SSC Je 2024 English Answer Key Compilation - Byrm

Junior Engineer Civil Mechanical and Electrical Examination 2024 Paper I
Exam Date 07/06/2024

Exam Time 9:00 AM - 11:00 AM
Subject Junior Engineer 2024 Civil Paper I
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.1 How many triangles are there in the given figure?
Ans 1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10
Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘BEAR’ is coded as ‘9715’ and ‘RUST ’ is
coded as ‘8962’. What is the code for ‘R’ in that language?
Ans 1. 9
2. 6
3. 5
4. 8
Q.3 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as
are the numbers of the following sets.
(NOT E : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers,
without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.
13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/deleting/multiplying etc. to 13
can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(6, 24, 12)
(7, 36, 13)
Ans 1. (11, 106, 5)
2. (9, 66, 15)
3. (5, 12, 18)
4. (8, 49, 12)
SSC Updates (Kannada): @the_target100 RankMitra: @RankMitra
Q.4 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror
is placed at OG as shown below.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.5 In a certain code language,

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A − B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is S related to M if ‘N × S ÷ A + R − M’?
Ans 1. Mother ’s father
2. Father
3. Brother ’s daughter
4. Father ’s mother
(NOT E: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers,
13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to
13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
(4, 32, 8)
(9, 54, 6)
Ans 1. (9, 106, 12)
2. (8, 89, 17)
3. (13, 62, 4)
4. (7, 77, 11)
Q.7 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
series based on the English alphabetical order?
LQO, MRP, NSQ, OT R, ?
Ans 1. US P
2. P S U
3. P US
4. UP S
Q.8 What will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following
equation, if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
4 − 8 ÷ 12 + 16 × 2 = ?
Ans 1. 92
2. 94
3. 90
4. 86
FXI, CUF, ZRC, WOZ, ?
Ans 1. S O U
2. S NV
3. R MU
4. T LW
Q.10 In the following number-pairs, the second number is obtained by
applying certain mathematical operations to the first number. Select
the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the
numbers of the following sets.
without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g.,
(36, 75)
(42, 87)
Ans 1. (36, 77)
2. (48, 100)
3. (45, 93)
4. (47, 99)
Q.11
Ans 1. 75
2. 72
3. 69
4. 67
Q.12 Select the option figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the
figure given below to complete the pattern.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘BORN’ is coded as ‘6248’ and ‘NEST ’ is

coded as ‘9873’.
What is the code for ’N’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7
2. 8
3. 2
4. 9
Q.14 Select the word-pair that best represents a similar relationship to
the one expressed in the pair of words given below.
(T he words must be considered as meaningful English words and
must not be related to each other based on the number of
letters/number of consonants/vowels in the word.)
Large : Big
Ans 1. Same : Alike
2. Far : Near
3. First : Last
4. D emolish : R epair
Q.15 AF 19 is related to CH 16 in a certain way. In the same way, GL 23 is

related to IN 20. To which of the following is MR 36 related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. NR 34
2. O R 34
3. NT 33
4. O T 33
series?
96, 104, 112, ?, 128, 136
Ans 1. 125
2. 110
3. 120
4. 115
Q.17 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.18 T he position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of

the letters in the word FORCING is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two
2. Zero
3. O ne
4. Three
BFH, CGI, DHJ, EIK, ?
Ans 1. F JL
2. F IL
3. E JL
4. GK M
Q.20 Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the
following words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Rectangle
2. Hexagon
3. Nonagon
4. Triangle
5. Pentagon
Ans 1. 4, 1, 5 ,2, 3
2. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
3. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
4. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
Q.21
Ans 1. GHU
2. T F Y
3. JD Y
4. JD N
VWZ, BCF, HIL, NOR, T UX, ?
Ans 1. ZAC
2. ZAD
3. YB E
4. YB D
Q.23 What should come in place of ‘?’ in the given series?
743, 648, 553, 458, 363, ?
Ans 1. 275
2. 246
3. 253
4. 268
Q.24 5 is related to 67 following a certain logic. Following the same logic,
7 is related to 93. To which of the following is 11 related following
the same logic?
without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits.
E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying
to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
Ans 1. 145
2. 144
3. 146
4. 148
ACKP, GIQV, MOWB, SUCH, ?

Ans 1. YAIN
2. YB IN
3. YHJK
4. YAS D
Q.26 Santhosh starts from his home and drives 5 km towards the east. He
then takes a right turn, drives 8 km, turns left, and drives 3 km. He
then takes a right turn and drives 5 km and turns left, then drives 3
km to reach his office.
In which direction is the office with respect to his home?
(All turns are 90° turns only, unless specified.)
Ans 1. South-east
2. North-east
3. West
4. North
Q.27 NRMJ is related to PTOL in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, QUPM is related to SWRO. To
which of the following is T XSP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. VZUR
2. VZR U
3. ZVR U
4. ZVUR
Q.28 In a group of five friends, each has a different age. Sony is younger
than Ramesh. Mohan is younger than Chand. Only two people are
older than Chand. Sita is younger than Mohan. Who is the second
youngest in the group?
Ans 1. C hand
2. Sony
3. Sita
4. Mohan
Q.29 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in
the given series?
225, 200, 183, 174, ?, 168
Ans 1. 168
2. 170
3. 167
4. 169
Q.30 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded as its
part (rotation is NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.31 In a certain code language, ‘we are friends’ is written as ‘aj er kl’
and ‘friends are forever’ is written as ‘er aj pu’. How is ‘forever’
written in the given language?
Ans 1. pu
2. er
3. kl
4. aj
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.33 If ‘A’ stands for ‘+’, ‘B’ stands for ‘−’, ‘C’ stands for ‘×’and ‘D’ stands
for ‘÷’, what will be come in place of question mark (?) in the
following equation?
35 C 4 D 7 B 10 A 2 = ?
Ans 1. 8
2. 10
3. 13
4. 12
Q.34 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that
the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to
be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given
conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statement: Some ceilings are skies. Some skies are blue.
Conclusion 1: Some ceilings are blue.
Conclusion 2: Some skies are not blue.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion 2 follows
2. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows
3. Both conclusion 1 and 2 follow
4. O nly conclusion 1 follows
Q.35 LMNB is related to PQRF in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, CDFH is related to GHJL. To
which of the following is KT SO related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. LK F R
2. O XW S
3. RT JH
4. B MGH
Horse : Mare
Ans 1. D rone : D uck
2. Peacock : Vixen
3. Buck : D oe
4. Fox : Goose
Q.37 IK 3 is related to EO 7 in a certain way. In the same way, YO 5 is
related to US 9. To which of the following is ZU 5 related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. W V 7
2. VW 7
3. VY 9
4. VX 9
Q.38 L, M, N, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the
center (not necessarily in the same order). Only three people sit
between F and N when counted from the left of F. Only three people
sit between L and E when counted from the left of L. Only three
people sit between G and D when counted from the left of G. D sits
to the immediate left of N. M is not an immediate neighbour of E.
Who sits third to the right of M?
Ans 1. E
2. F
3. D
4. G
Q.39 What will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation, if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
82 + 52 ÷ 26 × 13 − 4 = ?
Ans 1. −68
2. 9
3. 36
4. −18
the letters in the word ACQUIRE is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two
2. O ne
3. Zero
4. Three
Q.41 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship
as that shared by the given number triads.
2-8-32
5-20-80
(NOT E: Operations should be performed on the whole number,
13- Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed.)
Ans 1. 1-4-12
2. 4-8-12
3. 5-25-100
4. 3-12-48
Q.42 11 is related to 77 following a certain logic. Following the same
logic, 16 is related to 112. To which of
the following is 21 related, following the same logic?
without breaking down the numbers
into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can
be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3
is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 145
2. 147
3. 149
4. 151
Q.43 A dice has its faces marked by numbers 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and 9. Two
positions of the same dice are shown below. Which of the given
statements follows?
I) T he sum of face 9 and the face opposite to it is a multiple of 3.
II) Face 8 has a prime number as its opposite face.
Ans 1. Both statements I and II follow.

2. O nly statement I follows.
3. Neither statement I nor II follows.
4. O nly statement II follows.
Q.44 YV15 is related to T Q13 in a certain way. In the same way, VS19 is
related to QN17. To which of the following is XU13 related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. S T13
2. S P11
3. R P11
4. R P13
Q.45 PS 77 is related to UX 108 in a certain way. In the same way, RK 18
is related to WP 49 . To which of the following is BW 59 related,
Ans 1. HC 88
2. IB 87
3. GA 89
4. GB 90
Q.46 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which
conclusion/s logically follow/s from the given statements.
Statements: All kites are rocks. All rocks are lakes. All lakes are
planets.
Conclusions:
(I) All rocks are planets.
(II) At least some lakes are kites.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion (I) follows.
2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
3. O nly conclusion (II) follows.
4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
Q.47 In a certain code language, ‘DEFAULT ’ is coded as ‘DT LUAFE’ and
‘BROUGHT ’ is coded as ‘BT HGUOR’. What is the code for
‘FANTASY’ in the given language?
Ans 1. F YS AT NA
2. YS AT NAF
3. S ATANF
4. YFANTAS
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
‘A − B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’, and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.
How is L related to R if ‘N − S ÷ L × M + Q − R’?
Ans 1. Mother ’s mother
2. Mother
3. Father ’s sister
4. Mother ’s sister
Q.49 Kirti starts from point A and walks 1 km towards east. She takes a
right turn and walks 2 km. She then takes a left turn and walks 3 km.
She takes a right turn and walks 4 km. She takes a left turn and
walks 5 km. She takes a final left turn and walks 6 km to reach a
point B. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction
should she walk in order to reach point A again? (All turns are 90
degree turns only unless specified otherwise.)
Ans 1. 9 km west
2. 8 km west
3. 6 km west
4. 7 km west
Q.50 A, B, C, D, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only D sits between B
and C when counted from the left of B. P sits fourth to the right of
D.R is an immediate neighbour of both P and C.Q is not an
immediate neighbour of P.
How many people are sitting between D and A when counted from
the left of A?
Ans 1. O ne
2. Two
3. Four
4. Three
Section : General Awareness

Q.1 Which phylum includes organisms with radial symmetry, such as sea
anemones and jellyfish?
Ans 1. C nidaria
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Mollusca
4. Porifera
Q.2 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Igneous rocks are used as fuel by igniting them.

B. Sedimentary rocks can never change into metamorphic rocks or
magma.
C. Igneous rocks can change into sedimentary rocks over a long
period of time.
D. Magma can form sedimentary rocks on cooling.
Ans 1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
Q.3 Where was the Paramhans Mandali formed in the year 1840 to
eradicate the Caste System?
Ans 1. Murshidabad
2. Bombay
3. C alcutta
4. D elhi
Q.4 Identify whether the following statements are true (T ) or false (F)
and select the correct option.
A. On solidification, molten magma forms sedimentary rocks.
B. Igneous rocks can be intrusive or extrusive.
C. Under the effect of high temperatures and pressure, sedimentary
rocks change to metamorphic rocks.
D. Under the effect of high temperatures and pressure, igneous
rocks change to metamorphic rocks.
Ans 1. F T T T
2. T T T F
3. T F F F
4. T T F F
Q.5 What is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth?
Ans 1. 12.5 m/s²
2. 9.8 m/s²
3. 6.2 m/s²
4. 3.0 m/s²
Q.6 When was the 'Vivad se Vishwas II (Contractual Disputes)' scheme

announced by the Union Finance Minister?
Ans 1. Union Budget 2020-21
2. Union Budget 2021-22
Q.7 Which of the following states initiated Mukhyamantri Digital Seva
Yojana for women empowerment through increasing digital reach of
women by providing 3 years internet services (data) along with smart
phones in 2022?
Ans 1. Kerala
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. R ajasthan
Q.8 What is the keyboard shortcut to edit the contents of a cell in
Microsoft Excel?
Ans 1. F2
2. Alt + E
3. Shift + Enter
4. C trl + S
Q.9 T he Parsi reform movement Rahnumai Mazdayasna Sabha was
founded in which year?
Ans 1. 1841
2. 1851
3. 1855
4. 1849
Q.10 According to Census of India 2011, what is the percentage of Hindu
population in India?
Ans 1. 79.8%
2. 84.1%
3. 75.6%
4. 72.7%
Q.11 Besides the cell organelles, there are various types of non-living
components within a cell, which are known as:
Ans 1. C ytoplasmic Inclusion
2. Plasmodesmata
3. Tubules
4. Microfibrils
Q.12 Who sworn in as a member of the Union Public Service Commission
in September 2023?
Ans 1. Suman Sharma
2. D inesh D asa
3. Preeti Sudan
4. Bidyut Behari Swain
Q.13 Who was the first Sultan of the Sultanate period who arranged for
the translation of Hindu scriptures from Sanskrit to Persian?
Ans 1. Sikandar Khan Lodi
2. Firoz Shah Tughlaq
3. Muhammad bin Tughluq
4. Alauddin Khilji
Q.14 T he type of carbohydrate predominantly found in potatoes is

__________.
Ans 1. Sugar
2. Glucose
3. Starch
4. Fructose
Q.15 Which government agency released the draft Registration of
Consumer Organisations (Amendment) Regulations on 14
September 2023?
Ans 1. Telecom R egulatory Authority of India (T R AI)
2. Insurance R egulatory and D evelopment Authority of India (IR D AI)
3. Advertising Standards C ouncil of India (AS C I)
4. Securities and Exchange Board of India (S E B I)
Q.16 T he Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill 2023 aims

to make the _______________ only conclusive age proof that can be
used as a single document for various purposes.
Ans 1. S T/S C /O B C C ertificate
2. Birth C ertificate
3. Voter ID
4. Aadhar C ard
Q.17 Who can appoint the judges of the High Court?
Ans 1. Prime Minister
2. President
3. Attorney General
4. Governor
Q.18 In the ecosystem, there can be multiple food chains, but only a
limited number of trophic levels. Based on this statement which of
the following is NOT true?
A: Each level in the food chain represents one trophic level
B: Organisms in the lowest trophic level have the highest
population as a lot of energy is available for their survival
C: T here is a loss of energy as it is being absorbed by organisms at
the higher trophic level
D: Organisms at the highest trophic level make their own food and
do not fully depend on the lower trophic organisms for energy.
Ans 1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Q.19 In which of the following Indian States was the 50
t h All India Inter-
Institutional Table Tennis Championships organised in 2023?
Ans 1. Kerala
2. Karnataka
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Haryana
Q.20 In which year was the Swaran Singh Committee set up by the Indira
Gandhi Government?
Ans 1. 1976
2. 1978
3. 1972
4. 1974
Q.21 T he National Lata Mangeshkar Award 2021 was given to:

Ans 1. Arijit Singh
2. Udit Narayan
3. Sonu Nigam
4. Kumar Sanu
Q.22 Which Article of the Constitution of India grants citizens the right to
freedom of speech and expression, freedom of assembly and
freedom to practice any profession?
Ans 1. Article 17
2. Article 18
3. Article 19
4. Article 25
Q.23 Which of the following is the most important disease related to
Vitamin C deficiency?
Ans 1. Pellagra
2. Atherosclerosis
3. Scurvy
4. Goitre
Q.24 T he excess cadmium accumulation in our body, damages which part
of the body?
Ans 1. Hands and feet
2. Eye
3. Stomach
4. Liver and kidneys
Q.25 As of July 2023, who is the Chief Minister of Karnataka?
Ans 1. B S Yedurappa
2. Jagadish Shettar
3. Siddaramaiah
4. Basavaraj Bommai
Q.26 In which state is the Bhitarkanika National Park located?
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu
2. O disha
3. Jharkhand
4. Manipur
Q.27 What is the height of Mahendragiri which is the highest peak in the
Eastern Ghats?
Ans 1. 1150 meters
2. 1510 meters
3. 1051 meters
4. 1501 meters
Q.28 Which of the following is an example of a terrestrial biome?
Ans 1. Estuary
2. Kelp forest
3. C oral reef
4. Taiga
Q.29 Pandit Kumar Gandharva received the ________________________ in

1977 for his contributions in the field of Hindustani Classical music.
Ans 1. Padma Bhushan
2. Padma Shri
3. Tansen Samman
4. Karnataka R atna
Q.30 What is the chemical reaction that occurs when fats or oils combine
with a strong alkali, such as sodium hydroxide, to make soap?
Ans 1. Saponification
2. C ombustion
3. Fermentation
4. O xidation
Q.31 What is the purpose of the geo-portal 'Greening and Restoration of
Wastelands with Agroforestry (GROW)' developed by NIT I Aayog?
Ans 1. Promoting agro-based industries
2. Identifying suitable areas for agroforestry interventions
3. Tracking wildlife migration
4. Monitoring urban agriculture development projects
Q.32 Choose the correct statement/s from the following.
i. It is difficult to carry one’s wealth under a barter system of
transactions.
ii. Money is perishable and it cannot be stored.
iii. An increase in the price level can diminish the purchasing power
of currency.
Ans 1. i and iii
2. ii and iii
3. i and ii
4. O nly ii
Q.33 Which of the following are the requisite qualifications of Supreme
Court judges?
1) He should be a citizen of India.
2) He should have been a High Court judge for five years or should
have been a High Court advocate for ten years.
3) He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the
President.
4) He should be a minimum of 35 years old.
Ans 1. O nly 1, 3 and 4
2. O nly 1, 2 and 3
3. O nly 1, 2 and 4
4. O nly 2, 3 and 4
Q.34 What did the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education
Act 2009 in India lay down?
Ans 1. Legal underpinnings for achieving universal higher education
2. Legal underpinnings for achieving vocational education
3. Legal underpinnings for achieving universal elementary education
4. Legal underpinnings for achieving quality and excellence in
education
Q.35 T he primary function of which globular structure is to produce and

assemble the ribosomes of the cell?
Ans 1. C hromatin
2. Nucleolus
3. C entriole
4. Peroxisomes
Q.36 Meera shifted to a new house and was fixing light bulbs in her
apartment. One of the three bulbs she fixed did not light up. Upon
testing she realised it was a case of fused bulb. So, she bought a
new one which then lit up perfectly. Select the correct option that
describes what happened to the fused bulb.
Ans 1. The switch for the bulb was not turned on
2. Meera did not fix the bulb to the holder properly
3. The filament inside it was broken
4. There was no connection between the bulb holder and the switch
Q.37 Which chief minister launched the process of distributing 'Orunodoi
Cards' to new beneficiaries in October 2023?
Ans 1. YS Jagan Mohan R eddy
2. Neiphiu R io
3. Pinarayi Vijayan
4. Himanta Biswa Sarma
Q.38 Which sport is Leander Paes associated with?
Ans 1. Table Tennis
2. Tennis
3. Badminton
4. Squash
Q.39 Which institution was formed on 2 April 1990?
Ans 1. S ID B I
2. E XIM Bank
3. NHB
4. IR B I
Q.40 Brine water is saturated or strongly impregnated with which of the
following ionic compounds?
Ans 1. Sodium hydroxide
2. Sodium bromide
3. Sodium chloride
4. Sodium iodide
Q.41 Which river has its source in the Western Ghats range of Karnataka
state?
Ans 1. Banas
2. Sarayu
3. Kosi
4. Kaveri
Q.42 What does the 'Print Range' option allow you to specify while
printing a document?
Ans 1. Number of copies to print
2. Specific area or range of pages to print
3. Paper size and type
4. Printer settings
Q.43 Which of the following organisations was established in 1906?
Ans 1. Akhil Bharat Hindu Mahasabha
2. All India Muslim League
3. Servants of India Society
4. Parsi R eligious R eform Association
Q.44 According to Census of India 2011,India’s population accounts for
_______ of the world’s population.
Ans 1. 15.5%
2. 17.5%
3. 19.3%
4. 21.7%
Q.45 Which element is a transition metal in Group 9 of the periodic table?
Ans 1. Iron (Fe)
2. C opper (C u)
3. Nickel (Ni)
4. C obalt (C o)
Q.46 According to Agricultural Statistics at a Glance 2022, Government of
India, which state produced 44.48% groundnut of India during the
year 2021-2022?
Ans 1. R ajasthan
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Maharashtra
4. Gujarat
Q.47 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is related
to the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Ans 1. Articles 11-50
2. Articles 25-55
3. Articles 36-51
4. Articles 50-101
Q.48 In which year did Rudolf Virchow develop his ideas by publishing his
famous formula 'Omnis cellula-e cellula', which became a part of the
foundation of cell theory?
Ans 1. 1830
2. 1855
3. 1890
4. 1902
Q.49 What is u in the equation s = ut + ½ at
2 , which represents the
position-time relation?
Ans 1. Uniform acceleration
2. Initial velocity
3. Speed of the object
4. C hange in momentum
Q.50 What is the most common factor for the yellowing of the Taj Mahal
gradually over the years?
Ans 1. Acid rain
2. C arbon monoxide present in air
3. Marble turns yellow with time
4. Marble reacts with nitrogen in air
Section : General Engineering Civil and Structural

Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a warning sign?
i. Pedestrian Crossing
ii. Men at Work
iii. School
iv. Truck Prohibited
v. No stopping
Ans 1. Both iv and v
2. Both i and iv
3. Both ii and iii
4. Both ii and v
Q.2 As per India Road Congress, what is the carriage way width of a
single lane road with raised kerbs?
Ans 1. 2 m
2. 3 m
3. 3.75 m
4. 2.5 m
Q.3 In a hydraulic jump occurring in a horizontal rectangular channel,
the sequent depths are 0.25 m and 1.25 m. T he energy loss in this
jump is:
Ans 1. 1 m
2. 1.5 m
3. 0.80 m
4. 1.25 m
Q.4 A compound pipeline consists of two pieces of identical pipes. T he
equivalent length of the same diameter and the same friction factor
for this compound pipeline is L 1 when the pipes are connected in
series and is L 2 when the pipes are connected in parallel. Determine
the ratio of equivalent lengths, that is, L 1 to L2 .
Ans 1. 64 : 1
2. 4 : 1
3. 32 : 1
4. 8 : 1
Q.5 A slab is classified as a one-way slab if _____.
Where
L y = larger dimension of the slab
L x = Shorter dimension of the slab
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.6 As per IS 10262 : 2019, what is the approximate amount of entrapped

air to be expected in normal (non-air-entrained) concrete, when 10
mm Nominal Maximum Size of Aggregate is used in making
concrete?
Ans 1. 1.5
2. 1.0
3. 0.5
4. 2.0
Q.7 A material has linear strains along X, Y and Z directions as 0.05, 0.10
and 0.10, respectively. Hydrostatic stress acting at a point in the
material is 25 N/mm2 . Calculate the bulk modulus.
Ans 1. 250 N/mm2
2. 500 N/mm2
3. 100 N/mm2
4. 125 N/mm2
Q.8 Which of the following tests is commonly used to measure the

softening point of bitumen?
Ans 1. Penetration test
2. D uctility test
3. R ing and ball test
4. Flash point test
Q.9 What are the two types of energy recovery processes?
Ans 1. C ombustion and pyrolysis
2. Exothermic process and combustion
3. Exothermic process and pyrolysis
4. Endothermic process and pyrolysis
Q.10 Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest carbon content?
Ans 1. Tar
2. Asphalt
3. Bitumen
4. Methane
Q.11 What is the chemical combination formula of Plaster of Paris?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.12 As per the Environment Protection Act, 1986, what are the permitted
noise limits (in decibel) for the silence zone during day time and
night time?
Ans 1. 60 and 50, respectively
2. 50 and 60, respectively
Q.13 In the case of Atterberg limits of a soil, the shrinkage index of the
soil will be equal to :
Ans 1. the difference between the liquid limit and shrinkage limit
2. the sum of shrinkage ratio and flow index
3. the difference between the plastic limit and shrinkage limit
4. the difference between the liquid limit and plastic limit
Q.14 In the estimation of minimum radius of horizontal circular curve on
non-urban highways following IRC : 73 - 1980, using the equation
R= v 2 /(g(e + f)) , the notation ‘f ’ represents _________.
Ans 1. W idth of roadway
2. Vehicle speed
3. Superelevation ratio
4. C o-efficient of side friction between vehicle tyres and pavement
Q.15 How does the age of concrete affect its compressive strength?,
consider the age limit as 28 days with continued curing.
Ans 1. Age of concrete doesnot affect the compressive strength of
concrete
2. C ompressive strength increases as the age of concrete increases
3. C ompressive strength decreases upto an age 7 days and continues
to decrease on further curing
4. C ompressive strength increases upto an age 14 days and
continues to decrease on further curing
Q.16 For a semicircular plate of diameter ‘D’ and radius ‘R’, with ‘y’ as the
vertical axis passing through the diameter and ‘x’ as the horizontal
axis passing through the diameter, the moment of inertia about the y
axis will be:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 Which of the following statements is true regarding the compensator

used in an electronic theodolite?
Ans 1. It compensates for the effect of tilt of the axis of the bubble tube.
2. It compensates for the effect of vertical axis tilt.
3. It compensates for the effect of horizontal axis tilt.
4. It compensates for the effect of tilt of the line of sight.
Q.18 If the velocity of flow of water through the soil is 0.01 cm/s and the
piezometer readings at the end points A and B of soil sample are 10
cm and 5 cm, respectively. T he distance between the points A and B
is 20 cm. Find the coefficient of permeability of the soil sample.
Ans 1. 0.25 cm/s
2. 0.04 cm/s
3. 0.025 cm/s
4. 4 cm/s
Q.19 In a sieve analysis of soil, the total weight of soil taken was 500 g.
T he mass of soil retained over 4.75 mm sieve was 100 g, mass
retained over 2 mm sieve was 150 g, and the mass retained over 425-
micron sieve was 200 g. T he effective size of the soil will be:
Ans 1. 75 microns
2. 425 microns
3. 4.75 mm
4. 2 mm
Q.20 An abstract of estimated cost is prepared after obtaining the cost of
each individual item of work and then adding them all together. T his
estimated cost is increased by 5% to account for any unforeseen
expenses, which are referred to as:
Ans 1. work charged establishment
2. departmental charges
3. contingencies
4. overhead charges
Q.21 In regard to the resection method of plane table survey, the term
‘resector’ refers to the _____________.
Ans 1. rays drawn from the known location of the station to the un-plotted
location of the points
2. rays drawn from the un-plotted location of the station to the known
3. rays drawn from the un-plotted location of the station to the un-
plotted location of the points
4. rays drawn from the known location of the station to the known
Q.22 T he fineness of a cement sample is determined by using _________
method.
Ans 1. Blaine’s air permeability
2. Le C hatelier
3. slump cone
4. universal testing
Q.23 Which of the given condition is ensured in RC members due to the
proper bond between reinforcing steel and surrounding concrete?
Ans 1. Force compatibility
2. Bending compatibility
3. Stress compatibility
4. Strain compatibility
Q.24 If the water table reaches the ground level, the unit weight of soil
for bearing capacity calculation is taken as:
Ans 1. bulk unit weight
2. saturated unit weight
3. submerged unit weight
4. dry unit weight
Q.25 For an irrigation project, Culturable Command area (CCA) =
Ans 1. C ulturable C ommand Area (C C A) = Gross C ommand Area (GC A)
2. C ulturable C ommand Area (C C A) = Gross C ommand Area (GC A)
+ Unculturable area
3. C ulturable C ommand Area (C C A) = Gross C ommand Area (GC A)
− Unculturable area
4. C ulturable C ommand Area (C C A) = Unculturable area − Gross
C ommand Area (GC A)
Q.26 In a soil’s three-phase diagram, the constituents of soil are:

Ans 1. segregated in three parts
2. mixed together
3. segregated in four parts
4. segregated in two parts
Q.27 Which of the following statements about the circular sewer section
is INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. It offers the maximum cross-sectional area for the amount of
materials used in walls.
2. Under the full-flow condition, a circular sewer has the maximum
hydraulic radius.
3. C ircular sewers are easy to construct.
4. It has low structural stability.
Q.28 According to the Mohr-Coulomb failure criterion in soils, which of
the following statements are INCORRECT ?
A: Shear strength is attributable to the interlocking of soil particles
and cohesion.
B: Shear strength is only attributable to the internal friction
between particles.
C: T he Y-intercept represents friction of soils.
D: T he Mohr–coulomb failure envelope is a straight line.
Ans 1. B and D
2. B and C
3. A and D
4. A and C
Q.29 In a circular tube of diameter 100 mm and length 15 m with laminar
flow, the Darcy friction factor is estimated to be 0.05. Calculate the
Reynolds number.
Ans 1. 2500
2. 1000
3. 1280
4. 900
Q.30 In plywood, three or more veneers in odd numbers are placed one
above the other with the direction of grains of successive layers at
________ to each other.
Ans 1. 30°
2. 90°
3. 60°
4. 45°
Q.31 What is the function of a non-return valve?
Ans 1. Blocks the flow of fluid in all directions in a pipe flow system
2. Allows flow of liquid in a direction opposite to the pumping direction
of liquid
3. Allow the flow of liquid in one direction and prevents it from flowing
back in opposite direction in a pipe flow system
4. Allow the flow of liquid in both upward and downward direction in a
pipe flow system
Q.32 As per IS 3129-1985, the permissible tolerance for the length of

finished boards shall be ___________.
Ans 1. ±2 mm
2. ±8 mm
3. ±4 mm
4. ±6 mm
Q.33 Which of the following estimate in done to account the costs
required to keep the built structure in working and safe condition?
Ans 1. C omplete estimate
2. R epair and maintenance estimate
3. Q uantity estimate
4. R evised estimate
Q.34 Which of the following is used as a finishing coat for surfaces of X-
ray rooms?
Ans 1. Barium plaster
2. Snowcrete
3. C olocrete
4. Parian cement
Q.35 Which of the following reinforced concrete structure is commonly
used to keep the earth in vertical and stable position at locations
where the ground level changes abruptly?
Ans 1. Slab
2. Beam
3. R etaining wall
4. C olumn
Q.36 Select the option that is appropriate regarding the following two
statements labelled Assertion and Reason.
Assertion: T he volume of water stored in a reservoir between the
normal pool level and the maximum pool level is known as surcharge
storage.
Reason: Surcharge storage is mainly to detain the flood water so
that it does not cause any danger on the downstream side.
Ans 1. Both Assertion and R eason are false.
2. Both Assertion and R eason are true and R eason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
3. Assertion is true, but R eason is false.
4. Both Assertion and R eason are true, but R eason is not the correct
Q.37 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to specifications
on the partial safety factors for material strength, and are used in
limit state design of RC structures
Ans 1. A partial safety factor ‘1.15’ is used for steel under serviceability
limit state
2. A higher partial safety factor has been assigned to concrete
compared with reinforcing steel under the ultimate limit state.
3. A partial safety factor 1.5 is used for concrete under ultimate limit
state
4. A partial safety factor ‘1’ is used for concrete under serviceability
limit state
Q.38 In case of unavailability of space for providing development length

in an RCC beam which option shall NOT be used to satisfy the
criteria of development length?
Ans 1. Bends
2. Mechanical anchorages
3. Hooks
4. C hairs
Q.39 Identify the correct relationship for annual sinking fund.
Where,
I = Annual sinking fund,
S = Total amount of sinking fund invested on that
i = Rate of interest
n = number of years required to get ‘S’
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.40 What is the major function of a water distribution system?

Ans 1. To carry water from the source to the filtration unit
2. To carry water from the source to the pump house
3. To carry water from the treatment plant to individual homes
4. To carry water from individual homes to the treatment plant
Assertion: In lined canals, the increased velocity eliminates the
possibility of silting in the canal bed.
Reason: Canal lining provides a smooth and stable surface and thus,
the velocity of the flow can be increased.
Ans 1. Both Assertion and R eason are true and R eason is the correct
4. Both Assertion and R eason are false.
Q.42 Which of the given options represents a doubly reinforced beam?
Ans 1. A least Single layer of reinforcement in both tension and
compression face
2. Two layers of reinforcement in only tension face
3. Single layer of reinforcement in only compression face
4. D ouble layer of reinforcement in only compression face
Q.43 Estimate the quantity of plastering required to plaster both the face
of a wall of 5 m long, 4m high and 30 cm thickness, Ignore thickness
faces of wall
Ans 1. 20 sq. m
2. 24 sq. m
3. 40 sq. m
4. 50 sq. m
Q.44 A diamond intersection on the road is a type of:
Ans 1. T intersection
2. Grade separated intersection
3. At grade intersection
4. Four way stop
Q.45 T he integration constant C1 used in Macaulay’s method of anlaysis
is obtained by applying_______ to the integrated(1st integral)
differential equation of given beam elastic curve.
Ans 1. Partial Factor of safety
2. boundary condition for deflection
3. boundary condition for slope
4. Load factor
Q.46 Sodium clay can be used in the core of earthen dams because it has
_________ .
Ans 1. low permeability
2. high permeability
3. low porosity
4. high strength
Q.47 Calculate the net area of the tension member consists a drilled hole
of diameter 22 mm to place a M20 bolt. Take thickness of the tension
member as 10 mm and gross area 1000 mm2 .
Ans 1. 550 mm2
2. 1000 mm2
3. 780 mm2
4. 680 mm2
Q.48
Ans 1. 60
2. 24
3. 2.5
4. 12.67
Q.49 T he process that uses reclamation of saline soil, in which
agricultural land is flooded with water to a depth of about 20-30 cm,
is known as ____________.
Ans 1. surface drainage
2. leaching
3. washing
4. sub-surface drainage
Q.50 Which process of cement manufacturing is commonly used in modern
cement plants?
Ans 1. D ry or wet process based on structural element the cement is used
for
2. D ry process
3. D ry or wet process based on setting time requirement of cement
4. Wet process
Assertion: T he main disadvantage of drip irrigation is requirement
for a high initial investment.
Reason: Drip irrigation requires regular flushing and supervision.
Assertion: Due to the inherent nature of various parameters
involved in the process, the yield from a catchment is a random
variable.
Reason: T he yield from a catchment is the end-product of various
processes such as precipitation, infiltration and evapotranspiration
operating on the catchment.
Ans 1. Assertion is true, but R eason is false.
Q.53 Which property of borosilicate glass makes it suitable for thermal
shock resistance ?
Ans 1. Low density
2. High refractive index
3. Low thermal expansion coefficient.
4. High transparency
Q.54 Match the following flood control works with their functions.
Ans 1. A-1, B-3, C -2

2. A-2, B-1, C -3
3. A-2, B-3, C -1
4. A-1, B-2, C -3
Q.55 Which of the following is NOT a source of noise pollution?
Ans 1. Soft music
2. Aircraft sounds
3. Traffic noise
4. Noise from industrial areas
Q.56 Calculate the slenderness ratio and classify the column type in
accordance with IS 456 : 2000, if the diameter of column is 300 mm
and effective length 3m.
Ans 1. 13; long column
2. 15; short column
3. 8; long column
4. 10; short column
Q.57 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.58 In which type of seasoning is timber immersed in a solution of

suitable salt, and then taken out and seasoned in ordinary way?
Ans 1. Kiln seasoning
2. C hemical seasoning
3. Water seasoning
4. Boiling
Q.59 In levelling, ___________ is also called minus sight.
Ans 1. fore sight
2. back sight
3. Inverted intermediate sight
4. intermediate sight
Q.60 According to the Newton’s law of viscosity, the shear stress of a

fluid element layer is directly proportional to the ________.
Ans 1. pressure
2. rate of shear strain
3. bulk modulus
4. elastic modulus
Q.61 For a linearly elastic, homogeneous, and isotropic material having
modulus of rigidity- G and modulus of elasticity- E, the range of G is
given as ______.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.62 A 15 cm diameter orifice discharging from a tank issues out a jet of

diameter 12.75 cm diameter at a vena contracta. T he coefficient of
contraction is ______________.
Ans 1. 0.682
2. 0.85
3. 0.722
4. 0.62
Q.63 T he water-cement ratio is given by ________.
Ans 1. Weight of water / Weight of cement
2. Weight of cement / weight of water
3. Weight of cement / Volume of water
4. Volume of water / Weight of cement
Q.64 Which of the following types of joints is a temporary joint left
between subsequent concreting operations?
Ans 1. Expansion joint
2. Isolation joint
3. C ontraction joint
4. C onstruction joint
Q.65 T he shear stress at a point in a liquid is found to be 0.02 N/m2 . T he
velocity gradient at this point is 0.20 s−1 . What will be the viscosity
of the liquid (in Poise)?
Ans 1. 10
2. 2
3. 1
4. 0.4
Q.66 Which of the following test apparatus is used to determine the
temperature susceptibility of bitumen?
Ans 1. R ing and ball apparatus
2. Pensky Marten test apparatus
3. Tar viscometer
4. Penetrometer
Q.67 Which method is used for the preparation of detailed estimate?

Ans 1. Unit quantity method
2. Bay method
3. Square metre method
4. C ubic content method
Q.68 Which of the following statements are correct
In chain/tape surveying, the 3-4-5 method can be used:
i. to setout contour line
ii. to draw a perpendicular line to the chain line,
iii. to draw a perpendicular offset,
iv. to remove the obstacle to ranging.
Ans 1. ii and iii
2. i and iv
3. iii and iv
4. ii and iv
Q.69 What does the following traffic sign indicate?
Ans 1. Major R oad

2. Narrow bridge ahead
3. R ailway crossing
4. O ne way
Assertion: To prevent water logging, intercepting drains can be
provided along the course of irrigation canals, in places where the
percolation of water is detected.
Reason: T he percolating water is intercepted by drains and the
water is carried to other natural water courses.
Ans 1. BothAssertion and R eason are false.
Q.71 In order to allow the seepage water to escape without dislocating
the soil particles a/an _______ is provided at the downstream end of
the impervious floor of a weir.
Ans 1. pervious floor
2. launching apron
3. inverted filter
4. graded filter
Q.72 T he 3R Principle is a concept for ________.
Ans 1. sanitation
2. water treatment
3. waste management
4. plastic waste treatment
Q.73 During the alignment of a road by using direct ranging, the surveyor
raises both the hands above his head and then, brings them down as
a signal for his assistant. T he correct action taken by his assistant
would be __________.
Ans 1. moving the ranging rod backward along the same line
2. Lift the ranging rod above the knee level
3. considering that the ranging rod is at correct position
4. moving the ranging rod forward along the same line
Ans 1. Flocculation is a chemical technique that is directed towards the
destabilisation of charged particles and the coagulation promotes the
agglomeration of stabilised particles.
2. Filters purify water through the following four different processes:
mechanical straining, flocculation and sedimentation, biological
metabolism and electrolyte charges charging.
3. Activated carbon is a de-chlorinating agent.
4. In plain sedimentation tanks, the removal of particles is independent
of the depth of the sedimentation tank.
Q.75 T he soil component with particles passing through 4.75 mm IS sieve
but retained on 75 micron IS sieve, is known as _______.
Ans 1. residue
2. sand
3. cobble
4. mud
Q.76 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Mohr-
Coulomb failure criteria on soils.
I: Mohr failure envelope is approximated as straight line but in
actual, it is curved.
II: Mohr failure envelope is approximated as a curved line but in
actual, it is straight.
III: T he Mohr circle drawn for soil cannot cross the Mohr failure
envelope.
IV. Cohesion c and angle of internal friction φ are fundamental
properties of soil and are independent of testing conditions.
.
Ans 1. II and III
2. I and IV
3. I and III
4. II and IV
Q.77 In triangulation, the point at which astronomical observations for the
azimuth and the longitude are made by use of Laplace equation is
called __________.
Ans 1. Laplace station
2. subsidiary station
3. base station
4. base line
Q.78 Which of the following methods is used for designing a turnout
taking off from a staright railway track?
Ans 1. Westergaard’s method
2. C oles method
3. R ankine’s method
4. C oulomb’s method
Q.79 For construction of WBM roads, which of the following is the correct
sequence of operation after spreading the crushed aggregate?
Ans 1. D ry rolling, wet rolling, application of binding material, filling voids
with screening
2. Filling voids with screening, application of binding material, dry
rolling, wet rolling
3. D ry rolling, filling voids with screening, wet rolling, application of
binding material
4. Wet rolling, application of binding material, dry rolling, filling voids
with screening
Q.80
Ans 1. 0.0003 radians

2. 0.00015 radians
3. 0.0015 radians
4. 0.003 radians
Q.81 How is municipal solid waste classified on the basis of its source?
Ans 1. Industrial waste and non-industrial waste
2. House refuse, street refuse and trade refuse
3. R esidential waste and industrial waste
4. R esidential refuse and non-residential refuse
Q.82 In steel and iron works, dimensions excepting cross-section and
thickness of plate shall be measured to nearest ________ m except
for reinforcement in reinforced concrete works.
Ans 1. 0.002
2. 0.003
3. 0.001
4. 0.005
Q.83 If Reynolds number is less than 500, the flow is said to be laminar
for the:
Ans 1. pipe flow
2. free surface flow
3. flow between parallel plates
4. flow through soil
Q.84 Consider the following statements with respect to cubical content
method.
I. T his is a preliminary estimate.
II. T his is an approximate estimate.
Which of the following options is true?
Ans 1. O nly statement II is true
2. O nly statement I is true
3. Both statements I and II are true
4. Both statements I and II are false
Q.85 In order to have exactly zero tensile stress at one extreme fibre of a
solid circular section (dia - D) subjected to combined direct
(compressive) and bending stresses, a normal point load is needed
to be placed ________.
Ans 1. at a radial distance D /4 from the centre
2. at a radial distance D /6 from the centre
3. at a radial distance D /3 from the centre
4. beyond a distance of 3D /8 measured towards the core from the
periphery
Q.86 A tank has height and width as 4m and 3m, respectively. Determine
the total water force, in kN, acting on the bottom of the tank when it
is completely filled with water. Take density of water as 1000 kg/m3
and acceleration due to gravity as 9.81 m/sec2 (Take the length of
tank as 3m.)
Ans 1. 351.26
2. 345.13
3. 400.57
4. 353.16
Q.87 Calculate the volume of earthwork between two sections 40 m apart,
if the mid sectional area between the sections is 15 m2 .
Ans 1. 750 m3
2. 500 m3
3. 450 m3
4. 600 m3
Q.88 If a steel column is designed for its stability, then the slenderness
ratio is defined as the:
Ans 1. ratio of the least lateral dimension to the length
2. ratio of the length to the maximum lateral dimension
3. ratio of the length to the least lateral dimension
4. ratio of the length to the depth
Q.89 Select the INCORRECT statement regarding purification of water.
Ans 1. Type-1 settling involves Stock’s law.
2. Screening is done before plain sedimentation.
3. Sedimentation aided with coagulation is better than plain
sedimentation.
4. Plain sedimentation is also known as type-2 settling.
Q.90 Which of the following statements about sanitary landfilling is
INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. In the sanitary landfilling, filling of refuse is actually carried out by
dividing the entire landfill area into smaller portions called cells.
2. R efuse is dumped into a low-lying area.
3. Waste is stabilised by the aerobic process alone.
4. Another name of sanitary landfilling is controlled tipping.
Q.91 Which of the following is NOT the remedial measure to prevent
water hammer through pipes?
Ans 1. Installing water hammer arrestors
2. D rain your pipes and refill them to create new air chambers
3. C reating vacuum by closing valve
4. Tighten mounting straps to hold pipes in place
Q.92 Which of the given option provides the effective width of an
isolated T- beam of RCC as per IS 456-2000? Assume - bf =effective
width of flange, I 0 = distance between points of zero moments in the
beam, bw = breadth of the web, Df = thickness of flange and b =
actual width of the flange.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.93 When the instrument is stationed near point P, the staff readings at
point P and Q are 1.800 m and 2.600 m, respectively. When the
instrument is stationed near point Q, the staff readings at P and Q
are 1.500 m and 2.400 m, respectively. R.L. of point P is 100 m. Find
the R.L. of point Q.
Ans 1. 98.5 m
2. 97.4 m
3. 100.85 m
4. 99.15 m
Q.94 As per IRC standards, an octagon with white border and red
background is a ___________ sign.
Ans 1. accident prone area
2. no parking
3. stop
4. yield
Q.95 If the whole circle bearing of a line is zero degrees, then the
reduced bearing of the line is in the ______ direction.
Ans 1. south
2. north
3. west
4. east
Q.96 T he maximum water-cement ratios for plain cement concrete and
reinforced cement concrete under severe exposure conditions are
___and ____respectively. Consider the aggregates are normal
weight with 20 mm nominal maximum size.
Ans 1. 0.45; 0.45
2. 0.50; 0.45
3. 0.40; 0.40
4. 0.60; 0.50
Q.97 Find the effective length of an isolated cantilever RCC beam as per
IS 456-2000, where the length from the free end to the face of
support is 1 m, the effective depth of the beam, is 400 mm and the
width of support is 300 mm.
Ans 1. 1.3 m
2. 1.15 m
3. 1.4 m
4. 1.2 m
Q.98 What is the interval at which expansion and contraction joints are
provided in India for smooth interface laid in winter?
Ans 1. 90 to 120 metres
2. 80 to 90 metres
3. 120 to 140 metres
4. 50 to 60 metres
Q.99 T he mean depth is calculated by ________ the depths of two
consecutive sections.
Ans 1. adding
2. averaging
3. multiplying
4. subtract
Q.100 If a device consists of one inlet and one outlet and the volume flow
rates at the inlet and at the outlet are equal, then the flow through
the device:
Ans 1. is not necessarily steady
2. must be steady
3. must be laminar
4. must be uniform

Exam Time 5:00 PM - 7:00 PM
Subject Junior Engineer 2024 Electrical Paper I

Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.2 EHDL is related to ILZH in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, T FRA is related to XJNW. To
which of the following is JUIP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MYD L
2. NZE K
3. MZD K
4. NYE L
Q.3 In a certain code language, ‘CASE’ is coded as ‘8426’ and ‘SLIP’ is
coded as ‘9275’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given language?
Ans 1. 6
2. 2
3. 8
4. 9
the letters in the word ABSOLUT E is arranged in the reverse of the
English alphabetical order?
Ans 1. O ne
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Q.5 What should come in place of ? in the given series?

6, 30, 174, ?, 6222, 37326
Ans 1. 1098
2. 1008
3. 1038
4. 1058
Q.6 In a certain code language, ‘LVCO’ is coded as ’12-22-3-15’ and
‘GIPN’ is coded as ‘7-9-16-14’. What is the code for ‘ZAPG’ in the
given language?
Ans 1. 24-5-14-8
2. 22-2-11-5
3. 26-1-16-7
4. 22-5-15-6
series?
11, 18, 25, 32, 39, ?
Ans 1. 44
2. 45
3. 46
4. 43
Q.8 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing
away from the centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only 3
people sit between B and D when counted from the left of D. B sits
second to the left of E. G sits to the immediate right of C. A is not an
immediate neighbour of D.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of E?
Ans 1. B
2. D
3. A
4. F
UT W, SRU, QPS, ONQ, MLO, ?
Ans 1. K JN
2. K JM
3. LJM
4. LK N
LOR, PSV, T WZ, XAD, BEH, ?
Ans 1. E IM
2. GK L
3. F JM
4. F IL
FIK, GJL, HKM, ILN, ?
Ans 1. JMO
2. JO M
3. O JM
4. O MJ
Q.12 What will come in the place of ‘?’ in the following equation, if ‘+’ and
‘ – ‘ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged?
10 ÷ 8 × 4 – 6 + 2 = ?
Ans 1. 22
2. 24
3. 28
4. 26
‘A + B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’,
‘A − B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.
How is Q related to Y if ‘Q + K − T × D ÷ Y’?
Ans 1. Father
2. Mother ’s mother
3. Mother ’s brother
4. Father ’s father
MOK, LNJ, KMI, JLH, ?
Ans 1. IK G
2. HJG
3. HP J
4. IK H
Q.15 ‘AC 2’ is related to ‘DF 8’ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical and numerical order. In the same way, ‘IK 5’ is related
to ‘LN 125’. To which of the following is ‘PR 7’ related following the
same logic?
Ans 1. S U 343
2. R U 343
3. T U 216
4. S U 216
Q.16 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘–’ and ‘÷’,interchanged
?
4 + 11 × 48 – 6 ÷ 3 = ?
Ans 1. 49
2. 53
3. 46
4. 51
Q.17 DCHE is related to HFPJ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, CABF is related to FBDL. To
which of the following is FIHE related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. P R LJ
2. LR P J
3. P LR J
4. LP R G
logic, 9 is related to 24. To which of the following is 21 related
Ans 1. 96
2. 90
3. 89
4. 99
Q.19 In a certain code language, ‘HOPE’ is coded as ‘7395’ and ‘OURS’ is
What is the code for ‘O’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6
2. 7
3. 9
4. 5
Q.20 If A means +, B means −, C means × and D means ÷, then what will
come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
21 D 7 C 4 A 10 B 13 = ?
Ans 1. 8
2. 9
3. 11
4. 10
Q.21 E, F, G, H, P, Q, and R, are sitting around a circular table facing the

centre (not necessarily in the same order) . Only three people sit
between P and G when counted from the right of P. Only F sits
between R and P when counted from the left of P. Only two people
sit between R and E when counted from the left of R. H is NOT an
immediate neighbour of G.
How many people sit between F and Q when counted from the left of
F?
Ans 1. O ne
2. Four
3. Three
4. Two
is placed at MN as shown below.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.23 In a certain code language, ‘GROW’ is coded as ‘5397’ and ‘WILD’ is
What is the code for ‘W’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 9
2. 6
3. 7
4. 2
as that shared by the given pairs of numbers.
100 : 90
70 : 60
Ans 1. 90 : 70
2. 150 : 145
3. 130 : 110
4. 130 : 120
conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All parrots are rats.
Some rats are lambs.
No lamb is a horse.
Conclusions:
(I) All rats are horses.
(II) Some lambs are parrots.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
3. O nly conclusion (I) follows
4. O nly conclusion (II) follows
13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc.
performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)
(9, 100, 90)
(11, 120, 110)
Ans 1. (13, 260, 130)
2. (14, 164, 154)
3. (15, 130, 120)
4. (12, 130, 120)
Q.27 T his question consists of a pair of words which have a certain
relationship to each other. Select the pair which has the same
relationship.

