Kumpulan Soal UKP CBA Pra Prala Nautika

Kumpulan Soal UKP CBA Pra Prala
Nautika
Plan and conduct a passage and determine position
Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi
1. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.

A. Gnomonic
B. Routeing
C. Passage planning
D. Instructional
2. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating

A. LMT
B. SMT
C. GMT
D. CST
3. A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called?
A. Great circle
B. Latitude
C. Longitude
D. Small circle
4. If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle
passing through a heavenly body • s called:
A. Local hour angle
B. Greenwich hour angle
C. Sidereal hour angle
D. Tight ascension
5. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?

A. The date line
B. Equator
C. Rhumb line
D. Greenwich meridian
6. What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible
horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ?
A. dip
B. height of eye
C. index error
D. error of parallax
7. When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when :
A. at the equator
B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles
C. the course is ti-S
D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings
8. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?

A. Mesosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Ionosphere
9. What is the true shape of the earth?

A. a perfect sphere
B. rectangle
C. an oblate spheroid
D. square
10. The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called :
A. aphelion
B. perihelion
C. apogee
D. perigee
11. What is the extent of zone zero?

A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E
B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich
C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich
D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W
12. The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called:
A. geographical mile
B. sea mile
C. none of the given options
D. statue mile
13. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?

A. Reduces
B. Remains constant
C. Always zero
D. Increases
14. Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called:
A. Observer's Principle vertical
B. Vertical circles
C. Observer's Prime vertical
D. Small circles
15. The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the:
A. solstical point
B. first point of aries
C. first point of libra
D. celestial pole
16. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =

A. sin late x cos dec
B. sin dec x cos lat
C. sin lat x sec dec
D. sin dec x sec lat
17. Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured
eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called:
A. Time zones
B. Zone time
C. Separation zones
D. Fixed zones
18. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow

measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called :
A. apparent horizon
B. sensible horizon
C. artificial horizon
D. visible horizon
19. the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the
earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is
called:
A. Attitude of the celestial body
B. Declination of the celestial body
C. True zenith distance of the celestial body
D. Calculated zenith distance
20. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?

A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and
bearing to destination
B. The vessel sails on the same course through out
C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the
intermediate course is
D. None of the other options
21. Right ascension is measured:

A.Westward from aries
B. Westward from Greenwich
C. Eastwards from aries
D.Wrestward from the observer
22. What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ
by 90 deg.?
A. Quadrature
B. Conjunction
C. Opposition
D. None of the given options
23. The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the
earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's
sensible horizon is called?
A. Parallax in attitude
B. True attitude
C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body.
D. Apparent altitude
24. What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ?
A. 4 1/5 deg
B. 5 1/4 deg
C. 1 4/5 deg
D. 1 5/4 deg
25. Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are
called
A. both<Option 1> and C
B. celestial meridians
C. meridians
D. neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
26. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:

A. multiplied
B. subtracted
C. there is no correction
D. added
27. What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a
constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the
ecliptic called?
A. Mean sun
B. True sun
C. Apparent sun
D. All of these.
28. What are planets which are closer to the sun called?
A. Inferior planets
B. Small planets
C. Large planets
D. Superior planets
29. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?

A. retrograde
B. direct
C. southward
D. northward
30. Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time?
A. no
B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction
C. yes
D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition
31. A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun?
A. Superior planets
B. Small planets
C. Inferior planets
D. Large planets
32. What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages
called?
A. A minute
B. An hour
C. A day
D. A second
33. The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg.
below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when
the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called :
A. nautical twilight
B. civil twilight
C. astronomical twilight
D. sunrise
34. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:

A. 4 min later
B. 4 min. earlier
C. 10 min later
D. 40 min earlier
35. When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is
below the horizon, it is called:
A. sunrise
B. moon rise
C. sunset
D. twilight
36. In which case is augmentation necessary:

A. Sun
B. Stars
C. Moon
D. Planets
37. The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith
contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle
passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational
horizon is
A. Amplitude
B. Horizontal sextant angle
C. Vertical sextant angle
D. Azimuth
38. What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears
to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting
in the west called?
A. Diurnal motion
B. Diurnal inequality
C. Diurnal circle
D. Diurnal arc
39. The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg
around the earth is called?
A. Rotational period of the moon
B. Revolutionary period of the moon
C. Synodic period of the moon
D. Sidereal period of the moon
40. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?

A. Axis
B. Prime meridian
C. None of the other options
D. Equator
41. What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the
observer's meridian called?
A. Greenwich sidereal time
B. Local mean time
C. Local sidereal time
D. Greenwich apparent time
42. What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of
the sun and the center of that body?
A. Elongation of a celestial body
B. Attitude of a celestial body
C. Horizontal parallax
D. parallax in attitude
43. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:

A. Isothermic line
B. Isobaric line
C. Isogonic line
D. isobathic line
44. When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the
three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be
A. in opposition
B. in Perihelion
C. in Aphelion
D. in conjunction
45. What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude
shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian?
A. Longitude by chronometer
B. Ex-meridian altitude
C. Intercept
D. Latitude by meridian altitude
46. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:

A. Mean latitude
B. Middle latitude
C. Both <Option 1> and <Option 2>
D. Neither <Option 1> nor <Option 2>
47. The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a
celestial body is called:
A. azimuth
B. true bearing
C. amplitude
D. relative bearing
48. The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called:
A. Datum
B. Calibration point
C. Date line
D. Danger line
49. How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when
they are further away from the sun?
A. Do not moue
B. Constant rate
C. Faster
D. Slower
50. When is a body said to be circumpolar?

A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90
B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name.
C. Neither <Option 2> nor <Option 3>
D. Both <Option 2> and <Option 3>
51. How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W
at 0 deg?
A. partly curved and partly straight
B. straight
C. neither <option 1> nor <option 2>
D. curved
52. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:

A. both <Option 2>and <Option 3>
B. sun
C. stars
D. coon
53. Latitude scale is obtained as:

A. long scale x cosec fat
B. long scale x cos lat
C. long. Scale x sec lat
D. long scale x sin lat
54. At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is
A. 23 deg
B. 12 deg
C. 0 deg
D. 23.5 deg
55. At the horizon, refraction:

A. Is moderate
B. Does not exist
C. Is maximum
D. Is minimum
56. Refraction correction must always be:

A. Divided
B. Added
C. Subtracted
D. Multiplie
57. What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of
the true sun over the same meridian?
A. Mean solar day
B. Sidereal day
C. none of the other options
D. Apparent solar day
58. As height of eye increases, Dip:

A. increases
B. remains constant
C. doubles
D. decreases
59. Which of these is an inferior planet?

A. Mercury
B. Uranus
C. Jupiter
D. Saturn
60. What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called?
A. 1 st point of aries
B. 1 st point of libra
C. Nodes
D. Antinodes
Maintain seaworthiness of the ship
1. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the class
notation:
A. Ro-Ro
B. Tanker
C. Container
D. Bulk Carrier
2. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft is:
A. Five
B. Four
C. Six
D. Three
3. The transverse curve of the deck is called:

A. Camber
B. Rake
C. Flare
D. Tumble home
4. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the:

A. Inside of the Plating
B. Inside of the Ceiling
C. Inside of the Frames
D. Outside of the Plating
5. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is called:
A. A Ballast Tank
B. A Cofferdam
C. A Deep Tank
D. An Escape Trunk
6. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called:

A. Rise of floor
B. Sheer
C. Rake
D. Freeboard
7. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from the
bottom is:
A. 0.25 h
B. 0.5 h
C. 0.1 h
D. 0.33 h
8. Istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called"

A. Racking
B. Pounding
C. Heaving
D. Slamming
9. Panting stresses are most severe:

A. Between the Bulkheads
B. Forward
C. Aft
D. Amidships
10. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is:
A. In ballast, beam sea
B. Loaded, head sea
C. In ballast, head sea
D. Loaded, beam sea
11. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:

A. Side Girders
B. Deck Girders
C. Stringers
D. Bulkheads
12. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist:
A. Panting & Racking
B. Water Pressure
C. Hogging & Sagging
D. Panting & Pounding
13. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed to
resist:
A. Sagging
B. Pounding
C. Hogging
D. Racking
14. A vessel in the condition shown in Figure will be:
A. Twisting
B. Racking
C. Sagging
D. Hogging
15. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's:

A. Hydrostatic Information
B. Layout
C. Construction Sequence
D. Tank Capacities
16. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a:
A. Knee
B. Gusset
C. Bracket
D. Stiffener
17. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a:

A. Flat Plate Keel
B. Box Keel
C. Bar Keel
D. Duct Keel
18. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the:

A. Sheer Strake
B. Stealer Plate
C. Garboard Strake
D. Stringer Plate
19. The athwartships cross section structure shown in the given Figure is a:
A. Flat Plate Keel
B. Duct Keel
C. Box Keel
D. Bar Keel
20. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in:

A. Torsion
B. Compression
C. Sheer
D. Tension
21. The Figure shows a:

A. Strut
B. Bulwark Stanchion
C. Siffener
D. Stay
22. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a:

A. Construction Drawing
B. Sheer Profile
C. Body Plan
D. Shell Expansion Plan
23. In Figure shown, the section marked 4 is:

A. A Flat Bar
B. An Offset Bulb
C. A Tee
D. An Angle
24. A vertically welded shell joint is called a:

A. Lap
B. Joint
C. Seam
D. Butt
25. In the Figure shown, the items marked 6 are:

A. Knees
B. Webs
C. Chocks
D. Bilge Brackets
26. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be
constructed with approved:
A. Drains
B. Scuppers
C. Baffles
D. Sills
27. Water is drained from an exposed deck by:

A. Drain Valves
B. Discharge Pipes
C. Side Scuttles
D. Freeing Ports
28. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by:

A. Stays
B. Chocks
C. Brackets
D. Cleats
29. The type of framing shown in the drawing of this ship cross section is:
A. Combination
B. Longitudinal
C. Transverse
D.Web
30. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by fitting:

A. Deck Girders
B. Stringers
C. Web Frames
D. Pillars
31. The type of weld shown in Figure is a:

A. Vee Butt
B. Fillet
C. Butt
D. Lap
32. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to
resist:
A. Panting
B. Pounding
C. Racking
D. Hogging
33. The item of structure numbered 9 in the given Figure is a:

A. Deck Plate
B. Panting Stringer
C. Foundation Plate
D. floor Plate
34. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the:

A. Double Bottom
B. Deck House
C. Fore Hold
D. Fore Peak
35. The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker is called a:
A. Mooring
B. Scupper
C. Hawser
D. Spurling
36. The item of structure numbered 10 in the Figure given is a:
A. Bracket
B. Bow Chock
C. Breast Hook
D. Diamond Plate
37. The item of structure numbered 11 in the given Figure is a:

