Environment

1.
Pollution
o Road construction material >> environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint ?
 Copper slag.
 Copper slag is a by-product obtained during smelting and refining of copper. Copper slag is
nonhazardous, non-toxic material. This eco-friendly industrial by-product is being used in
government road projects for the past 3 years now, says the report by Sterlite Copper Company.
 Cold mix asphalt technology
 Emulsified bitumen or foamed bitumen.
 Production of cold asphalt mix does not require high investment in equipment.
 no objectionable fumes or odors.
 Geotextiles
 Coir is a natural fibre. Government has allowed the use of coir based geotextiles for
construction of rural roads under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana in 2020.
 Geotextiles are mostly used in road construction, especially to fill gaps between the roads to
improve soil structure.
 It is a poor soil more beneficial for use and then easy to build in difficult places also.
 prevent the erosion of soil but allows the water to drain off.
 Portland cement and hot asphalt mix are the major CO2 emitters.
 Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is a combination of approximately 95% stone, sand, or gravel bound together by
asphalt cement, a product of crude oil.
Biodiversity
o Musk deer in its natural habitat?
 High altitude ecosystems, in the colder part of Himalayas.
 States such as Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh.
 It inhabits high alpine environments above altitudes of 2,500 m.
 Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and Gangotri National Park in Uttarakhand.
o Extra (Read about it….)
 Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary (Uttar Pradesh) & Manas National Park (Assam))
Biodiversity:
o Protected areas is wellknown for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasinga)
that thrives well in hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
 Kanha National Park (Madhya Pradesh)
o Extra (Read)
 Manas National Park; Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary; Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary.
Biodiversity:
o Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White throated redstart are
 Birds
 Ceylon Frogmouth is also known as Srilanka frogmouth. It is a bird species found in the Western
Ghats. Its IUCN status is the least concern. Its biological name is Batrachostomus moniliger.
 Coppersmith Barbet is also known as Crimson-breasted barbet is bird species found in the whole
Indian Subcontinent. Its IUCN status is the least concerned. Its scientific name is Psilopogon
haemacephalus.
 Grey Chinned minivet is bird species found from the Himalayas to China. Its IUCN status is least
concerned. Pericrocotus Solaris is its biological name.
 White-throated redstart is a bird species found in India, Nepal, Bhutan, and China. It is also given the
status of least concern by IUCN. Its biological name is Phoenicurus schisticeps.
o Other option…
 Primates; Amphibians; Reptiles
Protected Area
 Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin ?
 Nagarhole National park, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, Wayanad Wildlife sanctuary
 Caurvery basin lies in the States of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Pondicherry
 Papikonda National Park is located in Godawari Basin. Hence 2 is incorrect.
 Nagarhole National Park - located in the Kodagu district of Karnataka. It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere
Reserve.
 Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve -located at the confluence region of Western and Eastern Ghats. It is also a
part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
 Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary-located in Wayanad Kerala, and comes under Project Elephant. It is also a part
of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
 Biodiversity
With reference to Indian elephants, consider the
following statements : [2020-I]
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age
of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant
population is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
 As per the 2017’s data: Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam
(5,719) and Kerala (3,054).
 In the majority of cases an elephant group is headed by a female elephant, named ‘matriarch’.
 The leader of an elephant group is the oldest female. She leads the group in search of food and water.
 The gestation period of the breeding pair is nearly 22 months which yields a single baby. During birth,
females of the herd surround the mother for her protection.
 The average life expectancy of an elephant is 70 years and at the age of 18 years, its adulthood starts.
 Project Elephant is a Central Government sponsored scheme launched in February 1992
 It is implemented in 16 out of 29 states of the country.
 World Elephant Day is celebrated on 12th August every year.
 There are around 28,000 elephants in India with around 25% of them in Karnataka.
 Agriculture
In the context of India, which of the following is/are
considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
1. Crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Crop diversification reduces the need of herbicides.
 Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural
production on a particular farm taking into account the different returns from value-added
crops with complementary marketing opportunities.
 We can save huge quantity of water and energy by knowing when and how much water is required by a
crop. Use of tensiometers could be really helpful in providing estimates of soil moisture.
 Vertical farming uses significantly less water and pesticides than traditional agricultural methods.
 Vertical farming is the practice of growing crops in vertically stacked layers.
 It often incorporates controlled-environment agriculture, which aims to optimize plant growth,
and soilless farming techniques such as hydroponics, aquaponics, and aeroponics.
 In vertical farming, crops are grown indoors, under artificial conditions of light and temperature.
 Japan has been one of the early pioneers in vertical farming.
 It holds the largest share in the global vertical farming market.
 Tensiometer Use:
 A tensiometer in soil science is a measuring instrument used to determine the matric water
potential in the soil.
 When the water pressure in the tensiometer is determined to be in equilibrium with the water
pressure in the soil, the tensiometer gauge reading represents the matric potential of the soil.
 Such tensiometers are used in irrigation scheduling to help farmers and other irrigation
managers to determine when to water.
 Legume Intensification:
 Legumes fix the atmospheric nitrogen, release in the soil high-quality organic matter, and
facilitate soil nutrients' circulation and water retention.
 Based on these multiple functions, legume crops have a high potential for conservation
agriculture, being functional either as a growing crop or as crop residue.
 Pollution
Which one of the following statements best describes
the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in
monetary value, of the [2020-I]
(a) long-term damage done by a ton of CO2
emissions in a given year.
(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide
goods and services to its citizens, based on the
burning of those fuels.
(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in
a new place.
(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon
footprint on the planet Earth.
 In microeconomics, Social cost is a concept associated with some type of negative externality. For
example, Factories emit large amount of smoke from their chimneys into the atmosphere. This may
not figure in the calculation of costs in their records. But the cost to the community may be in the
form of additional washing bills for clothes and the money spent by the community on medical bills
etc. These costs are social costs.
 OECD defines Social Cost of Carbon as the net present value of climate change impacts over the next
100 years (or longer) of one additional tonne of carbon emitted to the atmosphere today.
 Act
If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI
of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the
implication? [2020-I]
(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any
circumstances.
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the
ecosystem.
 Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, has six schedules.
 No person is allowed to cultivate a specified plant mentioned in schedule 6, except with a licence
granted by the Chief Wild Life Warden. The plant mentioned in the sixth schedule are
 Beddomes’ cycad, Blue Vanda, Kuth, Ladies slipper orchids, Pitcher plant, Red Vanda.
 Schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.
 Schedule I
 This Schedule covers endangered species need to be protected.
 High penalties for violation of the law are under this Schedule.
 Species under this Schedule are prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under
threat to human life.
 Absolute protection is accorded to species on this list.
 The trade of these animals is prohibited.
 Examples: tiger, blackbuck, Himalayan Brown Bear, Brow-Antlered Deer, Blue whale,
Common Dolphin, Cheetah, Clouded Leopard, hornbills, Indian Gazelle, etc.
 Schedule II
 Animals under this list are also accorded high protection.
 Their trade is prohibited.
 They cannot be hunted except under threat to human life.
 Examples: Kohinoor (insect), Assamese Macaque, Bengal Hanuman langur, Large Indian
Civet, Indian Fox, Larger Kashmir Flying Squirrel, Kashmir Fox, etc.
 Schedule III and IV
 This list is for species that are not endangered.
 This includes protected species but the penalty for any violation is less compared to the
first two schedules.
 Examples: hyena, Himalayan rat, porcupine, flying fox, Malabar tree toad, etc.
 Schedule V
 This schedule contains animals that can be hunted.
 Examples: mice, rats, common crow, fruit bats, etc.
 Schedule VI
 This list contains plants that are forbidden from cultivation.
 Examples: pitcher plant, blue vanda, red vanda, kuth, etc.
 Protected Area
Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the
largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? [2020-I]
(a) Corbett
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Sunderbans
 Sundarban has Critical Tiger Habitat area of 1699.62 sq.
 Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Core/ Critical Tiger Habitat: 3721 Sq. Km.
 If Sundarbans critical Tiger Habitat is smaller than Nagarjunsagar then remaining options are unlikely to
have a bigger size than Nagarjunsagar.
 Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger reserve, are identified under the Wild Life
Protection Act (WLPA), 1972.
 Based on scientific evidence, such areas are required to be kept as safe for the purpose of tiger
conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers.
 The notification of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee
constituted for the purpose.
 Corbett National Park
 Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India and was established in 1936 as Hailey
National Park.
 Jim Corbett National Park is a forested wildlife sanctuary in northern India’s Uttarakhand State.
 Rich in flora and fauna, it is known for its Bengal tigers.
 Animals, including tigers, leopards, and wild elephants, along with hundreds of species of birds.
 The national park is on the banks of the Ramganga Reservoir.
 Ranthambore National Park
 Ranthambore National Park is a vast wildlife reserve near the town of Sawai Madhopur in Rajasthan,
northern India.
 It is a former royal hunting ground and home to tigers, leopards, and marsh crocodiles.
 Its landmarks include the imposing 10th-century Ranthambore Fort, on a hilltop, and the Ganesh
Mandir temple.
 Also in the park, Padam Talao Lake is known for its abundance of water lilies.
 Sundarbans National Park
 Sundarbans National Park is a large coastal mangrove forest, shared by India and Bangladesh.
 The area is home to the Royal Bengal tiger, plus other endangered species such as the estuarine
crocodile and Ganges River dolphin.
 Here, a watchtower offers views of the forest and its birds and animals.
 Resources exploitation
Consider the following statements: [2020-I]
1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as
“overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground
Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment
(Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater
irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
 The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.1986. |
under the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga
Rejuvenation.
 The countries with the largest extent of areas equipped for irrigation with groundwater, in absolute terms,
are India (39 million ha), China (19 million ha) and USA (17 million ha).
 Out of the 5723 assessment units assessed jointly by State Ground Water Departments and CGWB in the
country, as per the report of Niti Aayog, the following is the data -
 Safe-71%, Semi-critical-10%, Critical-4%, and Over Exploited-15%.
 Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment
(Protection) Act, (1986). Hence statement 2 is correct.
 It regulates the extraction of groundwater through guidelines that are updated regularly.
 At 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India has the world’s largest groundwater well-equipped
irrigation system.
 China with 19 mha is second, the USA with 17 mha is third.
 Pakistan and Bangladesh are at fourth and fifth respectively in largest groundwater reserve.
 Protected area:
With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of
the following statements are correct? [2020-I]
1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian
Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below;
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 und 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Normally human activities are not allowed in National Park but many villagers lived inside Desert National
park, and they did not have access to even basic facility like road, electricity and water. 2017: Supreme
Court ordered the government to provide such facilities to them.
 Desert national park is spread in two districts of Rajasthan Jaisalmer & Barmer
 Natural home >> Great Indian Bustard.
 The Great Indian Bustard.
 The great Indian bustard or Indian bustard is a bustard found on the Indian subcontinent.
 A large bird with a horizontal body and long bare legs, giving it an ostrich-like appearance,
 This bird is among the heaviest of the flying birds.
 IUCN Status: Critical Endangered.
 Thar Desert
 India's largest desert and the world's 17th largest desert.
 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park..
 Pollution
Which of the following are the reasons/factors for
exposure to benzene pollution ? [2020-I]
1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 Automobile and petroleum industry.
 Benzene and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) are ubiquitous environmental pollutants generated
during incomplete combustion of coal oil, petrol and wood. They’re also found in cigarette smoke and
charcoal boiled food.
 Benzene is also present in particle board furniture, plywood, fiber glass, flooring adhesives, paints, wood
panelling. Therefore, new buildings or recently redecorated indoor environments have been associated
with high concentrations of benzene from materials and furniture. A/c To NCBI.
 Colourless or light yellow liquid at room temperature.
 Dissolves only slightly in water and will float on top of the water.
 It is highly flammable.
 It is formed from both natural processes and human activities.
 It is found in crude oils and as a by-product of oil-refining processes.
 It is a known human carcinogen and is linked to an increased risk of developing lymphatic and
hematopoietic cancers, acute myelogenous leukaemia, as well as chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. (NCI05).
 Used to make plastics, resins, nylon, and synthetic fibres. Also rubbers, lubricants, dyes, detergents, drugs,
pesticides, paints, glues, and furniture wax.
 Pollution:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into
environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry release reactive nitrogen compounds
into environment.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Agricultural soils contributed to over 70% of N2O emissions from India in 2010. followed by waste water
(12%) and residential and commercial activities (6%).
 Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production Poultry industry recorded an excretion of reactive
nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
 Nitrogen particles make up the largest fraction of PM 2.5, the class of pollutants closely linked to
cardiovascular and respiratory illness, says the first-ever quantitative assessment of nitrogen pollution
(Indian Nitrogen Assessment) in India.
 Besides, the Indian Nitrogen Assessment has also released other data regarding nitrogen.
 The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive
nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016
 Pollution:
Consider the following: [2019-I]
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due
to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4
 Biomass burning is a source of greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide. In addition,
biomass burning is a source of chemically active gases, including carbon monoxide, non-methane
hydrocarbons, and nitric oxide. These gases, along with methane, lead to the chemical production of
tropospheric ozone.
 Agricultural crop/ biomass residue burning contribute towards the emission of greenhouse gases, air
pollutants, particulates matter and smoke thereby posing threat to human health.
 Burning crop residues are cheap and easiest method to dispose the leftover crop residues after harvesting,
for land clearing and pest control.
 Burning of crop residues is a common approach to eliminate waste after harvesting all over the world.
 Burning of these residues emit gases like sulphur dioxide (SO2), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide
(CO2), carbon monoxide (CO), black carbon (BC), organic carbon (OC), methane (CH4), volatile organic
compounds (VOC), non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone (O3), and aerosols etc which affect the
global atmospheric climate.
 Pollution
Which of the following statements are correct about the
deposits of methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane
gas from these deposits
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic
Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after
a decade or two.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Large amounts of methane are frozen in Arctic tundra soils and in marine sediments including gas hydrates.
As Earth’s climate warms, that methane is vulnerable to possible release into the atmosphere, where it can
add to global warming.
 In Methane Cycle, every molecule of methane that goes into the atmosphere remains there for 8 years until
it is removed by oxidation into carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O).
 Methane hydrate is an "ice" that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and
pressure conditions are favourable for its formation.
 Four earth environments have the temperature and pressure conditions suitable for the formation and
stability of methane hydrate. These are:
 sediment and sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost;
 sedimentary deposits along continental margins;
 deep-water sediments of inland lakes and seas; and,
 under Antarctic ice.
 At low temperatures the methane hydrates on the sea floor are stable, but if the water and the sea floor
become warmer, then the hydrates can break down. The microorganisms present there then oxidises the
resulting methane gas to form the greenhouse gas carbon dioxide (CO2).
 Thus, owing to melting of ice, global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits
hence having a significant impact in climate change.
 Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon
dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gases.
 Thus, there is concerted effort to reduce methane emissions in order to reduce the greenhouse effect.
 Pollution:
Why is there a great concern about the microbeads that
are released into environment? [2019-I]
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystem
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children
(c) They are small enough to absorbed by crop plants in
irrigated fields
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants
 Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has classified microbeads as “unsafe” for use in cosmetic products. NGT
had earlier directed the Centre to test cosmetic products containing microbeads after a plea sought ban on
their use on the ground they are extremely dangerous for aquatic life and environment.
 Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimeter in their largest dimension.
 They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as
polypropylene and polystyrene.
 They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpastes and in biomedical and health-science
research.
 Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals
in freshwater and ocean water.
 Biodiversity
Consider the following pairs : [2019-I]
Wildlife: Naturally found in
1. Blue finned mahseer : Cauvery river
2. Irrawaddy dolphin : Chambal river
3. Rusty spotted cats : Eastern ghats
Which one of the pair given above are correctly matched?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Gangetic river dolphin (Platanista gangetica) is found in Chambal river.
 Irrawaddy Dolphin (Orcaella brevirostris) is a different species. It’s found in Chilika lagoon and salt-water
estuaries of Odisha.
 In the river Cauvery, the Mahseer community comprises a “blue-finned” and an “orange-finned, hump-
backed” fish.
 While it is not yet known whether these are distinct species or 2 different phenotypes, evidence
suggests that the hump-backed phenotype is endemic to the river, whereas the blue-finned
phenotype was introduced in the 1980s. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 Irrawaddy Dolphin is a critically endangered species.
 They are found in coastal areas in South and Southeast Asia, and in three rivers: the Ayeyarwady
(Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and Mekong.
 In India, it is found in Lake Chilika and not the Chambal river. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
 Rusty Spotted Cat is one of the world's smallest feline.
 In India, it was long thought to be confined to the south, but records have established that it is found
over much of the country.
 It was observed in eastern Gujarat’s Gir National Park, in Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve
and along India’s Eastern Ghats.
 Protected Area
Which one of the following are Agasthyamala biosphere
reserve? [2019-I]
(a) Neyyar, peppara and shendurney wildlife sanctuaries
and kalakad mundanthurai tiger reserve
(b) Mudumalai sathayamangalam and Wayanad wildlife
sanctuaries and silent valley national park
(c) Kaundinya gundla bhrameshwaram and papikonda
wildlife sanctuaries and mukurthi national park
(d) Kawal and Shree Venkateshwara wildlife sanctuaries;
and Nagarjunasagar-srisailam tiger reserve
 Agasthyamalai biosphere consists of Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries and their
adjoining areas.
 Pollution / Global warming

In the context of which of the following do some scientists
suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the
injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere? [2019-I]
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical
cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of the solar wind on the
earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
 Sulphate aerosol particles are very good reflectors of sunlight, and it has been shown, through various
climate models, that even if 1% of current incident solar radiation is reflected back in space, a very
significant amount of temperature rise on earth can be offset.
 Cirrus clouds, which are at a height of 10 km above the Earth’s surface.
 Cirrus clouds also trap the heat, thinning them could cool down the Earth system.
 Thinning of cirrus clouds could be achieved by injecting ice nuclei (such as dust) into regions where cirrus
clouds form, making the ice crystals bigger and reducing the cirrus optical depth.
 Thinning of the clouds could allow more heat to escape into space, thereby cooling the planet.
 The stratospheric aerosol injection could limit rising temperatures that are causing climate change.
 Biodiversity
1. Asiatic lion naturally found in India only
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only
Which one of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Two humped camel are called Bactrian camel, found in Central Asia’s cold deserts
 Javan rhinoceros is called lesser one-horned rhinoceros and found only on the island of Java in Indonesia.
Indian rhinoceros is called greater one-horned rhinoceros.
 Asiatic lions are slightly smaller than African lions.
 At present Asiatic lions are naturally found in India only in Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary.
 The greater one-horned rhino is not naturally only found in India but also found in southern Nepal, in
riverine (floodplain) grasslands and adjacent woodland.
 The double-hump camel is not naturally found in India and is a native of Gobi desert and is also found in the
cold-desert areas across Mongolia, India (Ladakh), China, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and parts of
Afghanistan.
 Protected area
Which one of the following national parks lies
completely in the Temperate alpine zone? [2019-I]
(a) Manas national park
(b) Namdapha national park
(c) Neora valley national park
(d) Valley of flower national park
 Alpine Forests are at an altitude ranging between 2,500 to 3,500 metres.
 The temperate zone mainly lies between the tropics and the Polar Regions.
 Temperate zone is characterized by broadleaf and coniferous forests.
 The temperate zone has forests of oaks, maples, rhododendrons, and birch.
 Manas National Park -
 It is situated on the bank of the river Manas.
 It is located in Assam and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
 It is situated at an altitude of about 61 - 110 metres above mean sea level.
 Valley of Flowers National Park -
 It is situated at an altitude of about 3352 to 3658 meters above sea level and so lies completely in the
temperate alpine zone.
 Uttarakhand.
 Neora Valley National Park -
 West Bengal.
 Its altitude varies from 183 - 3,200 metres.
 Namdapha National Park -
 It has an altitudinal variation of 200m to 4,500m.
 Arunachal Pradesh.
 Organisation / Submit
"Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an
initiative launched by [2018-I]
(a) The Intergovernmentai Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organisation
 UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat
launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of
larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.
 It is an initiative launched to urge individuals, companies, and governments to measure their climate
footprint, reduce their greenhouse gas emissions as much as possible.
 The secretariat in 2016 launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate
Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.
 Climate neutrality is a three-step process, which requires individuals, companies, and governments to:
 Measure their climate footprint;
 Reduce their emissions as much as possible;
 Offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission reductions.
 Organisation / Submit
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a
UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards
greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
[2018-I]
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002,
Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016,
New Delhi
 In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in
Brazil….Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at
Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
 In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was held in Brazil.
 PAGE represents a mechanism to coordinate UN action on the green economy and to assist countries in
achieving and monitoring the emerging Sustainable Development Goals.
 Four UN organizations, including ILO, UN Environment, UNIDO and UNITAR initially joined forces to be able
to provide countries with broad and tailored support.
 Protected area
In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife
Sanctuary located? [2018-I]
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
 "Pakhui / Pakke Tiger reserve" is in Arunanchal Pradesh.
 Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Pakke Wildlife Sanctuary is located at the foothills of the Eastern
Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh.
 It was renamed as Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary in 2001 and became Pakhui Tiger Reserve in 2002.
 It is known for its amazing sightings of hornbill species.
 Keibul-Lamjao (Loktak Lake) National Park is located in the state of Manipur.
 Siju Bird Sanctuary, Balpakram National Park and Nokrek Biosphere Reserve are located in Meghalaya.
 Fakim Wildlife Sanctuary, Rangapahar Wildlife Sanctuary, Singphan Wildlife Sanctuary are located in
Nagaland.
 Act
1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is
incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given
Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights
for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any
part of Indi(a)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Baigas are considered as a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) in the Indian Constitution and rely
mostly on shifting cultivation, forest produce and fishing for sustenance, spread over forested areas of
Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. In 2016, they became India's first community to get habitat rights.
 Under FRA Act, district level Committees have to adjudicate the rights, whereas Tribal ministry only issues
guidelines.
 The definition of ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is incorporated only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.
 Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry and officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for
Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
 For the first time habitat rights have been given to Baigas under the Forest Rights Act of 2006.
 Baiga tribals become India's first community to get habitat rights.
 Critical wildlife habitats (CWH) are defined under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as the “areas of national parks
and sanctuaries where it has been specifically and clearly established, case by case, on the basis of scientific
and objective criteria, that such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife
conservation.”
 Act / Bodies
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from
the Central Pollution Control Board [2018-I]
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas
the CPCB has been created by an executive order of
the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps
reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts
whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams
and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in
the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), is statutory organization, was constituted in September, 1974
under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
 Principal functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974,
and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells
in different areas.
 National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up in 2010 under the NGT Act, 2010, for the purpose of effective
and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection. The Tribunal shall not be bound by
the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of
natural justice. The Tribunal is mandated to make an endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally
within 6 months of filing.
 New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai shall be the
other 4 places of sitting of the Tribunal.
The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often
mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of
[2018-I]
(a) Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and
large-scale commercial farming with indiscriminate use
of chemicals in many parts of the world that may
result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the
Earth in the near future in the manner it happened 65
million years ago that caused the mass extinction of
many species including those of dinosaurs. .
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops
in many parts of the world and promoting their
cultivation in other parts of the world which may
cause the disappearance of good native crop plants
and the loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural
resources, fragmentation/loss of natural habitats,
destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global
climate change.
 Scientists are suggesting that the sixth mass extinction is underway as there is a species loss of 100-1000
every year. The normal background extinction rate is about 1025 species per year. Habitat loss,
overpopulation of humans, pollution, over-harvesting and invasive species invasion are cited as the main
reasons.\
 The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often referred to as the Holocene extinction, which is the
ongoing extinction event of species during the present Holocene epoch, mainly as a result of human activity.
 The five mass extinctions that took place in the last 450 million years have led to the destruction of 70-95
percent of the species of plants, animals, and microorganisms that existed earlier.
 These extinctions were caused by “catastrophic alterations” to the environment, such as massive volcanic
eruptions, depletion of oceanic oxygen, or collision with an asteroid.
 The large number of extinctions spans numerous families of plants and animals, including mammals, birds,
amphibians, reptiles, and arthropods.
 The current extinction rate is approximately 100 extinctions per million species per year, or 1,000 times
higher than natural background rates.
 Pollution / climate change

