5th Test (18 Dec 2023)

https://t.
me/RCCtestseries
CHAMPIONS are not supernaturals,

they just fight for one more second
when everyone else quits.
Sometimes one more second of our effort
gives us victory.... Do your best.
Mark Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) Date : 18/12/2023

720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 05(43) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.
(Write this number
R-33 on your Answer
Sheet)
• Today’s Test Syllabus •

Physics : Units and Measurements + Scalars and Vectors + Kinetic Theory Of Gases + Thermodynamics + Heat
Transfer + Circular Motion + Laws of Motion + Friction
Chemistry : Mole Concept + Structure of Atom + Chemical Bonding + G.O.C. (Complete)
Biology : Animal Kingdom + The Living World + Cell : The Unit of Life + Plant Kingdom + Breathing and Exchange
of Gases + Morphology of Flowering Plants
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 20/12/2023
Physics : Rotational Motion + Centre of Mass + Collision
Chemistry : Periodic Table + p-Block Elements (Group : 13, 14)
Biology : Anatomy of Flowering Plants + Structural Organisation In Animals
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC
PHYSICS 3. An expression for a dimensionless quantity

Section : A
  kt 
1. Statement-1 : Astronomical unit (Au), Parsec (Pc) P is given by P  log e   ; where  and 
and Light year (ly) are units for measuring
  x 
astronomical distances. [ NCERT Page-21] are constants, x is distance; k is Boltzmann
Statement-2 : Au < Parsec (Pc) < ly. constant and t is the temperature. Then the
1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct dimensions of  will be [ NCERT Page-32]
0 –1
1) [M L T ] 0 2) [ML T–2]
0
2) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is
3) [MLT ]–2 4) [ML2T–2]
incorrect
3) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are 4. A vector in x-y plane makes an angle of 30°
incorrect with y-axis. The magnitude of y-component of
4) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is vector is 2 3 . The magnitude of x-component
correct
of the vector will be [ NCERT Page-71]
2. If the relation between distance x and time t
is gien by t = 2x2 + 3x, then the retardation of 1
particle is proportional to [ NCERT Page-46] 1) 2) 6
3
1) v3 2) v2
3) v–3 4) v3/2 3) 3 4) 2
PCB TEST : 05(43) 1 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : R-33
 10. Find acceleration of the particle at x = 6 m.
5. When vector A  2iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ is subtracted
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**

from vector B , it gives a vector equal to 2 jˆ .

Then the magnitude of vector B will be
[ NCERT Page-71] [ NCERT Page-46]
1) 13 2) 3
3) 6 4) None

6. What will be the projection of vector A  iˆ  ˆj  kˆ 5 7
2 2
 1)  m/s 2)  m/s
on vector B  iˆ  jˆ ? [ NCERT Page-151] 2 2
1) 2(iˆ  ˆj  kˆ ) 2) 2(iˆ  ˆj  kˆ )
7 4
3) m/s 2 4) m/s 2
3) 2(iˆ  ˆj ) 4) (iˆ  ˆj ) 4 3
7. The velocity of a point moving in a straight
line is v = (12t – 3t2) m/s. Find the path length 11. A river is flowing with
covered by the point from the beginning of a speed of 1 km/hr. A
motion to the instant of stop. [ NCERT Page-44] swimmer wants to
1) 24 m 2) 18 m 3) 16 m 4) 32 m go to point C starting
8. Match the following : [ NCERT Page-31] from A. He swims with
Column-I Column-II
a speed of 5 km/hr at an angle  w.r.t. the river
a. Surface tension p. Kg m —1 s —1 flow. If AB = BC = 400 m, find the value of
b. Pressure q. Kg m s —1 10 cos . [ NCERT Page-86]
c. Viscosity r. Kg m —1 s —2 1) 2 2) 5
d. Impulse s. Kg s —2 3) 8 4) 6
1) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p 2) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q 12. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of
3) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q 4) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s 20 ms–1 relative to the air. A person is running in
9. Which of the following graphs are not the rain with a velocity of 5 ms–1 and a wind is
possible for uniform accelerated motion? also blowing with a speed of 15 ms –1 (both
towards east). Find the angle with the vertical at
which the person should hold his umbrella so
that he may not get drenched. [ NCERT Page-86]
1) tan 1 ( 2) 2) tan 1 (1 / 2)
[ NCERT Page-57]
1) P, Q, R, S 2) P, R, S
3) P, Q, R 4) Q, R, S 3) tan 1 ( 3) 4) 45°
Space For Rough Work
PCB TEST : 05(43) 2 Date : 18/12/2023

13. A soft ball is thrown at an angle () of 60° above 16. Water in a bucket is whirled in a vertical circle
the horizontal. It lands a distances d = 2 m with a string attached to it. The water does
from the edge of a flat roof, whose height is h = not fall down even when the bucket is inverted
20 m; the edge of the roof is l = 38 m from the at the top of its path. We conclude that in this
thrower as shown in figure. At what speed (in position [ NCERT Page-104]
m/s) was the soft ball thrown? [ NCERT Page-78] 1) mg = mv2/r
2) mg is greater than mv2/r
3) mg is not greater than mv2/r
4) mg is not less than mv2/r
17. A train A runs from east to west and another
train B of the same mass runs from west to
east at the same speed along the equator. A
presses the track with a force F1 and B presses
the track with a force F2. [ NCERT Page-104]
1) F1 > F2 2) F1 < F2
1) 25 2) 50 3) F1 = F2 4) insufficient data
3) 30 4) 40 
14. Two stones are projected with the same speed 18. A force F  6t 2 iˆ  4t jˆ is acting on a particle
but making different angles with the of mass 3 kg and the particle is at rest at t = 0,
horizontal. Their horizontal ranges are equal. the velocity of the particle at t = 3 sec
The angle of projection of one is /3 and the [ NCERT Page-96]
maximum height reached by it is 102 m. Then
1) 18iˆ  6 ˆj 2) 18iˆ  12 ˆj
the maximum height reached by the other in
metre is [ NCERT Page 78] 3) 12iˆ  6 ˆj 4) None of these
1) 336 2) 224
3) 56 4) 34 19. A particle of mass 100 g is moving in a straight
15. A car moves at a constant speed on a road as line. The speed of the particle varies with time,
shown in figure. The normal force by the road as shown in the figure. The force acting on
on the car is NA and NB when it is at the points the particle at t = 1 s is [ NCERT Page-95]
A and B respectively [ NCERT Page-104]
1) NA = NB 2) NA > NB
3) NA < NB
4) Insufficient information to decide the relation 1) 50 N 2) 5 N
of NA and NB 3) 0.5 N 4) 0.05 N
PCB TEST : 05(43) 3 Date : 18/12/2023

20. A block of mass 5 kg is 23. Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of
hanging from a weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are
string, and a being pressed against a wall by a force F as
horizontal force shown. If the coefficient of friction between the
acts on the block.
blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall
Find the horizontal
force so that the block is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall
will remain in equilibrium. [ NCERT Page-99] on block B is [ NCERT Page-101]
1) 5 3 kgf 2) 5 3 N
5
3) 5 3 dyne 4) kgf
3
21. A system of two blocks of
masses m = 2 kg and M =
8 kg is placed on a
smooth table as shown
in figure. The coefficient 1) 120 N 2) 150 N
of static friction between two blocks is 0.5. The 3) 100 N 4) 80 N
maximum horizontal force F that can be 24. Statement-1 : The average momentum of a
applied to the block of mass M so that the molecule in a sample of an ideal gas depends on
blocks move together will be [ NCERT Page-101] temperature. [ NCERT Page-330]
1) 9.8 N 2) 39.2 N
Statement-2 : The rms speed of oxygen molecules
3) 49 N 4) 78.4 N
in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and
22. A block kept on a rough the oxygen molecules dissociate into oxygen
inclined plane as shown atoms, the rms speed will become 2v.
in figure, remains at rest
1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true
upto a maximum force
2 N down the inclined 2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are false
plane. The maximum 3) Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
external force up the inclined plane that does 4) Statement-1 is false but Statement-2 is true
not move the block is 10 N. The coefficient of 25. A vessel contains 14 g of nitrogen gas at a
static friction between the block and the plane temperature of 27°C. The amount of heat to be
is (Take g = 10 m/s2) [ NCERT Page-102] transferred to the gas to double the r.m.s. speed
of its molecules will be
3 3
1) 2) (Take R = 8.32 J mol–1 k–1) [ NCERT Page-330]
2 4
1) 2229 J 2) 5616 J
1 2
3) 4) 3) 9360 J 4) 13.104 J
2 3
PCB TEST : 05(43) 4 Date : 18/12/2023