A. Floor Plate
B. Nash Plate
C. Web
D. Bulkhead
38. The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a:

A. Frame
B. Beam
C. Stringer
D. Seel Plate
39. The type of rudder in the Figure is:

A. Semi-balanced
B. Unbalanced
C. Spade
D. Balanced
40. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a:

A. Coupling
B. Gudgeon
C. Bolt
D. Pin
41. The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the:
A. Transom Floor
B. After Peak Bulkhead
C. Steering Flat
D. Vibration Post
42. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the:
A.Winter Draught
B. Statutory Freeboard
C. Depth
D. Summer Draught
43. The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the:
A. Tropical Allowance
B. Bock Water Allowance
C. Fresh Water Allowance
D. Summer Allowance
44. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the:

A. Fresh Water Allowance
B. Freeboard
C. Winter Draught
D. Summer Draught
45. The steel section shown here will be used to construct a:

A. Steering Flat
B. Bulkhead
C. Tank Top
D. Hatch Cover
46. In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller will move in one revolution of the
shaft is the:
A. Slip
B. Diameter
C. Pitch
D. Circumference
47. When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be:

A. Small
B. Zero
C. Large
D. Negative
48. The intact volume of a vessel above the waterline is called:

A. Buoyancy
B. Negative Buoyancy
C. Reserve Buoyancy
D. Lost Buoyancy
49. A stiff vessel will have a GM which is:

A. Large
B. Small
C. Zero
D. Negative
50. Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the:

A.Waterline to the Keel
B. Top of the Bulwarks to the Waterline
C. Main Deck to the Keel
D. Main Deck to the Waterline
51. A GZ curve is used to determine:

A. Stability
B. Deadweight
C. Displacement
D. Buoyancy
52. The weight a vessel can carry is called the:

A. Deadweight
B. Gross Tonnage
C. Registered Tonnage
D. Load Displacement
53. The horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity acting on a vessel
when heeled by wind or waves is called the:
A. KM
B. KG
C. Righting Lever
D. Metacentric Height
54. Panting stresses are most severe:

A. Forward
B. Between the Bulkheads
C. Aft
D. Amidships
55. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from
the bottom is:
A. 0.5 h
B. 0.33 h
C. 0.1 h
D. 0.25 h
56. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist:
A. Panting & Racking
B. Water Pressure
C. Hogging & Sagging
D. Panting & Pounding
57. Distortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called:

A. Heaving
B. Racking
C. Pounding
D. Slamming
58. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is:
A. In ballast, beam sea
B. Loaded, beam sea
C. In ballast, head sea
D. Loaded, head sea
59. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:

A. Side Girders
B. Deck Girders
C. Stringers
D. Bulkheads
60. A vessel in the condition shown \ here is:

A. Sagging
B. Hogging
C. Twisting
D. Racking
61. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed to
resist:
A. Hogging
B. Pounding
C. Racking
D. Sagging
62. The transverse curve of the deck is called:

A. Rake
B. Tumble home
C. Flare
D. Camber
63. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft is:
A. Six
B. Five
C. Three
D. Four
64. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the:

A. Outside of the Plating
B. Inside of the Plating
C. Inside of the Frames
D. Inside of the Ceiling
65. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called:

A. Freeboard
B. Rake
C. Sheer
D. Rise of Floor
66. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the class
notation:
A. Container
B. Bulk Carrier
C. Ro-Ro
D. Tanker
67. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is called:
A. A Ballast Tank
B. A Cofferdam
C. A Deep Tank
D. In Escape Trunk
68. The type of weld shown here is a:

A. Lap
B. Fillet
C. Butt
D. Vee Butt
69. The athwartships cross section structure shown here is a:

A. Box Keel
B. Duct Keel
C. Flat Plate Keel
D. Bar Keel
70. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a:

A. Body Plan
B. Shell Expansion Plan
C. Construction Drawing
D. Sheer Profile
71. He item marked 5 is a:

A. Frame
B. Bracket
C. Beam Knee
D. Beam
72. This drawing shows a:
A. Strut
B. Bulwark Stanchion
C. Stiffener
D. Stay
73. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to
resist:
A. Hogging
B. Pounding
C. Panting
D. Racking
74. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the:

A. Stealer Plate
B. Sheer Strake
C. Garboard Strake
D. Stringer Plate
75. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's:

A. Layout
B. Construction Sequence
C. Hydrostatic Information
D. Tank Capacities
76. In the figure, the items marked 6 are:

A. Bilge Brackets
B. Chocks
C. Webs
D. Knees
77. A vertically welded shell joint is called a:

A. Seam
B. Butt
C. Joint
D. Lap
78. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a:
A. Gusset
B. Knee
C. Stiffener
D. Bracket
79. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a:
A. Flat Plate Keel
B. Box Keel
C. Duct Keel
D. Bar Keel
80. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be
constructed with approved:
A. Sills
B. Baffles
C. Drains
D. Scuppers
81. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by Fitting:

A. Stringers
B. Web Frames
C. Deck Girders
D. Pillars
82. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in:

A. Torsion
B. Sheer
C. Compression
D. Tension
83. Water is drained from an exposed deck by:

A. Discharge Pipes
B. Freeing Ports
C. Drain Values
D. Side Scuttles
84. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by.

A. Brackets
B. Cleats
C. Chocks
D. Stays
85. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the:

A.Winter Draught
B. Summer Draught
C. Freeboard
D. Fresh Water Allowance
86. The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the:
A. Fresh Water Allowance
B. Dock Water Allowance
C. Summer Allowance
D. Tropical Allowance
87. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the:
A. Statutory Freeboard
B. Winter Draught
C. Depth
D. Summer Draught
88. The item of structure numbered 12 is a:

A. Stern Post
B. Boss Plate
C. Stern Frame
D. Stern Bearing

A.Web
B. Floor Plate
C. Wash Plate
D. Bulkhead
90. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the:

A. Fore Hold
B. Fore Peak
C. Deck House
D. Double Bottom
91. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a:

A. Gudgeon
B. Pin
C. Bolt
D. Coupling
92. The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the:
A. Transom Floor
B. After Peak Bulkhead
C. Vibration Post
D. Steering Flat

A. Diamond Plate
B. Bracket
C. Breast Hook
D. Bow Chock
Keterlibatan dengan keselamatan pelayar dan kapal (Contribute to the safety
of personnel and ship)
1. A hand flare must have a burning period of at least

a. 1 Min
b. 30 Sec
c. 5 Min
d. 10 Min
2. A rocket parachute flare reaches an altitude of

a. not less than 300m
b. not less than 180m
c. not less than 40m
d. not less than 450m
3. Buoyant smoke signals shall be so designed as to burn or emit smoke:

a. Continuously after having been immersed for a period of 10 seconds under 100 mm of
water when underwater
b. When under water
c. Continuously after having been immersed for a period of 1 minute under 1m of water
d. Only when not in the water
4. Give the meaning of the following symbol

a. Line throwing appliance
b. Lifeboat hand flare
c. Rocket parachute flares
d. Survival craft distress pyrotechnic signals

a. EPIRB
b. Survival craft distress pyrotechnic signals
c. Survival craft portable radio
d. Rocket parachute flare

a. Radar transponder
b. Rocket parachute flares
c. Survival craft distress pyrotechnic signals
d. Epierb

a. Survival craft portable radio
b. EPIRB
c. Rocket parachute flares

a. Rocket parachute flares
b. Parachute landing area
c. Line throwing appliance
9. Hand flares and buoyant smoke signals can continue to burn or emit smoke after having
been immersed for a period of 10s
a. Right if the immersion depth is smaller than 100 mm
b. Wrong
c. Right
d. Right if the immersion depth is more than 1m
10. How many Radar Transponders (SART) are required to be carried onboard a ship for use
in survival crafts?
a. One on each side of the ship
b. 2, one of which being capable of floating free if the ship sinks
c. One in each lifeboat
d. Two on each side of the ship
11. The mandatory color of a hand flare is:

a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. White
12. The operating mode of a pyrotechnic signal depends essentially on:

a. Instructions or diagrams printed on its casing by the manufacturer
b. The weather conditions of the moment
c. The fact that the user is on board a liferaft, a lifeboat or ship
d. A definite standard process
13. The pyrotechnics used to transmit visual signals to other vessels, boats or aircrafts are of
the following type
a. All of the below mentioned
b. Hand flare
c. Buoyant smoke signal
d. Rocket parachute flare
14. What colour flare is used to signal a safe landing place for small boats ?
a. Green
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. White
15. What is the minimum number of channels required for the portable two-way VHF's for
survival craft?
a. Channels 6, 13 & 16
b. Channel 16 only
c. Channels 16 & 12
d. Channels 6, 12 & 16
16. What is the minimum number of portable two way VHF walkie talkies for use in survival
craft, that should be carried onboard vessels which comply with GMDSS regulations?
a. 3 sets
b. 2 sets
c. 1 set
d. There is no requirement to carry them.
17. *Among working conditions listed below which one is required for every propulsion
engine of lifeboats?
a. Starting achieved within 2 min of commencing the start procedure at an ambient
temperature of -15°C
b. Any type of fuel
c. For a period of at least 72 hours
d. Propeller permanently driven by the engine
18. *As regards the launching and recovery arrangements for rescue boats which is required
among the following?
a. Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival craft during
abandonment
b. Each lifeboat shall be provided with separate appliances which is capable of launching and
recovering the lifeboat
c. Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that they can be operated at all times
from the bridge
d. Different type of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for similar survival
craft on board the ship
19. *For how long should the self contained air support system on a totally enclosed lifeboat
having its engine running be capable of providing safe and breathable air ?
a. 10 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes
20. *Give the meaning of the following symbol
a. Fasten seat belts
b. Fasten lifejacket belt
c. Secure buoy line to the ship
d. Fasten immersion suit belt

a. Start water-spray
b. Rescue boat with waterproof canopy
c. Lower lifeboat to water
d. Secure lifeboat hatches

a. Start engine
b. Reverse engine
c. Indicates manual starting direction of the engine
d. Start water spray

a. Start air supply
b. Start air filling of the davit launched liferaft
c. Start ventilation of the rescue boat
d. Start ventilation of the lifeboat

a. Secure hatches
b. Open hatches
c. Secure doors in the ship's side plating
d. Close rescue boat ventilation aperture

a. Release gripes
b. Release falls
c. Davit launched lifeboat
d. Davit launched rescue boat
26. *How much lifeboat capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more
than 85 meters in length ?
a. 100% of the ship's complement on each side
b. 50% of the ship's complement on each side
c. 125% of the ship's complement on each side
d. 150% of the ship's complement on each side
27. *How much water per person is provided in a lifeboat not equipped with a desalting
apparatus?
a. 3 litres
b. 5 litres
c. 2 litres
d. 1 litre
28. *The freeboard of a lifeboat, measured from the waterline to the lowest opening through
which the lifeboat may become flooded:
a. Should exceed 1.5 % of the lifeboat length when loaded with 50 % of the number of
persons the lifeboat is permitted to accommodate, these persons being seated to one side of
the centerline
b. Should exceed 1.5 % of the lifeboat length when fully loaded
c. Should exceed 0.5 metres when fully loaded
d. Should exceed 0.5 metres when loaded with 50 % of the number of persons the lifeboat is
permitted to accommodate, these persons being seated to one side of the centerline
29. *The person in charge of a lifeboat:

