Biology Model Examination for Grade 12 in the Year 2012/2020

DIRECTION: - THIS PAPER CONTAINS BIOLOGY EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 12.

THE EXAMINATION CONTAINS 100 ITEMS AND THERE IS ONLY ONE BEST
ANSWER FOR EACH ITEM. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER FROM THE SUGGESTED
OPTIONS AND WRITE THE LETTER OF YOUR CHOICE ON THE ANSWER SHEET.

TIME ALLOWED 2hr

1. Which one of the following element is the most abundant in our body?
A. Carbone C. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen D. Phosphorus
2. One of the following variables that can‟t be controlled which may influence the result of the
experiment?
A. Dependent variable C. Controlled variables
B. Independent variable D. Confounding variables
3. One of the following Robrt Koch postulate establishes the link b/n the microorganism & the
disease:
A. The microorganism can be isolated from an infected person & then grow in culture
B. Introducing such cultured microorganisms in to a healthy host should result in the
disease developing
C. The microorganism must always be present when the disease is present
D. It is possible to isolate the microorganism from a pure culture
4. In the correct sequential order of scientific method, which step comes first?
A. Testing the hypothesis
B. Construct hypothesis
C. Analyze result
D. Identify problem
5. One of the following is the correct sequence of process of gram staining
A. Decolorisation Iodine treatment Crystal violet Fixation Counter stain
B. Fixation Crystal violate Iodine treatment Decolorization Counter stain
C. Counter stain Fixation Iodine treatment Decoloraization Crystal violate
D. Counter stain Decoloraization Iodine treatment Crystal violate Fixation

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Biology Model Examination for Grade 12 in the Year 2012/2020

6. Degenerative disease are:

A. Caused as a result of microorganisms
B. Caused as a result of persons working conditions
C. Caused by lack of nutrients in our diet
D. Caused as a result of ageing
7. One of the following steps of genetic engineering comes first:
A. Digesting the source DNA
B. Extracting the source DNA
C. Joining the source DNA fragments to a vector
D. Selection of recombinant cells
8. Biologists use agrobacterium tumefaciens to transfer gene that has been inserted to it in to:
A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Some plants D. Some animals
9. In sulphur cycle, sulphur is oxidized to sulphate ion in aerobic condition by:
A. Desulphovibrio bacteria C. Photosynthetic sulphur bacteria
B. Non photosynthetic sylphur bacteria D. Thiobacillus bacteria
10. One of the following is true about herpes simplex viruse?
A. When they infect a cell, the viral DNA can replicate itself & control the synthesis of
virus protein
B. When they infect a cell, its RNA can be caused to synthesis more viral protein
including an enzyme that control the synthesis
C. When they infect a cell, their RNA release in to a cell & an enzyme reverse transcribed
in to DNA
D. Genetic information stored in the form of RNA
11. The period when the body keeps replacing the T- cells as fast as they are destroyed by HIV is
called
A. Incubation period B. Window period C. Disease period D. Latency period
12. Among the following nutrient cycles, which one does not require the action of bacteria?
A. Nitrogen cycle B. Carbon cycle C. Water cycle D. Sulphur cycle

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13. Which one of the following false about the essence of ecological succession?
A. They change the abiotic conditions in the area
B. The new species compete with the one there before & become dominant
C. Change the abiotic conditions, more species leave
D. Organisms colonize an area
14. Tropical rain forest characterized by
A. Low rainfall and low temperature
B. High rainfall and high temperature
C. Low rainfall and high temperature
D. High rain fall and low temperature
15. One of the following suggests high species diversity in a particular area:
A. Rhododendron bushes completely dominate the area
B. Tropical rainforest dominate the area
C. The environment is quite stressful
D. Few successful species dominate the area
16. Among the following millennium assessment findings, one does not loss biodiversity :
A. Decreasing vulnerability
B. Lower material wealth
C. Increasing insecurity of food supply
D. Less freedom for choice & action
17. In exponential growth , numbers increase:
A. By an increasing amount in each successive time period
B. By the same amount in each successive time period
C. By a decreasing amount in each successive time period
D. By the same amount in inconsecutive time period
18. Among the following traits of garden pea which one is not express itself in the F1
generation?
A. Yellow pod color C. Round seed shape
B. Purple flower color D. Axial flower position