26. Match the C p/C v ratio for ideal gases with 30. A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an
different type of molecules: [ NCERT Page-334] adiabatic process at room temperature. The
relation between temperature and volume for
Column-I Column-II this process is TVx = constant, then x is
Molecule type Cp / Cv [ NCERT Page-312]
1) 3/5 2) 2/5
a. Monoatomic p. 7 /5
3) 2/3 4) 5/3
Diatomic rigid 31. Two cylindrical rods of same material have
b. q. 9 /7
molecules their lengths in the ratio 2 : 1 and radii in the
Diatomic non-rigid ratio 1 : 2. The ratio of their thermal
c. r. 4 /3 conductivities will be
molecules
Triatomic rigid 1) 1 : 1 2) 4 : 1
d. s. 5 /3 3) 8 : 1 4) 1 : 2
molecules
32. Four rods of same material,
1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r 2) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p having the same cross-
3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r 4) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s sections and lengths are
joined, as shown. The
27. The amount of heat needed to raise the
temperature of junction of
temperature of 4 moles of a rigid diatomic gas
from 0°C to 50°C when no work is done is four rods will be [ NCERT Page-292]
_____. (R is the universal gas constant) 1) 20°C 2) 30°C
3) 45°C 4) 60°C
[ NCERT Page-307]
33. Two rods A and B of different materials are
1) 250 R 2) 750 R welded together as shown
3) 175 R 4) 500 R in the figure. Their
28. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the thermal conductivities
fractional change in its pressure is equal to are k1 and k2. The thermal
(w here  is the ratio of specific heas) conductivity of the
composite rod will be [ NCERT Page-292]
[ NCERT Page-312]
V dV 3( k1  k2 )
1)  2)  1) 2) k1  k2
dV V 2
1 dV dV k1  k2
3)  4) 3) 2( k1  k2 ) 4)
 V V 2
29. In an adiabatic process, the density of a diatomic 34. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to
gas becomes 32 times its initial value. The final 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in
pressure of the gas is found to be n times the initial the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the
pressure. The value of n is [ NCERT Page-312] surroundings is [ NCERT Page-296]
1) 32 2) 326 1) 45°C 2) 20°C
3) 128 4) 1 / 32 3) 42°C 4) 10°C
PCB TEST : 05(43) 5 Date : 18/12/2023

35. In a vernier calipers 10 divisions of vernier 39. A block of mass 40 kg slides over a surface,
scale is equal to the 9 divisions of main scale. when a mass of 4 kg is suspended through an
When both jaws of vernier calipers touch each inextensible massless string passing over
other, the zero of the vernier scale is shifted to frictionless pulley as shown below. The
the left of zero of the main scale and 4th vernier coefficient of kinetic friction between the
scale division exactly coincides with the main surface and block is 0.02. The acceleration of
scale reading. One main scale division is equal block is (Given g = 10 ms–2) [ NCERT Page-112]
to 1 mm. While measuing diameter of a
spherical body, the body is held between two
jaws. It is now observed that zero of the vernier
scale lies between 30 and 31 divisions of main
scale reading and 6 th vernier scale division
exactly coincides with the main scale reading. 1) 1 ms–2 2) 1/5 ms–2
3) 4/5 ms –2 4) 8/11 ms–2
The diameter of the spherical body will be
1) 3.02 cm 2) 3.06 cm 40. A 50 kg mass is kept on the floor. It explodes
3) 3.12 cm 4) 3.20 cm into two pieces. One piece of mass of 20 kg
starts moving with the speed of 3 m/s in the
Section : B
direction opposite to the other. What is the
36. If the rms speed of oxygen molecules at 0°C is
speed of the other piece? [ NCERT Page-93]
160 m/s, find the rms speed of hydrogen
1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s
molecules at 0°C. [ NCERT Page-330]
3) 2 m/s 4) Zero
1) 640 m/s 2) 40 m/s
41. The position-time graph of a particle of mass
3) 80 m/s 4) 332 m/s
0.1 kg is given. The impulse at t = 2 s is
C 
37. The ratio of specific heats  P  in terms of degree
 CV 
of freedom (f) is given by [ NCERT Page-333]
 f  2 [ NCERT Page-96]
1)  1   2)  1  
 3  f
 f  1
3)  1   4)  1   1) –0.2 kg m/s 2) –0.02 kg m/s
 2  f 3) –0.1 kg m/s 4) –0.4 kg m/s
38. A stone of mass m, tied to a string is being 42. A stone of mass m tied to a string of length l is
whirled in a vertical circle with a uniform speed. rotated in a circle with the other end of the
The tension in the string is [ NCERT Page-122] string as the centre. The speed of the stone is
1) same throughout the motion v. If the string breaks, the stone will move
2) minimum at highest position of the circular path [ NCERT Page-122]
3) minimum at lowest position of the circular path 1) towards the centre 2) away from the centre
4) minimum when rope is in horizontal position 3) along a tangent 4) will stop
PCB TEST : 05(43) 6 Date : 18/12/2023

https://t.me/RCCtestseries
43. When a particle moves in a circle with a  
47. If A  (2iˆ  3 jˆ  kˆ ) m and B  (iˆ  2 jˆ  2kˆ ) m .
uniform speed [ NCERT Page-80] 
The magnitude of component of vector A along
1) its velocity and acceleration are both constant 
vector B will be _____ m. [ NCERT Page-115]
2) its velocity is constant but the acceleration 1) 2 2) 4
changes 3) 6 4) 5
3) its acceleration is constant but the velocity 48. The maximum error in the measurement of
changes resistance, current and time for which current
flows in an electrical circuit are 1%, 2% and
4) Its velocity and acceleration both changes 3% respectively. The maximum percentage
44. The horizontal range and the maximum error in the detection of the dissipated heat
height of a projectile are equal. The angle of will be [ NCERT Page-27]
1) 2 2) 4
projection of the projectile is [ NCERT Page-78]
3) 6 4) 8
1)   tan 1 (2) 2)   45 1
49. Dimension of should be equal to
 0 0
1  1  [ NCERT Page-31]
3)   tan   4)   tan 1 (4)
4 T2
L
1) 2)
45. A boy walks to his school at a distance of 6 km L2 T
with a constant speed of 2 km/hr, and L2 T
immediately walks back with a constant 3) 2 4)
T L
speed of 3 km/hr. His average speed in km/hr, 50. For the given cyclic process CAB as shown
for round trip is [ NCERT Page-42] for gas, the work done is [ NCERT Page-308]
1) 10 / 7 2) 20 / 7
3) 3.5 4) 12 / 5
   
46. If A  B  B  A , then the angle between A and
B is [ NCERT Page-115]
 
1) 2)
2 3

3)  4) 1) 30 J 2) 10 J
4
3) 1 J 4) 5 J
PCB TEST : 05(43) 7 Date : 18/12/2023

CHEMISTRY 53. Which of the following selected chains is
SECTION : A correct to name the given compound according
51. Select the correct order of reactivity of to IUPAC system. [New NCERT Page-264]
following compound with HX.
1)
a) b) c)
2)
3)
d) e)
[New NCERT Page-276] 4)