Brazil : Real
Ans 1. Kenya : Yen
2. C uba : Euro
3. Indonesia : R ial
4. Malaysia : R inggit
series?
18, 30, 42, 54, 66, ?
Ans 1. 78
2. 82
3. 73
4. 70
Q.29 Select the figure from the options that can replace the question
mark (?) and complete the given pattern.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.30 DGFB is related to EFGA in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, EGHC is related to FFIB. To
which of the following is FDHB related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GC AS
2. GC AO
3. GC E R
4. GC IA
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.32
Ans 1. 7
2. 10
3. 9
4. 8
How is H related to E if ‘A − B ÷ H + C × D + E’?
Ans 1. Mother ’s sister
3. Mother
4. D aughter
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.35 Six babies Ria, Sia, Tia, Urja, Vani and Winnie are born one after the
other but not necessarily in the same order. All of them were born in
different cities. Only two babies were born before the one who was
born in Raipur. Only one baby was born between Sia, who was born
in Delhi and the baby born in Raipur. Tia was born before Urja and
just after the baby born in Haridwar. Tia was not born in Raipur. Ria
was born in Bhopal and just before Vani. Tia is born immediately
before the baby born in Ballia. Winnie was not born in Pune.
Who was born just after Sia and in which city?
Ans 1. Urja, R aipur
2. R ia, Bhopal
3. Vani, R aipur
4. Tia, Pune
Q.36 Arrange the following words in which they appear in an English
dictionary and select the correct option.
1. Helical
2. Helium
3. Heighten
4. Hellenic
5. Heiress
Ans 1. 41352
2. 35124
3. 53412
4. 43152
4 is related to 52. To which of the following is 7 related following the
same logic?

Ans 1. 25
2. 27
3. 72
4. 91
logic, 16 is related to 144. To which of the following is 25 related to

Ans 1. 215
2. 225
3. 235
4. 245
1. Cockroach
2. Owl
3. Ant
4. Horse
5. Fox
Ans 1. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
2. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
3. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
4. 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
Statements: All girls are honest. Priya is honest.
Conclusion 1: Priya is a girl.
Conclusion 2: All honest people are girls.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion (1) follows
2. O nly conclusion (2) follows
3. Both conclusion (1) and conclusion (2) follow
4. None of the conclusions follow
Q.41 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given
equation correct?
(165 ÷ 3) + (135 ÷ 5) – 45 + 33 = 66
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not
individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 165 and 135
2. 45 and 3
3. 45 and 33
4. 33 and 5
Greece : Athens
Ans 1. Ireland : D ublin
2. Indonesia : Tehran
3. Norway : Muscat
4. Jordan : Tokyo
Q.43 Manoj starts from his home and drives 4 km towards the north. He
then takes a left turn, drives 5 km, turns right, and drives 9 km. He
then takes a left turn and drives 3 km and turns left then drives 5 km
to reach his office.
Ans 1. North-east
2. West
3. South-east
4. North-west
Q.44 Select the triad in which the numbers are related to each other in
the same way as are the numbers of the given triads.
13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting/multiplying etc. to 13
(12, 9, 96)
(14, 7, 84)
Ans 1. (17, 12, 170)
2. (15, 8, 130)
3. (10, 12, 120)
4. (18, 11, 180)
Q.45 PTOS is related to NRMQ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, JNIM is related to HLGK. To
which of the following is MQLP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. O K NJ
2. O K JN
3. K O NJ
4. K O JN
Q.46 Sandeep starts walking towards the north from a point and walks 30
m. He turns to the right and walks 30 m. He turns to the left and
walks 20 m. He turns to the left and walks 30 m. Finally, he turns to
the left and walks 30 m. How far is he now from the starting point?
(All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 30 m
2. 10 m
3. 15 m
4. 20 m
the letters in the word HARDEST is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two
2. Three
3. Zero
4. O ne
Q.48 Select the figure that is embedded as a part of the main figure (X).
(Rotation is NOT allowed.)
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.49
Ans 1. D UE
2. C D E
3. P O E
4. D O E
LSC, NVG, PYK, RBO, ?
Ans 1. W HI
2. T E S
3. Q D U
4. UGT

Q.1 Which sulphur containing preservative is used to increase the shelf
life of meat products such as fresh sausages and burgers?
Ans 1. Sodium metabisulphite
2. Sodium polysulfides
3. Sodium thiosulfate
4. Sodium phenyl sulfide
Q.2 Which organelle is responsible for producing AT P, the cell's energy
currency?
Ans 1. Nucleus
2. Mitochondrion
3. Golgi apparatus
4. Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.3 It is hot outside. It is cloudy and raining most of the time. It is the
month of June. Which season is it?
Ans 1. W inter
2. Summer
3. Monsoon
4. Spring
Q.4 Who among the following eminent musicians is a famous tabla
player?
Ans 1. Ustad Bade Gulam Ali Khan
2. Ustad Moinuddin Khan
3. Ustad Zakir Hussain
4. Ustad Abdul R ashid Khan
Q.5 What is the unit of electric current?
Ans 1. O hm
2. Watt
3. Volt
4. Ampere
Q.6 According to Article 243 I of the Constitution, the Governor of a
state constitutes the Finance Commission for every __________.
Ans 1. 2 years
2. 3 years
3. 5 years
4. 7 years
Q.7 In how many different combinations do the standard ASCII codes
come?
Ans 1. 64
2. 256
3. 128
4. 100
Q.8 Which of the following is NOT an animal of Phylum Chordate?
Ans 1. Frog
2. Snake
3. R abbit
4. Earthworm
Q.9 T he Y-shaped proteinaceous structure produced by the immune
cells to defend our body against harmful bacteria and viruses are
known as:
Ans 1. immunoglobulin
2. amino acids
3. collagen
4. haemoglobin
Q.10 T he process of measuring various physical and chemical properties

of the rocks and fluids within a wellbore is known as:
Ans 1. well logging
2. drilling
3. reservoir modelling
4. enhanced oil recovery techniques
Q.11 Rank the following states in descending order of their percentage
share of the population in the country's population, as per Census
2011.
Bihar, West Bengal, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
Ans 1. R ajasthan-Madhya Pradesh-Bihar-West Bengal
2. Madhya Pradesh-Bihar-R ajasthan-West Bengal
3. Bihar-West Bengal-Madhya Pradesh-R ajasthan
4. Bihar-Madhya Pradesh-R ajasthan-West Bengal
Q.12 According to Census of India 2011, which is the second most
populated state?
Ans 1. Bihar
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Maharashtra
4. R ajasthan
Q.13 Who said, “Literacy in itself is not Education”?
Ans 1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. B R Ambedkar
Q.14 Who introduced the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill in the Lok
Sabha on 3 August 2023?
Ans 1. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
2. Piyush Goyal
3. Anurag Singh Thakur
4. Ashwini Vaishnaw
Q.15 Which of the following is a simple monocarboxylic acid containing
two carbons?
Ans 1. C apric acid
2. Valeric acid
3. Acetic acid
4. Palmitic acid
Q.16 Which organelle contains enzymes that help break down fatty acids
and detoxify certain compounds in the cell?
Ans 1. Vacuole
2. C entriole
3. Lysosome
4. Peroxisome
Q.17 Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of an

organism?
Ans 1. Nucleus
2. Mitochondria
3. AT P
4. C ell
Q.18 Who is the governor of Reserve Bank of India as of May 2023?
Ans 1. Urijit Patel
2. Shaktikanta D as
3. R aguram R ajan
4. YV Patel
Q.19 Identify the incorrect pair (River and its origin) from the following.
Ans 1. Godavari - Nasik district
2. Narmada - Amarkantak hills
3. Krishna - Brahmagri range
4. Tapi - Satpura ranges
Q.20 When was the ‘Mahatma Gandhi Series’ of Indian Bank notes
started?
Ans 1. 2000
2. 1996
3. 1994
4. 1991
Q.21 What is the difference between a somatic cell and a reproductive
cell?
Ans 1. Somatic cells undergo mitotic cell division while reproductive cells
undergo meiotic cell division.
2. The somatic cells have mitochondria but the reproductive cells do not
have any mitochondria.
3. Somatic cells do not contain any chromosome while reproductive cells

have their own chromosome.
4. The somatic cell and reproductive cell are neither diploid nor haploid.
Q.22 Which is the correct formula to calculate the formula unit mass of a
compound?
Ans 1. Multiplication of all the atomic masses of all the atoms within the
formula
2. Summation of all the atomic weights of all the atoms within the
formula
3. Summation of all the atomic masses of all the atoms within the
formula
4. Multiplication of all the atomic weights of all the atoms within the
formula
Q.23 Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions about
enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Ans 1. Article 138
2. Article 140
3. Article 142
4. Article 144
Q.24 Which of the following does NOT affect the changes in the states of
matter?
A) Changing the kinetic energy in the particles of the matter
B) Changing the temperature of the matter
C) Changing the pressure on the matter
D) Changing the colour of the matter
Ans 1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
Q.25 Why is it safer for our hands to use a wooden spoon while cooking in
a hot pan instead of using a metallic spoon?
Ans 1. Wood is a good conductor of heat and helps in cooking.
2. Wood adds nice flavours to the food being cooked.
3. Wood is an insulator and does not heat up.
4. Wood helps the food cook faster.
Q.26 Which of the following is the domestic first-class cricket
championship in India?
Ans 1. D urand C up
2. R anji Trophy
3. Thomas C up
4. Santosh Trophy
Q.27 Where is the headquarters of the National Remote Sensing Centre
(NRSC)?
Ans 1. Hyderabad
2. Bhubaneshwar
3. Bhopal
4. Lucknow
Q.28 Certain grass-eating animals complete the digestion of food in two
processes. First, they swallow partially digested food and then they
regurgitate and chew upon that food again. What are such animals
known as?
Ans 1. Heterotrophs
2. R egurgitates
3. Autotrophs
4. R uminants
Q.29 Which of the following are NOT contents of soil?
Ans 1. Bacteria and fungi
2. Grains of stones
3. Steroids
4. Minerals
Q.30 In which of the following countries was the revolutionary Ghadar
Party formed?
Ans 1. Germany
2. England
3. The US
4. Switzerland
Q.31 Which agency supported the Bihar State Rural Livelihoods Mission
(Jeevika) in developing digital financial services?
Ans 1. S B I
2. R B I
3. S ID B I
4. S E B I
Q.32 ________, a woman educated at home at Poona, published a book,
Stripurushtulna, criticising the social differences between men and
women.
Ans 1. Pandita R amabai
2. Savitribai Phule
3. Tarabai Shinde
4. Kadambini D evi
Q.33 In which of the following Olympic Games did Dipa Karmakar
participate?
Ans 1. R io 2016
2. London 2012
3. Athens 2004
4. Beijing 2008
Q.34 Which ministry introduced the Press and Registration of Periodicals
(PRP) Bill in Rajya Sabha on 1 August 2023?
Ans 1. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
2. Ministry of C ommerce and Industry
3. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
4. Ministry of C orporate Affairs
Q.35 According to Census of India 2011, which state/union territory has
the second highest sex ratio?
Ans 1. C handigarh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Puducherry
4. Himachal Pradesh
Q.36 T he ________ Health Card Scheme was launched by the Government
of India in the year 2014-15.
Ans 1. Soil
2. Forest
3. Water
4. Mineral
Q.37 Which directive principle was added by the 97th Amendment Act
2011?
Ans 1. O rganisation of village panchayats
2. Promotion of co-operative societies
3. Separation of judiciary from executive
4. Uniform civil code for the citizens
Q.38 Who among the following became the first woman Chief Executive
and Chairperson of the Railway Board on 1 September 2023?
Ans 1. Maria Kalavathy
2. Surekha Bhosale
3. Jaya Varma Sinha
4. Kabitha Mathur
Q.39 Which term refers to the increasing concentration of toxins within

each successive link in the food chain?
Ans 1. Facilitation
2. Biomagnification
3. Stratification
4. D enitrification
Q.40 How does the 'Shram Suvidha Portal' of the Ministry of Labour and
Employment contribute to transparency in labour law enforcement?
Ans 1. By providing child care centres
2. By allowing women to work night shifts
3. By uploading inspection reports within 48 hours
4. By ensuring minimum wages for all employees
Q.41 T he Battle of Chandawar was fought between Muhammad Ghori and
________, a ruler of the Gahadavala dynasty, in 1194.
Ans 1. Vijayachandra
2. Jaichand
3. Harishchandra
4. Govindachandra
Q.42 Which Article of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination on
the grounds of religion, race and caste?
Ans 1. Article 15
2. Article 16
3. Article 17
4. Article 18
Q.43 What is the value of 1 electron volt (eV), which is especially used for
nuclear science?
Ans 1. 2.202 × 10−11 joules
2. 1.202 × 10−15 joules
3. 1.902 × 10−10 joules
4. 1.602 × 10−19 joules
Q.44 Which of the following is a popular email client software?
Ans 1. Microsoft Word

2. Adobe Photoshop
3. Mozilla Firefox
4. Microsoft O utlook
Q.45 When did the government launch Start-up India Seed Fund
Scheme?
Ans 1. 2020
2. 2021
3. 2022
4. 2023
Q.46 T he 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) added three new
words to the Preamble i.e. socialist, secular
and______________________.
Ans 1. fraternity
2. republic
3. democratic
4. integrity
Q.47 T he central government, in 2021, set up an eight-member panel for

framing a new law for drugs, cosmetics and medical devices. Who
headed that panel?
Ans 1. R ajiv Wadhawan
2. D r. VG Somani
3. AK Pradhan
4. NL Meena
Q.48 Who was sworn in as the Governor of Andhra Pradesh on 24
February 2023?
Ans 1. Gulab C hand Kataria
2. S Abdul Nazeer
3. Acharya D ev Vrat
4. Pratap Shukla
Q.49 Eukaryotic organisms can have very complex functions to sustain
themselves. At the cellular level, these involve several different
types of chemical functions like energy production, metabolism etc.
What are the membrane-bound structures called, which are present
within the cell to keep each of these functionalities separate?
Ans 1. Cytoplasm
2. Plasma gel
3. O rganelles
4. Nucleoid
Q.50 Who among the following related to Patiala gharana?
Ans 1. Amir Khan
2. Goswami Lalji Mahara
3. Ghagge Nazir Khan
4. Fateh Ali Khan and Ali Baksh Khan
Section : General Engineering Electrical

Q.1 How does the power factor affect the reading of a wattmeter if
voltage and current are unaltered?
Ans 1. The reading increases with square of the power factor.
2. The reading increases with the power factor.
3. The reading decreases with the power factor.
4. The reading is independent of the power factor.
Q.2 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the principle
of operation of a switched reluctance motor?
1) T he motor relies on the interaction of magnetic fields to produce
rotational motion.
2) T he motor uses brushes and a commutator to produce rotational
motion.
3) T he motor uses permanent magnets to produce rotational motion.
4) T he motor uses a series of switches to control the flow of current
through its coils.
Ans 1. Both 1 and 3
2. O nly 1
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Both 2 and 4
Q.3 T he AC ripples can be reduced in a rectifier circuit by using

capacitive filter by _________ the capacitance value and by ________
the input frequency.
Ans 1. decreasing; increasing
2. increasing; increasing
3. increasing; decreasing
4. decreasing; decreasing
Q.4 A sinusoidal alternating voltage of time period 36 ms has the
maximum value of 250 V. Its value will reach −125 V (half the value of
negative maximum) after _____ milliseconds.
Ans 1. 18
2. 9
3. 3
4. 21
Q.5 Which of the following facts is correct for KCL?
Ans 1. C harge accumulation may or may not be possible
2. Zero charge accumulation at node
3. Energy may be stored at the node
4. Possibility of charge accumulation at node
Q.6 Determine the force required to separate two magnetic surfaces
with a contact area of 4π cm2 and the magnetic flux density across
the surface is 1 wb/m2 .
Ans 1. 800 N
2. 100 N
3. 500 N
4. 1000 N
Q.7 T he method which can be used for the speed control of an induction
motor from the stator side is _________.
Ans 1. V/Z control
2. adding rheostats in rotor circuit
3. V/F control
4. V/R control
Q.8 Which of the following factors will NOT affect the selection of a
resistor?
Ans 1. Power rating (in watts)
2. Thermal resistivity
3. Tolerance
4. Frequency range
Q.9 How does the load factor impact the cost of a unit (kWh) of
electricity?
Ans 1. Higher load factor leads to lower generation costs per unit.
2. Load factor only affects the demand charges, not the generation
costs.
3. Load factor has no impact on the generation costs per unit.
4. Higher load factor leads to higher generation costs per unit.
Q.10 Which of the following testing methods is NOT used to test an AC

energy meter?
Ans 1. Braking test
2. C reep test
3. Starting test
4. Long period dial test
Q.11 In regard to the construction of a synchronous alternator, hydro
alternators have __________.
Ans 1. high speed and smaller diameter
2. larger diameter and low speed
3. low speed and smaller diameter
4. larger diameter and high speed
Q.12 A 400 V, 30 kVA, single-phase alternator has an effective armature
resistance of 0.3 Ω. An excitation current of 20 A produces 266 A
armature current on short-circuit and an EMF of 400 V on open-
circuit. T he synchronous impedance and synchronous reactance of
the alternator are, respectively, ___________.
Ans 1. 20 Ω and 0.3 Ω
2. 0.3 Ω and 20 Ω
3. 1.46 Ω and 1.5 Ω
4. 1.5 Ω and 1.46 Ω
Q.13 Consider the following statements regarding Brushless DC motors
and select the correct option.
(i) In Brushless motors, there is a provision of permanent magnets
that will rotate around a moving armature.
(ii) T he brush-commutator assembly of a conventional DC motor is
replaced by an electronic controller in the Brushless DC motors.
(iii) For same kW rating, the Brushless DC motor is less expensive
than the Brushed conventional DC motor.
Ans 1. (i) and (iii) are false
2. O nly (ii) is false
3. (i) and (ii) are false
4. (ii) and (iii) are false
Q.14 In regard to installations of street lighting, what is the average
illumination level of Class A1 installations used in important
shopping centres and at road junctions?
Ans 1. 40 lumens/m2
2. 20 lumens/m2
3. 10 lumens/m2
4. 30 lumens/m2
Q.15 Which of the following is correct with reference to phasing out test
on transformers?
Ans 1. This test is carried out only on the 3Φ transformer to identify
primary and secondary winding in the same phase.
2. This test is carried out both on 1Φ and 3Φ transformers to identify
high-voltage winding.
3. This test is carried out only on 1Φ transformer to identify primary
and secondary winding.
4. This test is carried out both on 1Φ and 3Φ transformers to identify
the primary and secondary winding.
Q.16 T he torque developed in the squirrel cage induction motor with

auto-starter is ____________.
Ans 1. K × torque with direct switching
2. K 2 × torque with direct switching
3. k2 /torque with direct switching
4. k/torque with direct switching
Q.17 What will be the total active power consumed by a 3-phase, delta-
connected system, which is supplied with a line voltage of 230 V,
when the value of the phase current is 15 A and the current lags the
voltage by 30°?
Ans 1. 12.26 kW
2. 10.25 kW
3. 8.963 kW
4. 14.63 kW
Q.18 T he range of signal generating frequencies for a function generator
is __________.
Ans 1. 0.01 kHz to 100 kHz
2. 0.01 kHz to 100 Hz
3. 0.01 Hz to 100 kHz
4. 0.01 Hz to 100 Hz
Q.19 Ten resistors having the same value of resistance i.e. 10 ohm, are
connected in parallel. What will be the equivalent resistance of this
connection?
Ans 1. 2 ohm
2. 1 ohm
3. 5 ohm
4. 100 ohm
Q.20 Two inductively coupled coils have self-inductance L1 =20H and
L 2 =320H. Find the maximum possible mutual inductance between the
coils.
Ans 1. 100 H
2. 80 H
3. 40 H
4. 10 H
Q.21 Which of the following statement is true regarding End Condenser
method used for the performance analysis of medium transmission
line?
Ans 1. Line capacitance is lumped at the receiving endduring the analysis.
2. Line capacitance is considered distributed parameter during the
analysis.
3. Line capacitance is lumped between resistance and Inductance
during analysis.
4. Line capacitance is lumped at the sending endduring the analysis.
Q.22 Which of the following factors will NOT affect the selection of an
inductor?
Ans 1. Q uality factor
2. C urrent rating
3. D ielectric constant
4. Power loss
Q.23
Ans 1. Neither 1 nor 2

2. O nly 2
3. O nly 1
4. Both 1 and 2
Q.24 Transmission efficiency of a transmission line increases with the
_________.
Ans 1. decrease in power factor and voltage
2. increase in power factor and voltage
3. increase in voltage only power factor remains constant
4. increase in power factor but the decrease in voltage
Q.25 A Lissajous patterns on a Cathode Ray Oscilloscope (CRO) has 8
vertical maximum values and 4 horizontal maximum values. T he
frequency of the horizontal input is 1600 Hz. Determine the
frequency of the vertical input?
Ans 1. 200 Hz
2. 600 Hz
3. 400 Hz
4. 800 Hz
Q.26 To prevent rusting in electric iron, the plates of the bottom surface
and edges are made of ________.
Ans 1. heavy chromium
2. asbestos
3. mica
4. heavy iron
Q.27 Which of the following statements regarding biochemical-based
power plants is/are true?
A) Methane is emitted along with carbon dioxide in aerobic
digestion.
B) Sewage gas represents a mix of carbon dioxide, methane and
trace gas.
C) Syngas is generated as a result of gasification in such a plant.
Ans 1. O nly B and C
2. O nly A and C
3. O nly B
4. O nly A and B
Q.28 Which of the following is true for the performance analysis of

medium transmission line using end condenser method?
Ans 1. The voltage across the load is equal to the voltage across the
lumped line capacitance.
2. The voltage across the load is higher than the voltage across the
each different distributed line capacitance.
3. The voltage across the load is lower than the voltage across the
each different distributed line capacitance.
4. The voltage across the load is higher than the voltage across the
lumped line capacitance.
Q.29 A moving iron ammeter with a range of 0 to 1 amps has an internal
resistance of 50 mΩ and an inductance of 0.1 MH. To increase the
range to 0-10 Ampere for all operational frequencies, a shunt coil is
connected. T he shunt coils resistance in mΩ and time constant in
milliseconds are each given as:
Ans 1. 2; 1
2. 11.1; 2
3. 2; 0.55
4. 5.55, 2
Q.30 If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is
increased 10 times and the area is reduced to one-fourth, then its
capacitance _________.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.31 When is the error under testing of energy meter directly obtained?
Ans 1. The meter under test and the rotating substandard meter constants
are same.
2. The meter under test and the rotating substandard meter constants
are 1.
are zero.
are different.
Q.32 Which of the following statements is correct about inert gas metal
arc welding?
Ans 1. In this method, concentration of heat is easily possible.
2. In this method, flux is required.
3. This method is particularly suitable for welding heavy metals.
4. In this method, concentration of heat is difficult.
Q.33 T he back EMF in a DC motor opposes the supply voltage. T his is
explained by _________________.
Ans 1. Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction
2. Fleming’s right hand rule
3. Fleming’s left hand rule
4. Lenz’s law
Q.34 Medium transmission lines CANNOT be analysed by using which of

the following methods?
Ans 1. C ognitive method
2. Load end capacitance
3. Nominal T method
4. Nominal Pi method
Q.35 In the context of electromagnetism, if a conductor is held in the
right hand with the thumb pointing in the direction of the current,
then the other fingers will point towards the _____.
Ans 1. direction of the magnetic field
2. length of the conductor
3. magnetic field intensity
4. current flowing through the conductor
Q.36 In heating effect, if ‘I’ is the current flowing through the conductor
in ‘t’ seconds having a resistance ‘R’, then the electrical energy
supplied is _______.
Ans 1. IR 2 t joules
2. I2 R t joules
3. I2 R /t joules
4. IR 2 /t joules
Q.37
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.38 Chargeable expenses are occasionally also termed as _____.

Ans 1. overhead expense
2. major expense
3. lump sum expense
4. direct expense
Q.39 What will be the stored energy by a 100 mH inductor when 1 A
current is flowing through it?
Ans 1. 0.05 J
2. 0.01 J
3. 0.001 J
4. 0.005 J
Q.40 A coil having 100 turns is placed in the magnetic field of 1m wb. Find
the average EMF induced if the coil is moved in 0.2 seconds from
the given field to a field of 0.4m wb.
Ans 1. 3 volts
2. 10 volts
3. 0.3 volt
4. 30 volts
Q.41 An R-L series circuit, where R = 10 Ω and L = 0.056 H, is connected

to an AC supply of frequency 50 Hz. T he magnitude of impedance of
the circuit is:
Ans 1. 5.23 Ω
2. 20.23 Ω
3. 10.23 Ω
4. 30.23 Ω
Q.42 What is the meaning of the term ‘load factor’?
Ans 1. The ratio of peak load to average load over a year
2. The ratio of total energy production to total energy consumption
3. The ratio of average load to peak load over a year
4. The ratio of total energy consumption to total energy production
Q.43 Which of the following materials is widely used for high-temperature
heating (1500 °C) applications such as in industrial furnaces and
kilns?
Ans 1. Bronze
2. Stainless steel
3. Silicon carbide
4. Nickel chromium alloy
Q.44 In a brake test, the DC motor took 20 A from a 200 V supply mains.
T he brake pulley of radius 10 cm had an effective load of 20 kg and
the speed was 10 rps. T he value of BHP (in metric) is ______.
Ans 1. 1.3π
2. 0.2π
3. 8.8π
4. 0.5π
Q.45 Which of the following statements related to the speed control of
DC shunt and series motors is correct?
Ans 1. Field diverters and tapped field control methods are mostly used in
D C shunt motors.
2. In the R heostatic control methods of shunt motors, the series
resistor must be connected between the line and the motor.
3. In a tapped field control when all the field turns are present in the
circuit, the motor runs at the lowest speed.
4. In series-parallel control, the motors are joined in parallel at lower
speeds and series at higher speeds.
Q.46 T he total inductance of two coupled coils in the series opposing and
series aiding connections are 12 mH and 38 mH, respectively. Find
the mutual inductance between the coils.
Ans 1. 13 mH
2. 6.5 mH
3. 10 mH
4. 26 mH
Q.47
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.48 At higher forward voltages, a junction diode is likely to ________.

Ans 1. get saturated
2. break down
3. burn out
4. become noisy
Q.49 In order to prevent creeping in an energy meter, which of the
following measures is adopted?
Ans 1. Two, diametrically opposite holes are drilled on the aluminium disc.
2. A temperature shunt is used on the brake magnet.
3. Two, diametrically opposite holes are drilled on the central limb.
4. A shading band is provided on the central limb of the shunt magnet.
Q.50 In the estimation and costing of public installations, which of the
following factors is required, especially in long stretches of the road
and even more on complicated intersections?
Ans 1. W idth of illumination Limitation of glare
2. Visual guidance
3. Level of luminance
4. Limitations of glare
Q.51 What does the area under the Load Duration Curve represent?
Ans 1. The total electricity consumption of consumers during the day
2. The total power generated by a power plant during the day
3. The load factor of the power station
4. The total number of units generated for the period considered
Q.52 In internal wiring estimation, if the connected load is 2 kW and the
supply voltage is 240 V, then the maximum load current will be
________.
Ans 1. 8.33 A
2. 1.14 A
3. 4.33 A
4. 80 A
Q.53 Which of the following statements are true for synchronous motor
losses?
A)Friction and windage losses increase with the cube of speed.
B)T he Eddy current loss is reduced by laminating the core.
C)Copper losses are independent of load.
D)Core losses increase with the square of the load.
Ans 1. B and C
2. A and D
3. C and D
4. A and B
Q.54 Which of the following is NOT correct with reference to delta-star
type distribution transformers application?
Ans 1. In delta-star type transformer, secondary voltage is in phase with
the primary voltages.
2. In delta-star type transformer, fault protection is one of the primary
advantages.
3. In delta-star type transformer, no distortion is produced by third
harmonic components.
4. In delta-star type transformer, large, unbalanced loads can be
handled without any difficulty.
Q.55 T he line voltage of a delta connected three phase circuit is 415 V.

T he phase voltage is:
Ans 1. 240 V
2. 230 V
3. 415 V
4. 220 V
Q.56 In a parallel resonant circuit, the input impedance of the circuit is
________.
Ans 1. maximum
2. minimum
3. zero
4. infinite
Q.57 A 4 pole, 50 Hz IM operates at 7% slip. T he frequency of EMF
induced in the rotor will be ________.
Ans 1. 3.5 Hz
2. 2.5 Hz
3. 0.5 Hz
4. 1.5 Hz
Q.58 Which of the following is an example of an electrostatic type
instrument?
Ans 1. Hot wire instrument
2. Energy meter
3. Kelvin multicellular voltmeter
4. Wattmeter
Q.59 In a magnetic circuit, when magnetic flux is passing across the air
gap, then effective area of the gap increases and magnetic flux
density decreases in the gap. T his effect is known as ______.
Ans 1. magnetic leakage
2. magnetic fringing
3. magnetic hysteresis
4. magnetising force
Q.60 During the tender in estimation and costing, the guarantee of the
tenderer to deposit the required security and enter in to the
required agreement on intimation of the acceptance of his tender is
called ________.
Ans 1. earned money
2. valid money
3. deposit money
4. earnest money
Q.61 Two coupled inductors L1 = 8H and L2 = 32H have coefficient of
coupling K = 0.4. T he mutual inductance between them is
Ans 1. 102.4 H
2. 40 H
3. 6.4 H
4. 64 H
Q.62 T he value of a series resistor required to limit the current through

an electric bulb to 40 mA with a forward voltage drop of 4V when
connected to 16 V supply is ________.
Ans 1. 100 Ω
2. 1000 Ω
3. 300 Ω
4. 20 Ω
Q.63 In regard to estimation and costing of public lighting, which of the
following factors is NOT a fundamental criterion for the quality of
public lighting?
Ans 1. Limitations of glare
2. O ptical guidance
4. Looping-in method
Q.64 A 4Ω resistor has a specified maximum power dissipation of 784 W.
Calculate its maximum current level.
Ans 1. 16 A
2. 14 A
3. 10 A
4. 196 A
Q.65 How many types of dependent sources are there?
Ans 1. 5
2. 6
3. 2
4. 4
Q.66 T he receiving end voltage of a radial distribution network is 24 kV.
What will be the sending end voltage, if the voltage drop is
calculated 25% of receiving end voltage?
Ans 1. 18 kV
2. 36 kV
3. 32 kV
4. 30 kV
Q.67 T he efficiency of a 60 Hz, 6-pole, 1000 rpm 3-phase induction motor
is ________.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.68 In case of installations in commercial buildings, evenly distributed
lights can be obtained by the use of lenses, which reduces
____________.
Ans 1. decoration
2. colour
3. spot light
4. brightness
Q.69 Which of the following triggers the failure of successive parts?

Ans 1. Non-cascade tripping
2. Brown out
3. Load shedding
4. Incipient fault in power transformer
Q.70 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding a nuclear power
plant.
Ans 1. Graphite and Boron carbides are used as control rods.
2. Heavy water can be used as a coolant.
3. The fuel rods contain pellets of uranium.
4. The ordinary water is used as a moderator only after it is enriched
with uranium.
Q.71 Which of the following types of materials shows a movement from a
weaker region to a stronger region of a non-uniform magnetic field?
Ans 1. D iamagnetic material
2. Insulating material
3. Non-magnetic material
4. Paramagnetic material
Q.72 T he scattering of molten metal droplets outside the weld zone,
which can lead to surface irregularities is called weld________.
Ans 1. slag inclusions
2. spatter
3. burn-through
4. under fill
Q.73 In the context of electrical signals, if the signal generated has a
definite pattern that repeats itself at regular intervals of time, such
a signal is called ______.
Ans 1. periodic signal
2. independent signal
3. non-periodic signal
4. dependent signal
Q.74 In the context of electromagnetism, the magnetic polarity of a coil of
several turns can be determined by the ______.
Ans 1. mechanism of force production
2. molecular theory
3. left-hand rule
4. right-hand rule
Q.75 Select the correct statement for a medium overhead transmission
line.
Ans 1. Load current is directly proportional to the load power factor.
2. Load current is inversely proportional to the square of load power
factor.
3. Load current is directly proportional to the square of load power
factor.
4. Load current is inversely proportional to the load power factor.
Q.76 In magnetism, the measure of the ease with which magnetic flux can
pass through a material is called _____.
Ans 1. permeance
2. reluctance
3. MMF
4. flux density
Q.77 What is the function of the pressure spring in a three-phase energy
meter?
Ans 1. It maintains a constant pressure between the aluminium discs and
the disc spindles.
2. It provides deflection torque to the moving member.
3. It provides mechanical support.
4. It moves the aluminium discs in response to the torque generated
by the magnetic field.
Q.78 A coil of inductance 10 H and resistance 40 ohm is connected in
series with a capacitance and supplied by a source of variable
frequency. If the maximum current is found at frequency 1000
rad/sec, then Q-factor of the circuit will be _________.
Ans 1. 200
2. 25
3. 100
4. 250
Q.79 What is the formula for calculating the magnitude of the mechanical
force experienced by a current-carrying conductor perpendicular to
the magnetic field, where B = magnetic flux density, I = Current and
L = Length of the conductor?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.80 If the speed of a 3-phase, 400 V, 50 Hz synchronous motor is trebled,

the efficiency of the machine will _________.
Ans 1. reduce to one-third
2. become 3 times
3. remain constant
4. become zero
Q.81 A combination of integral-cycle control and switching-instant control
on the applied voltage wave is employed in IM for
_________________
Ans 1. smooth speed control
2. frequency control
3. stator resistance control
4. rotor resistance control only
Q.82 Which modulation technique is commonly used in power modulators

to achieve variable power output?
Ans 1. Frequency modulation
2. Pulse-width modulation
3. Amplitude modulation
4. D elta modulation
Q.83 Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about auxiliary
motor starting in synchronous motors?
A) T he function of the auxiliary motor is to run the synchronous
motor at a speed less than its synchronous speed.
B) T he rating of the auxiliary motor is much lower than that of the

synchronous motor.
C) T his method is used only for loaded synchronous motors.
D) Auxiliary motor starting is not a commonly used starting method in

modern days.
Ans 1. A, C and D
2. A and C
3. B and D
4. A and D
Q.84 A battery source of 20 V when connected to a load of 19 Ω draws a
current of 1 A. What is the value of internal resistance of battery?
Ans 1. 2 Ω
2. 39 Ω
3. 0.5 Ω
4. 1 Ω
Q.85 A three-phase star-connected synchronous alternator of rating 22

kVA, 20 kV, 50 Hz has synchronous reactance of 8 Ω per phase. T he
induced voltage per phase is 20 kV and the line terminal voltage is
15 kV. Find the 3-phase maximum power of the machine.
Ans 1. 37.5 MW
2. 211.5 MW
3. 112.5 MW
4. 121. 5 MW
Q.86 Which of the following statements are correct about the
maintenance factor?
I) It is the ratio of illumination under normal working condition to the
total lumen given out by the lamp.
II) It is the ratio of illumination under normal working condition to
the illumination when the things are perfectly clean.
III) T he accumulation of dust, dirt and smoke on the lamp decreases
the maintenance factor.
IV) It is the ratio of illumination when the things are perfectly clean
to the illumination under normal working condition.
Ans 1. Statements I and III
2. Statements II and III
3. O nly Statement II
4. Statements III and IV
Q.87 A Kaplan turbine is used for ________.

Ans 1. high heads and low quantities of water
2. low heads and low quantities of water
3. low heads and large quantities of water
4. high heads and large quantities of water
Q.88 T he equivalent electrical circuit of a solar PV cell has a ________.
Ans 1. capacitor
2. transistor
3. diode
4. inductor
Q.89 T he collector to the base bias configuration of a common emitter
transistor implicitly employs:
Ans 1. voltage shunt negative feedback
2. current shunt negative feedback
3. voltage series positive feedback
4. current series negative feedback
Q.90 In the circuit shown here, the 20 V source has an internal resistance
of 1 Ω. While the current source is ideal, the value of current I is
_________ .
Ans 1. 1 A
2. 5 A
3. 10 A
4. -1 A
Q.91 T he operating point of a transistor known as _______.
Ans 1. active point
2. cut-off point
3. quiescent point
4. threshold point
Q.92 Which of the following represents the value of parameters A and D
for a transmission line in end condenser method?
Ans 1. A = 1 + YZ, D = 1
2. A = 1 − ZY; D = 1 + ZY
3. A = 1; D = 1 + ZY
4. A = 1 + ZY; D = 1 + ZY
Q.93 In thermal power plant, the fire tube and water tube boilers are
classified based on
Ans 1. the combustion product formation
2. steam formation rate

3. state of fuel
4. tubular heating surface
Q.94 T he value of inductance needed to store 4kWh of energy in a coil
carrying a 2000A current is:
Ans 1. 7.2 × 106 H
2. 72 H
3. 7.2 H
4. 720 H
Q.95 If the value of the common base current gain (α) is 0.98, then the
value of the common collector current gain (γ) is ___________.
Ans 1. 98
2. 50
3. 49
4. 0.02
Q.96 What is the advantage of using the current grading in relay systems?
Ans 1. It reduces the impedance between two sub-stations.
2. It overcomes the long time delays occurring in graded time lag
systems.
3. It ensures quick tripping of the faulty circuit.
4. It improves the frequency stability of the power system.
Q.97 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans 1. The possibility of supply interruption due to lightning is more with
underground cables.
2. Fault can be easily located in underground cables.
3. O verhead lines are more costly as compared to underground
cables.
4. The location of the fault in overhead lines can be found easily.
Q.98 Which of the following statements is/are NOT true for the damper
windings in alternators?
I)T hese are useful in preventing the hunting in alternators.
II) Usually, damper windings are provided in smooth cylindrical type
rotor alternators.
III)Under normal working conditions, i.e., if machine is at
synchronous speed, damper winding do not carry any currents.
IV) Damper windings are also used to provide starting torque in
alternators.
Ans 1. III
2. II
3. I
4. IV
Q.99 Which statement is NOT true for fixed drum type biogas power
plant?
Ans 1. The gas production per cubic metre of digester is less.
2. It has a lower cost.
3. It has constant pressure of biogas.
4. It has no corrosion problem.
Q.100 In electromagnetism of parallel magnetic circuits, the reluctance

offered for two parallel paths will be _________.
Ans 1. cube for each path
2. square for each path
3. half for each path
4. quarter for each path

Subject Junior Engineer 2024 Mechanical Paper I

Q.1
Ans 1. 15
2. 16
3. 14
4. 18
Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘KNOT ’ is coded as ‘3618’ and ‘NOT E’ is
coded as ‘6438’. What is the code for ‘E’ in the given code
language?
Ans 1. 6
2. 1
3. 4
4. 3
Statements: Some machines are shrugs. All machines are bins. No
shrug is a cloth.
Conclusion (I): No cloth is a machine.
Conclusion (II): At least some shrugs are bins.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion (II) follows
3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
interchanged?
61 − 45 × 15 + 5 ÷ 9 = ?
Ans 1. 4
2. 14
3. 19
4. 9
CEH, FHK, IKN, LNQ, ?
Ans 1. O Q T
2. O Q S
3. P Q S
4. P Q T
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.7 Anil starts from point A and drives 7 km towards the east. He then
takes a left turn, drives 3 km, turns left, and drives 9 km. He then
takes a right turn and drives 3 km. He takes a final right turn, drives
2 km, and stops at point P.
How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he
drive in order to reach point A again?
Ans 1. 8 km towards the east
2. 6 km towards the south
3. 9 km towards the east
4. 6 km towards the west
Q.8 In a certain code language, ‘CAFE’ is coded as ‘3795’ and ‘FIND’ is
What is the code for ‘F’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 3
2. 4
3. 8
4. 9
147, 206, 124, 183, 101, 160, ?
Ans 1. 40
2. 56
3. 78
4. 61
Q.10 T his question consists of a pair of words that have a certain
relationship to each other. Select the pair that has the same
relationship.
Pressure : Pascal
Ans 1. Electric Potential : Volt
2. Sound : Watt
3. Frequency : O hm
4. Force : C andela
interchanged?
20 − 2 ÷ 4 × 2 + 6 =?
Ans 1. 20
2. 14
3. 22
4. 18

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
How is Z related to V if ‘Z ÷ X − C ÷ V × B + N’?
Ans 1. Mother ’s father
3. Brother
4. Father
Q.13 PARK is related to QCUM in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, STOP is related to T VRR. To
which of the following is RAMP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. T C Q R
2. S C P R
3. S C Q R
4. T C P R
AYH, BWJ, CUL, DSN, ?
Ans 1. F P R
2. E Q P
3. E Q S
4. E P L
Q.15 If A means +, B means −, C means × and D means ÷, then what will

40 B 6 C 7 A 30 D 5 = ?
Ans 1. 2
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3
Q.16 CJHF and HOMK are related to each other in a certain way based
on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, SZXV and XECA
are related to each other. Which of the following is related to DLT R,
Ans 1. K Q YX
2. IQ YX
3. K Q YW
4. IQ YW
1. Eiffel Tower
2. Europe
3. Paris
4. Earth
5. France
Ans 1. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
2. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
3. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2
4. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
Q.18 CF 9 is related to IL 21 in a certain way. In the same way, MP 29 is

related to SV 41. To which of the following is KN 25 related,
Ans 1. LJ 18
2. GJ 18
3. Q S 37
4. Q T 37
Q.19 SPUR is related to WT YV in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, PMRO is related to T QVS. To
which of the following is IFKH related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MJLO
2. JMLO
3. MJO L
4. JMO L
Q.20 Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the
same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.
(297, 466)
(342, 511)
Ans 1. (116, 292)
2. (225, 394)
3. (194, 353)
4. (189, 348)
Q.21 Seven people - S, O, L, D, I, E, and R - are sitting around a circular
table, facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). O sits
fourth to the left of E and R sits third to the right of O. L sits to the
immediate left of R and to the immediate right of D. S sits second to
the right of R.
Who are the immediate neighbours of I?
Ans 1. O and L
2. S and E
3. O and D
4. S and O
series?
115, 91, 70, 52, 37, ?
Ans 1. 23
2. 21
3. 27
4. 25
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.24 Suresh starts from his home and drives 5 km towards the south. He
then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns left, and drives 9 km. He
then takes a left turn and drives 3 km and turns left, then drives 7
km to reach his office.
Ans 1. North-west
2. North-east
3. South-east
4. West
Q.25 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the
BLH, EKF, HJD, KIB, ?
Ans 1. MF X
2. O GY
3. ME X
4. NHZ
5 : 101
10 : 201
Ans 1. 8 : 140
2. 7 : 50
3. 6 : 121
4. 6 : 120
(17, 68, 8)
(16, 72, 9)
Ans 1. (13, 78, 5)
2. (10, 105, 21)
3. (25, 140, 12)
4. (11, 109, 13)
8 is related to 102. To which of the following is 15 related following
the same logic?
Ans 1. 198
2. 193
3. 190
4. 197
‘A − B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.
How is B related to T if ‘B + D − G ÷ P × T ’?
Ans 1. Father ’s brother
2. Sister
4. Sister ’s daughter
series?
23, 26, 31, 38, 49, ?
Ans 1. 59
2. 62
3. 60
4. 61
Q.31 T he position of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of

the letters in the word 'SALIENT ' is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Four
2. O ne
3. Two
4. Three
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are
interchanged?
84 + 12 × 9 ÷ 13 – 21 = ?
Ans 1. 271
2. 259
3. 264
4. 273
SJF, NEA, IZV, DUQ, ?
Ans 1. XP L
2. XP M
3. YQ L
4. YP L
Q.35 In a certain code language, ‘CARE’ is coded as ‘3195’ and ‘HARE’ is
What is the code for ‘H’ in that language?
Ans 1. 5
2. 9
3. 1
4. 4
DMU, HQY, LUC, PYG, T CK, ?
Ans 1. YHL
2. XGO
3. T D L
4. UB I
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Statements: All roads are speed-breakers. No speed-breaker is a
home.
Conclusion 1: Some roads are homes.
Conclusion 2: Some homes are speed-breakers.
Ans 1. Both conclusion (1) and conclusion (2) follow
FLOY, JPSC, NT WG, RXAK, ?
Ans 1. VB GT
2. VB E O
3. VO E D
4. VO B E
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.41 Six friends Abby, Bunny, Chan, Dolly, Emma and Fanny have
different weights. Dolly’s weight is an odd number. Dolly is heavier
than Emma but not the heaviest. Chan is heavier than Fanny but
lighter than Dolly. Chan is not heavier than Emma but is heavier
than Fanny and Abby. Abby’s weight is not an odd number. T he
lightest weight is 45 kilograms and the heaviest weight is 80
kilograms.
If Chan weighs 68 kilograms, which of the following can be the
possible weight of Dolly (in kilograms)?
Ans 1. 71
2. 72
3. 66
4. 65
Q.42 Q, R, S, T, U, and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre (not necessarily in the same order) . S sits second to the left
of R. Q sits third to the right of S. T is not an immediate neighbour
of S. U sits to the immediate left of S.
How many people are sitting between U and R when counted from
the right of R?
Ans 1. O ne
2. Zero
3. Two
4. Three
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.44 JNHF is related to MQKI in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, HLFD is related to KOIG. To
which of the following is FJDB related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. IMGE
2. IME G
3. MIGE
4. MIE G
Ans 1. 240
2. 246
3. 340
4. 346
Q.46 In a certain code language, ‘MADE’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘DOGS’ is

coded as ‘2458’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given language?
Ans 1. 1
2. 5
3. 4
4. 2
1. Elderly
2. Adolescent
3. Infant
4. Adult
5. Baby
Ans 1. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
2. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
3. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2
4. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
Q.48 ‘AC 2’ is related to ‘DF 8’ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical and numerical order. In the same way, ‘IK 5’ is related
to ‘LN 125’. To which of the following is ‘QS 7’ related following the
same logic?
Ans 1. T U 343
2. S Y 343
3. S U 343
4. T V 343
(47, 1, 23)
(58, 4, 27)
Ans 1. (64, 5, 12)
2. (36, 30, 5)
3. (74, 18, 28)
4. (50, 14, 16)
the letters in the word ‘BLANKET ‘ is arranged in alphabetical
order?
Ans 1. Three
2. O ne
3. Zero
4. Two

Q.1 According to the Census 2011 of India, arrange the following
metropolitan cities on the basis of population in ascending order?
A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
Ans 1. B, C , A
2. C , A, B
3. A, B, C
4. B, A, C
Q.2 If the government decides to privatise a major public sector

industry, what might be an unintended consequence?
Ans 1. Enhancement of operational efficiency
2. Immediate increase in public revenue
3. R eduction in corruption
4. Potential monopolistic practices
Q.3 T he first Anglo-Afghan war took place between 1838 - ________ .
Ans 1. 1840
2. 1842
3. 1844
4. 1841
Q.4 All the living and non-living things in a particular area constitute the
______________ of the area.
Ans 1. Species
2. Life C ircle
3. Food Web
4. Ecosystem
Q.5 What is the medical term for high blood pressure?
Ans 1. Hypotension
2. Hypertension
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Hypoglycemia
Q.6 Calcium hydroxide is the chemical name of which of the following
saturated aqueous solutions?
Ans 1. Hard water
2. Black Water
3. Limewater
4. C arbonated water
Q.7 Which minister was in the news to launch the country's first crash
testing programme 'Bharat NCAP', on 22 August 2023?
Ans 1. Nitin Gadkari
2. R aj Nath Singh
3. Amit Shah
4. Ashwini Vaishnaw
Q.8 In September 2023,Skill India Mission introduced a scheme that

aims to spread awareness at grass root level about free skill training
programmes for youth through robust skill training. What is the name
of that scheme?
Ans 1. Skills on the Go
2. Skills on W heels
3. Skills on the Move
4. Skill Bus
Q.9 How does the formation of igneous rocks occur?
Ans 1. Formation through compression
2. Formation through volcanic activity
3. Formation through weathering
4. Formation through sedimentation
Q.10 T he National Waterway (NW) – 3 is located in which of the following
states?
Ans 1. Maharashtra
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Gujarat
4. Kerala
Q.11 Who among the following eminent musicians was born in Bihar?
Ans 1. Ustad Zakir Hussain
2. Ustad Bismillah Khan
3. Pandit Shivkumar Sharma
4. Pandit R avi Shankar
Q.12 How many fundamental duties of citizens have been enumerated by
the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976?
Ans 1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 13
Q.13 Who is the writer of Indian president's biography 'Droupadi Murmu :
From Tribal Hinterlands to Raisina Hill'?
Ans 1. Kamala Surayya
2. Kasturi R ay
3. Phoolan D evi
4. Mary Kom
Q.14 Which part of the cell is responsible for generating the primary
energy molecule AT P in eukaryotic animals?
Ans 1. Vacuoles
2. C ell wall
3. Endoplasmic reticulum
4. Mitochondria
Q.15 'Ama Odisha Nabin Odisha' scheme was implemented by which
department in July 2023 by Odisha Government?
Ans 1. Health and Family Welfare D epartment

2. Housing and Urban D evelopment
3. Panchayati R aj and D rinking Water D epartment
4. General Administration D epartment
Q.16 T he Palamu plateau is located in which of the following states?

