the tutors will be able to help me with any essay problems.”

Which word is most like assume?

(A) Suppose (B) know (C) doubt (D) deduce

The questions below test your knowledge of words that often occur together.

47. “The sound coming from the speakers was intense.”

Which word is most often used with intense?

(A) intense error (B) intense formula (C) intense funds (D) intense pain
48. “It was a great relief when we finished the task.”

Which word is most often used with relief?

(A) breath of relief (B) sigh of relief (C) gasp of relief (D) noise of relief
49. Is that "8" or "B"? I can't read it.

(A) a; an (B) an; an (C) an; a (D) a; the

50. We huddled together for warmth the blankets.

(A) Along (B) besides (C) into (D) beneath

51. There were very people on the beach, so nobody saw the child drowning.

(A) Much (B) a fewer (C) few (D) very little

52. I don’t want my friends to have to complain over this cake, so I will give it my
best shot.

(A) Much (B) some (C) many (D) little

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53. Would you like bread?

(A) a collection of (B) a bunch of (C) a loaf of (D) a can of

54. There is ____butter left. We need to buy more.

(A) few, any (B) little, some (C) much, many (D) few, some
55. Which of the following sentences is CORRECT?.

(A) All that glitters is not gold.

(B) All these glitters is not gold
(C) All that glitters are not gold
(D) All glittering is not gold
56. She has been _____to music all day.

(A) Listening (B) listened (C) listens (D) listen

57. When I came to this city, I _____anyone.

(A) haven't known (B) didn't know (C)wasn't knowing (D) wouldn't knowing
58. Which of the following sentences is CORRECT?

(A) One should keep oneself ready for emergency.

(B) One should kept himself or herself ready for emergency
(C) One should be keeping himself ready for emergency
(D) One should keep himself to herself ready for emergency
59. Did you just me a liar?

(A) Call (B) called (C) have called (D) calling

60. Those newspapers in a big truck.

(A) are delivering

(B) is deliver
(C) are delivered
(D) had delivered

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 Answers for verbal reasoning section

1 D 11 A 21 C 31 D 41 A 51 C

2 A 12 C 22 B 32 C 42 A 52 A

3 A 13 D 23 B 33 D 43 D 53 C

4 C 14 B 24 D 34 C 44 C 54 B

5 C 15 A 25 A 35 B 45 D 55 A

6 C 16 D 26 B 36 D 46 A 56 A

7 A 17 A 27 C 37 A 47 D 57 B

8 A 18 B 28 B 38 D 48 B 58 A

9 B 19 A 29 A 39 A 49 C 59 A

10 B 20 C 30 A 40 B 50 D 60 C

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 PART -II-
Quantitative Reasoning Section

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1. What is the area of a circle whose radius is the diagonal of a square whose area
is 9?
(A) 8π (B) 18π

(C) 3π (D) 36π

2. The circumference of a circle is xπ units, and the area of the circle is yπ

square units. If x = y, then radius of the circle is:

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3π (D) 2π
3. What is the volume of a cube whose surface area is 294?
(A) 125 (B) 216

C) 294 (D) 343

4. The ratio of boys to girls in a certain classroom was 2 : 3. If boys represented

five more than one-third of the class, how many people were in the classroom?
(A) 30 (B) 45

(C) 75 (D) 60

5. What is the average of 530, 560, 517, 513 and 590?

(A) 5210 (B) 5209

(C) 529 + 559 + 516 + 512 + 589 (D) 5205

6. If p + 1 < 3p + 5, then:
(A) p < -2 (B) p > -2

(C) p=0 (D) p>2

7. If an equilateral triangle and a square have the same perimeter, what is the ratio
of the lengths of the sides of the equilateral triangle to the lengths of the sides
of the square?

(A) 3 : 4 (B) 4:3

(C) 1:2 (D) 1:3

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8. If a + 2b = x and a - 2b = y, which of the following expression is equal to ab?
𝐱 𝟐 −𝐲 𝟐 𝐱 𝟐 +𝐲 𝟐
(A) (𝐁) (𝐂) 𝐱 𝟐 − 𝐲 𝟐 (𝐃) 𝐱 𝟐 + 𝐲 𝟐
𝟖 𝟒

9. If the sum of the two integers is 42 and their difference is 22. Then the greater of
the two integers is:

(A) 25 (B) 32 (C) 8 (D) 10

10. If a2 = 17, then (a + 1)(a - 1) = ?

(A) 15 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 9

11. Abebe, Bletu and Omar combined their money to purchase a laptop. Together,
they paid a total of $490 for the laptop, including vat.