1) b > d > e > a > c 2) a > b > c > d > e
3) b > c > d > a > e 4) c > b > a > d > e 54. Match the ions given in Column-I with their
52. How many of the following species are nature given in Column-II.
aromatic ? [New NCERT Page-261] Column-I Column-II
•• 
i) CH3  O
••
 CH  CH3 a) Stable due to resonance
, , , , , , 
ii) F3C b)Destabilised due to
inductive effect
CH3
|
iii) CH 3  C c) Stabilised by hyper -
, , , |
CH3
conjugation
1) 7 2) 4 
3) 5 4) 6 iv) CH 3  C H  CH 3 d) A secondary carbocation.
1) (i) - (a, c) ; (ii) - (a, b) ; (iii) - (b) ; (iv) - (c, d)
2) (i) - (a, c, d) ; (ii) - (a, d) ; (iii) - (c) ; (iv) - (b, d)
3) (i) - (a, c, d) ; (ii) - (b) ; (iii) - (c) ; (iv) - (a, c)
4) (i) - (b) ; (ii) - (a, b) ; (iii) - (a, c, d) ; (iv) - (c, d)
PCB TEST : 05(43) 8 Date : 18/12/2023

55. Match the following : [New NCERT Page-270] 58. Statement I : The  electrons of C–H bond of
Column I Column II the alkyl group enter into partial conjugation with
a. CH 3 COOH and i. metamers the attached unsaturated system or with the
HCOOCH3 unshared p-orbital
b. CH 3 –CH 2 –CCH ii. position Statement II : Hyperconjugation is a permanent
effect.
and CH3 –CC–CH 3 isomers
[New NCERT Page-277]
c. CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 iii. tautomers
and CH 3 –CH(NH 2 )–CH 3 1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct
2) Statement I and Statement II both are
d. CH 3 CH 2 OH and iv. functional
incorrect
(CH 3 ) 2 O isomer
3) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-iv 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
incorrect
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-ii, d-iv
4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
56. Match the following : [New NCERT Page-272]
correct
Column I Column II 59. Select the pair of monovalent functional
(Reagents) (Nature) group.
–
a. (CN) i. Neutral nucleophile 1) Carboxylic acid, ester, alcohol
–
b. (ONO) ii. Electrophile 2) Carboxylic acid, anhydride, ether
c. NH 3 iii. Ambident nucleophile 3) Carboxylic acid, aldehyde, alcohol
d. AlCl 3 iv. Both EI and Nu 4) Anhydride, aldehyde, carboxylic acid
1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 60. Select the correct statement about the given
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-iii, d-i 4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii structure.
57. Select the correct statement about Inductive
effect.
a. Inductive effect passed on to the subsequent
bonds.
b. The effect decrease slowly as the no. of
intervening bonds increases. 1) Ketonic and both aldhyde group acts as preffix
c. It becomes zero or negligible after 3-4 and carboxylic acid as suffix.
carbon atom. 2) Ketonic group along with carboxylic acid acts
d. It is related to withdraw or donate electron as prefix while both ester group acts as suffix.
Density to attached group. 3) Ester attached with carbon topee acts as suffix
[New NCERT Page-274] while other groups acts as a prefix.
1) a and b 2) b, d and c 4) Both ester group along with ketonic group
acts as a Prefix and Carboxylic acid group acts
3) a, c and d 4) a, b and d
as a suffix.
PCB TEST : 05(43) 9 Date : 18/12/2023

61. Which one of the following is incorrect order 65. Column-I Column-II
a) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ (ionic radius)
a. ICl2 i. Participation of d-orbitals in
b) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (hydrated radius)
c) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ (extent of hydration) hybridisation
1) a only 2) b only b. NH2 ii. Hybrid orbitals contain 25%
3) c only 4) b and c only s-character
62. Column-I Column-II
a. O 3 i. Covalent bond c. I3 iii. Central atom contains lp of
b. H 2 O (l) ii. Co-ordinate bond electrons
2–
c. CuSO 4 .5H 2 O iii. Hydrogen bond d. SO 4 iv. Non-linear geometry
d. (NH 4 )2 SO 4 iv. Ionic bond 1) a-ii, iii; b-i, ii, iv; c-i, iii; d-ii, iv
[New NCERT Page102,106,132,] 2) a-i, iii; b-ii, iii, iv; c-i, iii; d-ii, iv
1) a-i; b-i, ii; c-i, ii, iv, iv; d-i, ii, iii 3) a-i, iii; b-ii, iii, iv; c-ii, iv; d-i, ii
2) a-i, ii; b-ii, iv; c-i, ii, iii; d-i, iii, iv 4) a-i, iii; b-i, ii, iv; c-i, iii; d-ii, iv
3) a-i, ii; b-i, iii; c-i, ii, iii, iv; d-i, ii, iv 66. Match the pair [New NCERT Page-126]
4) a-i; b-ii; c-i, iii, iv; d-i, iii Column I Column II
63. Which of the folloing is incorrectly match? Nodal Plane
[New NCERT Page-124] a. 1s, 2s, 2pz i. 2
Hybri Geometry Orbitals use b. *1s, *2s, *2pz ii. 0
disation
Trigonal
2p x , 2p y
1) sp3 d s + px + py + pz + d z 2
bipyramidal c. *2p x, *2p y iii. 1
Pentagonal 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
2) sp 3d3 s+px+py+pz+ d x 2  y2 + d z2 +dxy
bipyramidal 3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
3) sp 3d2 Capped s+px+ py+pz+ d x2 y2 + d z2 67. Consider the following molecules.
octahedral i. CH 2 Cl 2 ii. BF 3
4) sp 3 Tetrahedral s + px + py + pz
64. The number of correct option is iii. Cl Cl iv. CO 2

 
 
 

a) I  Br  Cl F (polarisability)
Species with zero dipole moment is/are
b) Li   Na   K   Rb  (polarisation power)
c) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4 (decreasing ionic 1) i, iii and iv
character)
2) iii and iv
d) H2  H 2 (order of stability) 3) i, ii, iii and iv
1) 1 2) 2 4) ii, iii and iv
3) 3 4) 4
PCB TEST : 05(43) 10 Date : 18/12/2023

68. The molecular shape of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are 71. The bond length of H2+, H2– and H2 are in the
[New NCERT Page-115] order [N.B. 129]
+ –
1) The same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons, 1) H2 > H2 > H2 2) H2 > H2 > H2–
+
respectively 3) H2– > H2 > H2+ 4) H2– > H2+ > H2

2) The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons 72. Identify the incorrect match
respectively [New NCERT Pg-55]
3) Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons, Column I Column II
respectively a) n = 3 l = 3 i) when n = 3, l
4) Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons, m = 0 s = +1/2 can not be 3
respectively b) n = 5 l = 2 ii) when l = 2, m
69. Consider the molecules CH4 , NH3 and H2 O.
m = 3 s = +1/2 can not be 3
Which of the given statements is false ?
c) n = 4 l = 2 iii) when l = 2, s
1) The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is smaller than m=1 s=0 can be 0
the H–N–H bond angle in NH3 d) n = 0 l = 1 iv) n can not be zero
2) The H–C–H bond angle in CH4 is larger than m = s = –1/2
the H–N–H bond angle in NH3 1) a-i 2) b-ii
3) The H–C–H bond angle in CH4, the H–N–H 3) c-iii 4) d-iv
bond angle in NH3 , and the H–O–H bond 73. If the speed of electron in the Bohr’s first orbit
angle in H2O are all greater than 90° of hydrogen atoms is x, the speed of the
4) The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than electron in the third Bohr’s orbit is
the H–C–H bond angle in CH4 [New NCERT Pg-48]
70. Statement I : The electronic structure of O3 is
1) x / 9 2) x / 3
+
O 3) 3x 4) 9x
O O– 74. The electronic transition from n = 2 to n = 1
will produce shortest wavelength in
O
Statement II : structure is not allowed [New NCERT Pg-45]
O O
1) H-atom 2) D-atom
because octet around O cannot be expanded.
3) He+ ion 4) Li2+ ion
1) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; 75. Which d-orbital has different shape from rest
Statement II is a correct explanation for of all d-orbitals [New NCERT Pg-59]
Statement I. 1) d x2  y2 2) d z2
2) Statement I is true, Statement II is true;
Statement II is Not a correct explanation for 3) d x2 y 4) d xy
Statement I.
3) Statement I is true; Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
PCB TEST : 05(43) 11 Date : 18/12/2023