Ans 1. Tripura
2. Karnataka
3. Jharkhand
4. Telangana
Q.17 On 26 July 2023, Tenzing Yangki created history in Arunachal
Pradesh by achieving a prestigious UPSC rank and becoming the
state's first female ________________.
Ans 1. Indian Administrative Service O fficer
2. India Police Service O fficer
3. Education C ommissioner
4. R evenue O fficer
Q.18 Rama experiences a drop in temperature as she is getting higher
and higher in the mountains while trekking. What could be the cause
of this?
Ans 1. R ama's fatigue
2. Lower air pressure at altitude
3. Higher air pressure at altitude
4. Less water
Q.19 What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?
Ans 1. Protein synthesis
2. Lipid synthesis and detoxification
3. D NA replication
4. Energy production
Q.20 Select the correct arrangement of the parts of the food canal in
humans from the starting point to the ending point.
Ans 1. The buccal cavity ---> O esophagus ---> Stomach ---> Large
intestine ---> Small intestine ---> R ectum ---> Anus
2. The buccal cavity ---> O esophagus ---> Stomach ---> Small
intestine ---> Large intestine ---> Anus ---> R ectum
3. The buccal cavity ---> O esophagus ---> Stomach ---> Large
intestine ---> Small intestine ---> Anus ---> R ectum
4. The buccal cavity ---> O esophagus ---> Stomach ---> Small
intestine ---> Large intestine ---> R ectum ---> Anus
Q.21 When and where was the Veda Samaj, inspired by the Brahmo Samaj,
established?
Ans 1. Bombay 1867
2. Madras 1864
3. C alcutta 1830
4. Lahore 1875
Q.22 In 2010, in which Indian state did the crisis of microfinance happen?
Ans 1. Karnataka
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Maharashtra
Q.23 Which of the following set of Articles of the Indian Constitution

guarantees different types of freedoms to its citizens?
Ans 1. Articles 14 – 19
2. Articles 19 – 22
Q.24 Which of the following is NOT a major river basin in India?
Ans 1. Tapi
2. Krishna
3. Narmada
4. Kalindi
Q.25 5 stones were dropped from the top of a building. T hey all fell to the
ground in straight lines. What can be said about their motion?
Ans 1. They had rectilinear motion
2. They had curvilinear motion
3. They had slow motion
4. They had gravity free motion
Q.26 What is the full form of GST ?
Ans 1. Gifts and Sale Tax
2. Goods and Services Tax
3. Goods and Sale Tax
4. Gifts and Services Tax
Q.27 For strengthening the fundamental duties, the Verma Committee
identified a few existing acts by which a proper implementation of
such duties can be accomplished. Which of the following was NOT
referred by him?
Ans 1. R epresentation of People Act, 1951
2. Protection of C ivil R ights Act, 1955
3. Unlawful Activities Protection Act, 1967
4. W ildlife Segregation Act, 1970
Q.28 Food rich in carbohydrates (like potatoes) and those rich in fats (like
butter) are also known as __________.
Ans 1. Energy-Giving Food
2. Main C ourse
3. Unsafe Food
4. Fast Food
Q.29 Sometimes when heated, solid changes into liquid at normal
atmospheric pressure on reaching its melting point. What is the
name of the amount of heat required?
Ans 1. Latent heat of diffusion
2. Latent heat of fusion
3. Latent melting point
4. Latent change of state point
Q.30 In which city is the Arun Jaitley Stadium located?
Ans 1. New D elhi
2. Punjab
3. Mumbai
4. C hennai
Q.31 Which Indian state passed the Right to Health (RT H) bill, which
guarantees access to equitable healthcare services for all patients
in March 2023?
Ans 1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Tamil Nadu
4. R ajasthan
Q.32 What balances the atmospheric pressure with equal force so that
animals do not crumble under the high pressure exerted on them by
the atmosphere?
Ans 1. Moon’s gravitational pull
2. Pressure because of sunlight
3. Energy produced by the food consumed
4. Blood Pressure
Q.33 In 1527, battle of khanwa fought between Babur and ruler of mewar
_____________ .
Ans 1. R ana Sanga
2. Prithviraj
3. R ana Pratap
4. R ana Mewari
Q.34 Which type of cell lacks a membrane-bound nucleus?
Ans 1. Prokaryotic cell
2. Eukaryotic cell
3. Animal cell
4. Plant cell
Q.35 Which of the following is NOT one of the five outlined pillars of
Atmanirbhar Bharat?
Ans 1. Economy
2. Infrastructure
3. D emand
4. R esilience
Q.36 T he concept of 'Standard Urban Area (SUA)' was introduced in
which census of India?
Ans 1. C ensus 1971
2. C ensus 1961
3. C ensus 1951
4. C ensus 1981
Q.37 Why is there a need to encourage Indian farmers to switch to
sustainable crops / farming systems?
Ans 1. To increase upfront costs
2. To meet the current calorie needs of the population
3. To address environmental damage and degradation of ecosystem
services
4. To reduce the use of technology in agriculture
Q.38 A nonstop train moving on a straight track with a uniform
acceleration passed station A at a velocity of ‘u’ and reached the
next station B at a velocity of ‘5u’. Its average velocity between the
given stations is:
Ans 1. 2u
2. 2.5u
3. 3u
4. 4u
Q.39 If ‘G’, ‘M’ and ‘R’ represent the universal gravitation constant, mass
of the earth and radius of the earth, respectively, then which of the
following is the correct expression for the acceleration due to
gravity (g) on the surface of the earth?
Ans 1. GM2 /R
2. GM/R 2
3. GM/R
4. GMR 2
Q.40 What are 'Bullets' in Microsoft Word?

Ans 1. C haracters used for decoration
2. Small dots, squares, dashes, or graphics preceding text
3. Large circles indicating importance

4. Highlighted text
Q.41 In which year did Louis Pasteur discover that yeast is responsible
for producing alcohol from sugar?
Ans 1. 1830
2. 1857
3. 1891
4. 1904
Q.42 T he equipment used to record the intensity of an earthquake is
_______________.
Ans 1. barometer
2. pyrometer
3. seismograph
4. calorimeter
Q.43 Which of the following is a shortcut key to undo the last action in
many word processors?
Ans 1. C trl + Z
2. C trl + X
3. C trl + C
4. C trl + V
Q.44 According to the census of India 2011, which of the following states
has the highest density of population per square kilometre?
Ans 1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. West Bengal
4. O disha
Q.45 T hrough which of the following body parts does food need to pass
before reaching the intestines?
Ans 1. W indpipe --> Food pipe
2. Mouth --> R ectum
3. O esophagus --> Stomach
4. Stomach --> R ectum
Q.46 Which of the following states has the largest legislative assembly (in
terms of number of members) in the country as on 30th September
2023?
Ans 1. R ajasthan
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Uttar Pradesh
Q.47 Which white powder, ubiquitous in modern kitchens, combines with
acid to produce carbon dioxide?
Ans 1. Sodium phosphate
2. Sodium fluoride
3. Sodium nitrate
4. Sodium bicarbonate
Q.48 Which of the following Hindustani ragas corresponds to the
‘Mohanam Ragam’ of Carnatic music?
Ans 1. Bhoop
2. Bagkauns
3. Aadi
4. Zilla
Q.49 Who among the following was one of the co-founders of the Swaraj
Party within the Congress to argue for a return to council politics?
Ans 1. R abindranath Tagore
2. C hittaranjan D as
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
4. Mahatma Gandhi
Q.50 Karnam Malleshwari won a bronze medal at which Olympic games?
Ans 1. 2000 Sydney
2. 2004 Athens
3. 2008 Beijing
4. 2012 London
Section : General Engineering Mechanical

Q.1 T he boiling point of refrigerant R-13 is __________.
Ans 1. -107.7°C
2. -81.4°C
3. +86.6°C
4. - 157.5°C
Q.2 For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube
condenser are made of_______.
Ans 1. copper
2. steel
3. aluminium
4. brass
Q.3 In a single stationary blade type rotary compressor, a blade is set
into the slot of a cylinder in such a manner that it always maintains
contact with the roller by means of:
Ans 1. spring
2. cam and follower
3. centrifugal force
4. gravity
Q.4 Which of the following statements is true about the Carnot cycle?
Ans 1. It is a reversible cycle.
2. The efficiency of the C arnot cycle is always less than that of any
other heat engine operating between the same two temperatures.
3. Its efficiency depends only on the pressure difference between the

two reservoirs.
4. It involves only two reversible isothermal processes.
Q.5 Which part of the lathe has a long shaft with the keyway extending
from the feed box across and in front of the bed?
Ans 1. Feed rod
2. Lead screw
3. Headstock spindle
4. Sliding gear shaft
Q.6 Which of the following is NOT a function of lubricating oils used in
refrigerants?
Ans 1. Sealing the gas between the suction and discharge ports
2. D ecreasing the coolant temperature and hence increasing C O P
3. Minimising friction
4. Transferring heat from the crank-case to the compressor
Q.7 Which of the following is the chemical formula of hydro-carbon
refrigerant R-170?
Ans 1. C 3 H6
2. C 3 H3
3. C 2 H6
4. C 4 H10
Q.8 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the friction

factor of Darcy's equation?
Ans 1. The value of friction factor depends on the R eynolds number of the
flow.
2. The value of friction factor depends on the roughness condition of
the pipe surface.
3. Friction factor is a dimensionless quantity.
4. Friction factor value is same for all the flow conditions.
Q.9 For a winter air-conditioning system, relative humidity should NOT
be more than:
Ans 1. 90%
2. 75%
3. 60%
4. 40%
Q.10 In an open channel flow, which device increases the enthalpy of gas
using external work transfer?
Ans 1. Turbine
2. C ompressor
3. Motor
4. Boiler
Q.11
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.12 Which of the following assertions holds true when a constant

volume of gas is heated?
Ans 1. The change in enthalpy of the gas is zero
2. The temperature of the gas remains constant
3. The work done by the gas is a finite value
4. The heat added to the gas is equal to the change in internal energy
Q.13 T he right limb of a simple manometer containing mercury is open to
atmosphere. T he left limb is connected to a pipe in which a fluid of
specific gravity 0.9 is flowing. T he centre of the pipe is 12 cm below
the level of mercury in the right limb. T he difference of mercury
level in the two limbs is 20 cm. What is the pressure of fluid in the
pipe (take g = 10 m/s2 )?
Ans 1. 26480 N/m2
2. 720 N/m2
3. 27920 N/m2
4. 27200 N/m2
Q.14 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the steam

separator in a steam boiler?
Ans 1. In the steam separator, water separates out from steam due to its
greater inertia.
2. Steam separator is also known as steam drier.
3. In the steam separator, steam is made to change its direction of
flow.
4. Steam separator is provided to collect the water resulting from
partial condensation of steam.
Q.15 In the P-H diagram of the vapour compression cycle, the
compression process is shown by a/an _______________.
Ans 1. inclined straight line with a negative slope
2. vertical line
3. curved line
4. inclined straight line with a positive slope
Q.16 Which of the following are fire tube boilers?
Ans 1. Benson boilers
2. Loeffler boilers
3. Scotch-marine boilers
4. Stirling boilers
Q.17 In case of two-stroke petrol engines, if exhaust gases do NOT leave

the cylinder, then:
Ans 1. fresh charge gets diluted and efficiency of the engine increases
2. fresh charge gets diluted and efficiency of the engine decreases
3. fresh charge gets diluted and efficiency of the engine remains
unchanged
4. fresh charge gets diluted and performance of the engine increases
Q.18 For the given overall heat transfer coefficient and temperature
difference, if the area of evaporator surface increases, then the
capacity of evaporator:
Ans 1. can increase or decrease
2. remains constant
3. decreases
4. increases
Q.19 Which of the following is an advantage of multistage reciprocating
air compressor?
Ans 1. Lubrication improved due to lower temperature
2. Volumetric efficiency increases for the same pressure ratio
3. Less expensive with longer life
4. C hance of leakage loss is low
Q.20 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the
Cochran boiler?
Ans 1. The C ochran boiler is a vertical boiler.
2. The C ochran boiler is a multi-tubular boiler.
3. The C ochran boiler is an externally fired boiler.
4. The C ochran boiler is a natural circulation type boiler.
Q.21 T he continuous injection system usually has a _________.
Ans 1. rotary pump
2. vane pump
3. gear pump
4. plunger pump
Q.22 Which of the following equations is based on the fact that the mass
flow rate at any section remains constant?
Ans 1. C ontinuity equation
2. Momentum equation
3. Steady flow energy equation
4. Bernoulli’s equation
Q.23 A system undergoes a process in which it absorbs 500 J of heat and
does 250 J of work. What is the change in the internal energy of the
system?
Ans 1. 250 J
2. −250 J
3. 750 J
4. −750 J
Q.24 What is the order of temperature generated at the anode during arc
generation in electric arc welding?
Ans 1. 3500°C
2. 4500°C
3. 6000°C
4. 2000°C
Q.25 Which of the following forced convection evaporator units have a

discharge air rate from 60 m/min to 90 m/min?
Ans 1. Frosting evaporators
2. Low velocity cooling forced convection evaporators
3. High velocity cooling forced convection evaporators
4. D efrosting evaporators
Q.26 For which of the following fluids is the rate of deformation
proportional to the shear stress?
Ans 1. Milk
2. Blood
3. R ice starch
4. Gasoline
Q.27 Which shielding gas is commonly used in T IG welding?
Ans 1. Argon
2. Hydrogen
3. O xygen
4. C arbon dioxide
Q.28 When a system expands freely against vacuum, then work transfer
involved is:
Ans 1. negative
2. either positive or negative
3. positive
4. zero
Q.29 Which of the following types of steam nozzle is suitable for use
when the inlet steam velocity is very low and the outlet steam
velocity is desired to be supersonic?
Ans 1. C onvergent-divergent nozzle
2. D ivergent nozzle
3. C onvergent nozzle
4. D ivergent-convergent nozzle
Q.30 When a body is immersed in a fluid, upward force exerted by the
fluid is equal to the ________.
Ans 1. density of the Body
2. weight of the fluid displaced by the body
3. volume of water displaced by the body
4. weight of the body
Q.31 In case of a flat pivot bearing, which of the following options is
correct about the sliding friction?
Ans 1. The sliding friction consideration is along the flat surface of contact
between the pivot and the shaft.
2. There is no sliding friction between the pivot and the shaft.
3. The sliding friction consideration is along the length of the shaft
which is inside the bearing.
4. The sliding friction consideration is along the vertical curved
surface of contact between the pivot and the shaft.
Q.32 T he pressure at any point in a fluid at rest has the same magnitude
in all the directions. T his fact is known as _________ .
Ans 1. the pressure law
2. Bernoulli’s law
3. Newton’s law
4. Pascal’s law
Q.33 T he correct relationship between the coefficient of friction (µ) and
:the angle of friction (ɸ) is
Ans 1. µ = sin ɸ
2. µ = cot ɸ
3. µ = tan ɸ
4. µ = cos ɸ
Q.34 In the study of flow of fluid in pipes, total energy line is also known
as _______________.
Ans 1. energy gradient line
2. hydraulic gradient line
3. pressure line
4. piezometric head line
Q.35 Mention the sequence of points that mild steel material undergoes
failure by referring to the stress strain diagram.
Ans 1. Elastic D eformation, Yielding, Strain Hardening, Necking,Fracture
2. Yielding, Elastic D eformation, Strain Hardening, Necking,Fracture
3. Yielding, Elastic D eformation, Necking, Strain Hardening,Fracture
4. Elastic D eformation, Strain Hardening, Yielding, Necking,Fracture
Q.36 In which of the following turbines, the ends of the blades are welded
to disks to form a cage like a hamster cage and instead of the bars,
the turbine has the trough-shaped steel blades?
Ans 1. Francis turbine
2. Kaplan turbine
3. C ross-flow turbine
4. Pelton turbine
Q.37 Sulphur dioxide refrigerant can be designated as:
Ans 1. R -744
2. R -764
3. R -727
4. R -729
Q.38 Which of the following methods is NOT used for the leakage
detection of CFC refrigerants?
Ans 1. Soap solution
2. Halide torch
3. Burning candle
4. Electronic leak detection device
Q.39 Which pressure indicates the difference between the atmospheric

pressure and the absolute pressure?
Ans 1. Local atmospheric pressure
2. Gauge pressure
3. Vacuum pressure
4. System pressure
Q.40 _________ is the machining process that uses a saw blade to remove
material from a workpiece.
Ans 1. Filing
2. Turning
3. Sawing
4. D rilling
Q.41 If ‘u’ is the velocity of the runner and ‘V’ is the velocity of the jet at
inlet, what is the condition for the maximum hydraulic efficiency of a
Pelton wheel?
Ans 1. V = 3u
2. V = u/2
3. V = u
4. V = 2u
Q.42 Chezy's equation is applicable for:
Ans 1. transient internal flow
2. steady internal flow
3. transient open flow
4. steady open flow
Q.43 Manometric efficiency of a centrifugal pump is defined as the
______________.
Ans 1. ratio of the actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
2. difference of the manometric head and the static head
3. ratio of the power available at the impeller to the power at the shaft
4. ratio of the manometric head to the head imparted by the impeller
Q.44 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about
atmospheric pressure?
Ans 1. Atmospheric pressure varies with altitude.
2. The atmospheric air exerts normal pressure upon all the surfaces
in contact.
3. Atmospheric pressure is also called barometric pressure.
4. The equivalent value of atmospheric pressure is 10.3 cm of water.
Q.45 T he boiling point of inorganic refrigerant R-744 is_________.
Ans 1. +33.6°C
2. -15.8°C
3. -73.6°C
4. +22.4°C
Q.46 Brake power involves determination of the:
Ans 1. piston indicator
2. inertia and displacement of the shaft
3. pressure and piston displacement
4. torque and angular speed of the shaft
Q.47 T he ratio of the actual brake thermal efficiency obtained from an

engine to the theoretical efficiency of the engine cycle is called:
Ans 1. relative efficiency
2. scavenging efficiency
3. brake thermal efficiency
4. combustion efficiency
Q.48 Coefficient of discharge (Cd) of a flow-measuring device is defined
as the _________ .
Ans 1. ratio of theoretical discharge to actual discharge
2. ratio of actual discharge to theoretical discharge
3. product of actual discharge and theoretical discharge
4. product of cross-sectional area and velocity
Q.49 Determine the torsional rigidity of a hollow shaft of 200 mm external
diameter and 150 mm internal diameter. Consider G = 90 GPa.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.50 T he condition of equilibrium states that a stationary body that is

subjected to coplanar forces will be in equilibrium if the algebraic
sum of all the _____ and the algebraic sum of _____ of all the
external forces about any point in their plane is zero.
Ans 1. internal forces; couple
2. internal forces; moment
3. external forces; moment
4. external forces; couple
Q.51 T he difference between the total head at the outlet of a centrifugal
pump and the total head at the inlet of a centrifugal pump is called
________________.
Ans 1. static head
2. suction head
3. dynamic head
4. manometric head
Q.52 T he fully halogenated refrigerants with chlorine (Cl) atom in their
molecules are referred to as:
Ans 1. inorganic refrigerants
2. hydro-carbon refrigerants
3. C F C refrigerants
4. HC F C refrigerants
Q.53 T he ignition coil of an IC engine stores the energy in its _____.
Ans 1. magnetic field
2. resistor
3. capacitor
4. electric field
Q.54 T he pressure, which is measured with reference to absolute vacuum
pressure is called:
Ans 1. atmospheric pressure
2. absolute pressure
3. vacuum pressure
4. gauge pressure
Q.55 Which of the following statements is true for magneto ignition

system?
Ans 1. It is simpler in construction than coil ignition system.
2. More frequent maintenance is required compared to coil ignition
system.
3. The efficiency of the system improves as the engine speed
increases.
4. Its intensity of spark is very good even at low speed.
Q.56 T he data for an impulse steam turbine are given as follows.
(i) Mean blade velocity = 400 m/s
(ii) Absolute velocity of steam at the inlet to the moving blade = 1200
m/s
(iii) Sum of velocities of whirl at the inlet and the outlet of the blade
= 1500 m/s
What will be the efficiency of the blade?
Ans 1. 0.67
2. 0.83
3. 0.42
4. 0.5
Q.57 Which of the following statements is correct about slotting process?
Ans 1. The tool reciprocates vertically and the workpiece is fed into the
cutting tool.
2. Both, tool and workpiece can reciprocate according to the size of
slotting machine and workpiece.
3. The workpiece reciprocates horizontally and the tool is fed in.
4. The tool reciprocates horizontally and the workpiece is fed into the
cutting tool.
Q.58 T he Zenith carburettor is a type of _________.
Ans 1. constant-vacuum carburettor
2. constant-choke carburettor
3. multijet carburettor
4. multiple-venturi carburettor
Q.59 In a vapour compression refrigeration system, the lowest
temperature during the cycle is observed after:
Ans 1. compression
2. evaporation
3. condensation
4. expansion
Q.60 In case of a single stage centrifugal compressor, the compression
ratio that an impeller can develop is limited to about:
Ans 1. 4.5
2. 3.0
3. 3.5
4. 4.0
Q.61 Calculate the minimum diameter of the shaft, such that the shearing
stress does NOT exceed 50 N/mm2 during torque transmission of
15000 N-m.
Ans 1. 100.2 mm
2. 120.6 mm
3. 98.4 mm
4. 115.2 mm
Q.62 Pump disassembling is NOT necessary in _________ .

Ans 1. cannot be predicted
2. closed impellers
3. open impellers
4. semi-open impellers
Q.63 T he enthalpy of an open system _________.
Ans 1. decreases as energy is added to the system
2. remains constant
3. is not a meaningful concept
4. increases as energy is added to the system
Q.64 Which of the following is NOT a component of a hydroelectric power
plant?
Ans 1. Penstock
2. Tailrace
3. C ondenser
4. Surge tank
Q.65 Identify the operation of production of flat vertical surfaces on both
sides of a workpiece by using two side milling cutters mounted on
the same arbor.
Ans 1. Face milling
2. Straddle milling
3. Gang milling
4. Side milling
Q.66 T he bearing surface provided at any position along the shaft (but
not at the end of the shaft) to carry the axial thrust, is known as
____________.
Ans 1. collar
2. flat bearing surface
3. conical bearing surface
4. truncated bearing surface
Q.67 Internal combustion engines have _____.
Ans 1. high initial cost compared to external combustion engine
2. lower thermal efficiency than external combustion engine
3. higher thermal efficiency than external combustion engine
4. low power to weight ratio compared to external combustion engine
Q.68 When there is a ______, work is transferred over the system
boundary in an open system.
Ans 1. change in the kinetic energy of the fluid
2. change in the potential energy of the fluid
3. difference in pressure between the system and surroundings
4. difference in datum head between the system and surroundings
Q.69 ________ is a type of rolling process used in metalworking.
Ans 1. Powder metallurgy
2. Injection moulding
3. Hydroforming
4. Hot rolling
Q.70 Which of the following statements is correct in case of semi-open

impeller?
Ans 1. Both sides of the impeller vanes are covered with baseplates.
2. O ne side of the impeller vanes is covered with a baseplate.
3. Both sides of the impeller vanes are covered with crown plates.
4. Impeller vanes are not covered with baseplates.
Q.71 If the indicated power and frictional power of an engine are 100 KW
and 25 KW, respectively, then what will be the brake power of the
engine?
Ans 1. 50 K W
2. 75 K W
3. 62.5 K W
4. 125 K W
Q.72 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Fire Tube
Boilers?
1)In fire tube boilers, the hot gases are inside the tubes and water
surrounds the tubes.
2)Cochran boiler is a type of fire tube boiler.
3)Stirling boiler is a type of fire tube boiler.
Ans 1. O nly 1
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3
Q.73 In chemical machining, material is removed from the work piece by
___________.
Ans 1. chemical burning
2. chemical evaporation
3. erosion
4. chemical dissolution
Q.74 Which of the following moulding techniques uses a sand and clay
mixture as the mould material?
Ans 1. Green sand moulding
2. Shell moulding
3. D ie casting
4. Investment casting
Q.75 T he product of the area of the surface and the intensity of pressure
at the centroid of the area is called ______.
Ans 1. buoyant force
2. viscous force
3. pressure density
4. total pressure
Q.76 In which of the following types of draught is air forced into the
boiler under pressure by a fan?
Ans 1. Induced draught
2. Forced draught
3. Natural draught
4. Steam jet draught
Q.77 Which of the following types of cast iron is the hardest among all?
Ans 1. D uctile cast iron
2. Brittle cast iron
3. W hite cast iron
4. Gray cast iron

Q.78 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the high-
pressure and low-water safety alarm in a steam boiler?
Ans 1. The high-pressure and low-water safety alarm operates with loud
noise.
2. The high-pressure and low-water safety alarm is suitable for a
locomotive boiler.
3. The high-pressure and low-water safety alarm has two valves.
4. The high-pressure and low-water safety alarm is a safety mounting
against high pressure and low water levels.
Q.79 Vertical depth of any point below the free surface in a liquid at rest
is known as _________ .
Ans 1. pressure head
2. velocity head
3. datum head
4. total head
Q.80 T he value of specific gravity of mercury is ________.
Ans 1. 1.36
2. 13.6
3. 0.0012
4. 0.136
Q.81 Which of the following is the condition of the maximum discharge of
flue gases through a chimney in a steam boiler?
Ans 1. The maximum discharge of flue gases through a chimney does not
depend on the temperature of flue gases in the steam boiler.
2. The temperature of flue gases is slightly greater than twice the
atmospheric temperature in Kelvin units.
3. The temperature of flue gases is exactly equal to twice the
atmospheric temperature in Kelvin units.
4. The temperature of flue gases is equal to the atmospheric
temperature in Kelvin units.
Q.82 At absolute zero temperature (T = 0K), the specific enthalpy of an
ideal gas is:
Ans 1. 1
2. infinite
3. 0
4. <0
Q.83 Free expansion process is _________.
Ans 1. sometimes reversible and sometimes irreversible
2. a reversible process
3. an irreversible process
4. initially it is reversible and later it become irreversible
Q.84 Which of the following expressions gives the area of flow for a
Kaplan turbine?
Where, D = diameter, B = width of vane, D0 = outer diameter of
runner, D b = diameter of hub
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.85 In a side milling cutter, the angle between the cleared flank of the
blade and a tangent to the periphery in a diametral plane passing
through the cutting edge is called ________.
Ans 1. peripheral relief angle
2. face relief angle
3. peripheral clearance angle
4. face clearance angle
Q.86 In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, heating, cooling and
refrigeration take place at the temperatures of 100°C, 20°C and -5°C,
respectively. Find the maximum C.O.P. of the system.
Ans 1. 1.5
2. 1.8
3. 2.7
4. 2.3
Q.87 According to the second law of thermodynamics, work is said to be
__________ and heat is said to be __________.
Ans 1. low-grade energy; low-grade energy
2. high-grade energy; low-grade energy
3. high-grade energy; high-grade energy
4. low-grade energy; high-grade energy
Q.88 What is the purpose of a pattern in the casting pattern procedure?
Ans 1. To clean the mould before casting
2. To create the mould cavity
3. To pour molten metal into the mould cavity
4. To remove the casting from the mould
Q.89 What will be the average pressure in plate clutch when the axial
force is 4 kN. T he inside radius of the contact surface is 50 mm and
the outside radius is 100 mm. Assume uniform wear.
Ans 1. 0.17 N/mm2
2. 0.17 N/m2
3. 1.7 N/mm2
4. 17 N/mm2
Q.90 In a P-V diagram, if pV = Constant, then the process is called
________.
Ans 1. adiabatic process
2. constant-pressure process
3. isothermal process
4. constant-volume process
Q.91 A quick return motion mechanism used in shaper machine
Ans 1. C omplete return stroke as quickly as possible
2. Maximize the time of forward stroke
3. C omplete cutting stroke as quickly as possible
4. R educe the motion of the machine
Q.92 What is the SI unit of surface tension?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.93 Which of the following materials is commonly used as a cutting tool

material?
Ans 1. Aluminium
2. Brass
3. D iamond
4. C opper
Q.94 Which of the following is a requirement of a good ignition system?
Ans 1. It should have good reproducibility of secondary voltage rise.
2. It should have very low spark duration.
3. It should give good performance at low speed but at high-speed,
performance doesn’t matter.
4. It should be as small as possible in size.
Q.95 Which of the following governing methods is used for gas engines?
Ans 1. Q uantity governing
2. C ontrolled governing
3. Q uality governing
4. Hit-and-miss governing
Q.96 Which of the following is NOT a type of friction?
Ans 1. Kinetic friction
2. D ynamic friction
3. Static friction
4. Kinematic friction
Q.97 Under ideal conditions, for a drop of 80 kJ/kg enthalpy, what will be
the approximate velocity of steam at the outlet of the nozzle if the
inlet velocity of the steam is 2 m/s?
Ans 1. 410 m/s
2. 13 m/s
3. 120 m/s
4. 400 m/s
Q.98 T he total pressure acting on any immersed body is independent of:
Ans 1. the surface area of body
2. the angle made by surface with the free surface of liquid
3. the density of liquid
4. the depth of C .G. of body from free surface of liquid
Q.99 T he area under a P-V diagram represents _________.

Ans 1. the net work done by the system
2. the heat added to the system
3. the heat rejected by the system
4. the efficiency of the system
Q.100 Consider an air standard cycle in which the air enters the
compressor at 1.0 bar and 20°C. T he pressure of air leaving the
compressor is 3.5 bar and the temperature at the turbine inlet is
600°C. For 1 kg of air, determine the efficiency of the cycle:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.


Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘why him though’ is coded as ‘kl gi ok’
and ‘though is he’ is coded as ‘ok bi yg’. How is ‘though’ coded in
the given language?
Ans 1. bi
2. gi
3. kl
4. ok
Q.2
Ans 1. 8
2. 10
3. 9
4. 7
conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the given statements.
Statements:
• Some curlers are serums.
• Some curlers are oils.
Conclusion (I): No oil is a serum.
Conclusion (II): All oils are serums.
Ans 1. O nly C onclusion (I) follows
2. O nly C onclusion (II) follows
3. Neither C onclusion (I) nor (II) follows
4. Both C onclusions (I) and (II) follow
DAG, FCI, HEK, JGM, ?
Ans 1. K GN
2. LIO
3. MJP
4. NLQ
series?
6, 15, 34, 63, 102, ?
Ans 1. 151
2. 113
3. 131
4. 105
GMC, JPF, MSI, PVL, ?
Ans 1. Q ZP
2. RYP
3. S YO
4. Q XO
Q.7 A dice has its faces marked by symbols σ, Δ, μ, ε, ω and γ. Two

positions of the same dice are shown below. Which face is opposite
to face Δ?
Ans 1. ε
2. γ
3. μ
4. σ
Q.8 OJNL is related to NIMK in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, LGKI is related to KFJH. To
which of the following is IDHF related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. HC GE
2. HC E G
3. HE GC
4. HE C G
Q.9 In a certain code language, ‘GAT E’ is coded as ‘3579’ and ‘T HIN’ is
coded as ‘4236’. What is the code for ‘T ’ in that language?
Ans 1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 7
the letters in the word CLANGED is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two
2. O ne
3. Three
4. Four
series?
28, 29, 27, 30, 26, ?
Ans 1. 24
2. 31
3. 32
4. 25
Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘FRIAR’ is coded as ‘20’ and
‘FREEDOM’ is coded as ‘28’. What is the code for ‘FARROW’ in the
given language?
Ans 1. 18
2. 22
3. 17
4. 24
equation, if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are
interchanged?
19 × 6 ÷ 10 − 2 + 1 = ?
Ans 1. 28
2. 48
3. 36
4. 33
Q.14 SUWY is related to ZXVT in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, JLNP is related to QOMK. To
which of the following is ACEG related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. HF D B
2. F HB D
3. B D F H
4. D HB F
13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13
(279, 246, 213)
(184, 151, 118)
Ans 1. (194, 151, 108)
2. (169, 132, 103)
3. (225, 196, 123)
4. (176, 145, 119)
Q.16 M, O, N, S, T, E, and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre (not necessarily in the same order). O sits to the immediate
right of M. M sits second to the right of S. E sits third to the left of
S. T sits second to the right of R.
Who are the immediate neighbours of N?
Ans 1. E and R
2. R and M
3. S and T
4. E and O
Q.17 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’
stands for ‘−', what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
following equation?
28 B 4 D 20 A 5 C 8 = ?
Ans 1. 117
2. 116
3. 122
4. 119
the letters in the word ‘ALIMONY’ is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. None
SJF, ZQM, GXT, NEA, ?
Ans 1. YLH
2. ULH
3. YLG
4. ULG
Q.20 Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the
given words in a logical and meaningful order.
1. Asia
2. Guwahati
3. North Eastern Indian State
4. South Asia
5. Assam
Ans 1. 2, 5, 3, 4, 1
2. 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
3. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1
4. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
Ans 1. 166
2. 132
3. 167
4. 179
Q.22 Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in
the figure given below to complete the pattern.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
PEB, SIE, VMH, YQK, BUN, ?
Ans 1. E XQ
2. C S L
3. D Q M
4. E YQ
was born in Bhopal and just before Vani. Tia was born immediately
Where was Winnie born?
Ans 1. Ballia
2. Haridwar
3. D elhi
4. Pune
(15, 55)
(12, 43)
Ans 1. (7, 23)

2. (10, 40)
3. (9, 30)
4. (8, 42)
Q.26 LHKG is related to JFIE in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, RNQM is related to PLOK. To
which of the following is UQT P related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. S O R N
2. S O NR
3. O S R N
4. O S NR
Q.27 In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘3517’ and ‘SALT ’ is
What is the code for ‘S’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 5
2. 1
3. 4
4. 8
12 is related to 132. To which of
into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can
is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 561
2. 562
3. 563
4. 564
Q.29 Select the option that indicates the arrangement of the following
words in meaningful and logical order.
1. Adult
2. Infant
3. Adolescent
4. Old age
5. Toddler
Ans 1. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
2. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
3. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
4. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

Tranquil : Violent
Ans 1. Vigilant : Alert
2. W icked : Vicious
3. Timid : Bold
4. Zeal : Eagerness
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
2 : 16
3 : 81
Ans 1. 4 : 64
2. 4 : 256
3. 2 : 32
4. 6 : 216
‘M × N’ means ‘M is the daughter of N’,
‘M + N’ means ‘M is the father of N’,
‘M % N’ means ‘M is the mother of N’, and
‘M − N’ means ‘M is the brother of N’.
How is P related to K if ‘P % Q + R − T × K’?
Ans 1. Son’s wife
2. Husband’s mother
3. Mother ’s sister
4. Brother ’s wife
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.36 BHJL and CJMP are related to each other in a certain way based on
the English alphabetical order. In the same way, CIKM and DKNQ
are related to each other. Which of the following is related to DJLN,
Ans 1. E LO R
2. O E R L
3. E O LR
4. O E LR
Q.37 Anil starts from point A and drives 6 km towards the east. He then
takes a left turn, drives 2 km, turns right, and drives 3 km. He then
takes a right turn and drives 5 km. He takes a final right turn, drives
9 km, and stops at point P.
Ans 1. 6 km towards the south

2. 3 km towards the west
3. 3 km towards the north
4. 6 km towards the east

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ and
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.
How is T related to R if ‘P ÷ R + Q × S − T * U’?
Ans 1. D aughter ’s son
2. Son’s son
3. Son’s daughter
4. D aughter ’s daughter
series?
8, 24, 49, 85, 134, ?
Ans 1. 198
2. 181
3. 191
4. 180
ECG, IGK, MKO, QOS, ?
Ans 1. URV
2. US W
3. T S V
4. US V
equation if ‘÷’ and ‘×’ are interchanged?
132 × 12 ÷ 9 + 27 – 51 = ?
Ans 1. 70
2. 65
3. 78
4. 75
equation, if ‘÷’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘+’ are
interchanged?
15 × 11 ÷ 49 − 7 + 3 = ?
Ans 1. −15
2. 5
3. 15
4. −5
Q.43 BKOT is related to DMQV in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, JHAP is related to LJCR. To
which of the following is NEIM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. P GK O
2. AD NG
3. HJT F
4. P O LS
Q.44 AE 56 is related to EI 60 in a certain way. In the same way, WA 91 is
related to AE 95. To which of the following is XB 77 related,
Ans 1. P T 18
2. HN 81
3. IK 81
4. B F 81
13 – Operations on 13 suchas adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to
(100, 15)
(118, 18)
Ans 1. (100, 16)
2. (120, 17)
3. (94, 14)
4. (80, 13)
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
MBT, ODV, QFX, SHZ, UJB, ?
Ans 1. ULD
2. VLE
3. ULE
4. W LD
Q.48 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the

centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only 2 people sit
between C and F when counted from the right of C. A and D are
immediate neighbours of G. E sits to the immediate left of B. Only 1
person sits between E and D when counted from the right of D.
Who is sitting to the immediate right of G?
Ans 1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
Q.49 Rajat drove for 4 km from point A, towards the west. He took a left
turn and drove for 4 km. He took a left turn again and drove for 8 km
and then he took a right turn and drove for 3 km. Again, he took a
right turn and drove for 4 km. At last, he took a right turn and drove
for 6 km and stopped at point B.
Ans 1. 3 km towards the north
3. 2 km towards the south
Statements: Some guitars are drums. Some drums are violins. No
drum is a flute.
Conclusion (I): No flute is a violin.
Conclusion (II): Some flutes are guitars.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion (I) follows

Q.1 Which of the following is not a rock?
Ans 1. Limestone
2. Granite
3. Q uartz
4. Marble
Q.2 All India Padma Shri Mohd. Shahid Invitational Prize Money Men's
Hockey Tournament 2023 was organised in _________, Uttar
Pradesh.
Ans 1. Kanpur
2. Lucknow
3. Varanasi
4. Gorakhpur
Q.3 Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees the Right to

Constitutional Remedies?
Ans 1. Article 28
2. Article 29
3. Article 30
4. Article 32
Q.4 Which level of ecological organisation includes all the different
species living in a particular area?
Ans 1. C ommunity
2. Population
3. Ecosystem
4. Habitat
Q.5 Sachindra Nath Sanyal established a branch of Anushilan Samiti at
Patna in which of the following years?
Ans 1. 1920
2. 1929
3. 1913
4. 1925
Q.6 T he Greek letter 'Omega' is used to represent which physical
quantity in the International System of Units (SI)?
Ans 1. Electrical conductance
2. Electric resistance
3. Electric displacement field
4. Electric potential difference
Q.7 In business, what is a 'supply chain'?
Ans 1. A series of businesses that supply products to one another
2. The chain of command in a corporation

3. A network of all entities involved in producing and delivering a
product
4. The total stock of a product in a market
Q.8 What was the child sex-ratio as per Census 2011 of India?
Ans 1. 1000
2. 890
3. 919
4. 1024
Q.9 Who among the following Sultans of the Khilji dynasty started giving
cash salary to his soldiers and controlled the market during his
reign?
Ans 1. Alauddin Khilji
2. Jalal-ud-din Khilji
3. Shihab-ud-din O mar
4. Q utb-ud-din Mubarak
Q.10 T he Amrit Bharat Station Scheme launched in 2023 envisages to
take-up ________ stations for upgradation/modernisation over the
Indian Railway.
Ans 1. 1108
2. 1234
3. 1309
4. 1405
Q.11 Basanti Bisht, a Padma Shri awardee, is an Indian folk singer from
which of the following states?
Ans 1. R ajasthan
2. Punjab
3. Maharashtra
4. Uttarakhand
Q.12 T he Malwa Plateau is located in which of the following states?
Ans 1. Jharkhand
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Karnataka
Q.13 Which of the following princely states was annexed by the East India
Company in the year 1852 AD under the Doctrine of Lapse?
Ans 1. Udaipur
2. Nagpur
3. Sambalpur
4. Satara
Q.14 A man started working in a factory where he needed to deal with
steam and boiling water regularly. On the first day, his doctor
warned him to be more careful of the steam because burns caused
by steam can be more severe than that of hot water. What is the
reason behind this?
Ans 1. Steam cannot be seen
2. Steam is odourless
3. Steam has more latent heat of vaporisation
4. Steam can remain stuck to the body
Q.15 Which of the following is NOT a part of the Directive Principles of
State Policy of the Constitution of India?
Ans 1. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of
forests and wildlife
2. Protection of monuments and places and objects of national
importance
3. Provision for early childhood care and education to children below
the age of six years
4. Provision for protection of minority regions in R ajasthan

Q.16 Which of the following is INCORRECT about cooking of food?
Ans 1. Makes it easier to digest
2. R esults in the loss of certain nutrients
3. D estroys vitamin C easily
4. D estroys vitamin D easily
Q.17 As of March 2023, who among the following is the Union Minister of
Jal Shakti?
Ans 1. R amesh Pokhriyal
2. Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
3. D harmendra Pradhan
4. Giriraj Singh
Q.18 Which of the following bills was introduced in the Rajya Sabha by
the Ministry of Law and Justice on 10 August 2023?
Ans 1. The C hief Election C ommissioner and other Election
C ommissioners (Appointment C onditions of Service and Term of O ffice)
Bill, 2023
2. The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita Bill, 2023
3. The D igital Personal D ata Protection Bill, 2023
4. The R epealing and Amending Bill, 2023
Q.19 In may 2023, ____________, the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG), has been re-elected as the External Auditor of the
World Health Organization (WHO) for a four-year term from 2024 to
2027.
Ans 1. Kailasavadivoo Sivan
2. Sushil C handra
3. K K Venugopal
4. G C Murmu
Q.20 Soy milk is produced from:
Ans 1. cow
2. goat
3. buffalo
4. soyabeans
Q.21 Which piece in a chess game can move in an ‘L’ shape – two squares
vertically and one horizontally, and vice versa?
Ans 1. Knight
2. Bishop
3. Q ueen
4. R ook
Q.22 According to ‘Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2023’, which state
has the highest production of Milk during the year 2022-2023?
Ans 1. R ajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Maharashtra
Q.23 Identify whether the following statements are true (T ) or false (F)
with respect to the weather conditions of a place and select the
correct option.
A. It refers to change in temperature over a few years.
B. It depends on the elevation of the area.
C. It refers to temperature fluctuation within a day.
Ans 1. T T T
2. F F F
3. F T T
4. T T F
Q.24 Who discovered the staining technique called 'Black Reaction',
which was capable of revealing neurons in their entirety?
Ans 1. R obert R emak
2. Albert Kolliker
3. C amillo Golgi
4. Jacques Loeb
Q.25 According to Census of India 2011, which state recorded the highest
literacy rate in India?
Ans 1. Kerala
2. Goa
3. Punjab
4. Mizoram
Q.26 Who among the following was the governor of Telangana as the end
of 2023?
Ans 1. Tamilisai Soundararajan
2. Kalraj Mishra
3. Ganesh Lal
4. Baby R ani Maurya
Q.27 What specialised nerve cells does the phylum Cnidaria have to
capture and stun prey such as water fleas and plankton?
Ans 1. collar cell
2. stinging cell
3. flame cell
4. chief cell
Q.28 _______________ was announced as part of the Atma Nirbhar Bharat
Package in 2020 with the objective to help businesses including MSMEs to
meet their operational liabilities and resume businesses in view of the
distress caused by the COVID-19 crisis, by providing Member Lending
Institutions (MLIs), 100 percent guarantee against any losses suffered by
them due to non-repayment of the ECLGS funding by borrowers.'
Ans 1. Emergency C redit Line Guarantee Scheme
2. Mission Karmayogi
3. Sahakar Pragya Yojana
4. Stand-up India
Q.29 In 1946, BN Rao was formally appointed as _____________ to the
core drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution.
Ans 1. C onstitutional Advisor
2. C hief D raftsman
3. Vice-C hairman
4. Anglo-Indian R epresentative
Q.30 What is the full form of 'CC' in the context of email?
Ans 1. C ommon C opy
2. C arbon C opy
3. C onfidential C opy
4. C opy C ommunication
Q.31 In which plant tissue does photosynthesis primarily occur?
Ans 1. Xylem
2. Phloem
3. Mesophyll
4. Epidermis
Q.32 Ajit Pawar, who took oath as the Deputy Chief Minister of
Maharashtra on 2 July 2023, belongs to which political party?
Ans 1. Nationalist C ongress Party (NC P)