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Biology Model Examination for Grade 12 in the Year 2012/2020

19. If a test cross produces progeny that are round yellow, round green, wrinkled yellow &
wrinkled green in the ratio 1:1:1:1, what is the genotype of the parental plant?
A. YYRR B. RrYy C. rrYY D. RrYY
20. Suppose an animal is heterozygous AaBbHh, and the traits are not linked. When meiosis
occurs, what is the total number of possible combinations of gametes that can be made for
these traits?
A. 16 B. 8 C. 64 D. 4
21. A pedigree chart shows:
A. The genotypic ratios of the offspring.
B. The types of gametes produced by the parents.
C. The pattern of inheritance of a specific gene.
D. Which genes is co-dominant.
22. A man heterozygous for blood type A marries a woman heterozygous for blood type B. The
chance that their first child will have type O blood is ____.
A. 0% B. 50% C. 25% D. 75%
23. Synapsis and crossing over between homologous chromosomes occurs during
A. Metaphase of meiosis I C. Prophase of meiosis I
B. Prophase of meiosis II D. Anaphase of mitosis
24. One of the following true about linked genes
A. Two genes are located on different chromosome‟s
B. Shows independent assortment
C. The two genes are inherited & give a dihybrid ratio 3:1
D. The two genes are inherited & give a dihybrid ratio 9:3:3:1
25. A type of selective breeding that involves breeding an organisms with its close relatives is
A. Cross breeding B. Inbreeding C. Random Mating D. Hybridization
26. If a mother heterozygous for hemophilia marries a normal male, what proportion of her
daughters & sons will be hemophilic respectively?
A. 0, ½ B. ½, ½ C. ½, 0 D. 0, ¼

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27. If the sequence in one strand of a short segment of DNA is 5'-CTGGAT-3', the
complementary strand in the opposite strand is:
A. 3'-GACCTA- 5' B. 5'-GACCTA- 3' C. 3'-GACCUA- 5' D. 5'-GACCUA-3'
28. A clone is a group of organisms produced by
A. Asexual method and genetically similar
B. Asexual method and genetically dissimilar
C. Sexual method and genetically similar
D. Sexual method and genetically dissimilar
29. One of the following is false about the use of DNA fingerprinting:
A. Identification of murderers
B. Identifications of twins
C. Identification of deceased individuals with decomposed bodies
D. Immigration disputes
30. There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true?
A. Several different codons can specify the same amino acid.
B. Each codon specifies a different amino acid.
C. Some amino acids have no link to a codon.
D. Each amino acid is specified by only one codon

31. During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends
on the
A. Codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the rRNA.

B. Anticodon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA.

C. Anticodon on the rRNA and the codon on the mRNA.

D. Codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA.

32. Which of the following is the name of a type of chromosomal mutation and a type of gene
mutation?
A. Substitution C. Deletion

B. Insertion D. Inversion

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33. Genes whose expression is turned off in response to a substance in the environment are
known as
A. Inducible genes.
B. Repressible genes.
C. Constitutive genes.
D. Inducible genes and repressible genes.
34. Which one of the following theory of evolution stated that life has reached on the earth from
other heavenly bodies?
A. Theory of Panspermia C. Theory of Chemical Evolution
B. Theory of Special Creation D. Theory of Spontaneous Generation
35. Which of the following is NOT a potential result from a point mutation that substitutes a
single nucleotide in a gene?
A. A codon that cannot be transcribed into mRNA
B. A codon that codes for a “stop” codon
C. A codon that codes for a different amino acid
D. A codon that codes for the same amino acid as the original sequence
36. The scientists who developed the theory of abiogenesis were:
A. Miller and Bernal C. Oparin and Haldane
B. Miller and Oparin D. Bernal and Haldane
37. Evolution is best described as:
A. A genetic change in an individual
B. A genetic change in an individual that is passed on through successive generations
C. A genetic change in a population
D. A genetic change in a population that is passed on through successive generations
38. Which one of the following is incorrect about science?
A. The result of work of many scientist
B. Change in time with the generation of new data
C. Science only disproves particular suggested explanations
D. An ongoing effort to find new information