76. Which orbital is nearest to the nucleus 79. Assertion : 1 mole of water is equal to 6.023 ×
[New NCERT Pg-59] 1023 molecules.
1) 5d 2) 6s Reason : The mass of one mole of a substance in
3) 6p 4) 4f grams is called the molar mass.
77. Statement-I : The angular momnetum of d- [New NCERT Pg-18]
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
h
orbitals is 6 . is the correct explanation of assertion.
2
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
Statement-II : Angular momnetum of electron is not the correct explanation of assertion
nh 3) Assertion is true but reason is false
in orbit is mvr  .
2 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
[New NCERT Pg-57] 80. A sample of pure calcium weighing 1.35 g was
1) If both the statement are True and Statement quantitatively converted to 1.88 g of pure
II is the correct explanation of statement I CaO. Atomic mass of calcium is
2) If both the statement are True and Statement [New NCERT Pg-20]
II is not the correct explanation of statement I 1) 20 2) 40
3) If statement I is true and Statement II is false 3) 60 4) 30
4) IF statement I is false and Statement II is true 81. 120 g of CaO reacts with 32g of SO2. The mass
78. Statement-I : For n = 3, l may be 0, 1 and 2 and of CaSO3 produced is (Atomic mass of Ca and
m may be 0; 0 ± 1 ; 0 ± 1 and ± 2. S are 40 and 32 respectively)
Statement-II : For each value of n, there are 0 to [New NCERT Pg-20]
(n – 1) possible values of l and for each value of l, 1) 35 g 2) 48 g
there are 0 to ±l values of m.
3) 55 g 4) 60 g
[New NCERT Pg-56]
82. Sulphur reacts with potassium superoxide
1) If both the statement are True and Statement (KO2 ) as
II is the correct explanation of statement I
2KO2 + S 
 K2SO4
2) If both the statement are True and Statement
II is not the correct explanation of statement I How many moles of K2SO 4 will be formed
3) If statement I is true and Statement II is false when 1 mole of each KO2 and S is reacted?
4) IF statement I is false and Statement II is true [New NCERT Pg-20]
1) 0.5 2) 1
3) 2 4) 4
PCB TEST : 05(43) 12 Date : 18/12/2023

83. Haemoglobin contains 0.34% of iron by mass. 87. 8g of O2 has the same number of molecules as:
The number of Fe atoms in 3.3g of haemoglobin a. 7g of CO b. 14 g of CO
is c. 28 g of CO d. 11 g of CO2
(Given : Atomic mass of Fe is 56 u, NA = 6.022 1) a and b 2) b and c
× 1023 mol–1 ) [New NCERT Pg-82] 3) c and d 4) a and d
5
1) 1.21 × 10 2) 12.0 × 1016 88. Uncertainty in position and momentum are
3) 1.21 × 1020 4) 3.4 × 1022 equal Uncertainty in velocity is
84. For the following reaction, the mas sof water [New NCERT Pg-52]
produced from 445 g of C57H110O6 is
h h
2C57H110O6(s) + 163O2(g)  114CO2(g) + 110H2O(l) 1) 2)
 2
[New NCERT Pg-20]
1) 890 g 2) 490 g 1 h
3) 4) None of these
3) 445 g 4) 495 g 2m 
85. Avogadro’s number is the number of 89. The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen is
molecules present in 0.53Å. The radius of second orbit of He +
a. 22.4 litres of a gas at NTP would be [New NCERT Pg-48]
b. 1g molecules of a substnace 1) 0.53Å 2) 0.26Å
c. 32g of oxygen [New NCERT Pg-18] 3) 2.12Å 4) 1.06Å
1) a and b 2) b and c 90. The significance of  200 is :
3) a, b and c 4) only b [New NCERT Pg-60]
SECTION : B 1) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0 2) n = 2, l = 3, m = 0
86. Column I Column II 3) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0 4) n = 0, l = 0, m = 0
91. 1.84 g mixture of CaCO 3 and MgCO 3 was
K .E heated to a constant weight till 0.96 g residue
a) i) 2
P.E formed. % ( by mass) of MgCO3 in sample was
1 [New NCERT Pg-20]
b) P.E + 2 K.E ii)  1) 45.66% 2) 54.34%
2
3) 30% 4) 70%
P.E
c) iii) -1 92. Calculate volume of O2 formed at STP when 2
T .E moles of MnO2 react with 2 moles of H2O2 in
K .E excess of H2SO4 as per following reaction.
d) iv) 0
T .E MnO2 + H2O2 + H2SO4  MnSO4 + 2H2O + O2
[New NCERT Pg-47] [New NCERT Pg-20]
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 1) 5.6 L 2) 22.4 L
3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 3) 44.8 L 4) 108 L
PCB TEST : 05(43) 13 Date : 18/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
93. The minimum amount of O2(g) consumed per 98. Select true (T) adn false (F) statement for
gram of reactant is for the reaction : compound P and Q [New NCERT Page-270]
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
(Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24,
P = 31, C = 12, H = 1) [New NCERT Pg-20] (P) (Q)
1) 2Mg(s) + O2(g)  2MgO(s)
S-1 P and Q are position isomer
2) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g)  2Fe2O3(s) S-2 P is 2° alcohol
3) C3H6(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l) S-3 Q is 1° alcohol
4) P4(s) + 5O2(g)  P4O10(s) 1) TTT 2) TFT
94. Which statements are correct ? 3) FFT 4) FTT
a. An empirical formula shows the relative 99. Select true (T) and false (F) statements
number of atoms of each element present i. conformers are result by the rotation about
in molecule a single bond
b. An empirical formula shows the relative ii. Conformers can easily be interconverted at
number of atoms of each element present room temperature
only in single molecule of compound iii. Conformers can be isolated
c. A molecular formula shows the actual 1) TFF 2) TTF
number of atoms of each element present 3) TTT 4) TFT
in single molecule of compound 100. Match the following
d. A structure formula shows how the atoms [New NCERT Page-271,277]
are joined by chemical bonds Column I Column II
[New NCERT Pg-19] (Carbocation) (Stability of order)
1) a, b and c 2) b and d  
CH2 CH 2
3) a and c 4) a, c and d
95. Which one of the following is incorrect? a. I. II. i. I >II > III > IV
1) O2  O2  O2  O 22 (B.O.)
CD3
2) O2  O2  O 2  O22 (B.L.)  
CH2 CH2
 
3) N  N (stability)
2 2
4) N 2  N 2 (B.L.) III. IV.