2. Jan Adhikar Party (JAP)
3. R ashtriya Samaj Paksha (R S P)
4. Maharashtra Navnirman Sena (MNS)
Q.33 In December 1885, ________delegates from various parts of India

established the Indian National Congress.
Ans 1. 43
2. 57
3. 61
4. 72
Q.34 Which of the following parts of an email is used to indicate the
sender and recipient details, as well as the date and time?
Ans 1. Subject line
2. Body
3. Email header
4. Attachment
Q.35 T he Parliamentary government is also known by which other names?
1: Cabinet government
2: Responsible government
3: Westminster model of government
4: Fixed executive system of government
2. O nly 1, 2 and 3
3. O nly 1, 2 and 4
4. O nly 2, 3 and 4
Q.36 What is the impact of ocean acidification on coral reefs and shell-
forming organisms?
Ans 1. O cean acidification has no impact on coral reefs.
2. O cean acidification enhances coral growth.
3. O cean acidification weakens coral skeletons and affects shell
formation.
4. O cean acidification increases coral biodiversity.
Q.37 Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?
Ans 1. Acceleration
2. Mass
3. Velocity
4. Force
Q.38 T he SI unit of which fundamental physical quantity is named in the
honour of Charles Augustin Coulomb?
Ans 1. Electric field
2. Electric current density
3. Electric power
4. Electric charge
Q.39 Which of the following minerals is essential for maintaining healthy
bones and teeth?
Ans 1. Fluoride
2. Potassium
3. Sodium
4. Phosphorus
Q.40 Anupama Bhagwat is associated with which of the following musical

instruments?
Ans 1. Sarangi
2. Sitar
3. Surbahar
4. Mridangam
Q.41 If the atomic mass of carbon is 12.011, that of hydrogen is 1.008 and
that of oxygen is 15.999, then calculate the molecular mass of
C 2 H 4 O.
Ans 1. 40.053
2. 34.053
3. 44.053
4. 16.053
Q.42 Which of the following institutions is referred to as ‘lender of last
resort’?
Ans 1. NAB AR D
2. S B I
3. R B I
4. S E B I
Q.43 T he ‘_________ Devi Narmade’ scheme has been undertaken by the
government of Madhya Pradesh for the conservation of River
Narmada.
Ans 1. Jal
2. Namami
3. Pavitra
4. Mata
Q.44 Calculate personal income from the following data.
I.National Income = ₹1,000
II.Corporate tax = ₹10
III.Subsidies = ₹5
IV.Undistributed profits = ₹15
V.Rent = ₹15
Ans 1. ₹975
2. ₹950
3. ₹1,000
4. ₹980
Q.45 In electricity overloading cannot be caused by:
Ans 1. connecting too many appliances to a single socket
2. accidental hike in the supply voltage
3. the live wire coming in direct contact with the neutral wire
4. the live wire and the neutral wire coming into contact through a
heavy resistance
Q.46 Who among the following was the first and the longest serving
attorney general of India?
Ans 1. Milon Kumar Banerji
2. Niren D e
3. Motilal C himanlal Setalvad
4. Lal Narayan Sinha
Q.47 Which food item has pH value between 2 and 3? T his value makes it
acidic.
Ans 1. Blackberry juice
2. Tomato juice
3. Lemon juice
4. Apple juice
Q.48 Which cell organelle is the energy factory of cells and is an
important hub for intracellular interactions with other organelles?
Ans 1. Golgi apparatus
2. Lysosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Peroxisomes
Q.49 Which of the following is/are most essential for growth and
development?
Ans 1. High sugar
2. Salts
3. Protein
4. Spices
Q.50 T he National Awards to Teachers were first instituted in ________.
Ans 1. 1972
2. 1958
3. 1947
4. 1964

Q.1 Which of the following is a requirement for thermal insulation in
materials?
Ans 1. High temperature resistance
2. Low density
3. Low thermal conductivity
4. High permeability
Q.2 T he waste from printers, scanners, refrigerators, etc. is called
_____________.
Ans 1. municipal waste
2. industrial waste
3. electrical waste
4. e-waste
Q.3 T he soil has a liquid limit of 50% and plastic limit of 25%,
respectively. If the volumetric shrinkages at the liquid limit and
plastic limit are 50% and 30%, respectively, determine the dry
volume of soil, if the volume at liquid limit is 1 ml.
Ans 1. 0.895 ml
2. 0.485 ml
3. 0.234 ml
4. 0.667 ml
Q.4 A road embankment with cross-sectional area of 100 m
2 is
constructed with an average gradient of 1 in 50 from contour 200 m
to 250 m. Find the volume of the earth work.
Ans 1. 250000 m3
2. 1250000 m3
3. 5000 m3
4. 22500 m3
Q.5 T he prestressed concrete pavements for highways can be built

without joints in continuous length up to how many metres?
Ans 1. 45 metres
2. 90 metres
3. 60 metres
4. 120 metres
Q.6 In a fly levelling work, if the back sight staff reading is greater than
fore sight staff reading, it indicates a _____in ground level.
Ans 1. horizontal surface
2. rise
3. fall
4. level surface
Q.7 A downward pointing equilateral triangle, having a red border and a
white background is a:
Ans 1. danger sign
2. warning sign
3. stop sign
4. give way sign
Q.8
Ans 1. I-A, II-B, III-C

2. I-A, II-C , III-B
3. I-B, II-A, III-C
4. I-B, II-C , III-A
Q.9 Calculate the quantity of excavation of foundation for the given
water tank.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.10 Continuity equation used for fluid flowing through pipes is based on
principle of _______
Ans 1. C onservation of energy
2. C onservation of momentum
3. C onservation of mass
4. C onservation of energy and momentum
Q.11 Automatic rain gauges are in the form of a pen mounted on a clock-
driven chart and can give a permanent, automatic rainfall record.
Which of the following is an example of automatic rain gauge?
Ans 1. Hygrometer
2. Hydrometer
3. Symon’s rain gauge
4. Float type rain gauge
Q.12 A T-section is designated by ISNT 150 @ 223.7 N/m. What are the
meanings of 150 and 223.7?
Ans 1. It is 150 mm thick and the self-weight is 223.7 kg per metre length.
2. It is 150 mm deep and the self-weight is 223.7 N per metre length.
3. It is 150 mm thick and the self-weight is 223.7 N per metre length.
4. It is 150 mm deep and the self-weight is 223.7 kg per metre length.
Q.13 Which of the following is an INCORRECT feature of the auto level
instrument, used for levelling?
Ans 1. R eadings on the staff are taken manually.
2. Initially, the instrument should be levelled roughly by using foot
screws.
3. The auto level works on the compensator mechanism.
4. R eadings on the staff are taken automatically.
Q.14 Estimate the flow cross sectional area in a triangular channel with 5
m depth, and side slope 2H:1V.
Ans 1. 50 m2
2. 60 m2
3. 40 m2
4. 80 m2
Q.15 As per IS 383:2016, the maximum crushing value of coarse

aggregates used for runways and other wearing surfaces shall
be______ percentage.
Ans 1. 50
2. 10
3. 12
4. 30
Q.16 In ‘No Parking’ signs, the oblique red bar is placed at an angle of
_________.
Ans 1. 60 degrees
2. 30 degrees
3. 15 degrees
4. 45 degrees
Q.17 T he figure below represents a catchment area with the
precipitations observed in a year. T he mean precipitation calculated
by using the T hiessen polygon method is ____________.
Ans 1. 13.45 cm
2. 12.33 cm
3. 14.46 cm
4. 11.28 cm
Q.18 Which of the following steel reinforcement does not act as a shear
reinforcement in RCC beams?
Ans 1. Bent up portion of longitudinal steel
2. Stirrups perpendicular to beam axis
3. Stirrups inclined (at 45") to beam axis
4. Tension steel parallel to the beam axis
Q.19 As per IS standards on method of measurement of building and civil
engineering works, the dimensions have to be measured to the
nearest ________.
Ans 1. 0.001 m
2. 0.01 m
3. 1.0 m
4. 0.1 m
Assertion: Piping below the weir can be prevented by providing an
impervious floor of sufficient length so that the path of percolation
is increased and the exit gradient is decreased.
Reason: If the exit gradient is less than a certain critical value, the
soil starts boiling and is washed away by percolating water.
Q.21 A revised estimate should be accompanied by __________.
Ans 1. an administrative sanction
2. an abstract of bill
3. a comparative statement
4. a technical sanction
Q.22 _____is that branch of science which deals with behaviour of the
fluids(liquids or gases) at rest as well as in motion.
Ans 1. Fluid mechanics
2. Hydrostatics
3. Hydrokinetics
4. Hydrokinematics
Q.23 Calculate the effective length of a steel column of length 3 m that is
effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in rotation at
one end?
Ans 1. 2.4 m
2. 1.4 m
3. 3.4 m
4. 1 m
Q.24 All the voids of soil layer get filled with water after a heavy storm,
upto a depth of 1 m from the surface. If the soil is dry below the
depth of 1 m, the condition of soil upto the depth of 1 m below the
surface is :
Ans 1. saturated
2. submerged
3. dry
4. capillary saturated
Q.25 When the staff reading increases between two consecutive points,
the difference between the readings shall be recorded in
____column in case of levelling by rise and fall method.
Ans 1. R .L.
2. H.I.
3. Fall
4. R ise
Q.26 Select the correct statement while designing a singly reinforced
beam in the limit state method.
Ans 1. Under reinforced beams have brittle failure.
2. A designer may have multiple solutions.
3. O nly over reinforced beams are designed.
4. Under reinforced beams have minimum cross section area.
Q.27 Which of the following is NOT a secondary treatment unit in
wastewater treatment ?
Ans 1. trickling filter
2. Imhoff tank
3. aerated lagoon
4. aeration tank
Q.28 Where is lead glass commonly used in building construction?

Ans 1. False ceiling
2. Flooring works
3. Facades and windows
4. Plumbing and piping
Q.29 Estimate the earthwork quantity by traphezoidal formula method, for
the construction of an approach road, whose length is 500m, base
width of embankment =10m, height of embankment=70 cm and side
slope = 1H:2V.
Ans 1. 3377.5 cu. m
2. 2500 cu. m
3. 4500 cu. m
4. 5000 cu. m
Q.30 Following the cubical content method of estimate for buildings, the
estimated cost of building is determined by multiplying the total
cubical contents of the building and …………. (Assume specifications
and construction similar to buildings in the locality)
Ans 1. area of the building
2. local cubic rate
3. height of the building
4. volume of the building
Q.31 T he following observation was made for a construction project
where RL of the bench mark (BM) at Point A (bottom of a lintel) was
101.50 m.
T he staff reading (inverted) on BM was 2.25 m and the reading at
Point B on ground before the instrument was shifted was 1.05 m.
After the change point, the staff reading to Point B measured 1.35
m. If the last reading was taken at the bottom of a canopy (Point C)
with staff inverted was 4.100 m, RL of Point C was __________.
Ans 1. 103.30 m
2. 102.65 m
3. 102.30 m
4. 103.65 m
Q.32
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.33 Which of the following is NOT a reason for minor head loss in pipe
flow?
Ans 1. loss due to friction
2. loss due to an exit of the pipe
3. loss due to a bend in the pipe
4. loss due to an entrance of the pipe
Q.34 Which of the following is NOT a bio-pesticide that helps in reducing
soil pollution?
Ans 1. Endosulphan
2. Azadirachta indica
3. Trichogramma
4. Bacillus thuringiensis
Q.35 A cantilever beam AB of length ‘l’ is subjected to a downward load
‘P’ at its free end and an upward load ‘P’ at a distance of ‘x’ from the
free end. T he shear force will be ________.
Ans 1. equal to P, between the two point loads
2. equal to 2P, only at the free end
3. equal to P/2, only at the free end
4. equal to 2P, between the two point loads
Q.36 Which of the following factors contribute(s) to reducing soil
pollution?
I: Treating the water courses (drainage line treatment)
II: Gabion structure
III: Use of microbial pesticides
Ans 1. O nly I
2. All of I, II and III
3. O nly I and III
4. O nly I and II
Q.37 T he value of adopted ruling gradient on a highway road is 1 in 200.
Calculate the percentage of ruling gradient provided on the road.
Ans 1. 0.5%
2. 1%
3. 2.5%
4. 5%
Q.38 Which types of trees grow inwards and fibrous mass is seen in their
longitudinal sections?
Ans 1. C onifers
2. D eciduous
3. Exogenous trees
4. Endogenous trees
Q.39 Which of the following defects in timber occurs due to the faulty
method of seasoning of timber?
Ans 1. Wet rot
2. Burl
3. Honeycombing
4. Shakes
Q.40 T he stadia method used in tacheometric surveys generally refers to
measurements taken with a ___________.
Ans 1. tacheometer with fixed stadia hair
2. tacheometer with variable stadia hair
3. fixed elvation of point
4. fixed staff reading
Q.41 As per IS 456 : 2000, the limiting value for neutral axis depth
measured from extreme fibre of a singly reinforced RCC beam with
rectangular cross section is___. Consider the grade of steel as Fe-
500 and ‘d’ is effective depth of beam section.
Ans 1. 0.53 d
2. 0.46 d
3. 0.44 d
4. 0.48 d
Q.42 In the context of vehicular characteristics and efficiency of brakes,
braking distance is:
Ans 1. directly proportional to design coefficient of friction
2. directly proportional to speed of vehicle
3. inversely proportional to speed of vehicle
4. inversely proportional to design coefficient of friction
Q.43 Net positive suction head(NPSH), which plays an important role in
the proper selection of pumps is given by ______
Ans 1. the product of Suction head and the liquids vapor head
2. the sum of Suction head and the liquids vapor head
3. the difference between Suction head and the liquids vapor head
4. the ratio of Suction head and the liquids vapor head
Q.44 During construction of roads, a feature that facilitates drainage of
the pavement laterally is called ________.
Ans 1. camber
2. shoulder
3. median
4. kerbs
Q.45 A sample of soil failed a triaxial test under a deviator stress of 200
kN/m2 when the confining pressure was 100 kN/m2 . If, for the
sample, the confining pressure had been 200 kN/m2 , what would
have been the deviator stress at failure?
(Assume Φ = 0.)
Ans 1. 400 kN/m2
2. 500 kN/m2
3. 200 kN/m2
4. 100 kN/m2
Q.46 T he upper limit on percentage longitudinal reinforcement in an RCC

column has been kept in mind to serve which of the given option?
Ans 1. To limit the size of the column
2. To stop buckling of the column
3. To cater easy placement and compaction of concrete in the column
4. To limit the ductility of the column
Q.47 Which of the following is a sub-surface source of water supply?
Ans 1. D am
2. R eservoir
3. Tube well
4. Streams
Q.48 Which of the following is/are the correct reason(s) for closing errors
in compass surveying at the time of traversing?
I. T he end station of a traverse generally coincides exactly with its
starting station.
II. T here is no error in the magnetic bearing observation.
III. T here is an error in the linear distance measurement.
Ans 1. O nly I and II
2. O nly I and III
3. O nlyIII
4. I, II and III
Q.49 What is the primary factor that governs the shear strength of sands?
Ans 1. Friction angle
2. Void ratio
3. Pore pressure
4. C ohesion
Q.50 As per IS 456 :2000, the permissible limit for inorganic solids
present in water that is used for construction activities is ____
Ans 1. 3000 mg/l
2. 1100 mg/l
3. 150 mg/l
4. 2400 mg/l
Q.51 T he table below shows the data sheet from a levelling book. If the
RL at station P is 550.50 m, then which of the following options is
INCORRECT ?
(BS = Back Sight, IS = Intermediate Sight, FS = Fore Sight, RL =

Reduced Level, BM = Bench Mark and CP = Change Point)
(All figures are in metre.)
Ans 1. Station S is at a lower elevation than Station P.

2. Station R is at a higher elevation than Station P.
3. Station R is at a higher elevation than Station T.
4. Station S is at a lower elevation than Station Q .
Q.52 Which of the following is correct expression to compute design

bending strength of a laterally unsupported beam?
Where fbd =design bending compressive stress,
βb= Ze /Zp , Ze = Elastic section modulus and Zp=Plastic section
modulus
Ans 1. Md = Zp fbd
2. Md =β b Z p /f bd
3. Md =β b f bd /Z p
4. Md =β b Z p f bd
Q.53 If lining is provided to the canals, seepage loss of water can be

controlled and ultimately it ________ the irrigated command area of
the project.
Ans 1. doesn’t affect
2. neither increases nor reduces
3. increases
4. decreases
Q.54 Which of the fallowing types of construction offers comparatively
better earthquake resistance based on its structural action?
Consider that the thickness and length of member to be constructed
is constant for any of the following cases.
Ans 1. R andom rubble stone masonry

2. Size stone masonry
3. R einforced brickwork
4. Brickwork with English bond
Q.55 T he modulus of elasticity of a material is:

Ans 1. not referred to as Young’s modulus
2. only defined in the linearly elastic region
3. having the same unit as that of strain
4. equal to the slope of the strain–stress curve
Q.56 T he temperature at which vitrification of low melting clay bricks
occurs at a temperature of_____.
Ans 1. 1200°C -1400°C
2. 300°C -500°C
3. 600°C -800°C
4. 900°C -1100°C
Q.57 T he velocity components of a two-dimensional plane motion of a
fluid with constant density are u = 2x – x2 y and v = xy2 − 2y. Which of
the following is the correct statement?
Ans 1. The fluid is incompressible and flow is steady.
2. The fluid is compressible and flow is unsteady.
3. The fluid is compressible and flow is steady.
4. The fluid is incompressible and flow is unsteady.
Q.58 Which of the following precaution is generally followed in cold
weather concreting and not in hot weather concreting?
Ans 1. Use of an air-entraining agent
2. Sprinkling of formwork with cooled water
3. C overing the finished concrete surface by impermeable sheet
4. C ooling of aggregates
Q.59 In a barometer, air is trapped in the space labelled ‘A above the
mercury level in the tube of the barometer, which measures 730
mmHg. If the atmospheric pressure is 750 mmHg, then the pressure
of the trapped air is:
Ans 1. 20 mmHg
2. 750 mmHg
3. 730 mmHg
4. 745 mmHg
Q.60 T he material supported by a retaining wall kept above the horizontal
plane at the elevation of the top of the retaining wall is known as:
Ans 1. infill
2. surcharge
3. backfill
4. debris
Q.61 T he design shear strength of concrete in the RCC beam does NOT
depend on the:
Ans 1. grade of concrete
2. cross-sectional dimension of the beam
3. grade of steel
4. area of steel
Q.62 An economical cross-section of an irrgation canal is formed partly in

cutting and partly in filling, with the depth of cutting in canal cross-
section equal to balancing depth. What does this indicate ?
Ans 1. Wetted perimeter of cutting portion of canal = Wetter perimeter of
the filling portion of canal
2. D epth of earthwork cutting = D epth of earthwork in filling
3. Q uantity of earthwork in filling = Two times the quantity of
earthwork in cutting
4. Q uanty of earthwork in cutting = Q uantity of earthwork in filling
Q.63 Which of the following sewer sections has the least perimeter for a
given cross-sectional area?
Ans 1. Egg-shaped sewer
2. C ircular sewer
3. Parabolic sewer
4. R ectangular sewer
Q.64 Which irrigation method has the highest irrigation efficiency?
Ans 1. Sprinkler irrigation
2. D rip irrigation
3. Border strip irrigation
4. Furrow
Assertion: In urban areas, roofing on built-up areas, concrete and
asphalts surfaces are major factors that inhibit infiltration and
surface retention.
Reason: T he presence of pervious surface areas decreases
infiltration and initial losses and leads to consequent increase in the
effective rainfall.
Q.66 As per IS 456:2000, the maximum compressive strain at highly
compressed fiber in RCC column subjected to bending and axial
compression is given by: (Consider no tension in the section).
Ans 1. 0.002 − 0.75 × (strain at the least compressed extreme fiber)
2. 0.002 + 0.75 × (strain at the least compressed extreme fiber)
3. 0.0035 + 0.75 × (strain at the least compressed extreme fiber)
4. 0.0035 − 0.75 × (strain at the least compressed extreme fiber)
Q.67 In which type of the finish is the booster or chisel used to make non-
continuous parallel marks on the stone surface? T hese marks may
be horizontal, inclined, or vertical.
Ans 1. D ragged or combed finish
2. R ubbed finish
3. Hammer dressed finish
4. Furrowed finish dressing of stones
Q.68 Which of the following types of foundation is suitable for cohesive

soil with high load bearing capacity and load can be distributed over
a wide area compared to other foundation types?
Ans 1. Strip foundation
2. Pier foundation
3. Pile foundation
4. R aft foundation
Q.69 Which of the following municipal solid wastes CANNOT be
recycled?
Ans 1. Papers
2. Fruit peelings
3. Glasses
4. Plastics
Q.70 Hazard markers should reflect _______________ light, visible at least
from a distance of about ___________.
Ans 1. red; 500 m
2. yellow; 150 m
3. red; 150 m
4. yellow; 500 m
Q.71 What is potential head?
Ans 1. Kinetic energy per unit weight of fluid particle
2. Potential energy per unit mass of fluid particle
3. Pressure energy per unit weight of fluid particle
4. Potential energy per unit weight of fluid particle
Q.72 T he passive earth pressure for a soil is ----------
Ans 1. always greater than active earth pressure
2. equal to earth pressure at rest
3. always less than the earth pressure at rest
4. equal to active earth pressure
Q.73 T he part of the runoff that enters the stream immediately after the
rainfall is called direct runoff. T he total direct runoff is the sum of
___________.
Ans 1. overland flow and infiltration
2. surface runoff, infiltration and evapotranspiration
3. rainfalls
4. surface runoff, prompt interflow and channel precipitation
Q.74 If the specific weight of a certain liquid is 5000N/m
3 , then calculate
the specific volume (in m3 /N).
Ans 1. 0.02
2. 0.2
3. 0.002
4. 0.0002
Q.75 Which of the following factors is NOT considered while preparing a
detailed estimate?
Ans 1. D epartmental charges

2. Specifications for different items of work
3. Transportation of materials
4. Q uantity of the materials
Q.76 Which of the following statements are correct with respect to grain
size distribution curve?
I: T he grain size distribution curve, having a horizontal line (parallel
to x-axis) for some distance, shows poorly graded soil.
II: T he grain size distribution curve, having a horizontal line
(parallel to x-axis) for some distance, shows gap graded soil.
III: If the value of Cu (coefficient of uniformity) is large, it shows the
presence of wide range of size of particles.
IV: If the value of Cu (coefficient of uniformity) is large, it shows the
presence of narrow range of size of particles.
Ans 1. I and III
2. II and IV
3. II and III
4. I and IV
Q.77 Which estimate is prepared for administrative approval and
technical sanction?
Ans 1. Supplementary estimate
2. C omplete estimate
3. D etailed estimate
Q.78 T he value of dynamic gauge (G) used to calculate the super
elevation is ____ for broad gauge railway tracks.
Ans 1. 1900 mm
2. 1650 mm
3. 1750 mm
4. 1550 mm
Q.79 As per IS 13311 (part 1), the natural frequency of transducers for a
path length of more than 1500 mm is _________.
Ans 1. greater than or equal to 10 kHz
2. greater than or equal to 20 kHz
3. less than 5 kHz
4. greater than or equal to 50 kHz
Q.80 Which property of timber makes it resistant to corrosion and rust?
Ans 1. Non-metallic composition
2. High strength
3. Low density
4. High moisture absorption
Q.81 Identify whether the following statements about sanitary landfill are
true or false.
Statement I: T here is continuous evolution of foul gases near the
fill side.
Statement II: During rainy season, leachate may come out of the
dump.
Statement III: T he method requires further treatments for
completion.
Ans 1. Statement I is true, but Statements II and III are false
2. Statements I and III are true, but Statement II is false
3. Statements I and II are false and Statement III is true
4. Statements I and II are true, but Statement III is false
Q.82 Absolute pressure is equal to:

Ans 1. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
2. Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
3. Atmospheric pressure × Gauge pressure
4. Atmospheric pressure – Gauge pressure
Q.83 For a retaining wall, the Mohr circle radius for active earth pressure
is ________ the Mohr circle radius for passive earth pressure.
Ans 1. equal to
2. less than
3. more than
4. More or less depending on the angle of internal friction of soil
Q.84 What is the meaning of a signal ‘Left arm extended’ given by a
surveyor?
Ans 1. Move considerably towards your left
2. Plumb the rod towards your left
3. Move slowly towards your left
4. C ontinue to move towards your left
Q.85 As per Kennedy’s theory, the ratio of the mean velocity ‘V’ to the
critical velocity ‘VO’ is known as the critical velocity ratio. It is
denoted by ‘m’. If m > 1, ___________ will occur.
Ans 1. scouring
2. both scouring and silting
3. silting
4. neither scouring nor silting
Q.86 What is the application of geotechnical engineering in highway
pavement design ?
Ans 1. Analysis of stability of the camber slope
2. D esigning of the footing for rigid pavements
3. D esigning the thickness of flexible pavements
4. D etermination of traffic load
Q.87 Which of the following is a limitation of lightweight concrete when
compared to conventional type concrete?
Ans 1. R educed density
2. Enhanced thermal property
3. Increased permeability
4. Higher fire resistance
Q.88 What would be the average flow per hour (litre/hour) water
consumption if 5000 litres is used per day?
Ans 1. 400
2. 500
3. 100
4. 208.33
Q.89 T he elements included in the road margins are:

Ans 1. embankment slope, driveway, carriageway, median
2. footpath, shoulder, median, frontage road
3. frontage road, shoulder, median, kerbs
4. frontage road, parking lane, footpath, drive way
Q.90 Which of the following operation is meant for manual or automatic
process by which air present in a centrifugal pump and its suction
line is removed by filling liquid.
Ans 1. starting of the electric motor
2. the lubrication
3. closure of the delivery valve
4. closure of the suction valve
Q.91 Consider the following statements about the stability criterion of a
gravity dam.
Statement I : If the force of friction is more than the force due to
water pressure, the dam is safe against sliding.
Statement II : If the resultant of the weight of the dam and the
horizontal force due to water pressure lies outside the base of the
dam, but within h (h = height of the dam) from the face of the dam,
the dam is safe against overturning.
Statement III : To avoid tension at the base of the dam, the maximum
value of eccentricity is b/6 on either side of geometrical axis of base
section. Where, b is base width of dam.Which of the given
statements is/are correct?
Ans 1. Statements I and II
2. Statements I and III
3. Statement II only
4. Statements II and III
Q.92 What amount of principle reinforcement materials is used in
pultrusion process?
Ans 1. 5% – 22%
2. 40% – 70%
3. 85% – 92%
4. 22% – 38%
Q.93 Under which of the following condition an element subjected to
stresses is said to be in a state of triaxial stress?
Ans 1. W hen the shear stresses acting along three mutually perpendicular
directions of the element
2. W hen the principal stresses acting along three mutually
perpendicular directions
3. W hen the normal stress along two mutually perpendicular direction
and shear stress along third direction
4. W hen the stress acting along only one axis of the element
Q.94 Which of the following methods is/are used for disposal of the
municipal solid waste?
I: Sanitary landfilling
II: Shredding or pulverisation
III: Barging out into the sea
Ans 1. O nly I
2. O nly II
3. All of I, II and III
4. O nly I and II
Q.95 Which of the following materials is used for waterproofing during

the construction of foundation and for protection of the structure
from seepage problems?
Ans 1. Plaster of Paris
2. Portland cement
3. Pitch
4. Furnace slag
Q.96 Which characteristic of fine aggregates indicates their ability to
retain water and affects the workability of concrete or mortar mix?
Ans 1. Fineness modulus
2. Water absorption
3. Particle size distribution
4. Specific gravity
Q.97 Due to segregation of well-mixed concrete, ______.
Ans 1. the workability of concrete decreases
2. the durability of concrete increases
3. the strength of concrete increases
4. the permeability of concrete decreases
Q.98
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.99 Match the following.
Ans 1. I-A, II-B, III-C

2. I-A, II-C , III-B
3. I-B, II-C , III-A
4. I-B, II-A, III-C
Assertion: Rivers that flow through catchment areas having steep
slopes carry a lot of sediment.
Reason: Steep slopes lead to high velocity of the flow, which causes
more erosion of the surface soil.


(218, 121, 97)
(254, 138, 116)
Ans 1. (312, 194, 128)
2. (267, 118, 129)
3. (296, 147, 156)
4. (325, 184, 141)
Q.2 Dilip starts from point A and drives 6 km towards the North. He then
takes a right turn and drives 2 km. He then takes a left turn and
drives 3 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 7 km. He takes a
final left turn and drives 9 km to reach point B. How far (shortest
distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to
reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless
specified)
Ans 1. 5 km East
2. 6 km West
3. 5 km West
4. 3 km East
Q.3 If'+' means 'subtraction', '−' means 'division', '÷' means
'multiplication' and'×' means 'addition', then what will come in place
of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
30 − 5 × 2960 + 74 ÷ 4 = ?
Ans 1. 2671
2. 2670
3. 2673
4. 2674
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
LFC, IDZ, FBW, CZT, ZXQ, ?
Ans 1. XZR
2. UW M
3. XYP
4. W VN
VUR, T SP, RQN, POL, ?
Ans 1. MLI
2. NMK
3. NMJ
4. MLK
Q.8 Seven friends S, Q, K, P, E, C and N have different ages. S is older
than N but younger than E. K is older than P. Q is younger than E. C
is younger than K. N is older than P. C is older than P. K is younger
than Q. Which among them is the oldest?
Ans 1. N
2. Q
3. K
4. E
series?
44, 48, 52, 56, 60, 64, ?
Ans 1. 72
2. 66
3. 70
4. 68
(16, 9, 14)
(33, 11, 44)
Ans 1. (41, 23, 25)

2. (18, 7, 22)
3. (22, 6, 30)
4. (17, 4, 22)
Q.11 A dice has its faces marked by letters R, S, T, U, V and W. Two

positions of the same dice are shown below. Which face is opposite
to face R?
Ans 1. V
2. S
3. W
4. T
equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
55 × 5 – 3 ÷ 6 + 12 = ?
Ans 1. 17
2. 15
3. 13
4. 21
Q.13 ‘TOUR’ is related to ‘VQWT ’ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, ‘QLRO’ is related to ‘SNT Q’. To
which of the following is ‘MHNK’ related following the same logic?
Ans 1. JO MP
2. JO P M
3. O JP M
4. O JMP
Q.14 ‘UV 4’ is related to ‘WX 16’ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical and numerical order. In the same way, ‘PQ 3’ is related
to ‘RS 9’. To which of the following is ‘AB 5’ related following the
same logic?
Ans 1. C D 10
2. C D 25
3. AC 25
4. C E 25
equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
4 ÷ 5 + 21 × 3 − 2= ?
Ans 1. 14
2. 17
3. 15
4. 12
Q.16 A, B, C, D, P, Q औ र R ए क गोल मे ज के प रत : उस के क की ओ र अिभम ु ख होक र बै ठे ह

( ले ि क न ज री न ह िक इ सी म म ह ) R के दाय ओ र से िगन ने प र , D औ र R के बी च के वल
ती न बै ठे ह R औ र Q दोन का िन क ट त म प ड़ोसी B है P, D के बाय ओ र द सू रे थान
प र बै ठ ा है C, D का िन क ट त म प ड़ोसी न ह है
R के दाय ओ र ती स रे थान प र कौन बै ठ ा है ?
Ans 1. P
2. Q
3. A
4. C
Pressure : Pascal
Ans 1. Electric C urrent : Kelvin
2. Work : Joule
3. Momentum : Newton
4. Force : Watt
Q.18 ए क िन त कू ट भाषा म ,
A @ B का अथ है 'A, B की माँ है '
A – B का अथ है 'A, B का भाई है '
A % B का अथ है 'A, B का प ु है '
A ÷ B का अथ है 'A, B का िप ता है '
उप रोक् त के आ धार प र , यिद ‘E % F ÷ G – H @ M’ है , तो E का M से क् या स ं बं ध है ?
Ans 1. भाई
2. नाना
3. मामा
4. िपता
logic, 232 is related to 29. To which of the following is 392 related,
Ans 1. 46
2. 47
3. 48
4. 49
Q.20 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
series?
11, 17, 29, 47, 71, ?

Ans 1. 100
2. 99
3. 102
4. 101
Q.21 Pillar P is to the west of Pillar Q. Pillar R is to the east of Pillar Q.

Pillar T is to the north of Pillar R. Pillar U is to the south of Pillar R.
What is the position of Pillar Q with respect to Pillar U?
Ans 1. North-West
2. South-West
3. North
4. South
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Statements: Some phones are tablets. Some tablets are laptops.
Conclusion 1: Some laptops are phones.
Conclusion 2: No phone is a laptop.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion (2) follows
Q.24
Ans 1. 14
2. 12
3. 11
4. 13
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

the letters in the word SMOT HER is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Three
2. Two
3. Zero
4. O ne
series?
54, 43, 33, 24, 16, ?
Ans 1. 11
2. 6
3. 9
4. 8
Q.28 In a certain code language, ‘FISH’ is coded as ‘7913’ and ‘SALE’ is

coded as ‘8641’. What is the code for ‘S’ in the given language?
Ans 1. 1
2. 8
3. 4
4. 3
into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can
is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 686
2. 786
3. 886
4. 986
(6, 18, 123)
(17, 9, 168)
Ans 1. (18, 5, 100)
2. (21, 7, 147)
3. (14, 8, 127)
4. (20, 6, 94)
Q.31 CE 13 is related to GI 19 in a certain way. In the same way, KM 19 is
related to OQ 25. To which of the following is SU 17 related,
Ans 1. YZ 23
2. LI 23
3. W Y 23
4. MP 21
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
FZP, DYU, BXZ, ZWE, ?
Ans 1. YW N
2. ZUM
3. XVJ
4. YO U
NT Z, LRX, JPV, HNT, ?
Ans 1. GLN
2. GLR
3. F LR
4. F MR
Q.35
Ans 1. 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Q.36 P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre (not necessarily in the same order). P is sitting to the
immediate left of V. R is sitting to the immediate right of T. U is
sitting to the immediate left of P and immediate right of S. Q is
sitting to the immediate left of S. T is sitting to the immediate right
of V. Who is sitting to the immediate left of Q?
Ans 1. V
2. R
3. P
4. U
Q.37 ए क िन त कू ट भाषा म ,
‘A + B’ का अथ है िक 'A, B का प ित है ',
‘A − B’ का अथ है िक 'A, B की प ी है ',
'A × B' का अथ है िक 'A, B का िप ता है ', औ र
'A ÷ B' का अथ है िक 'A, B की बह न है '
यिद 'P − Q × R ÷ S + T ' है , तो P का T से क् या स ं बं ध है ?
Ans 1. प ु - वध ु
2. सास
3. भाभी
4. दादी
Q.38 In a certain code language, ‘BOIL’ is coded as ‘6428’ and ‘LEAD’ is
coded as ‘9671’. What is the code for ‘L’ in that language?
Ans 1. 6
2. 8
3. 1
4. 9
Q.39 CEG is related to KMO in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, GIK is related to OQS. To which
of the following is MOQ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. UW Y
2. IK M
3. B D F
4. LNP
Q.40 PTOS is related to NRMQ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, JNIM is related to HLGK. To
which of the following is QUPT related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. O S R N
2. S O NR
3. S O R N
4. O S NR
CGPY, KOXG, SWFO, AENW, ?
Ans 1. IMVE
2. IVE B
3. IMNJ
4. IK JU
1. State
2. Village
3. District
4. Nation
5. House
Ans 1. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
2. 4, 5, 2, 3, 1
3. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2
4. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3
following words in a logical and meaningful order (in terms of food
chain).
1. Grass
2. Grasshopper
3. Frog
4. Snake
5. Eagle
Ans 1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
2. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
3. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
4. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
series based on the English alphabetical order
PRT, LNP, HJL, DFH, ?
Ans 1. YAD
2. ZAD
3. ZB D
4. YB D
the letters in the word PLANKED is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Three
2. Zero
3. Two
4. O ne
Statements: All plants are rocks. All rocks are lakes. No lake is a
kite.
Conclusions:
(I) No rock is a kite.
(II) At least some lakes are plants.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. O nly conclusion (I) follows.
Q.47 In a certain code language, ‘he is right’ is coded as ‘ab yo km’ and
‘right now here’ is coded as ‘km gh bd’. How is ‘right’ coded in the
given language?
Ans 1. gh
2. ab
3. yo
4. km
Q.48 PUQT is related to RWSV in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, SXT W is related to UZVY. To
which of the following is KPLO related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. NR MQ
2. MR NP
3. MR NQ
4. NR Q M
9-5-1
14-10-6
Ans 1. 30-28-26
2. 20-16-12
3. 21-16-14
4. 25-21-19
Q.50 In a certain code language, ‘DYO’ is coded as ‘44’ and ‘PDX’ is
coded as ‘44’. What is the code for ‘ZMB’ in the given language?
Ans 1. 48
2. 41
3. 56
4. 52

Q.1 Sahel is an area in Africa that has lost a huge area of productive
land in the last century due to excessive human activities and
climate change. T his area is a blaring example of _______________.
Ans 1. failed Irrigation
2. endangering species
3. desertification
4. pollution
Q.2 Which of the following options is used to check the spelling
and grammar in a Microsoft Word document?
Ans 1. Review tab
2. Home tab
3. Insert tab
4. Format tab
Q.3 PT Usha clocked a timing of 55.42 sec in 400-metre hurdles at which

of the following Olympic Games?
Ans 1. 1980 Moscow
2. 1984 Los Angeles
3. 1948 London
4. 1956 Melbourne
Q.4 T he enzyme that is essential for fat digestion is:
Ans 1. lipase
2. trypsin
3. zymase
4. invertase
Q.5 What is the freezing point of water on the Celsius scale?
Ans 1. 100°C
2. 98°C
3. 32°C
4. 0°C
Q.6 What is a small, shallow freshwater body with calm water called?
Ans 1. Lagoon
2. Pond
3. R iver
4. Lake
Q.7 Which of the following fe ature s was borrowe d by the Constitution of
India from Ire land?
Ans 1. Separation of Powers
2. D irective Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental R ights
4. Amendment Method
Q.8 भू खलन को क म क रने के लए िन न ल खत म से कौन - से क दम उठाए जा स क ते ह ?
A. िच ि त भू खलन - वण े म ब त य को बसाने से बच ना चािह ए
B. अनाव यक वृ ए वं वन प ित य को काट ना चािह ए
C. मज बूत दी वार बनानी चािह ए
D. िन माण से बच ने के लए ज ल िन कासी व था का िन माण न ह क रना चािह ए
Ans 1. के वल B और D
2. B, C और D
3. A और C
4. A और B
Q.9 Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

Ans 1. C ommonwealth Games 2022 – England
2. O lympics 2020 – Tokyo
3. F IFA World C up Football 2022 – Japan

4. F IH Men Hockey World C up 2023 – India
Q.10 T he world's largest population of which endangered species resides
in Assam's Kaziranga National Park?
Ans 1. Shaggy horn wild ibex
2. Bluebull
3. O ne-horned rhinoceros
4. R ed panda
Q.11 By what name is Vitamin B1 known which is essential for glucose
metabolism and healthy nerve, muscle and heart function?
Ans 1. Thiamin
2. Pantothenic acid
3. Niacin
4. R iboflavin
Q.12 According to Census of India 2011, what is the population growth
rate in the Hindu community?
Ans 1. 8.3%
2. 24.9%
3. 16.8%
4. 30.2%
Q.13 What is the name of project undertaken by the Indian Government to
conserve tigers when their population dwindled to very low
numbers?
Ans 1. Animal Protection
2. Project Tiger
3. W ildlife C onservation Project
4. Predator Project
Q.14 Otto von Guericke was the most prominent person known for which
invention in the 17th century?
Ans 1. Fluorescent electric lamp
2. D iesel engine
3. Barometer
4. Air pump
Q.15 What is the primary function of carbohydrates in the body?
Ans 1. To regulate metabolism
2. To enhance vision
3. To build muscle
4. To provide energy
Q.16 In the context of internet access, Wi-Fi stands for
________________.
Ans 1. W ired Fidelity

2. W ireless Fidelity
3. W ideband Fibre
4. Web Interface
Q.17 According to Census of India 2011, which state recorded the second
highest literacy rate in India?
Ans 1. Nagaland
2. Goa
3. Tripura
4. Mizoram
Q.18 Which of the following sentences is/are true?
i. After independence, about two-thirds of India’s population is now
(2011 Census) literate.
ii. In India, between 2001 and 2011, male literacy rose faster than
female literacy.
iii. Female literacy rose by about 10.4 per cent between 2001 and
2011 in India.
Ans 1. O nly i and ii
2. O nly ii and iii
3. O nly ii
4. O nly i and iii
Q.19 As per newest notification of december 2023, the decennial Census
of India to be delayed till at least ____________ .
Ans 1. January 2024
2. O ctober 2024
3. March 2024
4. July 2024
Q.20 Under the Regulating Act of 1773, the Supreme Court was
established by British Emperor in which of the following cities in
British India?
Ans 1. Madras
2. Bombay
3. C alcutta
4. D elhi
Q.21 What is the name of the sche me announce d by Arunachal Prade sh
Chie f M iniste r Pe ma Khandu in Se pte mbe r 2023 for the we lfare of the
state 's labour force ?
Ans 1. Mukhya Mantri Shramik Suraksha Yojana
2. Arunachal Shramik Vikas Yojana
3. Labor Welfare Samriddhi Yojana
4. Mukhya Mantri Shramik Kalyan Yojana
Q.22 If a government wants to boost economic growth in a recession,
which measure is it likely to take?
Ans 1. Implement strict trade barriers
2. Increase taxes significantly
3. R educe public spending
4. Increase public spending
Q.23 Which of the following lakes is located in Buldhana district of

Maharashtra?
Ans 1. Bhimtal
2. Lonar
3. D al
4. Pushkar
Q.24 What is the frequency of an object if we know that it oscillates 100
times in 5 seconds?
Ans 1. 20 Hz
2. 100 Hz
3. 200 Hz
4. 50 Hz
Q.25 T he Gujarat Assembly, on 18 September 2023, approved a bill that
reserves ____________ of local body seats specifically for Other
Backward Classes (OBCs).
Ans 1. 20%
2. 27%
3. 30%
4. 35%
Q.26 T he supreme court has published new guidelines for which
designation on 17 July 2023?
Ans 1. D istrict Judge
2. Senior Advocate
3. Judicial Magistrate
4. Additional Senior C ivil Judge
Q.27 T he Indian Copper Complex (ICC) is located at Ghatsila in the state
of ________.
Ans 1. Jharkhand
2. Telangana
3. Maharashtra
4. R ajasthan
Q.28 Which disease is characterised by the body's inability to regulate
blood sugar levels?
Ans 1. D iabetes
2. Hypertension
3. Arthritis
4. Asthma
Q.29 If an atom has atomic number = 6 and number of neutrons = 10, then
what is the atomic mass of the atom?
Ans 1. 4
2. 16
3. 10
4. 6
Q.30 What is the process by which one organism captures and consumes
another organism called?
Ans 1. Mutualism
2. C ompetition
3. Predation
4. Parasitism
Q.31 T he 'Rajya Sangeeta Vidwan' award is conferred by which state?