a. All of the below mentioned
b. Must check that the crew under his command are acquainted with their duties
c. Must check that the second in command has also a list of the lifeboat crew
d. Must have a list of the survival craft crew
30. *Which among the following list is particularly required for a totally enclosed lifeboat ?
a. hatches positioned so as to allow launching and recovery operations to be performed
without any occupant having to leave the enclosure
b. windows on both sides can be closed watertight and opened for ventilation
c. self-bailing arrangements
d. handrails inside for persons moving to their seats
31. *Which among the following list is required for lifeboat equipment according to present
regulations?
a. Be secured in a manner as not to interfere with abandonment procedures
b. Be made of buoyant material or stored in buoyant containers
c. Be made of fire-retardant material and stored in buoyant containers
d. Be made of fire retardant material
32. A lifejacket or immersion suit light has a luminous intensity of, and is capable of working
at minimum for a period of:
a. 0,75 candelas (about 0,6 mile range at normal meteorological sight), 8 hours
b. 0,75 candelas (about 0,6 mile range at normal meteorological sight), 4 hours
c. 2 candelas (about 1,7 mile range at normal meteorological sight), 4 hours
d. 2 candelas (about 1,7 mile range at normal meteorological sight), 8 hours
33. Fire protected lifeboats when waterborne should be capable of protecting its full
complement when subjected to a continuous oil fire that envelops the boat for a period of not
less than how many minutes?
a. 8 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes
34. For how long and at what speed is a fully loaded lifeboat designed to operate in calm
weather ?
a. 6 knots for 24 hours
b. 4 knots for 48 hours
c. 10 knots for 24 hours
d. 3 knots for 24 hours

a. Survival craft distress pyrotechnic signals
b. Line throwing appliance
c. Lifeboat hand flare
d. Radio signal emitting parachute flare
36. Give the meaning of the following symbol:

a. lower embarkation ladder to water
b. lower lifeboat to water
c. lower liferaft to water
d. location of embarkation ladder
37. How is the painter released from the lifeboat, once the boat is waterborne and ready to
leave?
a. Remove the toggle which will release the painter
b. Cut it with the axe provided
c. Cut it with the knife contained in the equipment locker
d. The painter will automatically part by the weak link when the boat goes astern to clear the
ship
38. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each lifeboat?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 12
39. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each lifeboat?
a. 6
b. 4
c. 12
d. 2
40. How many pyrotechnic signals to be in each lifeboat?

a. 4 Rocket parachute flares / 6 hand flares / 2 buoyant smoke signals
b. 10 Rocket parachute flares / 12 hand flares / 5 buoyant smoke signals
c. 8 Rocket parachute flares / 2 hand flares / 6 buoyant smoke signals
d. 6 Rocket parachute flares / 6 hand Flares / 6 buoyant smoke signals
41. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each lifeboat?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 12
d. Nil
42. How much food per person is supplied in a lifeboat?

a. Not less than 10000 kJ
b. Not less than 5000 kJ
c. Not less than 20000 kJ
d. None - only barley sugar sweets supplied
43. How much water would you allow per person as officer in charge of the lifeboat,
following an abandon ship operation?
a. Nothing for the first 24 hours, then 1/2 litre per day (more in the tropics)
b. 1/2 litre immediately, followed by 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)
c. Nothing for the first 48 hours, then 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)
d. Nothing for the first 24 hours, then 1/4 litre per day (more in the tropics)
44. How would you know how many people a lifeboat is supposed to hold?
a. The number of persons should be clearly stated on the outside of the boats bow.
b. Fill the boat up until no more space is left.
c. Ask one of the deck officers
d. No fixed number as it depends on the people's size
45. The thermal insulation provided to the wearer of an anti-exposure suit is sufficient to
ensure that the wearer's body core temperature does not fall at a rate of more than:
a. 1.5°C per hour after the first 0.5h immersion in calm water at a temperature of 5°C
b. 0.5°C per hour after the first 1.5h immersion in calm water at a temperature of 5°C
c. 1°C per hour after the first 2h immersion in calm water at a temperature of 5°C
d. 1.5°C per hour after the first 2,5h immersion in calm water at a temperature of 5°C
46. What are the tricing pendants made for?

a. They automatically prevent any gap between the ship side and the lifeboat at the first stage
of its launching
b. They prevent the lifeboat from falling down if one or both davit breaks
c. They prevent people from falling down if the lifeboat falls down
d. They prevent the lifeboat from falling down if the falls break
47. What is the meaning of this symbol ?

a. Lifeboat
b. Rescue boat
c. Liferaft
d. Davit-launched liferaft

a. Lower lifeboat to water
b. Lower liferaft to water
c. Lower rescue boat to water
d. Release gripes
49. What is the minimum number of immersion suits that are required to be provided for each
open lifeboat under SOLAS rules?
a. One for each person
b. 3
c. Nil
d. 6
50. What is the purpose of the "Bowsing tackle" (block and tackle) supplied at each end of
the lifeboat?
a. It keeps the boat alongside the embarkation deck so that the tracing pennants can be
released
b. It is designed to pull the boat alongside the embarkation deck after the tracing pennants
have been released
c. It is a general purpose tackle to be used in any type of emergency
d. It enables the boat to be secured to the embarkation deck so that the wire falls can be
released for changing or end for ending
51. When fully loaded, a lifeboat should have a sufficient strength to withstand a drop into
the water from a height of:
a. Not less than 3.0 metres
b. Not less than 1.5 metres
c. Not less than 0.5 metres
d. Not less than one third of the distance from the stowage position of the lifeboat to the
waterline in the in the lightest seagoing condition
52. Which item among those below is included in the normal equipment of every lifeboat?
a. One set of fishing tackle
b. One immersion suit for each person
c. Sea-charts and navigating equipment
d. A VHF transceiver
53. Which of the following fittings shall be provided to all lifeboats:

a. a manually controlled lamp fitted on the inside
b. permanent boarding arrangements on both sides to enable persons in the water to board the
lifeboat
c. a remotely operated steering arrangement
d. an electric power starting system for the propulsion engine with one rechargeable energy
source
54. Which of the survival craft listed below is equipped with a buoyant line, not less than
50m in length, of sufficient strength to tow a liferaft ?
a. Rescue boat
b. Life raft
c. Lifeboat
d. None of them
55. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat equipment correspond to present
regulations? The normal equipment of every lifeboat shall include:
a. A survival manual
b. Sea charts and navigation equipment
c. Helicopter rescue equipment
d. Oil pollution equipment
56. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements
for rescue boats corresponds to present SOLAS regulations?
a. Rapid recovery shall be possible with the boat's full complement of persons and
equipment.
b. Embarkation and launching arrangement shall be such that the rescue boat can be boarded
and launched in less than 5 minutes.
c. Launching shall be possible at the ship's headway speed up to 5 knots in heavy weather.
d. The release mechanism shall be of an automatic type approved by the flag state
Administration.
57. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft
corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed:
a. In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion
b. Wherever space is available
c. On the starboard side of the ship
d. In a state of readiness so that two crew-members can prepare for embarkation and
launching in less than 15 minutes
58. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of rescue boats corresponds
to present SOLAS regulations. Rescue boats shall be stowed:
a. So that neither the rescue boat nor its launching arrangements will interfere with any
survival craft at any other launching station.
b. In a state of readiness for launching in not more than two minutes.
c. Attached to launching appliances.
d. Wherever space is available.
59. You are on board a ship which is not specially fitted for navigation in cold regions. At
what ambient temperature should the engine of the lifeboat *start within less than 2 minutes ?
a. until - 15°C
b. until - 3°C
c. until - 5°C
d. until - 0°C
60. You are starting to get low on water in the lifeboat. What should you do?
a. Collect rain water
b. Use sea water
c. Mix sea water with 50% fresh water
d. Drink urine
61. *On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering
whenever practicable) must take place
a. every 4 months
b. every 2 months
c. every 3 months
d. every months
62. *The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If 25%
of the crew - or more - has not participated in such drill during the last month, what is the
time limit to conduct such a drill after the vessel has left a port?
a. Within 24 hrs
b. Within 12 hrs
c. Within 30 hrs
d. Within 48 hrs
63. *When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with their
assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water?
a. Every month
b. Every week
c. Every two weeks
d. Every six months
64. *When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training and
instructions in the use of the ship's fire-fighting appliances ?
a. As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship
b. As soon as possible
c. As soon as possible but not later than 2 days after he joins the ship
d. As soon as possible but not later than 24 hours after he joins the ship
65. *Where do you find minimum drill requirements?

a. In the SOLAS convention and its annex
b. In manager's instructions
c. In classification society rules
d. In owner's instruction
66. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?

a. instruction in the use of radio life-saving appliances
b. Checking passenger's immersion suits
c. Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals
d. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies
67. *Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill?
a. All the items mentioned
b. Starting a fire pump using at least two required jets of water to show that the system is in
proper working order
c. Checking fireman's outfits and other personal rescue equipment
d. Reporting to stations and preparing for the duties described in the muster list
68. *Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to
present SOLAS regulation?
a. Each lifeboat shall be launched, and manoeuvred in the water with its assigned crew at
least once every three months during an abandon ship drill
b. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in a harbor
c. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills
d. On ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and manoeuvred in
the water at least every six months
69. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard
and manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS?
a. Every three months.
b. Every week.
c. Every two weeks.
d. Every month.
70. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?
a. Wearing and fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment
b. Lifeboat radio
c. Location of immersion suits and thermal protective aids
d. How to communicate using the hand-held radios
71. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according to
SOLAS?
a. Once every month.
b. Once every 6 months.
c. Once every year.
d. Once every week.
72. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?