96. Which of the following species are CT3 CH3
hypervalent?  Me 
CH CH2
(1)ClO 4 – (2)BF 3
(3)SO 4 2– (4)CO 3 2– b. I. II. ii. I > III > II > IV
1) 1, 2, 3 2) 1, 3
3) 3, 4 4) 1, 2  
CH2 CH2


97. The I 3
ion has
III. IV.
1) Five equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom
and two axial bonding pairs in a trigonal 

CH2 CH2
bipyramidal arrangement
2) Five equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom
c. I. II. iii. IV > II > III > I
and two axial bonding pairs in a pentagonal
bipyramial arrangement
 
3) Three equatorial lone pairs on the central I CH2 CH 2
atom and two axial bonding pairs in a trigonal
bipyramidal arrangement III. IV.
4) Two equatorial lone pairs on the central I atom
and three axial bonding pairs in a trigonal 1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
bipyramidal arrangement 3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
PCB TEST : 05(43) 14 Date : 18/12/2023
Section-C : Biology 104. Four chambered heart is present in all except:-
[ Pg. 58]
Section-A
1) Crocodilus 2) Alligator
101. A student done the cell fractionation of tissue 3) Corvus 4) Calotes
and forgot to label his tubes. The content of two
105. Which one is not a platyhelminthes?
tubes he analyzed and he found that ‘A’ tube
has- abundant vesicles filled with hydrolytic [ Pg. 51]
enzymes and ‘B’ tube has single membrane 1) Tapeworm 2) Liver fluke
organelle with attached ribosomes. Probably 3) Planaria 4) Hookworm
tube A & B contain [NCERT Pg. 133, 134] 106. Why the hydrophobic tails of phospholipid
1) A - Peroxisome; B - Ribosome molecules are towards inner side of the cell
2) A - Chloroplast; B - Mitochondria membrane? [ NCERT Pg. 131]
3) A - Lysosome; B - RER 1) To protect the tail s from the aqueous
environment.
4) A - RER; B - SER
2) To form strong bonds
102. According to the fluid mosaic model of the cell
membrane, the proteins are located : 3) To make the cell membrane a compact
structure.
1) as a continuous layer over the outer surface
of the membrane only 4) To protect the head of phospholipid molecule
from water.
2) as a continuous layer over the inner surface
of the membrane only 107. Which of the following is not a mammal?
[ Pg. 60]
3) On the surface (as peripheral proteins) and
in the interior of the membrane (as inegral 1) Corvus 2) Delphinus
proteins) 3) Canis 4) Felis
4) in the middle of the membrane, between the 108. Statement I : At a number of places the nuclear
lipid layers only envelope is interrupted by minute pores.
103. Fill in the blanks: [ NCERT Pg. 137, 138] Statement II : Material of nucleus stained by the
acidic dye was given the name chromatin by
I. Centrioles are __a__ structures that lie
Flemming. [ NCERT Pg. 138]
__b__ to each other.
1) Statement I is correct and statement II is
II. Centriole has an organisation like __c__
wrong.
III. Centriole are made up of nine evenly
2) Both the statements I and II are correct.
spaces peripheral fibrils of __d__ protein.
3) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
IV. Each peripheral fibril of centriole is a __e__ correct.
V. Central part of the proximal region of the 4) Both the statements I and II are wrong.
centriole is called __f__ which is
109. In amphibians, heart is ________ chambered.
proteinaceous
[ Pg. 57]
Choose the correct option for blanks (a to f) :
1) Two 2) Three
1) a-spherical; b-parallel, c-cart wheel, d-
flagellin, d-doublet, f-bridge 3) Four 4) None of these
110. Classification of chromosomes is based on -
2) a-cylindrical; b-perpendicular, c-cart wheel,
d-tubulin, e-triplet, f-hub [ NCERT Pg. 139]
3) a-cylindrical; b-perpendicular, c-cart wheel, 1) Size of satellite
d-tubulin, e-doublet, f-hub 2) Number of Telomers
4) a-spherical; b-perpendicular, c-cart wheel, 3) Position of centromere
d-tubulin, e-triplet, f-hub 4) Position of secondary constriction
PCB TEST : 05(43) 15 Date : 18/12/2023

111. The cells of pancreas which is very active in 118. Heart of fishes is :- [ Pg. 56-57]
the synthesis & secretion of Insulin, a 1) One chambered 2) Two chambered
proteineceous hormone would be expected to
3) Three chambered 4) Four chambered
have? [ NCERT Pg. 133]
119. Here ‘S’ (Svedberg’s unit) stands for
1) equal amount of RER & SER sedimentation coefficient then what are (A)
2) more SER than RER & (B) for ribosomes present on outer nuclear
3) more RER than SER membrane.
4) more nucleii and RER
112. Ratio of protein and lipid in the membrane of
erythrocytes of human being is :
[NCERT Pg. 131 ]
1) 1.8 2) 1.3
3) 0.80 4) 0.60
113. Which of the following is considered as ideal 1) A - 40S, B - 60S 2) A - 60S, B - 40S
cell to study structure of plasma membrane? 3) A - 80S, B - 60S 4) A - 40S, B - 80S
[NCERT Pg. 131] 120. Chemotaxonomy is connected with
1) Human neutrophils [NCERT Pg. 29]
2) Human neurone cell 1) classification of chemicals found in plant.
3) Human erythrocyte 2) use of phytochemical data in systematic
4) Human cardiac cell botany.
114. Swim bladder or air bladder is present :- 3) application of chemicals on herbarium sheets.
[ Pg. 56] 4) use of statistical methods in chemical yielding
plants.
1) Fish 2) Amphibia
121. Roundworms/Nematodes are :-[ Pg. 52]
3) Aquatic reptillia 4) Aquatic mammals
1) Free living
115. There is an extensive compartmentalization of
cytoplasm through membrane bound organelles 2) Aquatic or terrestrial
in all of the following except- [ NCERT Pg. 129] 3) Parasitic on animals and plants
1) Protista 2) PPLO 4) All of these
3) Fungi 4) Animal cell 122. Why rhodophyta exhibit a red colour?
116. Non-endomembrane organelles perform all [ NCERT Pg. 33]
functions except - [ NCERT Pg. 133, Summary] 1) Since most rhodophyta grow at great depths,
1) Kreb cycle the chlorophyll can only absorb light in the
2) Dark reaction red area of the spectrum.
3) Glycogen metabolism 2) The red pigment of Rhodophytes, absorb all
the light & reflect red light wavelength mostly.
4) Photorespiration
3) Red pigment of rhodophyta absorbs all the
117. Cells which are physiologically more active,
light waves.
have - [ NCERT Pg. 134]
4) The light reaching the greatest depth in water
1) Less number of mitochondria is in the blue-green region of the spectrum, is
2) More number of mitochondria absorbed by phycoerythrin.
3) No relation between physiological activity and 123. Which of the following is not a body part of
numbe of mitochondria Balanoglossus? [ Pg. 54]
4) No mitochondria, to provide more space in 1) Proboscis 2) Collar
cytoplasm for metabolic activities 3) Trunk 4) Neck
PCB TEST : 05(43) 16 Date : 18/12/2023