Ans 1. Karnataka
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Kerala
Q.32 When did the Indigo Revolt of Bengal take place?
Ans 1. 1859 C .E.
2. 1857 C .E.
3. 1852 C .E.
4. 1855 C .E.
Q.33 T he basophilic nucleoprotein granules that are scattered within the
cytoplasm of a nerve cell and helps in the protein synthesis are
known as:
Ans 1. Nissl bodies
2. Subunit of Parson
3. O xisome
4. Golgi bodies
Q.34 Who has been appointed as India’s first Woman Aide-De-Camp by the
governor of Mizoram?
Ans 1. Abhilipsa Mohanty
2. Poonam Veeram
3. D eepa Shah
4. Manisha Padhi
Q.35 Which of the following are the functions of the National Commission
for Scheduled Castes?
1) Providing Constitutional protection to Scheduled Castes
2) Investigating any case that violates the interests of Scheduled
Castes
3) Submitting a report to the Prime Minister related to the
protection of Scheduled Castes
4) Presenting to the President, annually and at such other times as
the Commission may deem fit, reports upon the working of those
safeguards
2. O nly 1, 2 and 3
3. O nly 1, 2 and 4
4. O nly 2, 3 and 4
Q.36 Sangeet Natak Akademi awardee, Prabhat Sarma from Assam was an
eminent player of which of the following musical instruments?
Ans 1. Tabla
2. Sarod
3. Flute
4. Sarangi
Q.37 Which of the following sentence/s is/are NOT correct?
i. T he detailed estimates of revenue receipts are usually presented in
the finance bill.
ii. Non-tax revenue of the central government mainly consists of taxes
imposed on goods imported into and exported out of India.
iii. Revenue receipts are redeemable.
Ans 1. O nly i
2. i and ii
3. ii and iii
4. i and iii
Q.38 Who was re-appointed as the Solicitor General of India for a term of
three years starting from 1 July 2023?
Ans 1. Suryaprakash V R aju
2. Tushar Mehta
3. C hetan Sharma
4. Vikramjit Banerjee
Q.39 In dravidian style of temples the main temple tower is known as
___________ .
Ans 1. shikhara
2. mandapa
3. gopuram
4. vimana
Q.40 Mahatma Gandhi gave the slogan of ‘Do or Die’ during the
___________.
Ans 1. Non-C ooperation Movement
2. Q uit India Movement
3. Kheda Satyagraha
4. C hamparan Satyagraha
Q.41 Which system of India is based on the Westminster model?
Ans 1. Indian Parliamentary system
2. Welfare State system
3. Federal system
4. Strong C entre system
Q.42 How many items did the Swaran Singh Committee recommend to be
incorporated in the Constitution of India as duties of the Indian
citizen?
Ans 1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 6
Q.43 If the meat is cooked above 140°C, which of the following reactions
occurs?
Ans 1. C aramelisation
2. O xidation reaction
3. Emulsification
4. Maillard reaction
Q.44 Who was the chairman of the task force on the production and
promotion of biofertilizers constituted by NIT I Aayog in 2021?
Ans 1. Prof. R amesh C hand
2. Prof. Suresh Pal
3. Prof. Vijay P Sharma
4. Prof. Gopal Naik
Q.45 Which of the following statements about the Rajasthan Minimum
Guaranteed Income Bill 2023 is INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. The bill promises 125 days of work a year for all families in the
state.
2. The bill guarantees a minimum pension of ₹1,000 per month to the
elderly, specially abled, widows and single women.
3. The minimum pension under the bill will increase by 15% every
year.
4. The bill offers free education to all residents of R ajasthan.
Q.46 Mango shower is a term used for __________________.
Ans 1. monsoon showers
2. pre-monsoon showers
3. post-monsoon showers
4. winter showers
Q.47 Which months are known for the season of retreating monsoon in
India?
Ans 1. March and April
2. O ctober and November
3. May and June
4. January and February
Q.48 Which of the following fundamental rights has been amended as a
constitutional right in the form of Article 300A in the new Chapter IV
Part XII of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. C ultural and Educational R ights
2. R ight to Freedom of R eligion
3. R ight against Exploitation
4. R ight to Property
A Propene 1 Unsaturated 3 carbon chains with double
bond
B Propyne 2 Unsaturated 3 carbon chains with triple
bond
C Propane 3 Saturated 3 carbon bonds
Ans 1. A-3, B-1, C -2
2. A-1, B-2, C -3
3. A-3, B-2, C -1
4. A-2, B-1, C -3
Q.50 Boron is the only metalloid of which group of the periodic table?
Ans 1. Group 10
2. Group 16
3. Group 5
4. Group 13

Q.1 For a balanced beam section, the limit state is reached when:
Ans 1. there is the simultaneous crushing of concrete and yielding of steel
2. there is the simultaneous crushing of concrete and breaking of
steel
3. there is the simultaneous yielding of concrete and breaking of steel
4. there is the simultaneous yielding of both concrete and steel
Q.2 _____shall be used to strength the beam against the maximum
nominal shear stress in a RC beam.
Ans 1. compression reinforcement
2. shear reinforcement
3. tension reinforcement
4. side reinforcement
Q.3 Laminated wood offers several advantages over solid wood. Which
of the following is NOT an advantage of laminated wood?
Ans 1. Since laminated wood is glued, wood of only large dimensions can
be used, which increases the amount of waste.
2. Individual boards, which are used in laminated wood due to their
relative thinness, can be properly dried without checking (cracking) and
defects, such as knots, can be removed.
3. Structures can be designed with laminated wood based on the
required strength and low-grade wood can be positioned accordingly.
4. It can be used to fabricate large members that are impossible to be
made from solid wood.
Q.4 Which property of concrete makes it advantageous for construction
of bridges?
Ans 1. Low tensile strength
2. Low durability
3. High compressive strength
4. Low thermal conductivity
Q.5 A direct runoff hydrograph of triangular shape, caused by a storm,
has a time base of 100 hours and the peak flow of 50 cumec
occurring at 30 hours from the start. If the catchment area is 150
km2 , the rainfall excess of the storm was _____________.
Ans 1. 6.8 cm
2. 5.6 cm
3. 7.2 cm
4. 6 cm
Q.6 In the direct shear test conducted on soils, a proving ring is used to
_______.
Ans 1. measure the magnitude of shear load
2. measure vertical strain
3. measure horizontal stress
4. measure horizontal strain
Q.7 For a project, which of the following estimate is accorded sanction
in a Technical sanction ?
Ans 1. Preliminary estimate
2. Abstract estimate
3. Approximate estimate
4. D etailed estimate
statements pertaining to lining of canals, labelled as Assertion and
Reason.
Assertion: T he expenditure on lining depends on the availability of
construction materials and transportation charges.
Reason: To reduce the expenditure on lining, materials which are
available in the vicinity of the project should be utilised.
Q.9 A soil has a liquid limit of 40% and its plasticity index is 10%. T he
percentage passing through a 4.75 mm sieve is 60% and the
percentage passing through a 75 micron sieve is 45%. T he soil can
be classified as:
Ans 1. S M-S C
2. GM
3. GC
4. S M
Q.10 Find the correct statement regarding the assumption of limit state
design under compression member as per IS 456:2000.
Ans 1. The minimum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression
is 0.002.
2. The maximum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression
is 0.02.
3. The minimum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression
is 0.0002.
4. The maximum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression
is 0.002.
Q.11 In the case of preliminary estimate prepared per unit basis, the
service units to be considered for a school and hospital are
respectively ___________.
Ans 1. bench and bed
2. classroom and bed
3. classroom and ward
4. bench and ward
Q.12 A catchment area of 10 km2 has recorded a rainfall of 25 mm/h.
Assuming a runoff co-efficient of 0.3, the peak discharge from the
catchment using the rational method is ________.
Ans 1. 20.83 cumec
2. 18.36 cumec
3. 26.56 cumec
4. 24.6 cumec
Q.13 Which of the following statements represent(s) advantages of the
separate system of sewerage?
Statement I: T he load on treatment units becomes less.
Statement II: Sewers are large in diameter.
Statement III: Maintenance costs are reasonable.
Ans 1. O nly III
2. O nly I
3. O nly II and III
4. O nly II
Q.14 Which of the following options serves all the three objectives
mentioned below?
I: To promote human health
II: To provide a cleaner environment
III: To break the cycle of diseases
Ans 1. D rainage system
2. Scavenging system
3. Sanitary system
4. D istribution system
Q.15 In case of absorption test on burnt clay building bricks as per IS
3495 (part 2);1992, bricks shall be soaked in cold water for a duration
of______ .
Ans 1. 24 hours
2. 16 hours
3. 9 hours
4. 12 hours
Q.16 Which of the following methods of transportation of concrete is
useful for transporting the concrete to a relatively greater distance
from batching plant?
Ans 1. Pump and pipe line
2. Transit mixer
3. C rane and bucket method

4. W heel barrow
Q.17 Why are air vessels fitted in reciprocating pumps?
Ans 1. For faster discharge
2. For increasing the speed of rotation of the crank
3. To reduce the head loss due to friction in suction and delivery pipe
4. For increasing the velocity of discharge
Q.18 Based on Allen-Hazens experiments, the co-efficient of permeabilty
k (cm/s) is related to the effective size of soil D 10 (cm) as _________.
(where C is a constant with a value between 100 and 150).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.19 Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding ready-mix concrete
(RMC). Consider that ordinary Portland cement is used for making
RMC.
Ans 1. The mix design of R MC is tailor made to suit the placing methods
of the contractor.
2. R eady-mix concrete in wet condition is transported by using a
transit mixer from the batching plant to the construction site.
3. R eady-mix concrete increases the speed of construction.
4. R eady-mix concrete packed in bags should be added with a

hydration activator while mixing with water.
Q.20 T he loss of life is maximum if the flood water suddenly enters the
inhabited areas at night. T he loss of life during the floods is
considered as _____________ loss.
Ans 1. huge and tangible
2. measurable
3. tangible
4. intangible
Q.21 Which of the following is/are the objectives of road sign?
i. Promote road safety
ii. Promote efficient movement of vehicles
iii. Increase design speed
iv. Calculate traffic volume
v. Provide warning for safe movement
Ans 1. i, ii, iii and v
2. O nly i, ii and v
3. Both iii and v
4. O nly i
Q.22 As per IS 456 : 2000, the design strength of a short axially loaded
compression member is expressed as _______. Where,
f y=characteristic strength of the compression reinforcement,
Asc =area of longitudinal reinforcement for
columns, f ck =characteristic compressive strensth of the concrete,
Ac =Area of concrete.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.23 In an irrigated field, the crop requires 60 cm of water in 15 days,

while the effective rainfall during that period is recorded as 15 cm.
Find the duty at the head of field.Assume no losses
Ans 1. 288 ha/cumec
2. 278 ha/cumec
3. 298 ha/cumec
4. 268 ha/cumec
Q.24 Which of the following can be used as an alternative for the blast
furnace in the steel manufacturing industry for energy saving?
Ans 1. Pulverised coal injection
2. D ry quenching
3. Heat recovery from hot sinter
4. Programmed coke heating
Q.25 Identify different stages in the treatment of sewage.
Ans 1. D isinfection and secondary treatment
2. Primary treatment and disinfection
3. Primary treatment and secondary treatment
4. Primary treatment, secondary treatment and disinfection
Q.26 __________ are popularly known as white ants, though they are in no
way related to ants.
Ans 1. Termites
2. Bacteria
3. Flies
4. Viruses
Q.27 Which of the following term is used to express the process of water
coming out from the concrete and accumulate at the surface of
concrete during compaction?
Ans 1. Efflorescence
2. Seepage
3. Bleeding
4. Permeability
Q.28 Which of the following statements about the Noise Pollution
(Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000, under the Environment
Protection Act, 1986, is INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. There are three categories of zones.
2. D ay time shall mean the period from 6.00 a.m. to 10.00 p.m.
3. The day time and night time limits of noise in commercial areas are
75 dB and 70 dB, respectively.
4. Silence zone is an area comprising not less than 100 m around
hospitals, etc.
Q.29 In the laboratory determination of California Bearing Ratio (CBR)
test on soils as per IS : 2720(Part 16) – 1987, the CBR values are
usually reported for penetration values of :
Ans 1. 5.0 mm, 7.5 mm
2. 1.5 mm, 2.5 mm
3. 2.5 mm, 5.0 mm
4. 3.5 mm, 5.0 mm
Q.30 When pipes of different diameters are connected in series from end
to end to form a pipe line, the total head loss developed is equal
to____
Ans 1. sum of major head losses in each pipe
2. Sum of local head losses only
3. Zero
4. Sum of local head losses and major head losses in each pipe
Q.31 T he canal fall with a combination of a convex curve and a concave
curve, which is provided for carrying the canal water from a higher
level to a lower level, is known as ____________.
Ans 1. rapid fall
2. ogee fall
3. stepped fall
4. sarda fall
Q.32 As per IS 1077:1992, the size of standard modular burn clay building
bricks is___
Ans 1. 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
2. 25 cm × 19 cm × 9 cm
3. 19 cm × 18 cm × 18 cm
4. 22 cm × 15 cm × 10 cm
Q.33 Which of the following pairs of parameters of drinking water and

their desirable limits is correctly matched (as per IS 10500: 1991)?
Ans 1. C hlorides – 250 mg/l
2. pH – 7
3. Fluorides – 0.5 mg/l
4. Iron – 0.5 mg/l
Q.34 Identify the correct characterstic feature of scale choosen to draw
profile of ground using profile leveling data
Ans 1. Both horizontal and vertical distances are always plotted to 1 : 1
scale.
2. Horizontal distances are exaggerated as compared to vertical
distances.
3. Vertical distances are exaggerated as compared to horizontal
distances.
4. Both horizontal and vertical distances are plotted to the same
scale.
Q.35 What will be the discharge of a single-acting pump if it has one
cylinder of area 0.5 m2 and stroke of length 20 cm and if the pump
has 180 rpm of speed?
Ans 1. 0.25m3 /s
2. 0.3 m3 /s
3. 0.1m3 /s
4. 0.2 m3 /s
Q.36 Which of the following property of water makes the raindrops to form
roughly spherical structure?
Ans 1. air resistance
2. atmospheric pressure
3. surface tension
4. Acceleration due to gravity
Q.37 Which of the following statements about soil pollution is
INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. The area treatment method to prevent soil erosion involves treating
the natural water courses.
2. Irrigation water can cause salinisation of soil.
3. In temperate regions, D D T has a half-life of 10–15 years.
4. Storing surplus rainwater by constructing bunds, ponds, etc.
belongs to the category of area treatment method.
Q.38 Which of the given procedures should be followed before applying
paint onto different components of a building?
i) Chalking
ii) Flaking
iii) Removing blisters
iv) Surface wetting
Ans 1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii) and (iii)
3. O nly (i)
4. All of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Assertion: Proper deep ploughing, which is done by tractors,
requires overall less quality of water and hence, the duty is high.
Reason: Ploughing should be done properly and deeply so that the
moisture-retaining capacity of the soil is increased.
Q.40 Which of the following is the hazardous waste produced by
petroleum refining industries?
Ans 1. Tarry residues
2. C yanide-containing sludge
3. Lead ash
4. Spent clay-containing oil
Q.41 Calculate the design stress for a steel grade Fe-415 after applying
necessary factor of safety, in case of design of RCC members in
accordance with limit state design.
Ans 1. 435 N/mm2
2. 217.5 N/mm2
3. 415 N/mm2
4. 361.05 N/mm2
Q.42 T he distance travelled by a vehicle after the application of brakes to

a dead stop position is known as:
Ans 1. braking distance
2. distance to react
3. stopping distance
4. deacceleration distance
Q.43 If the value of Poisson’s ratio for a material is given as 0.35, then
the elastic constants are related to each other as:
Ans 1. G = 2.7E
2. K = 0.9E
3. E = 2.7G
4. E = 1.3G
Q.44 If 90% of soil particles got retained over 2 mm sieve and 50% of soil
particles got retained over 4.75 mm sieve, then the effective
diameter of the soil will be:
Ans 1. 2 mm
2. 6.75 mm
3. 4.75 mm
4. 1.25 mm
Q.45 T he biological treatment techniques used can be classified into
attached growth processes and suspended growth processes. Which
of the following treatments is classified under attached growth
processes?
Ans 1. Sludge digestion system
2. Activated sludge process
3. R otating biological conductor
4. Aerated lagoon
Q.46 T he tangent drawn to the instantaneous velocity in a flow field is
called:
Ans 1. timeline
2. pathline
3. streamline
4. streakline
Q.47 Modern electronic distance measurement (EDM) measures distance

by ______
Ans 1. measurement by invar tape
2. measurement of velocity of infra-red signals
3. measurement of wave travel time
4. measurement of phase difference between transmitted and
reflected signals
Q.48 Plinth area is calculated for the covered area by taking _________.
Ans 1. both the external and internal dimension of the building at the floor
level
2. centre to centre length at floor level
3. internal dimensions of the building at floor level
4. external dimensions of the building at the floor level
Q.49 Let P and Q be the reference points on the ground. You have to
establish a point R. Which of the following methods conforms to the
fundamental principles of surveying?
Ans 1. O nly I
2. I, II and III
3. O nly III
4. O nly I and II
Q.50 Which of the following indicates a preliminary stage of dead knot,
where the fibres of knot are not firmly held in the surrounding
wood?
Ans 1. D ead knot
2. R ound knot
3. Loose knot
4. Tight knot
Q.51 For a given open channel, if the Chezy's coefficient (C) is
decreased, then how will it affect the discharge (Q) of the flow?
Ans 1. Q will increase
2. Q will decrease
3. Q will remain constant
4. Q will become zero
Q.52 A school building of 15 classrooms is to be constructed and the cost
of construction of the school in terms of per classroom is ₹1,50,000.
Calculate the approximate cost of the proposed school building.
Ans 1. ₹30,00,000
2. ₹42,50,000
3. ₹22,50,000
4. ₹20,00,000
Q.53 Identify the canal regulation structure, used for closing the supply
to the downstream of the parent canal during repairs.
Ans 1. cross regulator
2. stream regulator
3. head regulator
4. distributary regulator
Q.54 Which of the following is/are the main advantage of using a dumpy
level in surveying?
i) Simple to use
ii) Provides accurate level of reading
iii) Can be used at night, without light
Ans 1. Both i and ii
2. O nly ii
3. O nly i
4. O nly iii
Q.55 Following IS : 2502-1963, determine the approximate total length of
bar of 6 mm diameter, measured along centre line, for the stirrup
shown in Figure. (Note : Take the given stirrup dimensions in Figure
as internal).
Ans 1. 0.884 m
2. 0.448 m
3. 0.848 m
4. 0.440 m
Q.56 T he soil has a liquid limit of 50 %. Following the A-line, in the
plasticity chart as per IS : 1498 – 1970, the corresponding plastic
limit is :
Ans 1. 28.1%
2. Insufficient data
3. 25%
4. 21.9%
Q.57 Which of the following statements regarding the vertical circle of a
theodolite is correct?
Ans 1. Both the graduation circle and the Vernier scale move with the
telescope.
2. The Vernier scale is fixed, but the graduation circle moves with the
telescope.
3. Both the graduation circle and the Vernier scale are fixed, while the
telescope moves.
4. The graduation circle is fixed, but the Vernier scale moves with the
telescope.
Q.58 T he following are different factors that affect the diurnal variation in
magnetic declination. T he condition which may result in the
maximum variation is _______________.
Ans 1. at the Equator during winter
2. at the Magnetic Poles during winter
3. at the Equator during summer
4. at the Magnetic Poles during summer
Q.59 Which of the piles is used for compacting loose granular soil?
Ans 1. End bearing piles
2. Tension piles
3. C ompaction piles
4. Friction piles
Q.60 Which of the following methods make use of infra-red lamp In the
determination of water content of soils ?
Ans 1. Torsional balance method
2. C alcium carbide method
3. Alcohol method
4. Pycnometer method
Q.61 A rectangular RCC beam section having a width of 200 mm and
depth of 300 mm is subjected to a factored shear force of 60 kN.
Determine the nominal shear stress acting in the section if the
effective cover is 50 mm and grade of concrete is M 20 and the
grade of steel is Fe 415.
Ans 1. 1.4 N/mm2
2. 1.2 N/mm2
3. 1 N/mm2
4. 0.86 N/mm2
Q.62 T he effective length ratio ‘K’ for a column in frame with no sideway
is limited between:
Ans 1. 0 and 0.5
2. 0.25 and 0.5
3. 0 and 1.0
4. 0.5 and 1.0
Q.63 Timber which are slow and difficult to season free from defects, are
classified as based upon their behaviour to cracking and splitting
during normal air-seasoning practice.
Ans 1. Moderate refractory
2. High refractory
3. Low refractory
4. Null refractory
Q.64 T he right limb of height h2 in the simple u tube manometer
containing mercury is open to atmosphere, while the left limb of
height h1 is connected to pipe in which a liquid of specific gravity 1
is flowing with uniform speed with h1 < h2 . T his condition gives
_____________ kind of pressure.
Ans 1. atmospheric pressure
2. positive gauge pressure
4. negative gauge pressure
Q.65 Linear strains along X, Y and Z directions in an object with
homogenous material are given as 0.05, 0.10 and 0.10, respectively.
T he size of the object before deformation was 20 cm × 10 cm × 10
cm. Determine the volumetric strain and change in volume of the
material after deformation.
Ans 5 mm3
1. Volumetric strain = 0.25, change in volume = 5 × 10
3
2. Volumetric strain = 0.25, change in volume = 500 mm
4 mm3
3. Volumetric strain = 0.3, change in volume = 60 × 10
3
4. Volumetric strain = 0.7, change in volume = 1400 cm
Q.66 Which of the following type of cement is preferred for concrete

making which is used in construction of sewage treatement plants
located where, soil is infested with sulphates?
Ans 1. R apid-hardening cement
2. Portland slag cement
3. Extra rapid-hardening cement
4. Sulphate-resisting cement
Q.67 T he result of the soundness test of 53-grade Portland cement
conducted by using Le Chatelier’s apparatus shall NOT exceed
________ mm.
Ans 1. 10
2. 5
3. 12
4. 15
Q.68 If the velocity of the fluid does NOT change with respect to time,
the flow is said to be a/an:
Ans 1. non-uniform flow
2. steady flow
3. unsteady flow
4. uniform flow
Q.69 In which type of dressing of stone are about 1 cm vertical or
horizontal grooves sunk with a chisel having its shape as a hollow
semi-circle?
Ans 1. R eticulated finish
2. Punched dressing
3. C lose picked and fine tooling
4. Boasted or droved finish
Q.70 Which of the following is not a functional charecteristics of kerbs
used in road construction?
Ans 1. Presents a more finished appearance
2. acts as a boundary between the pavement and the footpath.
3. Protects the pavement edge

4. provides cross slope to the pavement so that immediate drainage
of water takes place
Q.71 Streams passing through peaty land possess _____________ colour.
Ans 1. brown
2. yellow
3. black
4. blue
Q.72 Which of the following factors is not accounted in the cost
estimation of a reinforced concrete (RC) water tank?
Ans 1. Thickness of R C slab and wall
2. Length of water tank
3. height of water tank
4. D ensity of water
Q.73 A Moody diagram represents ______ as a function of Reynolds

number, in a pipe flow.
Ans 1. Length of pipe
2. Kinetic head
3. friction factor
4. Flow velocity
Q.74 What is the best side slope (n) for the most economic trapezoidal
channel having depth d and base width b?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.75 A cantilever beam subjected to two different point loads is shown in

the figure. Calculate the slope at fixed end A. Take ‘EI’ as constant
throughout its length.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.76 Which of the following stress distribution diagrams represents the
condition where the intensity of direct stress is less than the
intensity of bending stress?
Where σmin is minimum resultant stress and σmax is maximum
resultant stress.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.77 Which of the following conditions followed in making concrete

reduces the workability of concrete?
Ans 1. Use of superplasticisers
2. Higher aggregate-cement ratio in concrete
3. Higher water-cement ratio in concrete
4. Use of round aggregates
Q.78 T he specific gravity of most of the stones lies between ________.
Ans 1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 3.5
4. 3.5 and 4
Q.79 Which of the following is not a primary objective of design of
trailway track geometric?
Ans 1. Achieving maximum speed
2. C arrying only light axle load
3. Smooth running
4. Safety
Q.80 T he curve that is generally used to avoid the obstructions like hard
rocks, deep cuttings, soft gradients is called _________.
Ans 1. transitional curve
2. compound curve
3. parabolic curve
4. simple curve
Q.81 T he suitability for a particular type of foundation does NOT depend

upon the _________ .
Ans 1. O ptimum moisture content (O MC ) of soil
2. type of soil
3. depth of ground water table
4. magnitude of loads
Q.82 T he markings on the kerbs are painted with which colour to increase
user visibility?
Ans 1. Alternate white and yellow
2. Alternate black and white
3. Yellow O nly
4. Black O nly
Q.83 As per Euler’s theory, buckling of the long column occurs when
________.
(Given, P = Applied axial load and Pcr = Crippling load by Euler’s
theory)
Ans 1. P > Pcr
2. P = Pcr
3. P is of any value
4. P < Pcr
Q.84 Which of the following properties should the subgrade soil have in
order to be used as highway material?
Ans 1. Large changes in volume under adverse conditions of weather,
stability
2. Large changes in volume under adverse conditions of weather,
compressibility, good drainage
3. Ease of compaction, compressibility, stability
4. Stability, incompressibility, good drainage
Q.85 T he number of days between sowing and harvesting of a crop is
called the crop period. Base period is the number of days between
the first watering at the time of sowing and the last water before
harvesting of a crop. If the base period and the crop period are
compared, __________________.
Ans 1. the base period is slightly more than the crop period
2. the base period is much higher than the crop period
3. thebase period is equal to the crop period
4. the base period is slightly less than the crop period
Q.86 As per IS: 1562-1962, the ‘Diagonal Scale – A’ has a graduated length
of _____________.
Ans 1. 1.5 cm
2. 15 cm
3. 150 cm
4. 0.15 cm
Q.87 A reinforced concrete slab must be designed as _______in order to
develop complete the yield line pattern
Ans 1. under reinforced
2. balanced reinforced
3. over reinforced
4. shear reinforced
Q.88 Which of the following methods used for finding the slope and
deflection of beams is also called the ‘method of singularity
function’?
Ans 1. Moment area method
2. C onjugate beam method
3. Macaulay’s method
4. Mohr ’s Theorem method
Q.89 Which of the following estimates mostly resembles a detailed
estimate ?
Ans 1. R ough estimate
2. Q uantity estimate
3. Item rate estimate
4. Annual maintenance estimate
Q.90 Which of the following statements about the secondary treatment of
sewage is INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. Secondary treatment methods are broadly divided into filtration and
activated sludge process.
2. Activated sludge is biologically active.
3. Primary treatment of sewage is not essential for efficient working
of contact beds.
4. O xidation of organic matter occurs in trickling filters under aerobic
conditions.
Q.91 Which of the following statements is correct about measurement of
the vertical angle while using a total station?
Ans 1. It is usually measured as a zenith angle.
2. An electronic digital theodolite is not able to measure the vertical
angle.
3. It is measured relative to the horizontal direction.
4. It is measured from the instrument north in the horizontal plane.
Q.92
Ans 1. A-1, B-3, C -4

2. A-2, B-2, C -4
3. A-4, B-3, C -1
4. A-3, B- 4, C -1
Q.93 Which of the following is a type of detailed estimate?
Ans 1. Service unit method
2. Plinth area rate method
3. C ubical content method
Q.94 Among the following factors that can cause an error during distance
measurement in chaining, the compensating error is caused by
__________________.
Ans 1. bad ranging
2. variation in temperature
3. sag in chain
4. careless holding and marking
Q.95 As per IS 2770(part I), the load at failure in a pull out test was found
to be 180 kN. Calculate the bond strength if the bar diameter is 20
mm and its embedded length into concrete is 300 mm.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.96 As per IS 456:2000, the minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal

reinforcement(irrespective of load requirement) in a RCC column of
size 150x300 mm shall NOT be less than_____. Consider the limit
state method of design.
Ans 1. 360 mm2
2. 780 mm2
3. 440 mm2
4. 240 mm2
Q.97 Which of the following type of coarse aggregate is preferred in road

construction, so that greatest density of road layer is achieved?
Ans 1. Any type of aggregates
2. porous aggregates
3. Single-size aggregates
4. All-in aggregates
Q.98 What is the maximum limit of grade compensation for the gradient on
the horizontal curve along highways, if ‘R’ is the radius of the
circular curve in metres?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.99 Assuming the stress block diagram of the rectangular concrete beam
section as per IS 456-2000, the depth of the centre of compressive
force measured from the neutral axis is given by: (Assuming X u as
the depth of neutral axis from top compression fiber)
Ans 1. 0.36 Xu
2. 0.58 Xu
3. 0.42 Xu
4. 0.67 Xu
Q.100 Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for:

Ans 1. viscous fluids
2. rotational fluids
3. compressible fluids
4. incompressible fluids


GCR, HEU, IGX, JIA, ?
Ans 1. K K D
2. GLC
3. MNB
4. JMC
104 × 8 ÷ 11 + 33 – 47 = ?
Ans 1. 124
2. 135
3. 129
4. 137
interchanged?
24 + 6 − 11 × 15 ÷ 12 = ?
Ans 1. 41
2. 51
3. 61
4. 31
Q.4 EJFI is related to KPLO in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, INJM is related to OT PS. To
which of the following is LQMP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. RW S V
2. RW VS
3. S W VR
4. S W RV
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.6 OKRN is related to UQXT in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, KGNJ is related to QMT P. To
which of the following is NJQM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. P T W S
2. P T S W
3. T P S W
4. T P W S
ZBL, YDM, XFN, WHO, ?
Ans 1. UJP
2. R K L
3. R K N
4. VJP
Q.8 UPSN is related to LGJE in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, WRUP is related to NILG. To
which of the following is SNQL related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. JE HC
2. JE C H
3. E JC H
4. E JHC
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Statements:
Some peacocks are robins.
All robins are sparrows.
All sparrows are owls.
Conclusions:
(I) No owl is a peacock.
(II) All sparrows are peacocks.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.12 A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the

centre (not necessarily in the same order). Only 2 people sit
between A and D when counted from the left of A. E sits to the
immediate left of D. G sits to the immediate left of B. G is not an
immediate neighbour of D. F sits to the immediate left of C.
What is the position of B with respect to C?
Ans 1. Second to the right
2. Third to the left
3. Second to the left
4. Third to the right
series?
4, 10, 28, 82, 244, ?
Ans 1. 714
2. 698
3. 680
4. 730
Q.14 AD 17 is related to CF 13 in a certain way. In the same way, EH 29 is
related to GJ 25. To which of the following is IL 38 related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. K N 34
2. T Z 35
3. XZ 34
4. T Y 35
Q.15 In a certain code language, ‘CMPX’ is coded as ‘EONV’ and ‘WBFK’

is coded as ‘YDDI’. What is the code for ‘XAOD’ in the given
language?
Ans 1. YD ND
2. XD O D
3. ZC MB
4. XB MC
the letter in the word AMPLIFY is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.18 If A means +, B means –, C means × and D means ÷, then what will

7 C 5 B 32 D 8 A 6 = ?
Ans 1. 33
2. 35
3. 31
4. 37
without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.
E.g.13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying
etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then
(23, 60)
(13, 30)
Ans 1. (9, 20)

2. (10, 21)
3. (11, 26)
4. (12, 28)
(12, 216, 6)
(17, 408, 8)
Ans 1. (8, 86, 12)
2. (19, 190, 5)
3. (14, 210, 5)
4. (11, 220, 5)
FDI, HEK, JFM, LGO, ?
Ans 1. MHQ
2. NHQ
3. NO P
4. MNQ
Q.22 What should come in place of the two question marks (?) in the
given series in the same order?
42, 43, 47, 56, ? , 97 , ?
Ans 1. 72, 133
2. 74, 135
3. 71, 132
4. 70, 131
FOT, HLV, JIX, LFZ, NCB, ?
Ans 1. MD E
2. O D C
3. NC B
4. P ZD
Ans 1. 126
2. 136
3. 146
4. 156
Q.25 How many triangles are there in the given figure?
Ans 1. 6
2. 7
3. 8
4. 9
Q.26 In a certain code language, ‘oh my god’ is written as ‘jk sr qw’, and
‘god is good’ is written as ‘dk zx sr’. How is ‘god’ written in that
language?
Ans 1. sr
2. dk
3. qw
4. jk
1. Running
2. Crawling
3. Cycling
4. Walking
5. Driving
Ans 1. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
2. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
3. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
4. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
Ans 1. 380
2. 320
3. 336
4. 366

Hematologists : Blood
Ans 1. O ncologist : C ancer
2. C ardiologist : Lungs
3. Pathologist : Eye
4. Nephrologist : Nervous System
Q.30 Select the option figure in which the given figure (X) is embedded
as its part (rotation is NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the father of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, and
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
How is P related to T if ‘P ÷ Q − R × S + T ’?
Ans 1. Sister ’s husband
3. D aughter ’s husband
4. Mother ’s mother ’s brother
Q.33 Pillar E is to the east of Pillar D. Pillar A is to the west of Pillar D.
Pillar B is to the north of Pillar A. Pillar C is to the south of Pillar A.
What is the position of Pillar C with respect to Pillar E?
Ans 1. South
2. North-West
3. North
4. South-West
39-36-33
67-64-61
Ans 1. 98-95-92
2. 100-94-90
3. 120-116-105
4. 64-54-50
equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘÷’ and ‘−’ are
interchanged?
18 − 6 + 3 × 20 ÷ 9 = ?
Ans 1. 18
2. 6
3. 12
4. 20
Q.36 E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting around a circular table with their
backs facing the centre (not necessarily in the same order). J is
sitting to the immediate left of G. K is sitting to the immediate right
of E. H is sitting to the immediate right of K. I is sitting to the
immediate right of H and immediate left of F. F is sitting to the
immediate left of J. Who is an immediate neighbour of both E and J?
Ans 1. H
2. F
3. G
4. K
Q.37 Vikram walked 10 m towards the north. T hen he turned right and
walked 20 m. T hen he turned right and walked 25 m. T hen he turned
left and walked 5 m. In what direction is he facing?
Ans 1. South
2. East
3. West
4. North
Statements: Some bowls are spoons. All spoons are plates.
Conclusion 1: Some spoons are bowls.
Conclusion 2: Some bowls are plates.
Ans 1. None of the conclusions follow
3. Both conclusions (1) and (2) follow
Q.39 CYT V is related to DZUW in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, GKOS is related to HLPT. To
which of the following is BAHG related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. C B IH
2. ALP O
3. MJGH
4. P LIY
Q.40 In a certain code language, ‘let us eat’ is written as ‘de hj kn’ and
‘let us play’ is written as ‘de kn cx’. How is ‘eat’ written in the given
language?
Ans 1. kn
2. cx
3. de
4. hj
IT V, EPR, ALN, WHJ, ?
Ans 1. Q C G
2. Q B H
3. S D F
4. R C H
RDKW, WIPB, BNUG, GSZL, ?
Ans 1. LK JU
2. LXD E
3. LXE Q
4. LQ S W
Q.43 Select the pair in which the numbers are related to each other in the
same way as are the numbers of the given pairs.
(376, 234)
(354, 212)
Ans 1. (281, 139)
2. (294, 145)
3. (328, 283)
4. (349, 217)
series?
146, 218, 340, 512, 734, ?
Ans 1. 1134
2. 1146
3. 1006
4. 1128

the letters in the word ADVISER is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. O ne
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Q.46 A, B, C, D. E, F and G are seven students from a college who
appeared for an exam and scored different marks each. D scored the
second highest marks. C scored immediately lower marks than D and
immediately higher marks than F. E scored higher than only B. G
scored less marks than four of the fellow students. Who scored the
highest marks?
Ans 1. A
2. F
3. B
4. D
1. Town
2. Village
3. Country
4. State
5. City
Ans 1. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
2. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
3. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
4. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
Q.48 ADVN is related to GJPH in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, WHUB is related to CNOV. To
which of the following is RFMJ related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. W MF E
2. XMGE
3. XLGD
4. W LF D
Q.49 In a certain code language, ‘bring him here’ is coded as ‘gy ct bo’
and ‘here is there’ is coded as ‘bo di yk’. How is ‘here’ coded in the
given language?
Ans 1. gy
2. yk
3. ct
4. bo
How is F related to Z if ‘D ÷ F × G ÷ H + N − Z’?

2. Husband’s sister
3. Sister
4. Father ’s sister

Q.1 Which of the following is the chemical formula of baking soda?
Ans 1. Na2 C O 3 .10H 2 O
2. NaO H
3. C aO C l2
4. NaHC O 3
Q.2 Which of the following is a colourless liquid whose formula is CHCl₃
which evaporates rapidly and turns into gas?
Ans 1. Ethanol
2. Acetone
3. C hloroform
4. Ammonia
Q.3 T he Government launched a 'Scheme for Expansion and
Modernisation of Fire Services in the States' in July 2023 under the
___________________ for strengthening fire services in the States.
Ans 1. National D isaster R esponse Fund (ND R F)
2. National D isaster R elief Fund (ND R F)
3. National D isaster R egulation Fund (ND R F)
4. National D isaster R esearch Fund (ND R F)
Q.4 In which location were the inaugural National Games, previously
known as the 'All India Olympic Games,' held before the
independence of India?
Ans 1. Lahore
2. Poona
3. Bombay
4. Patiala
Q.5 Name a sublimable substance that can be converted into gas without
passing through any intermediate liquid phase.
Ans 1. Naphthalene
2. C halk Powder
3. Alum
4. R ust
Q.6 If wildlife sanctuaries are there to protect wild animals, then what do
biosphere reserves protect?
Ans 1. Native trees and plants
2. Entire biodiversity of the area
3. Forests of the area
4. Water animals of the area
Q.7 Who can operate a blog?
Ans 1. Individuals or small groups of people
2. O nly businesses
3. O nly large corporations
4. O nly individuals
Q.8 According to Census of India 2011, which of the following states
recorded apopulation density of more than 1100 persons per km2 ?
Ans 1. R ajasthan
2. Punjab
3. Kerala
4. Bihar
Q.9 According to Census of India 2011, in which Union Territory was the
highest population growth rate recorded?
Ans 1. D adra and Nagar Haveli
2. D aman and D iu
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
4. C handigarh
Q.10 Under which of the following ministries does ‘VAIBHAV’ Fellowship
Programme announced by the Government of India in June 2023 ?
Ans 1. Ministry of Urban D evelopment
2. Ministry of Human R esource D evelopment
3. Ministry of Science & Technology
4. Ministry of R ural D evelopment
Q.11 What makes countries near the equator hotter than those which are
away from the equator?
Ans 1. The equator is near the earth's core.
2. The equator is a hot line.
3. Areas near the equator have more volcanoes.
4. Areas near the equator receive direct and more sunlight.
Q.12 What is the minimum age prescribed for a person to be eligible to
become Vice-President of India?
Ans 1. 25 years
2. 30 years
3. 35 years
4. 40 years
Q.13 Which of the following trees is NOT found in the tropical evergreen
forests of India?
Ans 1. R osewood
2. Mahogany
3. Ebony
4. Amaltas
Q.14 T he Rourkela Steel plant was set up in the year________ in Odisha
state.
Ans 1. 1973
2. 1969
3. 1955
4. 1959
Q.15 If a windmill farm has to be set up, setting up it near a coastal area
seems like a good idea. What could be the main reason behind this?
Ans 1. No water scarcity
2. Heavily populated
3. Land and sea breezes
4. C hances of storms
Q.16 T he Project Great Indian Bustard was launched by the Government

of ________ in June 2013.
Ans 1. Bihar
2. Manipur
3. Uttarakhand
4. R ajasthan
Q.17 Which is the essential non-justiciable feature of the Indian
Constitution associated with the welfare and well-being of the
common man?
Ans 1. Fundamental R ights
2. Parliamentary Sovereignty
3. D irective principles of State Policy
4. Federalism
Q.18 Which of the following demineralises the enamel of the teeth?
Ans 1. Acids produced by bacteria
2. Soft toothbrush
3. Toothpaste
4. Saliva
Q.19 Some simple multicellular organisms reproduce by first splitting into
multiple pieces. T hen each of these pieces grow up into a new
individual. What is this method of reproduction known as?
Ans 1. R egeneration
2. Binary fission
3. Multiple fission
4. Fragmentation
Q.20 According to which of the following constitutional articles in India
does the government need to present the estimated receipts and
expenditures before the parliament?
Ans 1. Article 212
2. Article 112
3. Article 312
4. Article 412
Q.21 Which of the following is an important step towards offering primary
education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14?
Ans 1. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
2. R ashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
3. Adult Education Programme
4. Mid-day meal
Q.22 Where in India was the Indian music director and classical flautist
Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia born?
Ans 1. Banaras
2. Bihar
3. Jhansi
4. Prayagraj
Q.23 Which of the following is/are Pteridophyta?
Ans 1. Lichens
2. Mosses
3. Fern
4. Hornworts
Q.24 Pramila Malik was in news to become the first woman Speaker of
which state assembly in September 2023?
Ans 1. O disha
2. Gujarat
3. Karnataka
4. Jharkhand
Q.25 Who said, “A single shelf of a good European library was worth the
whole native literature of India and Arabia”?
Ans 1. Thomas Macaulay
2. Max Mueller
3. W Hunter
4. W illiam Jones
Q.26 What is the primary reason for a government to implement a Goods
and Services Tax (GST )?
Ans 1. To discourage all kinds of consumption
2. To increase the complexity of the tax system
3. To eliminate all indirect taxes
4. To simplify the tax structure
Q.27 Which of the following is a popular cloud storage service on the
internet?
Ans 1. Microsoft Word

2. Google D rive
3. Adobe Photoshop
4. Internet Explorer
Q.28 T he Arabian Sea is connected to the Red Sea, through the Strait of
Bab-el-Mandeb and the Gulf of Eden, and the Persian Gulf via the
_____________.
Ans 1. Gulf of R iga
2. Gulf of Mexico
3. Gulf of O man
4. Gulf of Alaska
Q.29 Who called off the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the Chauri
Chaura incidence?
Ans 1. Lala Lajpat R ai
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. R ajendra Prasad
4. C hittaranjan D as
Q.30 What is the meaning of the word ‘Taraf’ under the Bahmani
Sultanate?
Ans 1. Merchant
2. Tax
3. Horse
4. Province
Q.31 Who was honoured with the National Kalidas Samman 2022 award for
sitar playing?
Ans 1. Niladri Kumar
2. Purbayan C hatterjee
3. Nishat Khan
4. Budhaditya Mukherjee
Q.32 Which of the following are the features of the Parliamentary form of
government?
1) T he President is the nominal or de jure executive.
2) T he Prime Minister is the titular executive.
3) T he President is the head of state.
4) T he Prime Minister is the head of government.
2. O nly 1, 2 and 3
3. O nly 1, 2 and 4
4. O nly 2, 3 and 4
Q.33 Which freedom is protected by Article 19(d) of the Constitution?
Ans 1. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India
2. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India
3. Freedom to assemble peacefully
4. Freedom of speech and expression
Q.34 Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?
2. C ell division
3. AT P production
4. C ell support and shape
Q.35 Which of the following animals is NOT a mammal?

Ans 1. Elephant
2. D olphin
3. Bat
4. Lizard
Q.36 A cricket ball of mass 160 grams was dropped from a height of 50
metres. What would be its kinetic energy just before touching the
ground? [use the value of acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2 ]
Ans 1. 50 joules
2. 80 joules
3. 8 joules
4. 160 joules
Q.37 What is the purpose of 'customs duty' in international trade?
Ans 1. To encourage unlimited imports
2. To protect domestic industries by taxing imports
3. To standardise products internationally
4. To regulate the export of goods
Q.38 Why is it always emphasised NOT to touch any electric switch board
with wet hands?
Ans 1. Water can erode the switchboard.
2. C ombination of water and our body is a good conductor of
electricity.
3. Wet hands can fade away the colour coat of the switchboard.
4. Wet hands might slip from the switch.
Q.39 Which of the following schemes focuses on reduced imports,

increased exports and grassroot campaigns that support local
initiatives towards self-reliance?
Ans 1. Samarth Scheme
2. Vocal for Local
3. Mission Karmayogi
4. Skill India Mission
Q.40 Mr Ajit Pawar became the Deputy Chief Minister of which state on
2nd July 2023?
Ans 1. Goa
2. Maharashtra
3. Gujarat
4. R ajasthan
Q.41 It is difficult to carry a heavy shopping bag with thin handles by
hand, but slightly easier when the handles are covered with a thick
piece of cloth. What is the reason behind that?
Ans 1. Handles become stronger
2. C loth is colourful
3. Increase in surface area reduces the force exerted
4. C hances of tearing are eliminated
Q.42 Which of the following health campaigns was launched by President
Draupadi Murmu through a virtual event on 13 September 2023?
Ans 1. Ayushman Bhav
2. Ayurveda for O ne Health
3. Yoga for Mental Health
4. Health For All
Q.43 A milliamp is a unit of measurement of electric current, which is
equal to how many amps?
Ans 1. 0.0001 AMP
2. 0.00001 AMP
3. 0.001 AMP
4. 0.01 AMP
Q.44 Which group of beneficial bacteria is commonly used in fermented
dairy products?
Ans 1. C ampylobacter jejuni
2. Lactobacillus acidophilus
3. Streptomyces rhizobium
4. Staphylococcus aureus
Q.45 Which disease causes bone pain, stunted growth and soft, weak
bones that can lead to skeletal deformities due to not having
enough vitamin D?
Ans 1. R ickets
2. Pertussis
3. D ementia
4. Polio
Q.46 Vitamin B12 is also known as:

Ans 1. pantothenic acid
2. cyanocobalamin
3. biotin
4. pyridoxine
Q.47 In which of the following Articles is fundamental duties, like
protecting public property and renouncing violence, stated?
Ans 1. Article 11 A
2. Article 36 A
3. Article 51A
4. Article 72 A
Q.48 Prime Minister Narendra Modi officially launched the Central Sector
Scheme ____________, for artisans and crafts persons across India
in September 2023.
Ans 1. P M Hastshilpi
2. P M Kaamgaar
3. P M Karigar
4. P M Vishwakarma
Q.49 Limitations Law of 1859 is related to which of the following?
Ans 1. Arms
2. Loan bonds
3. Indigo cultivation
4. Social reform
Q.50 Dribbling skills are NOT used in which of the following sports?
Ans 1. Basketball
2. Hockey
3. Football
4. C hess

Q.1 In a parallel circuit, if ‘n’ resistors, each of ‘R’ Ω, are connected in
parallel, then the total resistance is equal to _____.
Ans 1. R /n
2. (R 2 )/n
3. R × n
4. R + n
Q.2 As per the diffusion principle of street lighting installations, which
of the following methods is used to calculate the illumination at any
point on the road surface?
Ans 1. Specular reflection method
2. Light flux method
3. Watt per square metre method
4. Inverse-square law method
Q.3 T he current amplification factor for a transistor in a common base
configuration is 0.75. If the emitter current is 4A, find the base
current.
Ans 1. 1 A
2. 0 A
3. 3 A
4. 5 A
Q.4 Damper winding in synchronous motors is used to ___________.

A)Prevent the effect of hunting
B)Make synchronous motors self-starting
C)Reduce the speed of synchronous motors
D)Provide constant synchronous motor torque
Ans 1. B and C
2. A and D
3. A and B
4. C and D
Q.5 If the field winding, armature winding are connected in parallel and
the combination is connected in parallel with the supply, then this is
called a _________.
Ans 1. long shunt compound motor
2. series motor
3. shunt motor
4. short shunt compound motor
Q.6 In a solar power plant, the output terminals of the solar photo-
voltaic array can be directly connected to the ________.
Ans 1. AC load
2. AC to D C converter
3. AC bus bar
4. D C bus bar
Q.7 Which of the following types of installations is NOT a part of NEC
(National Electrical Code)?
Ans 1. Sports buildings
2. Agriculture premises
3. Medical establishments
4. Traction
Q.8 In regard to estimation and costing of public lighting, which of the
following should be adequate to provide visibility that guarantees
for the user the maximum safety and sufficient visual comfort?
Ans 1. Limitations of glare
2. O ptical guidance
3. Uniformity of luminance
Q.9 Select the correct statement regarding coal-fired boilers.
Ans 1. Water-tube boilers are more efficient than fire-tube boilers.
2. Fire-tube boilers are typically used for high-pressure applications.
3. Fire-tube boilers have higher thermal efficiency compared to water-
tube boilers.
4. Water-tube boilers are less expensive compared to fire-tube
boilers.
Q.10 As per the principles of estimation and costing, if the quantity of
materials required for work is not ready, then the minimum order
quantity required shall be requested in the __________.
Ans 1. purchase enquiry
2. purchase order
3. comparative statement
4. tender enquiry
Q.11
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.12 Which of the following is NOT a method for solution of medium

transmission line?
Ans 1. Nominal-H method
2. End condenser method
3. Nominal-T method
4. Nominal-π method
Q.13
Ans 1. 20V
2. 10V
3. 30V
4. 40V
Q.14 T he speed-torque characteristics of which motor whose speed falls
when there is increase in load torque is suitable to the application?
Ans 1. D C series motor
2. D C shunt motor
3. D C differential compound motor
4. D C compound motor
Q.15 In any electric circuit, if i1 and i3 are incoming currents and i2 and i4
are outgoing currents from a node, then according to KCL which is
the correct answer?
Ans 1. i1+i2=i3+i4
2. i4-i1=i2+i3
3. i1+i3=i2+i4
4. i1-i2=i3-i4
Q.16 T he built-in potential of a p-n junction __________.