Which of the following statements best describes "carbon
fertilization"? [2018-I]
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased
concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate
change brought about by the increased concentration
of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
 Increased concentrations of carbon dioxide increase photosynthesis, spurring plant growth…Results showed
that carbon dioxide fertilization explains 70 percent of the greening effect.
 It is the artificial enrichment of the atmosphere of greenhouses with carbon dioxide.
 It is the phenomenon that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of
photosynthesis in plants.
 Impact of carbon fertilization:
 Increase in the photosynthetic rate.
 Increases the water use efficiency.
 Plants distribute a greater proportion of photosynthate to roots under a high concentration of
atmospheric carbon dioxide.
 The reproductive biomass growth, as well as vegetative biomass growth, is usually increased by
elevated carbon dioxide.
 Biodiversity (Invasive species)

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned
in news ? [2018-I]
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in
which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above
 This plant is a native of Mexico, and spread throughout India It's an aggressive colonizer, common weed of
wastelands, scrublands and degraded forests. Since it's mention under the head of invasive alien species so
it'd reduce biodiversity in the area.
 The kikar or Prosopis juliflora was brought to Delhi from Mexico by the British more than a century ago.
 It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
 With its deep roots, it had also wreaked havoc on the city's groundwater.
 The kikar’s leaf contains toxins, which when falls on the ground, inhibit the growth of other plants.
 Organisation / submit / Law

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to reduce
Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative
of G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and
hydrofluorocarbons.
 CCAC was formed in 2012 by UNEP and Ghana, Bangladesh etc. countries. They focus on Short Lived Climate
Pollutants such as methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
 The governments of Bangladesh, Mexico, Sweden, Ghana, Canada and the United States, along with the
United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), in 2012, came together to initiate efforts to treat short-
lived climate pollutants as a collective and urgent challenge.
 Together, they formed the Climate & Clean Air Coalition to support fast action on climate, food security,
public health, and energy efficiency.
 After carbon dioxide, the short-lived climate pollutants like methane, tropospheric ozone, black carbon,
and hydrofluorocarbons are the most important contributors to the man-made global greenhouse effect.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 They are responsible for up to 45% of current global warming.
 If no action is taken to reduce emissions of these pollutants, they are expected to cause half of the warming
by human activity.
 Organisation / submit / Law

With reference to 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which
of the following statements is/are correct? [2017-I]
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted
developing countries to integrate climate change into
their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI)
and World Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD).
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 EuropeAid (DG for International Cooperation and Development) drives and oversees the overall
implementation of the GCCA.
 The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to
strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular least developed countries
(LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS).
 The GCCA also provides technical and financial support to partner countries to integrate climate change into
their development policies and budgets, and to implement projects that address climate change on the
ground, promoting climate-resilient, low-emission development.
 By fostering effective dialogue and cooperation on climate change, the Alliance helps to ensure that poor
developing countries most vulnerable to climate change increase their capacities to adapt to the effects of
climate change, in support of the achievement of the Millenium Development Goals (MDGs).
 There is no mention of WRI and WBCSD at the official partner's page of GCCA, even though a lot of other
institutions are mentioned like FAO, UNDP etc.
It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what
is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in
promoting this industry? [2017-I]
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in
seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel
production requires high level of expertise/technology
until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the
setting up of large scale facilities which may raise
ecological and social concerns.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Algae and cyanobacteria biomass production in the U.S. desert Southwest could be perceived as a good use
of low-value land by some, but as an intrusion into pristine land by others. Similarly, the use of genetically
modified organisms in production systems could affect social acceptability. So this is social concern.
 Open Algal ponds will attract insect larvae invasion and affect predator-prey balance. This is ecological
concern.
 Production of algae-based biofuels is possible on land or saline water or wastewater.
 Production of algal biofuel is possible both in seas and on continents. They can grow on marginal or non-
cropland and also on brackish or polluted water. Land-based systems are more developed than sea-based
systems.
 Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuels production requires a high level of
expertise/technology until the construction is completed because producing biofuels from algae is still in a
pre-commercial stage of technology development and capital investments, is a significant barrier.
 Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological
and social concerns as it will reduce the amount of food available for humans and due to supply shortage it
will increase the cost of food as well as the cost of fuel.
 Pollution / Climate change

In the context of mitigating the impending global warming
due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which
of the following can be the potential sites for carbon
sequestration? [2017-I]
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Carbon sequestration may be carried out by pumping carbon into carbon sinks of two types:
 Natural sinks- ocean, forest, soil etc.
 Artificial sink- depleted oil reserve, unminable mines.
 And deep Saline Formations Infact have highest capacity for this.
 What is Carbon sequestration?
 The process of storing (or capturing) atmospheric carbon dioxide is called Carbon sequestration.
 It is used for reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
 Its uses/methods:
 Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams can be used to store CO2 as the CO2 molecules attach to the
surface of coal.
 CO2 is also used as the recovery tool as by injecting CO2 into declining oil fields to increase oil
recovery.
 Forests as sink as trees are natural sequesters of carbon.
 Wetland restoration as wetlands conserves 14.5 % of the soil carbon found in the world.
 Also used for Subterranean deep saline formations.

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are
the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?
[2017-I]
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by
enhancing the same biodegradation process that
occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium
and lead can be readily and completely treated by
bioremediation using micro-organisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create
microorganisms specifically designed for
bioremediation.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Biosparging is an in-Situ Bioremediation techniques in which we inject the air under pressure below the
water table to enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria.
 Genetic engineering approaches to bioremediation also there.
 But not all compounds are susceptible to rapid and complete biodegradation, and bioremediation often
takes longer time than other treatment processes.
 Bioremediation technique -
 Bioremediation is a treatment that uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous
substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances. It uses microorganisms to degrade organic
contaminants in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids.
 The bioremediation technique is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same
biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
 Not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. For example, heavy
metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms.
 Bioremediation is limited to biodegradable compounds.
 Bioremediation is the use of microorganisms mainly bacteria and fungi to degrade the environmental
contaminants into less toxic forms.
 Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
So statement 3 is correct.

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions
 The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to break down the organic matter present in a certain volume of
a sample of water, is called Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
 The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of the amount of organic material in the water, in terms of
how much oxygen will be required to break it down biologically. Clean water would have BOD value of less
than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a BOD value of 17 ppm or more.
 BOD is often used in wastewater-treatment plants and is used as an index of the degree of organic pollution
in water.
 Biodiversity
Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the
population of species of butterflies, what could be its
likely consequence/consequences? [2017-I]
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal
infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some
species of wasps, spiders and birds.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Butterflies (also bees) play an important role in the pollination of plants and the production of crops.
 Butterflies transport pollen grains from one place to another.
 So if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, pollination of some plants could be
adversely affected.
 As there are no reasons (not proven) for a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
 It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders, and birds because these species
are the predators of butterflies, so if the population decreases then these predators lose their major food
source.
 Organisation / Law / Submit

Consider the following statements in respect of Trade
Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce
(TRAFFIC):
1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in
wild plants and animals is not a threat to the
conservation of nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
 TRAFFIC is joint program of WWF and IUCN.
 Trade-Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):
 TRAFFIC is a leading non-governmental organization working globally on trade in wild animals and
plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. Hence the
statement 2 is correct and statement 1 is not correct.
 It was established in 1976 with its headquarters in Cambridge, UK.
 It is a joint initiative by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and the World
Wildlife Fund (WWF).
 The major aim of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild flora and fauna is not a threat to the
conservation of Nature.
 United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP):
 UNEP is established on 5th June 1972 with its headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya as per the result of the
Stockholm conference on the environment.
 The mission of UNEP is to care environment by encouraging nations to take up conservation initiatives
and encouraging partnerships of countries to conserve the environment.
 UNEP works on six important areas for conservation of nature namely as follows,
 Climate change,
 Ecosystem management,
 Disaster management,
 Environmental governance,
 Sustainable production and Consumption and
 Hazardous / Harmful substances.
 Protected area
From the ecological point of view, which one of the
following assumes importance in being a good link between
the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
 The Eastern and Western Ghats Meet at Nilgiri hills.
 Nilgiri hills are in Karnataka and Tamilnadu.
 Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve:
 It is located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu and is part of Western ghats and Eastern ghats. Hence
the option 1 is correct.
 Sathyamangalam forest range is an important wildlife corridor in Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
 It is a genetic link between the four other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga
Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, and Bandipur National
Park.
 It is part of "Project Tiger" which is to conserve populations of tiger and reduce in trafficking and
poaching of tigers.
 Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in 1973.
 Nallamala Forest:
 It is located in Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh.
 Nallamala forest is a part of Nagarjunasagar Srisailam Tiger reserve which is located in the Eastern
Ghats.
 Amrabad Tiger reserve also located in the Nallamala Hills of Telangana.
 This forest is famous for tigers, wild dogs, jungle cats.
 Nagarhole National Park:
 It is located in Kodagu district and Mysore district of Karnataka and is also called Rajiv Gandhi National
park.
 It is part of the Niligiri biosphere reserve and Bandipur National park and Mudumalai wildlife
sanctuary.
 It serves as a protected habitat for elephants and tigers.
 Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve:
 It is located in the Southern region of Andhra Pradesh in the Eastern Ghats.
 Seshachalam Biosphere reserve is a habitat of famous red sanders and slender lories species.
 Biodiversity
If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which
one of the following is the best place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) DeeporBeel
 Gharials are river dwelling fish-eaters and their only viable population is in the Chambal Sanctuary.
 A sanctuary for gharials (freshwater crocodiles) spread over 1600 sq km created along the Chambal River.
 More than 5,000 gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) were born in the latest hatching season (June-July) at
the National Chambal Sanctuary on the tri-junction of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
 Apart from gharials, 400 mugger crocodiles (Crocodylus palustris) also hatched out of eggs at the
sanctuary and will soon be released into the river.
 Scientist believe that Red-crowned turtle and birds like the Indian skimmer on this stretch of the
Chambal are more threatened than gharials.
 Act / Law
According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of
the following animals cannot be hunted by any person
except under some provisions provided by law?
[2017-I]
1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The schedule 5 vermin- crow, fruitbat, mice and rat can be killed.
 All of the animals given are protected scheduled animals under the Wildlife Act 1972.
 The gharial is ‘Critically Endangered’ and Water buffalo is ‘Endangered’. Hence, they fall under Schedule I.
 Indian wild ass is Endangered and it is listed under Schedule I.
 There are six schedules provided in the Wildlife Protection Act based on the degree of protection.
 Schedule 1 and Schedule 2 provide absolute protection and offences under these are prescribed the
highest penalties.
 Schedule 1 covers endangered species.
 Schedule 3 and 4: This includes protected species but the penalty for any violation is less compared to
the first two schedules. This list is for species that are not endangered.
 Schedule 5: This schedule contains animals that can be hunted.
 Schedule 6 contains the plants, which are prohibited from cultivation and planting.
 Act / Law
In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected
under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972,
what does it imply ? [2017-I]
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are
under captive protection; and now it is impossible to
prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this
context.
 Tiger is given as Schedule I animal
 Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
 This Act provides for the protection of a listed species of animals, birds and plants, and also for the
establishment of a network of ecologically-important protected areas within the country.
 The Act provides for the formation of wildlife advisory boards, wildlife wardens, specifies their powers
and duties, etc.
 With the help of this act, India became a party to the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
 The Act created six schedules which gave varying degrees of protection to classes of flora and fauna.
 Schedule I and Schedule II (Part II) get absolute protection and offences under these schedules attract
the utmost penalties.
 Schedule I
 This Schedule covers endangered species.
 These species need rigorous protection and thus very harsh penalties for violation of the law are for
species under this Schedule.
 Species under this Schedule are prohibited to be hunted throughout India, except under threat to
human life.
 Absolute protection is accorded to species in this list.
 Trade of these animals is prohibited.
 Examples: tiger, blackbuck, Himalayan Brown Bear, Brow-Antlered Deer, Blue whale, Common
Dolphin, Cheetah, Clouded Leopard, hornbills, Indian Gazelle, etc. Hence option 1 is correct.
 Schedule II
 Animals under this list are also accorded high protection.
 Their trade is prohibited.
 They cannot be hunted except under threat to human life.
 Examples: Kohinoor (insect), Assamese Macaque, Bengal Hanuman langur, Large Indian Civet, Indian
Fox, Larger Kashmir Flying Squirrel, Kashmir Fox, etc.
 Schedule III & IV
 This list is for species that are not endangered.
 This includes protected species but the penalty for any violation is less compared to the first two
schedules.
 Examples: hyena, Himalayan rat, porcupine, flying fox, Malabar tree toad, etc.
 Schedule V
 This schedule contains animals which can be hunted.
 Examples: mice, rat, common crow, fruit bats, etc.
 Schedule VI
 This list contains plants that are forbidden from cultivation.
 Examples: pitcher plant, blue vanda, red vanda etc.
 Protected area + Biodiversity

Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the
lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of
the following sites ? [2017-I]
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park
 eliminate Corbett (Uttrakhand) and Mudumalai (Tamil Nadu) for climatic reasons for Lion relocation, still
you're left with Sariska (Rajasthan). Sariska being a tiger reserve, would sound unfit for lion immigration. So
by elimination answer would be "B".
 Asiatic Lion Reintroduction Project -
 An environment ministry's expert committee has approved Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya
Pradesh as a second home for Asiatic lion. Hence option 2 is correct.
 The last wild population of the Asiatic lion is found in the region of Gir Forest National Park, in the
state of Gujarat.
 The single population faces the threats of epidemics, natural disasters and other anthropogenic
factors.
 In 2013 the supreme court ruled in favour of translocation of the Asiatic lion to Kuno Palpur wildlife
sanctuary in the interest of genetic stability of these species.
 However, the Gujrat government will not share lions unless 33 studies as mandated by Internation
wildlife watchdog IUCN is completed.
 Biodiversity + Law
The term M-STRIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in
the context of [2017-I]
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways
 National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is planning to implement a new computerized tiger
monitoring protocol in all tiger reserves of the country known as Monitoring System for Tiger, Intensive
Patrolling and Ecological Status (MSTrIPES).
 The android-based monitoring software, M-STrIPES, will be used across all the TRs of the country.
 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna

With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the
news, consider the following statements: [2016-I]
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain
forest areas of South India.
 Pterocarpus santalinus, with the common names Red Sanders, Red Sandalwood, and saunderswood, is a
species of Pterocarpus endemic to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain range of South India. This tree is
valued for the rich red color of its wood. The wood is not aromatic.
 Andhra Pradesh police killed 20 Red Sander smugglers in an encounter.
 Red Sanders is associated with Tropical dry deciduous forest.
 It is Mostly found in Andhra Pradesh.
 It regenerates well in dry hot climate.
 It is not grown is tropical rain forest.
 It is usually found at altitudes of 150 – 900 m.
 The dry, hilly, often rocky ground, and hill sides are suitable for its growth.
 It grows on lateritic and gravelly soil and cannot tolerate water logging.
Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct
species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11
metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of
India has it been discovered?
(a) Andaman Islands
(b) Anaimalai Forests
(c) Maikala Hills
(d) Tropical rain forests of northeast
 Scientists at the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) have discovered a new species of banana from a remote
tropical Krishna Nalah rain forest on the Little Andaman islands. The new species is about 11 metres high,
whereas as the usual banana species is about three to four meters high. The fruit pulp is orange in colour,
distinctive from the white and yellow color of regular bananas.

What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found in
India? [2016-I]
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in
seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 These camels can swim up to three kilometers into the sea in search of mangroves. Most families in Jatt and
Rabari communities of Kachchh, are traditional rearers of Kharai camels.
 Kharai camels found in the Kutch region are very unique. They can can swim through deep sea waters and it
feeds on mangroves and other saline plants. The breeders have meticulously followed the traditional grazing
pattern in the coastal districts. They do not provide special housing or shelter to the camels. Given the
breed’s ability to survive both on land and sea, the Kharai camel is one of the most preferred choices of
graziers in the arid coastal region of Kachchh. People consume its milk, while male calves are sold for
economic returns (females are not sold because they are considered sacred). A male calf fetches anywhere
between Rs. 6,000 and Rs.14,000, says Ramesh Bhatti of Sahjeevan, an NGO working on livelihood issues of
graziers in Kachchh. It can be domesticated also – so its not wild. They are reared in four blocks of Abdasa,
Bundra, Lakhpat and Bachau of Gujarat.
 Act / law / Bodies / Org

Which of the following are the key features of ‘National
Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’? [2016-I]
1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the
national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through
which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of
NGRBA on rotation basis.
Select the correct answer using the code given Below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is a financing, planning, implementing, monitoring and
coordinating authority for the Ganges River, functioning under the water resource ministry (Ministry of Jal
Shakti) of India. The mission of the organisation is to spearhead the river conservation efforts at the
national level.
 Ministry of Jal Shakti is the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA (National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA).
 The NGRBA is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, the
Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, i.e. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand,
and West Bengal, among others.
 The river basin is the unit of planning and management, an internationally accepted strategy for integrated
management of rivers.
 National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) will spearhead river conservation efforts at the national level
and implementation will be by the State Agencies and Urban Local Bodies.

In the cities of our country, which among the following
atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating
the value of Air Quality Index? [2016-I]
1. Carbon dioxide 2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide 4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 The AQI level is based on the level of 8 atmospheric pollutants, namely sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen
dioxide (NO2), suspended particulates smaller than 10 µm in aerodynamic diameter (PM10), suspended
particulates smaller than 2.5 µm in aerodynamic diameter (PM2.5), NH3, Pb, carbon monoxide (CO), and
ozone (O3) measured at the monitoring stations throughout.
 When the AQI level (air quality index) is below 50, people are breathing fresh, clean air.
 The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in New Delhi in September 2014, under the Swachh
Bharat Abhiyan.
 Air Quality Index doesn’t include carbon dioxide and methane.
 Act / Law / Bodies / Org

On which of the following can you find the Bureau of
Energy Efficiency Star Label? [2016-I]
1. Ceiling fans
2. Electric geysers
3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is an agency of the Government of India, under the Ministry of Power
created in March 2002 under the provisions of the nation’s 2001 Energy Conservation Act. The agency’s
function is to develop programs which will increase the conservation and efficient use of energy in India.
The government has proposed to make it mandatory for all appliances in India to have ratings by the BEE
starting in January 2010.
 The Star Labeling Programme has been formulated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
 BEE sets all the standards and norms that need to be followed while rating an appliance.
 Appliances that need to have an energy rating label mandatorily are Frost-free refrigerator, Tubular
Fluorescent Lamps, Room Air-Conditioners, Distribution Transformer, Colour TV, CST AC, Direct Cool
Refrigerator and Electric Geyser.
 There are two variants of these labels, a big label and a smaller label:
 Products with a big label include Refrigerators, air-conditioners, geysers and washing machines.
 Products with a small label include Ceiling fans, tube lights, computers/laptops and televisions.
‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee
Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to
(a) constitutional reforms [2016-I]
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) linking of rivers
(d) protection of Western Ghats
 The Gadgil Commission was an environmental research commission appointed by the Ministry of
Environment and Forests of India. The Commission submitted the report to the Government of India on 31
August 2011. The Kasturirangan Committee Report has sought to balance the two concerns of development
and environment protection, by watering down the environmental regulation regime proposed by the
Western Ghats Ecology Experts Panel’s Gadgil report in 2012. (
 They’re associated with Western Ghat conservation plan.
 The Gadgil Committee Report and Kasturirangan Committee Report are related to the Protection of Western
Ghats.
 Gadgil Committee is also known as The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP).
 The chairman of the Gadgil Committee was Madhav Gadgil.
 Gadgil Committee was an environmental research commission appointed by the Ministry of Environment
and Forests of India.
 The report was submitted by the commission to the Government of India on 31st August 2011.The Gadgil
Committee recommended a Western Ghats Ecology Authority (WGEA) as a statutory authority with powers
under section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
 The successor of the Gadgil Committee was Kasturiragan Committee.
 The head of the Kasturirangan Committee was Kasturirangan and was formed in August 2012.
 It was a High-Level Working Group on the Western Ghats to examine the Gadgil Committee report in a
holistic and multidisciplinary fashion in the light of the responses received from Central ministries, State,
and others.
 The Kasturirangan committee recommended a ban on mining, quarrying and mining, new polluting
industries.
 Energy Resources
‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context
of promoting the [2016-I]
(a) production and use of solar energy by the
households/consumers
(b) use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households
(c) installation of CNG kits in motor-cars
(d) installation of water meters in urban households
 A Net metering is a billing mechanism that credits solar energy system owners for the electricity they add to
the grid. Net metering allows residential and commercial customers who generate their own electricity from
solar power to feed electricity they do not use back into the grid.
 Under Net-metering system, Customer installs a solar or windpower plant on his premise, gets it grid-
connected with the electricity distribution company (DISCOM).
 Net metering is a billing mechanism that credits solar energy system owners for the electricity they add to
the grid.
 It allows domestic or commercial users who generate their own electricity using solar panels or photovoltaic
systems to export their surplus energy back to the grid.
 Advantages of Net metering -
 It is a low cost and easily administered method for the customer to invest in renewable energy
technologies.
 It increases the value of electricity produced by renewable generation and allows customers to store
their energy and use it whenever necessary.
 Net metering is a necessary policy to boost the growth of renewable energy.
 Giving customers control over their electricity bills.
 Net metering allows utility customers to generate their own electricity cleanly and efficiently.
 Net metering provides substantial economic benefits in terms of jobs, income and investment in the
renewable energy sector.
 By encouraging generation near the point of consumption, net metering also reduces the stress on
distribution systems and prevents losses in long-distance electricity transmission and distribution.

Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of
‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?
1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into
the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing
the ‘green accounting’
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance
agricultural output so as to ensure food security to
one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
responding to climate change by a combination of
adaptation and mitigation measures
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The National Mission for a Green India was announced by the Prime Minister as one of the eight Missions
under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It recognizes that climate change phenomenon
will seriously affect and alter the distribution, type and quality of natural resources of the country. GIM puts
the “greening” in the context of climate change adaptation and mitigation, meant to enhance ecosystem
services like carbon sequestration and storage (in forests and other ecosystems), hydrological services and
biodiversity; along with provisioning services like fuel, fodder, small timber.
 Environment ministry has launched National Mission for a Green India through a consultative process
involving relevant stakeholders, aimed at both increasing the forest and tree cover by 5 million ha, as well as
increasing the quality of the existing forest cover in another 5 million ha.

What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United
Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’? [2016-I]
1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative
national programs and supportive inter-national
partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and
North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the
allocation of major portion of financial resources to
these regions.
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the
participation of local people in combating the desertification.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) aims to promote effective action through
innovative national programmes partnerships and supportive international UNCCD is committed to a
bottom-up
approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification.
 But UNCCCD focuses on Africa, Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean, Northern Mediterranean and Central
and Eastern Europe.
 United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):
 It was established in 1994.
 It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to
sustainable land management.
 The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local
people in combating desertification and land degradation. Hence statement 3 is correct.
 The convention's 195 parties work together to improve the living conditions for people in
drylands, to maintain and restore land and soil productivity, and to mitigate the effects of
drought.
 This convention aims to promote effective action through innovative local programmes and
supportive international partnerships.
 The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the
drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.
 The implementation of UNCCD is around five regional annexes: Africa (given a priority because there is
where desertification is most severe), Asia, Latin America and the Caribbean, the Northern
Mediterranean, and Central and Eastern Europe.
 There is no such provision that the secretariat facilitates the allocation of the major portion of
financial resources to the South Asia and North Africa regions.

The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is
sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) pledges made by the European countries to
rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East
(b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to
combat climate change
(c) capital contributed by the member countries in the
establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world
regarding Sustainable Development Goals.
 Countries across the globe committed to create a new international climate agreement by the conclusion of
the U.N. Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Conference of the Parties (COP21) in Paris in
December 2015.
 INDC are associated with UNFCCC-Climate change.
 Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC):
 INDCs embody efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of
climate change.
 Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) is a term used under the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
 It is for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions that all countries that signed the UNFCCC were asked
to publish in the lead up to the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris, France
in December 2015.
 INDCs are the post-2020 climate action commitments by parties to increase the ability to adapt to the
adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions.

Consider the following statements:
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first
proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the
‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be
achieved by 2030.
 At the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit on 25 September 2015, world leaders adopted the
2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which includes a set of 17 Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs) to end poverty, fight inequality and injustice, and tackle climate change by 2030. The history of the
SDGs can be traced to 1972 when governments met under the auspices of the United Nations Human and
Environment Conference. The ‘Club of Rome’ is a global think tank that deals with a range of international
political issues.
 The first report of the Club of Rome was the famous The limits to growth, brought out in 1972 by an MIT
research team coordinated by Dennis and Donella Meadows.
 The objective of SDG was to produce a set of universal goals that meet the urgent environmental, political,
and economic challenges facing our world.
 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012.

With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting
in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The Agreement was signed by all the member
countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas
emissions so that the rise in average global
temperature by the end of this century does not
exceed 2 °C or even 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical
responsibility in global warming and committed to
donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help
developing countries to cope with climate change.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The agreement emphasized on urgent need to address the significant gap between the aggregate effect of
Parties’ mitigation pledges in terms of global annual emissions of greenhouse gases by 2020 and aggregate
emission pathways consistent with holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C
above preindustrial levels and pursuing efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C above
preindustrial levels.
 Paris Summit - not all nations have signed the agreement and there is no deadline to ratify it. And developed
countries committed to give $100 billion by 2020. But, for future, there is no mention of giving $1,000 billion
dollars.
 At COP 21 in Paris, on 12 December 2015, Parties to the UNFCCC reached a landmark agreement to combat
climate change and to accelerate and intensify the actions and investments needed for a sustainable low
carbon future.
 The Agreement was signed by the participating 196 countries.
 The Paris Agreement opened for signature on 22 April 2016 in New York and entered into force on 4
November 2016, after ratified by the 55 countries that account for at least 55% of global emissions. Hence
statement 1 is incorrect.
 The Agreement aim is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by keeping a global
temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts
to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius. Hence statement 2 is correct.
 Developed countries committed to donate $100 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to
cope with climate change.

Consider the following statements:
(1) The International Solar Alliance was launched at the
United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
(2) The Alliance includes all the member countries of the
United Nations.
 The COP-21 Climate Conference was held in Paris, France from 30 November to 12 December 2015. During
this conference, India and France have launched the International Solar Alliance (ISA). International Solar
Alliance includes an alliance of 121 countries located between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
 While ISA was launched on Sidelines of Paris Summit, therefore first statement right but it includes only the
121 countries between Capricorn and Cancer receiving sunlight for 300 days or more.
 Nicaragua was the latest country to sign the International Solar Alliance Framework Agreement.
 The alliance includes around 121 countries that support the “Declaration on the occasion to launch the
international solar alliance of countries dedicated to the promotion of solar energy”. Not all the member
countries of the United Nations.

With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the
news, consider the following statements :
1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable
Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.
 Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regards to
sustainable development. It is a product of the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
 The full implementation of Agenda 21, the Programme for Further Implementation of Agenda 21 and the
Commitments to the Rio principles, were strongly reaffirmed at the World Summit on Sustainable
Development (WSSD) held in Johannesburg, South Africa from 26 August to 4 September 2002.

What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?
(a) It is an international accounting tool for government
and business leaders to understand, quantify and
manage greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer
financial incentives to developing countries to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly
Technologies.
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all
the member countries of the United Nations to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the
year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted
by the World Bank
 The Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHG Protocol) is the most widely used international accounting tool for
government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse gas emissions. A
decade-long partnership between the World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for
Sustainable Development (WBCSD), the GHG Protocol is working with businesses, governments.
 It works with businesses, governments, and environmental groups around the world to build a new
generation of credible and effective programs for tackling climate change.
 It establishes a comprehensive, global, standardized framework for measuring and managing emissions from
private and public sector operations, value chains, products, cities, and policies.
 The GHG Protocol also provides webinar, e-learning and in-person training and capacity-building support on
its standards and tools.
 In addition, GHG Protocol offers companies and organizations the opportunity to apply for our “Built on
GHG Protocol” mark that recognizes sector guidance, product rules, or tools that are in conformance with
GHG Protocol Standards.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+
Programme can significantly contribute to
1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems
3. poverty reduction
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The REDD+, Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation and the role of conservation,
sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks in developing countries
(REDD+) was first negotiated under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
in 2005.
 The main objective was to mitigate climate change through reducing net emissions of greenhouse gases
through enhanced forest management in developing countries.
 Most of the key REDD+ decisions were completed by 2013, with the final pieces of the rulebook finished in
2015.
 It is based off the assumption that without REDD+, the forests in the developing countries have been cut
down, accelerating climate change.
 Proper implementation of the REDD+ strategies can help in tackling:
 Forest degradation and biodiversity loss.
 Improving Social standards reducing poverty.
 Resilience of forest ecosystem.

With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of
Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the
following statements is/are correct? [2016-I]
1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World
Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing
attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers
recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of
ecosystems and biodiversity.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB) is a study led by Pavan Sukhdev. It is an international
initiative to draw attention to the global economic benefits of biodiversity. Its objective is to highlight the
growing cost of biodiversity loss and ecosystem and to draw together expertise from the fields of science,
economics and policy to actions.
 The TEEB study was launched by Germany and the European Commission in response to a proposal by the
G8+5 Environment Ministers in Potsdam, Germany in 2007.
 Its aim was to develop a global study on the economics of biodiversity loss.
 It is not hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
 It aims to achieve this goal by following a structured approach to valuation that helps decision-makers
recognize the wide range of benefits provided by ecosystems and biodiversity, demonstrates their values in
economic terms and, where appropriate, suggests how to capture those values in decision-making.

Consider the following pairs :
Terms sometimes seen in the news Their origin
1. Annex—I Countries Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism Kyoto Protocol
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The Kyoto Protocol separates countries into two groups. Annex I includes developed nations, while
NonAnnex I refers to developing countries. A CER is a certificate which is issued every time the
 United Nations prevents one tonne of CO2 equivalent being emitted through carbon projects registered
with the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
 Kyoto Protocol:
 It is an international agreement that aims to manage and reduce carbon dioxide emissions and
greenhouse gases.
 Kyoto Protocol is an agreement under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change,
adopted in December 1997.
 It is a legally binding treaty to reduce greenhouse emissions.
 Annex 1 countries: Includes developed countries and economies in transition.
 Annex 2 countries: Includes developed countries that provide financial and technical support to the
economies in transition and developing countries to assist them in reducing their greenhouse gas
emissions.
 The Clean Development Mechanism allows emission-reduction projects in developing countries to
earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2.
 These CERs can be traded, sold, and used by industrialized countries to meet their emission reduction
targets under the Kyoto Protocol.
 Cartagena Protocol:
 It is a legally binding international agreement under the United Nations' Convention on Biological
Diversity (CBD).
 It aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting
from modern biotechnology.
 Nagoya Protocol:
 It is an international legally binding protocol on access to genetic resources and benefit-sharing.
 Ecology
With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways,
consider the following statements: [2015-I]
1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets
is initiated by a fungal inoculum.
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in
this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.
 The bio-toilets are fitted underneath the lavatories and the human waste discharged into them is acted
upon by a particular kind of bacteria that converts it into CO2, CH4 and non-corrosive neutral water. The
new-age green toilets have been designed by Railways along with Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) keeping in mind the requirements of Indian trains.
 It convert human waste into water and small amounts of gases.
 The gases are released into the atmosphere and the water is discharged after chlorination on to the track.
 Under the bio-toilet concept of the DRDO, the bio-digester tank in every toilet is filled with inoculums
containing four types of bacteria.
 The water trap system in the toilet prevents air from getting into the tank, the human waste is processed by
anaerobic bacteria in seven chambers in the tank and the methane gas is allowed to escape into the air.
 After the completion of this process, only methane, carbon dioxide gases and water remains. These gases
are left in the environment whereas water can be recycled and used in toilets again. Hence statement 2 is
incorrect.

Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate
Fund' is/are correct? [2015-I]
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in
adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate
change.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian
Development Bank and World Bank.
 The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a fund within the framework of the UNFCCC founded as a mechanism to
redistribute money from the developed to the developing world, in order to assist the developing countries
in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
 The Fund is governed by the GCF Board. The assets of the GCF will be administered by a trustee only for the
purpose of, and in accordance with, the relevant decisions of the GCF Board. The World Bank was invited by
the COP to serve as the interim trustee of the GCF, subject to a review three years after operation of the
Fund.
 The Green Climate Fund was designated as an operating entity of the financial mechanism of the UNFCCC, in
accordance with Article 11 of the Convention.
 Arrangements will be concluded between the Conference of the Parties (COP) and the Fund to ensure that it
is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
 The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and
that receives the guidance of the COP.
 The GCF is based in the new Songdo district of Incheon, South Korea.

What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
[2015-I]
(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable
Development
(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
(c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on
Climate Change
(d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the
Convention on Biological Diversity
 The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio Summit
or Earth Summit. It was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June 1992. In
2012, the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development was also held in Rio, and is also
commonly called Rio+20 or Rio Earth Summit 2012.
 The objective of the Rio+20 -
 This conference aimed to bring together the governments, international institutions and major (NGO)
groups to agree on a range of smart measures for
 Poverty reduction
 Clean energy
 Sustainable development.
 Sustainable Development includes economic development, social development, and environmental
protection.

Which one of the following is associated with the issue of
control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting
substances? [2015-I]
(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Nagoya Protocol
 The Montreal Protocol is an international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the
production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
 It is a protocol to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
 It was agreed on 16th September 1987 and entered into force on 1st January 1989.
 Bretton Woods conference relates to the IMF and the World Bank.
 Kyoto Protocol is about cutting emissions of greenhouse gases.
 Nagoya protocol is about benefit-sharing from the gains by genetic resources.
 Biodiversity
Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of
India? [2015-I]
(a) Saltwater crocodile
(b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin
(d) Gharial
 The Gangetic dolphins have been declared as the National Aquatic Animal of India .River Dolphin is the
National Aquatic Animal of India. The Ministry of Environment and Forests notified the Ganges River Dolphin
as the National Aquatic Animal on 18th May 2010. This mammal is also said to represent the purity of the
holy Ganga as it can only survive in pure and fresh water.
 Scientific name: Platanista gangetica.
 It is one of the five river dolphins found in the world.
 They are locally known as Susu, because of the noise they make while breathing.
 This species inhabits parts of the Ganges, Meghna, and Brahmaputra rivers in India, Nepal, Bhutan, and
Bangladesh, and the Karnaphuli River in Bangladesh.
 Gangetic dolphin is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in Schedule I of
the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
 They are listed as Endangered on IUCN red list. The species is listed under Appendix I of CITES.
 The main reasons for the decline in the population of the species are poaching and habitat degradation.
 Threats: Ganges river dolphin is facing severe threats from water development projects, Pollution, hunting,
and death due to accidental catch in fishing gear.
 Species Conservation Project- to conserve these endangered dolphins by Wildlife Institute of India.
(“Development of conservation action plan for Dolphins” in 2016.
 It has a fairly thick body with light grey-brown skin often with a hue of pink, a long pointed snout, and visible
teeth in both the upper and lower jaws.
 This mammal has a forehead that rises steeply and has very small eyes.
 Their eyes lack a lens and therefore function solely as a means of detecting the direction of light.
 They tend to swim with one fin trailing along the substrate while rooting around with their beak to catch
shrimp and fish.
 The fins are large and the dorsal fin is triangular and undeveloped.
 River Dolphins are solitary creatures and females tend to be larger than males.
 Biodiversity / Flora & fauna

With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in India, which
of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
 The dugong is a medium-sized marine mammal. Dugong is listed under schedule 1 of India Wildlife
Protection Act, 1972. In 2008, a MoU was signed between the Ministry of Environment and Forests and the
Government of India, in order to conserve dugongs. In fact the highest level of legal protection is accorded
to dugongs in India.
 Dugong, Dugong dugon also called ‘Sea Cow’ is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia and it is
the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea including in India.
 Dugongs are protected in India and occur in the Gulf of Mannar, PalkBay, Gulf of Kutch and Andaman and
Nicobar islands.
 Once abundant in Indian waters, the Dugong population has now reduced to about 200 individuals and is
believed to be continuously declining in its number and range.
 Dugong conservation is nothing but coastal conservation being a flagship species in its range. In order to
conserve and manage the declining populations of dugong in India, the Ministry of Environment, Forests and
Climate Change under the Government of India constituted a ‘Task Force for Conservation of Dugongs’ to
look into the entire gamut of issues related to the conservation of dugongs and implementation of the
‘UNEP/CMS Dugong MoU’ in India and also to facilitate the country to act as the leading nation in the South
Asia Sub-region with respect to dugong conservation.
 The Task Force has analyzed the entire spectrum of issues linked to dugong and their habitat conservation in
India and herewith recommends the following goals and objectives for Conservation and Management Plan
for Dugongs (Dugong dugon) and their habitats in India.
 It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Vulnerable in IUCN Red
List

With reference to the International Union for Conservation
of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention
on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are
correct? [2015-I]
1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is
an international agreement between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world
to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined
it, but this Convention does not take the place of
national laws.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 IUCN is not an organ of UN. It has observer and consultative status at the United Nations.
 International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
 IUCN is a network of environmental organizations founded as the International Union for the
Protection of Nature in October 1948 in Fontainebleau, France.
 It promotes nature conservation and the ecologically sustainable use of natural resources.
 It changed its name to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
(IUCN) in 1956.
 IUCN is composed of both government and civil society organizations which harness the experience,
resources.
 Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland.
 The IUCN maintains the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, which was established in 1964
 IUCN also played a fundamental role in the creation of key international conventions, including the
Ramsar Convention on Wetlands (1971), the World Heritage Convention (1972), the Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species, (1974), and the Convention on Biological Diversity (1992),
UNFCCC, etc.
 Caring for the Earth was published by the three organizations in the run-up to the 1992 Earth Summit
 The IUCN was granted official observer status at the United Nations General Assembly in 1999.
 The IUCN’s activities are organized into several theme-based programs ranging from business and
biodiversity to forest preservation to water and wetlands conservation, climate change, conservation,
and poverty reduction, etc.
 The IUCN’s funding comes from several governments, agencies, foundations, member organizations,
and corporations.
 Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)
 CITES is an international agreement adopted in March 1973 to regulate worldwide commercial trade
in wild animal and plant species to ensure that international trade does not threaten the survival of
any species.
 Although CITES is legally binding on state parties to the convention but does not take the place of
national laws, rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its
own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level to implement its
goals.
 CITES classifies plants and animals according to three categories, or appendices, based on how threatened
they are.
 Appendix I lists endangered species that are at risk of extinction. It also prohibits outright the
commercial trade of these plants and animals; however, some may be transported internationally in
extraordinary situations for scientific or educational reasons.
 Appendix II species are those that are not threatened with extinction but that might suffer a serious
decline in number if a trade is not restricted; their trade is regulated by permit.
 Appendix III species are protected in at least one country that is a CITES member and that has
petitioned others for help in controlling international trade in that species.
 In addition to plants and animals and their parts, the agreement also restricts trade in items made
from such plants and animals, such as clothing, food, medicine, and souvenirs.
 Protected area
Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a
swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich
biodiversity? [2015-I]
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park
 The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park located in Manipur. It is 40 km in area and the only
floating park in the world which is located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
 Keibul Lamjao National Park is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich
biodiversity.
 Keibul Lamjao National Park
 It is the only floating park in the world located in the Bishnupur district of the North Eastern state of
Manipur.
 It is an integral part of Loktak Lake (140 km2), the largest natural freshwater lake in the north-eastern
region with a unique ecosystem called ‘Phumdi’ (a Manipuri word meaning "floating mats of soil and
vegetation"); south western portion of Loktak Lake forms the Keibul Lamjao National Park which is a
continuous mass of Phumdi occupying an area of 40 km2.
 The lake is rich in biodiversity and has been designated as a wetland of International Importance
under RAMSAR Convention in 1990 and was also listed under the Montreux Record in 1993, "a record
of Ramsar sites where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to
occur" and is therefore also governed by the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
 Phumdi are floating swampy islands made of thick mat of humus and dead vegetation, 1/5 of which is
above water and the remaining 4/5 are below the surface of water.
 Phumdi are a heterogeneous mass of soil, vegetation and organic matter at various stages of
decomposition. It provides a magnificent vista of green floating islands all over the lake.
 A Phumdi may be initiated with a small mass of undecomposed organic matter or dense growth of
water hyacinth that accumulates some suspended silt and is gradually colonised by grasses and other
herbaceous plants. The high proportion of vegetable matter in the Phumdi gives it a specific gravity
and high buoyancy to keep it afloat. The maximum thickness of a Phumdi is 8 ft. but its thickness
varies in time and space depending on the conditions during its formative stage. The core of Phumdi is
composed of detritus material, which is black in colour and is highly spongy.
 Bhitarkanika National Park
 Bhitarkanika National Park is a 145 km2 (56 sq mi) large national park in northeast Kendrapara district
in Odisha in eastern India. It was designated on 16 September 1998 and obtained the status of a
Ramsar site on 19 August 2002.
 The area is also been designated as second Ramsar site of the State after the Chilika Lake.
 It is surrounded by Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, which spread over 672 km2 (259 sq mi).
Gahirmatha Beach and Marine Sanctuary are to the east, separating swamp region and mangroves
from the Bay of Bengal.
 The national park and wildlife sanctuary is inundated by the rivers Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra,
Pathsala. It hosts many mangrove species, and is the second largest mangrove ecosystem in India.
 The national park is home to Saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), Indian python, king cobra,
black ibis, darters and many other species of flora and fauna.
 Keoladeo Ghana National Park
 Keoladeo National Park or Keoladeo Ghana National Park formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird
Sanctuary in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India is a famous avifauna sanctuary that hosts thousands of birds,
especially during the winter season. Over 230 species of birds are known to be resident. It is also a
major tourist centre with scores of ornithologists arriving here in the hibernal season. It was declared
a protected sanctuary in 1971.
 It is also a World Heritage Site. In an area characterized by sparse vegetation, the park is the only spot
which has dense vegetation and trees. The principal vegetation types are tropical dry deciduous
forests intermixed with dry grasslands.
 Where the forest has degraded, the greater part of the area is covered with shrubs and medium-sized
trees. The park is a freshwater swamp and is flooded during the monsoon. The rest of the area
remains dry.
 Sultanpur National Park
 National Park is situated in Gurgaon district of Haryana on Gurgaon-Farrukh Nagar road. Distance of
the park is around 50 Km from Delhi & 15km from Gurgaon.
 For over one hundred year now, Sultanpur Jheel has been attracting birds. But it was only in 1969, at
the Conference of the International Union of Conservation of nature and Natural resources (IUCN) in
New Delhi, that the potential of this wetland was highlighted in official quarters. Peter Jackson of the
IUCN, together with the late Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi were instrumental in this regard and
consequently on April 2, 1971, the Jheel (an area of 1.21 sq. Km.) was accorded Sanctuary status
under section 8 of the Punjab Wildlife Preservation Act of 1959. The status of the park was upgraded
to National Park under Section 35 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 on July 5th, 1991.
Simultaneously the area was increased to 1.42 sq. Km. The National Park has been carved out of the
land of Sadhrana, Chandu, Sultanpur and Saidpur villages.
 Ecology
Which one of the following is the best description of the
term 'ecosystem'? [2015-I]
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one
another.
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living
organisms.
(c) A community of organisms together with the
environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
 An ecosystem includes all of the living things (plants, animals and organisms) in a given area, interacting
with each other, and also with their non-living environments (weather, earth, sun, soil, climate,
atmosphere).