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39. Which one of the following tools will be used in both laboratory and field
A. Microscope B. GPS receivers C. Plant press D. Centrifuge
40. What is the reason that Louis Pasteur used special swan necked flasks in his experiment to
disprove the theory of spontaneous generation?
A. To allow free passage of air to the broth inside the flask
B. To prevent the escape of any microorganism from the flask
C. To trap particles from the air that might enter the flask before reaching the broth
D. To keep the broth in the flask not to kill microorganisms
41. One of the following involved the study of the origin and evolution of life
A. Paleobiology B. Oncology C. Ethology D. Neurology
42. One of the following refers a measure of how dependable and consistent the results of an
experiment are
A. Accuracy B. Reliability C. Validity Hypothesis
43. Which one of the following true about transmission electron microscope?
A. Show the fine detail of cell structure
B. View only the surface of an object
C. Image is viewed on the type of television screen
D. Don‟t show fine detail of cell structure
44. One of the following is false about micropropagation
A. Growing plants from few cells on special agar medium
B. Growing of plants in the field
C. Producing of genetically identical offspring
D. Producing thousands of plants from just one parent
45. Which one of the following is the relevance of biology for medicine?
A. To advice effective methods of contraception
B. To cures genetic disease
C. For production of antibiotics
D. For production of monoclonal antibodies

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46. In the life cycle of HIV/AIDS, which step comes last?

A. Viral genetic material converted in to DNA
B. The new DNA instructs the cell to make more HIV
C. Entry phase
D. New DNA enters the host cell DNA
47. Anti-retro viral drugs are drugs that:
A. Give someone immunity against AIDS
B. Stop the transmission of AIDS from one person to person
C. Break the life cycle of HIV with in a cell
D. Prevent other illnesses from developing in someone with AIDS
48. Being HIV positive means
A. A person has AIDS
B. A person has been in contact with HIV
C. A person has other disease as a result of HIV
D. A person has HIV antibodies in his or her blood
49. One of the following medical professional produces x- rays & other images to help in the
diagnosis of disease
A. Medical researcher C. Radiographer
B. Specialized researcher D. Pharmacologist
50. Which properties of water help aquatic organisms maintain their cellular processes?
A. High specific heat capacity C. Light transparency
B. High latent heat vaporization D. High surface tension
51. Which group of biochemical molecule is organic molecules
A. Water, glucose & methane C. Glucose, lipid & calcium carbonate
B. Linollic acid, glycine & methane D. Starch, glucose & water
52. One of the following light spectra generates deeper in to the ocean.
A. Blue B. Yellow C. Red D. Orange

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53. One of the following is true about maltose

A. Is derived from two α-glucose molecules
B. Is derived from an α-glucose molecule and a fructose molecule
C. Is derived from a β-glucose molecule and an α-galactose molecule
D. Is derived from a β-glucose molecule and a fructose molecule
54. Which one of the following is true about amylopectin forms of starch?
A. An unbranched polymer of α-glucose.
B. The molecules coil into a helical structure.
C. It forms a colloidal suspension in hot water.
D. A branched polymer of α-glucose.
55. One of the following is correct paring concerning protein structure & its example?
A. Primary structures ===Insulin C. Tertiary structures===Alpha helix
B. Secondary structures===Hemoglobin D. Quaternary structures=== Collagen
56. Hydrolysis of triglycerides yields
A. One glycerol & three fatty acid C. Two glycerol & two fatty acid
B. Two glycerol & one fatty acid D. Three glycerol & one fatty acid
57. In a DNA strand of 1800 bases, cytocine is twice adenine. What is the amount of guanine?
A. 300 B. 600 C. 400 D. 800
58. The bond that links a phosphate group with glycerol in phospholipids is known as
A. Ester B. Phosphodiester C. Covalent D. Hydrophobic
59. If a food gives first negative and second positive result when tested with Mellions reagent
and benedict solution respectively. The food contains:-
A. Only protein C. Protein, reducing and non-reducing sugar
B. Protein & non-reducing sugar D. Any sugar touch foods
60. Why DNA is huge size, because it:-
A. Allows the molecule to carry the code for many different proteins in the genes
B. Ensures that the genes remain the same over generations.
C. Allows coding of genes and replication during cell division.
D. Need only code for one protein
61. Which one of the following is true about hydrophilic region of phospholipid molecule?