Ans 1. depends on both temperature and doping concentration
2. depends on temperature only
3. depends on doping concentration only
4. does not depend on temperature and doping concentration
Q.17 A particular consumer has loads of 200 kW, 400 kW and 300 kW,
which are operating continuously. If the maximum demand of the
consumer is 600 kW, find the demand factor of the system.
Ans 1. 16.67%
2. 42.5%
3. 66.67%
4. 33.33%
Q.18 A 3-phase voltage of 220 V is applied to a balanced, delta-
connected, 3-phase, purely resistive load. Calculate the ratio of the
reactive power to the active power.
Ans 1. 1
2. 2
3. 0.5
4. 0
Q.19 What is the diversity factor in a power system?
Ans 1. The ratio of the maximum demand of the power station to the sum
of average demands of all consumers connected to it
2. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of all
consumers to the maximum demand of the power station
3. The ratio of maximum demand of the power station to the sum of
individual maximum demands of all consumers connected to it
4. The ratio of the maximum demand of the power station to the sum
of individual minimum demands of all consumers
Q.20 A ________ is a failure in a power system of interconnected parts in
which the failure of a part can trigger the failure of successive
parts.
Ans 1. black out
2. black out and cascade tripping
3. brown out
4. cascade tripping
Q.21
Ans 1. 1000 W
2. 1024 W
3. 3456 W
4. 1536 W
Q.22 Which of the following coefficients provides the relationship
between the electric field intensity and the transmitted wave to the
incident wave in the medium of origin?
Ans 1. Free space
2. Field reflection
3. Signal attenuation
4. Fresnel reflection
Q.23 Lissajous patterns on a CRO has ten vertical maximum values and
eight horizontal maximum values. T he frequency of the horizontal
input is 1000 Hz. Determine the frequency of the vertical input?
Ans 1. 1344 Hz
2. 1000 Hz
3. 800 Hz
4. 1256 Hz
Q.24 In a metal oxide semiconductor FET, the metal oxide layer acts as
a/an _____.
Ans 1. gate
2. electric field
3. capacitor
4. dielectric
Q.25 In a drive system, which requires a high starting torque, which of
the following electric motors is more suitable?
Ans 1. Synchronous motor
2. D ouble cage induction motor
3. D C cumulative compound motor
4. D C Series motor
Q.26 T he thermal efficiency of a steam plant is defined as ________.
Ans 1. the ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of
electrical output
2. the ratio of heat equivalent of mechanical energy transmitted to the
turbine shaft to the
heat of combustion of coal
3. the ratio of heat equivalent of electrical output to the heat of
combustion of coal
4. the ratio of heat of combustion of coal to the heat equivalent of
mechanical energy transmitted to the turbine shaft
Q.27 If two identical 2 A, 2 Ω Norton equivalent circuits are connected in
parallel with like polarity connected to like polarity, the combined
Norton equivalent circuit is:
Ans 1. 0 A, 1 Ω
2. 4 A, 4 Ω
3. 2 A, 4 Ω
4. 4 A, 1 Ω
Q.28 Which of the following plays a vital role in the determination of

sending end and receiving end voltage in ring main AC distribution
scheme?
Ans 1. Power factor
2. Hysteresis loss
3. Breakdown voltage of a distribution transformeroil
4. Eddy current loss
Q.29 In the measurement of RMS value of a voltage in CRO, the peak-to-
peak voltage is divided by which of the following values?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.30 An electrical network contains only one loop and no other mesh.
How many KVL equations can be formed for the circuit?
Ans 1. 4
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3
Q.31 T he consumer associated with the ring main distribution scheme
experiences ______ as compared to the radial distribution scheme.
Ans 1. less reliable power supply
2. unity power factoralways
3. no copper loss
4. less voltage fluctuations
Q.32 Which of the following statements about the hysteresis loop of
magnetic materials is correct?
Ans 1. The area of the hysteresis loop of a hard material is greater than
that of the soft material.
2. The area of the hysteresis loop of a hard material as well as a soft
material is not dependent on temperature.
3. The hysteresis loops of hard and soft materials are of the same
area.
4. The area of the hysteresis loop of a hard material is less than that
of the soft material.
Q.33 Lambert's Cosine Law describes the relationship between
_____________.
Ans 1. illumination and the angle of light incidence on a surface
2. total lumen on the work plane and lumen emitted by lamp
3. illumination and the distance of light it travels
4. the wavelength of light and its speed in a medium
Q.34
Ans 1. 6.67 V
2. 7.67 V
3. 8.50 V
4. 7.50 V
Q.35 Which of the following statements is true regarding the setting of an
earth fault relay?
Ans 1. The setting should always be equal to the rated full-load current of
the line.
2. The setting does not depend upon the rated full-load current of the
line.
3. The setting should always be greater than the rated full-load current
of the line.
4. The setting should always be less than the rated full-load current of
the line.
Q.36 Which of the following statements about equivalent circuit with core
losses of single-phase motor is/are true?
1. T he current drawn by the induction motor when it is not coupled
to the driven equipment is called no load current of the motor.
2. T he no load current produces the magnetic field in the motor.
Ans 1. Both 1 and 2 are true
2. O nly 1 is true
3. O nly 2 is true
4. Both 1 and 2 are not true
Q.37 Which of the following statements are true regarding parts of a
transformer?
(i) T he thickness of laminations varies from 0.35 mm to 0.5 mm.
(ii) T he material used for breather is blue in colour when it is damp
and whitish pink when dry.
(iii) For a constant input voltage, the output voltage can be varied
over a small range by providing few tapings.
Ans 1. (i) and (iii)
2. (i), (ii) and (iii)
3. (i) and (ii)
4. (ii) and (iii)
Q.38 Rotor current frequency = Fractional slip × ________
Ans 1. E MF
2. Supply frequency
3. R otor speed
4. No. of poles
Q.39 T he average demand of a plant is 55 MW. Find the maximum energy
that can be produced if the plant is running at full load according to
the operating schedule. T he plant use factor is 60%.
Ans 1. 92 MW h
2. 2200 MW h
3. 792 MW h
4. 33 MW h
Q.40 In a single-phase induction motor core loss is neglected. T he
exciting branch is only consisting of:
Ans 1. exciting reactance
2. no load resistance
3. load resistance
4. load reactance
Q.41 In an induction motor, the relationship between gross mechanical

power developed and rotor input is ________.
Ans 1. Gross mechanical power developed = S × R otor input
2. Gross mechanical power developed = (2−S) × R otor input
3. Gross mechanical power developed = (1−S) × R otor input
4. Gross mechanical power developed = (1/S) × R otor input
Q.42 In a transistor, the _________ region is the widest and the _________
region is the thinnest of all.
Ans 1. collector; emitter
2. collector; base
3. emitter; base
4. base; collector
Q.43 Which of the following statements are correct about armature
leakage reactance of alternator?
I. It is dependent on load current.
II. It does not depend on load current.
III. It is dependent on the phase angle between armature current
and terminal voltage.
IV. It does not depend on the phase angle between load current and
terminal voltage.
Ans 1. O nly statements II and IV are correct
2. O nly statements I and III are correct
3. O nly statements I and IV are correct
4. O nly statements II and III are correct
Q.44 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding
superposition theorem?
(a) It can be used to calculate voltage, current and power.
(b) It can be used to calculate voltage and current in a circuit
containing resistor, capacitor, inductor and diode.
(c) It can be used to calculate current in a circuit having linear
elements resistor, capacitor and inductor.
Ans 1. (c) and (b) only
2. (a) and (b) only
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (c) only
Q.45 In electrical circuits, the equivalent resistance of a complicated
network of conductors is determined by applying _____.
Ans 1. Laplace’s law
2. Ampere’s circuital law
3. Kirchhoff’s law
4. the direct method
Q.46 T he value of unknown current in CRO is measured by:
Ans 1. ratio of voltage measured on C R O to resistance of Aquadag
2. ratio of voltage measured on C R O to standard resistance
3. ratio of voltage measured across the unknown resistance to that
unknown resistance itself
4. ratio of voltage measured on C R O to resistance of the C R O
Q.47 What is the significance of having hot reserve capacity in a power
system?
Ans 1. To ensure power system stability and reliability during emergencies
or unexpected events.
2. To provide backup power in case of a complete power outage.
3. To act as a secondary power source during peak demand periods.
4. To meet sudden fluctuations in electricity demand and maintain grid
balance
Q.48 Shaded-pole induction motors have which of the following

properties?
Ans 1. High starting torque
2. Very high starting torque
3. Low starting torque
4. Medium starting torque
Q.49 In case of electrical installations, if cable conductors are spiralling,
then the resistance/unit length will ___________.
Ans 1. decrease
2. increase
3. remain the same
4. become zero
Q.50 A single phase transmission line is transmitting 1,100 KW power at
11 kV and at unity power factor. If it has a total resistance of 5 Ω,
what is the efficiency of the transmission line?
Ans 1. 80.96%
2. 99.54%
3. 89.65%
4. 100%
Q.51 Back EMF is a significant quantity during operation of a DC motor.
Which of the following statements regarding the concept of Back
EMF is correct?
Ans 1. The back E MF decreases considerably while loading the motor.
2. Back E MF increases considerably while loading the motor.
3. Back E MF is not necessary for the electromechanical energy
conversion in a motor.
4. At no load, the back E MF is zero.
Q.52 T he susceptance of the circuit given in the diagram is ________.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.53 In an electrostatic instrument, the sensitivity can be increased by
___________.
Ans 1. increasing the area of the plates
2. increasing the distance between the plates
3. using a phase-shifting capacitor
4. using a magnetic damping mechanism
Q.54 Which of the following statements is correct for the radial

distribution network’s distributors load change?
Ans 1. The consumer situated at the middle of the distributor will be
subjected with serious voltage fluctuations.
2. No consumer in the distribution network will be subjected with any
voltage fluctuations.
3. The consumer situated at very close to the distributor will be
4. The consumer situated at the distant end of the distributor will be
Q.55 In a capacitor, if a charge of 1 coulomb accumulates on each plate
when a potential difference of 1 volt is applied across the plates,
then the capacitance will be _______.
Ans 1. 1 nano-farad
2. 1 microfarad
3. 1 farad
4. 1 picofarad
Q.56 In the context of magnetic circuits, if a bar magnet is kept on a
paper and iron filings are sprinkled around the magnet, then the iron
filings form into closed lines. T hese lines are called lines of
___________.
Ans 1. magnetic fringing
2. magnetic angle
3. magnetic motive force
4. magnetic flux
Q.57 If Δ is the phase angle between supply voltage and pressure coil
flux, which of the following statements is correct about the
adjustable resistance used in the energy meter?
Ans 1. It has very low resistance to adjust Δ to 90°.
2. It has very high resistance to adjust Δ to 0°.
3. It has very high resistance to adjust Δ to 90°.
4. It has very low resistance to adjust Δ to 0°.
Q.58 In terms of heating effect of electric appliances, what is the
percentage of chromium in the stainless steel coils used in space
heaters?
Ans 1. 13% to 26%
2. 17% to 23%
3. 10% to 20%
4. 15% to 19%
Q.59 T he advantage of using soft starter for an induction motor is for
protection against________.
Ans 1. only phase failure
2. phase failure, overcurrent, and undercurrent
3. only undercurrent
4. only overcurrent
Q.60
Ans 1. 10 H
2. 8 mH
3. 0.08 H
4. 8 H
Q.61 T he value of T hevenin’s voltage across terminal a - b will be
_________ .
Ans 1. 0 V
2. 50 V
3. 62 V
4. 12 V
Q.62 Choose the correct alternative regarding an electric iron.
Ans 1. Magnesium oxide powder is used for insulation purposes of the
heating element.
2. Halogen bulbs are used in an electric iron.
3. The heating element is made up of C hromium.
4. The thermostat used in an electric iron makes use of a single metal
strip.
Q.63 A lamp of 80 watt with efficiency of 80% of watt/CP is suspended,
T he illumination at a point on a working plane directly below the
lamp is 25 lumens/m2 . Determine the height at which the lamp is
suspended?
Ans 1. 1.6 meters
2. 3.2 meters
3. 4 meters
4. 2 meters
Q.64 A DC source of EMF E volts and internal resistance R ohms is
connected to a variable load and it is adjusted such that the load
absorbs maximum power from the source. T he current drawn from
the source is:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.65 T he calculation of sending and receiving end voltage in an AC ring

layout considers the voltage drop of:
Ans 1. capacitance alone
2. inductance alone
3. combined effects of resistance, inductance and capacitance
4. resistance alone
Q.66 Which of the following factors is NOT related to the reluctance of
the magnetic circuit?
Ans 1. Nature of the magnetic material

2. Length of the magnetic circuit
3. Area of the cross-section of the circuit
4. Magnetomotive force
Q.67 In an electrical circuit, the sum of EMFs of all the sources met on
the way plus the voltage drops in the resistances must be zero. T his
can be explained by ____.
Ans 1. Kirchhoff’s current law
2. Laplace’s law
3. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
4. O hm’s law
Q.68 T he magnetic flux through a 150 turns coil increases at the rate of
0.08 wb/s. What is the induced EMF between the ends of the coil?
Ans 1. 20 volts
2. 24 volts
3. 12 volts
4. 120 volts
Q.69 Which of the following types of cooling is employed in small and
medium distribution transformers?
Ans 1. O il filled water cooled
2. Water filled self-cooled
3. Water filled oil cooled
4. O il filled self-cooled
Q.70 In regard to estimation and costing, the accurate estimate in which
the quantity of each item of work is calculated is called ___________.
Ans 1. rough estimate
2. detailed estimate
3. supplementary estimate
4. approximate estimate
Q.71 T he connections of three-phase energy metre for measuring three-
phase power, three wire energy is similar to the connections of
________.
Ans 1. two wattmeter for power measurement
2. three wattmeter for voltage measurement
3. two wattmeter for voltage measurement
4. three wattmeter for power measurement
Q.72 Power measured using 2 wattmeter method from a three-phase
balanced/unbalanced load where line voltage = VP, Line current =
VL, Phase voltage = VP and Phase current = IP is given by:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.73 In case of a p-n junction diode, the change in temperature due to
heating ________.
Ans 1. affects the entire V-I characteristics of the p-n junction diode
2. causes no change in the resistance of the p-n junction diode
3. affects only the reverse resistance of the p-n junction diode
4. affects only the forward resistance of the p-n junction diode
Q.74 Which of the following is NOT correct with reference to full load
testing of a single-phase transformer?
Ans 1. This test is used to determine temperature rise and efficiency of the
transformer.
2. This test is used to determine voltage regulation of the
transformer.
3. In Sumpner ’s test, two identical transformers are taken, in which
primary windings are connected in parallel whereas secondary windings
are connected in series.
4. In Sumpner ’s test, two identical transformers are taken, in which
primary windings are connected in parallel whereas secondary windings
are connected in series but in phase opposition.
Q.75 In electric power, if a body makes N rpm and the torque acting is T
newton-meter, then work done per minute will be ______.
Ans 1. m×g joules
2. mgh joules
3. (2πNT)/60 joules
4. 2πNT joules
Q.76 Two identical coils A and B have 400 turns placed such that 60% of
flux produced by one coil links with the other. If a current of 10A
flowing in coil A produces a flux of 20 mWb in it, find the mutual
inductance between coil A and B.
Ans 1. 480 H
2. 100 H
3. 0.48 H
4. 10 H
Q.77 An induction motor can be treated as a transformer with
________________.
Ans 1. open circuited secondary winding
2. short circuited secondary winding
3. short circuited primary winding
4. open circuited primary winding
Q.78 What is the drawback of a Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC)
instrument?
Ans 1. Low torque / weight ratio
2. High power consumption
3. Absence of effective and efficient current damping
4. R elatively high-cost as compared to moving iron instruments
Q.79 A 415 V, 3-phase voltage is applied to a balanced star connected
purely resistive load of 10 Ω. What is the ratio of reactive power to
active power?
Ans 1. 100
2. 1
3. Infinity
4. 0
Q.80 A 400V, 3-phase, star-connected synchronous motor has armature
current of 200A at effective resistance of 0.04 OHMS. T he short-
circuit load loss at half-full load is _________.
Ans 1. 2000W
2. 2100 W
3. 1200 W
4. 1000W
Q.81 Stability factors are defined as the rate of change of _____ with
respect to the ____, keeping both the base current and the current
gain β constant.
Ans 1. collector base leakage current; collector current
2. collector current; collector base leakage current
3. emitter current; collector base leakage current
4. collector base leakage current; emitter current
Q.82 T he polar form of a vector is 10∠ 30. What is the rectangular form of
this vector?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.83 What are bushings in transformers used for?

Ans 1. They are used to filter contaminants from the transformer oil.
2. They are used to insulate the transformer leads as they come out
through the tank.
3. They are used to cool the transformer oil.
4. They are used to connect the transformer to the power grid.
Q.84 Which of the following are the significance of good welds?
I) Good welds provide strong and reliable bonds between metal
components.
II) High-quality welds require the need for rework, repairs, etc.
III) T hey assist fatigue, corrosion and wear contributing to reduce
the longevity of the structures.
IV) Good welds not only provide functional benefits but also
contribute to the aesthetics of finished products.
Ans 1. II and IV
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. I and III
Q.85 How is the resistance of a wire related to the length of the wire?
Ans 1. Not related
2. Inversely proportional
3. Proportional to square of length
4. D irectly proportional
Q.86 T he average power delivered to an AC series circuit is given by:
Ans 1. I Vrms × Irms cosθ
2. I(max)× V(max)× Sin(θ)
3. Zero
4. I(max)× V(max)
Q.87 T he energy consumed by a 5Ω resistor carrying a 20A current in 10

minutes will be ________.
Ans 1. 120 J
2. 120 K J
3. 2000 J
4. 1200 K J
Q.88 In an electrostatic instrument, the controlling torque can be
adjusted by:
I. Changing the spring constant
II. Changing the length of the pointer needle
III. Changing the distance between the plates
IV. Changing the position of the instrument
Ans 1. O nly III and IV
2. O nly I and II
3. O nly I and IV
4. O nly I and III
Q.89 To determine the voltage regulation of synchronous generators, the
direct load test is suitable only for alternators with power rating:
Ans 1. more than 5 kVA
2. less than 2 kVA
3. less than 5 kVA
4. less than 3 kVA
Q.90 In a semiconductor diode, the ratio of change in the forward biased
voltage across the diode to change in the current in the diode is
called ________.
Ans 1. AC reverse resistance
2. AC forward resistance
3. D C reverse resistance
4. D C forward resistance
Q.91 In CRO, the measurement of time period is obtained by the product
of the number of divisions occupied by one cycle and ________.
Ans 1. Time/D ivision
2. D ivision/time
3. D ivision/cycle
4. Time/cycle
Q.92 In stator resistance starter, if applied voltage across motor
terminals is reduced by 50%, then torque is reduced to ________ of
the full voltage value.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.93 T he starting torque of a slip ring induction motor is maximum when
rotor resistance/phase is ________ rotor reactance/phase.
Ans 1. less than
2. more than
3. equal to
4. not equal to
Q.94 What is the purpose of a maximum power point tracker (MPPT ) in a

PV system?
Ans 1. To maximise the electrical power output of the P V system
2. To convert D C current to AC current
3. To increase the open circuit voltage (Voc) of the P V cells
4. To reduce the power losses within the P V cells
Q.95 Which of the following is a key indicator of good weld quality?
Ans 1. A good weld should be non-uniform throughout its length
2. No crater cracking on the weld
3. The weld metal burns through the base material
4. The depth of weld penetration is minimal
Q.96 In the estimation and costing, utmost importance is given for the
payment of suppliers in an agreed time in order to maintain
___________.
Ans 1. the contract
2. the guarantee
3. flexibility
4. deposit security
Q.97 Which of the following materials is most commonly used for the
filaments in incandescent lamps?
Ans 1. Iron
2. Gold
3. Tungsten
4. Aluminium
Q.98 Which of the following conditions is favourable for the application of
radial distribution network?
Ans 1. Power is generated at high voltage and substation is located very
far away from the load centre
2. Power is generated at low voltage and substation is located very far
away from load centre
3. Power is generated at high voltage and substation is located at the
load centre
4. Power is generated at low voltage and substation is located at the
load centre
Q.99 T he ring main distribution system is preferred over radial
distribution system because _________.
Ans 1. there is no requirement of distribution transformer
2. it always possesses unity power factor
3. it has fewer voltage fluctuation at consumers side
4. there is no O hmic loss
Q.100 What do you understand by fundamental period of a signal?
Ans 1. Time taken to complete every cycle of a periodic signal
2. Time taken to complete every cycle of an aperiodic signal
3. Time taken to complete last cycle of a periodic signal
4. Time taken to complete first cycle of a periodic signal



Ans 1. 424
2. 434
3. 444
4. 454
Q.2 In a certain code language, ‘VALUES’ is coded as ‘13579$’ and
‘VALUED’ is coded as ‘573#91’. What is the code for ‘D’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. $
2. 1
3. #
4. 9
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

the letters in the word REWINDS is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Zero
2. Three
3. O ne
4. Two
BFA, EIE, HLI, KOM, NRQ, ?
Ans 1. Q UV
2. Q VW
3. Q VV
4. Q UU
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Statements: Some bikes are trucks. All trucks are planes.
Conclusion 1: Some bikes are planes.
Conclusion 2: No truck is a bike.
Ans 1. None of the conclusions follow
39 + 27 ÷ 108 × 9 – 16 = ?
Ans 1. 347
2. 342
3. 339
4. 351
Q.9 QT RU is related to SVT W in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, T WUX is related to VYWZ. To
which of the following is LOMP related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. Q NO R
2. NQ R O
3. NQ O R
4. Q NR O
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
interchanged?
13 ÷ 2 – 15 + 120 × 4 = ?
Ans 1. 11
2. 15
3. 13
4. 7
Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘don’t worry you’ is coded as ‘ab kl gy’
and ‘you have no’ is coded as ‘gy ad mn’. How is ‘you’ coded in the
given language?
Ans 1. ab
2. gy
3. mn
4. kl
series?
16, 25, 34, 43, 52, ?
Ans 1. 62
2. 69
3. 61
4. 60
1. Root
2. Branch
3. Twig
4. Trunk
5. Leaf
Ans 1. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
2. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
3. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
4. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
WLI, BJJ, GHK, LFL, QDM, ?
Ans 1. UC N
2. VB N
3. Q B N
4. R B M
Q.16
Ans 1. 10
2. 7
3. 9
4. 8
Q.17 L, A, N, T, E, R, and S are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre (not necessarily in the same order). L sits third to the right of
E. E sits second to the right of T. S sits third to the left T. N sits
third to the left of A.
Who is sitting to the immediate left of A?
Ans 1. T
2. E
3. N
4. L
Q.18 In a certain code language, ‘RICE’ is coded as ‘5379’ and ‘COLD’ is
What is the code for ‘C’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4
2. 5
3. 3
4. 2
Q.19 MILK is related to OLPL in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, T ILE is related to VLPF. To
which of the following is STAR related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. UW E S
2. VW F S
3. UW F S
4. VW E S
Q.20 OT NQ is related to SXRU in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, JOIL is related to NSMP. To
which of the following is MRLO related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. VQ P S
2. Q VS P
3. Q VP S
4. VQ S P
Q.21 ZX 9 is related to ML 3 in a certain way. In the same way, VT 12 is
related to KJ 4. To which of the following is RP 15 related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. HR 8
2. JH 6
3. IH 5
4. HE 7
YXB, FEI, MLP, T SW, AZD, ?
Ans 1. HGK
2. HK L
3. JK L
4. GK M
(5, 20)
(10, 90)
Ans 1. (6, 24)
2. (7, 49)
3. (9, 72)
4. (8, 40)
Statements: All lions are tigers. All lions are pigeons. All tigers are
apes.
Conclusions:
(I) All pigeons are apes.
(II) At least some tigers are pigeons.

Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
was born in Bhopal and just before Vani. Tia was born immediately
Which baby was born in Raipur?
Ans 1. Urja
2. R ia
3. Vani
4. Tia
Q.26 A, B, C, D, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre (not necessarily in the same order) .R sits fourth to the left
of B. D sits second to the right of B.A is an immediate neighbour of
B and D. Q sits third to the left of A.P is an immediate neighbour of
Q and R.
Who is sitting third to the right of R?
Ans 1. A
2. D
3. C
4. Q
How is K related to L if ‘L + A − B ÷ K × G + F’?
Ans 1. D aughter
2. Son’s daughter
3. Son’s wife
4. D aughter ’s daughter
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
MQU, JRT, GSS, DT R, ?
Ans 1. AUQ
2. AUP
3. B UQ
4. AT Q
Q.30 ‘JK 2’ is related to ‘MN 12’ in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical and numerical order. In the same way, ‘IJ 25’ is related
to ‘LM 150’. To which of the following is ‘RS 24’ related following
the same logic?
Ans 1. UV 169
2. T V 194
3. T V 169
4. UV 144
Q.31 Ajay starts from his home and drives 5 km towards the south. He
then takes a left turn, drives 6 km, turns right, and drives 4 km. He
then takes a left turn and drives 5 km and reached his office.
Ans 1. North-east
2. South-east
3. North-west
4. South-west
Q.32 Which numbers should come in place of the two question marks ‘?’
in the same sequence to make the series logically complete?
2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?, 34, ?
Ans 1. 19, 53
2. 22, 56
3. 20, 54
4. 21, 55
Q.33 SX 27 is related to ZE 9 in a certain way. In the same way, KP 72 is
related to RW 24. To which of the following is FK 3 related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. MR 1
2. NS 1
3. MP 9
4. NT 9
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.

‘K + L’ means ‘K is the mother of L’,
‘K – L’ means ‘K is the sister of L’,
‘K × L’ means ‘K is the husband of L’,
‘K ÷ L’ means ‘K is the father of L’.
How is R related to U if ‘P × Q − R ÷ S + T − U’?
Ans 1. son
2. Mother ’s father
3. father

Ans 1. 131
2. 134
3. 132
4. 133
(48, 23, 47)
(22, 27, 38)
Ans 1. (18, 22, 28)
2. (14, 30, 41)
3. (26, 14, 32)
4. (16, 31, 39)
Q.38 In a certain code language, ‘PFE’ is coded as ‘54’ and ‘NUJ’ is

coded as ‘36’. What is the code for ‘AZL’ in the given language?
Ans 1. 51
2. 47
3. 53
4. 42
Q.39 T his question consists of a pair of words that have a certain
relationship to each other. Select the pair that has the same
relationship.
Compassion : Sympathy
Ans 1. Feeble : Strong
2. C onsolidate : Weaken
3. Gorgeous : D ull
4. Lucid : Eloquent
the letters in the word SHORT EN is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two
2. Three
3. O ne
4. Zero
stands for ‘−‘, what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
following equation?
24 B 12 D 39 A 13 C 15 = ?
Ans 1. 310
2. 300
3. 299
4. 295
TOJ, NID, HCX, BWR, ?

Ans 1. VQ L
2. VLQ
3. Q LV
4. Q VL
1. Doctor
2. Cure
3. Accident
4. Injury
5. Medicine
Ans 1. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
2. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
3. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
4. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
series?
82, 83, 80, 81, 78, ?
Ans 1. 79
2. 81
3. 76
4. 77
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.46 Pillar E is to the east of Pillar D. Pillar A is to the west of Pillar D.

Pillar B is to the north of Pillar A. Pillar C is to the south of Pillar A.
Pillar E is to the south of F. Pillar G is to the South of E. What is the
position of Pillar F with respect to Pillar C?
Ans 1. South - West
2. North
3. North – East
4. South
equation if ‘+’ and ‘−’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
33 × 3 ÷ 2 + 10 − 5 = ?
Ans 1. 17
2. 15
3. 16
4. 14
HXK, GWL, FVM, EUN, ?
Ans 1. D TO
2. O R P
3. F TO
4. D R O
Ans 1. 295
2. 298
3. 290
4. 294
Ans 1. 250
2. 246
3. 242
4. 248

Q.1 Which of the following organisations was founded by Jyotiba Phule
to propagate caste equality?
Ans 1. Satyashodhak Samaj
2. Prarthana Samaj
3. Vedanta Samaj
4. Brahmo Samaj
Q.2 According to Census of India 2011, which state recorded the second
lowest literacy rate in India?
Ans 1. Assam
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Manipur
4. Tripura
Q.3 On 1st September 2023, who was appointed as Chairman and CEO of
Railway Board?
Ans 1. Naresh Lalwani
2. Amar D wivedi
3. Manoj Sharma
4. Jaya Verma Sinha
Q.4 What is the term for the process of water loss from plant leaves
through tiny openings called stomata?
Ans 1. R espiration
2. Transpiration
3. Germination
4. Photosynthesis
Q.5 In which of the following cities of India was the s1t Mayor’s Trophy
International Grandmaster Chess Tournament - 2023 organised?
Ans 1. Panaji
2. Patna
3. Indore
4. C hennai
Q.6 According to the Preamble, what does the promotion of fraternity
assure?
Ans 1. Allows all to profess, preach and practice any religion
2. Thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
3. Economic opportunities
4. Unity and integrity of the nation
Q.7 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Ans 1. Kabaddi – 9 players in a team
2. C ricket – 11 players in a team
3. Football – 13 players in a team
4. Hockey – 10 players in a team
Q.8 In 2001, Eric A Cornell along with which two scientists received the
Nobel Prize in Physics for achieving 'Bose-Einstein Condensation'?
Ans 1. Sergei W inogradsky and Arieh Warshel
2. Wolfgang Ketterle and C arl E W ieman
3. W illiam C rookes and Gemma Stephenson
4. Frank W ilczek and Harold Urey
Q.9 ____________ assumed the charge as Registrar General & Census
Commissioner of India with effect from November 1, 2022.
Ans 1. Amit Shah
2. Mritunjay Kumar Narayan
3. D r. C C handramouli
4. Piyush Goyal
Q.10 What is the name of the scheme under which the Government of
India has planned to provide skill training for 2 crore women as
announced in August 2023?
Ans 1. Ladli Beti
2. Sudarshna Scheme
3. Lakhpati D idi
4. Meri Behan
Q.11 What percentage of women were nominated to the panel of Vice-
Chairpersons in the Upper House on 20 July 2023?
Ans 1. 15%
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 75%
Q.12 Which of the following animals are endemic to Australia?

Ans 1. Kangaroo
2. D og
3. Giant Panda
4. Elephant
Q.13 What does the term 'e-commerce' refer to?
Ans 1. Trading of commodities

2. Buying and selling of goods and services over the internet
3. Exchange of goods for services
4. Government-regulated commerce
Q.14 Who was the music director of the film Bees Saal Baad, which was
released in 1962?
Ans 1. Shyamal Mitra
2. Bimal R oy
3. V Balsara
4. Hemant Kumar
Q.15 Which of the following locations is known for lignite coal
production?
Ans 1. Talcher
2. Bokaro
3. Korba
4. Neyveli
Q.16 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I.M0 is called broad money
II.M1 is called narrow money
III.M0 = Currency in Circulation + Bankers’ Deposits with RBI +
‘Other’ Deposits with RBI
Ans 1. O nly II and III
2. O nly I and III
3. O nly I
4. O nly III
Q.17 In which state is the ‘Barauni’ coal based power station located?
Ans 1. Assam
2. Bihar
3. Meghalaya
4. Goa
Q.18 In which of the following forms of government does the executive
enjoy the right to dissolve the Legislature?
Ans 1. Presidential form of government
2. Totalitarian government
3. Parliamentary form of government
4. O ligarchy
Q.19 Which chemical reaction occurs when you mix vinegar (acetic acid)
and baking soda (sodium bicarbonate)?
Ans 1. O xidation
2. Precipitation
3. Neutralisation
4. C ombustion
Q.20 Since the attraction between molecules of gas is very low, what
benefit do we get from this property of gas?
Ans 1. C ompressed and stored in smaller cylinders
2. Burns easily
3. D oes not move from one place to another
4. D oes not change their shape easily
Q.21 T he ________ is famous for ‘Karewa’ formations.
Ans 1. Thar D esert
2. R ann of Kutch
3. C oromandel C oast
4. Kashmir Himalayas
Q.22 What is the chemical formula for ammonia?
Ans 1. NaC l
2. NH3
3. H2 O
4. C O 2
Q.23 Manish Desai was in the news for taking charge of which post in the
Press Information Bureau in September 2023?
Ans 1. Principal D irector General
2. D eputy D irector
3. Additional D irector General
4. Joint D irector
Q.24 Who among the following was an Anglo-Indian teacher of the Hindu
college of Calcutta to initiate the Young Bengal Movement?
Ans 1. Henry C olbert
2. Henry Vivian D erozio
3. D avid Hare
4. C harles wilkins
Q.25 Which of the following is a green alga found in vast masses of a
variety of marine and fresh waters?
Ans 1. Porphyra
2. Gelidium
3. Sargassum
4. C ladophora
Q.26 T he Assam Darrang and Lakhimpur Districts (Assimilation of Laws
on State Subjects) (Repealing) Act, 2022, received the Governor’s
assent in _____.
Ans 1. April 2023
2. January 2023
3. March 2023
4. February 2023
Q.27 When did the new judicial system of setting up two courts (Criminal
and civil) in each district start?
Ans 1. 1756 C .E.
2. 1773 C .E.
3. 1774 C .E.
4. 1772 C .E.
Q.28 Which keyboard shortcut can be used to Print the Microsoft Word
document?
Ans 1. C trl + P
2. C trl + S
3. C trl + V
4. C trl + Z
Q.29 One characteristic of viruses is that they do not show any signs of
life unless they enter a living host and start multiplying using the
host’s cell. What is the main reason behind this?
Ans 1. They camouflage themselves as non-living to find a host.
2. They lack cell membrane and other organelles.
3. They lack D NA.
4. They need heat of the hosts body to multiply.
Q.30 What is the reason behind the Indian peninsular region not showing
drastic change during winters and having a moderate temperature?
Ans 1. moderating Influence of dense human population
2. moderating Influence of heavy monsoon
3. moderating Influence of the sea
4. moderating Influence of plateaus
Q.31 Sahil Sarabhai is standing in the middle. On one side, his wife
Monisha is pulling him with a force of 100 N eastward, whereas his
mother, Maya is pulling him with a force of 150 N westward. What will
be the net force on Sahil and towards whom will he move in the end
if at all?
Ans 1. 50N, Monisha
2. 250N, will not move
3. 50N, Maya
4. −50N, Maya
Q.32 Most seawater has about how much salt in every 1,000 g
(about a litre ) of water?
Ans 1. 100 g
2. 200 g
3. 15 g
4. 35 g
Q.33 Hemant Chauhan, who received the Padma Shri in 2023, is
associated with:
Ans 1. Bengali music
2. Gujarati music
3. Kannada music
4. Telugu music
Q.34 Which of the following is the third largest ocean in the world and is
present on the southern side of Asia?
Ans 1. Southern O cean
2. Indian O cean
3. Pacific O cean
4. Bay of Bengal
Q.35 Which of the following is the most common nutritional cause of

anaemia?
Ans 1. Iron deficiency
2. C alcium deficiency
3. Magnesium deficiency
4. Selenium deficiency
Q.36 According to Census of India 1901, what was the total population of
India?
Ans 1. 238.40 million
2. 360.23 million
3. 620.12 million
4. 845.80 million
Q.37 Which of the following dimensions of liberty is NOT mentioned in
the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
Ans 1. Belief
2. O pportunity
3. Expression
4. Thought
Q.38 Which phylum of the animal kingdom is made up of segmented
insects like earthworms?
Ans 1. Nematoda
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Porifera
4. Annelida
Q.39 Which of the following money supply measures is commonly known
as the aggregate monetary resources?
Ans 1. M2
2. M3
3. M1
4. M4
Q.40 Which of the following organisms belong to the Phylum Protozoa?
Ans 1. Amoeba, Paramecium, Jelly fish
2. Amoeba, Paramecium, Taenia
3. Euglena, Paramecium, Jelly fish
4. Amoeba, Paramecium, Plasmodium
Q.41 Olefiant gas belongs to which of the following functional groups?
Ans 1. Alkenes
2. Halo alkane
3. Alkynes
4. Ketone
Q.42 Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans 1. A neutron has no electrical charge.

2. The central part of an atom contains only protons.
3. The central part of an atom contains only neutrons.
4. The central part of an atom contains only electrons.
Q.43 Which of the following is used to remove formatting from a selected

paragraph in many word processing programs?
Ans 1. C lear Formatting
2. D elete Paragraph
3. Format Painter
4. R emove Paragraph
Q.44 Which constitutional authority is appointed by the President of India
under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. C hief Election C ommissioner
2. Attorney General of India
3. C omptroller & Auditor General of India
4. C hief Justice of India
Q.45 Which ministry launched the KCC Ghar Ghar Abhiyaan in September
2023?
Ans 1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
2. Ministry of Education
3. Ministry of Women and C hild D evelopment
4. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Q.46 Who was appointed as the first woman Chair person of the Railway
Board by the Government of India on 31 August 2023?
Ans 1. Jaya Verma Sinha
2. Pooja Gupta
3. Kanchan C haudhary
4. Smriti Zubin Irani
Q.47 Swaran Singh Committee was established by the government under
which Prime Minister in 1976 to make recommendations regarding
fundamental duties?
Ans 1. Morarji D esai
2. Indira Gandhi
3. Jayaprakash Narayan
4. C haudhary C haran Singh
Q.48 Why cannot we write the chemical formula of a compound formed by
chlorine and sodium as ClNa instead of NaCl?
Ans 1. The rule is to write the name of the metal first.
2. Both the formulas are correct.
3. C hlorine is lighter, hence is written at the end.
4. C hlorine is yellow in colour.
Q.49 Who among the following was forced to leave his ancestral throne
due to the invasion of the Uzbeks?
Ans 1. Babur
2. Genghis Khan
3. Shershah Suri
4. D aulat Khan Lodi
Q.50 Which juice is released in our gall bladder that facilitates the
digestion of fats?
Ans 1. Saliva
2. Acetic Acid
3. Bile
4. Mucous

Q.1 T he Los Angeles testing machine is commonly used to determine
which property of the coarse aggregate?
Ans 1. Water absorption
2. Abrasion resistance
3. D ensity
4. Specific gravity
Q.2 Magnetic bearing of a line is 10 ̊ 30’ and the magnetic declination is
2 ̊ East. If, due to seasonal variations, the magnetic declination
changes to 2 ̊ West, find the magnetic bearing of the line in
quadrantal bearing system.
Ans 1. N 10 ̊ 30’ W
2. N 14 ̊ 30’ E
3. N10 ̊ 30’E
4. N14 ̊ 30’W
Q.3 which of the following IS sieve size is used, to check the fineness
of cement by sieve test?
Ans 1. 90 μm
2. 15 μm
3. 37.5 μm
4. 20 μm
Q.4 Ozone layer is important for us to protect us from UV rays. Which of
the following is correct regarding ozone?
Ans 1. O zone is a pollutant gas for both animals and human beings.
2. O zone is a non-pollutant gas.
3. O zone is a pollutant gas for human beings and non-pollutant gas for
animals.
4. O zone gets converted into oxygen in the human body.
Q.5 Which of the following types of soil is known for its high load-
bearing capacity and stability, making it ideal for use in construction
of foundations?
Ans 1. Peat soil
2. Silty soil
3. Sandy soil
4. C lay soil
Q.6 Identify whether the following statements are true or false.
Statement I: Domestic sewage is a major source of water pollution.
Statement II: Water collected/available at source will always be
pure.
Ans 1. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
2. Both Statements I and II are true
3. Statement I is false and Statement II is true
4. Both Statements I and II are false
Q.7 Tellurometer, a long-range EDM, uses ________ for distance
measurement.
Ans 1. infrared waves
2. microwaves
3. ultraviolet waves
4. visible light waves
Q.8 In approximate quantities method of preparing approximate

estimate, wall foundations are measured in _______.
Ans 1. kilogram
2. square metre
3. metre
4. cubic metre
Q.9 Match the major dams of India with their types.
Ans 1. A-1, B-2, C -3

2. A-3, B-1, C -2
3. A-2, B-3, C -1
4. A-3, B-2, C -1
Q.10 Which of the following types of fibre is classified as a synthetic
fibre?
Ans 1. Polyester fibre
2. Jute fibre
3. Steel fibre
4. Basalt fibre
Q.11 Which of the fallowing is the effect of lumps present in cement?
Ans 1. D ecreased setting time of cement
2. D ecreased stregth in concrete
3. Enhanced durability of concrete
4. Flash set of concrete
Q.12 Identify the INCORRECT statement with respect to concrete Stress
block in compression of a singly reinforced cement concrete
section.
Ans 1. The depth of centre of compressive force from the extreme top fibre
in compression is 0.42xu .
2. The area of stress block is equal to 0.36fckxu.
3. The bending stress at extreme fibre is 0.67 ck
f.
4. The bending stress at the neutral axis of the section is zero.
Q.13 Calculate the hoop tension developed at the base of wall in a
circular water tank, having diameter 12.6 m and depth of water
storage 4m. Take specific weight of water as 10 kN/m3 .
Ans 1. 152 kN
2. 252 kN
3. 504 kN
4. 200 kN
Q.14 Which section of reinfoced concrete strcture typically does NOT
experience moment reduction due to moment redistribution?
Ans 1. Beam
2. Slab
3. Flat slabs
4. continuous slab
Q.15 Which of the following signs does NOT fall into the category of
regulatory signs?
i. No Parking Signs
ii. Speed Limit Signs
iii. Stop Sign
iv. Slippery Road
v. Parking Sign
Ans 1. Both i and v
2. O nly i, iv and v
3. Both ii and iii
4. Both iv and v
Q.16 As per IRC specifications, the maximum spacing of contraction
joints in reinforced cement concrete slab of thickness 20 cm is
___________.
Ans 1. 14 m
2. 10 m
3. 4.5 m
4. 40 m
Q.17 T he priming of a centrifugal pump is necessary:
Ans 1. to increase discharge
2. to reduce pressure
3. to remove air from the parts of the pump
4. to reduce the temperature of water
Q.18 Two simply supported beams with central (mid span) concentrated
loads have the following particulars. Compare the slope at the ends.
Ans 1. Slope of beam A = Slope of beam B

2. Slope of beam A < Slope of beam B
3. Insufficient data to compare the slopes
4. Slope of beam A > Slope of beam B
Q.19 While designing an RCC footing on soil, what should be the
minimum thickness of the edge of footing as per IS 456:2000?
Ans 1. 150 mm
2. 50 mm
3. 75 mm
4. 200 mm
Q.20 Self-priming pumps overshadow the function of the ________.
Ans 1. corrosion device

2. wear rate
3. cavitation device
4. self-auxiliary device
Q.21 On what principle does a reciprocating pump work?

Ans 1. C reate a reciprocating motion by sucking and discharge of fluid by
using piston
2. Forced vortex flow
3. R otation of impeller to develop lifting pressure
4. C entrifugal force
Q.22 If a unit rotation is to be caused at end ‘A’ as shown in the figure,
the far end being hinged support, a moment of _____ has to be
applied at A, where, ‘EI’ is the flexural rigidity of beam. Take length
of beam AB as 5 m.
Ans 1. 0.4 E I
2. 0.3 E I
3. 0.9 E I
4. 0.6 E I
Q.23 T he capacity of doing work by a skilled labour in the form of quantity
of work per day is known as ________.
Ans 1. lift work
2. outturn work
3. standard work
4. extra work
Q.24 T he following is the data sheet from a levelling book. T he
INCORRECT option is _______.
BS = Back Sight, HI=Height of instrument, IS = Intermediate Sight,

FS = Fore Sight, RL =Reduced Level, BM = Bench Mark and CP =
Change Point)
(All figures are in metre.)
Ans 1. R L of Station S is 144.30 m
2. HI at Station T is 145.90 m
3. R L of Station U is 142.35 m
4. HI at Station R is 146.55 m
Q.25 Which of the following is NOT a field of application of rapid-
hardening cement?
Ans 1. Pre-fabricated concrete production
2. Massive dams
3. R oad repair works
4. C old weather concreting
Q.26 According to Kennedy’s theory, if the velocity of the flow is such
that there is no silting or scouring action in the canal bed, then that
velocity is known as ______________.
Ans 1. critical velocity
2. normal velocity
3. absolute velocity
4. mean velocity
Q.27 Which of the following is NOT the main criterion for selection of
hydraulic pumps?
Ans 1. Pressure at inlet and outlet of the pump
2. Viscocity of fluid to be pumped
3. Flow rate requirement
Assertion: A cross regulator is provided on the main canal at the
downstream side of the take-off to head up the water level and to
enable the off-taking channel to draw the required amount of water.
Reason: During the periods of low discharges in the parent channel,
the cross regulator raises the water level of the upstream and feeds
the off-take channel.
Q.29 ______ determines the thickness of plywood board.
Ans 1. plie length
2. number of plie layers
3. plie width
4. plie area
Q.30 Timber can be treated to make it fire-resistant by which of the
following processes?
Ans 1. Seasoning process
2. C oating with tar paint
3. Applying creosote oil into timber
4. Soaking it in ammonium sulphate
Q.31 What do the three Rs in the 3R Principle stand for?
Ans 1. R educe, R euse, R ecover
2. R educe, R euse, R ecycle
3. R educe, R ecover, R ecycle
4. R ecover, R euse, R ecycle
Q.32 Which of the following consistency limit of soil is indicated by rolling

the soil into a thread of 3 mm, and it begins to crumble.
Ans 1. Shrinkage limit
2. Plastic limit
3. C asagrande’s limit
4. Liquid limit
Assertion: A gravity weir is the one in which uplift pressure caused
by seepage of water below the floor is resisted entirely by the
weight of the floor.
Reason: In the non-gravity type weir, the floor thickness is kept
relatively less and the uplift pressure is largely resisted by the
bending action of the reinforced concrete floor.
Q.34 For a given soil sample, with increase in compaction effort, the
Optimum Moisture Content (OMC) ……………. (Assume all other
factors remain the same)
Ans 1. first increases and then, decreases
2. D ecreases
3. first decreases and then, increases
4. Increases
Q.35 In a falling head test, the initial head level is 100 cm and the head
level after 100 seconds is 10 cm. T he area of cross-section of stand-
pipe is 10 cm2 , and the area of cross-section of soil sample is 100
cm2 . Find the permeability of soil sample if the length of sample is
20 cm.
Ans 1. 2.3 cm/s
2. 0.023 cm/s
3. 4.6 cm/s
4. 0.046 cm/s
Ans 1. A cavity type tube well draws water from the bottom as well as from
the sides of the well.
2. The natural outflow of groundwater at the Earth’s surface is said to
form a spring.
3. Surface sources of water are generally contaminated and cannot be
used without treatment.
4. Infiltration well is a sub-surface source of water.
Q.37 Which of the following statements about carbon credits is
INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. The carbon credit system makes emissions a commodity.
2. C arbon credits are created when greenhouse gases rise above a
baseline.
3. C arbon credits correspond to a determined tradable quantity of
greenhouse gas emissions.
4. C arbon credits are used in signatory countries to the Kyoto
Protocol.
Q.38 Which type of lime is commonly used in soil stabilisation to improve
the engineering properties of clay soils and enhance their load-
bearing capacity?
Ans 1. D olomitic lime
2. Hydrated lime or Q uicklime
3. Fat lime
4. Slaked lime
Q.39 If water is flowing through a pipe of diameter 8 cm under 40 N/cm

2 of
pressure and with 3 m/s of mean velocity, what will be the kinetic
head?
(Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 .)
Ans 1. 0.18 m
2. 0.25 m
3. 0.45 m
4. 0.53 m
Q.40 What is the by-product that is formed by smelting Pig iron at
1500°C?
Ans 1. Blast furnace slag
2. Fly ash
3. Surkhi
4. Silica fume
Q.41 Which of the following statements about municipal solid waste is
INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. It consists of garbage.
2. It is solid waste that is transported with water as sewage.
3. It consists of fine dust, silt and sand.
4. It includes putrescible and non-putrescible solid wastes.
Q.42 Following the fundamental principles of surveying, the minimum
number of control points required for establishing a new station is
________.
Ans 1. 3
2. 2
3. 1
4. 4
Q.43 Which of the following paints has the least adhesive power on
smooth surface and is ideal for rough surfaces?
Ans 1. Enamel paint
2. C ement paint
3. Aluminium paint
4. Luminous paint
Q.44 A material has the modulus of elasticity equal to 3 times its modulus
of rigidity. Which of the following statements may be INCORRECT ?
Ans 1. Poisson’s ratio is equal to 0.5.
2. Volumetric strain is equal to zero.
3. There is a change in the volume of the material.
4. The bulk modulus is infinite.
Q.45 Pumping of water from earth surface to the overhead tank located at
relatively higher elevation is an example for_____
Ans 1. pressure flow
2. C ompressible flow
3. gravity flow
4. both gravity flow and pressure flow
Q.46 Which of the following Informatory signs necessarily have

rectangular/square shape with blue background and white/black
letters or symbols?
i.Speed limit signs
ii.Facility Information signs
iii.Parking signs
Ans 1. Both i and ii
2. Both ii and iii
3. O nly ii
4. O nly i
Q.47 If a cantilever beam is subjected to an upward point load at the free
end, the nature of the stresses developed will be:
Ans 1. compressive above the neutral axis and tensile below the neutral
axis of the beam cross-section
2. tensile above the neutral axis and compressive below the neutral
axis of the beam cross-section
3. tensile above as well as below the neutral axis of the beam cross-
section
4. compressive below as well as above the neutral axis of the beam
cross-section
Q.48 Match the major dams of India with the rivers on which they are
built.
Ans 1. A-2, B-1, C -3

2. A-2, B-3, C -1
3. A-1, B-2, C -3
4. A-1, B-3, C -2
Q.49 T he _______ process is a type of process mainly used to recover
energy from solids in one form or another.
Ans 1. chemical
2. biological
3. thermal
4. pressure
Assertion: A channel should be designed for a velocity that will
neither deposit the sediment nor scour the bed and banks. T his
velocity is known as non-scouring and non-silting velocity.
Reason: If the velocity of flow is too low, the sediment held in
suspension will settle down; whereas, if the velocity is too high, the
water will scour the bed and sides of the canal.
Q.51 Compaction Test 1- Weight of hammer = 10 kg, Height of fall = 500

mm, Number of layers = 3, Number of blows per layer = 25.
Compaction Test 2- Weight of hammer = 5 kg, Height of fall = 250
mm, Number of layers = 6, Number of blows per layer = 25.
T he ratio of compactive energy of compaction test 1 to that of
compaction test 2 is:
Ans 1. 2
2. 8
3. 4
4. 0.5
Q.52 A sample of soil failed in a triaxial test under a deviator stress of
200 kN/m2 when the confining pressure was 100 kN/m2 . For the
sample, if the confining pressure had been 200 kN/m2 , what would
have been the deviator stress at failure? Assume c = 0.
Ans 1. 400 kN/m2
2. 100 kN/m2
3. 600 kN/m2
4. 500 kN/m2
Q.53 In the case design of an axially loaded short RCC column, the
meaning of axial loading refers to:
Ans 1. uniform compressive strain distribution across the cross section
2. non-uniform compressive strain distribution across the cross
section
3. non-uniform tensile strain distribution across the cross section
4. uniform tensile strain distribution across the cross section
Q.54 Which of the following laws states that the compressive strength of
hardened concrete is inversely proportional to the water-cement
ratio, when the concrete mix is of workable consistency?
Ans 1. Archimede’s Law
2. Abram’s Law
3. C oulomb's Law
4. Avogadro's Law
Q.55 Which of the following compounds gives rapid hardening with an
early gain in strength with a higher heat of hydration in OPC
Cement?
Ans 1. C 3 A
2. C 3 S
3. C 4 AF
4. C 2 S
Q.56 T he value of nominal shear stress for beam of varying depth is
given by ________.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.57 In which of the processes of manufacturing of cement is the

limestone brought from the quarries first crushed into smaller
fragments?
Ans 1. Grinding process
2. Wet process
3. D ry process
4. Moist process
Q.58 T he Moody chart, a logarithmic chart between frction factor and
_______for a variety of relative roughness in a pipe flow.
Ans 1. the discharge of the flow
2. the density of the fluid
3. the velocity of the flow
4. R eynolds number
Q.59 Which of the following tools is used to check the difference in cross
levels or the superelevation in a highaway?
Ans 1. C ow bar
2. C anne-a-boule
3. C ant board
4. C ant bar
Q.60 Which of the following scenario explains the term ‘skid’ experienced
by vehicles?
Ans 1. O ccurs when a wheel revolves more than the corresponding
longitudinal movement.
2. O ccurs when driving wheel of a vehicle rapidly accelerates from
stationary position.
3. O ccurs when path travelled along road surface is more than
circumferential movement of the wheels due to their rotation.
4. It occurs when the roads surface is rough and develop sufficient
frictional resistance
Q.61 As per IS 800:2007, the slenderness ratio (λ) of a steel member is
given by______.Where, L=Effective length of member, r=Radius of
gyration of member.
Ans 1. λ = L × r
2. λ = L − r
3. λ = L / r
4. λ = L + r
Q.62 What are the latitude and the departure of a 300 m traverse line with
a bearing of 240°?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Ans 1. I-A, II-B, III-A