 Ecosystem
In India, in which one of the following types of forests is
teak a dominant tree species? [2015-I]
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(b) Tropical rain forest
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands
 The tropical moist deciduous forests are found in Sahyadris, the north-eastern parts of the peninsula and
along the foothills of the Himalayas. Teak and sal are found in these forests.
 Tropical moist deciduous forests are distributed in states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Odisha and on
the eastern slopes of Western Ghats.
 Characteristics of tropical deciduous forests;
 They are also called Monsoon Forests.
 Rainfall is in the range of 100-200 cms.
 The trees shed their leaves during the spring season.
 Teak is the most dominant species of this forest while Bamboos, Sal, Shisham, sandalwood, Kusum,
Arjun, mulberry are other commercially important species.
 Teak:
 Teak is one of the most important timber trees of India and South-east Asia.
 The most important teak forests in India are in Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu,
Kerala, Andhra Pradesh.

With reference to an organization known as 'Birdlife
International', which of the following statements is/are
correct? [2015-I]
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of 'biodiversity hotspots' originated from
this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as 'Important
Bird and Biodiversity Areas'.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that strives to conserve birds,
their habitats and global biodiversity. It is working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural
resources. It is the World's largest partnership of conservation organisations, with over 120 partner
organizations. An Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) is an area recognized as being globally
important habitat for the conservation of bird populations. The program was developed and sites are
identified by BirdLife International.
 BirdLife International is a global partnership of conservation organizations (NGOs) that strives to conserve
birds, their habitats, and global biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability in the use of natural
resources.
 The concept of biodiversity hotspots was developed by Norman Myers in 1988.
 The IBA Programme of BirdLife International aims to identify, monitor, and protect a global network of IBAs
for the conservation of the world's birds and another biodiversity.
 As of 2009, nearly 11,000 sites in some 200 countries and territories have been identified as Important Bird
Areas.
 BirdLife Partnership works collectively to identify, document, and protect the places of the greatest
significance for the conservation of Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs).

With reference to 'Forest Carbon Partnership Facility', which
of the following statements is/ are correct? [2015-I]
1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses,
civil society and indigenous peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual
scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry
research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation
technologies for sustainable forest management.
3. It assists the countries in their 'REDD+ (Reducing
Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)'
efforts by providing them with financial and technical
assistance.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and
Indigenous Peoples focused on reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation, forest carbon
stock conservation, the sustainable management of forests, and the enhancement of forest carbon stocks in
developing countries (activities commonly referred to as REDD+).
 It came into force in June 2008.
 It complements REDD+ by creating awareness of its readiness and future systems.
 Objectives of the forest carbon partnership facilities are:
 To assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing them with essential financial and technical
assistance resulting in capacity building.
 To pilot a performance-based payment system ensuring equitable benefit sharing.
 Ways to sustain or enhance the livelihood of local communities and to conserve biodiversity.
 To disseminate knowledge gained in the development of the facility and the implementation of
readiness preparation proposals.

'BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest
Landscapes' is managed by the [2015-I]
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) World Bank
 Housed within the Carbon Finance Unit of the World Bank, the BioCarbon Fund is a public-private sector
initiative mobilizing finance to help for development of projects that sequester or conserve carbon in forest
and agroecosystems. It was created in 2004.
 The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund,
supported by donor governments and managed by the World Bank.
 It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and
forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from sustainable agriculture, as well as
smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
World Bank
 The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the
governments of poorer countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
 It comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, and the
International Development Association.
 It is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.
Asian Development Bank
 The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established on 19 December 1966.
 It is headquartered in Mandaluyong, Manila, Philippines.
 It aims to promote social and economic development in Asia.
 ADB is committed to achieving a prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable Asia and the Pacific
while sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme poverty.
International Monetary Fund
 The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 189 member countries.
 It was created in 1945.
 The IMF's primary purpose is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system.
 It is headquartered in Washington, D.C., United States.
United Nations Environment Programme
 The United Nations Environment Programme is responsible for coordinating the UN's environmental
activities and assisting developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and
practices.
 It is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
 Protected area
Which one of the following National Parks has a climate
that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
[2015-I]
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National Park
 Namdapha National Park is located in Arunachal Pradesh. The climate of this area varies from tropical to
subtropical, temperate and arctic. It is tropical and subtropical in southern regions and arctic type in
northern part of the park.
Namdapha National Park
 The Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot
 It is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India.
 The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarp forests, comprising the northwestern parts of the
ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rainforests.
 The habitat changes with increasing altitude from tropical moist forests to Montane forests, temperate
forests and at the higher elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow.
Khangchendzonga National Park
 Khangchendzonga and Nandadevi National park do not have tropical vegetation.
 Khangchendzonga National Park is also known as Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve is a National Park
and a Biosphere reserve located in Sikkim.
 It was inscribed to the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list in July 2016.
Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
 Nanda Devi National Park is situated in three districts of Uttarakhand (Chamoli in Garhwal, Pithoragarh
in Kumaon and Bageshwar).
 Nanda Devi National Park together with Valley of Flowers is encompassed in the Nanda Devi Biosphere
Reserve.
 This reserve has been part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves since 2004.
Neora Valley National Park
 Neora Valley National Park is situated in the Kalimpong district, West Bengal, India and was established
in 1986.
 It spreads over an area of 88 km² and is one of the richest biological zones in entire Eastern India.
 It is the land of the elegant red panda in the pristine undisturbed natural habitat with rugged
inaccessible hilly terrain and rich diverse flora and fauna making this park an important wilderness
zone.

If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see
which of the following plants naturally growing there?
[2014 - I]
1. Oak 2. Rhododendron 3. Sandalwood
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Oak and Rhododendron are found in Himalayan zone. While sandalwood is found in South India.
 Oak and Rhododendron are characteristic plants of the Temperate forest.
 Temperate forests are mainly found in the middle altitudes of the Himalayas.
 Sandalwoods are found in tropical deciduous forests or monsoon forests which are found in western ghats,
Deccan plateau, northern plains, and along the foothills of the Himalayas but the presence is ‘negligible’
and/or confined only to Northeastern states.
Additional Information
 The three parallel ranges of the Himalayas longitudinal extent are:
o Himadri (Great or Inner Himalayas):
 The northernmost range is called the Himadri and extends for about 2400 km.
 Mt. Everest and Mt. Kanchenjunga are a part of these ranges.
o Himachal (Lesser Himalayas):
 It lies to the south of Himadri.
 Some famous ranges are the Pir Panjal range, Dhaula Dhar, and Mahabharat ranges.
 It has some famous valleys like Kullu, Kangra, and Kashmir.
o Shivalik (Outer Himalayas):
 This is the outermost range of the Himalayas.
 Shivaliks are known by different names in different areas such as Dafla, Miri, Abor, and Mishmi
Hills in Arunachal Pradesh.

In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a
vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this
has assumed significance. Which one of the following
statements is correct in this context? [2014-I]
(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture
of biodegradable plastics
(b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction
of shale gas
(c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of
antihistamines
(d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel
 The seeds of cluster bean is the source of shale gas. The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of
shale gas. Generally the cluster bean is used as vegetable or animal feed.
 Cluster bean (Guar) is native to India and is widely grown in dry, warm, and arid regions.
 It is a source of Guar gum.
 Guar gum is derived from guar seeds, a legume crop that grows in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan, Gujarat
and Haryana.
 It is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed.
 The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas.
 Guar gum is used as a stabilizing, thickening and suspending agent in drilling fluids.
 India is the world's largest producer of guar.
 Tribes
Every year, a monthlong ecologically important campaign/
festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes
plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following
are such communities/tribes? [2014 - I]
(a) Bhutia and Lepcha (b) Gond and Korku
(c) Irula and Toda (d) Sahariya and Agariya
 The festival starts with the green march celebrating the beginning of the rains and new sowing season
during which planting of sapling of fruit bearing trees is done on mass scale.
 Every monsoon, the Gond and Korku tribes of Madhya Pradesh's Betul and Harda districts celebrate Hari
Jiroti.
o It is a month-long festival of greenery, during which the tribals plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees.
 Bhutia and Lepcha are the indigenous tribes of Sikkim.
 Irula and Toda are the tribals of Niligir hills in Tamil Nadu.
 Sahariya and Agariya are the tribals mostly lived in the state of Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the following are some important pollutants
released by steel industry in India?
1. Oxides of sulphur 2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 In steel furnace coke reacts with iron to release pollutants like Oxides of sulphur, Oxides of nitrogen, Carbon
monoxide and Carbon dioxide.
 The main pollutants are particulate matter, oxides of sulphur and nitrogen, and carbon monoxide along
with high emissions of carbon dioxide.
 Coke (mostly carbon), reacts with the blast air to produce carbon monoxide, which, in turn, reacts with
the iron oxide to produce carbon dioxide and metallic iron.
 National Steel Policy 2017
o The National Steel Policy which was released in 2017 aims to attain a steel production capacity in
India of 300 MT by 2030.
o It has a long-term vision to enhance domestic consumption, produce high-quality steel and make the
sector globally competitive.
o The policy’s mission is to create an environment that enables:
Self-sufficiency in the production of steel by giving policy
support and guidance to MSME producers of steel, the private sector, central public sector
enterprises and boost sufficient capacity additions.
Development of internationally competitive manufacturing capabilities.
Increase in the domestic demand for steel.
Cost-efficient production and domestic availability of iron ore, coking coal and natural gas.
Investment in overseas asset acquisitions of raw materials.
 Ecology
Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological
succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic
association of
(a) algae and bacteria
(b) algae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses
 In organisms called lichens, a chlorophy II-containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live together.
Fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the alga and, in return, the alga provides food which it
prepares by photosynthesis.
 Lichen are plant-like organisms that consist of a symbiotic association of algae or cyano-bacteria and fungi.
 Fungi provide shelter , water and minerals to the algae and in return the algae provides food.
What are algae
 Algae are chlorophyll-bearing, simple, thalloid, aurotrophic and largely aquatic plants.
 They occur in moist stones, soils, and wood or in association with fungi and animals.
What are Fungi
 Fungi is a Eukaryotic organism that includes micro-organism such as yeast , moulds and mashrooms.
Bacteria
 Bacteria are microscopic, single-celled organisms that exist in their millions, in every environment.
 They constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms
 Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth.
Mosses
 Mosses are a phylum of non-vascular plants.
 They produce spores for reproduction instead of seeds and don't grow flower, wood or true roots.

The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature
should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the
global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the preindustrial
level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on
the world? [2014 - I]
1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon
source.
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere
in the world.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Terrestrial biosphere
 It has an important role in regulating atmospheric composition and climate.
 It can release or absorb the greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide
(N2O).
 It regulates fluxes of energy, water and aerosols between the earth surface and atmosphere.
 Carbon is exchanged most quickly with the atmosphere, although small amounts of carbon leave the
terrestrial biosphere and enter the oceans as dissolved organic carbon.
 If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, the terrestrial biosphere
tends toward a net carbon source. Taiga and temperate forests act as an important carbon sink; these
forests would turn into a carbon source.
 Corals
 These are invertebrate animals belonging to a large group of colourful and fascinating animals called
Cnidaria.
 Coral reefs are extremely diverse marine ecosystems hosting over 4,000 species of fish, massive
numbers of cnidarians, molluscs, crustaceans, and many other animals.
 As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events occur. If the temperature keeps on rising,
widespread coral mortality will occur.
 The temperate regions can still survive if the temperature increases. The temperate zones are where the
widest seasonal changes occur. The vegetation can survive there.
 The weather should be warm and moist during the early stage of growth of cereals. Hence, the cultivation
of cereals would still be possible if the temperature rises.
 Protected area
The most important strategy for the conservation of
biodiversity together with traditional human life is the
establishment of
(a) biosphere reserves
(b) botanical gardens
(c) national parks
(d) wildlife sanctuaries
 Biosphere reserves are established under UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. Biosphere
Reserves Combine Protected areas with zones where sustainable development is nurtured by native
dwellers.
 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the
establishment of biosphere reserves.
o Biosphere Reserves
These reserves are established to protect larger areas of natural habitat than a typical national
park or animal sanctuary.
The site must contain a protected and minimally disturbed core area of value of nature
conservation.
Sustainable development of reserves is based on local community efforts.
It includes terrestrial, marine and coastal ecosystems.
There are 18 biosphere reserves in India.
 Botanical gardens
o It is a place where ferns, conifers and flowering plants are grown and displayed for the purposes of
research and education.
 National Park
o This is an area set aside by a national government to preserve the natural environment.
o This area is maintained for the purpose of protecting & propagating or developing wildlife therein or
its environment.
o There are 101 existing national parks in India covering an area of 1.23% of the geographical area of
the country.
 Wildlife sanctuaries
o This is an area where animal habitats and their surroundings are protected from any sort of
disturbance. The capturing, killing and poaching of animals is strictly prohibited in these regions.
o There are 553 existing wildlife sanctuaries in India covering 3.64 % of the geographical area in India.
 Climate Change
In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which
of the following? [2014 - I]
1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Terrace cultivation helps in less erosion of soil.
 Soil erosion is the removal of the topmost fertile layer of the soil through wind or water.
 Causes of Soil Erosion:
o Over-grazing, Deforestation, Action of wind, water, glacier, etc.
o Topography i.e steep slopes & heavy rainfall;
o Faulty methods of agriculture like over-irrigation, shifting agriculture, etc;
o Anthropogenic factors like mining, industrial activities, etc.
 Terrace farming, contour ploughing, etc are the measures to control soil erosion.

Which of the following have coral reefs? [2014 - I]
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Coral reefs are diverse underwater ecosystems held together by calcium carbonate structures secreted by
corals. Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Mannar have coral reefs. However Sunderbans do
not have coral reef.
 Most of the world's coral reefs are located within the tropical zone between 30º N and 30º S latitude.
 Conditions for the growth of Coral Reefs:
o It required a preferred temperature range of approximately 22º to 30º C.
o For the growth of coral, the depth of the water should not exceed 200m.
o Corals can live only in saline waters, and the average salinity should be between 27 to 40% for their
proper growth.
 More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in territories of Australia, Indonesia, and the
Philippines.
 The coral reefs are most commonly grown in the Pacific and the Indian Ocean, due to their shallow, warm,
and clean water.
 Coral reefs in India are found in Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Gulf of Kutch, northwest coast in Gujarat
state, Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea in the southwest of Kerala coast and Gulf of Mannar in the southeast
in Tamilnadu, Palk bay in southeast India.
 The Sundarbans in the Bay of Bengal is famous for its unique mangrove forests.
 Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
o The Andaman and Nicobars Islands are separated by the Ten Degree Channel.
o Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of tectonic origin and are an elevated portion of submerged
mountains.
o Port Blair is the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
 Act / Law/ Bodies/ Org

Consider the following statements :
1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under
the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory
body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by
the Prime Minister.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Animal Welfare Board of India:
 Animal welfare Board of India is a statutory body established under the prevention of cruelty to
animals act 1960 in 1962.
 It's an advisory body of the Government of India on animal welfare laws. Hence statement 1 is
incorrect.
 It consists of 28 members who serve for a term of 3 years.
 The nodal ministry of the board is the Ministry of Environment and Forest.
 Its headquarters is in Ballabgarh in the Faridabad district of Haryana.
National Tiger conservation authority
 National Tiger conservation authority is a statutory body under the ministry of environment forest and
climate change established in 2005.
 It was constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972.
National Ganga River Basin Authority
 The national Ganga river basin authority was replaced by the National Ganga Council under River
Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management) Authorities Order, 2016.
 The National Ganga Council is chaired by the Prime Minister and the Union Minister for JalShakti is its
vice-chairperson.
 It is responsible for the implementation of the national mission for Clean Ganga.
 Protected area
With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the
following statements is/are correct? [2014 - I]
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared
under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones
is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those
zones except agriculture.
 Eco-sensitive zones are ecological important area under environment protection Act 1986 around national
parks and wildlife sanctuaries prohibiting resting certain human activities in the zone.
 Eco-sensitive zones are ecologically Fragile Areas are areas within 10 km around protected areas to act as
a buffer.
 They are notified under section 3 of the Environment Protection Act 1986 by the Ministry of Environment
and Forest.
 Certain activities are either banned or regulated to protect the environment.
 Agriculture, Horticulture practices by local communities, organic farming, rainwater harvesting, scientific
research, tourism, etc. are permitted in the Eco-sensitive zones. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.
 They act as a shock absorber for the protected areas and are a transition zone from high protection areas
to lesser protection areas.
 They help in In-situ conservation.
 They minimize forest depletion and man-animal conflict.
 They minimize the impact of urbanization and developmental activities in protected areas.

If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some
birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects
disturbed by their movement through grasses. [2014 - I]
Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
 Common Myna are birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement
through grasses. The common myna is readily identified by the brown body, black hooded head and the
bare yellow patch behind the eye.
 Common Myna is an opportunistic feeder on inspects, disturbed by grazing cattle.
 It is an omnivorous open woodland bird with a strong territorial instinct.
 It has adapted extremely well to urban environments.
 Painted Stork is a fish-eating bird.
o Painted Stork does not feed on insects.
 Black-necked Crane is found in the Trans-Himalayan region.
o They are found around Arunachal Pradesh and Ladakh.
o So it is unlikely to find it while walking through the “countryside” in all states and places. Hence Code
3 is Not Correct.

Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the
carbon cycle on the planet Earth? [2014 - I]
1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic matter
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Volcanic action, Respiration and decay of organic matter adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the
planet Earth. However, photosynthesis uses Carbon dioxide to produce food.
 The Process of photosynthesis takes up Carbon dioxide and release oxygen. Hence photosynthesis does
not add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle.
 Volcanic action leads to the release of Carbon dioxide.
 Respiration is the movement of oxygen from the outside environment to the cells within tissues and the
release of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.
 The process of decomposition releases Carbon dioxide.

Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for
the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?
[2014 - I]
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural
chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 The construction of dams and barrages on rivers, getting trapped in fishing nets accidently and use of
synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in cropfields near the rivers are the reasons for the
decline in the population of Ganges river Dolphins.
 The increase in the population of the crocodile in the river is nothing to do with the decline in the Ganges
River Dolphins.
 It is threatened primarily by the damming of rivers for irrigation and electricity generation, which degrades
the habitat, and isolates the populations; preventing seasonal migration.
 The Ganges river dolphin has dwindled abysmally to less than 2000 during the last century owing to direct
killing, habitat fragmentation by dams and barrages, and indiscriminate fishing.
 The Gangetic river dolphin is India's national aquatic animal and is popularly known as ‘Susu’. The
declaration was made in 2009 in the National Ganga River Basin Authority’s (NGRBA) first meeting.
 National Dolphin Day is celebrated each year on April 14th.

With reference to a conservation organization called
“Wetlands International’, which of the following statements
is/ are correct? [2014 - I]
1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by
the countries which are signatories to Ramsar
Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize
knowledge, and use the practical experience to
advocate for better policies.
 This organization is in partnership but not formed by Ramsar convention. The organization was formed in
1954 and Ramsar convention was signed in 1971. “Wetlands International”, It works at the field level to
develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.
 Wetlands international was formed in 1954.
 The Ramsar Convention was signed in 1971.
 As it was formed way before the Ramsar Convention.
 Wetland International is an NGO.
 It works to sustain and restore wetlands and their resources for people and biodiversity.
 Wetlands International's work is in research, advocacy, and engagement with government, corporate and
international policy forums and conferences.
 Protected area
Consider the following pairs : [2014 - I]
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Dampa Tiger Reserve, the largest wildlife sanctuary in Mizoram. Recently it was in news as it was a part of
the studied region for clouded leopards (Neofelis nebulosa). Saramati peak is in Nagaland. It is located near
Tuensang town with a height of 3,826 m. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is famous wildlife reserve in Tripura. It is
home to animals like elephants, sambar, buffalo, yapping deer, serow, wild goat, etc.

With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility'’, which of
the following statements is/are correct? [2014 - I]
(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on
Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change’
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental
issues at global level
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer
of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries
with specific aim to protect their environment
(d) Both (a) and (b)
 It is an independent financial organization which works with countries on environmental issues.
 The Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help
tackle environmental problems.
 It is a private equity fund focused on seeking long term financial returns by investments in clean energy
under climate change.
 It does not directly undertake any scientific research on environmental issues.
 It is a program under the World Bank.
 Act / Law/ Bodies/ Org

With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS),
consider the following statements : [2014 - I]
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry
of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based
research, education and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for
the general public.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 The Bombay Natural History Society is one of the largest non-governmental organizations in India engaged
in conservation and biodiversity research. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research,
education and public awareness. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
 BNHS Vision: Premier independent scientific organization with a broad-based constituency, excelling in the
conservation of threatened species and habitats.
 BNHS also organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

If a wetland of international importance is brought under
the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? [2014 - I]
(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are
occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a
result of human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should
enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five
kilometres from the edge of the wetland
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural
practices and traditions of certain communities living
in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein
should not be destroyed
(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’.
 The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance
where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of
technological developments, pollution or other human interference.
 It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
 The main objective of this mechanism is to provide assistance to developed and developing countries alike
in solving the problems or threats that make inclusion in the Montreux Record necessary.
 Currently, two wetlands of India are in Montreux record: Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Loktak
Lake (Manipur).
 Chilika Lake (Odisha) was placed in the record but was later removed from it.
 Ecology
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a
food chain? [2014 - I]
(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
(b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
(c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
(d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
 Diatoms are autotrophs which prepare their own food. Crustaceans are herbivorous animals which feed on
diatoms. Herrings are carnivorous animals which feed on Crustaceans. This completes the food chain.
Diatoms are autotrophs, prepare their own food. Crustaceans eats diatoms. Crustaceans are members of
zooplankons and are eaten by Herring fish when small.
 The food chain starts with a producer.
 Phytoplankton are the primary producers in the oceans. They include-
 Diatoms (unicellular algae)
 Cyanobacteria (Bluegreen algae)
 Coccolithophores (unicellular, eukaryotic protist)
 Crustaceans form a very large group of arthropods which include crabs, lobsters, crayfish, shrimp, krill, and
barnacles.
 Herrings are fish, and they eat crustaceans.