124. What is the number and position of insertions 131. Which one of the following has mesoderm but
of flagella inrhodophyceae class of algae? no coelom? [ Pg. 51]
[ NCERT Pg. 33] 1) Flatworm 2) Earthworm
1) 2-8, equal, apical 3) Roundworm 4) Leech
2) 2, unequal, lateral 132. A bryophyte suddenly started reproducting
3) 2-6, equal, lateral partheno-genetically. The number of
4) Flagella are absent in Rhodophyceae chromosomes of the second generation
125. Which of the following example belong to the compared to parent plant will be
same class of algae? [ NCERT Pg. 32] [ NCERT Pg. 35 & Concept of Haploid
1) Chara, Fucus, Polysiphonia & Diploid Structure]
2) Volvox, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas 1) same 2) one-half
3) Porphyra, Ectocarpus, Ulothrix 3) double 4) triple
4) Sargassum, Laminaria, Gracilaria 133. The body of the aschelminthes is circular in
126. In class phaeophyceae, the plant is usually cross section. Hence, it is named as :-
attached to the substratum by a _A_ and has [ Pg. 52]
a stalk, the _B_ and leaf like photosynthetic 1) Tapeworm 2) Earthworm
organ-the _C_. [ NCERT Pg. 33] 3) Hookworm 4) Roundworm
1) A-holdfast, B-stipe, C-frond 134. The spreading of living pteridophytes is
2) A-stipe, B-holdfast, c-frond limied and restricted to narrow geographical
3) A-frond, B-stipe, c-holdfast region because [ NCERT Pg. 36,38]
4) A-stipe, B-frond, C-holdfast 1) gametophytic growth needs cool, damp and
127. Fern plant is a [ NCERT Pg. 36-38] shady places.
1) haploid gametophyte2) diploid gametophyte 2) it requires water for fertilization.
3) diploid sporophyte 4) haploid sporophyte 3) due to absence of stomata in leaf and absence
128. Mosses are of great ecological importance of vascular tissue.
because of [ NCERT Pg. 35] 4) both (1) and (2)
1) its contribution to prevent soil erosion. 135. Which of the following are pseudocoelomate?
2) its contribution in ecological succession. [ Pg. 52]
3) its capabil ity to remove CO from the 1) Roundworm 2) Hookworm
atmosphere. 3) Filarial worm 4) All of these
4) both (1) and (2)
Section-B
129. Phylum whose organism are mostly
136. Triploblastic animal contains :-[ Pg. 47]
endoparasites is :- [ Pg. 51]
1) Platyhelminthes 2) Annelida 1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm
3) Arthropoda 4) Mollusca 3) Endoderm 4) All of these
130. Bryophytes resemble algae in the following 137. Which of the following is the major difference
aspects [ NCERT Pg. 34, 35] between mosses and ferns? [ NCERT Pg. 33,36,38]
1) filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues 1) Ferns lack alternation of generation while
and autotrophic nutrition mosses show the same.
2) diferentiation of plant body into root, stem 2) Mosses are facultative aerobes while ferns are
and leaves and autotrophic nutrition obligate aerobes.
3) thallus like plant body, presence of root and 3) Vascular bundles of ferns show xylem vessels
autotrophic nutrition while those of mosses lack it.
4) thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues 4) Sporophytes of ferns live much longer as
and autotrophic nutrition compared to the sporophytes of mosses.
PCB TEST : 05(43) 17 Date : 18/12/2023

138. Which of the following is true w.r.t. 142. A) Varied number of cisternae are present in GB
mitochondria? [ NCERT Pg. 135] B) Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged
a) Mitochondrial ribosome is smaller than near the nucleus
ribosomes which are attached on outer C) GB shows polarity-cis/proximal/forming/
nuclear membrane. convex face near nucleus and distal/
b) Single stranded linear DNA is present in concave trans/ maturation face
matrix. D) The cis and trans faces are interconnected
c) Protein synthesis occurs in mitochondrial E) Both the faces are similar
matrix.
Which of the above statements about GB is/
d) Outer membrane is highly folded and form are false?
cristae.
1) C and E 2) Only D
1) a, c & d only 2) a, b & d only
3) D and E 4) Only E
3) Only c 4) A & D only
143. The correct statements about bryophytes are:
139. Which one of the following terms is correctly
i. The sperms are biflagellate with whiplash
matched with their definition in Pinus?
type flagella.
[ NCERT Pg. 39]
ii. The sperms are released into water which
1) Monoecious - Male (microsporangiate) and
swim through water to fuse with the egg
female (megasporangiate) cones are produced
to produce the zygote.
on same plant.
iii. Immediate reduction division occurs in
2) Monoecious - Male and female sporophylls
zygotes.
borne on same strobilus.
iv. A multicellular body called a sporophyte
3) Dioecious - Male and female cones are
is then produced.
produced on different plants.
1) i, ii and iii 2) i, ii and iv
4) Monoecious - Micro and megasporocarp
develop on same plant. 3) i and iv 4) iii and iv
140. Statement I : Amyloplast is found abundantly 144. Most of the sponges are :- [ Pg. 49]
in potato. [ NCERT Pg. 135] 1) Bilaterally symmetrical
Statement II : Amyloplast is associated with 2) Radially symmetrical
storage of starch. 3) Biradially symmetrical
1) Statement I is correct and statement II is 4) Asymmetrical
wrong. 145. Endomembrane system consists of many cell
2) Both the statements I and II are correct. organelles and these organelles perform
3) Statement I is wrong and statement II is different functions. Which of the following
correct. options represent correct functions of these
4) Both the statements I and II are wrong. organelles? [ NCERT Pg. 133-136, PYQ & Summary]
141. How many of the following statements is/are a. Synthesis of Lipoproteins
correct? [ NCERT Pg. 30,35,38,39] b. Formation of Lysosome
i. In Equisetum, the female gametophyte is c. Glycolipid synthesis
retained on the parent sporophyte.
d. Storage of anthocynin
ii. In Ginkgo, male gametophyte is not
e. Osmoregulation and excretion
independent.
f. Breakdown of protein, lipid etc.
iii. The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed
than that in Polytrichum. g. Oxidative phosphorylation
iv. Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous. h. Carbohydrate synthesis
1) Two 2) Three 1) All except a, d, g, h 2) All except g, h
3) Four 4) One 3) All except d, g, h 4) All except a, g, h
PCB TEST : 05(43) 18 Date : 18/12/2023