2. I-B, II-B, III-A
3. I-A, II-B, III-B
4. I-A, II-A, III-A
Q.64 What is the use of an electrostatic precipitator?
Ans 1. Gaseous pollutant control
2. Vehicular pollutant control
3. Particulate pollutant control
4. D omestic pollutant control
Q.65 For a very deep footing in loose sand, the type of soil failure will be:
Ans 1. punching shear failure
2. general shear failure
3. local shear failure
4. cracking shear failure
Q.66 A simply supported RCC beam of effective length 5 m and section of
size 200 mm × 300 mm is having flexural strength of18 kN-m.
Calculate the maximum external udl that can be applied to the beam
before failure. Take self-weight as 1 kN/m.
Ans 1. 6.76 kN/m
2. 4.76 kN/m
3. 5.76 kN/m
4. 3.76 kN/m
Q.67 Surrounding atmospheric pressure is taken as datum to find______
Ans 1. gauge pressure
3. Null pressure
4. vacuum pressure
Q.68 Identify the correct option by considering the given statements with
respect to overtaking sight distance.
Statement A: Minimum overtaking sight distance required for the
safe overtaking manoeuvre depends on skill and reaction time of
driver.
Statement B: Minimum overtaking sight distance required for the
safe overtaking manoeuvre depends on gradient of road.
Ans 1. Both the statements are incorrect
2. Statement A is correct, but B is incorrect
3. Both the statements are correct
4. Statement B is correct, but A is incorrect
Q.69 In which of the following staircase classifications is the stair slab

supported parallel to the riser at two or more locations, causing the
slab to bend longitudinally between the supports?
Ans 1. Slab supported between two stringer beams or walls
2. Slab doubly cantilevered from a central spine beam
3. Stair slab spanning longitudinally
4. Slab cantilevered from a spandrel beam or wall
Q.70 T he main components of a hydrological cycle can be classified as
transportation components and storage components. An example of
a storage component of the hydrological cycle is _____________.
Ans 1. groundwater
2. transpiration
3. runoff
4. precipitation
Q.71 Which of the following parts of a rebound test apparatus moves with
the mass attached to the spring after bouncing back?
Ans 1. Plunger
2. R elease button
3. R ider
4. Scale
Q.72 How much deduction should be made in the hollows of blocks during
a hollow concrete block wall construction?
Ans 1. No deduction
2. All openings
3. Half of the openings
4. W idth deduction
Q.73 T he formal acceptance of the proposal of a work by the concerned
department is known as ___________.
Ans 1. proposal approval
2. preliminary approval
3. administrative approval
4. technical approval
Q.74 Using plinth area method, estimate the construction cost of a
building having plinth area of 15 m2 , if the plinth area rate is
Rs.2000/- per m2 .
Ans 1. ₹15,000
2. ₹30,000
3. ₹25,000
4. ₹20,000
Q.75 An oil of mass density 800 kg/m3 is contained in a vessel. Calculate
the height of water required to develop an equivalent hydrostatic
pressure as that developed by oil of height 30 m. Take acceleration
due to gravity as 9.81 m/sec2
Ans 1. 42 m
2. 23 m
3. 32 m
4. 24 m
Q.76 Which of the following is the purpose of providing catch pits in a

sewer system?
Ans 1. To provide a connection between the high-level branch sewer to the
low-level main sewer
2. To hold and throw water into the sewer
3. To exclude grease and oil from sewage
4. To prevent the entry of silt, grit, debris, etc. contained in the
rainwater
Q.77 Which of the following statements gives an INCORRECT application
of GPS?
Ans 1. GP S can be used to determine the time accurately.
2. GP S can be used for preparation of maps.
3. GP S can be used to track the movement of vehicles.
4. GP S can be used to determine the position of a point in deep,
underground mines.
Q.78 Consider a rectangular column cross section of size 4 m × 2 m.
Identify the correct statement.
Ans 1. The core of the section is a square of size 0.6 m.
2. The point load shall be applied within the rhombus located at centre
with diagonals size 1.33 mx0.66m to ensure no tensile stresses
developed in column cross section
3. The limit of eccentricity for axial compressive load is 1 m measured
from the C .G of the cross section for not to have tensile stresses in the
section.
4. The point load shall be applied within the 1.5 m from the centre to
avoid tension in the cross section.
Q.79 T he coefficient of permeability has the same unit as that of
_________ .
Ans 1. acceleration
2. force
3. hydraulic gradient
4. velocity
Q.80 Which of the following type of asphalt is better suited for surface
sealing and dust control in flexible pavements?
Ans 1. Hot mix asphalt
2. C old mix asphalt
3. Emulsified asphalt
4. C utback asphalt
Q.81 During the calibration of a rectangular suppressed weir in a 40 cm
crest width laboratory channel, the discharge passing over the weir
was measured volumetrically. What is the coefficient of discharge of
the weir if it was found to pass a discharge of 0.025 m3 /sec under
the head of 0.1 m?
Ans 1. C d = 0.75
2. C d = 0.66
3. C d = 0.89
4. C d = 0.92
Q.82 If the load on an RCC lintel due to the wall above it is in the form of
a triangular portion, then the angle subtended by a triangle at either
end of the lintel shall be:
Ans 1. 50 degrees each
2. 60 degrees each
3. 30 degrees each
4. 40 degrees each
Q.83 As per the Indian standard code (2470 - 1985, Part 1), the minimum
width of the septic tank assumed for design purpose is
_____________.
Ans 1. 125 cm
2. 75 cm
3. 100 cm
4. 50 cm
Q.84 T he sound pressure is measured in:
Ans 1. hertz
2. N/m2
3. decibel
4. watt
Q.85 Calculate the effective depth of a cantilever beam of span 2.5m,
based on the provisions given on ‘effective depth ratios for spans
up to 10m’ in IS 456 : 2000
Ans 1. 357.14 mm
2. 250 mm
3. 457 mm
4. 500 mm
Q.86 Which of the following is an efficient method of levelling that should
be adopted to measure the elevation of two points when the
distance between them is NOT within the visible range of the level?
Ans 1. Profile levelling
2. R eciprocal levelling
3. D ifferential levelling
4. Block levelling
Q.87 Find the quantity of brickwork for underground septic tank shown in
the given figure.
Ans 1. 7.895 m3
2. 10.641 m3
3. 6.415 m3
4. 9.673 m3
Assertion: T he season wherein crops are sown by the beginning of
south west monsoon and harvested in autumn is called Kharif
season.
Reason: T he Kharif season ranges from October to March.
Q.89 When an economical canal cross-section is formed partly in cutting
and partly in filling, such that the quantity of earth in cutting is equal
to the quantity of earth in filling, the depth of cutting under that
situation is known as __________ .
Ans 1. Balancing depth
2. Uniform depth
3. C ritical depth
4. Economical depth
Q.90 As per Euler’s theory, for which of the following end conditions is
the longest effective length of a column obtained?
Ans 1. W hen one end of the column is fixed and the other end is hinged
2. W hen one end of the column is fixed and the other end is free
3. W hen both the ends of the column are fixed
4. W hen both the ends of the column are hinged
Q.91 What are fixed time traffic signals?
Ans 1. Signals that change timing based on traffic flow
2. Signals that adjust timing based on weather conditions
3. Signals that are manually controlled by a traffic officer
4. Signals that have a fixed duration for each phase
Q.92 Which of the following precautions need to be adopted for
concreting in sub-zero temperature?
(i) Pre-heating of materials of concrete
(ii) Economical heating of materials of concrete
(iii) Admixtures of anti-freezing materials
(iv) Electrical heating of concrete mass
Ans 1. (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
2. O nly (i)
3. O nly (i), (ii), (iii)
4. O nly (i) and (ii)
Q.93 Identify the correct methods of surface preparation used for joining
old and new concrete to each other.
i)Sandblasting
ii)Chipping
iii)Removal of surface by grinding
Ans 1. O nly i
2. O nly ii
3. All of i, ii and iii
4. O nly i and ii
Q.94 A high steep camber is NOT desirable to:
Ans 1. prevent entry of water into bituminous pavement layers
2. transverse tilt and skid of vehicle
3. prevent the entry of surface water into subgrade soil
4. remove rain water from pavement surface
Q.95 As per Indian Road Congress, what is the design speed adopted for
Indian Expressways?, Consider the nature of terrain is ‘Plain’ and
Cross slope of ground is less than 10%.
Ans 1. 80 km/h
2. 120 km/h
3. 100 km/h
4. 60 km/h
Q.96 Which of the following is correct expression to find the hypotenusal
allowance used to compute horizontal distance on a sloping
ground?, where Ɵ=Angle of sloped ground
Ans 1. Measured length on sloped ground(1-cosƟ )
2. Measured length on sloped ground(1-cosƟ 2)
3. Measured length on sloped ground(1-SecƟ )2
4. Measured length on sloped ground(SecƟ -1)
Q.97 In approximate quantity method of estimation, earthwork excavation

is measured in ________.
Ans 1. cubic feet
2. square metre
3. running metre
4. cubic metre
Q.98 How does the atmospheric pressure (AP) vary with respect to the
altitude?
Ans 1. AP increases with increase in altitude
2. It remains constant at all heights
3. AP either increases or decreases depending only on temperature
4. AP decreases with increase in altitude
Q.99 Which of the following staff readings is/are taken at a turning point,
that necesiates instruments change point in levelling work?
A)Fore sight
B)Back sight
C)Intermediate sight
Ans 1. Both A and C
2. Both A and B
3. O nly A
4. O nly B
Q.100 To obtain the liquid limit of a soil, a graph is plotted between :
Ans 1. water content and number of blows
2. volume of soil and water content
3. void ratio of soil and number of blows.
4. dry density and water content


Q.1 In a certain code language, ‘TAKERS’ is coded as ‘045%^1’ and
‘TALKER’ is coded as ‘1*450%’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given
code language?
Ans 1. ^
2. 0
3. 5
4. *
Q.2 In a Zoological park, seven giraffes L, M, R, E, V, Z and Y have
different heights. R is taller than E but shorter than Y. Z is taller
than M but shorter than V. L is taller than R but shorter than V. Y is
shorter than M but taller than E. M is shorter than Z. Which among
the seven is the shortest?
Ans 1. E
2. Y
3. L
4. R
HNL, JPN, LRP, NT R, ?
Ans 1. VP T
2. VT P
3. P T V
4. P VT
RJG, NFC, JBY, FXU, ?
Ans 1. B S Q
2. AT Q
3. AT P
4. B T Q
series?
14, 19, 29, 44, 64, ?
Ans 1. 84
2. 82
3. 88
4. 89
Q.6 GKHL is related to IMJN in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, KOLP is related to MQNR. To
which of the following is NROS related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. T P UQ
2. P T UQ
3. P T Q U
4. T P Q U
SVX, QT V, ORT, MPR, ?
Ans 1. NR P
2. K MP
3. LO R
4. K NP
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.9 Aishwarya starts from her office in north direction. She turns to her
left then to her right and finally after walking some more, she turns
to her left. In which direction is she facing now?
Ans 1. North
2. East
3. South
4. West
Q.10 In a certain code language, ‘BANISH’ is coded as ‘9’ and
‘AMORPHOUS’ is coded as ‘12’. What is the code for ‘AMNEST Y’ in
the given language?
Ans 1. 11
2. 9
3. 16
4. 10
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘he was good’ is coded as ‘ik bu oy’ and
‘was she there’ is coded as ‘bu ha no’. How is ‘was’ coded in the
given language?
Ans 1. ha
2. bu
3. no
4. ik
the letters in the word CLOSURE is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. O ne
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four

‘A × B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’, and
How is T related to O if ‘P + N − S ÷ O + M × T ’?
Ans 1. Son
2. Son’s son
3. D aughter ’s husband
4. D aughter ’s son
Q.15 Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in
the given series?
30, 31, 36, 45, 62, ?
Ans 1. 88
2. 87
3. 90
4. 85
Q.16 L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting around a circular table facing the
centre (not necessarily in the same order). M is sitting to the
immediate right of Q. L is sitting to the immediate left of O. Q is
sitting to the immediate right of O. P is sitting to the immediate left
of L. Who is sitting to the immediate right of M?
Ans 1. N
2. P
3. L
4. O
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.18 MK 4 is related to OM 2 in a certain way. In the same way, QS 6 is

related to SU 3. To which of the following is XU 8 related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. GX 5
2. S T 5
3. ZW 4
4. XE 7
Ans 1. 155
2. 159
3. 158
4. 150
Q.20 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given

equation correct?
(176 ÷ 4) + (22 × 8) – (2 × 20) = 70
(Note: Interchange should be done of entire number and not
individual digits of a given number)
Ans 1. 4 and 8
2. 2 and 4
3. 22 and 20
4. 2 and 8
equation if ‘+’ and ‘–’ are interchanged?
63 ÷ 9 – 14 × 11 + 28 = ?
Ans 1. 135
2. 138
3. 133
4. 129
Statements: Some horses are rocks. Some rocks are leaves. No rock
is a tree.
Conclusions:
(I) No horse is a tree.
(II) At least some leaves are trees.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion (II) follows.
2. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.23 L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table, facing the
centre. L sits second to the right of M. N sits third to the right of L.
O sits second to the left of N. P is not an immediate neighbour of N.
Q sits to the immediate right of O.
How many people are sitting between L and R when counted from
the left of L?
Ans 1. Three
2. O ne
3. Zero
4. Two

‘A = B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A > B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is P related to T if ‘P + Q × R > S = T ’?
2. Father ’s mother ’s sister
4. Father ’s mother
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
1. School
2. Graduation
3. Birth
4. Doctorate
5. Under-graduation
Ans 1. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
2. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
3. 4, 1, 3, 2, 5
4. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Q.27 In a certain code language, ‘HIDE’ is coded as ‘3795’ and ‘DOWN’ is

What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 4
2. 9
3. 2
4. 7
Q.28 FJGK is related to HLIM in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, IMJN is related to KOLP. To
which of the following is OSPT related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. Q VUR
2. Q UVR
3. Q VR U
4. Q URV
the letters in the word ‘HANGOVER‘ is arranged in alphabetical
order?
Ans 1. Zero
2. Three
3. Two
4. Four
the following is 75 related following the same logic?

into its constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding
/subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can
is not allowed.)
Ans 1. 15
2. 25
3. 35
4. 45
1. House
2. Curtain
3. Window
4. Room
5. Wall
Ans 1. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
2. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3
3. 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
4. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
Statements: Some pens are red. All red are blue.
Conclusion 1: All pens are blue.
Conclusion 2: Some pens are not red.
Ans 1. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows
Q.33 If A means +, B means –, C means × and D means ÷, then what will
21 A 18 D 2 B 3 C 5 = ?
Ans 1. 16
2. 15
3. 17
4. 14
series?
25, 30, 40, 55, 75, ?
Ans 1. 90
2. 95
3. 100
4. 105
STA, WXE, ABI, EFM, ?
Ans 1. JIS
2. IJQ
3. JP S
4. K K P
(120, 96, 54)
(108, 84, 42)
Ans 1. (124, 100, 58)
2. (116, 92, 62)
3. (92, 68, 40)
4. (128, 96, 60)
Cockroach : Nymph
Ans 1. Sheep : Fawn
2. Swan : C ygnet
3. Bear : Foal
4. Horse : C hick
100 : 20
60 : 12
Ans 1. 120 : 12
2. 144 : 12
3. 54 : 6
4. 45 : 9
Q.39 T ILE is related to VLNH in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, RAMP is related to T DOS. To
which of the following is SORT related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. VRT V
2. URT W
3. VRT W
4. URT V
HLP, T XB, FJN, RVZ, DHL, ?
Ans 1. Q T Y
2. Q S X
3. P T X
4. P T Y
Q.41 KSNJ is related to MUPL in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, NVQM is related to PXSO. To
which of the following is EMHD related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. GO JF
2. GO F J
3. O GJF
4. O GF J
interchanged?
20 × 5 – 13 + 3 ÷ 4 = ?
Ans 1. 10
2. 12
3. 5
4. 7
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
MGA, HBV, CWQ, XRL, ?
Ans 1. S GM
2. S MG
3. GMS
4. GS M
Q.45 Rahul walked 20 m towards the north. T hen he turned right and
walked 20 m. T hen he turned right and walked 10 m. He then turned
right and walked 10 m. In what direction is he headed?
Ans 1. East
2. West
3. North
4. South
Q.46 HGCA is related to LKGE in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, BKOM is related to FOSQ. To
which of the following is NSJD related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. HS R D
2. RW NH
3. P LNH
4. LP RY
Q.47
Ans 1. 18
2. 14
3. 12
4. 16
(12, 8, 28)
(34, 9, 52)
Ans 1. (15, 25, 60)
2. (54, 13, 70)
3. (49, 12, 71)
4. (62, 11, 84)
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Ans 1. 30
2. 32
3. 34
4. 36

Q.1 T he animals or plants which can inbreed successfully must belong to
the same _________.
Ans 1. locality
2. planet
3. country
4. species
Q.2 In which Union Territory is the ‘slash and burn’ agriculture known as
‘Dipa’?
Ans 1. Ladakh
2. D adra & Nagar Haveli and D aman & D iu
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
4. Jammu and Kashmir
Q.3 In which year was the Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS)
launched in India?
Ans 1. 1984
2. 1978
3. 1982
4. 1975
Q.4 T he Arid soils are developed in the western part of which state from
the following?
Ans 1. Assam
2. Telangana
3. R ajasthan
4. Bihar
Q.5 Who among the following scientists discovered free living cells in
pond water for the first time?
Ans 1. R obert Brown
2. R obert Hooke
3. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

4. Franz Bauer
Q.6 In the 1830’s, which Scottish man was Commissioned by the East
India Company to prepare reports on Education and progress in the
native schools of Bengal and Bihar?
Ans 1. Anthony Mc D onnel
2. John Sargent
3. W illiam Adam
4. Joseph Hartog
Q.7 Which word has been substituted for the words 'Unity of the Nation'
in the 42nd Amendment Act of the Preamble of the Constitution of
India?
Ans 1. Unity and honesty of the nation
2. Unity and equity of the nation
3. Unity and integrity of the nation
4. Unity and morality of the nation
Q.8 Based on which committee recommendations, RBI introduced a
comprehensive regulatory framework for NBFC-MFIs?
Ans 1. Gadgil committee
2. Malegam committee
3. Kelkar committee
4. R angarajan committee
Q.9 Which M iniste r le d the Indian de le gation in the me e ting of the digital
and te chnology ministe rs of G7 countrie s he ld in Japan on 29 and 30
April 2023?
Ans 1. Ashwini Vaishnaw
2. Ajay Bhatt
3. Bhupendra Yadav
4. Sarbananda Sonowal
Q.10 According to Census of India 2011, which state recorded negative
population growth rate?
Ans 1. Manipur
2. Nagaland
3. Sikkim
4. Kerala
Q.11 When was the First Five-Year Plan of India launched?
Ans 1. 1950
2. 1951
3. 1956
4. 1961
Q.12 After realising the deadly effects of depleting the ozone layer, under
which programme was the decision taken to ban the usage of CFC?
Ans 1. United Nations D evelopment Programme
2. Natural State Environmental Programme
3. United Nations Environment Programme
4. Federal Energy Management Programme
Q.13 Who marked the historic moment by unveiling the 'Yashobhoomi'
convention centre in Delhi in September 2023?
Ans 1. Arvind Kejriwal
2. D harmendra Pradhan
3. Narendra Modi
4. D roupadi Murmu
Q.14 T he Pala rulers achieved their domination in which province of

India?
Ans 1. Kashmir
2. O rissa
3. Assam
4. Bengal
Q.15 What is the main content of the Fourth Schedule in the Constitution
of India?
Ans 1. Allocation of seats in the C ouncil of States
2. Allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha
3. D irective Principles of State Policy
4. Provisions for State Legislature
Q.16 Who along with Barry Marshall, was awarded the Nobel Prize in
Physiology or Medicine in 2005 for discovering that stomach ulcer is
an infectious disease caused by bacteria?
Ans 1. Jean Paul Vuillemin
2. R obert Koch
3. Gabriel Pouchet
4. R obin Warren
Q.17 In 2023, who among the following individuals served as the governor
of Telangana?
Ans 1. Ganesh Lal
2. Tamilisai Soundararajan
3. Kalraj Mishra
4. Baby R ani Maurya
Q.18 Which of the following is NOT included while estimating National
Income?
I.Goods sold by street hawkers
II.Services of housewives
III.Production of vegetable in kitchen garden
Ans 1. O nly I and II
2. O nly III
3. O nly II and III
4. All I, II and III
Q.19 Who composed the music for the film Kashmir ki Kali?
Ans 1. Naushad
2. Hemant Kumar
3. O P Nayyar
4. Salil C howdhury
Q.20 T he largest river system of Rajasthan is _________________.
Ans 1. Tapi
2. Luni
3. Bhima
4. Kaveri
Q.21 When two nuclei fuse together forming one nucleus during cell
fusion, it is known as:
Ans 1. synkaryon
2. eukaryon
3. heterokaryon
4. syncytium
Q.22 Which Nationalist Democratic Progressive Party (NDPP) leader was
sworn in as the fifth Chief Minister of Nagaland in March 2023?
Ans 1. Wanweiroy Kharlukhi
2. C hingwang Konyak
3. Tokheho Yepthomi
4. Neiphiu R io
Q.23 Before starting a 5 day and 5 night excursion, Mr. Patel provided all
his students with battery powered flash lights. He also gave them
some extra batteries to use as spare. T hen Mr. Patel asked them
whether they know how the batteries will produce electricity and
help them. What do you think the correct answer to his question is?
Ans 1. Electricity is produced by the chemicals stored in the battery
2. Electricity is produced by friction between the battery and the flash
light
3. Electricity is saved in the battery from the factory that produces it

4. Battery extracts electricity from the environment and passes it to
the flash light
Q.24 In which of the following groups of the periodic table is the metallic
element 'silver' found?
Ans 1. Group 15
2. Group 11
3. Group 3
4. Group 7
Q.25 According to Census 2011 of India, which of the following groups of
union territories has the highest urban population?
Ans 1. C handigarh and Lakshadweep
2. D aman & D iu and Lakshadweep
3. Puducherry and Lakshadweep
4. Puducherry and C handigarh
Q.26 "Meri LiFE” (My life) app was launched in May 2023 by union
minister Shri Bhupender Yadav. Which ministry does he belong?
Ans 1. Ministry of Earth Sciences
2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and C limate C hange
3. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
Q.27 On which date did the cantonment of Meerut break out in military
mutiny during the 1857 movement?
Ans 1. 09 April 1857
2. 30 May 1857
3. 10 May 1857
4. 30 March 1857
Q.28 Who inspired Indians by raising the slogan 'Freedom is my birthright

and I shall have it!'?
Ans 1. Swami Vivekananda
2. Sachindra Nath Sanyal
3. Bhagat Singh
4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Q.29 According to Article 58 of the Constitution of India, no pe rson shall
be e ligible for e le ction as Pre side nt unle ss he is a citize n of India,
has comple te d the age of ____and is qualifie d for e le ction as a
me mbe r of the House of the Pe ople .
Ans 1. 27 years
2. 30 years
3. 35 years
4. 40 years
Q.30 What is the name of the compound with the formula N
2 O 5?
Ans 1. D initrogen pentoxide
2. Nitrogen dioxide
3. Nitric oxide
4. Nitrous oxide
Q.31 What does the CONCAT ENAT E function do in Microsoft Excel?
Ans 1. C ombines text from multiple cells into one cell
2. Splits text into separate cells
3. C onverts text to uppercase
4. Finds the average of a range of cells
Q.32 Which species of sponges is commonly called glass sponge due to
the presence of silica spicules?
Ans 1. Euplectella
2. Planaria
3. C alcarea
4. Spongilla
Q.33 What was the main objection against the Directive Principles of
State Policy in the Constituent Assembly?
Ans 1. They were an instrument of instructions
2. They were non justiciable in character
3. They were considered as novel features
4. The state was responsible for these policies
Q.34 Which one of the following has the largest population in a food
chain?
Ans 1. Primary consumers
2. Producers
3. D ecomposers
4. Secondary consumers
Q.35 T he process by which molecules from a region of higher
concentration move to a region of lower concentration is known as:
Ans 1. evaporation
2. boiling
3. diffusion
4. melting
Q.36 Kala Ramnath is associated with which of the following gharanas?

Ans 1. Mewati gharana
2. Bhendibazaar gharana
3. Agra gharana
4. Indore gharana
Q.37 Which chemical compound is responsible for the spicy taste in chilli
peppers?
Ans 1. C apsaicin
2. C affeine
3. Ethanol
4. Tannin
Q.38 In the context of a Microsoft Excel sheet, what does the term
'workbook' mean?
Ans 1. A single sheet within a file
2. The entire Microsoft Excel file
3. A formula used in calculations
4. A chart or graph
Q.39 On cold pressing groundnut, oils are released. T his indicates the
presence of ________.
Ans 1. C arbohydrates
2. Fats
3. Vitamins
4. Proteins
Q.40 What is the height of the Kanchenjunga peak?
Ans 1. 8958 m
2. 8527 m
3. 8859 m
4. 8598 m
Q.41 Pascal is the SI unit of _________, which is defined as a force of 1 N
applied uniformly over an area of 1 m2 .
Ans 1. mass density
2. energy
3. pressure
4. power
Q.42 Who is the ultimate interpreter of the Constitution?
Ans 1. Supreme C ourt
2. D istrict C ourts
3. President
4. Speaker
Q.43 Which of the following is an example of formation of metamorphic
rocks?
Ans 1. Formation of C halk
2. Formation of Sandstone
3. Formation of Limestone
4. Formation of Slate
Q.44 T he Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill was

introduced in the Lok Sabha by which ministry on 26 July 2023?
Ans 1. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Ministry of Women and C hild D evelopment
3. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
4. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Q.45 India defeated West Indies in which of the following World Cup
finals?
Ans 1. 1983 England
2. 2007 West Indies
3. 2019 England
4. 2003 South Africa
Q.46 A village is established in a region where land meets the ocean.
What is this region called?
Ans 1. C oastal R egion
2. Marshy Land
3. Tropical R egion
4. Sea Beach
Q.47 Which of the following sports events was NEVER hosted by India?
Ans 1. O lympics
2. C ommonwealth Games
3. IC C Men World C up C ricket
4. Asian Games
Q.48 Which of the following states has launched the ‘Mo Ghara’ or ‘My
Home’ scheme, with an aim to transform kutcha houses into pucca
ones?
Ans 1. C hhattisgarh
2. West Bengal
3. O disha
4. Jharkhand
Q.49 Food digested in the stomach passes through the intestines so that
the blood vessels can absorb essential nutrients for the functioning
and growth of the body. What is this process known as?
Ans 1. Transmission
2. Assimilation
3. Transfusion
4. Integration
Q.50 A low pitched but louder sound has ______.
Ans 1. lower frequency and higher amplitude
2. higher frequency and lower amplitude
3. lower frequency and lower amplitude
4. higher frequency and higher amplitude

Q.1
Ans 1. 4 Ω
2. 8.4 Ω
3. 4.8 Ω
4. 40 Ω
Q.2 A capacitor of capacitive reactance 5Ω is connected across a 220V,
50Hz supply. Calculate the maximum current drawn by the capacitor.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.3 In estimation and costing, the estimator must understand production

cost, including labour and material cost of products, as well as
discounts on purchases in order to:
Ans 1. work out profit
2. retain a list
3. prepare schedules
4. gain knowledge
Q.4 T he maximum efficiency in the transmission of bulk AC power will be
achieved when the power factor of the load is:
Ans 1. considerably less than unity
2. unity
3. slightly less than unity lagging
4. slightly less than unity leading
Q.5 In ring distribution scheme, ________ of a ______ transformer form a
loop.
Ans 1. secondaries, distribution
2. primaries, power
3. primaries, distribution
4. secondaries, power
Q.6 In the context of electromagnetism, according to Fleming’s left-hand
rule, the thumb indicates the ________.
Ans 1. direction of the motion of the conductor
2. direction of the magnetic field
3. direction of the current
4. length of the conductor
Q.7 Which of the following statements is/are accurate regarding working
principle of a reluctance start motor?
1. In reluctance, motor reluctance torque can occur once a
ferromagnetic object is located within an exterior magnetic field,
then the object can be line up through the external magnetic field.
2. T he torque can be generated among the two fields which twirling
the object in the region of the line through the magnetic field so the
torque is used on the object to provide less reluctance for the
magnetic flux.
Ans 1. O nly 2 is true
2. Both 1 and 2 are true

4. O nly 1 is true
Q.8 Which of the following statements correctly explains the relation

between the maximum demand and the connected load during a
practical scenario in a power system?
Ans 1. The maximum demand will always be equal to the connected load.
2. The maximum demand will always be greater than the connected
load.
3. The maximum demand and the connected load do not exhibit any
relation with each other.
4. The maximum demand will always be less than the connected load.
Q.9 An external resistance is added in the motor circuit during starting
condition. T he main purpose of this is to __________.
Ans 1. reduce the starting current
2. reduce the main flux
3. increase the main flux
4. increase the starting current
Q.10
Ans 1. 1
2. zero
3. 0.8
4. 0.6
Q.11
Ans 1. 90 H
2. 66 H
3. 81 H
4. 60 H
Q.12 If R1 = 1 Ω; R2 = 2 Ω,; R3 = 3 Ω,; R2 and R3 are connected in
parallel and the combination is in series with R1, then the total
resistance will be ______.
Ans 1. 2.8 Ω
2. 1.2 Ω
3. 2.2 Ω
4. 1.5 Ω
Q.13 What is the primary purpose of a back-to-back power electronic

converter (PEC) in type-C doubly-fed induction generator wind
power plants?
Ans 1. To match stator and rotor frequencies
2. To control reactive power production
3. To regulate wind turbine speed
4. To convert mechanical power to electrical power
Q.14 A 200-V, DC motor has an armature resistance of 0.5 Ω. It is drawing
an armature current of 20 A driving a certain load. Calculate the
induced EMF in the motor under this condition.
Ans 1. 203.7 V
2. 175.8 V
3. 190 V
4. 199.3 V
Q.15 Which of the following systems is NOT a part of the operating
mechanism in a single-phase energy meter?
Ans 1. Energy system
2. Braking system
3. R egistering system
4. D riving system
Q.16 Which is the formula for transmission line efficiency?
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.17 In electromagnetism, the work done on a unit n-pole in moving once

around any complete path will be equal to the product of the current
and the number of turns enclosed by that path is stated by _____.
Ans 1. Work’s law
2. Lenz’s law
3. Laplace’s law
4. C oulomb’s law
Q.18 What is the correct order of the following operations, performed for
conducting the estimation?
a) Wiring layout
b) Calculation of the total number of connections
c) Selection of the main switch board
Ans 1. c, a, b
2. a, c, b
3. a, b, c
4. b, c, a
Q.19 In a thermal power plant, the overall efficiency can be determined
using which of the following?
Ans 1. R egenerative C ycle Efficiency
2. R ankine C ycle Efficiency
3. C arnot C ycle Efficiency
4. Boiler Efficiency × Generator Efficiency × Turbine Efficiency
Q.20 T he torque developed by a 3-phase induction motor least depends

on which the following options ?
Ans 1. rotor E MF
2. rotor current
3. shaft diameter
4. rotor power factor
Q.21 In the shaded-pole induction motor, the shading coil fitted on the
________ is called _________.
Ans 1. auxiliary pole; shading pole
2. main pole; shading pole
3. auxiliary pole; non-shading pole
4. main pole; non-shading pole
Q.22 Which of the following are the properties of a good heating
element?
I) It should have low resistivity.
II) It should have high melting point.
III) It should have low temperature coefficient of resistance.
IV) It should have high specific heat capacity.
Ans 1. II, III and IV
2. I, II and IV
3. O nly II and III
4. I, II and III
Q.23 Which of the following is correct with reference to step up single-
phase transformer?
Ans 1. Turn ratio ≠ Transformation ratio
2. Turn ratio > Transformation ratio
3. Turn ratio = Transformation ratio
4. Turn ratio < Transformation ratio
Q.24 What type of boilers are suitable for low-maintenance cost, small
size and low-pressure plants?
Ans 1. Supercritical boilers
2. Water tube boilers
3. Fire tube boilers
4. High-pressure boilers
Q.25 I, R, XL , VR and cosϕR represent voltage regulation, line current,
line resistance, line reactance, receiving end voltage and load
power factor of transmission line, respectively. Also, receiving end
voltage is more than the sending end voltage. Identify the correct
expression for the leading load power factor.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.26 In electromagnetism, the magnetic field set up by a steady current
density is described by ____________.
Ans 1. Lenz’s law
2. Laplace’s law
3. Faraday’s law
4. O hm’s law
Q.27 In a transistor of common base connection, the ratio of change in

the output current to change in the input current at a constant
collector-base voltage is called ______.
Ans 1. current amplification factor
2. input resistance factor
3. base current amplification factor
4. output resistance factor
Q.28 Which of the following is a criterion used for selecting the ratio of
the minimum fault current to the maximum load current in over-
current protection of a transmission line?
Ans 1. To prevent the possibility of maloperation under normal operating
conditions
2. To reduce the maximum load current on the transmission line
3. To decrease the sensitivity of the protection system to faults
4. To increase the possibility of maloperation under normal operating
conditions
Q.29 In an electrodynamic instrument, what happens to the torque when
the current flowing through the coil is decreased?
Ans 1. The torque increases.
2. The torque remains constant.
3. The torque becomes zero.
4. The torque decreases.
Q.30 Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coils does
NOT depend on which of the following?
Ans 1. C ross sectional area of their common core
2. Temperature of the coil
3. Permeability of the core material
4. Number of turns of the coils
Q.31 In electrical installation and costing, which of the following is NOT a
scope of national electrical code?
Ans 1. Standard good practices
2. D istinguishing of fundamental components
3. General safety procedure
4. R ecommendations concerning safety
Q.32 In case of commercial installations, it is advisable to use light
sources rendering high colour for installations so as to retain
customer attention. T his light should be as bright as its
surroundings in the range of __________.
Ans 1. 2 times
2. 5 times
3. 10 times
4. 20 times
Q.33 With respect to AC fundamentals of an electrical signal, the ratio of
the area under the curve to the base is called _______.
Ans 1. effective value
2. R MS value
3. average value
4. peak value
Q.34 T he deflecting torque in an electrostatic instrument can be

calibrated by ________________.
Ans 1. adjusting the damping
2. adjusting the spring constant
3. adjusting the frequency
4. adjusting the potential difference between the plates
Q.35 Which of the following statements is true about the voltage control
of DC motors?
Ans 1. The terminal voltage is kept constant and the field current is varied
so as to obtain speed control.
2. The application of this method is restricted to self-excited D C
motors.
3. The application of this method is restricted to separately excited
D C motors.
4. The field current is kept constant and the terminal voltage is varied
to obtain speed control.
Q.36 A balanced, delta-connected load has an impedance of 3∠ 30°
Ω/phase. What will be the impedance of an equivalent star-
connected load?
Ans 1. 3 ∠ 90°Ω/phase
2. 1 ∠ 30°Ω/phase
3. 4 ∠ 30°Ω/phase
4. 2 ∠ 60°Ω/phase
Q.37 What happens to the reading of a wattmeter when the power factor
of a circuit is changed from unity power factor to leading power
factor?
Ans 1. The wattmeter reading increases
2. The wattmeter reading remains unchanged
3. The wattmeter reading decreases
4. The wattmeter cannot measure the leading power factor
Q.38 Slip is 1 when rotor is_____________.
Ans 1. rotating with syncronous speed
2. stationary
3. rotating at a speed lower than synchronous speed
4. rotating at a speed higher than synchronous speed
Q.39 T he Fermi level position ________ in the energy band diagram of a

p-n junction at equilibrium states.
Ans 1. does not exist
2. is uphill for electrons to cross the junction
3. is constant for electrons to cross the junction
4. is downhill for electrons to cross the junction
Q.40 T he Variation in the effective width of a base in a Bipolar Junction
Transistor is due to a variation in the applied _____.
Ans 1. emitter to collector voltage
2. collector current
3. emitter current
4. base to collector voltage
Q.41 Which of the following statements are correct about the errors in
PMMC instruments?
I. T he swamping resistance is included in series with the moving
coil to reduce errors.
II. T he swamping resistance is included in parallel with the moving
coil to reduce errors.
III. Errors are caused by weakening of the permanent magnet due to
aging.
IV. Errors are caused by weakening of the spring due to aging and
temperature.
Ans 1. O nly II, III and IV
2. O nly I, III and IV
3. O nly III and IV
4. O nly I and III
Q.42 Which of the following statements is FALSE in the context of the
characteristics of synchronous motors?
Ans 1. They have constant speed operation.
2. They are made in large sizes.
3. Synchronous motors have high power factor correction.
4. They have low operating efficiency.
Q.43 A 6-pole, 250 V wave connected shunt motor running at 955 rpm has
1200 armature conductors and useful flux/pole of 10m Wb. T he
armature and field resistance are 0.5 Ω and 250 Ω, respectively. If
the motor draws 20 A from the supply mains, then the value of torque
developed by the motor is _____.
Ans 1. 57.9 N-m
2. 62.3 N-m
3. 45.6 N-m
4. 65.8 N-m
Q.44 What is the armature-circuit-resistance speed control method for DC
motor?
Ans 1. Variation of field flux
2. Variation of resistance in the armature circuit
3. Variation of resistance in the field circuit
4. Variation of armature terminal voltage
Q.45 A light source with a candle worth of power produces ________.
Ans 1. one lumen / watt
2. one lumen / meter
3. one lumen / radian
4. one lumen / steradian
Q.46 T he wattmeter method is used to measure power in a three-phase
load. T he wattmeter readings are 200 W and −35 W. Find the
respective values of active power and reactive power.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.47 T he sum of instantaneous powers in the three phases in a three-

phase system:
Ans 1. is zero
2. thrice the line frequency
3. twice the line frequency
4. remains constant
Q.48 A signal applied to a CRO has a rising time of 0.5 μ s. Its bandwidth
is:
Ans 1. 0.05 MHz
2. 0.2 MHz
3. 0.07 MHz
4. 0.7 MHz
Q.49 Which of the following is correct for a step down single-phase
transformer?
Ans 1. Input volt ampere < output volt ampere
2. Input volt ampere ≠ output volt ampere
3. Input volt ampere = output volt ampere
4. Input volt ampere > output volt ampere
Q.50 Which of the following effects is predominant when a dielectric
material is polarised?
Ans 1. It makes charged particles free to move and causes current to flow
in the material.
2. C harged particles re-orientate themselves in the out phase with the
electric field.
3. It causes current to flow in the material.
4. It makes charged particles free to move.
Q.51 An ideal BJT acts as an open switch when:
Ans 1. VCE = V CC and I c = 0
2. VBE =VCC and I B = 50 µA
3. VCE = V BCand I c = 10 mA
4. VCE = 0 and I c= 10 mA
Q.52 1 ampere of current is equal to how many number of electrons?

Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.53 How much energy in “kilowatt hours” is consumed in operating ten
100-watt bulbs for 20 hours per day in a month (30 days)?
Ans 1. 5000 kilowatt-hours
2. 10000 kilowatt-hours
Q.54 A series R-L-C circuit having R = 5 Ω, L = 400 H and C = 4F is fed

from a 400 ∠ 0° volt supply. T hen the voltage across the capacitor at
resonance will be _________.
Ans 1. 800 V
2. 400 V
3. 200 V
4. 1000 V
Q.55 Calculate the reading that will be given by a hot-wire voltmeter
when it is connected across the terminals of a generator whose
voltage is given by V(t) = (2 Sin wt + 3 Sin 3 wt +5 Sin 5 wt) Volt.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.56 What is the correction factor of the wattmeter at a lagging power

factor?
(Where, φ is the phase angle between the voltage applied to the
pressure coil and the current in the current coil and β is the angle
between the voltage applied to the pressure coil and the current in
the pressure coil.)
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.57 A conductor of length 5 m moves at an angle 30° to the direction of

the magnetic field of flux density 1.4 wb/m2 . If the velocity of the
conductor is 40 m/s, then calculate the EMF induced in it.
Ans 1. 100 volts
2. 1400 volts
3. 140 volts
4. 0 volt
Q.58 In resistors, if the temperature is increased, then the resistance of
alloys will _____.
Ans 1. decrease
2. remain the same
3. become zero
4. increase
Q.59 Which of the following lamps is NOT a discharge lamp?
Ans 1. Neon lamp
2. Sodium vapour lamp
3. Mercury vapour Lamp
4. Incandescent lamp
Q.60 A 400 V, 3-phase synchronous motor has armature current of 150 A. It

has synchronous resistance and reactance of 0.4 Ω and 4 Ω per
phase, respectively. If the power developed is 130 kW and the iron
and friction losses are 1 kW, then the efficiency of the motor will be
____________.
Ans 1. 75%
2. 91.6%
3. 81.6%
4. 60%
Q.61 Which of the following is NOT broadly classified as a part of
agrochemicals?
Ans 1. D igesicides
2. Fungicides
3. Herbicides
4. Insecticides
Q.62 T he plant capacity factor is related to ________.
Ans 1. plant operating frequency
2. plant resistance
3. plant reactance
4. plant impedance
Q.63 Which of the following is a pure resistive device?
Ans 1. Transformer
2. Motor
3. Generator
4. Heater
Q.64 As per the general principles of estimating, whenever practicable, it
is advantageous to execute the work only after __________.
Ans 1. tenders are invited
2. payments of bills are made

3. purchase orders are placed
4. tenders are evaluated
Q.65 Ten capacitors, each of capacitance 20 μF, are first connected in
series and then in parallel. T he ratio of the equivalent capacitance
in series to the equivalent capacitance in parallel is:
Ans 1. 1/200
2. 1/100
3. 1/400
4. 1/250
Q.66 Total Reactive Power drawn from a three-phase balanced load
where line voltage = VP, Line current = VL, Phase voltage = VP and
Phase current = I P is given by:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.67 In the context of magnetic circuits, the value of the leakage

coefficient for electrical machines is usually about ______.
Ans 1. 1.25 to 1.5
2. 1.15 to 1.25
3. 1.5 to 1.75
4. 0.5 to 1
Q.68 Which of the following statements are true regarding the DC load
line?
a) It is a straight line drawn between CI and VCE.
b) T he quiescent point lies on the load line.
c) In the DC load line, when the collector emitter voltage CE
V = 0,
the collector current is maximum.
Ans 1. O nly a and c
2. All of a, b and c
3. O nly a and b
4. O nly b and c
Q.69
Ans 1. 0 mA
2. infinite
3. 30 mA
4. 20 mA
Q.70 At steady-state characteristics of a DC series motor, which of the
following statements are correct?
I) T he speed-torque relationship of a DC series motor is non-linear.
II) Both the armature current and the field current of a DC series
motor decrease with increasing load torque.
III) T he efficiency of a DC series motor is generally higher
compared to DC shunt motor.
IV) T he efficiency of a DC series motor is generally lower compared
to DC shunt motor.
Ans 1. Statements I, II and III correct
2. O nly statements I and IV are correct
3. O nly statements I and III are correct
4. Statements I, II and IV are correct
Q.71 T he ratio of the mean spherical candle power to the mean horizontal
candle power is called ________.
Ans 1. reduction factor
2. lamp efficiency
3. utilization factor
4. beam factor
Q.72 Which crop is primarily used to produce biomass alcohol fuel or
ethanol in India?
Ans 1. R ice
2. C orn
3. Sugarcane
4. W heat
Q.73 In an inductor, if the coil is wound on an insulating bobbin, without

any magnetic material as core, then the inductor is called ________.
Ans 1. variable inductor
2. air-cored inductor
3. ferrite-cored inductor
4. iron-cored inductor
Q.74
Ans 1. O nly 1 is true

2. O nly 2 is true
4. Both 1 and 2 are true
Q.75 T he efficiency of a transmission line is _____.
Ans 1. decreased with increase in load p.f.
2. independent of load p.f.
3. increased with increase in load p.f.
4. increased with decrease in load p.f
Q.76 An uneven air gap in the stator and the rotor of a squirrel cage
induction motor will lead to _________ during operation.
Ans 1. increased vibrations
2. increased current
3. increased torque
4. increased speed
Q.77 A voltage source of V(t) = (10t 3 -5t + 10 ) Volt is applied across a 10F
capacitor, the current through the capacitor at t = 2 sec is
_________.
Ans 1. 1150 A
2. 1100 A
3. 1000 A
4. 1160 A
Q.78 Which of the following statements are correct about DC welding
machines-MG Set?
I) It uses non-coated type electrodes; hence the cost of electrode is
cheap.
II) It uses coated type electrodes; hence the electrode is expensive.
III) It is best suited for welding thinner sheets (6 mm).
IV) T he initial cost of the machine is less compared to AC welding
machine.
Ans 1. I and IV
2. II and III
3. II and IV
4. I and III
Q.79 A certain length of wire has its resistance measured as 20 Ω at 20℃

and 40 Ω at 60℃. Calculate the temperature coefficient.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.80 In an induction motor if the rotor is locked, then the rotor frequency
of the induction motor will be:
Ans 1. zero
2. equal to supply frequency
3. more than supply frequency
4. less than supply frequency
Q.81 If the power factor of 500 KVA, 21 KW, 3-phase star connected
alternator is increased from its initial value, then the efficiency of
the synchronous generator will _______.
Ans 1. remain constant
2. increase
3. become zero
4. decrease
Q.82 A T hevenin equivalent source comprises of which of the following
elements?
Ans 1. A single current source in series with a resistance
2. A single voltage source in parallel with a resistance
3. A single voltage source in series with a resistance
4. A single current source in parallel with a resistance
Q.83 At light load power factor of induction motors is ________.
Ans 1. 1
2. 0.2 to 0.4
3. 0.8 to 0.9
4. 0
Q.84 Which of the following is/are true regarding the significance of the
‘barrier’ in the rotor of a synchronous reluctance motor?
1. It prevents the rotor from rotating at synchronous speed.
2. It helps to reduce eddy current losses in the rotor.
3. It increases the magnetic flux density in the rotor.
4. It improves the torque characteristics of the motor.
Ans 1. O nly 2
2. Both 2 and 4
3. O nly 1 and 4
4. Both 1 and 3
Q.85 A DC source of EMF E volts and internal resistance R ohms is

connected to a variable load and it is adjusted such that the load
absorbs maximum power from the source. T he maximum power
delivered from the source to the load is:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.86 In an unbiased pnp transistor, the barrier voltages are ___________

on the base and ___________ on the emitter and collector.
Ans 1. negative; positive
2. positive; positive
3. positive; negative
4. negative; negative
Q.87 Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Lenz’s law is based on the conservation of charge.
(b) Lenz’s law gives the direction of induced current.
(c) Lenz’s law is based on the conservation of energy.
Ans 1. Both (a) and (b)
2. Both (a) and (c)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. Both (b) and (c)
Q.88 In radial distribution system, the consumers are dependent on
________ and _________.
Ans 1. multiple feeder, multiple distributor
2. multiple feeder, single distributor
3. single feeder, multiple distributor
4. single feeder, single distributor
Q.89 Which of the following photometric quantities measures the total
amount of visible light emitted by a source in all directions?
Ans 1. Luminous intensity
2. Luminous flux
3. Illuminance
4. Luminance
Q.90 T he hysteresis torque during the working of hysteresis motor
depends on which factor?
Ans 1. Stator flux only
2. R otor flux only
3. Stator and rotor flux only

4. Stator flux, rotor flux and sine of hysteresis angle
Q.91 Cold reserve is the reserve capacity of the plant in ________ but
NOT in ________.
Ans 1. operation, operation
2. service, operation
3. service, service
4. operation, service
Q.92 T he current reverser in the earth tester converts __________.
Ans 1. D C to AC
2. AC to AC
3. D C to D C
4. AC to D C
Q.93 Eight capacitors of the same value are connected in series. T heir
equivalent capacitance is 200µF, the capacitance of each capacitor
is _________.
Ans 1. 160 µF
2. 25 µF
3. 16 µF
4. 16 × 10-4 F
Q.94 What is the reactive power of a 3-phase, delta-connected system

with line voltage of 100 V and line current of 40 A if the phase
difference between the voltage and the current is 36.87°?
Ans 1. 4.155 kVAR
2. 8.155 kVAR
3. 6.155 kVAR
4. 2.155 kVAR
Q.95 In nominal pi method, the line to neutral capacitance is:
Ans 1. assumed lumped at the receiving end
2. assumed lumped at the sending end
3. assumed lumped at the midpoint
4. divided into two halves
Q.96 What is Cold Reserve Capacity in a power system?
Ans 1. The power generating capacity that is unavailable due to
maintenance or other reasons.
2. The power generating capacity that is permanently shut down.
3. The power generating capacity that is readily available and online,
ready to be dispatched.
4. The power generating capacity that is not currently in use but can
be brought online when needed.
Q.97 With the increase in voltage level of the distribution network, the
weight and corresponding cost of the conductor material will be
_________ and _________, respectively, for the same voltage drop.
Ans 1. decreased; decreased
2. decreased; increased
3. increased; increased
4. increased; decreased
Q.98 If the station has a thermal efficiency of 30% and electrical

efficiency of 95%, find the overall efficiency of the station.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.99 In the context of electronic components, if a number of resistances

are connected and the reciprocal of the sum of individual
resistances is equal to the sum of reciprocals of individual
resistances, then the type of connection is called _______.
Ans 1. series–parallel circuit
2. parallel circuit
3. grouping circuit
4. series circuit
Q.100 Which of the following statements is NOT true about DC signal?
Ans 1. Pure D irect C urrent always has a constant value.
2. A D C voltage is always negative or always positive.
3. C ell, batteries and regulated power supplies provide a steady D C
that is ideal for an electronic circuit.
4. A D C voltage has both positive and negative values with change in
time.