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A. Water hating C. Hydrocarbon tail part

B. Phosphate head part D. Insoluble in water
62. One of the following is incorrect about enzymes?
A. They are proteins
B. They operate at the same optimum PH
C. They lower the activation energy
D. They need coenzymes to work efficiently
63. Which one of the following enzymes is named according to where they act:
A. Dehydrogenase C. Intestinal protease
B. Polymerase D. Papayin
64. An enzyme that catalyzed the transfer of hydrogen and oxygen atoms or electrons from one
substrate to another
A. Isomerase C. Transferase
B. Lyases D. Oxidoreductases
65. Which one of the following enzyme used to treat cystic fibrosis
A. Streptokinase C. Pulmozyme
B. Abacavir sulphate D. Glucose oxidase
66. In the systematic naming of enzymes EC 2.5.11.1 enzyme , the third figure indicates:
A. Sub class B. Genus C. Sub- sub class D. Serial number
67. The numbers of molecules of reactants form enzyme-substrate complexes with a molecule of
an enzyme is called
A. Collision of reactants C. Model of enzymes
B. Intermediate molecules D. Turn-over rate
68. Which of the following cofactors involved in the oxidation of an alcohol?
A. Zn++ B. Cu++ C. NAD+ D. FAD+
69. As temperature increases up to the optimum, the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction
increases because:
A. The particles are given more kinetic energy
B. There are more collisions between enzyme and substrate
C. There are more enzyme–substrate complexes formed D. All of the above

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70. The degree of inhibition caused by a competitive inhibitor can be decreased by

A. Increasing the substrate concentration & decreasing the inhibitor concentration
B. Increasing the enzyme concentration
C. Increasing both the enzyme and inhibitor concentration
D. Adding water to reduce the concentration of the enzyme complex
71. Which one of the following is true about events in cell biology
A. Jansen--------- builds the first transmission electron microscope.
B. Brown---------- describes „cells‟ in cork.
C. Leeuwenhoek-------discovers protozoa.
D. Kolliker-------------- propose the double-helix structure of DNA.
72. Cube A has a side measuring 3 mm. Cube B has a side measuring 12 mm. The surface-area-
to-volume ratio of cube A when compared to cube B is:
A. Two times bigger
B. Two times smaller
C. Four times smaller
D. Four times bigger
73. According to the endosymbiosis theory, which of the following organelle of the cell evolved
last?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Plasma membrane
C. Mitochondria
D. Chloroplast
74. One of the following is true about Prokaryotic cells
A. DNA is a continuous loop not associated with protein
B. DNA is linear associated with histone proteins
C. Cell wall always present & made from cellulose
D. Ribosomes is present but larger than eukaryotic cells

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75. Which one of the following is common for Davson-Danielli and fluid mosaic model of
plasma membrane?
A. Sandwich arrangement C. Static arrangement
B. Phospholipid bilayer D. Flexible arrangement
76. From the following, which one has inverse relationship with the rate of diffusion?
A. Surface area of the membrane C. Diffusion distance
B. Temperature D. Concentration gradient
77. One of the following organelle is membrane-enclosed sacs containing oxidative enzymes and
catalase that detoxify various wastes
A. Lysosome C. Golgi Complex:
B. Peroxisome D. Cytoskeleton
78. Which of the following does not use energy in the form of ATP?
A. Active transport C. Endocytosis
B. Facilitated diffusion D. Phagocytosis.
79. Membrane-bound organelles include:
A. Ribosomes and mitochondria
B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
C. Chloroplasts and peroxisomes
D. Peroxisomes and nuclei
80. If red blood cells are immersed in a hypotonic solution, they will:
A. Take in water by osmosis, swell and become turgid
B. Lose water by osmosis and shrink
C. Lose water by osmosis and burst
D. Take in water by osmosis, swell and burst
81. One of the following is colorless & non pigmented parts of plastids that store fats and starch
A. Leucoplasts C. Chromoplasts
B. Chloroplasts D. Chlorophylls