146. Assertion : Liverworts fail to spread to a new Section-D : Biology
locality through fragmentation.
Section-A
Reason : Gemmae are helpful in propagating
liverworts in different locality. NCERT Pg. 35] 151. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in
having [ NCERT Pg. 36-39]
1) If both assertion and reason are correct and
the reason is a correct explanation of the 1) seeds 2) motile sperms
assertion. 3) cambium 4) vessels
2) If both assertion and reason are correct but 152. When 1200 mL air is left in the lungs, it is
reason is not a correct explanation of the called- [ NCERT Pg. 272]
assertion. 1) Vital capacity
3) The reason is correct but assertion is incorrect. 2) Tidal volume
4) Both the assertion and reason are incorrect. 3) Residual volume
147. In which of the following organism closed 4) Inspiratory reserve volume
circulatory system is present?[ Pg. 47] 153. Statement I: Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
1) Annelida and Arthropoda averges 1000 ml to 1100 ml while Expiratory
2) Annelida and Chordata Reserve Volume (ERV) averages 2500 to 3000 ml
3) Arthropoda and Chordata Statement II: Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
4) Hemichordata and Arthropoda includes ERV, TV and IRV. [ NCERT Pg. 271]
148. Assertion (A) : Membrane lipids show lateral 1) Both statements are correct
movement within a overall bilayer. 2) Statment I is correct & II is incorrect
Reason (R) : Membrane lipids are quasifluid in 3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
nature [ Pg. 132] 4) Both statments are incorrect
1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the 154. The blood leaving the lungs has all its
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. haemoglobin oxygenated and gives up O2 to
2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason the tissue becasue- [ NCERT Pg. 272]
is not correct explanation of Assertion. 1) Tissue can absorb O2 from oxyhaemoglobin
3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong. 2) O2 concentration is lower at tissue level than
4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong. in the lungs
149. Assertion : Spirogyra shows haploid dominant 3) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction
life cycle. 4) None of these
Reason : Zygotic meiosis occurs in Spirogyra. 155. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
[ NCERT Pg. 30 & 35, The line is written] damaged is- [ NCERT Pg. 275]
1) If both assertion and reason are correct and 1) Asthma
the reason is a correct explanation of the 2) Emphysema
assertion.
3) Pneumonia
2) If both assertion and reason are correct but
4) Occupational respiratory disorders
reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion. 156. Which of the following statement is wrong
for respiration? [ NCERT Pg. 268, 270]
3) If the assertion is correct but reason is
incorrect. 1) Breathing is a process, in which atmospheric
air enters into the body and CO2 is removed out
4) If both the assertion and reason are incorrect.
150. Salamander belongs to the class 2) Gaseous exchange takes place through
alveolar surface
[ Pg. 57]
3) Transport of gases takes place through blood
1) Reptilia 2) Amphibia
4) Cells utilize N2 and release CO2 for anabolic
3) Aves 4) Mammalia
processes
PCB TEST : 05(43) 19 Date : 18/12/2023
157. The given diagram represents the human 163. Which of the following is not a modification of
respiratory system with few structure labelled stem for perennation, vegetative propagation
as I, II, III and IV. [ NCERT Pg. 269, Fig. 17.1] as well as food storage? [ NCERT Based]
1) Corm in Amorphophallus
2) Sucker in pineapple
3) Rhizome in turmeric
4) Tuber in potato
164. Find out the FALSE statement. [ NCERT Pg. 77]
1) In dicotyledonous seeds, cotyledons are often
fleshy and full of reserve food.
2) Generally mocotyledonous seeds are
The exchange of gases takes place in which endospermic.
labelled structure? 3) Generally, dicotyledonous seeds are non-
1) I–Trachea 2) II–Bronchi endospermic.
3) III–Bronchioles 4) IV–Alveoli 4) Most of the monocotyledonous seeds have
158. Inspiration can occur if the- [ NCERT Pg. 270] fleshy cotyledons.
1) PL > PA 165. Which of the following is false for vexillary
2) PL < PA or papilionaceous aestivation? [ NCERT Pg. 74]
3) PL = PA 1) Two smallest anterior petals are known as keel
4) Size of thoracic cavity decreases 2) Two lateral petals are present known as wing
(PL - pressure in lungs) 3) The largest standard petal is posterior
(PA - pressure in almosphere) 4) The largest standard petal is anterior and
159. After maximum inspiration when a person overlaps wing
exhales out the maximum possible volume of 166. Staminode is [ NCERT Pg. 75]
air, it is called [ NCERT Pg. 272] 1) Elongated internode between stamen and
1) Residual volume carpel
2) functional residual capacity 2) Sterile stamen
3) Vital capacity 3) Wing-like structure formed by corolla in pea
4) Total lung capacity 4) Adhesion of stamens with carpel
160. The breathing rate of a normal health man 167. Ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two-
is- [ NCERT Pg. 271] chambered due to the formation of false septum
1) 8–18 times/min 2) 6-12 times/min is found in
3) 16-28 times/min 4) 12-16 times/min 1) Argemone and mustard
161. What is the value of tidal volume in a normal 2) Dianthus and primrose
healthy man? [ NCERT Pg. 271] 3) Rose and tomato
1) Approximately 6000-8000 ml/min 4) Pea
2) 1000-1100 ml/min 168. Match the Column-I. [ NCERT Pg. 75]
3) 2500-3000 ml/min
Column-I Column-II
4) Approximately 8000-1200 ml/min a Marginal i Dianthus
162. A specialised centre known as respiraory b Axile ii Marigold
rhythm centre regulates respiration. It is c Free central iii Pea plant
located in- [ NCERT Pg. 275]
d Basal iv China rose
1) Pons 2) Medulla oblongata
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
3) Cerebrum 4) Cerebellum
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
PCB TEST : 05(43) 20 Date : 18/12/2023
169. In which of the following plants the leaves 176. ICBN stands for [ NCERT Pg. 6]
are small and short-lived? The petiole in these 1) International Code f or Botanical
plants expand, becomes green and synthesize Nomenclature
food, such petiole is known as phyllode.
2) International Code fo r Biological
[ NCERT Pg. 71] Nomencalture
1) Sweat peat 2) Clematis 3) International Congress of Biological Names
3) Australian acacia 4) Eichhornia 4) Indian Council of Botanical Nomenclature
170. Ploidy level of seed structures like endosperm,
177. Both the words in a biological name when
scutellum, and aleurone layer are respectively
hand written are separately underlined or
[ NCERT Pg. 77] printed in italics [ NCERT Pg. 7]
1) 3n, 2n, 3n 2) 3n, 2n, 2n 1) To indicate their native place
3) 3n, n, 2n 4) 3n, 2n, n 2) To indicate their generic name and specific
171. Match the Column-I with Column-II. epithet
Column-I Column-II 3) To indicate their Latin origin
a Perigynous flow er i Sunflow er 4) For identification of organism
b Epipetalous condition ii Plum
178. Order and other higher taxonomic categories
c Apocarpous ovary iii Brinjal are identified on the basis of [ NCERT Pg. 10]
d Basal placentation iv Lotus
1) Vegetative characters
[ NCERT Pg. 73, 75] 2) Aggregate of characters
1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-iii 3) Morphological characters
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
4) Similar characters
172. Two plants A and B belonging to different
179. Classes comprising animals like fishes,
families show following characteristics:
amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals
Plant A : Zygomorphic, bisexual flowers with constitute the next higher category called
basal placentation.
[ NCERT Pg. 0]
Plant B : Actinomorphic, pentamerous, bisexual
flowers protected by epicalyx. 1) Division 2) Phylum
Identify the plants A and B. 3) Kingdom 4) Family
1) A - China rose; B - Sunflower 180. Mark the incorrect match with respect to
2) A - Wheat; B - China rose taxonomic categories of Mango : [ NCERT Pg. 11]
3) A - Marigold; B - China rose 1) Phylum – Angiospermae
4) A - Marigold, B - Mustard 2) Order – Sapindales
173. Number of species that are known and 3) Family – Anacardiaceae
described, range between [ NCERT Pg. 6] 4) Genus – Mangifera
1) 5-10 million 2) 1.7-1.8 million 181. Order polymoniales include [ NCERT Pg. 10]
3) 1.7-1.8 billion 4) 17-18 million 1) Convolvulaceae and Anacardiaceae
174. The most obvious and technically complicated
2) Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
feature is [ NCERT Pg. 5]
3) Anacardiaceae and Solanaceae
1) Consciousness 2) Grwoth
4) Poaceae and Solanaceae
3) Reproduction 4) Self-consciousness
175. Scientific name of brinjal is standardized 182. Wheat, potato and mango belong to the same
through rule given in [ NCERT Pg. 6] [ NCERT Pg. 11]
1) ICZN 2) ICNB 1) Division 2) Family
3) ICBN 4) ICVN 3) Class 4) Order
PCB TEST : 05(43) 21 Date : 18/12/2023