Subject Junior Engineer 2024 Mechanical Paper I

Mycology : Fungi
Ans 1. O rnithology : Eggs
2. Entomology : Birds
3. Seismology : Earthquakes
4. Paedology : Planets
DMY, BKW, ZIU, XGS, ?
Ans 1. UD P
2. W C R
3. UF R
4. VE Q
Q.3
Ans 1. MXT
2. MNT
3. MUT
4. MVT
A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’
A # B means ‘A is the brother of B’
A × B means ‘A is the wife of B’
A @ B means ‘A is the father of B’
Based on the above, how is E related to M if ‘E # F × H @ G + M’?
Ans 1. Mother ’s brother
2. Father
3. Brother
4. Mother ’s father
394, 465, 536, 607, 678, ?
Ans 1. 749
2. 768
3. 756
4. 736
Q.6 T his question consists of a pair of words which have a certain
relationship to each other. Select the pair which has the same
relationship.
Altimeter : Altitudes
Ans 1. Protractor : Light
2. Fathometer : Presure
3. Taseometer : W ind
4. Hygrometer : Humidity

the letters in the word STAMPED is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. O ne
Q.8 Select the option figure that can replace the question mark (?) in
the figure given below to complete the pattern.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
interchanged?
10 + 2 − 10 ÷ 5 × 10 =?
Ans 1. 32
2. 35
3. 40
4. 45
Q.10 IMPU is related to LPSX in a certain way based on the English

alphabetical order. In the same way, BEKN is related to EHNQ. To
which of the following is CLQS related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. P LNF
2. IJS H
3. AC LK
4. F O T V
equation, if ‘+’ and ‘×’ are interchanged and ‘−’ and ‘÷’ are
interchanged?
12 + 4 − 24 × 11 ÷ 13 = ?
Ans 1. 10
2. −20
3. −10
4. 0
Q.12 In a certain code language, ‘HAIR’ is coded as ‘7935’ and ‘AGED’ is
coded as ‘4892’. What is the code for ‘A’ in the given language?
Ans 1. 3
2. 9
3. 4
4. 5
series.
6, 3, 12, 6, 24, ?, 48, 24, 96
Ans 1. 24
2. 6
3. 48
4. 12
How is B related to L if ‘B × G ÷ T + K − L’?
Ans 1. Mother ’s mother
3. Sister ’s daughter
4. Brother ’s daughter
Statements: Some cars are grass. All trucks are cars.
Conclusion 1: Some trucks are not cars.
Conclusion 2: Some trucks are grass.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion 2 follows
2. Neither conclusion 1 nor 2 follows
Q.16
Ans 1. 12
2. 14
3. 13
4. 11

Ans 1. 407
2. 417
3. 427
4. 437
Q.18 OB 8 is related to UE 3 in a certain way. In the same way, TO 11 is
related to ZR 6. To which of the following is IB 8 related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. P E 3
2. O E 3
3. O F 3
4. P F -3
following planets according to their size.
1. Mars
2. Jupiter
3. Venus
4. Earth
5. Mercury
Ans 1. 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
2. 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
3. 5, 4, 2, 1, 3
4. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
Q.20 A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting at a circular table facing the centre
(not necessarily in the same order). A is to the immediate left of B, E
is third to the right of B, D is to the immediate right of C. F is third
to the right of C.
Who are the immediate neighbours of E?
a)A and B
b)B and D
c)D and F
d)F and B
Ans 1. (a)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (b)
Q.21 A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the

centre (not necessarily in the same order). B is sitting to the
immediate right of F and immediate left of C. C is sitting to the
immediate left of E. A is sitting to the immediate right of E and to the
immediate left of D. Who is sitting to the immediate left of F?
Ans 1. D
2. B
3. C
4. A
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
INJ, LQM, OT P, RWS, ?
Ans 1. VUZ
2. VZU
3. UZV
4. UVZ
(45, 23, 73)
(19, 27, 51)
Ans 1. (31, 17, 48)
2. (12, 19, 30)
3. (22, 29, 52)
4. (16, 14, 35)
Ans 1. 187
2. 186
3. 185
4. 180
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
series based on the English alphabetical order
KMO, HJL, EGI, BDF, ?
Ans 1. YAC
2. ZAC
3. YB C
4. ZB C
NOT allowed).
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
RQO, LKI, FEC, ZYW, T SQ, ?
Ans 1. NML
2. MNK
3. NMK
4. MNL
Q.30 Madan starts from point A and drives 4 km towards the South. He
then takes a left turn and drives 5 km. he then takes a right turn and
drives 2 km. He then takes another right turn and drives 3 km. He
takes a final right turn and drives 6 km to reach point B. How far
(shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive to
reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless
specified)
Ans 1. 2 km West
2. 2 km East
3. 3 km West
4. 3 km East
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
equation if ‘+’ and ‘÷’ are interchanged and ‘×’ and ‘−’ are
interchanged?
21 ÷ 15 × 52 + 13 – 7 = ?
Ans 1. 8
2. 7
3. 12
4. 10
series?
2, 5, 13, 28, 52, 87, ?
Ans 1. 130
2. 107
3. 135
4. 98
Q.34 Jennifer starts from Point D and drives 3 km towards the north. She
then takes a left turn and drives 10 km. She then takes another left
turn and drives 6 km. She takes one more left turn and drives 5 km.
She then takes a right turn and drives 3 km. She takes a final left
turn and drives 5 km to reach point E. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should she drive in order to reach
Point D again? (All turns are 90 degree turns only, unless specified)
Ans 1. 5 km East
2. 6 km North
3. 5 km North
4. 3 km North
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.36 Six friends Abby, Bunny, Chan, Dolly, Emma and Fanny have
different weights. Dolly’s weight is an odd number. Dolly is heavier
than Emma but not the heaviest. Chan is heavier than Fanny but
lighter than Dolly. Chan is not heavier than Emma but is heavier
than Fanny and Abby. Abby’s weight is not an odd number. T he
lightest weight is 45 kilograms and the heaviest weight is 80
kilograms.
Who is the heaviest person in the group?
Ans 1. C han
2. Bunny
3. Emma
4. Abby
Q.37 LQNR is related to PURV in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, OT QU is related to SXUY. To
which of the following is GLIM related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. P K MQ
2. K P MQ
3. P Q MK
4. Q P MK

the letters in the word FOREIGN is arranged in the English
alphabetical order?
Ans 1. None
2. O ne
3. Two
4. Three
Q.39 LQKN is related to PUOR in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, INHK is related to MRLO. To
which of the following is QVPS related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. W ZT U
2. W ZUT
3. UZT W
4. UZW T
LXC, OZD, RBE, UDF, ?
Ans 1. XF G
2. YGH
3. ZD I
4. XHJ
Q.41 In a certain code language, ‘apple is healthy’ is written as ‘di jl ew’
and ‘apple is red’ is written as ‘di ko ew’. How is ‘red’ written in the
given language?
Ans 1. ko
2. jl
3. ew
4. di
Q.42 STAR is related to T WCV in a certain way based on the English
alphabetical order. In the same way, PARK is related to QDTO. To
which of the following is MILK related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. MLMO
2. NLMO
3. NLNO
4. MLNO
120-100-60
240-220-180
Ans 1. 220-210-200
2. 90-80-75
3. 200-180-140
4. 150-160-140
1. Word
2. Paragraph
3. Sentence
4. Letter
5. Phrase
Ans 1. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
2. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
3. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4
4. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
(6, 34)
(8, 46)
Ans 1. (7, 38)
2. (10, 58)
3. (12, 76)
4. (4, 24)
Statements: All frames are rocks. All rocks are clips. All clips are
towels.
Conclusion (I): All frames are towels.
Conclusion (II): At least some clips are frames.
Ans 1. O nly conclusion (I) follows
Q.47 In a certain code language, ‘FLEW’ is coded as ‘8462’ and ‘LORD’ is
What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 6
2. 4
3. 9
4. 7
(9, 576, 8)
(7, 252, 6)
Ans 1. (15, 210, 7)
2. (10, 40, 2)
3. (8, 650, 10)
4. (4, 82, 5)
Q.49 In a certain code language, ‘SANG’ is coded as ‘3618’, and ‘RANG’
is coded as ‘6438’. What is the code for ‘S’ in that language?
Ans 1. 1
2. 8
3. 3
4. 6
stands for ‘−‘, what will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the
following equation?
10 B 2 D 15 A 3 C 7 = ?
Ans 1. 22
2. 20
3. 21
4. 24

Q.1 In plant cells, which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?
Ans 1. C hloroplast
2. Mitochondrion
3. Lysosome
4. Peroxisome
Q.2 Which compound is used to neutralise fatty acids and convert them
into salts in a process called saponification?
Ans 1. Sodium acetate
2. Sodium fluoride
3. Sodium hydroxide
4. Sodium chlorate
Q.3 Which of the following values is subtracted from the numerical value
of temperature expressed in Kelvin to obtain the temperature in
degrees Celsius?
Ans 1. 293
2. 253
3. 313
4. 273
Q.4 During which years did Khalji dynasty ruled over Delhi?
Ans 1. 1290 - 1320
2. 1320 - 1414
3. 1451 - 1526
4. 1414 - 1451
Q.5 Who was elected as the 16th Speaker of the Himachal Pradesh
Legislative Assembly in January 2023?
Ans 1. Jai R am Thakur
2. Kuldeep Singh Pathania
3. Anurag Thakur
4. Suresh Bhardwaj
Q.6 Which of the following sentences is/are correct?
i. According to the Census of India 2011, the total population of India
is 141 crores.
ii. Between 1911 and 1921, there was a negative rate of growth of
India’s population.
iii. Between 1901 and 1951, the average annual growth of India’s
population did not exceed 1.33%.
Ans 1. O nly i and ii
2. O nly i and iii
3. O nly i
4. O nly ii and iii
Q.7 How do estuaries serve as critical habitats for various species?
Ans 1. Estuaries have no ecological significance.
2. Estuaries provide breeding grounds and nurseries for marine
organisms.
3. Estuaries contribute to desertification.
4. Estuaries are only important for recreational activities.
Q.8 Narmada Bachao Andolan (Save Narmada Movement) is a/an
_________________.
Ans 1. Social movement
2. government initiative
3. forest conservation movement
4. project of Jal Shakti Ministry
Q.9 Which of the following bacterial infections often affects the lungs?
Ans 1. Tuberculosis
2. Influenza
3. Meningitis
4. Herpes
Q.10 Which Chief Justice of India was sworn in as the acting President of
India on 20thJuly 1969?
Ans 1. Justice Harilal Jekisundas Kania
2. Justice M Patanjali Sastri
3. Justice Sudhi Ranjan Das
4. Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah
Q.11 Who among the following musicians received the Padma Bhushan
Award 2022 for his contributions in the field of art?
Ans 1. Madan Singh C hauhan
2. C hhannulal Mishra
3. R ashid Khan
4. Manilal Nag
Q.12 You grew a small plant in a planter. On maturity, you observed that
the plant has green stem, very few branches and the stem is so soft
that you could easily break it with your hands. Under which category
will you put this plant?
Ans 1. Tree
2. C reeper
3. Shrub
4. Herb
Q.13 Which organelle contains enzymes for digesting cellular waste and
foreign materials?
Ans 1. Nucleus
2. Mitochondrion
3. Lysosome
4. Vacuole
Q.14 Who said “a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day” about the
kingdom of Awadh?
Ans 1. Lord Mountbatten
2. Lord C urzon
3. Lord Lytton
4. Lord D alhousie
Q.15 Olympic medalist Vijender Singh belongs to which State of India?
Ans 1. Punjab
2. D elhi
3. Haryana
4. Maharashtra
Q.16 Who was the leader of the temple entry movement in 1930 at Kalaram
temple, Nashik?
Ans 1. Swami Achhutanand
2. NG R anga
3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. D r. B R Ambedkar
Q.17 Private income minus tax payment minus non-tax payment will give
us the estimate for ______.
Ans 1. private income
2. national income
3. gross income
4. personal disposable income
Q.18 Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India provides
measures to ensure the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
Ans 1. Article 19
2. Article 14
3. Article 32
4. Article 29
Q.19 T he valency of Ca is 2+. T he valency of O is 2−. What is the

simplified chemical formula of Calcium oxide?
Ans 1. C a2 O 2
2. C aO
3. C aO 2
4. C a2 O
Q.20 What is the primary focus of the ASPIRE scheme of the Ministry of
Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises, Government of India?
Ans 1. Urban development
2. Technology innovation
3. Environmental conservation
4. Establishment of livelihoods business incubation centres
Q.21 T he office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner
works under which Ministry of Government of India?
Ans 1. Ministry of Finance
2. Ministry of P ersonnel, P ublic Grievances and P ensions
3. Ministry of H ome A ffairs
4. Ministry of Social J ustice and Empowerment
Q.22 In 1800, which of the following experimental achievements was made
by William Nicholson?
Ans 1. D iscovery of electric bulb
2. D iscovery of water electrolysis
3. D iscovery of low-cost filters for polarizing light
4. D iscovery of thermionic emission
Q.23 When was Swami Vivekananda born?
Ans 1. 12 January 1853
2. 12 January 1863
3. 12 January 1866
4. 12 January 1859
Q.24 Which of the following is/are a gymnosperm?
Ans 1. Mosses
2. C ycas
3. R ose
4. Fern
Q.25 Who among the following is the author of the book published in
December 2021, ‘T he Monk Who Transformed Uttar Pradesh’?
Ans 1. Amish Tripathi
2. Shantanu Gupta
3. Shashi Tharoor
4. Yashika D utta
Q.26 Name the scheme launched by the Prime Minister on 17 September
2023 that aims to improve the lives of artisans.
Ans 1. P M Vishwakarma
2. P M Shilpgram
3. P M Anantakalpaaya
4. P M Kalashi
Q.27 Which of the following is a macronutrient?

Ans 1. Vitamins
2. C arbohydrates
3. Minerals
4. Antioxidants
Q.28 What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus?
2. Lipid production
3. Sorting and packaging of cellular products
4. C ellular respiration
Q.29 Match the following states with their percentage urban population in
India, as per Census 2011.
i) Kerala a) 10.04%
ii) Madhya Pradesh b) 47.72%
iii) Tamil Nadu c) 27.63%
iv) Himachal Pradesh d) 48.45%
Ans 1. i) d, ii) c, iii) b, iv) a
2. i) a, ii) d, iii) c, iv) b
3. i) a, ii) b, iii) c, iv) d
4. i) b, ii) c, iii) d, iv) a
Q.30 It is a fact that if you drink from a plastic bottle and throw it in the
dustbin, it will still be there when your grandchildren are old. What
is the reason behind this?
Ans 1. Plastics are biodegradable.
2. Plastics are radioactive.
3. Plastics are non-biodegradable.
4. Plastics are heavy metals.
Q.31 _________ is referred to as paper taxes.
Ans 1. Gift tax
2. C orporation tax
3. C ustoms duty
4. Excise tax
Q.32 If an earthquake happens at the sea floor and one tectonic plate
dips under the another, this will most probably lead to a natural
disaster known as:
Ans 1. Tsunami
2. Typhoon
3. Tornado
4. C yclone
Q.33 Name the first Finance Minister of independent India, whose statue
was inaugurated by the Union Textiles Minister in Coimbatore .
Ans 1. R K Shanmugam C hetty
2. C D D eshmukh
3. T T Krishnamachari
4. Sachindra C haudhuri
Q.34 T he National Defense Fund is governed by an Executive

Committee, which is chaired by the:
Ans 1. President
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice President
4. D efence Minister
Q.35 Which of the following is the correct option for using 'justify'
alignment to a paragraph in a document?
Ans 1. Aligns text only to the left
2. Aligns text only to the right
3. Aligns text to both left and right edges
4. Align text in the center
Q.36 T he total number of bishops in a chess game is _____.
Ans 1. one
2. two
3. three
4. four
Q.37 What is the SI unit of force?
Ans 1. Volt
2. Joule
3. Newton
4. Watt
Q.38 Which of the following is the shortcut key to create a new paragraph
in MS Word?
Ans 1. C trl + N
2. C trl + P
3. Enter
4. Shift + Enter
Q.39 Which of the following is a heart-related disease?
Ans 1. D iabetes
2. Angina
3. Acromegaly
4. Goiter
Q.40 Sange Meel Se Mulaqat is a documentary on the life of
_______________, directed by Gautam Ghosh.
Ans 1. Pandit Biswajit R oy C howdhury
2. Pandit Bismillah Khan
3. Pandit R am Narayan
4. Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
Q.41 Which of the following Ministers introduced the Central Goods and
Services Tax (Amendment) Bill 2023 and the Integrated Goods and
Services Tax (Amendment) Bill 2023 in the Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. Nirmala Sitharaman
2. Harpal Singh
3. Bikram Keshari Arukha
4. Manohar Lal Khattar
Q.42 Arachnids belong to which subphylum of the phylum Arthropoda?
Ans 1. Hexapoda
2. C helicerata
3. Myriapoda
4. C rustacea
Q.43 T he particles that form the main part of the nucleus of an atom are
together known as:
Ans 1. ions
2. nucleons
3. electrons
4. isotopes
Q.44 Which of the following committees was responsible for making
recommendations that led to the 42nd Constitutional Amendment for
the declaration of Fundamental Duties?
Ans 1. Swaran Singh C ommittee
2. Abid Hussain C ommittee
3. Khusro C ommittee
4. R aja C helliah C ommittee
Q.45 Which are the two major branches of the southwest monsoon in
India?
Ans 1. The Arabian Sea branch and the Tibetan plateau branch
2. The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch
3. The Himalayan Mountain branch and the Gulf of Mannar branch
4. The Tibetan plateau branch and the Bay of Bengal branch
Q.46 Identify the INCORRECT pair (railway zone and headquarters) from
the following.
Ans 1. C entral R ailway Zone – Kolkata
2. South-East C entral R ailway Zone – Bilaspur
3. South Western R ailway Zone – Hubli
4. North Western R ailway Zone – Jaipur
Q.47 Who introduced the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Bill,
2023, in the Lok Sabha?
Ans 1. D r. Jitender Singh
2. Gopal R ai
3. Imran Hussain
4. Piyush Goyal
Q.48 Which of the following places receives rainfall from the Bay of
Bengal branch of southwest monsoon?
Ans 1. Panaji
2. Surat
3. R atnagiri
4. Kolkata
Q.49 T he government of which of the following states launched the ‘Nand

Baba Milk Mission’ scheme in June 2023?
Ans 1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Uttar Pradesh
Q.50 To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired our national
struggle for freedom is a ________ fundamental duty in the list of
fundamental duties enshrined in our Indian Constitution.
Ans 1. first
2. second
3. third
4. fourth
Section : General Engineering Mechanical

Q.1 If there is flow of real fluid at fixed boundary, then no-slip condition:
Ans 1. does not occur
2. may or may not occur
3. depends on the type of flow
4. occurs
Q.2 T he Kelvin-Planck statement of the Second Law states that
________.
Ans 1. work can be converted completely into heat
2. it is impossible to convert all the heat absorbed from a single
reservoir into work
3. heat cannot flow spontaneously from a colder body to a hotter body
4. it is possible to convert all the heat absorbed from a single
reservoir into work
Q.3 A drill bit of diameter 25 mm has cutting speed of 15.7 m/min. What is
the speed of rotation of drill?
Ans 1. 200 R P M
2. 400 R P M
3. 314 R P M
4. 500 R P M
Q.4 Which of the following is NOT a lathe turning operation?
Ans 1. Sawing
2. Grooving
3. Facing
4. Threading
Q.5 If the power output of a hydraulic turbine is 100 kW and overall
efficiency is 50%, then what will be the power supplied at the inlet of
the turbine?
Ans 1. 150 kW
2. 250 kW
3. 50 kW
4. 200 kW
Q.6 A cooling system is essentially required in internal combustion

engines to __________.
Ans 1. keep the engine very hot or very cool
2. remove heat at a faster rate when engine is hot
3. remove about 70% of heat generated in the combustion chamber
4. remove heat at a faster rate when the engine is cool
Q.7 What will be the power lost in friction assuming uniform pressure
theory, when a vertical shaft of 100 mm diameter rotating at 150
r.p.m. rests on a flat end foot step bearing? T he coefficient of
friction is equal to 0.05 and the shaft carries a vertical load of 15
KN.
Ans 1. 392.7 W
2. 39.27 W
3. 392.7 K W
4. 39.27 K W
Q.8 Which of the following is the correct designation of the refrigerant
CCl 3 F?
Ans 1. R 22
2. R 21
3. R 11
4. R 12
Q.9 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the air pre-
heater in a steam boiler?
Ans 1. In the regenerative type of air pre-heater, heat from flue gases is
transferred to air through an intermediate heat storage medium.
2. In the tubular type of air pre-heater, hot flue gases flow in the
direction opposite to that of air travel.
3. Use of the air pre-heater leads to less atmospheric pollution.
4. In the tubular type of air pre-heater, hot flue gases flow through the
outside of the tubes of the air pre-heater.
Q.10 Which of the following statements are correct regarding the
characteristics of Entropy?
1)It increases when heat is supplied irrespective of the fact whether
temperature changes or not.
2)It decreases when heat is removed whether temperature changes
or not.
3)It remains unchanged in all adiabatic frictionless processes.
4)It increases if temperature of heat is lowered without work being
done as in a throttling process.
2. O nly 1, 2 and 3
3. O nly 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q.11 In which of the following compressors, the top cover is bolted to the
compressor housing instead of the welded steel shell?
Ans 1. Semi-hermetic sealed compressor
2. Axial compressor
3. O pen compressor
4. Hermetic sealed compressor
Q.12 What is the main benefit of double volute casing over single volute
casing of a centrifugal pump?
Ans 1. R adial load balancing
2. Less power requirement
3. High efficiency
4. High discharge
Q.13 Which of the following gas combination is commonly used in oxyfuel-
gas welding?
Ans 1. O xygen and Nitrogen
2. O xygen and C O2
3. O xygen and H2
4. O xygen and acetylene
Q.14 T he casting process that employs a permanent metal or ceramic
mould, is ________.
Ans 1. investment casting
2. sand casting
3. die casting
4. centrifugal casting
Q.15 For measurement of dryness fraction of steam, use of a separating
calorimeter is suitable _______.
Ans 1. for any condition of steam
2. when dryness fraction is greater than 1
3. when dryness fraction is less than 0.95
4. when dryness fraction is greater than 0.95
Q.16 T he conventional depth of a cut considered in the parting operation
using a lathe is ________.
Ans 1. 1 mm to 2 mm
2. 3 mm to 10 mm
3. 12 mm to 16 mm
4. 20 mm to 25 mm
Q.17 Which of the following statements is true about hit and miss
governing?
Ans 1. In this method of governing, none of the cycles should be idle
throughout the running of engine.
2. It increases the efficiency of engine.
3. This method of governing requires higher weight of flywheel.
4. It is a suitable governing method for heavy IC engines.
Q.18 What will be the value of the axial thrust on a wheel when there is
no blade friction?
Ans 1. Maximum
2. Minimum
3. Equal to the tangential force on the blade
4. Zero
Q.19 Which of the following statements is correct about the location of
centre of pressure?
Ans 1. C entre of pressure coincides with the centre of gravity of the
vertically immersed surface.
2. C entre of pressure may lie at any location irrespective of the centre
of gravity of the vertically immersed surface.
3. C entre of pressure lies below the centre of gravity of the vertically
immersed surface.
4. C entre of pressure lies above the centre of gravity of the vertically
immersed surface.
Q.20 Which of the following is NOT an example of Newtonian fluid?
Ans 1. Air
2. Kerosene
3. Water
4. Printer's ink
Q.21 A closed system undergoes a cycle consisting of two processes.
Process 1-2 is an isothermal expansion whereas Process 2-1 is an
isentropic compression. According to the first law of
thermodynamics, which of the following statements is true for this
cycle?
Ans 1. Work done during Process 2-1 is zero.
2. Work done during Process 1-2 is zero.
3. Heat transfer during Process 2-1 is zero.
4. Heat transfer during Process 1-2 is zero.
Q.22 For the H-S diagram of a vapour compression refrigeration cycle,
the specific enthalpy of the refrigerant coming out from the
compressor ________.
Ans 1. decreases
2. remains constant
3. may increase or decrease
4. increases
Q.23 In a Hartnell governor, if a spring of greater stiffness is used, then
the governor will be:
Ans 1. insensitive
2. Isochronous
3. less sensitive
4. more sensitive
Q.24 A cantilever beam of length 2 m is subjected to a point load of 3 kN
at a distance of 2 m and is subjected to a UDL of 3 kN/m for a total
distance of 1.5 m from the fixed end. Calculate the shear force and
bending moment at the fixed end.
Ans 1. −5.75 kN, −5.545 kN-m
2. −7.5 kN, −9.375 kN-m
3. −10 kN, 15.254 kN-m
4. −12.5 kN, −8.547 kN-m
Q.25 In which of the following areas is supercharging NOT so important?
Ans 1. R acing cars
2. Marine and automotive engines where weight and space are
important
3. D omestic bikes
4. Engines working at high altitudes
Q.26 T he heat rejection in Stirling cycle takes place at:
Ans 1. constant enthalpy
2. constant pressure
3. constant volume
4. constant temperature
Q.27 T he distance of the centre of pressure from the free surface of the
liquid is independent of the:
Ans 1. depth of the centre of gravity from the free surface
2. moment of inertia about the centre of gravity
3. density of liquid
4. area exposed to the liquid
Q.28 T he overall efficiency of the turbine is given by:
Ans 1. overall efficiency = mechanical efficiency2 / hydraulic efficiency2
2. overall efficiency = mechanical efficiency /hydraulic efficiency
3. overall efficiency = hydraulic efficiency / mechanical efficiency
4. overall efficiency = hydraulic efficiency × mechanical efficiency
Q.29 In actual air-conditioning applications, the heat rejection factor
depends upon the:
Ans 1. evaporator temperature
2. evaporator and condenser temperatures
3. rate of flow
4. condenser temperature
Q.30 Which of the following statements best describes the second law of
thermodynamics in relation to cyclic heat and work processes?
Ans 1. In a cyclic process, the net heat transfer is always less than the net
work done.
2. In a cyclic process, the net work output can be equal to, greater
than or less than the net heat input, depending on the efficiency of the
process.
3. In a cyclic process, the net heat transfer is equal to the net work
done.
4. In a cyclic process, the net heat transfer is always greater than the
net work done.
Q.31 T he distance of centre of pressure from free surface of liquid is
independent of:
Ans 1. the distance of C .G. from free surface of liquid
2. the surface area
3. the density of liquid
4. the moment of inertia
Q.32 Isochronism in a governor is desirable when _____.
Ans 1. the engine operates at low speeds
2. the engine operates at high speeds
3. one speed is desired under one load
4. the engine is just getting started
Q.33 Calculate the polar moment of inertia and the maximum torque
transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter 100 mm and length 1.0 m. Let
the angle of twist be 2° and the modulus of rigidity, G = 80 GPa.
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.34 Which of the following is the effect of frictional resistance to the

flow of the steam jet over the blade in steam turbines?
Ans 1. The velocity of flow at the outlet to the moving blade is greater than
that of flow at the inlet to the moving blade.
2. The velocity of flow at the outlet to the moving blade is equal to that
of flow at the inlet to the moving blade.
3. There is no effect of frictional resistance to the flow of the steam jet
over the blade.
4. The velocity of flow at the outlet to the moving blade is less than
that of flow at the inlet to the moving blade.
Q.35 Which part of the arc welding element/equipment is consumable?
Ans 1. Electrical cables
2. Electrode holder
3. AC /D C transformer
4. Electrode
Q.36 In a boiler test, the water supplied to a boiler per hour is 2250 kg.
T he mass of water in the boiler at the end of the one hour is found
to be less than that at commencement by 250 kg. T he coal burnt per
hour is 250 kg. What will be the actual evaporation per kg of the fuel
burnt of the boiler?
Ans 1. 2500 kg
2. 8 kg
3. 250 kg
4. 10 kg
Q.37 T he heat transfer during constant pressure heating of a gas in a
cylinder containing a sliding piston is equal to _______.
Ans 1. zero
2. the change in internal energy
3. the work done by the piston
4. the change in enthalpy
Q.38 T he manometric head of a centrifugal pump is independent of which
of the following factors?
Ans 1. Frictional head loss in suction pipe
2. Frictional losses in bearings
3. Frictional head loss in delivery pipe
4. Loss of head in impeller and casing
Q.39 When pressure is measured above the atmospheric pressure, it is
termed as:
Ans 1. vacuum pressure
3. gauge pressure
4. stagnation pressure
Q.40 T he brake power of an engine can be measured by using a rope
brake dynamometer. It is given by the expression: (Where, ‘D’ is
diameter of the brake drum; ‘W’ is the weight and ‘S’ is the spring
scale reading, ‘N’ Speed in rpm)
Ans 1. D N (W − S)
2. D N (W + S)
3. πD N (W + S)
4. πD N (W − S)
Q.41 Which of the following factors is taken into consideration when

determining the maximum suction height of a centrifugal pump?
Ans 1. C avitation
2. Mechanical efficiency
3. Manometric efficiency
4. Priming
Q.42
Ans 1. The flow is adiabatic in steam nozzles.

2. The equation considers frictional losses in the steam nozzle.
3. The equation is the steady flow energy equation for steam nozzles.
4. There is no mechanical work done by the steam nozzle.
Q.43 Which of the following is NOT the application for steam in industry?
Ans 1. Propulsion
2. Humidification
3. D e-atomisation
4. Heating
Q.44 T he zeroth law of thermodynamics is based on the concept of
___________.
Ans 1. heat capacity
2. enthalpy
3. temperature
4. entropy
Q.45 Which of the following refrigeration lubricants were the first
synthetic oils to be used in the refrigeration industry?
Ans 1. Alkylbenzenes oil
2. Mineral oil
3. Polyol ester oil
4. Poly alkylene glycol oil
Q.46 T he fluid that becomes less viscous as it is sheared harder is called
_________.
Ans 1. dilatant fluid
2. thixotropic fluid
3. Newtonian fluid
4. pseudo-plastic fluid
Q.47 ‘No slip condition’ at a fixed surface is applicable to the flow of
which type of fluids?
Ans 1. O nly ideal fluids
2. O nly Newtonian fluids
3. All non-Newtonian fluids
4. All real fluids
Q.48 For the laminar flow through circular pipes, shear stress distribution
across a section is _________ .
Ans 1. cubic
2. logarithmic
3. linear
4. parabolic
Q.49 T he mist lubrication system is generally used for _____.
Ans 1. air refrigeration cycle engine
2. gas engine
3. four stroke cycle engine
4. two stroke cycle engine
Q.50 In the vapour compression refrigeration cycle with dry saturated
vapour after compression, the entropy at the end of compression is
the same as the _________.
Ans 1. entropy at the end of evaporation
2. entropy at the end of condensation
3. entropy at the end of expansion
4. entropy at the start of expansion
Q.51 Which of the following is NOT a frequent pattern-making process in
manufacturing?
Ans 1. Sweep pattern
2. Investment pattern
3. Match plate pattern
4. Welding pattern
Q.52 Which of the following statements is true about quantity governing?
Ans 1. The compression ratio varies with charge supplied.
2. The mixture strength remains the same with variation in the speed
of the engine.
3. This method is mostly preferred for diesel engines.
4. D ue to quantity governing, the engine efficiency is altered.
Q.53 When a system is undergoing constant volume process, then heat
transfer is equal to:
Ans 1. change in internal energy
2. change in entropy
3. work transfer
4. change in enthalpy
Q.54 Which of the following impellers are best suited to medium sized
pumps with a small amount of soft solids?
Ans 1. C losed impellers
2. O pen impellers
3. Semi-open impellers
4. Semi-closed impellers
Q.55 Which of the following does NOT indicate that the refrigeration
plant has to be charged with the refrigerant?
Ans 1. Short cycling of compressor
2. R eduction in the efficiency of the plant
3. High suction pressure
4. D ifficult to maintain temperature of rooms and holds
Q.56 If N is the speed of the compressor in RPM, then what will be the
isentropic power for a double acting compressor? Where W = work
required by the compressor.
Ans 1. W N/2
2. W N
3. 2W N/60
4. W N/60
Q.57 A sample of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally from volume of
4 l to 2 l. If the initial pressure is 2 atm, what is the final pressure?
Ans 1. 4 atm
2. 1 atm
3. 2 atm
4. 8 atm
Q.58 In a hot working process, metals are deformed _________.
Ans 1. at their recrystallisation temperature
2. below their recrystallisation temperature

3. at any recrystallisation temperature
4. above their recrystallisation temperature
Q.59 Which of the following is NOT a part of a bucket type steam trap?
Ans 1. Guide tube
2. Spiral vane
3. Float
4. Injector
Q.60 In the porter governor, the main constituent of controlling force is:
Ans 1. friction force
2. spring force
3. mass of sleeve
4. mass of flyball
Q.61 In case of a four-stroke diesel engine, the valve timing diagram is
expressed in terms of _____.
Ans 1. the linear movement of the piston with respect to T D C and B D C
2. the time taken for opening and closing of the valve with respect to
only T D C
3. the degree of the crank angle at the time of opening and closing of
the valve
4. the time taken for opening and closing of the valve with respect to
T D C and B D C
Q.62 Which of the following options is correct about four-stroke engines
when compared with two-stroke engines?
Ans 1. Thermal efficiency is higher.
2. The thermodynamic cycle is completed in two strokes of the piston
or in one revolution of the crankshaft.
3. Lower volumetric efficiency due to lesser time taken for mixture
intake
4. Light weight and simplicity due to absence of the valve actuating
mechanism, with the initial cost of the engine being low
Q.63 Which of the following is used to increase the temperature of steam

above its saturation temperature?
Ans 1. Superheater
2. Steam dryer
3. Economiser
4. Air pre-heater
Q.64 Under which of the following conditions does the Francis turbine
operate?
Ans 1. High head and high discharge
2. Medium head and medium discharge
3. Low head and high discharge
4. High head and low discharge
Q.65 T he location of centre of gravity for a sphere of radius (R) from the
geometrical centre is at a distance of:
Ans 1. 0.5R
2. R
3. 0.25R
4. 0
Q.66 T he function of a halide torch is:
Ans 1. detecting leakage of the refrigerant
2. defrosting of the cooling coil
3. superheating the vapour refrigerant
4. facilitating better lubrication in the refrigerator
Q.67
Determine the stress induced in the steel bars of reinforced
concrete structure, if the modular ratio for steel and concrete is 14.5
and the stress applied on the concrete is 2.5 MPa.
Ans 1. 30.25 MPa
2. 24.50 MPa
3. 36.25 MPa
4. 42.75 MPa
Q.68 Total gradient line (or total energy line) is parallel to hydraulic
gradient line with a vertical distance of _______________. (T he
symbols have their usual meanings.)
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.69 In a milling machine, bulky workpieces of irregular shapes are

clamped directly on the milling machine table by using ________.
Ans 1. V-blocks
2. T-bolts and clamps
3. swivel vise
4. angle plates
Q.70 Which of the following prevents the high-pressure vapour
refrigerant from flowing back to the evaporator in rotating blade
type rotary compressor?
Ans 1. Throttling valve
2. Pressure valve
3. C heck valve
4. Safety valve
Q.71 What will not happen if the liquid has greater adhesion than
cohesion?
Ans 1. The angle of contact will be less than 90° in a small diameter tube.
2. Liquid will wet a solid surface.
3. Liquid will tend to rise at the point of contact.
4. Liquid surface will be concave downwards in a small diameter tube.
Q.72 Which of the following evaporators are used for refrigeration units
of 2 to 250 T R capacity?
Ans 1. Flooded shell and tube evaporators
2. Shell and coil evaporators
3. D ry expansion shell and tube evaporators
4. Plate evaporators
Q.73 T he Kaplan turbine is an example of _________ .
Ans 1. mixed-flow turbine
2. radial flow turbine
3. tangential flow turbine
4. axial flow turbine
Q.74 T he maximum frictional force that comes in play when a body just
begins to slide over the surface of another body is called:
Ans 1. dynamic friction
2. limiting friction
3. static friction
4. kinetic friction
Q.75 Which of the following assertions related to drilling is true?
Ans 1. D rilling is a process that uses a hammer to make a hole in a
workpiece.
2. D rilling is a process that uses a rotating tool to make a hole in a
workpiece.
3. D rilling is a process that uses a saw to make a hole in a workpiece.
4. D rilling is a process that uses a non-rotating tool to make a hole in
a workpiece.
Q.76 When the compressor and motor operate on the same shaft and are
enclosed in a common casing, they are known as ___________.
Ans 1. hermetic sealed compressors
2. reciprocating compressors
3. axial compressors
4. centrifugal compressors
Q.77 Name the welding defect in which we observe a long and continuous
visual separation line between the base metal and the heat affected
zone.
Ans 1. Undercut
2. Lamellar tearing
3. Incomplete fusion
4. Hot cracking
Q.78 Which of the following statements is true about an SI engine in
comparison to a CI engine?
Ans 1. The operating speed is very high.
2. The air-fuel ratio is high.
3. The compression ratio is comparatively high.
4. The cost of running is comparatively low.
Q.79 In the process of brazing, the filler metal is drawn into the joint by
means of ________.
Ans 1. High diffusion
2. C apillary action
3. Surface tension
4. Low viscosity
Q.80 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about no slip
boundary condition?
Ans 1. D uring no slip condition the fluid velocity at all fluid–solid
boundaries is equal to that of the solid boundary.
2. In case of the no slip boundary condition at a fixed solid boundary,
the fluid will have zero velocity.
3. In case of the no slip boundary condition at a fixed solid boundary,
the fluid will have some velocity relative to the boundary.
4. The no slip condition can be defined for viscous flows.
Q.81 T he volumetric efficiency of a single-stage reciprocating air
compressor is the ratio of the:
Ans 1. displacement of the compressor to the free air delivered
2. swept volume to the effective swept volume
3. swept volume to the clearance volume
4. free air delivered to the displacement of the compressor
Q.82 A complex geometry is placed in the X-Y plane. If the geometry is
found to be symmetrical about the Y-axis, then which of the
following is correct to calculate the centre of gravity?
Ans 1. X co-ordinate is zero
2. Z co-ordinate is a non-zero value
3. X co-ordinate is a non-zero value
4. Y co-ordinate is zero
Q.83 Which of the following statements is true about the fuel feed pump
used for diesel engines?
Ans 1. W hen the plunger of the feed pump is lifted upwards, the inlet valve
remains open. Therefore, it is not suitable to inject fuel at that time.
2. It is a centrifugal type pump.
3. The plunger of the fuel feed pump is actuated by the governor.
4. It is a spring-loaded, plunger type reciprocating pump.
Q.84 Carbon steel contains a carbon percentage of about 0.21%. T he
possible type of carbon steel is ___________________ .
Ans 1. mild steel
2. stainless steel
3. alloy steel
4. medium carbon steel
Q.85 T he surging phenomenon in a centrifugal compressor occurs when
the refrigeration load decreases to below:
Ans 1. 55% of the rated capacity
2. 45% of the rated capacity
Q.86 When the fluid pressure is measured above the absolute zero
pressure, the measured pressure is known as _________ .
Ans 1. vacuum pressure
4. gauge pressure
Q.87 A cyclic heat engine takes 40 kJ of heat from a 100°C temperature
reservoir. If it gives 40 kJ of work, then which of the following
statements is correct?
Ans 1. The engine violates the Kelvin Planck’s statement
2. The engine violates the 1st law of thermodynamics.
3. The engine violates the C lausius statement.
4. The engine violates 1st law of thermodynamics as well as Kelvin
Planck’s statement.
Q.88 Variation of power input with speed at constant discharge in case of
a centrifugal pump is _______________.
Ans 1. linear
2. cubic
3. logarithmic
4. parabolic
Q.89 T he process that involves passage of a higher-pressure fluid
through a narrow constriction is called:
Ans 1. polytropic process
2. throttling process
3. hyperbolic process
4. free expansion process
Q.90 Which of the following machines violates the Kelvin Planck’s

statement?
Ans 1. P MM1
2. Irreversible heat engine
3. P MM2
4. R eversible heat engine
Q.91 Which of the following is the assumption of Air Standard Cycles?
Ans 1. The working medium has variable specific heat with varying
temperature
2. The working medium is assumed to be a real gas
3. Some heat is assumed to be rejected to a constant low
temperature sink
4. Heat is assumed to be supplied from chemical reactions during the
cycle
Q.92 In the battery ignition system for SI engines, with increase in the
speed, the ________.
Ans 1. sparking voltage remains the same
2. sparking voltage first increases and then becomes constant
3. sparking voltage drops
4. sparking voltage increases
Q.93 If a point is to be at the free surface of a liquid open to the
atmosphere, where the pressure is the atmospheric pressure P atm,
then the gauge pressure at a depth ‘h’ from the free surface
becomes:
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Q.94 T he mass transfer process in an open system is commonly modelled

using the ______ equation.
Ans 1. zeroth law of thermodynamics
2. third law of thermodynamics
3. mass balance
4. second law of thermodynamics
Q.95 T he given figure shows the p-V diagram of:
Ans 1. vapour absorption refrigeration system

2. Electrolux refrigeration system
3. vapour compression refrigeration system
4. aircraft refrigeration system
Q.96 Which of the following is NOT a type of sawing?

Ans 1. C ircular sawing
2. Straight sawing
3. Band sawing
4. Hack sawing
Q.97 Which of the following is correct for Pelton wheel?
Where, α & β = guide blade angle at inlet and outlet, respectively
ϴ & ɸ = vane angle at inlet and outlet, respectively
Ans 1. α =0° and β = 0°
2. α =0° and ϴ = 0°
3. β =0° and ɸ = 0°
4. α =0° and ɸ = 0°
Q.98 Which of the following claims about the irreversibility of a system is
true?
Ans 1. Irreversible processes violate the zeroth law of thermodynamics.
2. Irreversible processes violate the first law of thermodynamics.
3. Irreversible processes increase the entropy of the system.
4. Irreversible processes are always spontaneous.
Q.99 T he casting process that employs a wax pattern coated with a
ceramic shell to make the mould, is ________.
Ans 1. centrifugal casting
2. sand casting
3. die casting
4. investment casting
Q.100 Enthalpy of a system in an open flow is given by h = u + pv, where pv
is the _________.
Ans 1. flow work
2. momentum energy
3. external work
4. moving boundary work

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Junior Engineer Civil Mechanical and Electrical Examination 2024 Paper I

Exam Date 07/06/2024

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.5 In a certain code language,

Q.13 In a certain code language, ‘BORN’ is coded as ‘6248’ and ‘NEST ’ is

Q.15 AF 19 is related to CH 16 in a certain way. In the same way, GL 23 is

Q.18 T he position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each of

ACKP, GIQV, MOWB, SUCH, ?

Q.35 LMNB is related to PQRF in a certain way based on the English

Ans 1. Both statements I and II follow.

Section : General Awareness

A. Igneous rocks are used as fuel by igniting them.

Q.6 When was the 'Vivad se Vishwas II (Contractual Disputes)' scheme

Q.14 T he type of carbohydrate predominantly found in potatoes is

Q.16 T he Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill 2023 aims

Q.21 T he National Lata Mangeshkar Award 2021 was given to:

Q.29 Pandit Kumar Gandharva received the ________________________ in

Q.35 T he primary function of which globular structure is to produce and

Section : General Engineering Civil and Structural

Q.6 As per IS 10262 : 2019, what is the approximate amount of entrapped

Q.8 Which of the following tests is commonly used to measure the

Q.17 Which of the following statements is true regarding the compensator

Q.26 In a soil’s three-phase diagram, the constituents of soil are:

Q.32 As per IS 3129-1985, the permissible tolerance for the length of

Q.38 In case of unavailability of space for providing development length

Q.40 What is the major function of a water distribution system?

Ans 1. A-1, B-3, C -2

Q.58 In which type of seasoning is timber immersed in a solution of

Q.60 According to the Newton’s law of viscosity, the shear stress of a

Q.62 A 15 cm diameter orifice discharging from a tank issues out a jet of

Q.67 Which method is used for the preparation of detailed estimate?

Ans 1. Major R oad

Ans 1. 0.0003 radians

4. Both statements I and II are false

Junior Engineer Civil Mechanical and Electrical Examination 2024 Paper I

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.2 EHDL is related to ILZH in a certain way based on the English

Q.5 What should come in place of ? in the given series?

Q.21 E, F, G, H, P, Q, and R, are sitting around a circular table facing the

(T he words must be considered as meaningful English words and

(NOT E: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers,

(NOT E: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers,

Section : General Awareness

Q.10 T he process of measuring various physical and chemical properties

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.17 Which of the following is the structural and functional unit of an

3. Somatic cells do not contain any chromosome while reproductive cells

Q.39 Which term refers to the increasing concentration of toxins within

Q.44 Which of the following is a popular email client software?

Ans 1. Microsoft Word

Q.47 T he central government, in 2021, set up an eight-member panel for

Section : General Engineering Electrical

Q.3 T he AC ripples can be reduced in a rectifier circuit by using

Q.10 Which of the following testing methods is NOT used to test an AC

Q.16 T he torque developed in the squirrel cage induction motor with

Ans 1. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28 Which of the following is true for the performance analysis of

Q.34 Medium transmission lines CANNOT be analysed by using which of

Q.38 Chargeable expenses are occasionally also termed as _____.