a. Once every month
b. Once every week
c. Once every 6 months
d. Once every year
73. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?
a. Once every month
b. Once every week
c. Once every 6 months
d. Once a year
74. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed:

a. Every week
b. Every two weeks
c. Every month
d. Every three months
75. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship
participate in one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?
a. Monthly
b. Weekly
c. Every second week
d. This is only required when he joins the ship
76. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary
routines run and tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance are normally carried out by
dedicated personnel. To ensure safe and appropriate operation of the pump, would you
consider it beneficial that the same dedicated personnel operate the pump in emergencies?
a. In case of accidents, it is important that a wide range of personnel must be permitted and
trained to operate the pump.
b. To ensure safe operation of the emergency pump,only dedicated personnel must be
permitted to operate the pump.
c. Only senior engineers should operate the emergency pump.
d. Only senior deck officers should operate the emergency pump.
77. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?
a. Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned
b. Checking the distress signal rockets and other distress signals
c. Checking the lifeboat provisions and supplies
d. Checking that all crew and passenger moral is high
78. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to
SOLAS regulations?
a. Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.
b. Manoeuvring the lifeboat in the water.
c. Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances.
d. Launching and recovery of a survival craft.
79. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)?
a. The appointed lifeboat commander.
b. Sen.Off.Deck.
c. Sen.Off.Engine.
d. The first member of the crew arriving at the survival craft.
80. *As far as human factor is concerned, which of the following actions should be
considered as an efficient one?
a. All the listed answers
b. To equip them with better communication systems
c. To train the fire brigade
d. To establish inner to perform work of a special risk
81. *The correct order of actions to be taken in a fire emergency, should be…
a. Evaluation of the situation, rescue and life-saving, confinement of fire, extinction, then
feed back on the emergency
b. Extinction, confinement of fire, feed back on the emergency, rescue and life-saving, then
evaluation of the situation
c. Extinction, evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-saving
d. Evaluation of the situation, confinement of fire, rescue and life-saving, extinction
82. *Which of the following detailed explanations should be mentioned in the Training
Manual ?
a. How to recover survival craft and rescue boats including stowage and securing
b. How to use navigational equipment for survival crafts
c. How to use surface to air visual signals to be used by survivors
d. How to use escape routes and other escape methods
83. *Which one of the given requirements regarding manning and supervision of survival
craft corresponds to the SOLAS regulation?
a. A deck officer or certificated person shall be placed in charge of each survival craft to be
used
b. Every motorised survival craft shall have a certificated engineer assigned
c. There shall be at least 5 trained persons on board, mustering and assisting untrained
persons
d. Every lifeboat required to carry radio telegraph installation shall have a deck officer
capable of operating the equipment assigned
84. *You are on board a cargo ship. The ship is heavily listing to starboard, making
impossible the launching of the survival craft stowed on this side. Lifeboats and liferafts are
equally distributed on each side of the vessel. What should be the total number of persons
that can be accommodated in the remaining survival craft stowed on the port side ? (*) N is
the total number of persons that vessel is permitted to carry.
a. at least 200 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*)
b. at least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 100 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)
c. at least 150 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 100 % N) (*)
d. at least 100 % N (lifeboat capacity: 50 % N; liferaft capacity: 50 % N) (*)
85. During helicopter evacuation of an injured man, what course should the ship steer?
a. As instructed by the helicopter pilot
b. With the wind astern so that the effect of the wind is reduced as much as possible
c. Directly into the wind
d. With the wind fine on the bow opposite to the helicopter operating area
86. HEL-H is the abbreviation of a heavy helicopter radius of action for rescue purposes.
What do you think the radius and evacuating capacity of the helicopter is?
a. 200 nm and capacity for evacuating more then 15 persons.
b. 500 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 25 persons.
c. 150 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 12 persons.
d. 100 nm and capacity for evacuating more than 10 persons.
87. In a distress situation and immediately after the distress signal has been sounded, what is
the next action to be taken by the Chief Officer on duty?
a. Use the intercom to inform crew and passengers of the reason for the alarm
b. Call the nearest coastal radio station
c. Send distress signals to call for help
d. Use the VHF-radio telephone to ask ships in the vicinity to stand by
88. In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarm
signal be sounded?
a. Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster stations
b. 3 times
c. 3 minutes
d. Until the signal "risk is over" or the order "abandon ship" is given
89. In what language/languages must the fire control plans or booklets (or copies of these) be
written?
a. In the Flag State official language with copies in English or French
b. In the Flag State official language
c. In the English language
d. In a national language where company head office is located
90. Is it necessary to be certified to be a lifeboat-commander?

a. Yes, you must attend to a course held by certified personnel, and provide evidence of
having maintained the required standards of competence every five years.
b. No, the only thing you need is one hour instruction from a deck officer.
c. No
d. Yes, you must attend a one week course at a approved course center.
91. Poster or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching
controls. Which one of the following requirements has to be included?
a. Give relevant instructions and warnings
b. Give an overview of location of all lifesaving appliances
c. Give information on survival craft capacity
d. Give information on survival craft speed and seaworthiness
Pencegahan, pengendalian dan pemadaman kebakaran di atas kapal

(Prevent, control and fight fires on board)
1. *As a general rule, what is the minimum flash point of an oil used as a liquid fuel on
board?
a. 60ºC
b. 30ºC
c. There is no limit
d. 10ºC
2. *Besides certain other factors, a BOILOVER takes place:

a. When the container also contains water
b. When the container is nearly full
c. When the product is a combustible liquid
d. If the tank has a floating roof
3. *In which one of the following an oil, the flash point of which only needs to be over 43°C,
may be used?
a. In emergency generators
b. In inert gas generators
c. In the main engine
d. In the kitchen
4. *What are the main components of the atmospherical air?

a. O2: 21% N2: 78% H2O: traces CO2: traces, Rare gases: traces
b. O2: 50% N2: 50% H2O: traces CO2: traces Rare gases: traces
c. O2: 21% N2: 72% H2O: 5% CO2: 2% Rare gases: traces
d. O2: 75% N2: 10% H2O: 5% CO2: 5%, Rare gases: traces
5. *What is the factor that makes the difference between a deflagrating and a detonating
explosion?
a. The speed of the shock wave created by the initial combustion
b. The material which is at the origin of the explosion (powder or gas)
c. The confinement of the place where the explosion occurs (inside or outside)
d. The initial pressure, temperature and moisture content
6. A class "D" fire involves what type of material?

a. Metals
b. Gases
c. Liquids
d. Wood or other carbonaceous material
7. According to European standards (E.N.) fire can be classified…

a. A, B,C,D
b. A, B, C
c. A, B
d. A, B, C, D, E
8. According to their physical state, extinguishing agents may be classified in to:

a. Solid, liquid and gases
b. Synthetic, proteinic, gases and liquid
c. Proteinic and synthetic
d. Solid, proteinic and gases
9. Among the additives used to improve the effectiveness of water in the fight against fire
there are the moisturing ones. What is the task they perform?
a. They reduce the surface tension of water
b. They protect the fuel with a thin covering that holds up the ignition
c. They increase the viscosity of water
d. They protect the fuel with a thin covering that holds up the ignition and they increase the
viscosity of water
10. Fire provokes:

a. Gases, flames, smoke and heat
b. Radiation and smoke
c. Vapours, radiation, gases and flames
d. Vapours, smoke and flames
11. For which of the following groups of substances or materials is the use of water as an
extinguishing agent dangerous?
a. Sodium hydrosulphite , potassium hydroxide, magnesium
b. Wood, rubber, oil
c. Gas-oil, oily rags, synthetic textiles
d. Alcohol, paraffin
12. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent when dealing with oil fires?
a. By smothering and also by providing some cooling
b. By cooling only
c. By smothering only
d. The heat from the fire causes the foam to produce an inert gas which gradually
extinguishes the fire
13. Hydrocarbon gas encountered in oil tankers cannot burn in an atmosphere containing less
than approximately what percentage of oxygen (by volume)?
a. 11%
b. 13%
c. 15%
d. 17%
14. If a fire starts in the fuel tanks of a vessel, the fire will be ?
a. A class B fire
b. A class A fire
c. A class D fire
d. A class E fire
15. In general, what is the best extinguishing agent to put out a class A fire?
a. Water
b. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
c. Dry chemical powder
d. Foam
16. In which ways is heat transmitted?

a. Conduction, convection and radiation
b. Delay, conduction, radiation
c. Gasification, conduction and convection
d. Radiation and gasification
17. The extinguishing agent which can be applied on any fires of class A, B, or C is:
a. Multipurpose powder
b. Sprayed water
c. Halon
d. CO2
18. The fire point is

a. The minimum temperature at which a combustible gives off vapours that may burn in
contact with oxygen in air, and at which combustion persists once the source of ignition has
been removed
b. The minimum temperature at which a combustible gives off vapours that may burn when
they are in contact with oxygen in air, when there is a presence of activation energy; but with
no capacity of maintaining combustion.
c. A process of chemical decomposition by oxidation-reduction at unusually high
temperature, in areas with slight ventilation.
d. The maximum pressure that will be reached when a given combustible burns into an
enclosed space
19. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form
a flammable mixture with air is known as the:
a. Flash point
b. Fire point
c. Lower explosive limit
d. Threshold limit value
20. The method of extinction by smothering is based on this basis;

a. The fire is extinguished by avoiding the contact between the fuel vapours and the oxygen
b. The fire is extinguished by eliminating the heat so as to obtain a temperature at which the
fuel doesn't give off enough vapour
c. Te fire is extinguished by interrupting the chain reaction, as it stops the transmission of
heat by means of the action of chemical agents
d. The fire is extinguished by avoiding the contact between the fuel vapours and the hot
surface
21. The necessary elements to create fire are

a. combustible, oxygen, heat and chain reaction
b. combustible, oxygen, flames and chain reaction
c. combustible, air, flames and gas
d. heat and chain reaction
22. To maintain a fire, three conditions need to be met: Oxygen, combustible material and
sufficient temperature for combustion. What subject must be removed to extinguish the fire?
a. Either of the mentioned alternatives.
b. Heat, Oxygen and combustible material.
c. Oxygen.
d. Combustible material.
23. Water is the extinguishing agent which is the most widely employed and its action as an
extinguishing agent is due to a combination of the following phenomena:
a. Cooling, smothering and dispersion
b. Cooling, inhibition and dispersion
c. Smothering and dispersion
d. Smothering and inhibition
24. What are the characteristics of CO2?

a. All the mentioned alternatives.
b. It displaces oxygen.
c. It is heavier than oxygen.
d. It is in itself not dangerous (not poisonous)
25. What class of fire involves gas?

a. Class C fire
b. Class A fire
c. Class B fire
d. Class D fire
26. What class of fire involves liquids?

a. Class B fire
b. Class A fire
c. Class C fire
d. Class D fire
27. What class of fire is a smoldering fire of wood, textiles, paper and other carbonaceous
materials?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
28. What is a polar (liquid)?

a. A liquid that mixes with water
b. A liquid that doesn't mix with water
c. A liquid that emits flammable vapour
d. A liquid that conducts electricity
29. What is flashpoint of an oil or liquefied gas?

a. The flash point for an oil or liquefied gas is the temperature at which it is possible to ignite
the vapour above the liquid
b. The flashpoint is the mixture of oxygen and hydro carbons needed to have an oil or
liquefied gas to burn
c. The flashpoint is the temperature the oil or liquefied gas need for self ignition
d. The flashpoint is the temperature needed to have a oil or liquefied gas pumpable
30. What is the minimum necessary condition for the start and permanence of an oil fuel fire?
a. The temperature is equal to or over the flash point
b. The temperature is below the flash point
c. The temperature is above 250°C
d. The temperature is below 100°C
31. What is the name given to a devastating explosion that may occur when a rigid container
containing a liquefied gas is exposed to a very high *temperature?
a. BLEVE
b. SLOP-OVER
c. FLASH-OVER
d. BOIL-OVER
32. What kind of fuel will originate a class A fire?

a. a solid (cardboard or wood…)
b. a liquid (gasoline or petrol…)
c. a gas, not under pressure
d. a gas, under pressure
33. What kind of process is a fire?