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Biology Model Examination for Grade 12 in the Year 2012/2020

82. The substrate used in the last step of glycolysis is?

A. Glyceraldehayed 3- phosphate
B. Pyruvate
C. Phosphoenolpyruvate
D. 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate
83. How many reactions that occur in the TCA cycle transfer electrons from a substrate to an
electron accepting enzyme?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
84. Which one of the following is not common in the link reaction and citric acid cycle?
A. Decarboxylation C. Substrate phosphorylation
B. Dehydrogenation D. Formation of citrate
85. How many net ATP molecules are produced by substrate level phosphorylation, if the cell
respired ten glucose molecules aerobically?
A. 60 C. 40
B. 340 D. 360
86. In the Krebs cycle:
A. Some ATP is made by oxidative phosphorylation
B. The four-carbon compound oxaloacetate is regenerated
C. ATP is used
D. The six-carbon compound citrate is split into two three carbon compounds
87. One of the following is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?
A. H+ B. Oxygen C. Water D. NADH
88. What does ATP synthase do?
A. Create ATP in chemiosmosis
B. Break down ATP in chemiosmosis
C. Break down NADPH
D. Create NADPH

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89. If M. Obang Mohamed runs fatly to score a goal, the energy demand of muscle cells
increases greatly. So, which of the following event is mainly proceeding in his muscle cells?
A. Pyruvate converted into lactate C. Lactate is converted into pyruvate
B. Pyruvate is converted into ethanol D. Pyruvate is converted into glucose
90. Which one of the following is the correct sequence for the movement of electrons during the
light dependent reaction of plants?
A. P700, P680, NADP+, water
B. P680, water, P700, NADP+
C. Water, P700, NADP+, P680
D. Water, P680, P700, NADP+
91. In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis:
A. NADP is reduced C. ADP is produced
B. ATP is produced D Light energy excites chlorophyll electrons
92. What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
A. NAD and NADPH
B. NADP+ and glucose
C. NADPH and ATP
D. Oxygen and NADPH
93. In the light-independent reactions, reduced NADP is used to:
A. Oxidize GP to TP C. Oxidize TP to GP
B. Reduce TP to GP D. Reduce GP to TP
94. Which one of the following is true about non- cyclic photophosphorylation
A. Electron is first expelled from the reaction center P700
B. Electron is first expelled from the reaction center P680
C. Photolysis of water does not occur
D. Oxygen & NADP are not formed
95. Chlorophyll absorbs ----------------and -------------light from the light
A. Purple and green C. Red and blue
B. Black and orange D. Yellow and green

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96. One of the following is true about C 3 photosynthesis?

A. Fixation of Co2 occur in mesophyll cells and bundle sheath cells
B. Calvin cycle occur in bundle sheath cells
C. Rubisco enzyme is used to fix Co2
D. PEP carboxylase enzyme used to fix Co2
97. Which of the following molecules is not needed for the Calvin cycle?
A. CO2 B. ATP C. NADPH D. H20
98. One of the following is true about CAM plant photosynthesis
A. Plants that use the cycle can be mesophytic
B. Found only in tropical plants
C. Atmosphere co2 acceptor is PEP during night & metabolic co2 acceptor RUBP during
day time
D. Atmosphere co2 acceptor is RUBP during day time & metabolic co2 acceptor PEP
during night
99. Which one of the following will not affect photosynthesis?
A. Temperature
B. Glucose availability
C. Light intensity
D. Carbon dioxide
100. What is the name of the process of synthesizing mRNA from DNA template?
A. Translation C. Transcription
B. Transformation D. Translocation

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