183. The highest and lowest category of 188. Choose the correct option for missing word
classification is, respectively [ NCERT Pg. 9, 10] A, B and C. Higher the taxonomic category,
1) Kingdom and species i. _A_ is the number of common characters.
2) Species and kingdom ii. _B_ is the number of organisms in it.
3) Division and species iii. _C_ is the difficulty in determining the
4) Division and genus relationship with other taxo at same level.
184. Arrange the following taxa in descending [ NCERT Pg. 11]
order of their taxonomic hierarchy and select A B C
the correct option : [ NCERT Pg. 11]
1) Fewer Higher Lesser
(A) Mangifera; (B) Dicotyledoneae;
2) Fewer Higher Greater
(C) Sapindales, (D) Anacardiaceae,
3) Higher Fewer Lesser
(E) Angiospermae
4) Higher Fewer Greater
1) A, C, D, B, E 2) A, D, C, B, E
189. Match Column I with Column II :
3) E, B, C, D, A 4) E, D, B, C, A
[ NCERT Pg. 10, 11]
185. Triticum is placed in the [ NCERT Pg. 11]
1) Division – Planate Column-I Column-II
2) Class – Dicotyledonae a Polymoniales i Cat
3) Family – Poaceae b Carnivora ii Solanaceae
4) Phylum – Angiospermae c Primata iii Convolvulaceae
iv Man
Section-B
v Anacardiaceae
186. Assertion : Each cell of the embryo sac is haploid
in angiosperms. vi Dog
Reason : In angiosperms, meiosis preceeds 1) a-ii, iii; b-i, vi; c-iv 2) a-ii, v; b-i, vi; c-iv
embryo sac formation. [ NCERT Pg. 40,41] 3) a-ii, iii, v, b-i; c-iv 4) a-ii, iii, v; b-i; c-iv, vi
1) If both assertion and reason are correct and 190. Statement I: Partial pressure of oxygen in
the reason is a correct explanation of the deoxygenated blood, oxygenated blood and at
assertion. tissue is 40, 95 and 45 mmHg respectively
2) If both assertion and reason are correct but [ NCERT Pg. 272]
reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion. Statement II: Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
3) If the assertion is correct but reason is incorrect. in deoxygenated blood, oxygenated blood and
4) If both the assertion and reason are incorrect. at tissue is 45, 40 & 45 mmHg respectively.
187. Which of the following features given below are 1) Both statements are correct
exhibited by bacteria (A) and higher plants (B)? 2) Statment I is correct & II is incorrect
i. Growth and reproduction both are 3) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct
synonymous
4) Both statments are incorrect
ii. Binary fission
191. Assertion : Two cotyledons in seeds are the
iii. Cellular organization embryonic leaves. [ NCERT Pg. 77]
iv. Ability to sense their environment
Reason : The embryo contains radicle and plumule.
[ NCERT Pg. 4, 5]
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
A B reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
1) i, ii ii, iii, iv 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
2) i, iii, iv i, ii is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) ii, ii i, iii, iv 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
4) i, ii, iii, iv iii, iv 4) If both assertion and reason are false.
PCB TEST : 05(43) 22 Date : 18/12/2023

192. Select the true statement. [ NCERT Pg. 75] 195. Match the following : [ NCERT Pg. 72, 74]
i. Epiphyllous when attached to the
perianth as in the flowers of brinjal. Column-I Column-II Column-III
ii. Monoadelphous stamens present in china (Term) (Meaning) (Types)

rose. 1 Aestivati- X Arrangement of A Valvate
iii. Diadelphous stamens present in pea. on flowers on the
iv. Polyadelphous stamens present in citrus. floral axis

2 Infloresc- Y Mode of B Racemose
v. In Salvia and mustard, variation in the
length of filaments of stamens within a ence arrangement of
flower. sepals or petals
1) i, ii and iii 2) i, ii, iii and iv in floral bud
3) ii, iii, iv and v 4) All of these w ith respect to

other members
193. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct
option: [ NCERT Pg. 11] of same w horl
C Tw isted
Category Mango Housefly Man
D Cymose
i Class Dicotyledonae A Mammalia
E Imbricate
ii Order B Diptera C
F Vexillary
iii Family Anacardiaceae D Hominidae
A B C D 1) 1 – Y – A,C,E & F and 2 – X – B & D
1) Insecta Sapindales Primata Muscidae 2) 1 – X – A,C,E & F and 2 – X – B & D
2) Arthropoda Polymoniales Primata Muscidae
3) 1 – X – B & D and 2 – Y – A,C,E & F
3) Insecta Sapindales Mammalia Canidae
4) Arthropoda Poales Mammalia Felidae 4) 1 – Y – B & D and 2 – X – A,C,E & F
194. Mechanisms of breathing very among 196. How many character for flower are correct
different group of animals depending mainly from given characters? [ NCERT Pg. 72]
on their habitats and levels of organisation, i. In some flowers like lily, the calyx and
which option contain all correct statements? corolla are not distinct and are termed as
[ NCERT Pg. 268] perianth.
i. Lower invertebrates like sponges, ii. Actinomorphic flower have bilateral
coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2 symmetry or zygomorphic flower have
with CO2 by simple diffusion over their radial symmetry.
entire body surface
iii. Actinomorphic flower can be divided into
ii. Earthworms use their moist cuticle for two equal halves by any radial plane
exchange O2 with CO2 passing through the centre e.g., pea,
iii. Insect have tracheal tubes to transport gulmohur, bean, Cassia.
atmospheric air within body
iv. Zygomorphic flower can be divided into
iv. Special vascularised structures called gills two similar halves by only one vertical
are used by most of the aquatic arthropods plane e.g., mustard, datura, chilli.
and molluscs
v. Asymmetric flower cannot be divided into
v. Terrestrial forms use vascularised bags
two similar halves by any vertical plane
called lungs for the exchange of gases
passing through the centre, as in canna.
vi. Among vertebrates, fishes use gills
whereas reptiles, birds and mammlas 1) One
respire through lungs and also use skin 2) Two
for respiration. 3) Three
1) i, ii, iii, v and vi 2) i, ii, iv and vi 4) Four
3) i, ii, iii, iv and v 4) All of these
PCB TEST : 05(43) 23 Date : 18/12/2023
197. Match the following : [ NCERT Pg. 68] 199. Match the columns and choose the correct
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
answer from the options given below-
Column-I Column-II Column-III
[ NCERT Pg. 268]
(Plant) (Stem (Function)
Modification) Column-I Column-II
1 Turmeric a Thorns i Photosynthesis (Animal) (Respiratory organ)
2 Pumpkin b Flattened green ii Help in a Sponge i Lungs
structure climbing b Insects ii Gills
3 Citrus c Undergrund iii Protection
c Aquatic arthropoda iii Absent
stem from browsing
d Fish iv Trachea
animals
e Mammal
4 Opuntia d Stem tendrils iv Storage &
perennation 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-i
2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii, e-i
1) 1-c-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-a-iii, 4-b-i
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-ii, e-i
2) 1-a-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-b-i
4) d-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
3) 1-c-ii, 2-d-iii, 3-a-iv, 4-b-i
200. Shifting of the curve to right takes palce in
4) 1-a-iv, 2-d-ii, 3-b-i, 4-c-iii the case of [ NCERT Pg. 274, Fig. 17.5]
198. Which of the following sequences is correct
to initiate inspiration? [ NCERT Pg. 268]
i. The contraction of external intercostals
muscles raises the ribs and sternum
ii. Volume of thorax increases in the dorso-
ventral axis
iii. Intrapulmonary pressure decreases
iv. Diaphragm contraction
v. Air rushes into lungs
1) i, ii, iv, v, iii
2) i, ii, iii, iv, v
3) iv, i, ii, iii, v
4) iv, v, i, ii, iii 1) Rise in pCO2 2) Fall in pH
3) Rise in temperature 4) All of the above
PCB TEST : 05(43) 24 Date : 18/12/2023

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CHAMPIONS are not supernaturals,

Mark Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) Date : 18/12/2023

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

• Today’s Test Syllabus •

PHYSICS 3. An expression for a dimensionless quantity

PCB TEST : 05(43) 1 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 2 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 3 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 4 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 5 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 6 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 7 Date : 18/12/2023

[New NCERT Page-276] 4)

PCB TEST : 05(43) 8 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 9 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 10 Date : 18/12/2023

respectively 3) H2– > H2 > H2+ 4) H2– > H2+ > H2

PCB TEST : 05(43) 11 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 12 Date : 18/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 13 Date : 18/12/2023

4) N 2  N 2 (B.L.) III. IV.

PCB TEST : 05(43) 15 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 16 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 17 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 18 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 21 Date : 18/12/2023

PCB TEST : 05(43) 22 Date : 18/12/2023

ii. Monoadelphous stamens present in china (Term) (Meaning) (Types)

iv. Polyadelphous stamens present in citrus. floral axis

3) ii, iii, iv and v 4) All of these w ith respect to

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05(43) 24 Date : 18/12/2023

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