a. All the mentioned alternatives
b. It is a chemical process
c. It is a process characterised by an emission of heat, light and smoke
d. It is a physical process
34. Which element must be removed to extinguish a fire?

a. All alternatives. It is enough that one of the mentioned elements are removed.
b. Heat
c. Oxygen
d. Chain reaction
35. Which of the following is a combustion reaction?

a. All the answers are good
b. Smouldering fire
c. Open fire
d. Explosion
36. Which one of the following appliances is allowed to burn an oil fuel, the flash point of
which may be a little bit lower than the one used for the main *engine?
a. The emergency generators
b. The inert gas generators
c. The incinerators
d. All the answers are wrong
37. Which one of the listed fire-extinguishing medium is most effective against an open oil
fire?
a. Foam
b. Water
c. Powder
d. Gas
38. *Could a lift be considered as an escape route from the engine room ?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, if it is constructed with class A materials
d. It depends on the distance of the escape route
39. *Generally speaking, what is the value commonly recognised as the maximum
concentration of CO allowed in the breathing air of a breathing apparatus?
a. 20ppm
b. 40ppm
c. 80ppm
d. 100ppm
40. *Generally speaking, what is the value commonly recognised as the maximum
concentration of oil vapours allowed in the breathing air of a breathing apparatus?
a. 5mg/m3
b. 50mg/m3
c. 500mg/m3
d. 10mg/m3
41. *Monoammonium phosphate used as a dry powder can be effective on which of the
following type of fire?
a. Solid, liquids, and gases
b. liquid and gases
c. Metals
d. Solid, liquid, gases and metals
42. *What is the minimum capacity of the portable tank of a portable foam applicator ?
a. 1 litre
b. 5 litres
c. 10 litres
d. 20 litres
43. *What is the minimum volume of air contained in the cylinders of a SOLAS compliant
self-contained compressed-air operated breathing apparatus (SCABA)?
a. 1200 litres
b. 1000 litres
c. 1800 litres
d. 2500 litres
44. *What is the only reliable way of checking that the CO2 cartridge in a dry powder
extinguisher is full?
a. Remove the cartridge and weigh it to check that it has the full weight stamped on it
b. Check if the seal on the extinguisher release handle is intact
c. Weigh the extinguisher and check that it complies with the weight marked on it
d. All of the alternatives are reliable methods
45. *Which of the following hose lengths corresponds best to the most common ones found
onboard?
a. 20 m
b. 30 m
c. 10 m
d. 5 M
46. *Which of these series of sizes corresponds to the international standard for nozzles
a. 12 mm, 16 mm and 19 mm
b. 5 mm, 10 mm and 20mm
c. 10mm, 20 mm and 30 mm
d. 10 mm and 20 mm
47. Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher?
a. Black
b. Light blue
c. Green
d. Yellow
48. Apart from red, what other colour is frequently used for a dry powder extinguisher?
a. Blue
b. Black
c. Green
d. Yellow
49. As a general rule, where would you expect to find a portable fire extinguisher in any
space?
a. Near to the entrance to the space
b. There is no such standard practice.
c. Near the middle of the space
d. Under a porthole or window
50. Breathing apparatuses is an important piece of equipment for being able to fight a fire
onboard a vessel. What routine precautions to be observed with regard to use and
maintenance of such equipment?
a. All the mentioned alternatives.
b. That the equipment always to be kept cleaned,checked and bottles are recharged
immediately upon use, and frequently inspected.
c. That personnel that are appointed as smoke divers, primarily are given a shore based
proper basic education and training.
d. That personnel having a beard are not selected as smoke divers.
51. Dry chemical powders extinguish fire by...

a. Inhibition and smothering
b. Cooling and/or inhibition
c. Unfeeding, cooling and/or smothering
d. Cooling and/or smothering

a. Flame detector
b. Powder handgun
c. Emergency station
d. Locker with protective clothing

a. International shore connection
b. Flame detector
c. Vertical fire main
d. Sprinkler installation

a. Fire main with fire valves
b. Fuel lubricating oil valves
c. Foam valve
d. Section valves drenching system

a. Area protected by sprinkler
b. Area protected by drenching system
c. Area protected by Halon 1301
d. Sprinkler installation

a. Area protected by halon
b. Halon horn
c. Heat detector
d. Portable fire extinguisher with halon

a. Heat detector
b. Foam release station
c. Powder installation
d. Bilge pump

a. A class fire door self closing
b. Closing appliance for exterior door
c. Foam valve
d. B class fire door self closing

a. B class fire door self closing
b. A class fire door self closing
c. C class fire door self closing
d. D class fire door self closing

a. Gas detector
b. Emergency fire pump
c. Fire pump
d. Fire control plan

a. CO2 horn
b. Area protected by CO2
c. CO2 portable fire extinguisher
d. Gas detector

a. Sprinkler horn
b. Halon horn
c. Water monitor gun
d. CO2 horn

a. Manually operated call point
b. Fire alarm panel
c. Fire station
d. Water fog applicator

a. Portable fire extinguisher
b. Wheeled fire extinguisher
c. Fire alarm
d. None of the above
a. Remote controlled fire pumps
b. Foam release station
c. Powder handgun
d. Hose box

a. Foam release station
b. Remote controlled fire pumps
c. CO2 battery
d. International shore connection

a. Primary means of escape
b. Secondary means of escape
c. B class fire door
d. Powder release station

a. Portable foam applicator
b. Powder installation
c. Portable fire extinguisher
d. Foam installation

a. Smoke detector
b. Hose box with spray set
c. Powder hose and handgun
d. Hose box

a. Secondary means of escape
b. Primary means of escape
c. Main vertical
d. A class division

a. Wheeled fire extinguisher
b. Portable fire extinguisher
c. Emergency generator
d. Fire pump

a. Push button for fire alarm
b. Foam nozzle
c. Gas detector
d. Heat detector
a. Fire station
b. Flame detector
c. Fire pump
d. Smoke detector

a. Foam monitor gun
b. Water monitor gun
c. Powder handgun
d. Powder hose and handgun

a. Space protected by foam
b. Foam valve
c. Flame detector
d. Fire pump

a. Sprinkler section valve
b. Fire alarm panel
c. Area protected by sprinkler
d. Fire pump

a. Fire alarm panel
b. CO2 battery
c. Sprinkler horn
d. Hose box

a. Area protected by CO2
b. CO2 horn
c. CO2 battery
d. Portable fire extinguisher

a. A class division
b. B class division
c. C class division
d. Primary means of escape

a. Foam installation
b. Sprinkler installation
c. Portable foam installation
d. Powder installation
81. How do the extinguishing agents act?

a. by cooling, smothering, combustible suppression, inhibition
b. by cooling, smothering, dilution with water and/or ventilation
c. by inhibition
d. by ignition suppression
82. Identify this symbol:

a. Emergency fire pump?
b. Fire escape route?
c. Bilge pump?
d. Gas detector?
83. In general what is the proportion of concentrate to water to produce foam?

a. Between 3% and 6%
b. Between 50 and 100%
c. This operation is done automatically and in relation to the foam
d. over 100%
84. Proteinic foams have the feature of being?

a. Of low expansion, viscous and solid, easily contaminated by hydrocarbons
b. Of high expansion, made of tense-active compounds
c. Of high expansion, not easily contaminated by hydrocarbons
d. Of low expansion, not easily contaminated by hydrocarbons
85. The basic components of the self-contained breathing apparatus are…

a. Mask, bottle, frame, medium pressure valve and low pressure valve
b. Mask, bottle, frame
c. Mask, bottle, frame , safety valve
d. Mask, bottle, frame; low pressure valve
86. The effectiveness of CO2 as an extinguishing agent is based on:

a. Combustion suppression
b. Inhibition and combustion suppression
c. Cooling and inhibition
d. Dilution, cooling and inhibition
87. The effectiveness of foam is based on:

a. smothering and cooling
b. smothering and dispersion
c. Inhibition
d. Dilution
88. What are the components of the personal equipment of the fireman's outfit
a. All the items mentioned
b. Protective clothing to protect the skin from heat, burns and scalding
c. Boots and gloves of rubber
d. A rigid helmet, an electric safety lamp and an axe
89. What are the main basic components of a portable extinguisher?

a. The container, the extinguishing agent, the impulsion system
b. The shooting nozzle, the seal, the safety valve
c. The seal, the pressure gauge, the extinguishing agent, the safety pin
d. The container, the hose, the safety pin
90. What are the three diameters of fire hoses most commonly found on ships?
a. 25, 45, or 70 mm
b. 10, 50 or 85 mm
c. 17, 43 or 74 mm
d. 50, 74 or 100 mm
91. What is the "international shore connection" used for?

a. To connect the ship fire main to the shore lines
b. To connect the cargo hoses to the shore
c. To connect the bunker hoses to the shore
d. To connect the ship fresh water hoses to the shore
92. What is the main advantage of a positive pressure breathing apparatus?

a. If the face mask has a leak toxic fumes/smoke would still not enter the mask
b. The positive pressure makes it easier to breathe when working hard
c. It ensures a constant supply of air
d. It is less complicated and cheaper than a breathing apparatus of the demand type
93. What is the main criterion generally taken into account to classify portable extinguishers:
a. The extinguishing agent
b. The way they can be moved
c. Their capacity of charge
d. Their pressurisation system
94. What is the most common fixed fire fighting extinguishing system fitted in an engine
room?
a. A carbon dioxide (CO2) system
b. A chemical powder system
c. An halogenated hydrocarbon system
d. A pressure water-spraying system
95. What type of nozzles for fire hoses can be provided aboard ships?
a. Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating a shutoff
b. Jet type only, incorporating a shutoff
c. Spray type only, incorporating a shutoff
d. All of the above types can be provided
96. What types of fire extinguishers shall be used in the engine room?
a. Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2 only.
b. Fire extinguishers of the handy-size types only.
c. Fire extinguishers filled with fresh water only.
d. Any fire extinguisher with a weight of less than 100 lbs.
97. Where is the International Shore Connection to be stored?
a. Easy accessible by the gangway
b. In the engine room
c. In the accommodation
Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements (Menjamin

pemenuhan persyaratan pencegahan pencemaran)
1. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and
above to record machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is
compulsory to record:
A. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil.
B. Transfer of oil from settling - to daytank.
C. Discharge of water from Aft, Peak Tank.
D. Purification of HFO.
2. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating
equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required in
this connection?
A. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both.
B. Oil fitting equipment only.
C. Sludge separating tank.
D. Oily-water separating equipment only.
3. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea
voyage?
A. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast
voyage.
B. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast
voyage.
C. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full cargo on the ballast
voyage.
D. There isn’t any restrictions of pumping sludge from ships outside special areas
4. For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment
(ODME) be retained onboard?
A. Three years
B. Six months
C. Two years
D. Four years
5. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals
do?
A. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water
B. Absorb the oil for easy removal
C. Remove the oil from the water
D. Contain the oil within a small area
6. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90)
A. Qualified Individual
B. Emergency response team
C. The Master
D. The shipowner
7. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal?