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’:
[2014 - I]
1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off
the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the
climate change and the need to save the planet.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Earth Hour is a worldwide movement for the planet organized by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF).
The event is held worldwide annually encouraging individuals, communities, households and businesses to
turn off their non-essential lights for one hour, from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m. to raise the awareness about the
climate change and the need to save the planet.
 Earth Hour was started as a lights out event in Sydney, Australia in 2007.
 It is held every year on the last Saturday of March.

Consider the following international agreements : [2014 - I]
1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources
for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat
Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention
Which of the above has/have a bearing on the biodiversity?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture aims at guaranteeing food
security through the conservation, exchange and sustainable use of the world’s plant genetic resources for
food and agriculture. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification is a Convention to combat
desertification and mitigate the effects of drought. The World Heritage Convention is concerned with the
protection of the world cultural and natural heritage.All three of them have a bearing on the biodiversity.
 The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture-
 It was adopted by the 31st session of the Conference of the Food and Agriculture Organization
(FAO) of the United Nations on 3rd November 2001.
 It is also known as the Seed Treaty.
 India is a signatory to the treaty.
 The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification-
 It is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to
sustainable land management.
 The convention was drafted and opened for signing in 1994. It became effective in 1996 after
receiving 50 ratifications.
 Aim: Its 197 Parties aim, through partnerships, to implement the Convention and achieve the
Sustainable Development Goals.
 The World Heritage Convention-
 Created in 1972, the primary mission of the Convention is to identify and protect the world's natural
and cultural heritage considered to be of outstanding universal value.
 It is a Convention under the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(UNESCO).
 Ecology
With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of
the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer
organism/organisms? [2013 - I]
1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Bacteria and Fungi both are known as decomposer organisms. Bacteria are important decomposers; they
can break down any kind of organic matters. Fungi are primary decomposers, they not only decompose the
surface organisms but they can also penetrate deep into the organic matters.
Grazing food chain
 The consumers which start the food chain, utilizing the plant or plant part as their food, constitute the
grazing food chain.
 For example, in a terrestrial ecosystem, the grass is eaten by a caterpillar, which is eaten by a lizard, and the
lizard is eaten by a snake.
 In the Aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton (primary producers) are eaten by zooplanktons which are eaten by
fishes and fishes
Detritus food chain
 This type of food chain starts from the organic matter of dead and decaying animals and plant bodies from
the grazing food chain.
 Dead organic matter or detritus feeding organisms are called detrivores or decomposers.
 The detrivores are eaten by predators.
 In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.
 As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food
chain than through the grazing food chain.
 Biodiversity
Consider the following fauna of India: [2013 - I]
1. Gharial
2. Leatherback turtle
3. Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
 Gharial is critically endangered according to IUCN. Overhunting for skin and trophies, habitat loss due to
construction of dams and barrages has been the reason for their decline. Leather back turtles are
endangered due to human carelessness. Swamp deer occupies a place in the list of the endangered species
of the world. Deforestation, draining of swamps and marshes for farming has led to the destruction of their
natural habitat.
 Gharial and Leatherback Turtle have been listed in IUCN Critically Endangered species.
 Swamp Deer is categorized as Vulnerable species by IUCN.
Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) :
The gharial is a fish-eating crocodile found in the fresh waters of the northern part of the Indian sub-
continent.
IUCN status: Critically Endangered.
Habitat in India: National Chambal Sanctuary (MP), Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (UP), Jim Corbett
National Park, and Son River Sanctuary.
Presence: India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
Listed in Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Leatherback Turtle (Dermochelys Coriacea):
It is the largest turtle out of the 7 species of Turtles namely: Olive Ridley Turtle, Green Turtle, Hawksbill
Turtle, Loggerhead Turtle, and Leatherback Turtle.
All turtles nesting ground can be found in India except Loggerhead turtle.
The upper shell of these turtles is made up of leather.
Habitat in India: Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Presence: Except for the Arctic and Antarctic oceans, it is found in all oceans.
IUCN status: Critically Endangered
Listed in Schedule 1 of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Swamp Deer (Barasingha):
Swamp Deer is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
They prefer open habitat.
IUCN status: Vulnerable
Listed in Schedule 1 of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Subspecies: Eastern Swamp Deer, Western Swamp Deer, and Southern Swamp Deer.
Habitat in India: Assam (Kaziranga and Manas National Park), MP (Kanha National Park), UP (Dudhwa
National Park) , Arunachal Pradesh, Brahmaputra river, Ganga river and Jamuna river.
Presence: In Nepal and central and north India.
 International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) was set up in 1964 to conserve nature, natural
habitat and work for sustainable development.
 Headquarter: Gland, Switzerland
 President: Xinsheng Zhang.
 Ecology
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems
in the order of decreasing productivity? [2013 - I]
(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
 The percentage of energy that enters an ecosystem in the form of biomass at a particular trophic level is
termed as Productivity of the Ecosystem.
 The Productivity of an Ecosystem has the following categorization:
 Primary Productivity - It is the generation of biomass by the autotrophs (photoautotrophs +
chemoautotrophs). It is further classified as Gross Primary Productivity and Net Primary Productivity (NPP =
GPP - Energy Lost)
 Secondary Productivity - It is the biomass accumulation at the level of heterotrophs. Herbivores get their
biomass from plants and further transfer a portion of it to the next level and the chain goes on.
 Mass per unit volume per unit time is the unit of Productivity.
 The average ocean productivity is about 50 grams of carbon per square meter per year.
 The average land productivity is 160 grams of carbon per square meter per year.
 The productivity of the open ocean (ocean away from coasts) is comparable to desert production.
 Ecology
In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part
of an ecological succession because of [2013 - I]
(a) insects and fungi
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(c) water limits and fire
(d) None of the above
 The trees cannot replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of water limits and fire.
 The trees do not replace grasses as they require more water than grasses and this would lead to water
scarcity for other species.
 Also, trees are prone to catch fire and the fire spreads swiftly. Due to these reasons, trees do not replace
the grasses as a part of ecological succession.
ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION:
 When there is a change in the species structure of an ecological community over a period, it is
called ecological succession.
 The process continues until a stable community is formed, which is known as the climax community.
 As the process continues the complexity of the community keeps on increasing.
 Ecological Succession is of following two types:
1. Primary Succession - When the succession starts from an area that has not been previously occupied
is referred to as primary succession. The pioneer species here include microorganisms, lichens, and
mosses.
2. Secondary Succession - When the process of succession occurs in an area where species existed at
some point in time is referred to as secondary succession.
 Secondary Succession is relatively rapid, as the land contains the nutrients required for the survival of
species.
 Protected area
Consider the following pairs: [2013 - I]
1. Nokrek Bio-sphere Reserve : Garo Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range
3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
 Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is situated in Garo Hills in Meghalaya. Loktak Lake is in Manipur. Barail Range is in
Assam. Though Namdapha National Park and Dafla Hill both are in Arunachal Pradesh, the two are separate
entities.
NOKREK BIOSPHERE RESERVE:
 It is located in the Garo Hills district of Meghalaya.
 The biosphere reserve derives its name from the Nokrek Hill, the highest peak of the Garo Hills.
 The Nokrek National Park was added to the list of biosphere reserves by UNESCO in May 2009.
LOKTAK LAKE:
 It is a freshwater lake located in Manipur and is famous for the phumdis floating over it.
 Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating national park in the world is situated on this lake.
3.The lake is divided into three zones - northern, central, and southern zones.
NAMDAPHA NATIONAL PARK:
1.It is located in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh and finds a place between the Dapha bum
range and the Patkai range.
2. Noa Dihing River crosses the national park from east to west.
3.It houses the world's northernmost lowland evergreen rainforests, dipterocarp forests.
GARO HILLS:
1.These are part of the Garo-Khasi range and are located in Meghalaya.
2.The Garo-Khasi range is part of the Meghalaya subtropical ecoregion and is one of the wettest places in
the world.
3.Tura town located at the foothills of Tura peak is the largest town in the Garo Hills.
4. Nokrek National Park and the Balphakram National Park are also located here.
BARAIL RANGE:
1.It is a tertiary mountain range located in the Dima Hasao district of Assam, between the Brahmaputra
and Barak basins.
2.It has Meghalaya on the west and Nagaland and Manipur on the east.
DAFLA HILLS:
1.It is located in Arunachal Pradesh and is bounded by the Abor range in the east and Aka hills on the
west.
2.It is inhabited by the Dafla tribe.

Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the
drinking water in some parts of India? [2013 - I]
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Fluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
 Drinking water in some parts of India has contaminants like Arsenic, Fluoride other than many other
contaminants. The sources of Arsenic are run off from orchards. The sources of fluoride are erosion of
natural deposits, discharge from fertilizers and aluminum factories.
ARSENIC :
1.It reaches groundwater through seepage of industrial and mines discharges and fly ash ponds of thermal
power plants.
2.It is a highly toxic pollutant and its chronic exposure may cause black foot disease.
3.The other diseases which may be caused by water contaminated with arsenic are:- diarrhoea, lung and
skin cancer.
FLUORIDE:
1.Excess fluoride in drinking water may lead to several dangerous health problems like:- Knock-knee
syndrome, Fluorosis, neuromuscular disorders, gastrointestinal problems, teeth deformity, etc.
URANIUM
1.A report brought out by Duke University, the USA in association with Central Ground Water Board and
State Ground Water departments state that Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Haryana,
Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu,
Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal and Jammu & Kashmir have localised occurrence of Uranium
concentration.
Some other elements acting as water pollutant are:
1. Mercury - causes Minamata disease
2. Cadmium - causes Itai-Itai disease, nephritis, nephrosis
3. Chromium - causes lung cancer in humans and reduces photosynthetic activities in plants
4. Copper - causes vomiting, diarrhoea, stomach cramps, liver damage, kidney disease, etc.
5. Zinc - causes fever, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, stomach cramps, etc.
6. Lead - anaemia, mental retardation, partial paralysis, loss of hearing, etc.

Consider the following: [2013 - I]
1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Star tortoise is found in India in the dry and scrub forests. Pygmy Hog is an endangered species found in
Assam. Only 150 animals are left. Monitor Lizard is found in India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan. Spider Monkey is
the inhabitant of tropical forests of Central and South America.
STAR TORTOISE:
1.The scientific name of the Indian Star Tortoise is Geochelone elegans and is a reptile.
2.It comes under the list of endangered species, the main cause being the pet trade activity.
3.In the year 2019, the species found a place in the CITES Appendix I, the list that contains names of the
species that are under the threat of getting extinct.
4.The species is found in India, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
MONITOR LIZARD:
1.The scientific name of Bengal Monitor or Common Indian Monitor is Varanus bengalensis.
2.The reptile is found in Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Burma, India, Iran, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
3.The Bengal Monitor Lizard is a part of CITES Appendix I and Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act,
1972.
4.The species is hunted for medicinal purposes and also for consumption.
PYGMY HOG:
1.The scientific name of Pygmy Hog is Porcula salvania and is a mammal.
2.It is listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List and is also listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972.
3.Since it is the sole member of its genus, its conservation becomes even more important and is thus
protected in the Manas National Park of Assam.
SPIDER MONKEY:
1.The primate belongs to the genus Ateles and is found in the tropical forests of Central and South
America.
2.The genus Ateles includes seven species out of which one is vulnerable, five are endangered and one
(brown spider monkey) is critically endangered as per the IUCN Red List.
 Ecology
Which one of the following terms describes not only the
physical space occupied by an organism, but also its
functional role in the community of organisms? [2013 - I]
(a) Ecotone
(b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat
(d) Home range
 Ecological Niche is a term that describes the way of life of a species. Each species is thought to have a
separate unique niche. The ecological niche describes how an organism or population responds to the
distribution of resources and competitors. A niche is the sum of the habitat requirements that allow a
species to persist and produce offspring.
 Ecological Niche
o A niche refers to the unique functional role and position of a species in its habitat or ecosystem.
o The functional characteristics of a species in its habitat are referred to as “niche” in that common
habitat.
o In nature, many species occupy the same habitat, but they perform different functions.
 habitat niche – where it lives, food niche – what is eaten or decomposes & what species it
competes with,
 reproductive niche – how and when it reproduces,
 physical & chemical niche – temperature, land shape, land slope, humidity & another
requirement.
o Niche plays an important role in the conservation of organisms. If we have to conserve species in
their native habitat, we should have knowledge about the niche requirements of the species.
 Ecotone – zone of transition between two ecosystems. E.g. grasslands, mangroves etc.
 Habitat – surroundings in which an organism lives (home).
 Home Range – A home range is an area in which an animal lives and moves on a daily or periodic basis (a
little bigger than habitat – home → office → home).

In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found
in its natural habitat? [2013 - I]
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Lion-tailed Macaques are found in the mountain forests scattered across three Indian states stated above.
The lion-tailed Macaques are endangered as per IUCN.
 As per IUCN red list, the lion-tailed macaque is found in India (Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu).
o It is endemic to the Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
o Although the species has a relatively wide range, its area of occupancy is small and severely
fragmented.
o Primarily diurnal arboreal, it prefers the upper canopy of the primary tropical evergreen rainforest.
o It can also be found in monsoon forests in hilly country and in disturbed forests.
 Lion-tailed Macaque
o It is endemic to the Western Ghats in the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
o Although the species has a relatively wide range, its area of occupancy is small and severely
fragmented.
o Primarily diurnal arboreal, it prefers the upper canopy of the primary tropical evergreen rainforest.
o It can also be found in monsoon forests in hilly country and in disturbed forests.
o Protected areas:
 Kudremukh National Park (Karnataka)
 Periyar National Park (Kerala)
 Silent Valley National Park (Kerala)
o Conservation and Protection:
 IUCN Red List: Endangered.
 It is listed in Appendix I of CITES.
 It is protected under Schedule I, Part I, of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
 Ecology
With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the
following statements: [2013 - I]
1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of
organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a
species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism
which are eaten by others.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
 A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. A food chain is the
sequence of who eats whom in a biological community to obtain nutrition. Sample:- Grassland Biome Grass>
Grass Hopper > Rat> Snake > Hawk.
 Food Chain
o Transfer of food energy from green plants (producers) through a series of organisms with repeated
eating and being eaten link is called a food chain.
o E.g. Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk/Eagle.
o Each step in the food chain is called a trophic level.
o A food chain starts with producers and ends with top carnivores.
o The trophic level of an organism is the position it occupies in a food chain.
o A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feeds upon each other.
o Food chains are found within the populations of a species. (Man won’t eat man)
o A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism that are eaten by others (food web illustrates
the number, not the food chain).
 Grazing food chain
o The consumers which start the food chain, utilizing the plant or plant part as their food, constitute the
grazing food chain.
o For example, in a terrestrial ecosystem, the grass is eaten by a caterpillar, which is eaten by a lizard,
and the lizard is eaten by a snake.
o In the Aquatic ecosystem phytoplankton (primary producers) are eaten by zooplanktons which are
eaten by fishes and fishes are eaten by pelicans.
 Detritus food chain
o This type of food chain starts from the organic matter of dead and decaying animals and plant bodies
from the grazing food chain.
o Dead organic matter or detritus feeding organisms are called detrivores or decomposers.
o The detrivores are eaten by predators.
o In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food chain is the major conduit for energy flow.
o As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus
food chain than through the grazing food chain.

Due to improper/ indiscriminate disposal of old and used
computers or their parts, which of the following are released
into the environment as e-waste? [2013 - I]
1. Beryllium
2. Cadmium
3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury
6. Lead
7. Plutonium
(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
 Electronic waste or E-waste has ferrous and nonferrous metals both. Non-ferrous metals like copper,
aluminium, silver, gold, platinum, palladium etc. The presence of elements like lead, mercury, arsenic,
cadmium, selenium and hexavalent chromium are classified as hazardous waste.
 The disposed off electrical or electronic devices are termed as electronic waste or e-waste.
 The discarded computers, CPUs, etc. contain harmful materials such as lead, cadmium, beryllium, etc.
 Following are some examples of the e-waste components:
1. Cathode ray tubes
2. Printed circuit boards
3. Chips and other gold plated components
4. Plastics from printers, keyboards, monitors, etc.
5. Computer wires
The table mentioned below shall provide some of the prominent elements found in the e-wastes and their
harmful effects:
Elements Harmful effects 1. Lead affects the nervous system that leads to behavioural changes, lower IQ, also has
a negative impact on kidneys 2. Mercury exposure to mercury causes dermatitis, sensory impairment, memory
loss, muscle weakness, reduced fertility, etc. 3. Cadmium it is the cause of severe lung and kidney damages, and in
children, it may cause learning and neuromotor defects 4. Chromium it has carcinogenic properties and may also
result in damaging of DNA. 5. Beryllium it can cause beryllium sensitization, chronic beryllium disease, acute
beryllium disease, and lung cancer. 6. PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) the bioaccumulation of chlorine over a period of
time results in air, water, and soil pollution; and can lead to reproductive and developmental health effects.
7. PFOA (Perfluorooctanoic acid) it has severe impact on the pregnant women as it may lead to spontaneous
abortions, stillbirth, low birth weight, etc. 8. Sulphur it can damage the heart, kidneys, and liver. 9. BFRs
(Brominated Flame Retardants) it may lead to thyroid problems, liver problems, improper development of
nervous system, etc.

Vultures which used to be very common in Indian
countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This
is attributed to [2012 - I]
(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive
species
(b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased
cattle
(c) scarcity of food available to them
(d) a widespread, persistent and fatal disease among them
 Vultures in the Indian subcontinent were dying of kidney failure shortly after scavenging livestock treated
with diclofenac, a painkiller that is similar to aspirin or ibuprofen.
 The Government of India banned “Diclofenac and its formulations for veterinary use” in July 2008 with a
view to conserving vultures and, in July 2015, allowed use of the drug as a single-dose injection for humans
only.
 According to wildlife veterinarians, the key cause of vulture deaths is food poisoning.
o The birds were feeding on dead animals that had been administered the non-steroidal anti-
inflammatory drug (NSAID) diclofenac as a painkiller.
o When the gyps species fed on these carcasses, they faced acute renal failure and died.
 Vultures are among the top predators and are enlisted in the critically endangered category in the IUCN Red
List of Threatened Species.
 The Government of India is also likely to ban the analog NSAID aceclofenac for veterinary use, given
its potential to kill vultures.
o A research note submitted by Vibhu Prakash, Principal Scientist and Deputy Director, Vulture
Conservation Breeding Centre (VCBC), Panchkula, Haryana, on “Metabolism of Aceclofenac in cattle to
Vulture-killing Diclofenac”, had apparently served as the basis for this move.
o The VCBC had requested prohibition on veterinary use of aceclofenac as well. In a 2016 research
study, Toby Heath Calligan (of the Royal Society for Protection of Birds) and others found that nearly
all of the aceclofenac administered to cattle in the recommended dose was very rapidly metabolized
into diclofenac.
 The study pointed out that at least 12 other NSAIDs, besides diclofenac, were available for veterinary use in
South Asia, and aceclofenac was one of them.

What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is
completely destroyed for some reason? [2012 - I]
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 If phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason then
 The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
 The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected as the fishes live on them.
 Phytoplankton:
o Phytoplankton is mostly microscopic, single-celled photosynthetic organisms that live suspended in
water.
o Like land plants, they take up carbon dioxide, make carbohydrates using light energy, and release
oxygen.
o They are what is known as primary producers of the ocean—the organisms that form the base of
the food chain.
o Because they need light, phytoplankton lives near the surface, where enough sunlight can penetrate
to power photosynthesis.
o The thickness of this layer of the ocean—the euphotic zone—varies depending on water clarity, but is
at most limited to the top 200 to 300 meters (600 to 900 feet), out of an average ocean depth of 4,000
meters (13,000 feet).
o Phytoplankton comprises two very different kinds of organisms.
 The larger category includes single-celled algae known as protists—advanced eukaryotic cells,
similar to protozoans.
 These forms include diatoms and are most abundant near coasts. Occasionally, these
organisms form blooms—rapid population explosions—in response to changing seasons
and the availability of nutrients such as nitrogen, iron, and phosphorus.
 The other type of phytoplankton cells, more primitive but far more abundant than algae,
is photosynthetic bacteria.
 These tiny cells, some only a micron across, are invisible but present in numbers of
hundreds of thousands of cells per tablespoon of ocean water.
 Too small to be caught in any net, these organisms were unknown until the 1970s, when
improved technology made them visible.
 Scientists now know these bacteria are responsible for half of the ocean's primary
productivity and are the most abundant organisms in the sea.
 The group also includes cyanobacteria, which are believed to be among the oldest
organisms on Earth and the origin of the photosynthetic organelles in plant cells known as
chloroplasts.
 Why Phytoplanktons are important?
o Phytoplankton is some of Earth's most critical organisms and so it is vital to study and understand
them.
o They generate about half an atmosphere's oxygen, as much per year as all land plants.
o Phytoplankton also forms the base of virtually every ocean food web. In short, they make most other
ocean life possible. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Through photosynthesis these organisms transform inorganic carbon in the atmosphere and in
seawater into organic compounds, making them an essential part of Earth's carbon cycle.
o Because they take up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, when they die they sink they carry this
atmospheric carbon to the deep sea, making phytoplankton an important actor in the climate
system. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Phytoplankton growth is often limited by the scarcity of iron in the ocean. As a result, many people
are discussing plans to fertilize large areas of the ocean with iron to promote phytoplankton blooms
that would transfer more carbon from the atmosphere to the deep sea.
o Phytoplankton is critical to other ocean biogeochemical cycles, as well.
 They take up, transform, and recycle elements needed by other organisms, and help cycle
elements between species in the ocean.
 Photosynthetic bacteria are especially important in the nutrient-poor open ocean, where they
scavenge and release scarce vitamins and other micronutrients that help sustain other marine
life.
o Some phytoplankton has a direct impact on humans and other animals.
o Dense blooms of some organisms can deplete oxygen in coastal waters, causing fish and shellfish to
suffocate.
o Other species produce toxins that cause can cause illness or death among humans and even whales
are either exposed to the toxins or eat shellfish that accumulate toxins.
o Such harmful algal blooms (HABs) cause significant economic loss every year in the seafood industry
and in tourist communities, and scientists are working to understand the causes of these blooms and
to devise ways to predict and prevent them.
 If the phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason, the density of ocean water
would drastically decrease is an extreme statement.
 Agriculture
Consider the following agricultural practices : [2012 - I]
1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above
helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of them
 Carbon sequestration is the long-term storage of carbon in plants, soils, geologic formations, and the ocean.
 It occurs both naturally and as a result of anthropogenic activities and typically refers to the storage of
carbon.
 Types Carbon Sequestration :
o Ocean Carbon Sequestration :
 Oceans absorb, release and store large amounts of Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
 An abundance of phytoplankton production in oceans leads to enhanced photosynthesis which
helps in Carbon dioxide absorption.
o Terrestrial Carbon Sequestration :
 Terrestrial carbon sequestration is the process through which Carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere is absorbed by trees and plants through photosynthesis and stored as carbon in
soils and biomass (tree trunks, branches, foliage, and roots).
o Geologic Carbon Sequestration :
 CO2 can be stored, including oil reservoirs, gas reservoirs, unmineable coal seams, saline
formations and shale formations with high organic content.
 Zero tillage :
o It is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation and
disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.
o Zero tillage not only reduces the cost of cultivation it also reduces the soil erosion, crop duration, and
irrigation requirement, and weed effect which is better than tillage.
o Advantages of zero tillage :
 Reduction in the crop duration and thereby early cropping can be obtained to get higher yields.
 Reduction in the cost of inputs for land preparation and therefore a saving of around 80%.
 Residual moisture can be effectively utilized and the number of irrigations can be reduced.
 Dry matter and organic matter get added to the soil.
 Environmentally safe - The greenhouse effect will get reduced due to carbon
sequestration. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
 No-tillage reduces the compaction of the soil and reduces the water loss by runoff and prevents
soil erosion.
 As the soil is intact and no disturbance is done, No-Till lands have more useful flora and fauna.
 Contour bunding (or contour bundling), which involves the placement of lines of stones along with the
natural rises of a landscape, and contour farming. These techniques help to capture and hold rainfall before
it can become runoff. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
 Relay cropping is essentially a special version of double cropping, where the second crop is planted into the
first crop before harvest, rather than waiting until after harvest as in true double-cropping.

Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of
a geographical area? [2012 - I]
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Biodiversity refers to every living thing, including plants, bacteria, animals, and humans.
 Loss of Biodiversity:
o In general, loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to-
 the decline in plant production,
 lowered resistance to environmental perturbations such as drought, and
 increased variability in certain ecosystem processes such as plant productivity, water use, and
pest and disease cycles.
 Threats to biodiversity:
o The accelerated rates of species extinctions that the world is facing now are largely due to human
activities.
o There are four major causes:
 Habitat loss and fragmentation:
 This is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
 The most dramatic examples of habitat loss come from tropical rainforests.
 Once covering more than 14 percent of the earth’s land surface, these rain forests now
cover no more than 6 percent. They are being destroyed fast.
 By the time you finish reading this chapter, 1000 more hectares of rainforest would have
been lost. The Amazon rain forest (it is so huge that it is called the ‘lungs of the planet’)
harboring probably millions of species is being cut and cleared for cultivating soya beans
or for conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle.
 Besides total loss, the degradation of many habitats by pollution also threatens the
survival of many species.
 When large habitats are broken up into small fragments due to various human activities,
mammals and birds requiring large territories and certain animals with migratory habits
are badly affected, leading to population declines.
 Over-exploitation:
 Humans have always depended on nature for food and shelter, but when ‘need’ turns to
‘greed’, it leads to overexploitation of natural resources.
 Many species extinctions in the last 500 years (Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon) were
due to overexploitation by humans.
 Presently many marine fish populations around the world are over-harvested,
endangering the continued existence of some commercially important species.
 Alien species invasions:
 When alien species are introduced unintentionally or deliberately for whatever purpose,
some of them turn invasive and cause the decline or extinction of indigenous species.
 The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led eventually to the extinction
of an ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 species of cichlid fish in the lake.
 You must be familiar with the environmental damage caused and the threat posed to our
native species by invasive weed species like carrot grass (Parthenium), Lantana and water
hyacinth (Eichhornia). The recent illegal introduction of the African catfish Clarias
gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our
rivers.
 Co-extinctions:
 When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an
obligatory way also become extinct.
 When a host fish species becomes extinct, its unique assemblage of parasites also meets
the same fate.
 Another example is the case of a coevolved plant-pollinator mutualism where the
extinction of one invariably leads to the extinction of the other.
o Global warming can contribute to habitat loss, habitat fragmentation, invasion of alien species.

What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and
Chiru?
(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas
Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert
areas of cold high mountains
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is
poached for its musk
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists
in north-east India only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is
correct
 Oryx has adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert
areas of cold high mountains.
 Oryx:
o Oryx living in herds on deserts and dry plains of Africa and the Arabian Peninsula.
o Classified as coarse grazers, oryxes feed on grasses and energetically dig for water-storing roots and
tubers. They can go without drinking except under the harshest conditions, but they drink regularly
where water is available.
o Oryxes have an unusual social organization that is adapted to a nomadic existence in desert
conditions. Isolation and low population density select against the dispersal of adolescent males, as is
usual in social antelopes.
 Chiru:
o Chiru also called Tibetan antelope, a small, gregarious, graceful antelope-like mammal of the family
Bovidae (order Artiodactyla) that lives on the high alpine steppes of the Tibetan Plateau.
o The chiru is the only genus of large mammals endemic to the Tibetan Plateau.
o Despite its antelope-like appearance, the chiru is not related to antelopes or to gazelles but represents
the last remnant of a group of ruminants that split off from the sheep, goat, and goat antelope
lineages during the Neogene Period.
o It was extremely abundant on the Tibetan Plateau and surrounding high-elevation alpine steppes, but
now it survives only in the extreme climate of the Tibetan Plateau.

The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the
following major categories of ecosystem services
provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural.
Which one of the following is supporting service? [2012 - I]
(a) Production of food and water
(b) Control of climate and disease
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) Maintenance of diversity
 Supporting services of Millennium Ecosystem Assessment are necessary for production of all other
ecosystem services including soil formation, nutrient cycling, photosynthesis to name a few.
 What is the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA):
o The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) was called for by the United Nations Secretary-General
Kofi Annan in 2000.
o Initiated in 2001, the objective of the MA was to assess the consequences of ecosystem change for
human well-being and the scientific basis for action needed to enhance the conservation and
sustainable use of those systems and their contribution to human well-being.
o The MA has involved the work of more than 1,360 experts worldwide. Their findings, contained in five
technical volumes and six synthesis reports, provide a state-of-the-art scientific appraisal of the
condition and trends in the world’s ecosystems and the services they provide (such as clean water,
food, forest products, flood control, and natural resources) and the options to restore, conserve or
enhance the sustainable use of ecosystems.
 Types of Ecosystem Services:
o The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA), a major UN-sponsored effort to analyze the impact of
human actions on ecosystems and human well-being, identified four major categories of ecosystem
services: provisioning, regulating, cultural and supporting services.
o Provisioning Services:
 When people are asked to identify a service provided by nature, most think of food.
 Fruits, vegetables, trees, fish, and livestock are available to us as direct products of ecosystems.
 A provisioning service is any type of benefit to people that can be extracted from nature.
 Along with food, other types of provisioning services include drinking water, timber, wood fuel,
natural gas, oils, plants that can be made into clothes and other materials, and medicinal
benefits.
o Regulating Services:
 Ecosystems provide many of the basic services that make life possible for people.
 Plants clean air and filter water, bacteria decompose wastes, bees pollinate flowers, and tree
roots hold soil in place to prevent erosion.
 All these processes work together to make ecosystems clean, sustainable, functional, and
resilient to change.
 A regulating service is the benefit provided by ecosystem processes that moderate natural
phenomena.
 Regulating services include pollination, decomposition, water purification, erosion and flood
control, and carbon storage and climate regulation.
o Cultural Services:
 As we interact and alter nature, the natural world has in turn altered us.
 It has guided our cultural, intellectual, and social development by being a constant force present
in our lives.
 The importance of ecosystems to the human mind can be traced back to the beginning of
mankind with ancient civilizations drawing pictures of animals, plants, and weather patterns on
cave walls.
 A cultural service is a non-material benefit that contributes to the development and cultural
advancement of people, including how ecosystems play a role in local, national, and global
cultures; the building of knowledge and the spreading of ideas; creativity born from interactions
with nature (music, art, architecture); and recreation.
o Supporting Services:
 The natural world provides so many services, sometimes we overlook the most fundamental.
 Ecosystems themselves couldn't be sustained without the consistency of underlying natural
processes, such as photosynthesis, nutrient cycling, the creation of soils, and the water
cycle. Hence, option 3 is correct.
 These processes allow the Earth to sustain basic life forms, let alone whole ecosystems and
people. Without supporting services, provisional, regulating, and cultural services wouldn't
exist.

Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to
the category of endangered species? [2012 - I]
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and
Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and
Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and
Cheetal
 Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass, are endangered species.
 International Union for Conservation of Nature -
o Established in 1964, the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened
Species has evolved to become the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global
extinction risk status of animal, fungus, and plant species.
o The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator of the health of the world’s biodiversity.
 Far more than a list of species and their status, it is a powerful tool to inform and catalyze action
for biodiversity conservation and policy change, critical to protecting the natural resources we
need to survive.
 It provides information about a range, population size, habitat and ecology, use and/or trade,
threats, and conservation actions that will help inform necessary conservation decisions.
o Option 1 contains all species of Endangered group that is either Critically Endangered or Endangered
category of IUCN red list.
 Critically Endangered species in India -
o Andaman White-toothed Shrew
o Himalayan Brown/Red Bear
o Large Rock Rat or Elvira Rat
o Namdapha Flying Squirrel
o Malabar Civet
o Sumatran Rhinoceros
o Kashmir stag/hangul
o Great Indian Bustard
 Endangered species in India -
o Tigers
o Asiatic Lion
o Red Panda
o Asiatic Wild Ass
o Dhole/Asiatic wild dog or Indian wild dog
o Eld’s deer/thiamin or brow-antlered deer
o Golden langur
o Himalayan / White-bellied Musk Deer
o Pygmy Hog
o Condana Rat
o Hispid hare/ Assam rabbit
o Hog deer
o Lion-tailed macaque/ wanderoo
o Nilgiri tahr
o Kharai Camel – India’s swimming camels
 Protected area
In which one among the following categories of protected
areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use
the biomass? [2012 - I]
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
 In national parks, local people are not allowed to collect and use the biomass available in the area.
 What is a National Park?
o An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state government to be
constituted as a National Park, by reason of its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or
zoological association of importance, needed for the purpose of protecting & propagating or
developing wildlife therein or its environment.
o No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the ones permitted by the Chief
Wildlife Warden of the state under the conditions given in Chapter IV, Wildlife Protection Act,
1972. Hence, option 2 is correct.
o There are 101 existing national parks in India covering an area of 40,564.00 km2, which is 1.23% of
the geographical area of the country (National Wildlife Database, December 2019).
 What is Biosphere Reserve?
o Biosphere reserves are sites established by countries and recognized under UNESCO's Man and the
Biosphere (MAB) Programme to promote sustainable development based on local community efforts
and sound science.
o The program of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1971.
o The purpose of the formation of the biosphere reserve is to conserve in situ all forms of life, along
with its support system, in its totality, so that it could serve as a referral system for monitoring and
evaluating changes in natural ecosystems.
o The first biosphere reserve of the world was established in 1979, since then the network of biosphere
reserves has increased to 631 in 119 countries across the world.
o Presently, there are 18 notified biosphere reserves in India.
 What is Wildlife Sanctuary?
o Any area other than area comprised with any reserve forest or the territorial waters can be notified by
the State Government to constitute as a sanctuary if such area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral,
geomorphological, natural. or zoological significance, for the purpose of protecting, propagating, or
developing wildlife or its environment.
o Some restricted human activities are allowed inside the Sanctuary area details of which are given in
CHAPTER IV, WPA 1972.
o There are 553 existing wildlife sanctuaries in India covering an area of 119776.00 km2, which is 3.64 %
of the geographical area of the country (National Wildlife Database, December 2019).
 What are RAMSAR Wetland Sites?
o The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable utilization of
wetlands, recognizing the fundamental ecological functions of wetlands and their economic, cultural,
scientific, and recreational value.
 Protected area
Consider the following protected areas: [2012 - I]
1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
 Bandipur, Manas and Sunderbans are declared Tiger Reserves.
iger Reserves:
 Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in the year 1973 to save the endangered species
of tiger in the country.
o Starting from nine (9) reserves in 1973-2019 the number is grown up to fifty (50).
o A total area of 71027.10 km2 is covered by these Project Tiger areas.
 Recently, the Central government has given its approval for the creation of a fifth tiger reserve in Tamil
Nadu that will encompass the Meghamalai and Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuaries.
 Bandipur, Manas and Sunderban are declared Tiger reserve, but Bhittarkanika is not included.

The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly
raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs
(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat [2012 - I]
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation
 Carbon dioxide absorbs the Infrared part of Solar Radiation.
 The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere
because it absorbs the infrared part of the solar radiation. Only water vapour has the ability to absorb both
incoming UV and outgoing infrared radiation. Hence option 4 is correct.
 Carbon dioxide strongly absorbs energy with a wavelength of 15 μm (micrometres).
o This makes carbon dioxide a good absorber of wavelengths falling in the infrared radiation region of
the spectrum.
Greenhouse Gases
 Water Vapour- It is the strongest greenhouse gas and its concentration of this gas is largely controlled by
the temperature of the atmosphere.
 Methane- It is 30 times stronger than CO2 as an absorber of infrared radiation. It is however smaller in
concentration than carbon dioxide.
 Halocarbons are composed of carbon, chlorine, fluorine, and hydrogen. They include chlorofluorocarbons
(CFCs), which are man-made gases commonly used in refrigerators and air conditioners.

The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this
phenomenon a cause of concern? [2012 - I]
1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton
will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely
affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have
phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be
adversely affected.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Marine organisms like coral and phytoplankton are affected by ocean acidification. It decrease growth,
reproduction and survival of these species. The acidification of ocean may lead to cloud formation as.
Sulfuric acid seeds the cloud formation which is emitted from ocean in the form of dimethylsulfide (DMS)
produced by phytoplankton. These phytoplanktons produce less DMS when ocean water is acidified and
result in less cloud formation.
Acidification of Oceans-
 Ocean Acidification refers to a decline in ocean PH due to excess absorption of carbon oxide.
 An estimated 30-40% of the carbon dioxide from human activity released into the atmosphere dissolves
into oceans, lakes and rivers.
Impacts of Ocean Acidification-
 The increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide led to an increase in carbonic acid and a decrease in
carbonate ions.
 The decrease in the number of carbonate ions available makes it more difficult for marine calcifying
organisms, such as coral.
 The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
 The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
 The majority of atmosphere sulphur is emitted from the ocean in form of dimethylsulfide produced by
phytoplankton.
 But the increase in ocean acidification led to an adverse impact on the development of phytoplankton,
which led to a low amount of sulphur emission.
o This led to decreased cloud formation.
 Resources
Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the
sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this
context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice husk can be
used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass
gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass
gasification can be used for direct heat generation but
not in internal combustion engines.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
 The combustible gas produced during gasification process includes carbon monoxide hydrogen, carbon
dioxide and possibly hydrocarbons like methane (CH4).
 Biomass gasification is a new technology in which biomass (renewable organic resources like agriculture
crop residues, forest residues, special crops grown particularly for energy use, organic municipal solid waste,
and animal waste) is converted to hydrogen and other products without combustion using heat, steam,
and oxygen.
 Coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
 In the gasification process, organic material is converted into methane, carbon monoxide, hydrogen,
carbon dioxide. It is obtained by reacting the material at high temperature (>7000C) without combustion
with a controlled amount of oxygen/steam and the resulting gas mixture is called Syngas or Producer Gas
which itself is a fuel. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 Syngas is combustible and often used as a fuel of internal combustion engines or as an intermediate for the
production of other chemicals.
 The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
Hence, The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation
as well as in internal combustion engines.
 Act / Law / Policies / Bodies
If National Water Mission is properly and completely
implemented, how will it impact the country? [2012 - I]
1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met
through recycling of wastewater.
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with
inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by
adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the
use of ocean water.
3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the
rivers of peninsular India,
4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging borewells
and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw
groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the
Government.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, then the part of the water needs of
urban areas will be met through recycling of waste water and the water requirements of coastal cities with
inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the
use of ocean water.
 The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pump-sets to draw
groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
o The main objective of the National Water Mission (NWM) is “conservation of water, minimizing
wastage and ensuring its more equitable distribution both across and within States through
integrated water resources development and management”.
o The five identified goals of the Mission are
 Comprehensive water database in public domain and assessment of the impact of climate
change on a water resource.
 Promotion of citizen and state action for water conservation, augmentation, and preservation.
 Focused attention to vulnerable areas including over-exploited areas.
 Increasing water use efficiency by 20%.
 Promotion of basin-level integrated water resources management.
 The likely impact of climate change on water resources could be in the form of
o The decline in the glaciers and the snowfields in the Himalayas.
o Increased drought-like situations due to an overall decrease in the number of rainy days in many parts
of the country.
o Increased flood events due to an overall increase in the rainy day intensity.
o Effect on groundwater quality in alluvial aquifers due to increased flood and drought events.
o Influence on groundwater recharge due to changes in precipitation and evaporation.
o The increased saline intrusion of coastal and island aquifers due to rising sea levels.

The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in
consonance with which of the following provisions of the
Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, construed as a part of
Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of
administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare
of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned
under Article 243 (A)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with the Right to healthy environment,
construed as a part of Right to life under Art. 21
 The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with the Right to a healthy environment,
construed as a part of the Right to life under Art. 21.
 It draws inspiration from India's constitutional provision of (Constitution of India/Part III) Article 21
Protection of life and personal liberty, which assures the citizens of India the right to a healthy
environment.
 The legislate Act of Parliament defines the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 as follows
o An Act to provide for the establishment of a National Green Tribunal for the effective and
expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests
and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to the
environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for
matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
o The tribunal is mandated to make and endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally
within 6 months of the filing of the same.
o The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court, headquartered in New
Delhi.
o On 18th October 2010, Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta became its first Chairman.

How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in
protecting the Indian agriculture? [2012 - I]
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous
and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific
research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to
genetic/biological resources cannot be made without
the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) checks the biopiracy and protects the indigeneous and traditional
genetic resources. Intellectual property Rights related to genetic biological resources cannot be made
without the approval of NBA.
 National Biodiversity Authority NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional
genetic resources.
 National Biodiversity Authority is a statutory autonomous-s body under the Ministry of
Environment, established in 2003 to implement the provisions under the National Biological Diversity
Act, 2002.
 Headquartered in Chennai and India.
 It acts as a facilitating regulating and advisory body to the Government of India on issues of
conservation, sustainable use of biological resources.
 Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
 The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body constituted under the ‘Rules
for the Manufacture, Use /Import /Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically
Engineering Organisms or Cells, 1989’ notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
 The body also looks into proposals regarding the use of living modified organism that comes in the risk
category III and above in the import/manufacture of recombinant pharma products, or where the
end-product of the recombinant pharma product is a modified living organism.

Consider the following:
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal
combustion at thermal power plants? [2011 - I]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 Coal combustion at thermal power plants release all of the given products like CO2, NOx and SOx.
 Thermal Power Plant Emissions :
o The water runoff from coal washeries carries pollution loads of heavy metals that contaminate
groundwater, river and lakes, thus, affecting aquatic flora and fauna.
o Fly ash residues and pollutants settle on soil contaminating lands and are especially harmful to
agriculture.
o Generally, Indian coals have a lower calorific value and ash content is more (up to 40%).
o Combustion of coal in coal-fired power plants releases emissions of
 Sulfur dioxide (SO2),
 Nitrogen oxides (NOx),
 Particulate matter (PM),
 Carbon monoxide (CO), and
 Volatile organic compounds (VOCs). Hence, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
 The PM in the flue gas also contains high concentrations of heavy metals such as arsenic, lead,
cadmium, mercury, copper and zinc.
 Chronic and acute exposure to these pollutants has health impacts that include
respiratory illnesses, compromised immune systems, cardiovascular conditions, cancer
and even premature death.
 The people living nearby the plants are severely affected.
 While the impact of the emissions is felt within 200 km of the power plants, under windy
conditions the influence can be tracked to distances as far as 400 km from the source
region.
 Another pollutant is carbon dioxide which is a greenhouse gas and is considered the main
source of global warming.
 In the world, the installed capacity of thermal power plants is about 65% of the total capacity from all
sources.
o In India, this is 68%.
o As of February 2017, the total installed capacity in India is 315426 MW and that of the thermal power
plant is 215215 MW.

 Why India is still depend on coal for its electricity generation? (Asked in UPSC Mains exam)
o In spite of emissions of many harmful substances from coal-fired plants, we depend on most for
electricity.
o It is because these have some strategic advantages over other sources.
 The main advantage is that its fuel coal is available in plenty in many countries.
 In our county, the coal will last for another hundred years.
 India is the world’s third-largest coal-producing country and the fourth largest coal importer.
 The cost of the generation of electricity from coal is cheaper than other sources.
 Further, its technology is well-established and it takes three to four years for installation from
concept to commissioning.
 The most crucial reason is that there is no alternate source to quantitatively substitute thermal
power at present.
 The other conventional sources of power are a hydroelectric and nuclear power.
 In India, the share of hydroelectric power has come down from more than 50% at the
time of independence to 14% now due to resettlement and rehabilitation and other
problems.
 Similarly, share of nuclear power is not improving due to several reasons.
 Although the installation of wind power and solar power is rapidly progressing, it will take
some years to fully depend on them.
 Due to these reasons, thermal power has become a favorite to planners, although it comes with
significant costs to the environment and human health.

With reference to India, consider the following Central
Acts :
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the
biodiversity conservation in the country ? [2011 - I]
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2,3 and 4 (d) None of the above Acts
 There are 35 acts of Indian Government which have relevance to Biodiversity conservation and includes all
the four option given in this question.
 Biodiversity is the condition where different species of plants and animals, live together and depend on each
other in the same habitat.
 Acts related to Biodiversity Conservation in India :
 Fisheries Act, 1897
 Destructive Insects and Pests Act, 1914
 The Indian Forest Act, 1927.
o The objective of this act is to define the procedure to be followed for declaring an area as
Reserved Forest, Protected Forest, or Village Forest, to make conservation of forests and wildlife
more accountable. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
 Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marketing) Act, 1937
 Indian Coffee Act, 1942
 Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947.
o Import and export of GMOs or exotic species are prohibited whereas certain medicinal plants
are subjected to high customs duties to regulate their trade. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 Rubber (Production and Marketing) Act, 1947
 Tea Act, 1953
 Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act 1957.
o Mining activities, whether occurring within or near Protected Areas, cause a range of
environmental consequences that can be severe and irreversible. Mining operations and the
process of constructing new mining infrastructure often result in large-scale alteration of the
environment at landscape and ecosystem levels. The clearing of vegetation is one of the most
significant impacts of mining on biodiversity. Thus mining is restricted in reserved
areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 Prevention of Cruelty to Animal Act, 1960
 Customs Act, 1962.
o Import and export of GMOs or exotic species are prohibited whereas certain medicinal plants
are subjected to high customs duties to regulate their trade. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 Spices Board Act, 1986
 Seeds Act, 1966
 The Patents Act, 1970
 Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
 Tobacco Board Act, 1975
 Territorial Water, Continental Shelf, Exclusive Economic Zone and other Maritime Zones Act, 1976
 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977
 Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
 Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1981
 Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act 1985/1986
 Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
 National Dairy Development Board Act, 1987
 Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act, 1992
 Protection of Plant varieties and Farmer’s Rights (PPVFR) Act, 2001
 Biological Diversity Act, 2002
 The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
 Scheduled Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
 National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
 Ecology
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes
as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally
greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher
altitudes. [2011 - I]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Biodiversity is higher in the low latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes as the habitat tolerance level is
very narrow at greater latitude. Mountains have high range of species at the low altitude as they can
support larger number of species due to climatic condition.
 Latitude
 It is the angular distance of a place north or south of the earth's equator.
 It is measured with 180 imaginary lines that form circles around the Earth east-west, parallel to the
Equator.
 The Equator is the line of 0 degrees latitude. Each parallel measures one degree north or south of the
Equator, with 90 degrees north of the Equator and 90 degrees south of the Equator.
 The latitude of the North Pole is 90 degrees N, and the latitude of the South Pole is 90 degrees S.
 The term biodiversity (from “biological diversity”) refers to the variety of life on Earth at all its levels, from
genes to ecosystems, and can encompass the evolutionary, ecological, and cultural processes that sustain
life.
 Biodiversity increases from the poles to the tropics for a wide variety of terrestrial and marine organisms.
It is also called the latitudinal diversity gradient.
 Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 Elevational diversity gradient (EDG) is an ecological pattern where biodiversity changes with elevation.
 The researchers in the past have found that plant biodiversity initially increases with altitude, until it reaches
a diversity peak at around 1 300 to 1 800 m, after which point it decreases with altitude.
 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna / Conservation

The “Red Data Books’’ published by the International Union
for Conservation of Nature and Natural resources (IUCN)
contain lists of ? [2011 - I]
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the
biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural
resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
 The red data book contains only 8 lists of threatened plant and animal species.
 The "Red Data Books" published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources (IUCN) is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant
and animal species.
 Red data book is beneficial for providing detailed information for studies and researches. It also helps in
monitoring programs on rare and endangered species. It thus helps in protecting the species that are on the
verge of extinction.
 The red list contains only the names of the endangered species, however, the Red Data Book contains
information about the species that are on the verge of extinction.
 It divides species into nine categories: Not Evaluated, Data Deficient, Least Concern, Near
Threatened, Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, Extinct in the Wild and Extinct.

The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can
serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities.
How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?[2011 - I]
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements
from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither
live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines
which people are in need of after any natural disaster
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and
serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms
and tides because of their extensive roots.
 The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots.
 Mangroves are a special type of vegetation. And they are found in the intertidal regions where freshwater
and saltwater intermixes, in the bays, estuaries, creeks, and lagoons.
 They are the salt-tolerant variety of plants, which can survive in harsh conditions. And they are economically
and ecologically significant.
 They represent the littoral forest ecosystem.
 They are also called Halophytes – They are salt-tolerant.
 The trees that grow in Mangrove Forests are generally 8-20 meters high. These trees have thick leaves.
 They have blind roots which are called Pneumatophores. These roots help these trees to respire in
anaerobic soils.
 The seeds of Mangrove Forests trees germinate in the trees themselves before falling – This is called
the Viviparity mode of reproduction.
 According to the Forest Survey of India, 2019, Mangroves’ cover in the country increased by 54 sq
km (91.10 per cent) in comparison to the 2017 assessment.
 The mangrove forests of Sundarbans are the largest mangrove forests in the world.
 Mangroves greatly contribute to reducing the loss of life and damage to property from storms and cyclones
as they reduce the impacts of waves, storm surges, and high winds.
 Mangroves function as a safety hedge as they do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their
extensive roots.
 Tsunamis are caused by earthquakes and landslides disturbing large masses of water. The resulting tsunami
waves can travel rapidly over very long distances across the ocean. As the waves approach land, they
increase in height that results in massive destruction and loss of life.
 Mangroves act as a natural barrier to storms and tsunamis by reducing down the effects of wind and waves
and these dense roots help in binding and building soils.
 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna / Conservation / Protected area

Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method
of conservation of flora ? [2011 - I]
(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
 Zoo and botanical gardens are the most conventional methods of ex-situ conservation, rest all options are
natural habitats so are of in-situ conservation.
 In-Situ method of conservation:
 The in-situ method of conservation is also called an on-site conservation method.
 It means the conservation of biodiversity in their natural habitats itself.
 Examples: National parks, biosphere reserves, parks, sanctuaries.
 Ex-Situ method of conservation:
 It means the conservation of biological diversity outside their natural habitats through
different techniques.
 Examples include Zoo, Captive breeding, Aquarium, Botanical garden, Seed, and Gene bank.
 Ecology
Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the
following ways : [2011 - I]
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
 Biological diversity helps in the formation and maintenance of soil structure and the retention of moisture
and nutrient levels. Biodiversity supports ecosystem services including air quality, climate water purification,
pollination, and prevention of erosion.
 Biodiversity:
o Biodiversity is the variety of all living organisms on Earth.
o This includes terrestrial, marine and other aquatic ecosystems and the ecological complexes which
they are part of.
o This diversity can occur between species, within species and ecosystem level.
o Biodiversity is important to our existence and is valuable in its own right.
o It forms the foundation for an array of ecosystem services which are critical to human well-being.
 Why is biodiversity important?
o Biodiversity helps to boost ecosystem productivity, each species no matter what size, have their own
important role to play.
o Healthy biodiversity provides a number of natural services to the human population including:
 Ecosystem services:
 nutrient storage and recycling
 pollution breakdown and absorption
 soil formation and protection
 protection of water resources
 Pollination of crops
 Prevention of soil erosion
 Biological resources:
 Food
 Medicinal resources and pharmaceutical drugs
 Future resources
 Ornamental plants
 Social benefits:
 Research, education and monitoring
 Recreation and tourism
 Cultural values.

A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian
animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but
its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its
habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal ?
[2011 - I]
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
 The Indian wild ass are also called as ghudkhur in local Gujarati language, is a subspecies of the onager
native of South Asia. It is unknown how they disappeared though they have never been hunting target
during any emperors in India. The history speaks that their number has been declining after due to diseases
such as surra and horse sickness. The process related to salt activities have also been a reason behind it.
 Indian Wild Buffalo:
 The Indian Wild Buffalo is the state animal of Chhattisgarh.
 They are mainly found in the alluvial grasslands, marshes, swamps and river valleys.
 They are generally found in areas that have plenty of water holes and resources.
 IUCN status: Endangered.
 Indian wild ass:
 The Indian wild ass also called the Ghudkhur, Khur, or Indian onager in the local Gujarati language.
 The major population of Indian WildAss is in Little Rann of Kachchh.
 Saline deserts (Rann of Kutch ), arid grasslands, and shrublands are their preferred environments.
 The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to habitat degradation.
 IUCN status: Near Threatened.
 Indian wild boar:
 It is also known as the Andamanese pig or Moupin pig.
 They are mainly found in high crops and causes large damage to agricultural crops such as Rice,
Sugarcane etc.
 IUCN status: Least Concern
 Indian gazelle:
 They have been observed in dry deciduous forests, open woodlands, and dry areas.
 They are primarily found in the northwestern region of India in the state of Rajasthan.
 IUCN status: Least Concern.
 Ecology
Consider the following : [2011 - I]
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration.
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action.
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle
on earth ?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4
 Photosynthesis by plants removes about 120 billion tons of carbon from the air per year, but plant
decomposition returns about the same amount. When the organic matter is oxidized through respiration,
the reverse of photosynthesis takes place. Respiration releases CO2 into the atmosphere. Respiration and
photosynthesis occur at nearly equal rates over one year. Volcanic eruptions and metamorphism release
gases into the atmosphere. Volcanic gases are primarily water vapor, carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide.
 Photosynthesis :
 The process by which plants produce their own food using sunlight and carbon dioxide is known as
photosynthesis.
 Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and produces oxygen.
 Respiration is the biochemical process in which the cells of an organism obtain energy by combining oxygen
and glucose, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 When organisms die, they are decomposed by bacteria. Carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere
during the decomposition process.
 Carbon bound in the forest floor is converted to carbon dioxide during the process
of decomposition. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 Water vapour (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), and sulfur dioxide (SO2) are the most common volcanic
gases. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
 In lesser amounts, volcanoes release carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen sulfide (H 2S), carbonyl sulfide
(COS), carbon disulfide (CS2), hydrogen chloride (HCl), hydrogen (H2), methane (CH4), hydrogen
fluoride (HF), boron, hydrogen bromide (HBr), and mercury (Hg) vapour.

There is a concern over the increase in harmful algal blooms
in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative
factors for this phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 Algae multiply rapidly when nutrients are present. So, discharge of nutrients favour algae and subsequently
algal bloom growth from estuaries to sea. The run off from the land during the monsoon bring salts which
favours the growth of algae. Upwelling of the sea water brings the nutrients to top level leading to rapid
algae multiplication.
Algal Bloom:
 An algal bloom is defined as the rapid growth of the population of algae in aquatic ecosystems.
 Algal blooms can be found in either a marine environment or a freshwater environment.
 The phenomenon can be easily recognised by the discolouration on the surface of the water. It usually
occurs due to the introduction of a nutrient (such as nitrogen or phosphorus) into an aquatic
ecosystem.
 Algae is a term that is used to describe both unicellular and multicellular, photosynthetic organisms.
Discolouration of the water characterises a unicellular algal bloom. Giant kelp forests are examples of
a multicellular algal bloom.
 Algal blooms are caused by excessive amounts of nitrates, phosphates, and nutrients entering an
aquatic ecosystem, often via discharges from sewage treatment plants and septic tanks, estuaries,
and stormwater run-off from fertilized lawns and farms. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
 Other factors that responsible for algal growth include sunlight and slow-moving water.
 Upwelling, the formation of mud banks, nutrient discharges from estuaries, and run-off from the land
during southwest and northeast monsoons cause some algae blooms in coastal waters.

The Himalayan range is very rich in species diversity. Which
one among the following is the most appropriate reason for
this phenomenon ? [2011 - I]
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative
growth
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones.
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced
in this region.
(d) It has less human interference.
 Himalayas and its adjoining areas are marked as a confluence of several biogeographical realms. It has varity
of forest type and is rich in zoo-biogeographic region.
 Biogeographic classification of India is the division of India according to biogeographic characteristics.
 Biogeography is the study of the distribution of species (biology), organisms, and ecosystems in
geographic space and through geological time.
 There are ten biogeographic zones in India.
 Trans-Himalayan zone
 Himalayan zone
 Desert zone
 Semiarid zone
 Western ghat zone
 Deccan plateau zone
 Gangetic plain zone
 Northeast zone
 Coastal zone
 Islands
 The Himalayan range is a confluence of the Trans-Himalayan zone, Himalayan zone, and Northeast zone,
Which are part of the Biodiversity Hotspot as well.
 These zones have Tropical, Temperate and Tundra type of climate which makes it rich in biodiversity
of flora and fauna.

Three of the following criteria have contributed to the
recognition of Western Ghats, Sri Lanka and Indo Burma
regions as hotspots of biodiversity : [2011 - I]
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and humid
conditions
Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
 To qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 1,500 species of
vascular plants (> 0.5 percent of the world’s total) as endemics, and it has to have lost at least 70 percent of
its original habitat. So we choose Species richness as well as Endemism. Along with this Threat perception is
necessary to take , because it makes the base of this concept. Adaptation of flora is an arbitrary option,
Ethno-botanical importance does nothing with the Biodiversity Hotspot selection criteria, vegetation Density
is also discarded.
 Biodiversity hotspot :
o To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria :
 It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics — which is to say, it must have a high
percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is
irreplaceable. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
 It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. In other words, it must be
threatened. Hence statement 5 is correct.
o Around the world, 36 areas qualify as hotspots. They represent just 2.4% of Earth’s land surface, but
they support more than half of the world’s plant species as endemics — i.e., species found no place
else — and nearly 43% of bird, mammal, reptile and amphibian species as endemics.
o Conservation International was a pioneer in defining and promoting the concept of hotspots.
o In 1989, just one year after scientist Norman Myers wrote the paper that introduced the hotspots
concept, Conservation International adopted the idea of protecting these incredible places as the
guiding principle of our investments.
 BIODIVERSITY HOTSPOTS IN INDIA :
o Himalaya : Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal,
Bhutan, China and Myanmar)
o Indo-Burma : Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of Islands (and
Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and southern China)
o Sundalands : Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei,
Philippines)
o Western Ghats and Sri Lanka : Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka).
 Protected area
Two important rivers–one with its source in Jharkhand (and
known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its
source in Odisha–merge at a place only a short distance
from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea.
This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a
protected area. Which one of the following could be this ?
[2011 - I]
(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal
 The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a mangrove wetland in India's Orissa state. The Bhitarkanika Mangroves
cover an area of 650 km2 in the river delta of the Brahmani and Baitarani rivers.
Bhitarkanika National Park :
 Spread in a vast area of 672 Kms Bhitarkanika Indian Wildlife Sanctuary Orissa is the 2nd largest
Mangrove ecosystem of India.
 Proximity to the Bay of Bengal makes the soil of the area enriched with salts, the vegetation, and the
species of the sanctuary is comprised of those which are mainly found in the tropical and subtropical
intertidal regions.
 It is the breeding place for the endangered saltwater crocodiles which are the prime attractions of the
sanctuary.
 The Gahirmatha Beach which forms the boundary of the sanctuary in the east is the largest colony of
the Olive Ridley Sea Turtles.
 Once the hunting ground of the royal Raj Kanika family is now famous for its high concentration of
Mangrove trees.
 These trees are spread all over the forests and the wetlands and predominate the ecosystem of the
region.
 The 145 sq km area of the National park carved out of the core area of the sanctuary is the land for
impeccable biodiversities The sanctuary lies in the estuarial region of Brahmani-Baitrani with the Bay
of Bengal lying in the East; apart from this, the sanctuary has many rivers, streams, creeks,
accumulated land, backwater and mudflats making it a land of immense importance for its unique
flora and fauna.
 The sanctuary has 215 species of birds in which the most important are the eight varieties of kingfisher
and the migratory birds from Europe and Central Asia.
 Apart from this the sanctuary is the home for many reptiles, mammals and vertebrates which includes
the venomous Cobras and Indian Pythons, the endangered water monitor lizards, Chitals, Jungle cat,
Wild Pigs, Otter, Rhesus Monkeys, Sambar, Spotted Deer, Wild Boar and the Fishing Cat.
 The Asian Open Bill, Cormorants, Darters, Black Ibis, Egrets, open billed storks, sandpipers, sea eagles,
whistling teals, kites and seagulls are the frequently noticed avian of the sanctuary.

The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has
been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the
formation of this hole ? [2011 - I]
(a) Presence of prominent tropo-spheric turbulence; and
inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric
clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons.
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and
inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons.
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global
warming.
 The nitric acid in polar stratospheric clouds reacts with CFCs to form chlorine, which catalyzes the
photochemical destruction of ozone.
 The Earth's atmosphere is continuously stirred over the globe by winds.
 As a result, ozone-depleting gases get mixed throughout the atmosphere, including Antarctica, regardless of
where they are emitted.
 The special meteorological conditions in Antarctica cause these gases to be more effective there in depleting
ozone compared to anywhere else
 Human emissions of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons (bromine-containing gases) have occurred
mainly in the Northern Hemisphere.
 About 90% have been released in the latitudes corresponding to Europe, Russia, Japan, and North
America.
 Gases such as CFCs and halons, which are insoluble in water and relatively unreactive, are mixed within a
year or two throughout the lower atmosphere.
 polar Front:
 According to this theory, the warm-humid air masses from the tropics meet the dry-cold air masses
from the poles and thus a polar front is formed as a surface of discontinuity.
 Such conditions occur over sub-tropical high, sub-polar low-pressure belts and along the Tropopause.
 The CFCs and halons in this well-mixed air rise from the lower atmosphere into the stratosphere mainly in
tropical latitudes. Winds then move this air poleward both north and south from the tropics, so that air
throughout the global stratosphere contains nearly equal amounts of chlorine and bromine.
 In the Southern Hemisphere, the South Pole is part of a very large landmass (Antarctica) that is completely
surrounded by the ocean.
 Ecology
In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling
zones are important as they increase the marine productivity
by bringing the [2011 - I]
1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. nutrients to the surface.
3. bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
 Upwelling brings nutrient-rich water towards the ocean surface, replacing the warmer, usually nutrient-
depleted surface water. This is to do with the phytoplankton’s and nothing to do with the decomposer
microorganisms.
 Upwelling :
o The most productive waters of the world are in regions of upwelling.
o Upwelling in coastal waters brings nutrients toward the surface.
o Phytoplankton reproduces rapidly in these conditions, and grazing zooplankton also multiplies and
provides abundant food supplies for nekton.
o Some of the world’s richest fisheries are found in regions of upwelling—for example, the
temperate waters off Peru and California.
o If upwelling fails, the effects on animals that depend on it can be disastrous. Fisheries also suffer at
these times, as evidenced by the collapse of the Peruvian anchovy industry in the 1970s.
o The intensity and location of upwelling are influenced by changes in atmospheric circulation, as
exemplified by the influence of El Niño conditions.
o Organisms would remain where they are, no movement can be observed at the upwelling zone.
 Biological Productivity :
o Primary productivity is the rate at which energy is converted by photosynthetic and chemosynthetic
autotrophs to organic substances.
o The total amount of productivity in a region or system is gross primary productivity.
o A certain amount of organic material is used to sustain the life of producers; what remains is net
productivity. Net marine primary productivity is the amount of organic material available to support
the consumers (herbivores and carnivores) of the sea.
o The standing crop is the total biomass (weight) of vegetation.
o Most primary productivity is carried out by pelagic phytoplankton, not benthic plants.
o Most primary producers require nitrogen and phosphorus, which are available in the ocean as
nitrate, nitrite, ammonia, and phosphorus. The abundances of these molecules and the intensity
and quality of light exert a major influence on rates of production.
Human activities in the recent past have caused the
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower
atmosphere because of [2011 - I]
1. its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. the photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans.
3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
 Since CO2 is heavier than air, it sinks in ocean than moving up. Also, during winter, it is observed that CO2 is
trapped in ice caps.
 The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the oceans is natural carbon Sequestration.
 What is Carbon Sequestration?
o Carbon sequestration secures carbon dioxide to prevent it from entering the Earth’s atmosphere.
o The idea is to stabilize carbon in solid and dissolved forms so that it doesn’t cause the atmosphere to
warm.
o The process shows tremendous promise for reducing the human “carbon footprint.”
 The trapping of carbon dioxide by polar ice caps is not known. Also, carbon dioxide does not escape into the
stratosphere.
 Types of Carbon Sequestration :
o Biological carbon sequestration
 It is the storage of carbon dioxide in vegetation such as grasslands or forests, as well as
in soils and oceans.
 Oceans absorb roughly 25 percent of carbon dioxide emitted from human activities
annually. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
 About 25 percent of global carbon emissions are captured by plant-rich landscapes such as
forests, grasslands and rangelands.
 When leaves and branches fall off plants or when plants die, the carbon stored either releases
into the atmosphere or is transferred into the soil.
 Wildfires and human activities like deforestation can contribute to the diminishment of forests
as a carbon sink.
o Geological carbon sequestration
 It is the process of storing carbon dioxide in underground geologic formations or rocks.
 Typically, carbon dioxide is captured from an industrial source, such as steel or cement
production, or an energy-related source, such as a power plant or natural gas processing facility
and injected into porous rocks for long-term storage.
o Technological Carbon Sequestration
 Scientists are exploring new ways to remove and store carbon from the atmosphere using
innovative technologies.
 Researchers are also starting to look beyond the removal of carbon dioxide and are now looking
at more ways it can be used as a resource.
 Graphene production: The use of carbon dioxide as a raw material to produce graphene, a
technological material. Graphene is used to create screens for smartphones and other tech
devices. Graphene production is limited to specific industries but is an example of how carbon
dioxide can be used as a resource and a solution in reducing emissions from the atmosphere.
 Direct air capture (DAC): A means by which to capture carbon directly from the air using
advanced technology plants. However, this process is energy-intensive and expensive, ranging
from $500-$800 per ton of carbon removed. While techniques such as direct air capture can be
effective, they are still too costly to implement on a mass scale.
 Engineered molecules: Scientists are engineering molecules that can change shape by creating
new kinds of compounds capable of singling out and capturing carbon dioxide from the air. The
engineered molecules act as a filter, only attracting the element it was engineered to seek.

Regarding “carbon credits’’, which one of the following
statements is not correct ?
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction
with the Kyoto Protocol.
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that
have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission
quota.
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the
increase of carbon dioxide emission.
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from time to
time by the United Nations Environment Programme.
 Under the Kyoto Protocol, the 'caps' or quotas for Greenhouse gases for the developed Annex 1 countries
are known as Assigned Amounts and are listed in Annex B. The quantity of the initial assigned amount is
denominated in individual units, called Assigned amount units (AAUs), each of which represents an
allowance to emit one metric tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent, and these are entered into the country's
national registry.
 Carbon Credits:
o A carbon credit is a tradable permit or certificate that provides the holder of the credit the right to
emit one ton of carbon dioxide or an equivalent of another greenhouse gas – it’s essentially an offset
for producers of such gases.
o The main goal for the creation of carbon credits is the reduction of emissions of carbon dioxide and
other greenhouse gases from industrial activities to reduce the effects of global warming.
o Carbon credits are market mechanisms for the minimization of greenhouse gases emission.
o Governments or regulatory authorities set the caps on greenhouse gas emissions.
o For some companies, the immediate reduction of the emission is not economically viable. Therefore,
they can purchase carbon credits to comply with the emission cap. Companies that achieve the carbon
offsets (reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases) are usually rewarded with additional carbon
credits.
o The sale of credit surpluses may be used to subsidize future projects for the reduction of emissions.
o The introduction of such credits was ratified in the Kyoto Protocol.
o The Paris Agreement validates the application of carbon credits and sets the provisions for the further
facilitation of the carbon credits markets.
 Carbon credits can be traded on both private and public markets. Current rules of trading allow the
international transfer of credits.
 The prices of credits are primarily driven by the levels of supply and demand in the markets. Due to the
differences in the supply and demand in different countries, the prices of the credits fluctuate.

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human
Environment, Stockholm, 1972
(b) UN ‘Conference on Environment and Development,
Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development,
Johannesburg, 2002
(d) UN Climate’ Change Conference, Copenhagen, 2009
 The United Nations framework convention on climate change is an international treaty drawn at UN
conference on Environment and development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992.
 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC):
o The treaty was signed at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED),
also known as the Earth Summit.
o The Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in the year 1992.
o The Convention came into force on 21st March 1994.
o The Convention aims at combating climate change by controlling the emission of Greenhouse
gases that cause global warming.
o The Convention currently has 197 countries as its members and provisions of the treaty are not
binding on them, rather only provide directions to achieve the goals.
o The progress of the Convention is reviewed at the annual Conference of the Parties (COP).
o The latest Conference of the Parties (COP26) was to be held in Glasgow, Scotland in November
2020 but got postponed due to the covid-19 pandemic.
 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972:
o The conference dealt with the issues concerning the environment and sustainable development and
aimed at protecting human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants.
o The conference was successful in bringing out ideas on how governments could work together to
preserve the environment.
 World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002:
o The Summit held 10 years after the Rio de Janeiro Summit held in 1992, hence also denoted as
'Rio+10'.
o The Summit aimed at strengthening the role of health in sustainable development.
 UN Climate Change Conference Copenhagen, 2009:
o The COP 15 to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the 5th
Meeting of the Parties (MOP 5) to the Kyoto Protocol were included in the UN Climate Change
Conference Copenhagen, 2009.
o The conference emphasized building infrastructure required for effective global climate change
cooperation; and produced the Copenhagen Accord.

Consider the following which can be found in the ambient
atmosphere :
1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the
atmosphere?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 Ambient temperature simply means "the temperature of the surroundings" and will be the same as room
temperature. Indoor the common range is 20°C (68°F) to 27°C (80 °F). Similarly, ambient pressure on an
object is the pressure of the surrounding medium, such as a gas or liquid, which comes into contact with the
object. The soot, sulphur hexaflouride, and water vapour all three can be found at ambient atmosphere
which corresponds to ambient temperature and pressure, and subsequently warming up of atmosphere.
 Soot, Sulphur Hexafluoride, and water vapour are present in the atmosphere and contribute to
the warming up of the atmosphere.
 The atmosphere is having a blanket of gases around the earth.
 Soot - It is the impure carbon particles resulting from the incomplete combustion of a hydrocarbon.
o It is black in colour and can be seen sticking on exhaust pipes and chimneys where the combustion
happens.
o It is responsible for causing lung diseases and cancer.
o The main source of air pollution is the formation of soot which in turn results in the warming of the
atmosphere.
 Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) - It is a gas whose molecules consist of six fluorine atoms and one sulfur atom.
o It is colorless, odorless, non-toxic, and non-flammable, and is soluble in water and few other liquids.
o It is considered the world's worst greenhouse gas and is the strongest greenhouse gas.
o It is 23500 times more powerful than carbon dioxide and causes a greater threat towards global
warming.
 Water vapor - It is also one of the most important greenhouse gases which are available in the atmosphere.
o The atmosphere is having about 37.5 million billion gallons of water vapour.
o The higher concentration of water vapor leads to more absorption of the thermal infrared rays
radiated from the Earth thus warming the atmosphere.
o It is also known that a warmer atmosphere can hold more water vapor and this process goes on.

What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the
global warming at present and in the immediate future?
1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently
available.
2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and
development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their
polluting industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 Global warming is the increase in the average temperature of Earth's near-surface air and oceans by
increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases, which result from human activity such as the burning of
fossil fuel and deforestation. Climate change mitigation is action to decrease the potential effects of global
warming. At a time rate of mitigation is less in India because appropriate technologies are limited and costly.
Moreover India don't have huge funds required for research and development in that area.
 Limitations of India in mitigating Global Warming:-
o The developing and underdeveloped countries are not well equipped with the technologies, thus
appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available in these countries to mitigate climate
change-related issues. India is a developing country that is partially or fully dependent upon
developed countries on technology.
o In developing nations the major portion of the annual budget goes into development and poverty
reduction programs, hence, there is a paucity of funds for research and development of alternate
technology as compared to developed countries.
 Now let us take now take a look at the statements given in the questions:
o Statements 1 and 2 are correct as evident from the points mentioned above.
o Statement 3 is incorrect because developed countries can not set up their polluting industries in
India.
o This is so because the setting up of industries is regulated in India hence, it is not possible to set up
polluting industries.
 In the past few decades, we have observed an increase in the overall temperature prevailing on the Earth.
This phenomenon of gradual increase in the temperature near the surface of Earth is referred to as Global
Warming.
 It has become a hot topic for scientists around the globe as it has many negative effects on the
environment, some of them are listed below:
o The melting of glaciers, which can result in the submergence of cities near oceans.
o Irregularity in the weather patterns, eg: rise in droughts, etc.
o It has an effect on agriculture as well, as the weather patterns influence the crop yield.
o It affects the global food chain, also leading to the extinction of various animal species.

India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared
many areas as Ramsar sites. Which of the following
statements best describes as to how we should maintain
these sites in the context of this convention?
(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so
that they will not be exploited.
(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach
and permit tourism and recreation only.
(c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach
for a period without any exploitation, with specific
criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow
sustainable use of them by future generations.
(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach
and allow their simultaneous sustainable use.
 Ramsar convention describes to conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their
simultaneous sustainable use.
The correct answer is to Conserve all the sites through an ecosystem approach for a period without any
exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of them
by future generations.
 Ramsar Convention:
o The international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands is known
as Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.
o The Convention derived its name from the Iranian city Ramsar, where it was signed in the
year 1971.
o The mission, as stated by the Convention, is - 'the conservation and wise use of all wetlands
through local and national actions and international cooperation, as a contribution towards
achieving sustainable development throughout the world'.
o As per the Convention, the wetlands include - all lakes and rivers, underground aquifers,
swamps and marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas, and tidal flats,
mangroves and other coastal areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds,
rice paddies, reservoirs, and salt pans.
o Wetlands provide various benefits or “ecosystem services” ranging from freshwater supply,
food and building materials, and biodiversity, to flood control, groundwater recharge, and
climate change mitigation.
o The Convention works on the 'wise use' philosophy. The Convention defines wise use of
wetlands as 'the maintenance of their ecological character, achieved through the
implementation of ecosystem approaches, within the context of sustainable development.
o The parties to the Convention act under the following three pillars:
 work towards the wise use of all their wetlands;
 designate suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands of International Importance (the
“Ramsar List”) and ensure their effective management;
 cooperate internationally on transboundary wetlands, shared wetland systems, and
shared species.
 Currently, there are over 2,400 Ramsar sites around the globe.
 There are presently 46 wetlands in India and recently in February 2021 India’s first Centre for Wetland
Conservation and Management has been set up in Chennai.

As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic
Society and an international polling firm Globe Scan gave
India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is this score?
(a) It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in
adopting technologies for reducing carbon footprint.
(b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable
consumer behaviour in different countries.
(c) It is an assessment of programmes/ schemes
undertaken by different countries for improving the
conservation of natural resources.
(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits
sold by different countries.
 In the third annual survery of National Geographic Society and Globe Scan, Indian top ranked in Greendex
2009 due to environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour.
 Greendex Globescan
o GlobeScan annually tracks global public opinion on a range of issues.
o Annual surveys include over 20,000 interviews across 20+ countries on six continents, using face-to-
face or telephone interviews with samples of 1,000 citizens per country.
o GlobeScan had relevant survey data available for 18 of National Geographic’s initial list of 22
potential target countries.
o GlobeScan applied a quantitative approach to this body of research to classify countries according to
like behaviors and attitudes, in order to help
National Geographic to select countries for inclusion in the Greendex.
 India came in first, pulling in a Greendex score of 61.4.
 In particular, the country received high marks for its housing, transportation, and food choices.
 China was the second-most sustainable according to the index, though its overall score dropped between
2013 and 2014, with a large portion of that decrease being attributable to transportation choices.
 On the other end of the list are the United States and Canada.
 The US was given a score of 44.6, and its consumer choices in most areas, including goods, food, housing,
and transportation.
 Canada came in second-last, though consumers purchased significantly more sustainable food products in
2014.
 The country’s main downfall was its declining score in the area of housing.
 Ecology
A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed
on a food crop. The food chain is : Food crop – Rat – Snake
– Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the
pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following ?
[2010]
(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
 Biomagnification is the phenomenon of increasing concentration of compound in the tissue of organism, as
the compound passes up a food chain, usually as a result of food intake. In this case, the concentration of
compound will increase with increasing the tropic level. Biomagnifying pollutants which increases in
concentration from producers ® Primary consumers ® Secondary consumers ® Tertiary consumers ® Top
consumer. Hawk is the top consumer, so the pesticide concentration will be highest in Hawk.
 Biomagnification refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to
another.
 The toxic compound passes up a food chain, usually as a result of food intake.
 In this case, the concentration of the compound will increase with increasing the tropic level.
 Biomagnifying pollutants which increase in concentration from producers → Primary consumers →
Secondary consumers →Tertiary consumers → Top consumer.
 Hawk is the top consumer, so the pesticide concentration will be highest in Hawk.
 The causes of Biomagnification are as follows:-
o Pesticides, insecticides, fertilizers, and fungicides added to the soil during agriculture activity. The
toxins released by them are further moved to rivers, lakes, and seas due to rain.
o The industries and factories release toxic substances that are released into the soil, lakes, oceans, and
rivers.
o The mining process generates a large amount of selenium and sulfide, which deposits in water and
destroys the oceans and coastal regions.
 Biomagnification has a serious health issue in all organisms.
o In humans, it leads to cancer, kidney problems, liver failure, birth defects, respiratory disorders, and
heart diseases.
o Cyanide that is used in leaching gold and fishing is the main cause of the destruction of coral reefs.
o In many aquatic organisms, it affects their reproduction and development processes.
o It also disrupts the food chain.
 Food chain
o Food chain, in ecology, the sequence of transfers of matter and energy in the form of food from
organism to organism.
o Food chains intertwine locally into a food web because most organisms consume more than one type
of animal or plant.
o Plants, which convert solar energy to food by photosynthesis, are the primary food source.
 Protected area
Consider the following statements : [2010]
1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by
legislation.
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few
specific species of flora and fauna.
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is
permitted.
Which of the statements given above is / correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 The fix boundary of national park is described in Wild Life Protection Act, 1972 and the actual area of the
national park is notified by state government.
 A biosphere reserve conserves an ecosystem and not just few specific species of plants and animals.
 The fixed boundary of a National Park is described in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
 The legislation states the actual area of the National Park which is notified by the state government. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
 A biosphere reserve conserves an ecosystem and not just few specific species of plants and animals. Hence,
statement 2 is Not correct
 The difference between a Sanctuary and a National Park mainly lies in the vesting of rights of people living
inside. Unlike a Sanctuary, where certain rights can be allowed, in a National Park, no rights are
allowed. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 A National park is an area with enough ecological, geo-morphological, and natural significance with rich
fauna and flora.
o It is designed to protect and develop wildlife or its environment.
o National parks in India are IUCN category II protected areas.
o Activities like grazing, hunting, forestry or cultivation, etc. are strictly prohibited.
o No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the ones permitted by the Chief
Wildlife Warden of the state.
o India’s first national park was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park, now known as Jim Corbett
National Park, Uttarakhand.
o There are 104 existing national parks in India covering an area of 40501.13 km2, which is 1.23% of
the geographical area of the country (National Wildlife Database, May 2019).
 Wildlife Sanctuary:-
o Any area other than area comprised with any reserve forest or the territorial waters can be notified by
the State Government to constitute as a sanctuary if such area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral,
geomorphological, natural. or zoological significance, for the purpose of protecting, propagating or
developing wildlife or its environment.
o The difference between a Sanctuary and a National Park mainly lies in the vesting of rights of people
living inside.
o Unlike a Sanctuary, where certain rights can be allowed, in a National Park, no rights are allowed.
o No grazing of any livestock is permitted inside a National Park while in a Sanctuary, the Chief Wildlife
Warden may regulate, control or prohibit it.
o There are a total of 551 wildlife sanctuaries in India.
 Biosphere reserves:-
o Biosphere reserves are the protected areas meant for the conservation of flora and fauna.
o The Biosphere Reserves are identified by the Man and Biosphere Reserve Program of UNSECO
started in 1971 to promote sustainable development.
o There are 18 Biosphere Reserves in India out of which 12 are a part of the World Network of
Biosphere Reserves, based on the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme list.
 Protected area
1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical
regions.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern
Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Biodiversity hot spots are not confined to tropical regions and Indian hotspots are present in eastern
Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman Islands.
 A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened by
human habitation.
 Initially, 25 biodiversity hotspots were identified but subsequently, eleven more have been added to the list,
bringing the total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world to 36.
 These hotspots are also regions of accelerated habitat loss.
 Although all the biodiversity hotspots put together cover less than 2% of the earth’s land area, the number
of species they collectively harbor is extremely high, and strict protection of these hotspots could reduce the
ongoing mass extinctions by almost 30 percent.
 A region to get the status of a biodiversity hotspot has to have the following two criteria
 Endemism:- At Least 1,500 species of its vascular plants must not be found anywhere else on the Earth.
o Such unique species of plants are known as endemic plants or native to that particular region or place.
o These plants are almost impossible to replace if lost completely.
 Habitat Loss:- If around 70% of the native plantation of the region is lost, then it is deemed to be a
Biodiversity Hotspot.
 Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high species richness and a high degree of endemism. They are not
restricted to only tropical regions.
 Biodiversity Hotspots in India:-
o Himalaya:-
 Includes the entire Indian Himalayan region (and that falling in Pakistan, Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan,
China, and Myanmar).
o Indo-Burma:-
 Includes entire North-eastern India, except Assam and Andaman group of Islands (and
Myanmar, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, and southern China)
o Sundalands:-
 Includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines).
o The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka:-
 Includes entire Western Ghats (and Sri Lanka).
 Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’ hotspots and in 1996 and announces the biodiversity
hotspots worldwide.
 The 35 biodiversity hotspots are discovered now, they cover 2.3% of the Earth’s land surface, yet more than
50% of the world’s plant species and 42% of all terrestrial vertebrate species are endemic to these areas.
 To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria-
o It must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics — which is to say, it must have a high
percentage of plant life found nowhere else on the planet. A hotspot, in other words, is irreplaceable.
o It must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation. In other words, it must be threatened.
 Biodiversity / Flora & fauna + Protected area

Consider the following pairs : [2010]
Protected area Well-known for
1. Bhiterkanika, Orissa — Salt Water Crocodile
2. Desert National Park, — Great Indian Bustard
Rajasthan
3. Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 Bhiterkanika, Orissa is a protected area for salt water crocodile, where breeding is the main purpose of that
protected area.
 Great Indian Bustard is protected in desert area of Rajasthan.
 The Eravikulam National Park was established to
protect the Nilgiri tahir (wild goat) species.
 Bhitarkanika National Park:
 This is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha.
 The national park obtained the status of Ramsar site on 19 August 2002.
 The national park is known for Salt Water Crocodile (Crocodylus porous), Indian Python, King Cobra,
Balck Ibis, etc.
 The national park contains the largest populations of endangered Saltwater crocodiles in India.
 The crocodiles found here are unique in the fact that 10% of the adults exceed 6 m in length.
 Desert National Park:
 The national park is located in the Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan.
 The sanctuary was declared a national park in 1980.
 The national park is well known for the magnificent bird Great Indian Bustard that migrates locally in
different seasons.
 The national park is the only place where these species are found naturally - Rajasthan State
Bird (Great Indian Bustard), State animal (Camel) and State tree (Khejri), and State flower (Rohida).
 Eravikulam National Park:
 It is the first national park of Kerala and located in the Idukki and Ernakulam districts of Kerala.
 The sanctuary got the status of a national park in the year 1978.
 The main fauna species found in the national park are - Niligiri tahr, Nilgiri marten, Nilgiri langur,
stripe-necked mongoose, red disk bush brown, etc.
 Hoolock Gibbon:
 This ape is found in the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary near Kaziranga in Assam.

Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be
contributing to global warming. To what possible reason/
reasons is this attributable ? [2010]
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice
cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide
is emitted from the cultivated soil.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
 Methane and nitrous oxide are the two green house gases emitted from rice field. In rice field, flooding cuts
off the oxygen supply from atmosphere resulting in anaerobic condition which emits methane and nitrogen
fertilizer which generally used in rice field for high production, emits nitrous oxide by reacting with
atmospheric oxygen.
 Rice cultivation - Global warming:
o Studies reveal that Rice fields are one of the most important sources of methane emission.
o Since water saturation of soil limits the transport of oxygen into the soil, anaerobic conditions occur
in wetland rice fields as a result of soil submergence.
o The microorganisms undergo a redox reaction in these anaerobic conditions that leads
to methanogenesis (the process of methane formation). Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Under anaerobic conditions, methanogens produce methane from either of the following two
methods:
 the reduction of carbon dioxide with hydrogen
 from the fermentation of acetate to methane and carbon dioxide.
o Nitrogen-based fertilizers, which are used to increase the yield, cause the microbes present in the soil
to convert nitrogen into a nitrous oxide which is a major greenhouse gas. Hence statement 2 is correct
o Methane and nitrous oxide are the two greenhouse gases emitted from the rice fields.
o When methane and nitrous oxide emissions were observed and compared with rice yield and physical
changes of rice plants, it was found that drainage during the flowering period could reduce methane
emission. It was also observed that nitrous oxide emission was related to the number of drain days
rather than the frequency of draining. Fewer drain days can help reduce nitrous oxide emissions.
 Methane gas:
o It is a colourless, odourless gas and is among the most potent greenhouse gases.
o Its chemical formula is CH4 and is the simplest alkane.
 Nitrous oxide gas:
o It is a colourless, non-inflammable gas, commonly known as 'laughing gas'.
o Its chemical formula is N2O and is the third most important greenhouse gas causing global warming.

The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of
the following?
(a) Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro
(b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) G-8 Summit, Heiligendamm
 The Kyoto Protocol invented the concept of carbon emissions trading, whereby carbon credits were a
"flexibility mechanism". Under this flexibility mechanism Annex 1 (developed countries) could use the
carbon credits to meet their emission reduction commitments. A carbon credit is a generic term for any
tradable certificate or permit representing the right to emit one tonne of carbon dioxide or the mass of
another greenhouse gas with a carbon dioxide (tCO2e) equivalent to one tonne of carbon dioxide.
 Kyoto Protocol(1992) introduced the concept of carbon credits as per which a country gets credits to reduce
carbon emissions in the atmosphere.
 It was signed in 1997 in Kyoto, Japan.
 A carbon credit is a certificate that allows its holder to emit greenhouse gases.
 One carbon credit is equal to one tonne of carbon dioxide.
 Biodiversity / Climate change

Consider the following statements: [2008]
1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands.
2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the
Malabar region.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 In India salt water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, it can grow up to 6-7 mt long
existing from Srilanka to Papua New Guinea, North Australia and Soloman Islands.
 Shrew and tapir are found in the great Himalayan range.

Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Development
(Rio+10) held?
(a) Davos
(b) Nova Scotia
(c) Johannesburg
(d) Shanghai
 The United Nations World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio+10) took place in Johannesburg (South
Africa). It was conducted between 26 August and 4 September 2002.

1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of
carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol
Mechanisms.
2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to
the Annex-I countries.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is one of the Flexible Mechanisms defined in the Kyoto Protocol
(IPCC, 2007) that provides for emissions reduction projects which generate Certified Emission Reduction
units which may be traded in emissions trading schemes. The CDM is defined in Article 12 of the Protocol
and is intended to meet two objectives: (1) to assist parties not included in Annex I in achieving sustainable
development and in contributing to the ultimate objective of the United Nations.
 Framework Convention on Climate Change(UNFCCC), which is to prevent dangerous climate change; and (2)
to assist parties included in Annex I in achieving compliance with their quantified emission limitation and
reduction commitments (greenhouse gas (GHG) emission caps).

1. Kyoto protocol came into force in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto protocol deals primarily with the depletion of
the ozone layer.
3. Methane as a green house gas is more harmful than
carbon dioxide.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
 The protocol was initially adopted on 11th December 1997. But it entered into force on 16th February 2005,
after Kyoto, Japan. So, it is called Kyoto protocol. Kyoto protocol deals with reducing the green house gases
emission to a level at least 5% below 1990 level. Methane is more effective or harmful green house gas than
carbon dioxide.

Consider the following animals of India:
1. Crocodile
2. Elephant
Which of these is/are endangered species?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 Only crocodile is kept in the Red book or endangered species list.
 All crocodiles are tropical species that, unlike alligators, are very sensitive to cold. They separated from
other crocodilians during the Eocene epoch, about 55 million years ago. Many species are at the risk of
extinction, some being classified as critically endangered.
 Ecology
Within biological communities, some species are important
in determining the ability of a large number of other species
to persist in the community. Such species are called [2000]
(a) Keystone species
(b) Allopatric species
(c) Sympatric species
(d) Threatened species
 A keystone species is a species that play a critical role in maintaining the structure of an ecological
community and whose impact in the community is greater than would be expected based on its relative
abundance or total biomass.
 Act
Consider the following programmes: [1996]
1. Afforestation and development of wastelands
2. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests
3. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying
other types of fuel
4. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides
to restrict the loss of forest area from degradation
caused by pests and insects.
The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
 National Forest Policy, 1988 describes the protection of forest and development of forest. It does not
describe the use of insecticide and pesticide in forest areas.

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 Pollution / Global warming

 Pollution / climate change

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 Biodiversity / Flora & fauna

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 Pollution / Climate change

 Pollution / Climate change

 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna

 Act / Law/ Bodies/ Org

 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna

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 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna

 Pollution / Climate change

 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna

 Pollution / Climate change

 Pollution / Climate change

 Biodiversity / Flora & Fauna

 Organisation / Law / Submit

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