• Abebe paid $50 more than Beletu paid.

• Beletu paid twice as much as Omar paid.

How much did Abebe pay?

(A) $108 (B) $176 (C) $226 (D) $295

12. In an office with 30 trainees and a team lead, the average age of the whole
team decreases by 1 year when team lead is excluded. If the average age
of the whole team is 27 years, then what is the age of the team lead?

(A) 54 years (B) 55 years (C) 56 years (D) 57 Years

13. 20 friends went to a movie theatre. The average cost of the movie ticket for
19 friends was $120. But one of the friends paid $38 more than the
average cost for all the 20 friends. What was the total amount paid by all
of them together?

(A) $ 2,438 (B) $ 2,440 (C) $ 2,204 (D) $ 2,140

14. If A means ‘Multiplication’, B means ‘Division’, C means ‘Addition’ and D
means ‘Subtraction' then what is the value of 306 B 34 A 7 D 7 C 5?

(A) 32 (B) 61 (C) 54 (D) 43

15. What is the sum of all the factors of 28?
(A) 56 (B) 55 (C) 28 (D) 68
16. In an election between 2 contestants, 20% of the total votes were declared
invalid and one of the contestants got 35% of the total valid votes. If the
total number of votes in that election is 4,850 then what is the total number
of valid votes that the other contestant got?

(A) 2,502 (B) 2,512 (C) 2,522 (D) 2,436

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17. The total share of A, B and C is 669 in such a way that the ratio of the
shares of A to B is 17:27 and that of B to C is 2:5. What is the share of C?
(A) 135 (B) 270 (C) 223 (D) 405
18. Team members can complete a job in 20 days but with the help of their team
leader, they can complete it in 15 days. In how many days can the team
leader alone complete the job?
(A) 20 Days (B) 60 Days C) 40 days (D) 80 Days
19. If B is 5/2 times of A then A is what percentage of B?
(A) 40% (B) 20% (C) 60% (D) 50%

20. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years.
What is the age of the youngest child?
(A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 4 (D) 7

21. If log 2 = 0.3010 and log 3 = 0.4771, the value of log5 512 is
(A) 2.87 (B) 2.967 (C) 3.876 (D) 3.912

22. There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B,
then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent
from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students
in B. The number of students in room A is:

(A) 20 (B) 60 (C) 80 (D) 100

23. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2
tables together is Birr 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3 tables is:

(A) 3500 (B) 3900 (C) 3750 (D) 3840

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 The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand numbers)
from six branches of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000
and 2001. Answer questions (24-28) based on the bar graph.

Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches - B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6
of a publishing Company in 2000 and 2001.

24. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales
of branch B4 for both years?
(A) 2:3 (B) 3:5 (C) 4:5 (D) 7:9
25. A total sale of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of
branches B3 for both the years?
(A) 68.54% (B) 71.11% (C) 73.17% (D) 75.55%

26. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the
average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
(A) 87.5% (B) 82.5% (C) 77.5% (D) 75%
27. What is the average sale of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year
2000?
(A) 73 (B) 80 (C) 83 (D) 88
28. A total sale of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand
numbers) is?
(A) 250 (B) 310 (C) 435 (D) 560
29. The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is
increased by 20% is:
(A) 40% (B) 42% (C) 44% (D) 46%

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Study the following pie-chart and the table and answer the questions (30-33) based on
them.
Proportion of Population of Seven Villages in 1997

Village % Population Below Poverty Line

X 38
Y 52
Z 42
R 51
S 49
T 46
V 58

30. If the population of village R in 1997 is 32000, then what will be the population of
village Y below poverty line in that year?

(A) 156000 (B) 16500 (C) 14100 (D) 17000

31. The ratio of population of village T below poverty line to that of village Z below
poverty line in 1997 is:
(A) 11:23 (B) 13:11 (C) 23:11 (D) 11:13

32. Find the population of village S if the population of village X below poverty line in
1997 is 12160.
(A) 18500 (B) 22000 (C) 20500 (D) 26000

33. If in 1998, the population of villages Y and V increase by 10% each and the
percentage of population below poverty line remains unchanged for all the

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 villages, then find the population of village V below poverty line in 1998, given
that the population of village Y in 1997 was 30000.
(A) 11250 (B) 12760 (C) 13140 (D) 13780
34. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the
length of the train?
(A) 180 m (B) 324m (C) 120m (D) 150m
35. An accurate clock shows 8 o'clock in the morning. Through how may degrees
will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o'clock in the afternoon?
(A) 1800 (𝐵) 1680 (𝐶) 1500 ) (𝐷) 1440
36. A square, whose side is 2 m, has its corners cut away so as to form an octagon
with all sides equal. Then the length of each side of the octagon, in meters, is

√2 2 2 √2
(A) (𝐵) (𝐶) (𝐷)
√2+1 √2+1 √2−1 √2−1

37. In the figure below, ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF = FB. What is the
ratio of the areas of Δ𝐶𝐸𝐹 and that of the rectangle?

1 1 1 1
(A) (𝐵) (𝐶) (𝐷)
9 6 8 3

38. A ladder leans against a vertical wall. The top of the ladder is 8 m above the
ground. When the bottom of the ladder is moved 2 m farther away from the wall,
the top of the ladder rests against the foot of the wall. What is the length of the
ladder?
(A) 10m (B) 12m (C) 15m (D) 17m
39. A rectangular pool 2 m wide and 6 m long is surrounded by a walkway of uniform
width. If the total area of the walkway is 48m2, how wide, in meters, is the
walkway?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

40. If the difference between mean and mode of a population is 48 and the median is
12, then the mean is

(A) 28 (B) 38 (C) 42 (D) 52

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 Answers for quantitative reasoning section
1 D 11 C 21 C 31 C

2 B 12 D 22 D 32 B

3 D 13 A 23 B 33 B

4 C 14 B 24 D 34 D

5 C 15 A 25 C 35 A

6 B 16 C 26 A 36 C

7 B 17 D 27 B 37 B

8 A 18 B 28 D 38 D

9 B 19 A 29 C 39 C

10 C 20 C 30 A 40 A

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 PART -III-
Logical/Analytical Reasoning Section

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 1. Girma ranks 𝟕𝒕𝒉 from top and 𝟐𝟖𝒕𝒉 from bottom in a class. How many students are
there in class?
(A) 16 (B) 23 (C) 34 (D) 35
2. 6 exams are to be conducted on 6 consecutive days starting from Monday. The
exams to be conducted are English, Mathematics, History, Physics, Chemistry
and Biology but not in the same order. Neither Physics nor Mathematics can be
conducted on Wednesday. There are 2 exams after Biology. There are 2 exams
in between Biology and English. Neither Chemistry nor Mathematics is
conducted on Friday. There are 3 exams in between Physics and Mathematics;
and Mathematics exam is conducted after Biology.

History exam is conducted on:

(A) Tuesday (B) Wednesday (C) Thursday (D) Friday
3. How many more triangles are there in the 𝟏𝒔𝒕 figure as compared to the 𝟐𝒏𝒅
figure

(A) Five (B) Four (C) Three (D) Two

4. Given below is a statement followed by 2 inferences. Choose the inference
that can be inferred from the given statement by selecting the right option.

Statement: In a rain affected cricket match Team A won against Team B by duckworth
lewis rule by 50 runs. Inferences:
I. Duckworth lewis is a rule to finalize the winner of a cricket match in case if the match is
affected by rain.
II. Team B batted first

A) Only inference I follows

B) Only inference II follows
C) Both inferences I and II follow
D) Neither inference I nor inference II follows
5. While counting the numbers from 1 to 10, Garry left one number. The number that
he left was greater than 3 but less than 9. It was an even number and the number
when reversed looks like another number. Which number is it?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 8

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 6. Which figure replaces the question mark in the given figure series?

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

7. Three of the following words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Select
the odd one
(A) Goggle (B) Spectacles (C) Bifocals (D) Optical readers
8. Select the option that is related to the question mark in the same way as the
second number is related to first and the fourth number is related to third.
(NOTE: operation should be performed on the whole numbers without breaking
down the numbers into its constituent)
139:228; 122:211; 2:?
(A) 189 (B) 91 (C) 198 (D) 89
Directions for questions 9 to 13: Read the following passage below and solve the questions
based on it.

There are seven professors A, B, C, D, E, F and G teaching seven subjects History,

Geography, Physics, Chemistry, Maths, Biology and English from Monday to Friday. Each
professor teaches a different subject and not more than two subjects are taught on any one of
the days.
(i) Chemistry is taught by professor B on Tuesday.
(ii) Professor D teaches on Friday but neither Geography nor Physics.
(iii) Professor F teaches History but neither on Thursday nor on Friday.
(iv) Professor A teaches English on the day on which History is taught.
(v) Professor C teaches Maths on Monday.
(vi) Geography and Chemistry are taught on the same day.
(vii) Professor G teaches on Thursday.
9. On which of the following days is English taught?
(A) Wednesday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D) Cannot be determined

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10. Which of the following subjects is taught by professor G?
(A) Biology (B) Geography (C) Physics (D) Chemistry
11. On which of the following days is Geography taught?
(A) Monday (B) Tuesday (C) Wednesday (D) Thursday
12. Which subject is taught on Friday?
(A) Physics (B) History (C) Geography (D) Biology
13. Which of the following pairs of professors teaches on Tuesday?
(A) B and D (B) A and B (C) B and F (D) None of these
14. Abebech moved a distance of 75 meters towards the north. She then turned to her
left and walked for 25 meters, turned left again and walked 80 meters. Finally, she
turned to the right at an angle of 45º. In which direction was she moving finally?
(A) South-west (B) North-west (C) South (D) North-east

15. Decide which conclusion is logically follows:

Statement:
I. Only a few Designer is Painter
II. No Painter is Writer
III. All Designer is Singer
Conclusion:

I. Some Painters being writers is a possibility

II. Some singer is not writer
(A) Only I follows (B) Only II follows (C) Bothe I & II follows (D) Neither I nor II

16. In a certain code “564” means “study very hard”, “736” means “hard work pays”
and “423” means “study and work”. Which of the following is the code for
“work”?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 4

17. If the letters of the word “PRODUCT” are arranged alphabetically, then which
letter would be farthest from the second letter of word?
(A) T (B) U (C) P (D) R

18. S and K are brothers. W is mother of S. M is mother of T. If T is son of K, then how

is W related to M?
(A) Mother-in-law (B) Sister (C) Father-in-law (D) Mother

19. Identify the missing number in the series. 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, ?, 144?
(A) 21 (B) 34 (C) 55 (D) 89

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 20. If I talk to my girlfriend, then I do not need to take a pill for heartache.
Which of the following statements are logically agreed based on the above
sentence?
a. I talked to my girlfriend
b. I did not need to take a pill for heartache
c. I needed to take a pill for heartache
d. I did not talk to my girlfriend
(A) Ab only (B) ad & dc (C) dc only (D) ac & bd

21. Which of the following number is different from others in some conditions?
(A) 63 (B) 42 (C) 27 (D) 7

Question 22-25: Seven dignitaries F, G, H, I, N, O, and P are to be seated together at a

diplomatic ceremony. They will be seated in a row of seven chairs, numbered from 1 to 7, from
front to back. Any seating is acceptable as long as all seven dignitaries are seated, one in
each chair, and the seating conforms to the following rules:
I. F must sit in the chair immediately behind O’s chair.
II. G cannot sit in the chair immediately in front of N’s chair, and G cannot sit in the
chair immediately behind N’s chair.
III. There must be exactly two chairs between the chairs of H and P.
IV. There must be at least one chair between the chairs of I and P.
V. N must sit in chair 3.

22. Which of the following seating arrangements, from chair 1 through chair 7,
conforms to the rules?
(A) E, I, N, P, G, O, H (B) G, P, N, I, H, O, F

(C) I, G, N, P, O, F, H (D) I, H, N, P, O, F, G

23. If F sits in chair 6 and H sits in chair 7, which of the following dignitaries must sit
in chair 2?
(A) I (B) G (C) N (D) O

24. If the seating arrangement, from chair 1 through chair 7, is G, I, N, H, O, F, P,

which of the following pairs of dignitaries can exchange seats without violating
the rules?
(A) F and G (B) G and H (C) G and I (D) H and P

25. If O sits in chair 1 and H sits in chair 7, then the number of chairs between F’s
chair and I’s chair must be:
(A) Zero (B) Two (C) Three (D) One

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 Answers for logical reasoning section
1 C 6 D 11 B 16 C 21 C
2 D 7 D 12 D 17 B 22 B
3 A 8 B 13 D 18 A 23 A
4 A 9 A 14 A 19 D 24 D
5 B 10 C 15 B 20 B 25 C

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 References
1. IndiaBIX: Aptitude Questions and Answers (arithmetic aptitude, data
interpretation, verbal reasoning, verbal ability, logical reasoning)
2. Admissions Exam Sample Questions University of Central Asia
3. GAT exam Addis Ababa University Part (1-27) by you tube. (Info. Tech Addis)
4. Graduate admission sample test 01
5. GAT Test /PDF/ Area
6. Aptitude Latest | PDF | Tests | Test (Assessment)

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