A. Not permissible any where.
B. 100 n.m. from shore line.
C. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL).
D. In coastal waters.
8. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or
oil residues?
A. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
B. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black Sea where it is
forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
C. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Black Sea
where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
D. There isn’t any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues
9. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after
departure, you would like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct
procedures in this connection?
A. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge overboard through
oily water separating and filtering equipment.
B. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering equipment without calling
the bridge.
C. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge directly overboard.
D.Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way.
10. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant
certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape
Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate
to take?
A. Stop discharge.
B. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type.
C. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding water.
D. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not yet in force.
11. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking
spares, you are left with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what
will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of these materials?
A. This is prohibited
B. 3 miles
C. 12 miles
D. 25 miles
12. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel in the Red Sea (Special Area)
and the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to
problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size
max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest
land is this legal?
A. 12 miles
B. This is prohibited
C. 3 miles
D. 25 miles
13. Most minor oilspills are caused by:

A. Human error
B. Equipment failure
C. Major casualties
D. Unforeseeable circumstances
14. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous
instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to:
A. 30 litters per nautical mile
B. 25 litters per nautical mile
C. 20 litters per nautical mile
D. 10 litters per nautical mile
15. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)

A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date
B. Only initial reports to be logged
C. Only verbal reports for documentation
D. Only communication with USCG
16. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90):

A. Once a month
B. Once a week
C. Once a year
D. Once every six months
17. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment,
complying with Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What
would be the maximum oil content of oily-water mixture to pass through the filter?
A. 15 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 30 ppm
D. 60 ppm/n.m
18. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what?
A. Plugging the scuppers
B. Driving wooden plugs into the vents
C. Closing the lids on the vents
D. Plugging the sounding pipes
19. The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

A. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill
B. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10 gallons of oil
C. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible

D. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and charged
20. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?
A. All the other alternatives
B. Spilling
C. Leaking
D. Dumping
21. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1?

A. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm
B. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm
C. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 %
D. There isn’t any definition on clean ballast
22. What is the best way to avoid pollution from smalloilspills aboard a ship?
A. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
B. Rig an oil boom around the ship
C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill
D. Have sawdust ready for use
23. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oilspill on the water?

A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
B. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill
C. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's side
D. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind
24. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?
A. To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations
B. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used
C. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E
D. None of the mentioned
25. What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned
garbage containing plastics?
A. Discharge to a shore facility only
B. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore
C. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore
D. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary
26. What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating,
structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine room?
A.White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with.
B. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills.
C. Whatever paint is available.
D. The same colour as machinery and equipment.
27. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which
following priority sequences to be considered:
A. Stop pumps - report - clean up?
B. Clean up - report - stop pumps?
C. Report - stop pumps - clean up?
D. Stop pumps - clean up - report?
28. Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection
(MARPOLconnection)
for discharging of sewage ?
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
29. Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under
the US
water pollution laws?
A. All of the mentioned
B. Garbage
C. Hazardous substances
D. Oil
30. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard?

A. 15 PPM
B. 100 PPM
C. 50 PPM
D. 0 PPM
31. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill
B. It is not covered by the pollution law
C. It does little harm to marine life
D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil
32. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?
A. To avoid pollution.
B. To relieve the master.
C. To inform the authorities.
D. To restrict pollution.
33. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea.
Are you
allowed to dump food waste overboard?
A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard
B. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard
C. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass
through a screen with 25 mm openings
D. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass
34. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you
allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ?
A. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass
B. No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard
C. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard
D. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass
35. You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food
waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the
coast would you have to be?
A. This is prohibited
B. 3 nautical miles off the coast
C. 12 nautical miles off the coast
D. 25 nautical miles off the coast
36. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around
your vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and: A. Notify the US Coast Guard
B. Begin clean up operations
C. Leave the area
D. Notify the Corps of Engineers
37. The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas unless, with exemption
of processed engine room bilge water, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these
conditions must be satisfied ?
A. II, IV, V, VII, VIII
B. I, IV, V, VIII, IX
C. I, IV, VI, VII, IX
D. II, III, V, VIII, IX
38. The oil record book for machinery space operations shall be completed on a tank to tank
basis whenever which of these operations take place ?
A. III, IV,VI, VII
B. I, II, III, VII
C. I, II, IV, V
D. II, IV, V, VI
39. Amongst other things, Part 1 of the Oil Record Book shows which of these ?
A. Period over which the IOPP certificate is valid
B. Period from …………. To …………..
C. Operational procedures and remarks
D. Master's name as well of the person relieving him against date
40. Which of these items must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I, concerning the
disposal of
oil residues (Sludges) ?
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, VI
C. I, Ill, VI
D. I, II
41. Which of these items concerning non-automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from
machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. I, Ill, VI
B. III, IV,V
C. II, III
D. II, VI
42. Which of these items concerning the operation of machinery spaces must be recorded in
the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. III, VI, VII
B. II, III, V, VII
C. II, V, VI
D. II, IV, VI, VII
43. Which of these items concerning automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from
machinery
spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. I, II, V, VI
B. I, IV, V, VII
C. II, IV, VI, VII
D. II, Ill, V, VII
44. Mat entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space operations)
about the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control system ?
A. The time when the system was started and the time when the system was stopped
B. The time when the system was started and stopped, the ships speed and the ppm of the
affluent discharged
C. The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again and the reason for
failure
D. The time when the system was started and the time when it was stopped and the ppm of
the effluent discharged
45. Which of these items concerning accidental or other exceptional discharges of oil must be
recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?
A. I, II, V,VII
B. I, II, III, V
C. I, III, IV,VI
D. I, II, V, VI
46. Handling fuel oils without proper care can lead to

A. Overflow, pollution and gas formation.
B. Gassing up, asphyxia and explosion.
C. Fire or overflow.
D. Explosion, fire and pollution.
47. Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that……should personalty
supervise all bunkering operations.
A. The 2nd engineer
B. The master
C. The chief engineer
D. A responsible person
48. Bunkering procedures for all ships require that communication should be maintained with
the shorelbarge staff in charge of the transfer ?
A. Continuous
B. Intermittent
C. Frequent
D. Occasional
49. Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch be informed
prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because ……
A. The bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put on stand-by.
B. Appropriate precautions have to betaken by the deck department
C. The time needs to be recorded exactly.
D. The is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.
50. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained
because
A. The oily water separator filters were found dirty.
B. The sludge tank was found full level.
C. The engine room bilges were found dirty.
D. The engineroombilgelineswerefounddirty.
51. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained
because
A. An oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator.
B. Oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors.
C. An oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump.
D. Lubricating oil was transferred in port.
52. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge?
A. 600ppm
B. 1000ppm
C. 100ppm
D. 50ppm
53. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'?
A. 0ppm
B. 25ppm
C. 50ppm
D. l5ppm
54. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in 'Special
Areas'?
A. Only in a case of emergency.
B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.
C. When proceeding Full Ahead.
D. During the hours of darkness.
55. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level?
A. A visible alarm.
B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge
C. An audible alarm.
D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.
56. What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess?

A. Safety Construction certificate.
B. IOPP certificate
C. MCA pollution certificate.
D. Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate
57. What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?

A. Record fuel consumption.
B. Record quantity of fuel onboard.
C. Record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.
D. Record oily bilge levels.
58. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied.
One of these conditions for a tanker is that……….
A. The tanker is within a Special Area.
B. The tanker is not within a Special Area
C. The tanker is within a Designated Zone
D. The tanker is not within a Designated Zone
One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that…………
A. The tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land.
B. The tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land.
C. The tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land.
D. The tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.
One of these conditions for a tanker is that ……….
A. The tanker is en route.
B. The tanker is in ballast condition.
C. The tanker is tank cleaning.
D. The tanker is loaded.
61. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more
than ……..of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
A. 1/25000
B. 1/100000
C. 1/15000
D. 1/50000
62. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed…
A. 120 litres per nautical mile
B. 100 litres per nautical mile
C. 75 litres per nautical mile
D. 30 litres per nautical mile
63. For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not exceed ….. of
the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part.
A. 1/10000
B. 1/15000
C. 1/25000
D. 1/30000
64. What is the meaning of the term "Combination Carrier " ?

A. A ship designed to carry either oil products or crude oil in bulk or in parcels
B. A cargo ship that has product oil tanks, example Palm Oil Tanks
C. A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, example reefer-container,
log-bulk etc.
D. A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
65. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ?

A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined
products
B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil
C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products
D. Any grade of crude oil
66. 30. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ?
A. A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm
B. A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm
C. A mixture with any oil content
D. A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm
67. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ?

A. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
B. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals
C. Yes
D. No
68. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ?
A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil
B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C
C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery
D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers
69. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ?

A. Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals
B. No, it is not
C. Yes, it is
D. Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk
70. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ?
A. A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30 June
1976
B. A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995
C. A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979
D. All of these.
71. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to Marpol ?
A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment
B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in
knots at the same instant
C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered during the time of
discharge by the ship
D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600
72. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ?

A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required
B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions and in view of
traffic special prevention is required
C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at anytime
D. A sea area where in view of its particular dense traffic no overboarddischarged of any oily
mixture is allowed
73. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ?

A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils
B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre tank
C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected
D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings or other oily
mixtures
74. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by
Marpol ?
A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore
lines.
B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the
water or emulsion beneath the water surface.
C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining
shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea.
D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce
visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below
75. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ?

A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast
pump
B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps
cannot be used
C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump
D. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from cargo or fuel oil
system and permanently allocated to ballast
76. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date on its
building contract would read……………
A. After 1st January 1981.
B. After 31st of December 1980.
C. After 1st June 1982.
D. After 1st June 1979.
77. Marpol defines Crude Oil as ………….
A. Aliquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were removed.
B. Liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions ere added.
C. A non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which C neither distillate fractions were
removed nor added.
D. A liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally whether treated or not irrespective of
whether distillate fractions were removed or added.
78. Every oil tanker of ….. tons gross tonnage and above and every other ship of tons gross
tonnage and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys.
A. 500,1000
B. 400, 700
C. 150, 400
D. 250, 500
79. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order to
ensure compliance with the applicable regulations shall include …………
A. Acomplete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks.
B. A complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil-discharging
monitoring system, oil tittering and separating systems.
C. Acomplete survey of all piping.
D. Acomplete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials
in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.
80. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the
administration. These intervals are not to exceed…………..
A. Two and a half years.
B. Three years.
C. Two years.
D. Five years.
81. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This
shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order.
What is this survey called ?
A. The Annual survey
B. The Special survey
C. The Intermediate survey
D. The Midterm survey
82. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its equipment
remain in all respects satisfactory for service. What are these inspections called ?
A. Annual Inspections
B. Unscheduled inspections
C. Obligatory inspections
D. Special surveys
83. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it effect
unscheduled Inspections carried out according to Marpol ?
A. The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory
B. Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required
C. Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years
D. Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period
84. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ?

A. Approved ship's officers
B. Port-State Control Inspectors
C. Coast Guard Inspectors
D. Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by Administrations
85. Who may carry out Marpol Inspections ?

A. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship
is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors.
B. All of these.
C. Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations.
D. Coast Guard officers.
86. What is the meaning of a “harmful substance" under Marpol ?

A. Petroleum products and petrochemicals
B. Hydrocarbons in any form
C. Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities.
D. Oils and fuels
87. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol ?
A. Dumping or disposal from the ship
B. Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship
C. Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship
D. Any release how ever caused
88. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ?

A. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such
substances
B. The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
C. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents
containing such substances
D. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture
89. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be…..
A. Adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of
where the violation occurs.
B. Imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation occurs.
C. Imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution.
D. In all cases most severe.
90. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under Marpol occurs ?
A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with Marpol
Protocol 1.
B. A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration.
C. You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners or managers.
D. You are to note this incident in the Log Book.
91. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as…
A. Aproduct / chemical carrier
B. A crude oil I product carrier
C. Aproduct carrier
D. Acrude oil tanker
92. A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the requirements
for Segregated Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as COW may be designated as a
……
A. Product carrier
B. Crude oil / product carrier
C. Crude oil tanker
D. Petrochemical / product
Mengoperasikan alat-alat keselamatan (Operate life-saving appliances)
1. *When the fire alarm signal is sounded every member of the ship's crew shall immediately
proceed to their assigned fire station. Which one of the following signals is used as fire alarm
signal on board cargo ships?
a. Intermittent signals on the ship's alarm bells
b. One long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells followed by seven short blasts
c. Seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells
d. Three short blasts followed by three long blasts, then followed by three short blasts on the
ship's whistle and alarm bells
2. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blast followed by one prolonged blast is sounded
by the ship's whistle and alarm bells. What are you to do?
a. Go to your lifeboat station
b. Go to your fire station
c. Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine room (engine crew) for further orders
d. Go to (or remain in) your cabin and await further orders
3. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one long blast is sounded by
the ship's whistle and the alarm bells. What are you to do?
a. Go to your lifeboat station (muster station).
b. Go to your fire station.
c. Report on the bridge (deck crew) or engine control room (engine crew) for further orders.
d. Go to (or remain in) your cabin and wait for further orders.
a. muster station
b. muster station for families only
c. muster station for unaccompanied minors (UM)
d. gathering place for embarkation formalities
5. Identify this symbol:

a. Emergency generator?
b. Fire glass door?
c. Inertgas installation?
d. Escape gate?
6. If you detect a fire on board the ship, dependent on the situation, which of the following
actions is the first to be taken?
a. Raise the fire alarm.
b. Try to kill the fire immediately by use of fire-extinguishers or other adequate appliances.
c. Call the officer on duty.
d. Check all nearby compartments for survivors.
7. What alarm signal must be sounded by the alarm bells in case of fire?
a. The signal which is stated in the muster list
b. Series of short blasts
c. One long blast followed by seven short blasts
d. A continuous signal
8. What is a contingency plan for ships?

a. Plan for safety preparedness
b. Plan for next voyage
c. Loading plan for general cargo
d. Plan for maintenance and repair
9. What is the general emergency alarm signal as specified in SOLAS ?

a. seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
b. three short blasts followed by three long blasts then three short ones
c. one long blast followed by seven short blasts or more
d. one long blast

a. Lifeboat
b. Rescue boat
c. Liferaft

a. Embarkation ladder
b. Lower lifeboat to water
c. Evacuation slide
a. Line-throwing appliance
b. Rocket parachute flares
c. Radar transponder
d. Survival craft pyrotecnic distress signals

a. Fasten seat belts
b. Secure hatches
c. Release falls
d. Start air supply

a. Lifebuoy with light and smoke
b. Lifebuoy with line
c. Lifebuoy with light
d. Lifejacket

a. Lifejacket
b. Child`s lifejacket
c. Immersion suit
d. Lifebuoy
16. What shall you do if you see a person falling into the sea?
a. Throw a lifebuoy over board and report to the bridge immediately.
b. Launch a lifeboat.
c. Put on a lifejacket.
d. Run aft.
17. What signal, if any, is specified in SOLAS as the "Abandon ship" signal ?
a. the "Abandon ship" signal is not specified, only the general emergency alarm signal is
stated
b. six short blasts followed by one long blast
c. seven short blasts followed by one long blast
d. four long blasts
18. When a fire breaks out in the accommodation, cargo holds or on deck, who is in charge of
the fire fighting operations?
a. The person who is designated in the muster list
b. The chief officer
c. The first officer arriving at the scene
d. The first person arriving at the scene
19. When a fire breaks out in the engine room, who is in charge of the fire fighting
operations?
a. The Chief Engineer
b. The Captain
c. The engineer on duty
d. The first person to arrive at the scene
20. When having a fire alarm during normal working hours, what immediate actions should
be taken?
a. Act according to instruction given in the fire plan.
b. Start the fire pump, the sooner the better.
c. Start searching for the fire to determine if it is in the engine room.
d. Everybody gather in the safety centre.
21. When mustered to an abandon ship drill, what is the first thing you do when entering the
muster station?
a. Put on a life jacket
b. Report your presence
c. Wait for orders
d. Wait for the order to put on your life jacket
22. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about safety rules, alarm instructions
and your own duties in case of an emergency?
a. By muster lists exhibited in conspicuous places
b. By oral instructions by the Captain
c. By folder distributed to each crewmember
d. By alarm instructions in all crew cabins
23. Where can you find what your duties are during a life boat drill?
a. Muster List
b. Stated at the embarkation station.
c. From the drill leader.
d. Safety plan.
24. Where do you find instructions for tasks and duties in case of an emergency?
a. In the muster list.
b. On posters at the lifeboat station.
c. In instruction notices posted in the crew's cabins.
d. In instruction notices posted in messrooms, recreation rooms etc.
25. *A davit-launched liferaft on board a ship is so arranged to be boarded by its full

complement of persons in less than:
a. 3 min
b. 2 min
c. 1 min
d. 4 min
26. *How many thermal protective aids are carried in each liferaft?
a. 10% of the number of persons the liferaft is designed to carry, or two, whichever is more
b. The number of persons the liferaft is permitted to accommodate

c. 6
d. Nil
27. *How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft marked SOLAS B PACK?
a. Not less than 10000 Kj
d. None
28. *The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 6 persons is
at least:
a. 7.5 kN
b. 5 kN
c. 2.5 kN
d. 10 kN
29. *The container for an inflatable liferafts shall be made:

a. watertight, as far as possible,except for drain holes in the container bottom
b. non-watertight if fitted with drain holes in the container bottom
c. Completely watertight
d. non-watertight
30. *The weak link of a float-free arrangement for liferafts must break under a strain of:
a. 2,2 kN ± 0,4 kN
b. 0,7 kN ± 0,4 kN
c. 4,2 kN ± 0,4 kN
d. 9,7 kN ± 0,4 kN
31. *Which part of the fresh water quantity provided for each person the liferaft is permitted
to accommodate may be replaced by a de-salting apparatus?
a. 0,5 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 2 day
b. 0,25 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 2 days

c. 0,5 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 1 day
d. 0,25 l if the de-salting apparatus is capable of producing this quantity in 1 day
32. A 6-men inflatable liferaft shall be carried as far forward as is reasonable and practicable.
Where is the best stowing position?
a. Aft of the forecastle
b. Aft of the forecastle secured with wire, turnbuckle and slip hook
c. All forward on the forecastle and secured with the use of a hydrostatic release device
d. In a locker in forecastle
33. A floating liferaft is capable of withstanding repeated jumps on to it from a height of at

least:
a. 4,50 m
b. 3,50 m
c. 5,50 m
d. 6,50 m
34. An evacuation-slide must be capable:

a. of being deployed by one person
b. of being deployed by two persons
c. of being deployed by one person or remotely controlled from the bridge
d. of being deployed by two person or remotely controlled from the bridge
35. An inflatable liferaft accommodating 6 persons is fitted with:
a. 1 entrance fitted with semi-rigid boarding ramp
b. 1 entrance fitted with a boarding ladder
c. 2 entrances each being fitted with a boarding ladder
d. 2 entrances among which one is fitted with a semi-rigid boarding ramp

a. Davit launched liferaft
b. Liferaft
c. Inflate liferaft
d. Lower liferaft to water

a. Liferaft
b. Lower liferaft to water
c. Inflate liferaft
d. Muster station to liferaft
38. Having boarded the liferaft, how do you release the painter?
a. Cut it with the safety knife stowed on the exterior of the canopy close to the painter
attachment point
b. Let go the quick release toggle
c. Cut it with the axe provided
d. Wait for it to break as it is provided with a weak link
39. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. Nil
40. How many buoyant smoke signals are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 6
d. Nil
41. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack?
a. 6
b. 2
c. 4
d. Nil
42. How many hand held distress flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. Nil
43. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS A pack?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 12
d. Nil
44. How many rocket parachute flares are carried in each liferaft with SOLAS B pack?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 12
d. Nil
45. How much food per person is supplied on a liferaft?

a. Not less than 10000 kJ
d. None - only barley sugar sweets supplied
46. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft equipped with a desalting apparatus?
a. 1 litre
b. 2.5 litres
c. 5 litres
d. 15 litres
47. How much water per person is provided in a liferaft not equipped with a desalting
apparatus?
a. 1.5 litre
b. 5 litre
c. 2 litre
d. 3 litre
48. How should the hook be released from a davit lowered liferaft?
a. Just prior to reaching the water, the lanyard should be pulled. This sets the hook which will
automatically release once the raft is waterborne
b. Unscrew the shackle pin
c. Wait until the raft is waterborne, then pull the lanyard
d. Cut the weak link on the wire with the axe provided
49. How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostatic release be secured to
the ship?
a. Secured via a weak link to a secure part of the ship
b. Directly to a secure point on the ship
c. Secured to the part of the hydrostatic release that is designed to break free
d. It should not be secured in any way
50. If conditions permit, which is the best way to board a liferaft that is floating close to the
ship?
a. Use a rope ladder close to the raft to climb down and board
b. Wearing a lifejacket, jump into the water close to the raft and then swim to it
c. Jump onto the raft itself
d. Jump into the water close to the raft, without a lifejacket, as this will make it easier to
swim and board the liferaft
51. In the life raft, the manually controlled inside lamp must be capable of working at
minimum for a period of:
a. 12 h
b. 6 h
c. 18 h
d. 24 h
52. On a dark night with a clear atmosphere, the outside manually controlled lamp of a
liferaft is visible at minimum at a distance of:
a. 2 mile
b. 0.5 miles
c. 4 miles
d. 8 miles
53. The breaking strength of the painter in a liferaft permitted to accommodate 15 persons is
at least:
a. 10 kN
b. 5 kN
c. 7,5 kN
d. 2.5 kN
54. The main buoyancy chamber of an inflatable liferaft must be divided into:
a. 2 compartments
b. 3 compartments
c. 2 compartments separated by a non-return valve
d. 3 compartments separated by a non-return valve
55. The outside manually controlled lamp of a liferaft must be capable of working at
minimum for a period of:
a. 12 h
b. 8 h
c. 4 h
d. 24 h
56. The rescue quoit of a liferaft is attached to a buoyant line whose length is at least:
a. 30 m
b. 10 m
c. 5 m
d. 50 m
57. The stability and strength of a liferaft when loaded with its full complement of persons
and equipment is such that it can be towed in calm water at speeds of up to:
a. 3 knots
b. 5 knots
c. 1 knots
d. 10 knots
58. What equipment is provided in a liferaft to help you keep warm in cold weather?
a. The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to help insulation, inaddition
to the thermal protective aids (10% of complement, minimum 2)
b. The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to give additional insulation
from the cold water
c. At least 10% of the rafts complement with a minimum of 2 thermal protective aids are
provided
d. Thermal protective aids for each person
59. What is a hydrostatic release unit?

a. A unit which automatically releases the liferaft/lifeboat at a depth of approx 4 metres.
b. A unit which automatically release all securing when abandon the vessel.
c. An important part connected to the sea-anchor.
d. A unit for inflating the liferaft.
60. What is the main characteristic of the weak link in a float-free arrangement for inflatable
liferafts?
a. be of sufficient strength to permit to pull the painter from the container and the inflation of
the liferaft
b. be of sufficient strength to break at a depth of at least 4 m and release the liferaft from its
berth
c. be of sufficient strength to keep the liferaft alongside the ship when dragged at a maximum
speed of 3 knots
d. be of such a strength to be cut by any person with a jack-knife
61. Which item among those below is included in the normal equipment of every liferaft ?
a. Two sponges
b. One searchlight which can work continuously for not less than 3 hours
c. Two painters of a length equal to not less than the distance from the stowage position of
the liferaft to the waterline
d. One boat hook
62. Which of the following actions should be done before throwing this type of inflatable
liferaft over the side?
a. Check that the painter is made fast to a secure point and that the sea below is clear
b. Inflate it on deck and then launch it if clear below
c. Take circular gripes and adhesive tape (see photo) off the container to enable raft to inflate
once in the water. If all clear, throw raft over side
d. Disconnect the painter and launch it, checking that all is clear below
63. Which one of the listed requirements regarding inflatable liferafts corresponds to present
regulations? Every liferaft shall be so constructed that:
a. be prevented from pressure exceeding twice the working pressure, either by relief valves or
by limited gas supply
b. it's canopy has viewing ports in all directions
c. have at least two entrances
d. in the event of capsizing it will automatically attain a position providing an above water
escape
64. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of liferafts corresponds to
present SOLAS regulations?
a. Liferafts shall be stowed with its painter permanently attached to the ship
b. Liferafts shall be stowed so that they are not released automatically
c. Liferafts intended for throw-overboard launching shall be stowed midships secured to
means for transfer to either side
d. Davit-launched liferafts shall be stowed on starboard side of the ship
65. Which part of the float-free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to provide a
connection between the ship and the liferaft?
a. the painter
b. the weak link
c. the hydrostatic release unit
d. the lashing strap
66. Which part of the float-free arrangement for inflatable liferafts is made to release the
liferaft after being automatically inflated during the ship is sinking?
a. The weak link
b. The painter
c. The hydrostatic release unit
d. The lashing strap
67. You have abandoned ship in a liferaft. Which of the following actions should you take?
a. Organize a lookout system and join up with other survival craft if possible. You should
also stream the sea anchor
b. Organize a lookout system
c. Start paddling in the direction of the nearest land
d. Join up with any other survival craft and stream the sea anchor
68. *What is the minimum length of the buoyant lifeline that is fitted to a lifebuoy which is
stowed at a distance of 10 metres above the waterline (light condition)?
a. 30 metres
b. 15 metres
c. 20 metres
d. 10 metres
69. *Which one of the following requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to present
SOLAS regulations ?
a. not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with selfignition lights.
b. at least two lifebuoys on each side of the ship shall be fitted with a buoyant lifeline
c. all lifebuoys shall be placed in holders with quick-release arrangement
d. at least one lifebuoy shall be placed in the vicinity of the bow
70. A lifebuoy is constructed to withstand a drop into the water from a height of:
a. 30 m
b. 10 m
c. 18 m
d. 4 m
71. A lifebuoy light is capable of working at minimum for a period of, and has a luminous
intensity of:
a. 2 h, 2 candela (about 1,7 mile range at normal meteorological sight)
b. 2 h, 1 candelas (about 1,0 mile range at normal meteorological sight)
c. 4 h, 1 candela (about 1,0 mile range at normal meteorological sight)
d. 4 h, 2 candelas (about 1,7 mile range at normal meteorological sight
72. A lifejacket has sufficient buoyancy and stability to lift the mouth of an unconscious
person at a minimum of:
a. 120 mm above the water (in calm water)
b. 40 mm above the water (in calm water)
c. 160 mm above the water (in calm water)
d. 180 mm above the water (in calm water)
73. A lifejacket is so constructed that a person can correctly don it within a period of:
a. 1 Min
b. 30 Sec
c. 10 Sec
d. 2 Min
74. A lifejacket must not sustain burning or continue melting after being totally enveloped in
a fire for a period of:
a. 2 sec
b. 10 sec
c. 20 sec
d. 1 mn
75. A lifejacket should be provided with:

a. A whistle and a light
b. A whistle
c. A light
d. On ships built after February 1992 all lifejackets should be fitted with a light
76. A person wearing a thermal protective aid shall be able:

a. to wear a lifejacket inside
b. to swim a short distance trough the water and board a survival craft
c. to jump into the water from a height of 4.5m
d. to climb up and down a vertical ladder
77. A person wearing an adult lifejacket shall be able:

a. to swim a short distance through the water and board a survival craft
b. to jump from any height into the water without being injured or damaging the lifejacket
c. to dive half a meter under the water surface
d. to swim half a mile distance and board a survival craft
78. A person wearing an anti-exposure suit shall be able to:

a. perform all duties associated with abandonment, assist others and operate a rescue boat
b. jump from a height equal to that of the stowage of liferafts arranged to be thrown
overboard
c. dive into the water to the maximum draft of craft that the ship is provided with
d. don and remove the suit in the water in no more than 5min. if it impairs ability to swim
79. A person wearing lifejacket or immersion suit, shall be able to turn from a facedown to a
face-up position in not more than:
a. 5 seconds
b. 8 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 15 seconds
80. According to SOLAS, every persons assigned to crew the rescue boat or assigned to the
marine evacuation system party shall be provided with:
a. An immersion suit or an anti-exposure suit
b. An immersion suit
c. An anti-exposure suit
d. An thermal protective aid and a lifejacket
81. An immersion suit is constructed such that it can be unpacked and donned within:
a. 2 min
b. 3 min
c. 4 min
d. 5 min
82. An immersion suit is:

a. Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a heoght of not less than 4.5 m into
the water
b. Totally waterproof whatever may be the condition of immersion
c. Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a height of not less than 8,5 m into
the water
d. Not allowing undue ingress of water after a jump from a height of not less than 18 m into
the water
83. An immersion suit which has its own buoyancy is fitted with:
a. A light plus a whistle
b. A whistle
c. A light
d. A light plus a whistle plus a knife
84. An immersion suit will not sustain burning or continue melting after being totally
enveloped in a fire for a period of:
a. 2 sec
b. 10 sec
c. 20 sec
d. 1 min
85. An inflatable lifejacket has:

a. 2 separate compartments
b. 1 compartment
c. 3 separate compartments
d. 1 compartment automatically inflatable and 1 compartment manually inflatable
86. An inflatable lifejacket will inflate:
a. Either automatically on immersion or by a single manual motion or by mouth
b. Either automatically on immersion or by a single manual motion
c. Either automatically on immersion or by mouth
d. Automatically on immersion

a. child's lifejacket
b. immersion suit
c. lifejacket
d. muster station for unaccompanied minors (UM)
88. Give the meaning of the following symbole:

a. Lifebuoy with light
c. Life buoy with hand flare
d. Lifebuoy with light and smoke
89. Give the meaning of this symbol:

a. lifebuoy with light and smoke
b. lifebuoy with light and line throwing appliance
c. lifebuoy with light and hand flare
d. lifebuoy with automatic sound signal

a. Lifebuoy
c. Lifebuoy with light

a. Lifebuoy with line
b. Lifebuoy with light
c. Lifebuoy with line and smoke
92. On board a ship, how many lifebuoys can you expect to be fitted with a selfigniting
light ?
a. Half of the total number of lifebuoys provided on board
b. The two lifebuoys of the quick-release system and at least one other in the vicinity of the
stern
c. Only the two life buoys of the quick-release system
d. The total number of lifebuoys provided on board
93. The grabline of a lifebuoy has a length of:
a. 4 times the outer diameter of the lifebuoy
b. 3 times the outer diameter of the lifebuoy
c. 2 times the outer diameter of the lifebuoy
d. 5 times the outer diameter of the lifebuoy
94. the minimum number of lifebuoys required on a cargo ship depends on:
a. the length of the ship
b. the tonnage of the ship
c. the number of persons on board
d. the sea area in which the ship is allowed to sail.

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Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi

1. What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses.

2. What is a chronometer used for? Indicating

5. What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ?

8. Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth?

9. What is the true shape of the earth?

11. What is the extent of zone zero?

13. As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude?

16. To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp =

18. An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow

20. If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct?

21. Right ascension is measured:

26. If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is:

29. What type of motion do planets have around the sun?

34. Every day a star rises, sets, culminates:

36. In which case is augmentation necessary:

40. What is the diameter about which the earth rotates?

43. Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called:

46. The geographical mean between two latitudes is called:

50. When is a body said to be circumpolar?

52. To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply:

53. Latitude scale is obtained as:

55. At the horizon, refraction:

56. Refraction correction must always be:

58. As height of eye increases, Dip:

59. Which of these is an inferior planet?

Maintain seaworthiness of the ship

3. The transverse curve of the deck is called:

4. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the:

6. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called:

8. Istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called"

9. Panting stresses are most severe:

11. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of:

15. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's:

17. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a:

18. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the:

20. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in:

21. The Figure shows a:

22. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a:

23. In Figure shown, the section marked 4 is:

24. A vertically welded shell joint is called a:

25. In the Figure shown, the items marked 6 are:

27. Water is drained from an exposed deck by:

28. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by:

30. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by fitting:

31. The type of weld shown in Figure is a:

33. The item of structure numbered 9 in the given Figure is a:

34. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the:

37. The item of structure numbered 11 in the given Figure is a:

38. The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a:

39. The type of rudder in the Figure is:

40. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a:

44. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the:

45. The steel section shown here will be used to construct a:

47. When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be:

48. The intact volume of a vessel above the waterline is called:

49. A stiff vessel will have a GM which is:

50. Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the:

51. A GZ curve is used to determine: