HSSC JE Electrical in English (July)

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HSSC JE Electrical
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HSSC JE Electrical Exam - English
Paper Questions
Question 1 Something similar to dialog box that appears with information, warning an error
: message or request for confirmation to execute a command (as delete)
(A) window
(B) pop up
(C) message box
(D) any of the above
Correct Answer: B
Question 2
What is active desktop ?
:
(A) a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
(B) a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from
the internet
(C) both a and b above mentioned
(D) A software
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 3
Active window means
:
(A) the active window is designated by a different color toolbar than other open
windows
(B) the window that is currently open
(C) both a and b above mentioned
(D) the window that is last used
(E) none of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 4
America online (AOL)
:
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(A) it displays the proprietary information created by AOL

(B) the proprietary information includes news, financial planning, homework for
students, chat, lines etc.
(C) is widely used online service offering access service to the internet
(D) All of the above are true
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 5
An application is
:
(A) word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of
application programs
(B) computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
(C) Both a and b above mentioned
(D) a document
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 6 Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to
: rows and columns?
(A) Window program
(B) Spreadsheet program
(C) Graphics program
(D) Word program
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 7
The term Briefcase is used for
:
(A) a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date
when shared between computers
(B) a window that us currently open
(C) A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
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Question 8
A button is
:
(A) a command that activates the option
(B) like a one on a household appliance and precipitates an action
(C) a graphical representation of an option
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 9
A channel (in windows terminology) is
:
(A) a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
(B) a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing
feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on
your computer for later viewing
(C) an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily
stored
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 10
A check box
:
(A) with a check mark in it indicates the option is enabled
(B) is required to present options requiring individual on/off decisions in dialog
box
(C) appears as a small square ballot box beside an option description
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 11
The term classic style implies
:
(A) you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
(B) a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
(C) both a and b
(D) font style
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(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 12
The term click implies
:
(A) to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse
pointer is positioned over the desired item
(B) a button in a dialog box
(C) to shut down or exit a dialog box
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 13
Close button
:
(A) when clicked will close the dialog box, document or program displayed in the
window
(B) is located at the right end of the title bar of most windows
(C) implies for the small button with an X on it
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 14
A command button
:
(A) is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out
a command
(B) is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will
be inserted or deleted
(C) is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
(D) is a small button with an X on it
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 15
What is smallest unit of the information?
:
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(A) A bit
(B) A byte
(C) A block
(D) A nibble
Correct Answer: A
Question 16
A cursor is
:
(A) to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on
the clipboard
(B) a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be
inserted or deleted
(C) pressing and holding the main mouse button
(D) A button in a dialog box
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 17
DBMS is
:
(A) Collection of data
(B) Set of programs to access those data
(C) Set of programs to update those data
(E) None of the above
Correct Answer: D
Question 18
The meaning of cut is
:
(A) to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
(B) to cut a document in two unequal parts
(C) to cut a document in two equal parts
(D) Only b and c are correct
Correct Answer: A
Question 19 A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user
: is called as
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(A) pre - determined setting

(B) user - setting
(C) default
(D) setting
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 20 The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and
: manage files and programs is
(A) wall paper
(B) desktop
(C) background
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 21
A dialog box is a one
:
(A) which is a sort of on-screen from where you can fill in the blanks, make
selection from lists and chose various combinations of options and setting
(B) in which you can connect to another internet user and establish a audio and
video contact using Microsoft word
(C) in which you can give verbal command to Microsoft word menu
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: E
Question 22 A letter, memo, proposal, or other that is created using Microsoft word is
: called as
(A) Master
(B) slide
(C) document
(D) worksheet
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
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Question 23
The meaning of double click is
:
(A) pushing and releasing the main mouse button twice in rapid succession when
the on - tree mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
(B) appearance of an icon
(C) to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 24
The term drag and drop means
:
(A) appearance of an icon
(B) used for selecting text
(C) to move text or an object by positioning the mouse pointer on the item you
want to move, pressing and holding the mouse button to drop the object into
its new location
(D) to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 25
The term drag implies
:
(A) pressing and holding the main mouse button while moving the mouse, then
releasing the mouse button when pointer reaches the desired destination
(B) to leave a program
(C) moving on screen items and selecting text
(D) all of the above
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 26
A drop - down list box
:
(A) displays a single selected item, but clicking on the little arrow button at the
right end of the box causes a list to appear
(B) can be scrolled through list and selection of item can be done by clicking on it
(C) is a compact way to present a list of options in a dialog box
(D) All of these
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(E) No
Correct Answer: D
Question 27 The default name for a desktop icon that opens an explore window displaying
: information about your system’s disk drives and also special system folders
like printers and control panel
(A) my computer
(B) news groups
(C) message box
(D) network neighbourhood
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 28 ________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it

: will full entire desktop
(A) maximize
(B) zoom
(C) enlarge
(D) extend
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 29
What is HTML
:
(A) it is developed for world wide web
(B) used for all the formatted documents
(C) to make formatted web documents with links, those can be viewd in web
browser
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 30 Reversing the video of the image or text block by selection through a menu
: item or directly through mouse is called as
(A) shaded
(B) hypertext link
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(C) highlight
(D) reverse
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 31
What is an icon
:
(A) it is some action performed when some thing like menu or button is clicked
(B) it is small graphical image which is used to represented an application
command, or a tool
(C) both a and b
(D) a folder
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 32
What is an ellipse
:
(A) it is a marked menu item or command button used to open a dialog box
(B) it is a punctuation mark consists of three consecutive periods
(C) both a and b
(D) A curve
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 33 _____________ is an area of memory assigned to store any e-mail message

: for the user
(A) Outlook express
(B) yahoo.com
(C) post- box
(D) mail box
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 34
Group of letters, numbers, and symbols with a common typerface is called as
:
(A) file
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(B) font
(C) style
(D) GUI
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 35
A___ is an electronic device that process data converting into information.
:
(A) processor
(B) computer
(C) menu
(D) mouse
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 36
This is the process of getting access to the computer
:
(A) sign in
(B) log in
(C) log off
(D) enter
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 37
The full step wise process of closing a computer is called
:
(A) shutting
(B) closing
(C) log off
(D) shut down
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 38 A connection from one HTML documents to another HTML document is

: called
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(A) hyper link

(B) connecting link
(C) icon
(D) all of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 39 This device is used to connect your computer with a telephone line, so that can
: access information form other servers and ordinary users too, said device is
called
(A) modem
(B) set top box
(C) LAN card
(D) UPS
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 40 This is an internet forum to discuss wide range of topics like current news,
: articles and current affairs, etc.
(A) chatting
(B) E - discounts
(C) E - Learning
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 41
What are the components of the Central Processing Unit?
:
(A) Control Unit
(B) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(C) Memory
Correct Answer: D
Question 42 Hardware that are easily attached to computer and can be played instantly are
: called as
(A) multimedia
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(B) plug and play

(C) digital
(D) point to point
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 43 There is a central file in windows OS that is used to keep track of information
: about installed hardware and software and their preferences on the specific
computer. This file is
(A) system database
(B) main menu
(C) registry
(D) directory
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 44
It is the smallest dot that can be uniquely drawn on a computer screen.This is
:
(A) Boxel
(B) Computer dort
(C) Cursor
(D) Pixel
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 45 A picture, map or graphic or image that can be used in a document is known
: as
(A) clip
(B) object
(C) clip board
(D) drag drop
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 46 A quick push of the secondary mouse button while the mouse pointer is on the
: desired object, is called
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(A) right click

(B) mouse click
(C) selection
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 47 An operation to retrieve information image as well as text which is stored in

: clip board and inset it at the destined place is
(A) copy
(B) insert
(C) select
(D) paste
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 48
Display bar that list all the open folders and active application is
:
(A) menu bar
(B) tool bar
(C) task bar
(D) window list
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 49 A large space common in most of the windows which is for user’s work with
: that application is
(A) application view
(B) work area
(C) project view
(D) tool bars
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
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Question 50
__________- is the list of print jobs waiting to be sent to a particular printer
:
(A) print list
(B) job queue
(C) print requests
(D) print queue
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 51 A photograph, image or any other visual file which is displayed at the back
: ground of the windows main icon screen, is called as
(A) wall paper
(B) screen saver
(C) window theme
(D) active desktop
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 52 ___________--- is a process of sending documents to a storage where they are

: temporarily stored and remain there until printer them
(A) printing
(B) queuing
(C) waiting queue
(D) print spooling
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 53
This is a set of buttons found before options in a dialog box. It is
:
(A) Radio buttons
(B) Check boxes
(C) Button group
(D) Selection panel
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
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Question 54 An interactive tool provided with windows OS to assist user in installation of

: software and also in using different features of applications, it is called as
(A) demo
(B) wizards
(C) help
(D) undo
(E) None of theses
Correct Answer: B
Question 55
A multi purpose window which opens nearly for everything is
:
(A) main desktop
(B) explorer window
(C) browser window
(D) error window
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 56 The feature to customize your desktop to display information that you can
: update from the internet is
(A) active desktop
(B) online desktop
(C) e-mail
(D) resource sharing
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 57 Exchange of text message and computer files over network either local
: network as LAN or over internet as WAN is called as
(A) chatting
(B) FTP
(C) e-mail
(D) Download
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: E
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Question 58
Computer “Virus” is
:
(A) a hardware
(B) windows tool
(C) a computer program
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 59
4 GL is a
:
(A) structural language
(B) non procedural language
(C) procedural language
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 60
What is “write” IT IS A
:
(A) Text editor
(B) word processor
(C) line editor
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 61
Which among them is not an application software
:
(A) MS word
(B) MS excel
(C) Adobe Acrobat
(D) Turbo C compiler
(E) None of these
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Correct Answer: D
Question 62
One among the following sentences is incorrect. Which is that
:
(A) area above 1 MB is called extended memory
(B) all programs system always loaded in high memory
(C) operating system always loaded in high memory
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 63
What is an operating system
:
(A) it is an interface between user and the computer
(B) it manages all resources
(C) it does all process management tasks
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 64
Which is the most important part of an operating system
:
(A) shell
(B) kernel
(C) device drivers
(D) extra services
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 65
Windows can’t be started in one these modes, which is that
:
(A) normal mode
(B) safe mode
(C) actual mode
(D) enhanced mode
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(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 66
Which file contains default.pif file
:
(A) windows directory
(B) root directory
(C) dos directory
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 67
Windows stores all systems setting in this file
:
(A) MAIN.INI
(B) SYSTEM.INI
(C) SETTING.INI
(D) COMMAND.INI
(E) WIN.INI
Correct Answer: E
Question 68
Factor making windows popular is
:
(A) Multi tasking capacity
(B) desktop features
(C) user friendly GUI features
(D) being inexpensive
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 69 A series of specially designed documents, which are all linked to be viewed on
: internet is called
(A) world Wide Web
(B) Web Server
(C) Search Engine
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(D) Both b and c

(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 70 Which utility other than wizard asks a lot of questions while creating
: document for user, is
(A) wizard2
(B) template
(C) help
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 71
DTP packages cannot do this
:
(A) graphics/ pictures related utility
(B) internet connectivity
(C) word processing
(D) provide print quality
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 72
All real time system are on line
:
(A) always
(B) sometimes
(C) never
(D) application specific
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 73
All application files in a group should reside in
:
(A) one directory
(B) at the max two subdirectories (when both of these are in one parent directory)
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(C) in one package

(D) Can be any where
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 74 All windows application have to be executed in windows or in DOS mode

: only
(A) always
(B) never
(C) it depends on application (i.e. will run in the environment in which it was
built)
(D) can’t say
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 75
Minimize window, what it will do
:
(A) close the window
(B) make it an icon and store on task bar
(C) close window after saving its contents
(D) shut down the computer
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 76 A connection from the current document to another document or to a

: document on the world wide web
(A) HTML
(B) Icon
(C) Internet
(D) Hypertext link
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 77
The term access time means
:
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(A) a register or storage location that forms the result of an arithmetic or logic
operation
(B) the elapsed time between the instant when data are called for from a storage
device and the instant when the delivery operation is completed
(C) to locate the desired data
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 78
ADA
:
(A) is a high level programming language development by the development of
defense
(B) is automatic data defense
(C) is association of data processing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 79 A set of well defined steps for solving a problem in finite number of
: operations
(A) Ada
(B) ALGOL
(C) Algorithm
(D) Accumulator
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 80
ANSI
:
(A) is American national standards institution
(B) is an organization that develops and approves standards un many fields
(C) both a and b above are correct
(D) an software
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
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Question 81 A mathematically oriented high level language frequently used in time

: sharing
(A) ASCII
(B) ANSI
(C) ADA
(D) APL
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 82
Software designed for a specific purpose is called as
:
(A) specific program
(B) application program
(C) system program
(D) assembly program
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 83 A computer science branch that is involved in using computers to solve that
: appear to require human imagination or intelligence is called as
(A) analog
(B) ASCII
(C) AI
(D) Analog
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 84 A standard code used to exchange information among data processing and
: communication systems
(A) ACM
(B) ASCII
(C) APL
(D) ANSI
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
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Question 85
Assembly language
:
(A) lies between high level languages and machine language
(B) is means of communicating with a computer at a low level
(C) both a and b
(D) high level language
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 86 A technique in which a number of similar items or transactions to be processed

: are grouped and processed in a designated sequences during a machine run
(A) real time processing
(B) online processing
(C) batch processing
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 87
A unit of measuring data transmission speed is called as
:
(A) cache
(B) broad band channels
(C) byte
(D) baud
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 88 A storage device used to compensate for the differences in rates of flow of
: data form one device to another is
(A) buffer
(B) channel
(C) call
(D) chip
(E) None of these
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Correct Answer: A
Question 89 The component of computer system with the circuitry to control interpretation
: and execution of instructions
(A) Memory
(B) Control
(C) ALU
(D) CPU
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 90
A channel is
:
(A) a track on magnetic tape or a band on magnetic drum
(B) a path for carrying signals between source and destination
(C) both a and b above are correct
(D) TV channel
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 91 A thin wafer of silicon on which integrated electronic components are

: deposited
(A) chip
(B) CRT
(C) bit
(D) Bus
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 92 A device that generates the periodic signals to control the timing of all CPU
: operations
(A) COM
(B) Collate
(C) Chip
(D) Clock
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(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 93
A high level language developed for business data processing applications
:
(A) BASIC
(B) PASCAL
(C) COBOL
(D) FORTRAN
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 94 A computer program that produces a machine language program from a source
: program that’s usually written in a high level language by a programmer
(A) concentrator
(B) compiler
(C) BASIC
(D) interpreter
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 95
A processing complex consisting of two or more inter connected computers
:
(A) computer network
(B) control program
(C) cybernetics
(D) CAI
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 96 The comprehensive software system that builds, maintains and provides access
: to a database
(A) CPU
(B) DASD
(C) CAI
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(D) DBMS
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 97 To detect, locate and remove errors in programs and / or malfunctions in

: equipments is
(A) Compile
(B) DEBUG
(C) Interpret
(D) DSS
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 98
Expert system is software that includes
:
(A) products of research in the field of artificial intelligence
(B) a stored base of knowledge in specialized areas
(C) the capability to probe this knowledge base and make decision
recommendations
(D) All of the above mentioned
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 99 A type of processing in which a device can act on information almost instantly
: to keep up with the events occurring in the outside world ?
(A) Off - line processing
(B) Batch processing
(C) On - line processing
(D) Real time processing
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 100
A program written in high level language is a
:
(A) compiled program
(B) source program
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(C) object program

(D) all of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 101
Which of the following is the most powerful type of computer
:
(A) super computer
(B) micro computer
(C) main frame computer
(D) mini computer
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 102
Router is a networking equipment used for
:
(A) routing e-mails
(B) routing IP datagrams
(C) maintaining telephonic connections
(D) fiber optics links
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 103 Testing of source program for testing correctness of the format of the
: instruction is performed in
(A) design phase
(B) compilation phase
(C) execution phase
(D) linking phase
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 104
Compilers are
:
(A) both OS and hardware dependent
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(B) only OS dependent

(C) only hardware dependent
(D) cannot be generalized for all compilers
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 105
Only OS independent compiler is
:
(A) Turbo C compiler
(B) Pascal compiler
(C) Java compiler
(D) visual basic compiler
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 106
Which among the following is/are interpreted language
:
(A) C
(B) C++
(C) Java
(D) Visual basic
(E) Both c and D
Correct Answer: E
Question 107
Files with VXD extension represent
:
(A) normal text files
(B) application programs
(C) device drivers
(D) Executable files
(E) image files
Correct Answer: C
Question 108
Default.pif file is used for
:
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(A) loading windows based application

(B) loading DOS based application
(C) load a congig.sys file
(D) load OS
(E) load IVT
Correct Answer: B
Question 109
Location of Default.pif file is
:
(A) window directory
(B) Root directory
(C) home/desktop directory
(D) users directory
(E) it can be anywhere in a user defined location
Correct Answer: A
Question 110
All windows settings are stored in this file
:
(A) windows.INI
(B) groups.INI
(C) win.INI
(D) systems.INI
(E) Command.INI
Correct Answer: C
Question 111 External devices connected to the computer, such as input and output devices
: and external storage devices are called as
(A) accessories
(B) peripheral devices
(C) essential devices
(D) it is OS dependent
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
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Question 112
Windows can easily run on these CPU’s
:
(A) Pentium 1 and above
(B) Pentium 2 and above
(C) 80286 and above
(D) 80386 and above
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 113
CPU can directly understand this language
:
(A) C
(B) C++
(C) Assembly
(D) Java
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 114
Which language is CPU dependent
:
(A) C
(B) Assembly
(C) Java
(D) C++
(E) All except java
Correct Answer: E
Question 115
A normal compiler takes sources code as input and produce this as output
:
(A) assembly code
(B) object code
(C) machine code
(D) all of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
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Question 116
Multiprogramming and multitasking are synonymous
:
(A) always
(B) never
(C) OS dependent
(D) application specific
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 117
Languages which can easily interact with the hardware are called
:
(A) high level language
(B) low level language
(C) middle level languages
(D) they are not normally used computer languages
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 118
Buffering in printers is necessary because
:
(A) computer is fast in generating data for printing then printer can print it
(B) there is not enough memory is provided with printers
(C) it is only because to make printer work for mores years
(D) Both a and b
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 119
Which utility software can combine object modules from multiple files
:
(A) compiler
(B) loader
(C) linker
(D) interpreter
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
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Question 120
How many bits are there in ASCII codes
:
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 121
Assembly instructions are in the form of
:
(A) Binary digits
(B) Mnemonics
(C) in general English
(D) in a new format different from all the above
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 122
Airline reservation system is a typical example of
:
(A) Batch processing
(B) On-Line processing
(C) real time processing
(D) all of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 123 Modern computers follow a generalised set of instructions to perform any
: function. What are these instructions better known as?
(A) Language
(B) Instructions
(C) Commands
(D) Programs
Correct Answer: D
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Question 124 Which of the following memories below is often ued in a typical computer
: operation
(A) RAM
(B) ROM
(C) FDD
(D) HDD
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 125
Which of the following is not a logic gate
:
(A) AND
(B) OR
(C) NOT
(D) NAT
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 126 Which of the following RAM have to be refreshed often in order to retain its
: contents
(A) SIMM
(B) DIMM
(C) SDMM
(D) DSMM
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 127
Nortel is a company that manufactures
:
(A) Software
(B) Processors
(C) Cables
(D) Network equipments
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
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Question 128
Algorithm and flow chart help us to
:
(A) know the memory capacity
(B) identify the base of a number system
(C) direct the output to a printer
(D) specify the problem completely and clearly
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 129 When we purchase a product over a Mobile phone, the transaction is
: called_________-
(A) web commerce
(B) E-Commerce
(C) m-commerce
(D) Mobile Purchase
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 130
Macromedia is the name of a company related with
:
(A) hardware
(B) software
(C) services
(D) peripheral
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 131 Which of the following organization looks at standards for representation of
: data on the internet
(A) ISOC
(B) W3C
(C) IEEE
(D) IETE
(E) None of these
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Correct Answer: B
Question 132
Who is the founder of BSD Unix
:
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Dennis ritche
(C) Bill joy
(D) Linux torvalds
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 133
Who is the founder of Oracle corporation
:
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Dennis ritche
(C) Bill joy
(D) Linux torvalds
(E) Lars Ellison
Correct Answer: E
Question 134
Programs are executed on the basis of a priority number in a
:
(A) Batch Processing system
(B) multiprogramming system
(C) time sharing system
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 135
Cursor is a ________-
:
(A) Pixel
(B) thin blinking line
(C) pointing device
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(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 136
A compiler_____________
:
(A) is a computer program
(B) translates a high level language into machine language
(C) is a part of the software
(D) is a hardware
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 137
Computer software includes
:
(A) application programs
(B) operating system programs
(C) packages programs
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 138
Machine language ______-
:
(A) is the language in which ptograms were first written
(B) is the only language understood by the computer
(C) differs from one type of computer to another
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 139
Assembly language ________
:
(A) users alphabetic in place of binary numbers used in machine language
(B) is the easiest language to write program
(C) need not be translated into machine language
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(D) All of these

(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 140
A source program is
:
(A) a program written in a machine language
(B) a program to be translated into machine language
(C) a machine language translation of a program written in assembly language
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 141 Which device is used as the standard pointing device in the Graphical user
: environment
(A) keyboard
(B) mouse
(C) joy stick
(D) track ball
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 142 1. All of the following are example of real security and privacy risks
: EXCEPT
(A) Hacker
(B) Spam
(C) virus
(D) identity theft
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 143 A process known as _____________- is used by large retailers to study

: trends
(A) data mining
(B) data selection
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(C) POS
(D) data conversion
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 144 _________________- terminals ( formerly known as cash registers ) are

: often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems
(A) data
(B) Point of Sales
(C) sales
(D) query
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 145 A (n) ______________ system us a small, wireless handles computer that
: scans an items tag and pull up the current price (and any special offer) as you
shop
(A) PSS
(B) POS
(C) inventory
(D) data mining
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 146 The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal
: computer is an example of a law enforcement specially called
(A) robotics
(B) simulation
(C) computer forensics
(D) animation
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 147 Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing
: functions of a computer
(A) gathering data
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(B) processing data into information

(C) analyzing the data or information
(D) storing the data or information
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 148 ___________- tags when placed on an animal, can be used to record and
: track in a data base all of the animal movements
(A) POS
(B) RFID
(C) PPS
(D) GPS
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 149 Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through
: computers instead of manually. This technology is known as
(A) robotics
(B) computer forensic
(C) simulation
(D) forecasting
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 150 Technology no longer protected by copyright available to everyone is

: considered tp be
(A) proprietary
(B) open
(C) experimental
(D) in the public domain
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 151 ________- is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1
: to 100 nanometers
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(A) nanoscience
(B) microelectrodes
(D) aritificial intelligence
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 152 __________- is the science that attempts to produce machines that display
: the same type of intelligence that human do
(A) nanoscience
(B) nanotechnology
(C) simulation
(D) AI
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 153 ____________-- is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful
: fashion
(A) A process
(B) Software
(C) Storage
(D) Information
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 154 While working on Microsoft Word, which among the following is the
: command for “Undo” ?
(A) Cntrl +A
(B) Cntrl +Z
(C) Cntrl +Y
(D) Cntrl +C
Correct Answer: B
Question 155 Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to
: _______________ data
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(A) present
(B) input
(C) Output
(D) store
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 156 After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed
: appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered
(A) data
(B) output
(C) input
(D) the process
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 157
Computers use the ______________ language to process data
:
(A) processing
(B) kilobyte
(C) binary
(D) representational
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 158 What is the name of the digital circuit that performs arithmetic and logical
: operations in computers ?
(A) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(B) Digital comparator
(C) Multiplexer
(D) None of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
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Question 159 In the binary language each letter of hte alphabet, each number and each
: special character is made up of a unique combination of
(A) 8 bytes
(B) 8 Kilo bytes
(C) 8 characters
(D) 8 bits
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 160
The term bit is short for
:
(A) megabyte
(B) binary language
(C) binary digit
(D) binary number
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 161
A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a
:
(A) Megabyte
(B) byte
(C) kilobyte
(D) gigabyte
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 162
A _________-- is approximately one billion bytes
:
(A) kilobyte
(B) bit
(C) gigabyte
(D) megabyte
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
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Question 163
A ____________-- is approximately a million bytes
:
(A) gigabyte
(B) kilo byte
(C) megabyte
(D) tera byte
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 164
________________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch
:
(A) hardware
(B) a device
(C) a peripheral
(D) an application
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 165
The components that process data are located in the
:
(A) input device
(B) output device
(C) system unit
(D) storage component
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 166
All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a
:
(A) scanner
(B) mouse
(C) keyboard
(D) printer
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
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Question 167 Which among the following was the first operational packet switching
: network, and the predecessor of the Internet ?
(A) TELNET
(B) ARPANET
(C) USENET
(D) ALOHAnet
Correct Answer: B
Question 168
All of hte following are example of storage devices EXCEPT
:
(A) hard disk drive
(B) printer
(C) floppy disk drives
(D) CD drives
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 169 The _______________--. Also called the aeoebrainsae of the computer, is
: responsible for processing data
(A) mother board
(B) memory
(C) RAM
(D) central processing unit
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 170
The CPU and memory are located on the
:
(A) expansion board
(B) mother board
(C) storage device
(D) output device
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
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Question 171
Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are example of
:
(A) application software
(B) system software
(C) operating system software
(D) platform software
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 172 __________________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to

: help perform tasks
(A) an instruction
(B) software
(C) memory
(D) a processor
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 173 System software is the set of programs that enables your computer hardware
: devices and _____________ software to work together
(A) Management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 174
The PC and the Apple macintosh are examples of two different
:
(A) platforms
(B) application
(C) programs
(D) storage devices
(E) None of these
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Correct Answer: A
Question 175 Apple macintoshes and PCs use different ______________ to process data
: and different operating systems
(A) languages
(B) methods
(C) CPUs
(D) storage devices
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 176 Services are computers that provide resources to other computers connected
: to a
(A) network
(B) mainframe
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 177 Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing_____________--
: in many businesses
(A) supercomputers
(B) clients
(C) laptops
(D) mainframes
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 178 _______________ are specially designed computers that perform complex
: calculations extremely rapidly
(A) servers
(B) supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) mainframes
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(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 179
DSL is an example of a(n) _________ connection
:
(A) network
(B) wireless
(C) slow
(D) broadband
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 180 The difference between people with access to computers and the internet and
: those without this access is known as the
(A) digital divide
(B) internet divide
(C) web divide
(D) broadband divide
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 181 ________- is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build
: devices on an extremely small scale
(A) nanotechnology
(B) micro technology
(D) artificial intelligence
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 182
VIRUS stands for
:
(A) Very important record user searched
(B) Verify interchanged result until source
(C) Virtual information resource under seize
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(D) Very important resource under search

(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 183
Which of the following file names are invalid in MSDOS
:
(A) MYFILE.DOS
(B) CHECK$.(1)
(C) VERIFIED.###3
(D) QWERTY.1?
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 184
Which command can be used to recreate the disk’s tracks and sectors
:
(A) FDISK
(B) FORMAT
(C) CHKDISK
(D) ATTRIB
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 185 What is the switch that is used to make sure that the COPY command copied
: files correctly
(A) /A
(B) /S
(C) /V
(D) .C
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 186
Which of the following statements is true in regard to DISKCOPY
:
(A) COPY and DISKCOPY are same
(B) DISKCOPY is a built in command in DOS
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(C) DISKCOY can be used on hard disks

(D) DISKCOPY can be used with a floppy and a hard disk
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 187
Which of the following statements in regard to directories is false
:
(A) directories with files can be deleted
(B) directories can not ba renamed
(C) the root directory is always at the highest level
(D) directories can exist inside directories
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 188
What will be the out put of the command PROMPT $L$P$G
:
(A) GPL
(B) LPG
(C) $L$P$G
(D) $LPG$
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 189
What is web casting
:
(A) casting a movie star in a role on the www
(B) transmitting the video and audio on the internet
(C) playing of music on the internet
(D) searching on the web
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 190
The date command at the DOS prompt enables you to
:
(A) view the date and time
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(B) change the date

(C) change the date and time
(D) change the day only
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 191
What are the batch files in relation to computer
:
(A) they begin with the letter BAT
(B) they help you to keep files in batches
(C) they help you to keep directories in batches
(D) they help you to club a group of statements and run them one after together
(E) they help you to keep both directories and files in batches
Correct Answer: D
Question 192
When you delete files in windows operating system, they are
:
(A) delete permanently
(B) put in recycle bin
(C) wiped thoroughly so that no body is able to recover the file back
(D) delete permanently and also wiped clean
(E) the contents are garbled
Correct Answer: B
Question 193
Format command
:
(A) format the CPU
(B) format floppy drives only
(C) format should be left to the engineers to use
(D) formats a disk to receive files
(E) format the select files
Correct Answer: C
Question 194 Arithmetic logic unit and control sections have special purpose locations
: called
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(A) registers
(B) RAM
(C) BIOS
(D) I/O
(E) ROM
Correct Answer: A
Question 195
What is the function of a modem
:
(A) encryption and decryption
(B) coverts data to voice and vice versa
(C) converts analog signals to digitals and vice versa
(D) serve as a hardware anti virus
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 196
Networking using fiber optic cable is done as
:
(A) it has high band width
(B) it is thin and light
(C) it is not affected by electro magnetic interference/power drugs etc
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 197
Conferences , net meeting enables
:
(A) sharing voice on the net
(B) live textual conferencing
(C) live audio conferencing
(D) live real time conferencing
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
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Question 198
E-Commerce used the following key standards/technologies
:
(A) Eleactronic Data Interchange
(B) Technical Data Interchange
(C) Standard for exchange of products model data
(D) Extensible Markup Language
(E) All of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 199
“DOS” floppy disk does not have
:
(A) boot record
(B) a file allocation table
(C) a root directory
(D) a virtual memory
(E) All of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 200 In computer/IT field there are _________-- in open system interconnection
: model
(A) 5-layers
(B) 6-layers
(C) 7-layers
(D) 8-layers
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 201
Yojna a weekly journal
:
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
(C) Ministry of Rural Development
(D) Planning Commission
Correct Answer: B
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Question 202
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
:
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
(C) Ministry of Rural Development
(D) Planning Commission
Correct Answer: B
Question 203
Devaluation of a currency means
:
(A) Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the
value of a basket of predetermined currencies
(B) Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded
currencies
(C) Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the
World Bank and major trading partners
(D) Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Correct Answer: B
Question 204 In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of
: the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about
scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured
products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to
investment in industry
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 205 Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among
: rural women
(A) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(B) Indira Mahila Yojna
(C) Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
(D) Mahila Samridhi Yojna
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Correct Answer: D
Question 206
What is Net National Product
:
(A) the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the
economy
(B) the money value of annual service generation in the economy
(C) the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
(D) The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Correct Answer: A
Question 207
National income is the
:
(A) net national product at market price
(B) net national product at factor cost
(C) net domestic product at market price
(D) net domestic product at factor cost
Correct Answer: B
Question 208
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
:
(A) financial system
(B) tax system
(C) patents and copyrights
(D) Public sector undertakings
Correct Answer: B
Question 209 During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income
: the lowest
(A) 2nd plan
(B) 3rd plan
(C) 5th plan
(D) 6th plan
Correct Answer: B
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Question 210
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
:
(A) sales tax
(B) custom tax
(C) excise tax
(D) income tax
Correct Answer: D
Question 211
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
:
(A) National Income Committee
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Reserve Bank Of India
(D) Central Statistical Organisation
Correct Answer: D
Question 212
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
:
(A) April 1951
(B) April 1955
(C) April 1957
(D) April 1978
Correct Answer: C
Question 213 11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the
: present 1.9% by the year
(A) 2008
(B) 2009
(C) 2010
(D) 2012
Correct Answer: C
Question 214 Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target
: of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
(A) treat urban waste water by 2011-12
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(B) Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17

(C) attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
(D) increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Correct Answer: D
Question 215 Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National
: Development Council
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Commerce Minister
Correct Answer: B
Question 216 Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on
: wheather
(A) they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive
social group
(B) they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
(C) they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
(D) their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Correct Answer: C
Question 217 Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed
: for estimating proverty line in India
(A) Dutt committee
(B) Lakdawala committee
(C) Cheliah Committee
(D) Chakravorty Committee
Correct Answer: B
Question 218
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
:
(A) 1975
(B) 1981
(C) 1991
(D) 2000
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Correct Answer: C
Question 219 Consider the following statements

: 1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the
consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,3 and 4
(D) 2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 220
When was first human development report of India issued
:
(A) April 2001
(B) March 2000
(C) June 2002
(D) April 2002
Correct Answer: D
Question 221
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
:
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Correct Answer: C
Question 222
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
:
(A) 2001
(B) 2010
(C) 2012
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(D) 2011
Correct Answer: D
Question 223 Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
: 1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year
period
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2, and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 224
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
:
(A) 2007-12
(B) 2008-13
(C) 2010-15
(D) 2012-17
Correct Answer: D
Question 225
A closed economy is an economy in which
:
(A) the money supply is fully controlled
(B) deficit financing takes place
(C) only exports take place
(D) neither exports nor imports take place
Correct Answer: D

: 1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
(A) 1 and 2
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(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Question 227 In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
: Term Most Appropriate
Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
Question 228
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
:
(A) IMF
(B) RBI
(C) Local bodies
(D) Big Businessmen
Correct Answer: B
Question 229 In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of
: industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on
infrastructure begins in
(A) 4th plan
(B) 6th plan
(C) 8th plan
(D) 10th plan
Correct Answer: C
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Question 230 Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
: 1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
(A) only 1
(B) only 2
(C) only 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 231
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
:
(A) Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
(B) it is not defined in Indian Constitution
(C) Members do not require any minimum education
(D) all of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 232 __________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National
: Development Council
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Commerce Minister
Correct Answer: A
Question 233 Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of
: contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
(A) services Industry- Agriculture
(B) Services- Agriculture-Industry
(C) Industry-Services-Agriculture
(D) Industry-Agriculture-Services
Correct Answer: A
Question 234 Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of
: India
(A) Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
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(B) formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of
country’s resources
(C) public cooperation in national development
(D) preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise
capital for the implementation of the plan
Correct Answer: D
Question 235 Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning
: Commisison
(A) Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
(D) J.B.Kriplani
Correct Answer: B
Question 236 Which of the statements given below is/are correct

: 1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the
th
10 Five Year Plan
2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: A
Question 237 The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which
: of the following
1. Greater attention to land reforms
2. double the rate of growth of irrigated area
3. promote animal husbandary and fishery
4. interest free credit to the farmers
Select the correct answer
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Correct Answer: C
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Question 238
What is the period of 11th Five Year Plan
:
(A) 2006-11
(B) 2007-12
(C) 2008-13
(D) 2009-14
Correct Answer: B
Question 239 In which one of the following Five Year Plan the actual growth performance
: in India in respect of GDP was less than the target set
(A) 6th Five Year Plan
(B) 7th Five Year Plan
(C) 8th Five Year Plan
(D) 9th Five Year Plan
Correct Answer: D
Question 240 Who of the following was the author of the chapter on 'Objectives of planned
: development' for the 3rd Five Year Plan
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) C.D.Deshmukh
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Lal Bahadur Shashtri
Correct Answer: A
Question 241 During which five year plan was the total expenditure on agriculture the
: highest
(A) 1st five year plan
(B) 2nd five year plan
(C) 3rd five year plan
(D) 4th five year plan
Correct Answer: D
Question 242 What is the correct sequence of the following strategies used for five year
: plan in India
1. balanced growth 2. Rehabilitation of the
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economy
3. industrial development
(A) 1,3,2
(B) 2,1,3
(C) 2,3,1
(D) 3,2,1
Correct Answer: C
Question 243 The steel plants at Durgapur, bhilai and Rourkela were established during the
: period of
(A) 1st five year plan
(B) 2nd five year plan
(C) 3rd five year plan
(D) 4th five year plan
Correct Answer: B
Question 244
The second five year plan laid more stress upon
:
(A) agriculture
(B) industrialization
(C) removing poverty
(D) self reliance
Correct Answer: B
Question 245 In which of the five year plan preference ws given to the weaker sections of
: the society
(A) 2nd
(B) 3rd
(C) 4th
(D) 5th
Correct Answer: D
Question 246 Which one fo the following Five year plan recognized human development as
: the core of all developmental efforts
(A) the 3rd five year plan
(B) the 5th five year plan
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(C) the 6th five year plan

(D) the 8th five year plan
Correct Answer: D
Question 247
The growth rate of agricultural production was negative in the
:
(A) first plan
(B) second plan
(C) third plan
(D) fourth plan
Correct Answer: C
Question 248
The basic feature of the Rolling Plans was that
:
(A) major development projects were to be completed in the stipulated period
(B) revision of the achievements of previous year
(C) annual fluctuations in prices and major economic developments could be
considered while fixing targets
(D) no financial target except in the term of annual plans was envisaged
Correct Answer: C
Question 249
A rolling plan was a plan for
:
(A) one year
(B) three year
(C) five year
(D) year to year basis
Correct Answer: A
Question 250
The strategy of Rolling Plan was adopted during the Prime Ministership of
:
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Morarji Desai
(D) Rajiv Gandhi
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Correct Answer: C
Question 251
Rolling plan was designed for the period
:
(A) 1978-83
(B) 1980-85
(C) 1985-90
(D) 1974-97
Correct Answer: A
Question 252 Consider the following

: 1. Launching of 4th year plan was postponed and three annual plans had to be
resorted to between 1966-1969
2. 5th year plan was terminated a year earlier
3. 8th five year plan commenced in 1996 instead of 1990
Which of these statements are correct
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 253
What is the correct duration of revised by
:
(A) 1975-80
(B) 1977-82
(C) 1979-84
(D) 1980-85
Correct Answer: D
Question 254
Success of 4th plan was obstructed by
:
(A) Poor monsoon
(B) war with Pakistan
(C) problem of Bagaldesh refugees
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Correct Answer: D
Question 255 Match the following

: List-I List-II
A. Year of the Great Divide 1. 1950

B. Industrial Policy Resolution 2. 1921
C. Setting up of planning commission 3. 1969
D. Nationalisation of 14 commercial banks 4. 1956
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 3 4 2
Correct Answer: A
Question 256 In India, the concepts of minimum heeds and directed anti poverty
: programmes were the innovation of
(A) 4th Five Yar Plan
(B) 5th Five Yar Plan
(C) 6th Five Yar Plan
(D) 7th Five Yar Plan
Correct Answer: B
Question 257 Put in chronological order the following special features of differenct Five
: Year Plan as they were first formulated
1. Mahalanobis
Strategy 2.Modernisation
3. Removal of Poverty 4. Emphasis on
employment generation
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 2,1,3,4
(C) 1,3,2,4
(D) 3,4,1,2
Correct Answer: C
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Question 258
In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded
:
(A) first
(B) Fifth
(C) Sixth
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 259
India had a plan holiday
:
(A) after the China India war of 1962
(B) after the drought of 1966
(C) after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
(D) after the India Pakistan war in 1965
Correct Answer: B
Question 260
Community Development Programme was launched during
:
(A) First Five Year Plan
(B) Second Five Year Paln
(C) Fourth Five Year Plan
(D) Fifth Five Year Plan
Correct Answer: A
Question 261
The main objective of First Five Year Paln was
:
(A) industrial growth
(B) economic growth
(C) development of agriculture including irrigation and power project
(D) self reliance
Correct Answer: C
Question 262 Mathc the following

: A. First Plan 1. Rapid
industrialization
B. Second Paln 2.
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Community development programme

C. Third Plan 3.
Expansion of basic industries
D. Fourth Plan 4.
Minimum needs programme
E. Fifth Paln 5.
Achievement of self reliance and growth with stability
(A) 1 2 3 4 5
(B) 2 1 3 5 4
(C) 2 1 3 4 5
(D) 2 1 4 5 3
Correct Answer: B
Question 263
The decentralization system was recommended by
:
(A) C.Rajagopalachari
(B) J.B.Kriplani
(C) Balwant Rai Mehta
(D) Ashok Mehta
Correct Answer: C
Question 264
The first attempt to initiate economic planning in India was made by
:
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Balwantrai Mehta
(C) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
(D) M.Visvesvaraya
Correct Answer: D
Question 265 In Financial Language, Fixed to Floating and Floating to Floating are used in
: context with which among the following ?
(A) Interest rates
(B) Swaps
(C) Foreign Exchange Rates
(D) None of them
Correct Answer: B
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Question 266 Which of the following gives an accurate measurement of economic

: development through Five Year Plan
(A) development of edcucatin and health services
(B) Development of railways and roadways
(C) Rise in national income and per capita income
(D) Deveopment of industrial towns and insudtrial estates
Correct Answer: C
Question 267 Self Reliance in the economic context implies that a country
: 1. meets its demands for all goods and services from its domestic
production
2. exports some of its goods but does not need to import anything
3. has sufficient foreign exchange reserves to but all its needs
4. meets its demand for certain vital goods and services from its
domestic production
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Question 268 An underdeveloped economy is generally characterized by

: 1. low per capita income 2. Low
rate of capital formation
3. low population growth 4.
Working force largely in the tertiary sector
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 269 The basic objectives of Indian Planning are

: 1. economic growth 2. Self
reliance
3. employment generation 4.
Population growth
(A) 1,2 and 4
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(B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: B

: 1. the highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning
Commission of India
2. The Secreatary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secreatary
of National Development Council
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent
list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Question 271 Indiacative Planning being pursued in India since the 8th plan aims at
: ensuring that
1. Planning mechanism plays a facilitatory role
2. Planning mechanism brings about a balance between need and
supply
3. Planning mechanism concerns itself with optimal utilization of
resources
4. Planning concerns itself with laying down broad directions in
which of trhe economy should move
Choose the correct answer from
(A) 1,2 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2,3 and 4
(D) 1,2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Question 272 Microeconomics is concerned with

: 1. behavior of industrial decision makers
2. determination of prices of goods and services
3. changes in the general level of prices
4. the level of employment
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(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 273 Put in chronological order

: 1. constitution of National Planning Committee by the Indian National
Congress under Jawahar Lal Nehru
2. Planned Economy for India by Visvesvaraya published
3. Bombay Plan
4. Setting up of the National Development Council
(A) 1,2,3,4
(B) 3,2,4,1
(C) 2,3,1,4
(D) 2,1,3,4
Correct Answer: D
Question 274 The Planning Commission of India

: 1. was set up in
1950 2. Is a constitutional
body
3. is an advisory body 4. Is
agovernment department
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Question 275
Who was the first Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission of India
:
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) C.Rajgopalachari
(D) V.T.Krishnamachari
Correct Answer: D
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Question 276
The deputy chairman of the planning commission
:
(A) is the prime minister
(B) is the planning minister
(C) holds the rank of a cabinet minister
(D) is an economist of repute
Correct Answer: C
Question 277
Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission
:
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Commerce Minister
(D) None of them
Correct Answer: D
Question 278 Which of the following are not correct assessments of the decades of India’s
: Five Year Plans
1. there has been veery low capital formation
2. growth has favoured the better off
3. production has increased substantitally though often falling short of
targets
4. the Public sector has contributed nothing to economic growth
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 279 Consider the following

: 1. Economic Growth 2. Reduction
of economic inequalities
3. balanced regional development 4.
Modernization
5. reduction of unemployment
Which of the above are the objectives of economic planning in India
(A) 1,2 and 3
(B) 1,3,4 and 5
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(C) 1,2, 4 and 5

(D) 1,2,3,4,5
Correct Answer: D
Question 280 Which of the following may be termed as long term objectives of Indian
: Planning
1. self reliance 2. Productive
employment generation
3. growth of 8% per annum 4. Growth in
infrastructure
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 4
(D) 2,3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 281 The branch of knowledge concerned with the production, consumption and
: transfer of wealth is termed as
(A) Mercantilism
(B) Statistics
(C) Numismatics
(D) Economics
Correct Answer: D
Question 282
The word economics has been derived from “Okilonomia” which is a
:
(A) Latin word
(B) Greek word
(C) African word
(D) Urdu word
Correct Answer: B
Question 283 Match the following

: A. Wealth Definition 1. Paul
Samuelson
B. Welfare Definition 2. Lionel
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Robbins
C. Scarcity Definition 3. Alfred
Marshall
D. Growth Definition 4. Adam
Smith
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Correct Answer: C
Question 284
Who is called the Father of Economics
:
(A) Max Muller
(B) Kari Marx
(C) Adam Smith
(D) None ofh tese
Correct Answer: C
Question 285 An Enquir into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations is the book of
: economist
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) Robbins
(D) None ofh tese
Correct Answer: A
Question 286
Economics is what economists do it has been supported by
:
(A) Richard Jones
(B) Comte
(C) Gunnar Myrdal
Correct Answer: D
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Question 287
Who has given scarcity definition of economics
:
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Marshall
(C) Robbins
(D) Robertson
Correct Answer: C
Question 288
Economic is a science the basis of this statement is
:
(A) relatin between cause and effect
(B) use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of law
(C) experiments
Correct Answer: D
Question 289
When total utility becomes maximum then marginal utility will be
:
(A) minimum
(B) average
(C) zero
(D) negative
Correct Answer: C
Question 290
Marginal utility is equal to average utility at that time when average utility is
:
(A) increasing
(B) maximum
(C) falling
(D) minimum
Correct Answer: B
Question 291
At point of satirty, marginal utility is
:
(A) zero
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(B) positive
(C) maximum
(D) negative
Correct Answer: A
Question 292
Which of the following is the second law of Gossen
:
(A) law of equi marginal utility
(B) law of equi product
(C) theory of indifference curve
(D) law of diminishing marginal utility
Correct Answer: A
Question 293
Total utility of a commodity is measured by hwihc price of that commodity
:
(A) value in use
(B) value in exchange
(C) both of the above
(D) none of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 294
According to Marshall the basis of consumer surplus is
:
(A) law of diminishing marginal utility
(B) law of equal marginal utility
(C) law of properties
(D) all of the aboe
Correct Answer: A
Question 295
Development means economic growth with
:
(A) price stability
(B) social change
(C) deflation
(D) inflation
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Correct Answer: B
Question 296 Which of the following is/are major development issues in India
: 1. low percapita income
2. substaintal proportion of population below poverty line
3. problem of unemployment
4. imbalance in distribution and growing inwqualities
5. huge expense on development programmes
(A) 1,2 and 5
(B) 2,3 and 4
(C) 1,2,3 and 4
(D) 4 and 5
Correct Answer: C
Question 297
The concept of five year plans in India was introduced by
:
(A) Lord Mountbatten
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Lal Bahadur Shashtri
Correct Answer: B
Question 298
india has
:
(A) Socialistic economy
(B) Gandhian economy
(C) Mixed economy
(D) free economy
Correct Answer: C
Question 299
India opted for Mixed Economy in
:
(A) framing of the constitution
(B) second five year plan
(C) industrial policy of 1948
(D) none of the above
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Correct Answer: C
Question 300
Mixed Economy means in economy where
:
(A) bothe agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the state
(B) there is existence of public sector along with private sector
(C) there is importance of small scale industries along with heavy industries
(D) economy is controlled by military as well as civilian rulers
Correct Answer: B
Question 301 Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which
: maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is
(A) 0.8 â„¦

(B) 1.4 â„¦
(C) 2 â„¦
(D) 2.8 â„¦
Correct Answer: A
Question 302 For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C
: is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04
m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room
temperature?
(A) 7.0 × 1012 m-3
(B) 7.0 × 10-12 m-3
(C) 7.0 × 10-12 m3
(D) 7.0 × 1012 m3
Correct Answer: A
Question 303 The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the
: intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and
the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
(A) 9.2 × 105/m3
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(B) 2.77 × 103/m3

(C) 2.43 × 1019/m3
(D) 8.9 × 1012/m3
Correct Answer: C
Question 304
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
:
(A) By the mobility of the carriers
(B) Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
(C) By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
(D) By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
Correct Answer: D
Question 305 Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a
: perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
(A) Parallel polarized
(B) Perpendicularly polarized
(C) Normally polarized
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
Question 306
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
:
(A) Forward voltage increases up to the rating
(B) Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
(C) Forward voltage decreases below the rating
(D) Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
Correct Answer: B
Question 307 The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting

: materials is
(A) Very difficult to form, machine or case
(B) The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
(C) The poor strength-to-weight ratio
(D) The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
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Correct Answer: B
Question 308 Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon
: nanotubes ?
(A) High stiffness and strengths
(B) Low densities
(C) Unusual electrical property
(D) Non-ductile
Correct Answer: D
Question 309 The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-
: conductors comes from
(A) Meissner effect
(B) Josephson effect
(C) Isotope effect
(D) x quantization experiments
Correct Answer: D
Question 310
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
:
(A) Phenol formaldehyde
(B) Polytetrafluoroethylene
(C) Polyvinyl chloride
(D) Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
Correct Answer: C
Question 311 For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material
: used is
(A) Ferrite
(B) Piezoelectric
(C) Pyroelectric
(D) Ferromagnetic above 768°C
Correct Answer: A
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Question 312 The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes

: paramagnetic is called
(A) Peak temperature
(B) Neel temperatur
(C) Critical temperature
(D) Weiss temperature
Correct Answer: B
Question 313
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
:
(A) Seeback effect
(B) Thomson effect
(C) Hall effect
(D) Joule effect
Correct Answer: A
Question 314
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
:
(A) Soft magnetic materials
(B) Hard magnetic materials
(C) High eddy current loss materials
(D) High hysteresis loss materials
Correct Answer: A
Question 315 Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:

: 1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials
exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Both 1 and 2
(B) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 only
Correct Answer: A
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Question 316 The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the
: reverse process of
(A) Radiative recombination
(B) Auger recombination
(C) Surface recombination
(D) Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
Correct Answer: B
Question 317 Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny
: amount of
(A) GeO2
(B) B2O3
(C) P2O5x
(D) Al2O3
Correct Answer: B
Question 318 If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal
: voltage same, then the drift velocity will
(A) Become twice
(B) Become half
(C) ecome four times
(D) Remain unchanged
Correct Answer: D
Question 319 In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating
: disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
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Question 320 If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good
: wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
(A) MCHTX
(B) MXHTC
(C) XMHCT
(D) XMHTC
Correct Answer: B
Question 321 Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic
: properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 3, 4 and 5 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Question 322 A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature
: coefficient of resistance is
(A) Transistor
(B) Varistor
(C) Thyristor
(D) Thermistor
Correct Answer: D
Question 323 The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in

: temperature because
(A) The carrier concentration increases
(B) The mobility of carrier increases
(C) Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
(D) The band gap decreases
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Correct Answer: C
Question 324 Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
: 1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Question 325 In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz

: sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What
will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
(A) An ellipse
(B) A parabola
(C) Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
(D) A circle
Correct Answer: C
Question 326 Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite
: value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
(A) Ferromagnetic materials
(B) High-energy hard magnetic materials
(C) Superconductors
(D) Ferromagnetic materials
Correct Answer: C
Question 327 In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical

: temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Not change
(D) Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
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Correct Answer: A
Question 328
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
:
(A) Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
(B) Component of energy absorbed per m3
(C) Amount of applied field
(D) Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
Correct Answer: B
Question 329 Direction: Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the
: ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two
statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes
given below
(A) Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent
magnets.
Statement (II):
Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
(B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II)
is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(C) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II)
is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
(D) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(E) Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true
Correct Answer: C
Question 330 In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD
: 2100 H is
(A) (H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00
(B) (H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
(C) (H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
(D) (H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H
Correct Answer: C
Question 331 If the magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small and positive, the
: specimen is
(A) Diamagnetic
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(B) Paramagnetic
(C) Ferromagnetic
(D) Non-magnetic
Correct Answer: B
Question 332
Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of
:
(A) Manganese nitride and iron oxide
(B) Manganese oxide and iron nitride
(C) Manganese nitride and iron sulphide
(D) Manganese oxide and iron sulphide
Correct Answer: B
Question 333 When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, small changes in dimensions

: occur. Such a phenomenon is known as
(A) Magnetic hysteresis
(B) Magnetic expansion
(C) Magnetostriction
(D) Magneto-calorisation
Correct Answer: C
Question 334 In ferromagnetic , anti-ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, the atomic

: thermal motions counteract the coupling forces between the adjacent atomic
dipole moments, thereby causing
(A) Some dipole misalignment regardless of whether an external field is present
(B) Increase in dipole alignment regardless of whether an external field is present
(C) No effect on dipole alignment
(D) Atoms tend to de-randomize the direction of moments
Correct Answer: B
Question 335
The Hall effect voltage in intrinsic silicon
:
(A) Is positive
(B) Is zero
(C) Is negative
(D) Changes its sign based on application of magnetic field
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Correct Answer: B
Question 336
Most outstanding property of indium antimonide is
:
(A) A very wide range gap
(B) High resistivity at room temperature
(C) High carrier mobility
(D) Very low conductivity at room temperature
Correct Answer: C
Question 337 Which of the following semiconducting compounds is used in

: photoconductive devices?
(A) Caesium antimonide
(B) Barium oxide
(C) Lead sulphide
(D) Zinc oxide
Correct Answer: C
Question 338 Consider the following transducers:

: 1.LVDT
2.Piezoelectric
3.Thermocouple
4.Photovoltaic cell
Which of the above are active transducers?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Question 339 Consider the following statements regarding magnetic materials:

: 1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation of equal moments with
neighboring dipoles
3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation of unequal moments
between neighboring dipoles
4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible interaction between neighboring
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dipoles
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 340 Consider the following statements regarding hysteresis loops of hard and
: soft magnetic materials:
1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be less than that of soft
material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than that of soft material
3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be equal
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B
Question 341
Loss-tangent in plane waves in lossy dielectrics will be
:
(A) Proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)
(B) Inversely proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity
(HY)
(C) Inversely proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity
(HX)
(D) proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)
Correct Answer: B
Question 342
Orientational polarization is
:
(A) Inversely proportional to temperature and proportional to the square of the
permanent dipole moment
(B) proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole
moment
(C) proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to the square of the
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(D) Inversely proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the

Correct Answer: A
Question 343 Behavior of conductors, semiconductors and insulators is explained on the

: basis of
(A) Atomic nature
(B) Molecular structure
(C) Energy band structure
Correct Answer: C
Question 344
In general, for a superconductor, which of the following statements is true?
:
(A) A superconductor is a perfect paramagnetic material with the magnetic
susceptibility equals to positive unity
(B) A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic material with the magnetic
susceptibility equals to negative one
(C) A superconductor is a perfect ferromagnetic material with the magnetic
susceptibility equals to positive one
(D) A superconductor is a perfect piezoelectric material with the magnetic
susceptibility equals to negative one
Correct Answer: B
Question 345
Ferro-electric materials have a
:
(A) High dielectric constant which varies non linearly
(B) Low dielectric constant and is non-linear
(C) High dielectric constant which varies linearly
(D) Low dielectric constant but linear
Correct Answer: A
Question 346 In the magnetic core the electromotive forces (emf) induced in accordance
: with Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction give rise to
(A) Eddy current
(B) Excitation current
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(C) Armature current

(D) Field current
Correct Answer: A
Question 347 Consider the following characterizing parameters of a material:

: 1.Magnetic permeability
2.Electron relaxation time
3.Electron effective mass
4.Energy band gap
In case of metals, increase in one of the above parameter decreases its
conductivity, while increase in another increases the conductivity. There are
respectively
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 3 and 2
(C) 4 and 3
(D) 1 and 2
Correct Answer: B
Question 348 Some magnetic materials may be classified on the basis of

: 1.Susceptibility
2.Saturation
3.Spin arrangement
4.Nature of hysteresis loop
5.Domain structure
6.Critical temperature above which it behaves as a paramagnetic material
Which of these can be used to distinguish between ferri and ferromagnetic
materials?
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 6 only
(C) 3, 4 and 5 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Correct Answer: B
Question 349
Magnetism is mainly due to only electron spin around their axis in case of
:
(A) Diamagnetic materials
(B) Paramagnetic materials
(C) Ferromagnetic materials
(D) Paramagnetic and Diamagnetic materials
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Correct Answer: C
Question 350
For Paramagnetic materials, the relative permeability is
:
(A) Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively small and positive
(B) greater than unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively small but positive
(C) equal to unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively large but positive
(D) Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively large and positive
Correct Answer: B
Question 351
Permalloy and Mumetal are examples of
:
(A) Silicon and iron alloys
(B) Nickel and iron alloys
(C) Cobalt and iron alloys
(D) Permanent magnetic materials
Correct Answer: B
Question 352 When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, the phenomenon of

: ‘magnetostriction’ causes
(A) Increase in the body temperature
(B) Change in the permeability of the substance
(C) Small change in its dimensions
(D) Decrease in the saturation flux-density
Correct Answer: C
Question 353 The resistivity of ‘Ferrites’ is very much higher than that of ferromagnetic
: metals, because
(A) Ferrites are chemical compounds and the electrons in them are subject to
restraint of valence forces
(B) Ferrites have a low eddy current loss
(C) Ferrites have a non-homogeneous molecular structure
(D) Ferrites have varying flux-density inside the core
Correct Answer: A
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Question 354 When the temperature exceeds the transition temperature, a ferromagnetic
: material becomes similar to
(A) Anti- ferromagnetic material
(B) Diamagnetic material
(C) ferrimagnetic material
(D) paramagnetic material
Correct Answer: D
Question 355
Einstein relation is referred between
:
(A) The diffusion constant and the mobility
(B) The conduction and diffusion currents
(C) The conduction and diffusion voltages
Correct Answer: A
Question 356 In a piezoelectric crystal oscillator, the oscillation or tuning frequency is

: linearly proportional to the
(A) Mass of the crystal
(B) Square root of the Mass of the crystal
(C) Square of the Mass of the crystal
(D) Inverse of the Square root of the Mass of the crystal
Correct Answer: D
Question 357 Which of the following are piezoelectric substances?

: 1.Barium Titanate
2.Lead Titanate
3.Lead Zirconate
4.Cadmium Suplhate
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
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Question 358 Consider the following statements:

: 1.Fermi level in a p-type semiconductor lies close to the top of the valence
bond.
2.The forbidden energy in Germanium at 0°K is exactly 0.75 eV.
3.When a p-n junction is reverse biased, then electrons and holes move away
from the junction.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Question 359
For a fully transposed transmission line
:
(A) positive negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
(B) positive and negative sequence impedances are equal
(C) zero and positive sequence impedances are equal
(D) negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
Correct Answer: B
Question 360
The unit of magnetic flux density is
:
(A) Gauss
(B) Tesla
(C) Bohr
(D) Wber/sec
Correct Answer: B
Question 361 Skin depth is the distance from the conductor surface where the field strength
: has fallen to
(A) of its strength at the surface
(B) of its strength at the surface
(C) (1/ ) of its strength at the surface
(D) (1/ ) of its strength at the surface
Correct Answer: C
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Question 362 The electric field in the vicinity of two oppositely charged parallel
: conductors is
(A) Radial uniformly
(B) In parallel lines between the two imaginary parallel planes passing through
the centers of the two conductors
(C) Non uniform and its direction changes from point to point
(D) In parallel circular paths between the two conductors, with the center of the
circles located at the mid-point of a line joining the two centers of the two
conductors
Correct Answer: C
Question 363 Two charges are placed at a distance apart. Now, if a glass slab is inserted
: between them, then the force between the charges will
(A) Reduce to zero
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) Not change
Correct Answer: C
Question 364 The transfer function of a second order real system with a perfectly flat
: magnitude response of unity has a pole at (2 – j3). List all the poles and
zeros.
(A) Poles at (2 ± j3), no zeroes.
(B) Poles at (±2 - j3), no zeroes.
(C) Poles at (2 - j3),(-2 + j3) zeroes at (-2 – j3), (2 + j3).
(D) Poles at (2 ± j3), zeroes at (-2 ± j3).
Correct Answer: D
Question 365 The presence of one of the following materials, in iron or steel for use as a
: magnetic material, tends to reduce the hysteresis loss
(A) Carbon
(B) Sulphur
(C) Phosphorous
(D) Silicon
Correct Answer: D
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Question 366 The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increases with
: increasing
(A) Conductivity
(B) Permeability
(C) Wavelength
(D) Permittivity
Correct Answer: A
Question 367 Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
: below the lists:
List-I List-II
A.Carbon (Diamond) 1. Conducting
B.Silicon 2. Semiconducting
C.Tin (Grey) 3. Insulating
D.Lead
(A) A B C D
3 2 1 1
(B) 1 2 1 3
(C) 3 1 2 1
(D) 1 1 2 3
Correct Answer: A
Question 368
It is possible to destroy the superconductivity of a material by applying
:
(A) A strong magnetic field
(B) A temperature much below the transition temperature
(C) A strong electric field
(D) A pressure below that of the atmosphere
Correct Answer: A
Question 369 Consider the following properties regarding insulation for cables:
: 1. A low specific resistance
2. High temperature withstand
3. High dielectric strength
Which of the above properties of insulation are correct while using cables?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
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(D) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: C
Question 370 The open loop poles of a third order unity feedback system are at 0, -1, -2, let
: the frequency corresponding to the point, where the root locus of the system
transits to unstable region be K. now suppose we introduce a zero in the open
loop transfer function at -3, while keeping all the earlier open loop poles
intact. Which one of the following is correct about the point, where the root
locus of the modified system transits to unstable region?
(A) it corresponds to a frequency greater than K
(B) it corresponds to a frequency less that K
(C) it corresponds to a frequency K
(D) Root locus of modified system never transits to unstable region
Correct Answer: B
Question 371 Which of the following moving particles cannot be deflected by magnetic
: fields?
(A) α - Particles
(B) Neutrons
(C) Protons
(D) Electrons
Correct Answer: B
Question 372
The Fermi level in an n-type semiconductor at zero degree kelvin lies
:
(A) Below the donor level
(B) Half-way between the conduction band and the donor level
(C) Half-way between the conduction band and the valence level
(D) Close to the valence band
Correct Answer: C
Question 373
According to free electron theory, electrons in a metal are subjected to
:
(A) Constant potential
(B) Sinusoidal potential
(C) Square wave potential
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(D) Non-periodic potential
Correct Answer: A
Question 374 Controlled addition of group III element to an elemental semiconductor

: results in the formation of
(A) Intrinsic semiconductor
(B) n-type semiconductor
(C) p-type semiconductor
(D) Degenerate semiconductor
Correct Answer: C
Question 375
Phonons (Quanta of lattice vibration) obey
:
(A) Maxwell distribution
(B) Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
(C) Fermi-Dirac distribution
(D) Bose-Einstein distribution
Correct Answer: D
Question 376
Did not you buy…………..when you went shopping?
:
(A) any paper
(B) much paper
(C) no paper
(D) a few paper
Correct Answer: A
Question 377 Consider the following standard symbols for two-port parameters :
: 1.h12 and h21 are dimensionless.
2.h11 ohms and B have dimensions of ohms.
3.BC is dimensionless.
4.C is dimensionless.
Which of the above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
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(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 378 An iron-cored choke coil has an equivalent resistance of 5Ω. It draws 10 A
: when the applied voltage is 240V, 50Hz. Its inductance and power factor
respectively are
(A) 7.5 mH and 0.1 (lag)
(B) 74.7 mH and 0.1 (lag)
(C) 74.7 mH and 0.208 (lag)
(D) 7.5 mH and 0.208 (lag)
Correct Answer: C
Question 379 A voltage of 100 V is applied to an impedance of Z = (3 + j4) Ω. What are

: the values of active power, reactive power and volt-amperes respectively ?
(A) 1200 W, 1220 VAR and 2000 VA
(B) 1600 W, 1600 VAR and 2200 VA
(C) 1200 W, 1600 VAR and 2000 VA
(D) 1600 W, 1200 VAR and 2200 VA
Correct Answer: C
Question 380 The voltage across an impedance Z is 100∠15° V and the current through Z
: is 20∠-45° A. The active and the reactive powers in Z respectively are
(A) 1000 W and 1732 VAR
(B) 500 W and 1732 VAR
(C) 1000 W and 6000 VAR
(D) 500 W and 6000 VAR
Correct Answer: A
Question 381 An a.c. source of 200 V r.m.s. supplies an active power of 1200 W and a
: reactive power of 1600 VAR to a load. The r.m.s. current and the power
factor of the load respectively are
(A) 10 A and 0.6
(B) 8 A and 0.8
(C) 10 A and 0.8
(D) 8 A and 0.6
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Correct Answer: A
Question 382 A shunt capacitor used for reactive power compensation is operated at 98%
: of its rated frequency and 95% of its rated voltage. The reactive power
supplied by this capacitor (as compared to its rated capacity) is
(A) 7.9% lower
(B) 11.5% lower
(C) 11.5% higher
(D) 7.9% higher
Correct Answer: B
Question 383 Consider two nodes A and B connected by an impedance of j5 W. If the

: voltages at nodes A and B are 100∠30° V and 100∠0° V respectively, the
real power that can be transferred from node A to B is
(A) 2000 W
(B) 1000 W
(C) 2769 W
(D) 276.9 W
Correct Answer: B
Question 384 The Thevenin equivalent voltage and resistance across AB shown in the
: figure respectively are
(A) 5 V and 5 Ω
(B) 25 V and 3 Ω
(C) 35 V and 2 Ω
(D) 25 V and 5 Ω
Correct Answer: C
Question 385 The theorem which states that in any linear, non-linear, passive, active, time-
: variant, time-invariant network, summation of instantaneous power is zero
will be called as
(A) Tellegen’s theorem
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(B) Compensation theorem

(C) Reciprocity theorem
(D) Superposition theorem
Correct Answer: A
Question 386 Transients are cause because

: 1.The load is suddenly connected to or disconnected from the supply
2.Of the sudden change in applied voltage form one finite value to the other
3.Of the change in stored energy in inductors and capacitors
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 387
Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?
:
(A) 1 A d.c. current
(B) 50 A d.c. current
(C) 1 A, 60 Hz a.c. current
(D) 1 A, 490 Hz a.c. current
Correct Answer: D
Question 388 For cleat wiring and 250 volts supply, the cables will be placed _____ a part
: centre to centre for single corw cables.
(A) 4.5 cm
(B) 2.5 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 4 cm
Correct Answer: B
Question 389 Which insulation is most widely used for covering wires/cables used in
: internal wiring ?
(A) Paper
(B) Wood
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(C) Glass
(D) PVC
Correct Answer: D
Question 390 If the Q-factor of a coil at resonant frequency of 1.5 MHz is 150 for a series
: resonant circuit, then the corresponding bandwidth is
(A) 225 MHz
(B) 106 MHz
(C) 50 kHz
(D) 10 kHz
Correct Answer: D
Question 391
The number of p-n junctions in a thyristor (SCR) is/are:
:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Correct Answer: C
Question 392 In a two-wattmeter method of measuring power in a balanced 3-phase circuit,

: the ratio of the two wattmeter readings is 1 : 2. The circuit power
(A) 0.707
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.866
(D) Indeterminate
Correct Answer: C
Question 393 A balanced delta-connected load (16 + j12)Ω/phase is connected to a 3-phase

: 230 V balanced supply. The line current and the real power drawn
respectively are
(A) 19.9 A and 3.17 W
(B) 11.5 A and 6.34 W
(C) 19.9 A and 6.34 W
(D) 11.5 A and 3.17 W
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Correct Answer: C
Question 394 A balanced load of 5 + j4 is connected in delta. What is the impedance per
: phase of the equivalent star connection?
(A) 5 + j4
(B) 1.66 + j1.33
(C) 15 + j12
(D) 2.5 + j2
Correct Answer: B
Question 395
In an electric circuit, the number of independent meshes M is
:
(A) 2B – N + 1
(B) B–N+1
(C) 2B – N – 1
(D) B–N–1
Correct Answer: B
Question 396
A.d.c. voltage of 12 volts applied across an inductance in series with a switch
:
(A) Can produce the induced voltage as the current decreases when the switch is
opened
(B) Cannot produce the induced voltage as the voltage applied has the one
polarity
(C) Produces more induced voltage when the switch is closed than the switch is
opened
Correct Answer: A
Question 397 The power factor of a circuit in which voltage and current waves are non-
: sinusoidal is defined as
(A) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the voltage and
current waves
(B) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex
waves
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(C) It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between two equivalent sine
waves having respectively r.m.s. values equal to those of the voltage and
current in the circuit
(D) It is the sine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex
waves
Correct Answer: C
Question 398 The low-frequency circuit impedance and the high-frequency circuit
: impedance for a series resonant circuit respectively are
(A) Capacitive and inductive
(B) Inductive and capacitive
(C) Resistive and inductive
(D) Capacitive and resistive
Correct Answer: A
Question 399 Which of the following is an invalid state in an 8-4-2-1 binary codede
: decimal counter
(A) 1000
(B) 1001
(C) 0011
(D) 1100
Correct Answer: A
Question 400 The maximum space rate of change of the function which is in increasing
: direction of the function is known as
(A) Curl of the vector function
(B) Gradient of the scalar function
(C) Divergence of the vector function
(D) Stokes theorem
Correct Answer: B
Question 401 The field strength at a point of finite distance from an infinitely long straight
: uniform charged conductor is obtained by considering the radial (R)
component and the longitudinal (L) component of the forces acting on a unit
charge at the point, by the charges on the elemental length of the conductor.
The resultant field strength is
(A) The sum of R-components, when the sum of L-components is zero
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(B) The sum of L-components, when the sum of R-components is zero

(C) The sum of both R- and L- components
(D) Average of the sums of R- and L- components
Correct Answer: A
Question 402 The input signals to control systems are not known fully ahead of time, the
: characteristics of control system which suddenly strain a control system are :
(A) Constant velocity and acceleration
(B) Sudden shock
(C) Sudden change
(D) All of the mentioned
Correct Answer: D
Question 403 For electromechanical energy conversion, a magnetic field is employed as the
: medium rather than electric field because
(A) The stored energy density for practicable field strength is low in the electric
field
(B) the electric field presents insulation problem
(C) the specific magnetic loss is more than the specific dielectric loss
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: A
Question 404 if the current density inside a straight conductor is uniform over its cross-
: section, the flux density variation inside the conductor at different distances
from its center is
(A) linear
(B) square of the distance
(C) inverse of the distance
(D) exponential
Correct Answer: A
Question 405 The law which states that the line integral of the magnetic field around a
: closed curve is equal to the free current through a surface, is
(A) Gauss’s law
(B) Tellegen’s theorem
(C) Coulomb’s law
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(D) Ampere’s law
Correct Answer: D
Question 406
(∇ × H) = J is differential form of
:
(A) Gauss’s law
(B) Ampere’s circuital law
(C) Poisson’s equation
(D) Laplace’s equation
Correct Answer: B
Question 407
What should be the nature of bandwidth for a good control system ?
:
(A) Small
(B) Medium
(C) Large
(D) All of the mentioned
Correct Answer: C
Question 408 A conductor of length 100cm moves at right angle to a uniform field flux
: density of 1.5 Wb/m2 with a velocity of 50 m/s. The e.m.f. induced in the
conductor will be
(A) 150 V
(B) 75 V
(C) 50 V
(D) 37.5 V
Correct Answer: B
Question 409 Maxwell equations

: 1.Are extension of the works of Gauss, Faraday and Ampere
2.Help studying the application of electrostatic fields only
3.Can be written in integral form and point form
4.Need not be modified depending upon the media involved in the problem
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
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(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 410
Fermion particles obey
:
(A) Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
(B) Bose-Einstein statistics
(C) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(D) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
Correct Answer: C
Question 411
The complex permeability and resulting wave losses are due to
:
(A) Free electron or ion oscillation and dipole relaxation
(B) Free electron oscillation and relaxation of free space charge
(C) Bound electron oscillation and relaxation of free space charge
(D) Bound electron or ion oscillation and dipole relaxation
Correct Answer: D
Question 412 A 10 GHz plane wave travelling in free space has amplitude 15 V/m. The
: propagation coefficient β is
(A) 209.4 rad/m
(B) 173.6 rad/m
(C) 543.5 rad/m
(D) 3.97 × 10-2 rad/m
Correct Answer: A
Question 413
In time domain specification, decay ratio is the ratio of the
:
(A) Amplitude of the first peak and the steady-state value
(B) Amplitudes of the first two successive peaks
(C) Peak value to the steady-state value
Correct Answer: D
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Question 414 A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of Z0 and

: capacitance per unit length of C. The velocity of propagation of the travelling
wave on the line is
(A) Z0C
(B) 1
Z0C
(C) Z0
C
(D) C
Z0
Correct Answer: B
Question 415 A pair of high-frequency parallel transmission lines has distributed

: capacitance and inductance of 0.8 F and 9.8 mH respectively. What is the
characteristic impedance of the line?
(A) 98.26 Ω
(B) 110.68 Ω
(C) 125 Ω
(D) 128.2 Ω
Correct Answer: B
Question 416 The propagation constant of a transmission line is 0.15 × 10-3 + j1.5 × 10-
3
: The wavelength of the travelling wave is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct Answer: B
Question 417
The skin effect in a transmission line is affected by
:
(A) The resistivity of the transmission line
(B) The current magnitude in the transmission line
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(C) The cross-sectional area of the transmission line

(D) The voltage applied across the transmission line
Correct Answer: C
Question 418
There are no transient in pure resistance circuit because they
:
(A) Offer high resistance
(B) Obey Ohm’s law
(C) Have no stored energy
(D) Are linear circuits
Correct Answer: C
Question 419 As shown in the figure, 1 Ω resistance is connected across a source that has a
: load line v + i = 100. The current through the resistance is
(A) 25 A
(B) 50 A
(C) 100 A
(D) 200 A
Correct Answer: B
Question 420 An RLC resonant circuit has a resonance frequency of 1-5 MHz and
: bandwidth of 10 kHz. If C = 150 PF, then effective resistance of the circuit
will be
(A) 29.5 Ω
(B) 14.75 Ω
(C) 9.5 Ω
(D) 4.7 Ω
Correct Answer: D
Question 421 Consider the following two types of non-identical sources:

: 1.Voltage sources e1(t) and e2(t)
2.Current source i1(t) and i2(t)
Regarding the mode of their connection in a circuit,
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(A) 1 cannot be connected in parallel, and 2 cannot be connected in series

(B) 1 cannot be connected in series, and 2 cannot be connected in parallel
(C) Both 1 and 2 cannot be connected in series
(D) Both 1 and 2 cannot be connected in parallel
Correct Answer: A
Question 422
In a series resonant circuit, maximum voltage across L occurs at
:
(A) Resonant frequency
(B) Slightly below Resonant frequency
(C) Slightly above Resonant frequency
(D) At a frequency where I is maximum
Correct Answer: C
Question 423 For the high voltage conductors at high pressures, if the voltage is positive
: then the corona appears as a
(A) Uniform bluish white sheath
(B) Reddish glowing spots
(C) Uniform greenish spots
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 424 Consider the following properties attributed to state model of a system:
: 1.State model is unique
2.Transfer function for the system is unique
3.State model can be derived from transfer function of the system
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: C
Question 425 A magnetic ring has a mean circumference of 20cm and a cross-section of
: 20cm2 and has 800 numbers of turns of wire. When the exciting current is 5
A, the flux is 2 mWb. The relative permeability of iron is nearly
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(A) 3.98
(B) 398
(C) 0.398
(D) 39.8
Correct Answer: C
Question 426 The voltage and current waveforms for an element are shown in the figures:
:
The circuit element and its value are

(A) Capacitor and 2F
(B) Inductor and 1H
(C) Inductor and 2H
(D) Resistor and 1Ω
Correct Answer: C
Question 427 For a series R-C circuit, the power factor corresponding to maximum power
: is
(A) 0.5 lag
(B) 0.5 lead
(C) 0.707 lead
(D) 0.707 lead
Correct Answer: D
Question 428 The power consumed by a coil is 300W when connected to a 30V dc source
: and 108W when connected to a 30V ac source. The reactance of the coil is
(A) 3Ω
(B) 4Ω
(C) 5Ω
(D) 6.67 Ω
Correct Answer: B
Question 429 When a source is delivering maximum power to a load, the efficiency of the
: circuit is always
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(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 100%
(D) Depends on the circuit parameters
Correct Answer: A
Question 430 Consider the following statements:Any element connected in

: 1.Series with an ideal current source is redundant.
2.Parallel with an ideal current source is redundant.
3.Series with an ideal voltage source is redundant.
4.Parallel with an ideal voltage source is redundant.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 only
(D) 1 and 4
Correct Answer: D
Question 431 A battery charger can drive a current of 5 A into a 1Ω resistance connected at
: its output terminals. If it is able to charge an ideal 2 V battery at 7 A rate,
then Thevenin’s equivalent will be
(A) 7.5 V in series with 0.5 Ω
(B) 12.5 V in series with 1.5 Ω
(C) 7.5 V in parallel with 0.5 Ω
(D) 12.5 V in parallel with 1.5 Ω
Correct Answer: B
Question 432 The output power of a filter is 100 mW, when the signal frequency is 5 kHz.
: When the frequency is increased to 25 kHz, the output power falls to 50 mW.
What is the dB change in power?
(A) – 3 dB
(B) – 5 dB
(C) – 7 dB
(D) – 2 dB
Correct Answer: A
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Question 433 In any network the current will be seen to be consisting of a forced current
: and a natural current. A forced current is
(A) A steady-state current with external source but a natural current is a transient
current in a closed circuit with no external source
(B) A transient current with external source but a natural current is a steady-state
current in a closed circuit with no external source
(C) A steady-state current in a closed circuit without external source, while a
natural current is a transient current with an external source
(D) A transient current in a closed circuit without external source, while a natural
current is a steady-state current with an external source
Correct Answer: A
Question 434 A coil of resistance 10 Ω and inductance 0.8 H is connected to a 200 V dc

: supply. The initial rate of change of current is
(A) 16 A/s
(B) 160 A/s
(C) 250 A/s
(D) 4000 A/s
Correct Answer: C
Question 435 Three equal impedances are first connected in delta across a 3-phase
: balanced supply. If the same impedances are connected in star across the
same supply then,
(A) Phase current will be one-third
(B) Line current will be one-third
(C) Power consumed will be one-third
(D) Phase current will remain the same
Correct Answer: A
Question 436
The electric field lines and equipotential lines
:
(A) Are parallel to each other
(B) Are one and the same
(C) Cut each other orthogonally
(D) Can be inclined to each other at any angle
Correct Answer: C
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Question 437 According to Gauss’s law, the surface integral of the normal component of
: electric flux density D over a closed surface containing charge Q is
(A)
(B) Q
(C) Q
(D) Q2
Correct Answer: C
Question 438 Consider the following statements:A current I flows through a circular coil of
: one turn of radius R in the counter-clock wise direction.
1.The magnetic field at the center is inversely proportional to R
2.The magnetic moment of the coil is directly proportional to R2
3.The magnetic field at its center is directly proportional to R2
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 only
Correct Answer: A
Question 439 The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric medium increases
: with
(A) Increasing wavelength
(B) Increasing conductivity
(C) Decreasing wavelength
(D) Decreasing permittivity
Correct Answer: A
Question 440
In practice, Earth is chosen as a place of zero electric potential because it
:
(A) Is non-conducting
(B) Is easily available reference
(C) Keeps losing and gaining electric charge every day
(D) Has almost constant potential
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Correct Answer: D
Question 441 The capacitance of a concentric spherical capacitor of shell radii x and y (x >
: y) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct Answer: B
Question 442 The frequency of the power wave associated with an electromagnetic wave
: having an E field as
is given by
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct Answer: C
Question 443 When the wave travels in a conducting medium, the rate of attenuation is
: decided by
(A) Attenuation constant
(B) Phase constant
(C) Both attenuation constant and phase constant
(D) Neither attenuation constant nor phase constant
Correct Answer: A
Question 444
Uniform plane wave is
:
(A) Longitudinal in nature
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(B) Transverse in nature

(C) Neither longitudinal nor transverse in nature
(D) x-directed
Correct Answer: B
Question 445 The impedance Z offered by transmission line for a travelling wave which
: damps out the low frequency oscillation rapidly is called
(A) Surge impedance
(B) Natural impedance
(C) Both surge and natural impedance
(D) Neither surge nor natural impedance
Correct Answer: C
Question 446
In a coaxial transmission line, the useful power flows through
:
(A) The interface of the two conductors
(B) Both inner and outer conductors
(C) Inner conductor
(D) Outer conductor
Correct Answer: C
Question 447
For a line to have a purely resistive characteristic impedance
:
(A)
(B)
(C) R=G
(D) GL= RC
Correct Answer: D
Question 448 A second order system is described by

:
The damping ratio of the system is

(A) 0.1
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(B) 0.25
(C) 0.333
(D) 0.5
Correct Answer: D
Question 449
When deriving the transfer function of a linear element
:
(A) Both initial conditions and loading are taken into account
(B) Initial conditions are taken into account but the element is assumed to be not
loaded
(C) Initial conditions are assumed to be zero but loading is taken into account
(D) Initial conditions are assumed to be zero and the element is assumed to be not
loaded
Correct Answer: C
Question 450
:
For the circuit shown above the value of r connected between C and D is
such that the equivalent resistance of the circuit by looking into circuit
through terminals A and B is r only. Then the value of r is
(A) 2Ω
(B) 4Ω
(C) 3Ω
(D) 6Ω
Correct Answer: B
Question 451
:
The power dissipated in the controlled source of the network shown above is
(A) 36 W
(B) 15 W
(C) 07 W
(D) 14 W
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Correct Answer: D
Question 452 The resistance of a 1kW electric heater when energized by a 230V I-phase
: Ac is
(A) 52.9Ω
(B) 230 Ω
(C) 1000 Ω
(D) 4.2
Correct Answer: A
Question 453 If an ideal voltage source and ideal current source are connected in series, the
: combination
(A) Has the same properties as a current source alone
(B) Has the same properties as a voltage source alone
(C) Has the same properties as the source which has a higher vale
(D) Results in the branch being redundant
Correct Answer: A
Question 454 A network N consists of resistors, independent voltage and current sources.
: The value of its determinant based on the loop analysis:
1.Cannot be negative
2.Cannot be zero
3.Is independent of the values of voltage and current sources
4.dependent on the values of the resistances and the voltage and current
sources
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 455
:
In the circuit shown above, for different values of R, the values of V and I are
given, other elements remaining the same
When R = ∞, V = 5V
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When R = 0, I = 2.5 A
When R = 3Ω, the value of V is given by
(A) 1V
(B) 5V
(C) 3V
(D) 2V
Correct Answer: C
Question 456
:
In the circuit shown above, the maximum power absorbed by the load
resistance RL is
(A) 1.5 W
(B) 2.25 W
(C) 2.5 W
(D) 5W
Correct Answer: B
Question 457
:
The voltage-current relationship feeding the network N is shown in the above

figure. The Thevenin’s equivalent of network N will have VTh and RTh as
(A) 5 V and 25 Ω
(B) -25 V and 5 Ω
(C) 25 V and -5 Ω
(D) 25 V and 5 Ω
Correct Answer: D
Question 458 An A.C. source of voltage ES and an internal impedance of ZS = (RS + jXS) is
: connected to a load of impedance ZL = (RL + jXL). Consider the following
conditions in this regard:
1.XL = XS , if only XL is varied
2.XL = - XS , if only XL is varied
3. RL = , if only RL is varied
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4. if the magnitude alone of ZL is varied, keeping the phase

angle fixedThe valid conditions for maximum power transfer from the source
to the load are
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: D
Question 459 Unit impulse response of a given system is C(t) = -4e-t + 6e-2t. the step
:
response for +> 0 is
-2t -t
(A) -3e + 4e + 1
(B) 3e+2t + 4e-t + 1
(C) -3e-2t - 4e-t + 1
(D) 3e-2t + 4e-t – 1
Correct Answer: A
Question 460 Elements R, L, and C are connected in parallel. The impedance of the parallel
: combination can be expressed as
The value of the individual elements R, L and C are

(A) 10 Ω, 40H and 0.1F
(B) 4 Ω, 1H and 0.1F
(C)
10 Ω, H and 0.1F
(D) 1 Ω, 40H and 10F
Correct Answer: C
Question 461 If 1 A current flows in a circuit, the number of electrons flowing through this
: circuit is
(A) 0.625 × 1019
(B) 1.6 × 1019
(C) 1.6 × 10-19
(D) 0.625 × 10-19
Correct Answer: A
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Question 462
The reliability of an instrument refers to
:
(A) The measurement of changes due to temperature variation
(B) The degree to which repeatability continues to remain within specified limits
(C) The life of an instrument
(D) The extent to which the characteristics remain linear
Correct Answer: B
Question 463
In an electrodynamometer wattmeter
:
(A) The fixed coils providing magnetic flux are connected across the power line
(B) The compensated wattmeter improves its accuracy by using windings with
opposite currents with respect to series windings
(C) If the full-scale power measured is 100W, then the half-scale power will be
10W
(D) It can measure a.c. power but is unsuitable for d.c. power
Correct Answer: B
Question 464 The problems of the binary-weighted resistor digital-to-analog convertor

: (DAC) can be overcome by using
(A) An 8-bit binary-weighted resistor DAC
(B) A flash DAC
(C) An R/2R ladder DAC
(D) A staircase DAC
Correct Answer: C
Question 465
Phase lead compensation
:
(A) Increases bandwidth and increases steady-state error
(B) decreases bandwidth and decreases steady-state error
(C) will not affect bandwidth decreases steady-state error
(D) Increases bandwidth but will not affect steady-state error
Correct Answer: D
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Question 466 Frequency counter can be used to measure

: 1.Fundamental frequency of input signal
2.Fundamental and harmonic frequencies of input signal
3.Time interval between two pulses
4.Pulse width
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: D
Question 467 In vector impedance meter, the coverage of the instrument can be obtained
: with
(A) V-I characteristics of the test system
(B) Power-frequency plot
(C) Sweep frequency plots of impedance and phase angle versus frequency
(D) voltage-angle plot
Correct Answer: C
Question 468 A 1mA galvanometer with internal resistance of 50 Ω is to be converted to

: measure 5 A (full-scale). What is the value of the shunt resistance required
for this conversion?
(A) 1Ω
(B) 0.01 Ω
(C) 1 kΩ
(D) 10 Ω
Correct Answer: B
Question 469 A 50μA basic d’Arsonval movement with an internal resistance of 500 Ω is
: to be used as a voltmeter. The value of the multiplier resistance required to
measure a full-scale voltage range of 0-5 volts is
(A) 999.5 kΩ
(B) 99.5 kΩ
(C) 9.99 kΩ
(D) 0.99 kΩ
Correct Answer: B
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Question 470 The maximum power demand of a consumer is 2 kW and the corresponding
: daily energy consumption is 30 units. What is the corresponding load factor?
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.625
(D) 0.75
Correct Answer: C
Question 471 Time response of an indicating instrument is decided by which of the

: following systems?
(A) Mechanical system provided by pivot and jewel bearing
(B) Controlling system
(C) Deflecting system
(D) Damping system
Correct Answer: D
Question 472 An integrator type DVM (digital voltmeter) contains a 100 Ω and 1 capacitor.
: If the voltage applied to the integrator input is 1volt, what voltage will be
present at the output of the integrator after 1 second?
(A) 1.1 V
(B) 1V
(C) 10 V
(D) 100 V
Correct Answer: C
Question 473 In measuring resistance by voltmeter-ammeter method, the voltmeter can be

: connected either across supply or across the resistance. If the resistance is
low, the voltmeter should be connected
(A) Across the supply
(B) Across the resistance
(C) Either across the supply or across the resistance
(D) Neither across the supply nor across the resistance
Correct Answer: B
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Question 474 A bridge circuit works at a frequency of 2 kHz. Which of the following can
: be used as detectors for detection of null conditions in the bridge?
(A) Vibration galvanometers and headphones
(B) Headphones and tunable amplifiers
(C) Vibration galvanometers and tunable amplifiers
(D) Vibration galvanometers, headphones and tunable amplifiers
Correct Answer: A
Question 475
A dual-beam CRO
:
(A) Has one set of vertical deflection plates
(B) Has two sets of horizontal deflection plates
(C) Has two separate electron beams
Correct Answer: C
Question 476 If the bandwidth of an oscilloscope is 10 MHz, what is the fastest rise time a
: square wave can have to be accurately reproduced by the instrument?
(A) 10 ns
(B) 35 ns
(C) 28 ns
(D) 100 ns
Correct Answer: B
Question 477 A capacitive transducer consists of two parallel plates of diameter 2 cm and
: separated by an air gap of 0.25 mm. What is the displacement sensitivity?
(A) +200 pF/cm
(B) -300 pF/cm
(C) -444 pF/cm
(D) +44.4 pF/cm
Correct Answer: C
Question 478 An analog transducer with a 0-10V input is able to distinguish a charge of 10
: mV in its input signal. What is the number if bits of an A/D convertor in
binary code so that the digital output has almost the same resolution as the
transducer?
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(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 4
Correct Answer: B
Question 479 A 3-turn 100 kΩ potentiometer with 1% linearity uses 30V supply. What is
: the potentiometer constant?
(A) 0.1 V/turn
(B) 10 V/turn
(C) 33.33 V/turn
(D) 0.3 V/turn
Correct Answer: C
Question 480
A Gantt chart indicates
:
(A) Balance of work done
(B) Efficiency of project
(C) Comparison of actual process with scheduled
(D) Progress of project
Correct Answer: C
Question 481 A single phase ac voltage source has 200V rms and a system connected
: consumes an active power of 300W. What is the reactive power consumed by
the system if 2-5A rms current is drawn?
(A) 100 VAR
(B) 200 VAR
(C) 200 VAR
(D) 400 VAR
Correct Answer: D
Question 482 Two wattmeters are used to measure the power in a 3-phase balanced system.
: What is the power factor of the load when one wattmeter reads twice the
other?
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
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(C) 0.866
(D) 1
Correct Answer: C
Question 483 In a balanced 3-phase 200 V circuit, the line current is 115.5A. When the
: power is measured by two wattmeter method, one of the wattmeter reads 20
kW and the other one reads zero. What is the power factor of the load?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.7
(D) 0.8
Correct Answer: A
Question 484 For ammeters M1, M2, M3 and M4 with the following specifications are
: available. (Full scale, accuracy value as percentage of FS)M1 = 20 0.10;
M2 = 10 0.20;
M3 = 5 0.50;
M4 = 1 1.00;
A current of 1 A is to be measured. To obtain minimum error in the reading
one should select meter.
(A) M1
(B) M2
(C) M3
(D) M4
Correct Answer: D
Question 485 A dc voltmeter has a sensitivity of 1000Ω/V. When it measures half full scale
: in 100V range, the current through the voltmeter is
(A) 100 mA
(B) 50 mA
(C) 1 mA
(D) 0.5 mA
Correct Answer: D
Question 486 Two wattmeter method is employed to measure power in a 3-phase balanced
: system with the current coil connected in the A and C lines. The phase
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sequence is ABC. If the wattmeter with its current coil in A-phase line reads
zero, then the power factor of the 3-phase load will be
(A) Zero lagging
(B) Zero leading
(C) 0.5 lagging
(D) 0.5 leading
Correct Answer: C
Question 487 What is the number of turns of wire needed to provide a potentiometer with a
: resolution of 0.05 percent?
(A) 200 turns
(B) 2000 turns
(C) 20 turns
(D) 20000 turns
Correct Answer: B
Question 488 The principle of operation used in capacitive transducers to measure level of
: liquid is change of
(A) Area of plates
(B) Dielectric strength
(C) Distance between plates
(D) Shape of plates
Correct Answer: B
Question 489
In moving iron instruments, eddy current damping cannot be used as
:
(A) They have a strong operating magnetic field
(B) They are not normally used in vertical position
(C) They need a large damping force, which can only be provided by air friction
(D) The introduction of a permanent magnet required for eddy current damping
would distort the existing weak operating magnetic field
Correct Answer: D
Question 490 A basic D’Arsonval movement showing full scale deflection for a current of
: 50 and having internal resistance of 500Ω is used as a voltmeter. What is the
value of multiplier resistance needed to measure a voltage range of 0-20V?
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(A) 398.5 kΩ
(B) 399 kΩ
(C) 399.5 kΩ
(D) 400 kΩ
Correct Answer: C
Question 491 One single-phase energy meter operating on 230 V and 5A for 5 hours makes
: 1940 revolutions. Meter constant is 400 rev/kWh. The power factor of the
load is
(A) 1.0
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.7
(D) 0.6
Correct Answer: B
Question 492
In DeSauty Bridge (unmodified form) it is possible to obtain balance
:
(A) Even if both the capacitors are imperfect.
(B) If one of the capacitors is perfect
(C) Only if both the capacitors are perfect
Correct Answer: C
Question 493
The current coil of a single-phase energy meter is wound on
:
(A) One limb of the laminated core
(B) Both the limbs of the laminated core with same number of turns
(C) Both the limbs of the laminated core with different number of turns
(D) The center of the limb on the laminated core
Correct Answer: B
Question 494 For controlling the vibration of the disc of ac energy meter , damping torque
: is produced by
(A) Eddy current
(B) Chemical effect
(C) Electrostatic effect
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(D) Magnetic effect
Correct Answer: A
Question 495 The meter constant of a single-phase 230 V induction watt hour meter is 400
: revolutions per kWh. The speed of the meter disc for a current of 10A of 0.9
pf lagging will be
(A) 13.80 rpm
(B) 16.02 rpm
(C) 18.20 rpm
(D) 21.10 rpm
Correct Answer: A
Question 496 A galvanometer has a current sensitivity of 1 A/mm and a critical damping
: resistance of 1 kΩ. The voltage sensitivity and the meg-ohm sensitivity
respectively are
(A) 1 mV/mm and 1 MΩ
(B) 1 mV/mm and 2 MΩ
(C) 2 mV/mm and 2 MΩ
(D) 2 mV/mm and 1 MΩ
Correct Answer: A
Question 497 Electrostatic voltmeters are particularly suitable for measuring high voltages
: because the construction is simplified due to
(A) Large electrostatic forces
(B) Small electrostatic forces
(C) Large value of current
(D) Small value of current
Correct Answer: D
Question 498 A moving coil instrument of resistance 5Ω requires a potential difference of

: 75 mV to give a full scale deflection. The value of shunt resistance needed a
give a full scale deflection at 30A is
(A) 2.5 mΩ
(B) 9.99 mΩ
(C) 5Ω
(D) 9.95 mΩ
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Correct Answer: A
Question 499 The function of input attenuators is measuring instruments , like VTVM and
: CRO, is to
(A) Increase the input impedance
(B) Attenuate the frequency range
(C) Attenuate the input signal amplitude without altering the frequency contents
(D) Attenuate the input impedance
Correct Answer: C
Question 500 With the help of which bridge are the capacitance and dielectric loss of a
: capacitor generally measured?
(A) De Sauty
(B) Wien series
(C) Anderson
(D) Schering
Correct Answer: D
Question 501
The deflection of a hot wire instrument depends on
:
(A) Instantaneous value of alternating current
(B) Average value of current
(C) RMS value of alternating current
(D) Voltage instead of current
Correct Answer: C
Question 502 A DVM uses 10 MHz clock and has a voltage controlled generator which
: provides a width of 5 s/volt of unit signal. 10V input signal would correspond
to a pulse count of
(A) 500
(B) 750
(C) 250
(D) 1000
Correct Answer: A
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Question 503 A resistance strain gauge with a gauge factor is 2.0 is fastened to a steel
: member subjected to a stress of 100N/mm2. The modulus of elasticity of steel
is approximately 2 × 105 N/mm2. The percentage of change in resistance is
(A) 1.50
(B) 1.00
(C) 0.15
(D) 0.10
Correct Answer: D
Question 504 The resistance of 125 Ω strain gauge changes by 1 Ω for 4000 micro-strain.
: The gauge factor for strain gauge is
(A) 1.5
(B) 2.0
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.0
Correct Answer: B
Question 505
Delay line is essential in a CRO, to ensure that
:
(A) Vertical signal starts after the retrace period of sweep signal
(B) The sweep reaches the horizontal plates before the desired signal under
consideration
(C) Initial part of signal to be observed is not lost
Correct Answer: D
Question 506
Which of the following ADC has highest accuracy?
:
(A) Successive approximation type
(B) Flash or parallel type
(C) Single slope integration type
(D) Dual slope integration type
Correct Answer: D
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Question 507
Volt-box is basically a device used for
:
(A) Measuring the voltage
(B) Extending the range of voltmeter
(C) Extending the voltage range of the potentiometer
(D) Measuring power
Correct Answer: C
Question 508
To minimize voltmeter loading
:
(A) Voltmeter operating current has to be very small
(B) Voltmeter operating current has to be very high
(C) Resistance connected in series with the coil should be low
(D) Resistance connected in parallel with the coil should be high
Correct Answer: A
Question 509 A 3-phase moving coil type power factor meter has three fixed and
: symmetrically spaced current coils, inside of which are three other similarly
placed moving potential coils. While in operation, rotating magnetic field is
produced
(A) In the current coils but not in the potential coils
(B) In the potential coils but not in the current coils
(C) In both potential coils and current coils
(D) In neither the potential coils nor the current coils
Correct Answer: A
Question 510 In a low power factor wattmeter, sometimes compensating coil is connected
: in order to
(A) Neutralize the capacitive effect of pressure coil
(B) Compensate for inductance of pressure coil
(C) Compensate for power loss in the pressure coil
(D) Reduce the error caused by eddy current
Correct Answer: C
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Question 511 The current and potential coils of a wattmeter were accidentally interchanged
: while connecting. After energizing the circuit, it was observed that the
wattmeter did not show the reading. This would be due to
(A) Damage done to the potential coil
(B) Damage done to the current coil
(C) Damage done to both potential current coils
(D) Loose contact
Correct Answer: B
Question 512
Heat in a conductor is produced on the passage of electric current due to
:
(A) Reactance
(B) Capacitance
(C) Impedance
(D) Resistance
Correct Answer: D
Question 513
The galvanometer is protected during transport by
:
(A) Connecting critical damping-resistance across the galvanometer terminals
(B) Shorting the galvanometer terminals
(C) Keeping the galvanometer terminals open-circuited
(D) Connecting a capacitor across the galvanometer terminals
Correct Answer: A
Question 514 A frequency counter needs to measure a frequency of 15 Hz. Its signal gating
: time is 2s. What is the percentage accuracy of the counter, taking into
account the gating error?
(A) 3.33%
(B) 13.33%
(C) 98.67%
(D) 96.67%
Correct Answer: D
Question 515
Wagner’s earthing device is used in A.C. bridges for
:
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(A) Shielding the bridge elements

(B) Eliminating the stray electrostatic field effects
(C) Eliminating the effect of earth capacitance
(D) Eliminating the effect of inter-component capacitances
Correct Answer: B
Question 516 A bridge circuit works at a frequency of 2kHz. The following can be sued as
: detectors for detection of null conditions on the bridge
(A) Vibration galvanometers and Headphones
(B) Headphones and tunable amplifiers
(C) Vibration galvanometers and Tunable amplifiers
(D) Vibration galvanometers, Head-phones and Tunable amplifiers
Correct Answer: B
Question 517 A current transformer has a phase error of +3°. The phase angle between the
: primary and secondary currents is
(A) 3°
(B) 177°
(C) 180°
(D) 183°
Correct Answer: B
Question 518 Electronic voltmeters which use rectifiers employ negative feedback. This is
: done
(A) To increase the overall gain
(B) To improve the stability
(C) To overcome the non-linearity of diodes
(D) To increase the bandwidth
Correct Answer: D
Question 519
Creep error may occur in induction type energy meter due to
:
(A) Incorrect position of brake magnet
(B) Incorrect adjustment of position of shading band
(C) Overvoltage across voltage coil
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(D) Increase in temperature
Correct Answer: B
Question 520 An 8-bit successive approximation DVM of 5V range is used to measure 1.2
: V. The contents of SAR after 5 clock pulses is
(A) 01010000
(B) 00111100
(C) 00111000
(D) 00110111
Correct Answer: C
Question 521 In a digital voltmeter, the oscillator frequency is 400 kHz. A ramp voltage to
: be measured by this voltmeter falls from 8V to 0V in 20 ms. The number of
pulses counted by the counter is
(A) 8000
(B) 4000
(C) 3200
(D) 1600
Correct Answer: A
Question 522 While using a frequency counter for measuring frequency, two modes of
: measurement are possible, (i) Period mode (ii) Frequency mode. There is a
‘cross-over frequency’ below which the period mode is preferred. Assuming
the crystal oscillator frequency to be 4 MHz the cross-over frequency is
given by
(A) 8 MHz
(B) 2 MHz
(C) 2 kHz
(D) 1 kHz
Correct Answer: B
Question 523 Which of the following instrument will be used to measure a small current of
: very high frequency?
(A) Electrodynamic ammeter
(B) Moving coil galvanometer
(C) Thermocouple type instrument
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(D) Induction type instrument
Correct Answer: C
Question 524
In a digital data acquisition system, a scanner multiplexer
:
(A) Scans the printed diagram and converts it into digital data
(B) Accepts multiple digital inputs and output any one of them with select lines
(C) Accepts multiple analog inputs and sequentially connects them to an ADC
(D) Checks the correct functioning of the modules one by one
Correct Answer: B
Question 525 The number of bits of A/D convertor required to convert an analog input in
: the range of 0-5 volt to an accuracy of 10 mV is
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 16
Correct Answer: B
Question 526
The drift velocity of electron in silicon
:
(A) Is proportional to electric field for all values of electric field
(B) Is independent of electric field
(C) Increases at lower values and decreases at higher values of electric field
(D) Increases linearly with electric field at low values and gradually saturates at
higher values of electric field
Correct Answer: C
Question 527 In the two-wattmeter method of measuring 3-phase power, the wattmeter
: indicate equal and opposite readings when load power factor is
(A) 90 leading
(B) 90 lagging
(C) 30 leading
(D) 30 lagging
Correct Answer: B
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Question 528 If 3-phase power is measured with the help of two-wattmeter method in a
: balanced load with the application of 3-phase balanced voltage, variation in
readings of wattmeters will depend on
(A) Load only
(B) Power factor only
(C) Load and power factor
(D) Neither load nor power factor
Correct Answer: C
Question 529 Consider the following statements:The causes of error in the measurement of
: temperature using a thermistor are
1.Self heating
2.Poor sensitivity
3.Non-linear characteristics
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Question 530 Five observers have taken a set of independent voltage measurements and
: recorded as 110.10V, 110.20V, 110.15V, 110.30V and 110.25V. Under the
situation mentioned above, the range of error is
(A) + 0.3
(B) + 0.1
(C) + 0.2
(D) + 1.0
Correct Answer: B
Question 531 The technique used to check quantitatively whether the given data
: distribution is close to Gaussian distribution is
(A) Curve fitting
(B) Method of least squares
(C) Chi-square test
(D) Standard deviation of mean
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Correct Answer: D
Question 532 When a program is being executed in an 8085 microprocessor, its program
: counter contains
(A) The memory address as the instruction that is to be executed next
(B) The memory address of the instruction that is being currently matched
(C) The total number of instructions in the program being executed
(D) The number of instructions in the current program that have already been
executed
Correct Answer: A
Question 533
A ‘DADH’ instruction is the same as shifting each bit by one position to the
:
(A) Left
(B) Right
(C) Left with a zero inserted in LSB position
(D) Right with a zero inserted in LSB position
Correct Answer: C
Question 534
Which one of the following statements is correct about 8086?
:
(A) It is 46 PM IC and uses 5V dc supply
(B) It uses 20 lines for data bus
(C) It multiplexes status signals with address bus
(D) It is manufactured using CMOS technology
Correct Answer: C
Question 535 During which T-state, contents of OP code from memory are loaded into IR
: (Instruction Register)?
(A) T1 OP code Fetch
(B) T2 OP code Fetch
(C) T3 OP code Fetch
(D) T4 OP code Fetch
Correct Answer: C
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Question 536
In 8085 microproccessor, the address for ‘TRAP’ interrupt is
:
(A) 0024H
(B) 002CH
(C) 0034H
(D) 003CH
Correct Answer: A
Question 537 Assuming LSB is at position 0 and MSB at position 7, which bit positions are
: not used (undefined) in Flag Register of an 8085 microprocessor?
(A) 1, 3, 5
(B) 2, 3, 5
(C) 1, 2, 5
(D) 1, 3, 4
Correct Answer: A
Question 538
At the beginning of a Fetch cycle, the contents of the program counter are
:
(A) Incremented by one
(B) Transferred to address bus
(C) Transferred to memory address register
(D) Transferred to memory data register
Correct Answer: C
Question 539 What will be the contents of DE and HL register pairs respectively after the
: execution of the following instructions?
LXIH, 2500H
LXID, 0200H
DAD D
XCHG
(A) 0200H, 2500H
(B) 0200H, 2700H
(C) 2500H, 0200H
(D) 2700H, 0200H
Correct Answer: D
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Question 540
Direction flag is used with
:
(A) String instructions
(B) Stack instructions
(C) Arithmetic instructions
(D) Branch instructions
Correct Answer: A
Question 541
XCHG instruction of 8085 exchanges the content of
:
(A) Top of stack with contents of register pair
(B) BC and DE register pairs
(C) HL and DE register pairs
Correct Answer: C
Question 542
To interface a slow memory, wait states are added by
:
(A) Extending the time of the chip select logic
(B) Causing READY signal to go low
(C) Causing READY signal to go high
(D) By increasing the clock frequency
Correct Answer: B
Question 543 Each instruction in an assembly language program has the following fields
: 1.Label field
2.Mnemonic field
3.Operand field
4.Comment field
What is the correct sequence of these fields?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(C) 1, 3, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 4, 1 and 3
Correct Answer: A
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Question 544 A memory system has a total of 8 memory chips, each with 12 address lines
: and 4 data lines. The total size of the memory system is
(A) 32 k bytes
(B) 48 k bytes
(C) 64 k bytes
(D) 6 k bytes
Correct Answer: A
Question 545 In 8085 microprocessor with memory mapped I/O, which one of the
: following is correct?
(A) I/O devices have 16bit addresses
(B) I/O devices are accesses during IN and OUT instructions
(C) There can be a maximum of 256 input and 256 output devices
(D) Logic operations cannot be performed
Correct Answer: A
Question 546 On simplification of expression using Boolean

: algebra, the solution is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct Answer: B
Question 547
The large signal bandwidth of an operational amplifier is limited by its
:
(A) CMRR
(B) Slew Rate
(C) Gain-bandwidth product
(D) Input impedance
Correct Answer: B
Question 548 Formative time lag depends on the mechanism of the avalanche growth in
: gap. The formative time lag is usually
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(A) Much shorter than the statistical time lag

(B) Much greater than the statistical time lag
(C) Equal to the statistical time lag
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 549 What is the correct sequence when the logic families TTL, ECL, IIL and
: CMOS are arranged in descending order of fan-out capabilities?
(A) CMOS, TTL, ECL and IIL
(B) IIL, TTL, ECL and CMOS
(C) IlL, ECL, TTL and CMOS
(D) CMOS, ECL, TTL and IIL
Correct Answer: D
Question 550 Inelastic collisions are those in which internal changes in energy take place
: within an atom or a molecule at the expenses of total kinetic energy of the
colliding particle. Suitable example for inelastic collisions is/are
(A) Ionization
(B) Attachment
(C) Excitation
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 551
Specific resistance of a conductor depends upon
:
(A) dimensions of the conductor
(B) composition of the conductor material
(C) resistance of the conductor
(D) both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: B
Question 552 In pneumatic control systems the control valve used as the final control
: element converts
(A) Position change to pressure signal
(B) Electric signal to pressure signal
(C) Pressure signal to electric signal
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(D) Pressure signal to position change
Correct Answer: D
Question 553
For an SR flip-flop, S and R are made equal to 1. What is the value of Q?
:
(A) Unchanged
(B) Clear to 0
(C) Set to 1
(D) Indeterminate
Correct Answer: D
Question 554 What is the frequency of the output Q for the circuit shown in the figure?
:
(A) Twice the input clock frequency

(B) Half the input clock frequency
(C) Same as the input clock frequency
(D) Inverse of the propagation delay of the flip-flop
Correct Answer: B
Question 555
In a temperature control system, what conversion in signal takes place ?
:
(A) Error to Digital
(B) Error to Analog
(C) Digital to Analog
(D) Analog to Digital
Correct Answer: D
Question 556 A convertor type 8-bit A/D convertor is driven by a 500 kHz clock. What are
: the maximum counts, average conversion time and maximum conversion rate
respectively?
(A) 256 counts, 200 × 10-6 sec and 1000 conversions/sec
(B) 256 counts, 200 × 10-6 sec and 1953 conversions/sec
(C) 128 counts, 200 × 10-6 sec and 1200 conversions/sec
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(D) 128 counts, 200 × 10-6 sec and 1000 conversions/sec
Correct Answer: B
Question 557
Which of the following element is not used in an automatic control system ?
:
(A) Final control element
(B) Sensor
(C) Oscillator
(D) Error detector
Correct Answer: C
Question 558
Which of the motions in actuators are preferred ?
:
(A) Rotary
(B) Stationary
(C) Non-Stationary
(D) Translator
Correct Answer: A
Question 559 A 4-bit modulo-6 ripple counter uses J-K flip-flops. If the propagation delay
: of each flip-flop is 50 ns, the maximum clock frequency that can be used is
(A) 5 MHz
(B) 6.95 MHz
(C) 10 MHz
(D) 20 MHz
Correct Answer: A
Question 560 The following switching functions are to be implemented using a Decoder:
: f1 = ∑ m (1, 2, 4, 8, 10, 14)
f2 = ∑ m (2, 5, 9, 11)
f3 = ∑ m (2, 4, 5, 6, 7)
The minimum configuration of the decoder should be
(A) 2-to-4 lines
(B) 3-to-8 lines
(C) 4-to-16 lines
(D) 5-to-32 lines
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Correct Answer: C
Question 561 A 4-bit D/A convertor gives an output voltage of 4.5V for an input code of
: 1001. The output voltage for an input code of 0110 is
(A) 1.5 V
(B) 2.0 V
(C) 3.0 V
(D) 4.5 V
Correct Answer: C
Question 562 Which of the following statements regarding binary counter are correct?
: 1.Clock inputs of all flip-flops of a synchronous counter are applied from the
same source whereas those in an asynchronous counter are from different
sources.
2.Asynchronous counter has ripple effects whereas synchronous counter has
not.
3.Only J-K flip-flops can be used in synchronous counter whereas
asynchronous counter can be designed with any type of flip-flops.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer: D
Question 563
The temperature coefficient of resistance of an insulator is
:
(A) positive and independent of temperature
(B) negative and independent of temperature
(C) negative and dependent of temperature
(D) positive and dependent of temperature
Correct Answer: C
Question 564
Given (125)R = (203)5. The value of radix R will be
:
(A) 16
(B) 10
(C) 8
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(D) 6
Correct Answer: D
Question 565
Resistance of a copper wire always increases if
:
(A) temperature is reduced
(B) temperature is increased
(C) number of free electrons becomes less
(D) number of free electrons becomes more
Correct Answer: C

: 1.When two unsigned numbers are added, an overflow is detected from the
carry into the most significant position.
2.An overflow does not occur if the two numbers added are both negative.
3.If the carry into the sign bit position and carry out of the sign bit position
are not equal, an overflow condition is produced.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only
Correct Answer: D
Question 567 Which of the following statements are correct?

: 1.DRAM offers reduced power consumption.
2.An associative memory is cheaper than RAM.
3.The fastest and most flexible cache organization uses content addressable
memory.
4.The address generated by a segmented program is called physical address.
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Correct Answer: A
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Question 568 D input of a clocked D-flip flop receives an input A⊕ Qn where A is an

: external logic input and Qn is the output of the nth D-FF before the clock
appears. The circuit works as
(A) Ex OR gate
(B) T-FF
(C) D-FF
(D) JK-FF
Correct Answer: B
Question 569 Which one of the following is the correct answer when 110112 is subtracted
: from 110112 by using the 1’s complement method?
(A) 01001
(B) 10001
(C) 00011
(D) 00010
Correct Answer: D
Question 570 Which of the following current is drawn by the primary circuit of an ideal
: transformer when the secondary is open ?
(A) Secondary current
(B) Leakage current
(C) Magnetizing current
(D) Working on current
Correct Answer: C
Question 571 Which of the following will happen in a transformer when the number of
: secondary turns is greater than the number of primary turns ?
(A) The voltage gets stepped up
(B) The voltage gets stepped down
(C) The power gets stepped up
(D) The power gets stepped down
Correct Answer: A
Question 572
Ready pin of a microprocessor is used
:
(A) To indicate that microprocessor is ready to receive inputs
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(B) To indicate that microprocessor is ready to receive outputs

(C) To introduce wait state
(D) To provide direct memory access
Correct Answer: C
Question 573 A bus connected between the CPU and the main memory that permits
: transfer of information between main memory and the CPU is known as
(A) DMA bus
(B) Memory bus
(C) Address bus
(D) Control bus
Correct Answer: B
Question 574
Who is the father of Computers ?
:
(A) James Gosling
(B) Charles Babbage
(C) Dennis Ritchie
(D) Bjarne Stroustrup
Correct Answer: B
Question 575 With reference to 8085 microprocessor, which of the following statements
: are correct?
1.INR-is 1-byte instruction
2.OUT is 2-byte instruction
3.STA-is 3-byte instruction
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
Question 576 Consider the following registers:

: 1.Accumulator and Flag register
2.B and C registers
3.D and E registers
4.H and L registers
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Which of these 8-bit registers of 8085 P can be paired together to make a 16-
bit register?
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: B
Question 577 The first microprocessor to include virtual memory in the Intel
: microprocessor family is
(A) 80236
(B) 80386
(C) 80486
(D) Pentium
Correct Answer: A
Question 578 In 8085 microprocessor, which mode of addressing does the instruction CMP
: M use?
(A) Direct addressing
(B) Register microprocessor
(C) Indirect microprocessor
(D) Immediate microprocessor
Correct Answer: C
Question 579 Which of the following 8085 instruction will require maximum T-states for
: execution?
(A) XRI byte
(B) STA address
(C) CALL address
(D) JMP address
Correct Answer: C
Question 580
How many machine cycles are required by STA instruction?
:
(A) 2
(B) 3
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(C) 4
(D) 5
Correct Answer: C
Question 581 Which of the following instructions is closest match to the instruction POP
: PC?
(A) RET
(B) PCHL
(C) POP PSW
(D) DAD SP
Correct Answer: A
Question 582
LOADER is a program that
:
(A) Loads the mnemonics and generates a hex file
(B) Loads the hex file and converts to the executable file
(C) Loads the COM file and generates the binary code
(D) Loads English like command and generates the binary code
Correct Answer: B
Question 583 Direct-Memory-Access channel (DMA) facilitates data to move in and out of
: the system
(A) On first-come-first-serve basis
(B) With equal time delay
(C) Without a sub-routine
(D) Without programme intervention
Correct Answer: D
Question 584 The address lines A15 to A9 of microprocessor with 64 K memory capacity
: are connected to the chip select line of a 512 × 8 EPROM through an AND
gate. Its memory map ranges from 0000 to
(A) 00FF
(B) 03FF
(C) 02FF
(D) 01FF
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Correct Answer: D
Question 585 A device or a peripheral equipment which is not in direct communication

: with CPU of a computer is called
(A) Offline device
(B) 03FF
(C) Active device
(D) Slow device
Correct Answer: A
Question 586 Three devices A, B and C have to be connected to an 8085 microprocessor.

: Device A has highest priority and device C has the lowest priority. In this
context, which of the following is correct assignment of interrupt inputs?
(A) A uses TRAP, B uses RST 5.5 and C uses RST 6.5
(B) A uses RST 7.5, B uses RST 6.5 and C uses RST 5.5
(C) A uses RST 5.5, B uses RST 6.5 and C uses RST 7.5
(D) A uses RST 5.5, B uses RST 6.5 and C uses TRAP
Correct Answer: B
Question 587
Which of the following data transfers is not possible in microprocessor?
:
(A) Memory to accumulator
(B) Accumulator to memory
(C) Memory to memory
(D) I/O device to accumulator
Correct Answer: C
Question 588 If the memory chip size is 1024 × 4, the number of memory chips required to
: design 8 k memory is
(A) 8
(B) 256
(C) 16
(D) 32
Correct Answer: C
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Question 589 The number of one’s present in the binary representation of15 × 265 + 5 × 16
: + 3 are
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
Correct Answer: A
Question 590
What is the characteristic of a good control system ?
:
(A) Insensitive to the parameter variation but sensitive to the input commands
(B) Neither sensitive to parameter variations nor sensitive to input commands
(C) Insensitive to the input command
(D) Sensitive to parameter variation
Correct Answer: A
Question 591 The circuit shown in the figure is

:
(A) OR gate
(B) NOR gate
(C) NAND gate
(D) AND gate
Correct Answer: C
Question 592 A binary-to-BCD encoder has for inputs D0, C0, B0 and A0 and five outputs
: D, C, B, A and VALID. The outputs D, C, B, A give the proper BCD value
of the input and the VALID output is 1 if the input combination is a valid
decimal code. If the input combination is an invalid decimal code, the
VALID output becomes 0 and all of the D, C, B and A outputs show 0
values. If only NOT gates and 2-input OR and AND gates are available, the
minimum number of gates required to implement the above circuit is
(A) 10
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(B) 9
(C) 8
(D) 7
Correct Answer: C
Question 593
: In the J-K flip-flop, we have J = and K =1 as shown in the figure
Assuming the flip flop was initially cleared and the clocked for 6 pulses, the
sequence at the Q output will be
(A) 010000
(B) 011001
(C) 010010
(D) 010101
Correct Answer: D
Question 594 The Boolean function ‘f’ implemented as shown in the figure using two input
: multiplexes is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Correct Answer: A
Question 595 Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The expression for next state Q(t +
: 1) is
(A) x Q(t)
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(B) x ⊕ Q(t)
(C)
x (t)
(D) x Ê˜ Q(t)
Correct Answer: B
Question 596
: The outputs Q and â€‹ of master S – R flip-flop are connected to its R
and S inputs respectively. The output Q when clock pulses are applied will be
(A) Permanently 0
(B) Permanently 1
(C) Fixed 0 or 1
(D) Complementing with every clock pulse
Correct Answer: D

: 1.A flip-flop is used to store 1 bit of information.
2.Race around condition occurs in a J-K flip-flop when both of its inputs are
1.
3.Master slave configuration is used in flip-flops to store 2-bits of
information.
4.A transparent latch consists of D-type flip-flop.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: C
Question 598 A circuit consist of two synchronously clocked J-K flip-flops connected as
:
follows: The circuit acts as a
(A) Counter of mod 3
(B) Counter of mod 2
(C) Shift-right register
(D) Shift-left register
Correct Answer: B
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Question 599 A semiconductor RAM has a 12-bit address of register and an 8-bit data
: register. The total number of bits in the memory is
(A) 256 bits
(B) 4,096 bits
(C) 32,768 bits
(D) 10,48,576 bits
Correct Answer: C
Question 600 A dual slope analog to digital convertor uses N-bit counter. When the input
: signal Va is being integrated, the counter is allowed to count up to the value
(A) Equal to 2N – 2
(B) Equal to 2N – 1
(C) Proportional to Va
(D) inversely proportional to Va
Correct Answer: B
Passage : Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of
V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S
sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate
neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one
person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
Question 601 According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws
: ?
(A) To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases
like TB
(B) To attract Indian scientists back to the country
(C) To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
(D) To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 602
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
:
(A) Area
(B) Volume
(C) Length
(D) Sound
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(E) Energy
Solution : Sol : As ‘Gram’ measures the mass of a body, in the same way, centimetre
measures the length of a body.
Correct Answer: C
Question 603
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
:
(A) Fruit
(B) Stem
(C) Flower
(D) Root
(E) None of these
Solution : Sol : Mustard is an oilseed (seed). Similarly, carrot is a modified root.
Correct Answer: D
Question 604 Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan :
: Heat?
(A) Water : Drink
(B) Light : Night
(C) Teach : Student
(D) Air : Breathe
(E) Food : Hunger
Solution : Sol : As, fan in necessary to remove heat, in the same way food is necessary
to remove hunger.
Correct Answer: E
Question 605
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
:
(A) Fruit
(B) Stem
(C) Flower
(D) Root
(E) None of these
Solution : Sol : As radish is the root of a plant, similarly brinjal is the fruit of the plant.
Correct Answer: A
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Question 606
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
:
(A) Omnivorous
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Multivorous
(E) None of these
Solution : Sol: Jackal is a carnivorous animal, in the same way, goat is a herbivorous.
Correct Answer: C
Question 607
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
:
(A) Party : Dance
(B) Study : Book
(C) Lecture : Study
(D) Enjoy : Journey
(E) None of these
Solution : Sol : In race we run, similarly in journey we enjoy.
Correct Answer: D
Question 608
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
:
(A) Pity : Kindness
(B) Cruel : Anger
(C) Wise : Education
(D) Pride : Humility
(E) None of these
Solution : Sol : Money add in our wealth, similarly pity add in our kindness
Correct Answer: A
Question 609 Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’
: is related to 'Taste'?
(A) Memory
(B) Highness
(C) Tongue
(D) Speak
(E) Voice
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Solution : Sol : As taste is delicious, similar voice is melodious
Correct Answer: E
Question 610 Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is
: related to
(A) Integrity
(B) Honesty
(C) Guide
(D) Competition
(E) None of these
Solution : Sol : Above board is related to competition.
Correct Answer: D
Question 611
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
:
(A) 20
(B) 14
(C) 56
(D) 26
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 612
Which one is different form the remaining three?
:
(A) GIJK
(B) DFGH
(C) CEFG
(D) ABCD
(E) None of these
Solution : In others, there is a gap of one letter between the first and the second letters
of the group.
Correct Answer: D
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Question 613 Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group.
: Which is one that does not belong to the group?
(A) 71
(B) 73
(C) 77
(D) 67
(E) None of these
Solution : 77 does not belong to that group because other are prime number while 77 is
not a prime number.
Correct Answer: C
Question 614
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
:
(A) UMRSME
(B) EIWNTR
(C) PIGRSN
(D) LCUOD
(E) None of these
Solution : LCUOD is odd one because other letters when rearranged provide the name
of seasons like summer, winter and spring.
Correct Answer: D
Question 615 What should come next in the following number series?
: 0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 5
Solution : The pattern is as follows
Correct Answer: A
Question 616 What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
: E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
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(A) UW483
(B) ZA26
(C) TU420
(D) ST380
(E) None of these
Solution : Here the series is in the following pattern.
Correct Answer: A
Question 617 What should come next in the following letter series?
: AZABYABCXABCDWABCDEVABCDE
(A) U
(B) T
(C) A
(D) G
(E) None of these
Solution : Letter series will be formed as follows
AZ,ABY, ABCX, ABCDW, ABCDEV
Correct Answer: E
: HGFEDCBAGFEDCBAGFEDCB
(A) E
(B) G
(C) F
(D) B
(E) None of these
Solution : The series is as follows
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B, EDCB
Correct Answer: C
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: ZXVTRPNLJYWUSQO
(A) M
(B) K
(C) H
(D) J
(E) None of these
Solution : The series is in the following pattern.
Correct Answer: A
Question 620 Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
: 24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Solution : The sequence of numbers are
243 2431 24312 243123 2431234
Correct Answer: C
: P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
(A) P
(B) K
(C) J
(D) I
(E) None of these
Solution : The series is increasing as follows.
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L K
Correct Answer: B
: 987654321123456789987654322345678
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(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 9
(D) 2
(E) None of these
Solution : The series is in the following pattern of 9876 54321, 123456789, 98765432,
23456789
Correct Answer: C
: 34434453445634456734456
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Solution : The series is in the pattern of
344 3445 34456 344567 344567
Correct Answer: D

4: AABABCABCDABCDEABCDEF
(A) A
(B) G
(C) H
(D) B
(E) None of these
Solution : The series is in the following pattern
A AB ABC ABCD ABCDE ABCDEF ABCDEF
G
Correct Answer: B
Question 625 What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following
: series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
(A) S3H*
(B) T#H*
(C) T*#H
(D) S*H5
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(E) SH*1
The symbol will occupy the last position
Correct Answer: A
Question 626 What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9
: 753186422975318642975318642975
(A) 1
(B) 8
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) None of these
975311 86422
97531 86422
97531 8642
9753
Correct Answer: C
Question 627 What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following
: letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
(A) FYH
(B) GWG
(C) HWH
(D) GUF
(E) None of these
Solution : The pattern is as follows
Correct Answer: E
Question 628 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
: Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
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(A) 215
(B) 143
(C) 247
(D) 91
(E) 65
Solution : Apart from 215, all other numbers are divisible by 13.
143 = 13 X 11; 247 = 13 X 19;
91 = 13 X 7; 65 = 13 X 5;
215 = 5 X 43
Correct Answer: A
(A) 78
(B) 48
(C) 72
(D) 54
(E) 42
Solution : Except 78, all others give a prime number when 1 is subtracted from them.
78 – 1 = 77
54 – 1 = 53
48 – 1 = 47
42 – 1 = 41
72 – 1 = 71
Correct Answer: C
(A) 45
(B) 51
(C) 39
(D) 93
(E) 85
Solution : Except 85, all other numbers are divisible by 3.
Correct Answer: E
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(A) 39
(B) 27
(C) 48
(D) 42
(E) 24
Solution : Only 27 is a perfect cube.
33=27
Correct Answer: B
(A) 187
(B) 323
(C) 119
(D) 221
(E) 289
Solution : Only 289 is a perfect square.
172=289
Correct Answer: E
(A) 35
(B) 80
(C) 45
(D) 60
(E) 75
Solution : Except 45, in all other numbers digit sum is even.
35 = 3 + 5 = 8
75 = 7 + 5 = 12
80 = 8 + 0 = 8
45 = 4 + 5 = 9
60 = 6 + 0 = 6
Correct Answer: C
(A) 31
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(B) 39
(C) 47
(D) 41
(E) 43
Solution : Except 39, all other numbers are prime numbers.
Correct Answer: B
(A) 27
(B) 64
(C) 125
(D) 216
(E) 384
Solution : Except 384, all other numbers are perfect cube.
27 = 33; 216 = 63
64 = 43; 125 = 5
Correct Answer: E
(A) 25
(B) 64
(C) 189
(D) 225
(E) 121
Solution : Except 189, all other numbers are perfect square.
25 = 52; 225 = 152; 64 = 82; 121 = 112
Correct Answer: C
(A) 23
(B) 29
(C) 37
(D) 39
(E) 31
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Solution : Except 39, all other numbers are prime numbers.
Correct Answer: D
(A) 115
(B) 145
(C) 95
(D) 155
(E) 75
Solution : Only 75 is divisible by 3.
Correct Answer: E
(A) 126
(B) 217
(C) 345
(D) 513
(E) 730
Solution : Except 345, all other numbers are one more than the perfect cube.
Correct Answer: C
(A) 144
(B) 169
(C) 256
(D) 288
(E) 324
Solution : Except 288, all other numbers are perfect square.
144 = 122; 169 = 132
256 = 162; 324 = 182
But 288 = 172 -1
Correct Answer: D
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(A) 143
(B) 168
(C) 224
(D) 195
(E) 257
Solution : Except 257, all other numbers are one less than perfect square.
143 = 122 – 1
168 = 132 – 1
224 = 152 – 1
195 = 142 – 1
Correct Answer: E
(A) 29
(B) 85
(C) 147
(D) 125
(E) 53
Solution : Here, only 125 is a perfect cube.
Correct Answer: D
Question 643 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on the English
: alphabet series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group, if the English alphabetical series is broken into two
equal halves, i.e. the first 13 alphabets are clubbed together and the last 13
alphabets are clubbed separately?
(A) FH
(B) SU
(C) MA
(D) CK
(E) LB
Solution : Except ‘SU’, all the pairs of letters belong to the first half.
Correct Answer: B
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Passage :
â€‹
Question 644 Direction :Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon
: the order in which they appear in the English alphabetical series and hence
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) MPQO
(B) DGHF
(C) RUTV
(D) VYZX
(E) JMNL
Solution : Except RUTV, all others follow a same pattern.
Hence, ‘RUTV’ does not belong to that group.
Correct Answer: C
(A) AMCL
(B) WIVK
(C) GVIU
(D) XDZC
(E) HRJQ
Solution : Except WIVK, all others follow a same pattern.
Hence, ‘WIVK’ does not belong to that group
Correct Answer: B
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(A) AZMN
(B) BYEF
(C) CXUV
(D) FUNO
(E) IRDV
Solution : Except IRDV, all others follow a same pattern.
Hence, ‘IRDV does not belong to that group
Correct Answer: E
(A) LOJ
(B) FID
(C) RUP
(D) ILN
(E) CFA
Solution : Except ILN, all others follow a same pattern.
Hence, ILN does not belong to that group
Correct Answer: D
48 : Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) RICE : ECIR
(B) WINGS : SGNIW
(C) SMART : RTSMA
(D) COUSIN : SINCOU
(E) BRAKE : AKRFB
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Solution : 1 2 3 4 4 3 2 1R I C E ⇒ E C I R
1 2 3 4 5 5 4 3 2 1
W I N G S ⇒ S G N I W
1 2 3 4 5 4 5 1 2 3
S M A R T ⇒ R T S M A
1 2 3 4 5 6 4 5 6 1 2 3
C O U S I N ⇒ S I N C O U
1 2 3 4 5 3 4 2 5 1B R A K E
⇒ A K R
Except BRAKE, in all others, the order of letters has been changed. But in
BRAKE, the letter E has been replaced with F
Correct Answer: E
Question 649
the one that does not belong to that group?
:
(A) VT
(B) MK
(C) DB
(D) KH
(E) XV
Solution : Except KH, all others follow a same pattern.
Hence, KH does not belong to that group
Correct Answer: D
(A) PS
(B) FI
(C) AD
(D) KN
(E) GD
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Solution : Except GD, all others follow a same pattern.
Hence, GD does not belong to that group
Correct Answer: E
(A) PARENT : RPBTEO
(B) MOSTLY : SMPYTM
(C) SIMPLE : MSJEPM
(D) MOTHER : TMPRHD
(E) SUNDAY : NSVYDB
Solution : Except (d), all others follow a same pattern as
Hence, option (d) does not belong to that group.
Correct Answer: D
Question 652 Four of the following five have same relation between their elements and
: hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) PLENTY : LEPTYN
(B) COWARD : OWCRAD
(C) ALWINS : LWANIS
(D) EXAMIN : XAEIMN
(E) LOCATE : OCLTAE
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Solution : Except (a), all others follow a same pattern as
Hence, option (a) does not belong to that group
Correct Answer: A
Question 653 Four of the following five have same relation between their elements as in
: the case of the pair UNDERWAY : 39412576 and hence form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) WARDEN : 572419
(B) DERANU : 412793
(C) NEDAYU : 924763
(D) ENDWAR : 194572
(E) URADYE : 327461
Solution :
The value of ‘E’ is ‘1’ and not ‘2’

Hence, (c) does not belong to that group.
Correct Answer: C
Question 654 Direction: Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a
: group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
(A) Stem
(B) Branch
(C) Leaf
(D) Web
(E) Fruit
Solution : Except ‘Web’; all others are parts of tree.
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Correct Answer: D
Question 655 Direction: Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a
: group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group
(A) Clone
(B) Replica
(C) Duplicate
(D) Copy
(E) Fake
Solution : Except ‘Fake’ all are synonyms.
Correct Answer: E
Question 656 Direction : Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
: a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) Repair
(B) Mend
(C) Correct
(D) Rectify
(E) Trouble
Solution : Except ‘Trouble’ all others are synonyms.
Correct Answer: E
(A) Employed
(B) Trained
(C) Hired
(D) Appointed
(E) Commissioned
Solution : Except ‘Trained’ all others are synonyms.
Correct Answer: B
(A) Quick
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(B) Brisk
(C) Quiet
(D) Fast
(E) Rapid
Solution : Except ‘Quiet’ all others are synonyms.
Correct Answer: C
Question 659 Direction: Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
(A) Asia
(B) Antarctica
(C) Africa
(D) Alaska
(E) Australia
Solution : Except ‘Alaska’ all others are continents.
Correct Answer: D
Question 660 Direction: Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form
(A) Trophy
(B) Medal
(C) Certificate
(D) Gift
(E) Prize
Solution : Except ‘Gift’ all other things are gained by competition.
Correct Answer: D
(A) Lens
(B) Shutter
(C) Film
(D) Camera
(E) Zoom
Solution : Except ‘Camera’ a;; others are just parts of camera.
Correct Answer: D
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(A) Cricket
(B) Volleyball
(C) Chess
(D) Tabletennis
(E) Badminton
Solution : Only ‘Chess’ is a sitting game.
Correct Answer: C
(A) Dogs
(B) Cats
(C) Goats
(D) Giraffes
(E) Cows
Solution : Except ‘Giraffes’, all are pet animals.
Correct Answer: D
(A) Paragraph
(B) Sentence
(C) Page
(D) Words
(E) Alphabet
Solution : On a page, all others are written.
Correct Answer: C
(A) Talking
(B) Blinking
(C) Writing
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(D) Sitting
(E) Reading
Solution : Only blinking is a sign.
Correct Answer: B
(A) Brother
(B) Grandfather
(C) Mother
(D) Grandmother
(E) Father
Solution : Except ‘Brother’, all are parents and grand parents.
Correct Answer: A
(A) Sweet
(B) Cake
(C) Pastry
(D) Bread
(E) Biscuit
Solution : Except ‘Sweet’, all others are baked items.
Correct Answer: A
: Which is the one that does not belong to that group?r
(A) Cup
(B) Jug
(C) Tumbler
(D) Plate
(E) Pitcher
Solution : Plate’ is normally used for solid matters.
Correct Answer: D
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(A) Copper
(B) Mercury
(C) Iron
(D) Aluminium
(E) Zinc
Solution : Except ‘ Mercury’, all are valuable in solid form at normal temperature.
Correct Answer: B
(A) Gold
(B) Nickel
(C) Platinum
(D) Tungsten
(E) Diamond
Solution : Diamond’ is the allotrope of Carbon
Correct Answer: E
(A) Nephew
(B) Cousin
(C) Mother
(D) Brother
(E) Sister
Solution : Except ‘Cousin’, all other have a specific gender, i.e. either male or female.
Correct Answer: B
(A) Black
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) Violet
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Solution : Except ‘Black’, all are the colours of a rainbow.
Correct Answer: A
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Zinc
(D) Aluminium
(E) Brass
Solution : Except ‘Brass’, all are metals.
Correct Answer: E
(A) Boy
(B) Girl
(C) Lady
(D) Man
(E) Child
Solution : Except ‘Child’, all others have a specific gender, i.e. either male of female.
Correct Answer: E
(A) Table
(B) Chair
(C) Bench
(D) Desk
(E) Wood
Solution : Except ‘Wood’, all are furniture.
Correct Answer: E
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(A) Asia
(B) Australia
(C) Antarctica
(D) Africa
(E) Austria
Solution : Except ‘Austria, all are continents.
Correct Answer: E
(A) Grandchild
(B) Niece
(C) Uncle
(D) Grandfather
Solution : A grandchild belong to either male or female gender. Others have a
specific gender
Correct Answer: A
(A) Violet
(B) Blue
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
(E) Pink
Solution : Apart from pink, all are the colours of spectrum.
Correct Answer: E
(A) Jasmine
(B) Rose
(C) Dahlia
(D) Marigold
(E) Lotus
Solution : Lotus grows in muddy water.
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Correct Answer: E
(A) Sultry
(B) Hot
(C) Humid
(D) Warm
(E) Cool
Solution : Except ‘Cool’, all others refer to hot (warm) or humid condition.
Correct Answer: E
(A) Now
(B) After
(C) Then
(D) Before
(E) Again
Solution : Except ‘Again’, all others denote certain period.
Correct Answer: E
(A) Camel
(B) Horse
(C) Bullock
(D) Cat
(E) Monkey
Solution : Except ‘Cat’, all other animals are considered to be beasts of burden.
Correct Answer: D
(A) Food : Hunger
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(B) Water : Thirst

(C) Air : Suffocation
(D) Talent : Education
(E) Leg : Lame
Solution : Without food, we feel hungry.
Without water, we feel thirsty.
Without air, we feel suffocated.
Similarly, without leg, one is lame.
Talent is not treated to education is that way.
Correct Answer: D
(A) Crow
(B) Vulture
(C) Bat
(D) Ostrich
(E) Eagle
Solution : Except ‘Bat’, all others belong to class Aves. Bat is a mammal.
Correct Answer: C
(A) Anxiety
(B) Anger
(C) Sorrow
(D) Joy
(E) Feeling
Solution : Except ‘Feeling’, all others are the different kinds of feelings.
Correct Answer: E
Question 686 Statements : A>B>C<D<E

: Conclusions
I.A > E
II. C < F
(A) Only conclusion II is true
(B) Only conclusion I is true
(C) Both conclusions I and II are true
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(D) Either conclusion I or II is true

(E) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Solution : Statements A>B>C<D<E
Conclusions
I.A > E
II. C < F
So, only conclusion II is true.
Correct Answer: A
Question 687 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SUBSTANCE’, each
: of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as in the English alphabetical series?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here
Hence, there are three such pairs of letters – SU, ST and AC.
Correct Answer: D
Question 688 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TELEPATHY, each of
: which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) None
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here
Hence, there are two such pairs of letters – PT and AE.
Correct Answer: B
Question 689 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word QUICKLY, each of
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(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here
Hence, there are four such pairs of letters – IK, IL, KL andLQ.
Correct Answer: E
Question 690 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FREQUENT, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here,
â€‹
Hence, there are two such pairs of letters – RU and QN.
Correct Answer: C
Question 691 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word POSITIVE, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here
Hence, there are three such pairs of letters – PO, IE and TV.
Correct Answer: D
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Question 692 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word HORIZONTAL, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here,
Hence, there are three such pairs of letters – HN, RO and ON.
Correct Answer: D
Question 693 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRANSCRIBE, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : There is no such pair of letters in ‘TRANSCRIBE’.
Correct Answer: A
Question 694 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUMPING, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here,
Hence, there are two such pairs of letters – PN and IG.
Correct Answer: C
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Question 695 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OBJECTIVE, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here,
Hence, there are two such pairs of letters – OI and TV.
Correct Answer: C
Question 696 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SECURITY, each of
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Solution : Here,
Hence, there are three such pairs of letters – EI, RT and UY.
Correct Answer: C
Question 697 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FOREIGN, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here,
Hence, there are two such pairs of letters –RN and EG
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Correct Answer: C
Question 698 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DISCREDIT, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here,
Hence, there are four such pairs of letters –CE, DI, DE, EI
Correct Answer: E
Question 699 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word HOARDINGS, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Solution : Here,
Hence, there are four such pairs of letters –HN, DG, GI and DH.
Correct Answer: E
Question 700 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STAPLER, each of
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
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(E) More than three

Solution : Here,
Hence, there are two such pairs of letters –ST and SP
Correct Answer: C
Question 701 The height of 5 boys is recorded as 146 cms. 154 cms.164 cms.148 cms.And
: 158 cms. What is the average height of all these boys?
(A) 152 cms
(B) 158 cms
(C) 156 cms
(D) 154 cms
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 702 A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the
: stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
(A) 2 hours
(B) 3 hours
(C) 4 hours
(D) 5 hours
Correct Answer: C
Question 703 Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the
: digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
(A) 69
(B) 96
(C) 78
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Solution : Let the ten's digit be x and unit's digit be y
Then, x + y = 15 and x - y = 3 or y - x = 3
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Solving x + y = 15 and x - y = 3, we get: x = 9, y = 6

Solving x + y = 15 and y - x = 3, we get: x = 6, y = 9
So, the number is either 96 or 69
Hence, the number cannot be determined.
Correct Answer: D
Question 704 The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the
: largest among the three ?
(A) 12
(B) 13
(C) 14
(D) 10
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 705
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution :
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Toppersexam.com
Correct Answer: D
Question 706 The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will
: be the smallest number among them ?
(A) 42
(B) 38
(C) 32
(D) 72
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 707
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
:
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 19
(D) 17
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 708
:
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same
number is 9. What in the number.
(A) 45
(B) 35
(C) 40
(D) 30
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 709
:
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied
by 504, what will be the number ?
(A) 2024
(B) 2104
(C) 2004
(D) 2014
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 710 ‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130
: then (b+c) - a = ?
(A) 38
(B) 42
(C) 44
(D) 34
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 711 The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller
: integer ?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 21
(D) 23
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 712 If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the
: number .
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 57
(D) 60
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
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Question 713 IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of
: the number ?
(A) 52
(B) 54
(C) 56
(D) 48
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 714
:
If the following fractions are arranged in descending
order which will be the last in the series ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 715
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
:
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(A) 118
(B) 95
(C) 110
(D) 100
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 716
What is 234 time 167 ?
:
(A) 48768
(B) 41184
(C) 40581
(D) 39078
(E) None of these
Solution : Required number
Correct Answer: D
Question 717 The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller
: number ?
(A) 62
(B) 71
(C) 66
(D) 65
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 718
:
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of
their values, which one will be the fourth ?
(A)
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(B)
(C)
(D)
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 719
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
:
(A) 47
(B) 38
(C) 28
(D) 25
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 720
What is 147 times 329 ?
:
(A) 48069
(B) 48363
(C) 49021
(D) 48723
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 721 The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the
: product of A and E ?
(A) 6708
(B) 6880
(C) 6552
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 722 The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller
: number ?
(A) 83
(B) 79
(C) 81
(D) 77
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 723
:
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their
values, which one will be the fourth ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
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(D)
(E) None of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 724
:
(A) 44402
(B) 44632
(C) 44802
(D) 44522
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 725
:
(A) 131
(B) 221
(C) 77
(D) 98
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
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Question 726
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
:
(A) 234
(B) 47
(C) 128
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 727
:
(A) 280872
(B) 276488
(C) 273258
(D) 272412
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 728 The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 15 and the difference
: between the two digits of the two digit number is 3 . What is the product of
the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 72
(B) 56
(C) 54
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
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Question 729
:
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of
their values, Which fraction will be the fifth ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 730 The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 4623. What is the product of
: the next two consecutive odd numbers ?
(A) 4899
(B) 4891
(C) 5037
(D) 5183
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 731
:
(A) 1
(B) 5
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(C) 3
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 732 The product of two consecutive even numbers is 45368 . What is the greater
: number ?
(A) 212
(B) 216
(C) 210
(D) 208
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 733
:
(A) 39640
(B) 45942
(C) 38760
(D) 42864
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 734
:
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order
of their values. Which one will be the fourth ?
(A)
(B)
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(C)
(D)
(E) None of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 735
What is the least number to be added to 666 to make it a perfect suare?
:
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 736
What is the least number to be added to 8008 to make It a perfect square?
:
(A) 273
(B) 87
(C) 264
(D) 92
(E) None of These
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
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Question 737
What is 519 times 176?
:
(A) 91168
(B) 91344
(C) 91520
(D) 91696
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 738 The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E is 55 What is

: the product of B and D ?
(A) 2915
(B) 3127
(C) 3021
(D) 2703
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 739
:
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order
their values which one will be the third ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
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(D)
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 740 8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This
: operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine
now left in cask to that of the water is 16 : 65. How much wine the cask hold
originally ?
(A) 18 litres
(B) 24 litres
(C) 32 litres
(D) 42 litres
Correct Answer: B
Question 741
:
(A) 98718
(B) 97888
(C) 98788
(D) 97818
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 742
:
IF the fractions are arranged in ascending
order of their values, which one will be the second
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(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 743 The Average of 4 consecutive even numbers is 103. What is the product of
: smallest and the largest number?
(A) 10400
(B) 10504
(C) 10605
(D) 10600
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 744 The sum of five consecutive even numbers A. B, C, D and E is 130. What Is
: the product of A and E?
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(A) 720
(B) 616
(C) 660
(D) 672
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 745 The product to two consecutive even numbers is 1088. Which is the larger
: number?
(A) 38
(B) 32
(C) 36
(D) 34
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 746 There are two numbers such that the sum of twice the first number and thrice
: the second number is 141 and the sum of thrice the first number and twice the
second number is 174. Which is the larger number?
(A) 52
(B) 36
(C) 48
(D) 24
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 747
:
By how much is th of 1536 less than of 1450 ?
(A) 894
(B) 908
(C) 902
(D) 904
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 748
:
(A) 44402
(B) 44632
(C) 44802
(D) 44522
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 749
What least number should be added to 785 to make It a perfect square ?
:
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(A) 115
(B) 48
(C) 56
(D) 52
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 750 The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 13. The difference
: between the two digits of the number is 3. What is the two digit number?
(A) 85
(B) 49
(C) 58
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 751 The sum of the squares of two consecutive positive odd numbers is 650.
: Which is the larger number?
(A) 17
(B) 21
(C) 23
(D) 15
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
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Question 752
What is the least number to be added to 4400 to make it a perfect square?
:
(A) 64
(B) 89
(C) 72
(D) 44
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 753 The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 6723. What is the greater
: number?
(A) 89
(B) 85
(C) 91
(D) 81
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 754
:
What is 333 time of 135 ?
(A) 46,323
(B) 43,623
(C) 43,290
(D) 44,955
(E) none of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 755
:
(A) 99077
(B) 98907
(C) 99707
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(D) 98997
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 756 What least number should be subtracted from 9889 to make it a perfect
: square?
(A) 84
(B) 88
(C) 108
(D) 74
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 757 The product of two successive number is 8556. What is the smaller
: number ?
(A) 89
(B) 90
(C) 94
(D) 92
(E) None of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 758 The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed
: by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what
will be the original number?
(A) 28
(B) 48
(C) 39
(D) 93
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 759 In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator.
: If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the
resultant fraction will be what is the original fractions ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) none of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: D
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Toppersexam.com
Question 760 Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What
: is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 761 The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the
: smallest and the largest numbers?
(A) 158
(B) 148
(C) 168
(D) 198
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 762 IF the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values.
: Which one will be the fourth ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
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Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 763 A number consists of two digits whose sum is 8. If 18 is subtracted from the
: number, the digits interchange their places.
What is the number?
(A) 54
(B) 53
(C) 35
(D) 45
(E) None of these
Solution : Of the given alternatives, Required number = 53
Illustration: 5 + 3 = 8
53 – 18 = 35
Correct Answer: B
Question 764 What is the least number to be subtracted from 2486 to make it a perfect
: square?
(A) 50
(B) 80
(C) 74
(D) 65
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 765 The difference between two digit numbers is 18. If four times the second
: number is less than three times the first number by 18, then what is the sum
of these two number ?
(A) 100
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(B) 80
(C) 86
(D) 92
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 766
One-fourth of a number exceeds its one-seventh by 24. What is the number?
:
(A) 244
(B) 322
(C) 224
(D) 342
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 767 The sum of three consecutive numbers is 294. What is the sum of the
: smallest and the largest numbers ?
(A) 174
(B) 185
(C) 196
(D) 200
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 768 In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hours more than Sameer. If
: Abhay doubles his speed, then he would take 1 hour less than Sameer.
Abhay's speed is :
(A) 5 kmph
(B) 6 kmph
(C) 6.25 kmph
(D) 7.5 kmph
Correct Answer: A
Question 769
Which of the following sets has the fractions in ascending order ?
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: B
: square?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 23
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(D) 18
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
: square?
(A) 20
(B) 23
(C) 18
(D) 17
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 772
: Out of the fractions which is the second highest fraction ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
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Question 773
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) none of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 774 A number when added to two- third of itself gives the value 150. What is that
: number?
(A) 60
(B) 75
(C) 80
(D) 90
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 775
(A)
(B)
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(C)
(D)
(E) none of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 776 The sum of seven consecutive numbers is 168. What is the sum of the first
: and the last numbers?
(A) 58
(B) 49
(C) 48
(D) 47
(E) 57
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 777 What is the smallest number which when divided by 8,10 or 12 gives the
: remainder 7 ?
(A) 127
(B) 137
(C) 267
(D) 177
(E) None of these
Solution :
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Correct Answer: A
Question 778 The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is equal to 245. What is the
: difference between twice the largest odd number and the smallest odd
number?
(A) 63
(B) 71
(C) 51
(D) 65
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 779 If a number is added to two-fifth of itself, the value so obtained is 455. What
: is the number?
(A) 400
(B) 350
(C) 325
(D) 420
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 780 If a number is multiplied by two- third of itself the value so obtained is 864.
: What is the number?
(A) 46
(B) 34
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(C) 36
(D) 44
(E) 38
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 781
: Out of the fractions which is the second highest fractions
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 782
Three-seventh of a number is equal to 120. What is three-fifth of the number?
:
(A) 148
(B) 154
(C) 168
(D) 164
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 783 The sum of seven consecutive numbers is 175. What is the difference
: between twice the largest number and thrice the smallest number?
(A) 8
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 784
: Out of the fractions which is the second largest fractions
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
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Toppersexam.com
Question 785 The sum of five consecutive even numbers is equal to 230. What is the sum
: of the largest number amongst them and the square of the smallest number
amongst them?
(A) 1684
(B) 1464
(C) 1784
(D) 1844
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 786
: Out of the fractions which is the second highest fractions
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 787 The sum of the two digits of a two-digit number the difference between the
: two digits of the two digit number is 8. What is the two digit number ?
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(A) 80
(B) 88
(C) 44
(E) none of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 788
One-third of three-fourth of a number is 30. What is the number?
:
(A) 90
(B) 80
(C) 150
(D) 60
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 789
If two-third of one-fourth of one- third of a number is 6, what is the number?
:
(A) 108
(B) 144
(C) 96
(D) 78
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
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Question 790 If a number is multiplied by three-fourth of itself, the value thus obtained is
: 10800. What is that number?
(A) 210
(B) 180
(C) 120
(D) 160
(E) 140
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 791 If the three fourth of a number is subtracted from the number the value so
: obtained is 163 What is that number?
(A) 625
(B) 562
(C) 632
(D) 652
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: D
Question 792 The sum of five consecutive numbers is 190. What is the sum of the largest
: and the smallest number?
(A) 75
(B) 77
(C) 76
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
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Question 793 Out of the following fractions which one is the second lowest?
:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these

Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 794 If the following fractions are arranged in a descending order (from left to
: right), which of them will be second from the left end ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 795
:
Out of the fractions what is the difference between the largest
and the smallest fractions ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution :
Correct Answer: A
Question 796 The sum of five consecutive numbers is equal to 170. What is the product of
: the largest and the smallest numbers?
(A) 1512
(B) 1102
(C) 1152
(D) 1210
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 797
: Out of the fractions which is the third highest ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 798 The sum of five consecutive even numbers is equal to 170. What is the sum
: of the second largest number amongst them and the square of the smallest
number amongst them together?
(A) 940
(B) 932
(C) 938
(D) 934
(E) None of these
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Solution :
Correct Answer: E
Question 799 What is the least number that can be added to 3500 to make it a perfect
: square?
(A) 200
(B) 169
(C) 100
(D) 25
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: C
Question 800 When the present age of mother is added to the present age of the daughter,
: the total is 40 years. What will be their total age in years after 5 years?
(A) 45
(B) 50
(C) 40
(D) 55
(E) None of these
Solution :
Correct Answer: B
Question 801
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
:
(A) metastable state to any lower state
(B) any higher state of lower state
(C) metastable state to ground state
(D) any higher state to ground state
Correct Answer: C
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Question 802 A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin
: walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
(A) uniform throughout the pipe not zero
(B) zero only along the axis of the pipe
(C) zero at any point inside the pipe
(D) maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Correct Answer: C
Question 803 convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive
: index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when
immersed in water is
(A) 0.45 m
(B) 0.15 m
(C) 0.30 m
(D) 0.6 m
Correct Answer: D
Question 804
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
:
(A) having a constant phase difference
(B) of equal wavelength
(C) of equal speed
(D) having same shape of wavefront
Correct Answer: A
Question 805 Three resistors 1 â„¦, 2 â„¦, 3â„¦ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The
: current through 3 â„¦ resistor is -
(A) 0.75 A
(B) 1A
(C) 2A
(D) 1.5 A
Correct Answer: B
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Question 806
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
:
(A) anywhere
(B) emitter-collector
(C) collector-base
(D) base-emitter
Correct Answer: D
Question 807 Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is
: because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 only
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 4 only
Correct Answer: A
Question 808 Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise
: through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below
the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below
the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
(A) S1,S2 and S4
(B) S2 and S4
(C) S4 only
(D) S3 only
Correct Answer: B
Question 809
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
:
(A) low permeability and high hysterisis loss
(B) high permeability and low hysterisis loss
(C) high permeability and high hysterisis loss
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(D) low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Correct Answer: B
Question 810
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
:
(A) same in all the medium
(B) lesser in rarer medium
(C) lesser in denser medium
(D) independent of the medium
Correct Answer: B
Question 811 For the constructive interference the path difference between the two
: interfering waves must be equal to
(A) (2ðœ‹ + 1)λ
(B) 2nðœ‹
(C) nλ
(D) n
Correct Answer: C
Question 812
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
:
(A) multimeter
(B) voltmeter
(C) voltameter
(D) potentiometer
Correct Answer: D
Question 813 A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly
: brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his
kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
(A) Both K and L increase
(B) Both K and L remain unchanged
(C) K remains constant, L increases
(D) K increases but L remains constant
Correct Answer: D
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Question 814
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
:
(A) Gas constant (R)
(B) Pressure (p)
(C) Volume (V)
(D) Temperature (T)
Correct Answer: A
Question 815 An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper
: working, the size of the antenna should be
(A) 300 m
(B) 3 km
(C) 15 m
(D) 15 km
Correct Answer: C
Question 816 The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated
: is
(A) 25 kWh
(B) 9 x 1010 kWh
(C) 3 x 1010 kWh
(D) 0.5 x 105 kWh
Correct Answer: A
Question 817 The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are
: respectively
(A) 5 and 6
(B) 5 and 7
(C) 2 and 7
(D) 2 and 6
Correct Answer: B
Question 818
β-decay means emission of electron from
:
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(A) innermost electron orbit

(B) a stable nucleus
(C) outermost electron orbit
(D) radioactive nucleus
Correct Answer: D
Question 819 An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The
: current drawn by it is
(A) 0.8 A
(B) 2.5 A
(C) 0.4 A
(D) 1.25 A
Correct Answer: B
Question 820 A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and
: radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting
friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
(A) 50 s-2
(B) 25 s-2
(C) 12.5 s-2
(D) 6.25 s-2
Correct Answer: D
Question 821 A billiards player hits a stationary ball by an identical ball to pocker the
: target ball in a corner pocket that is at an angle of 35o with respect to the
direction of motion of the first ball. Assuming the collision as elastic and that
frictional and rotational motions are not important, the angle made by the
target ball with respect to the imcoming ball is
(A) 35o
(B) 50o
(C) 55o
(D) 60o
Correct Answer: C
Question 822 A body of mass 0.05 kg is observed to fall with an acceleration of 9.5 ms-2.
: The opposing force of air on the body is (g = 9.8 ms-2)
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(A) 0.015 N
(B) 0.15 N
(C) 0.030 N
(D) zero
Correct Answer: A
Question 823 The colloidal solution in which both the dispersed phase and dispersion
: medium are liquids are called
(A) emulsions
(B) gels
(C) foams
(D) liquid crystals
Correct Answer: A
Question 824 In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more
: clear than those obtained during visible light because
(A) I-R radiation has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
(B) scattering of I-R light is more the object is less
(C) the intensity of I-R light is more the object is less
(D) scattering of I–R light is less than visible light
Correct Answer: D
Question 825 Three concurrent co-planar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different
: directions on a body
(A) can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 3 N act at right angle
(B) can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle
(C) cannot keep the body in equilibrium
(D) can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle
Correct Answer: C
Question 826
Sound waves transfer
:
(A) only energy not momentum
(B) energy
(C) momentum
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(D) both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: D
Question 827 G P Thomson experimentally confirmed the existence of matter waves by the
: phenomena
(A) diffraction
(B) refraction
(C) polarisation
(D) scattering
Correct Answer: A
Question 828 The resistance of a wire at 300 K is found to be 0.3 â„¦. If the temperature
: coefficient of resistance of wire is 1.5 x 10-3 K-1, the temperature at which the
resistance becomes 0.6 â„¦ is
(A) 720 K
(B) 345 K
(C) 993 K
(D) 690 K
Correct Answer: C
Question 829 Two luminous points sources separated by a certain distance are at 10 km
: from an observer. If the aperture of his eye is 2.5 x 10-3 m and the
wavelength of light used is 500 nm the distance of separation between the
point sources just seen to be resolved is
(A) 12.2 m
(B) 24.2 m
(C) 2.44 m
(D) 1.22 m
Correct Answer: C
Question 830 A door 1.6 m wide requires a force of N to be applied at the free end to open
: or close it. The force that is required at a point 0.4 m distance from the hinges
for opening or closing the door is
(A) 1.2 N
(B) 3.6 N
(C) 2.4 N
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(D) 4N
Correct Answer: D
Question 831 -6
10 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
:
(A) between 7 and 8
(B) between 5 and 6
(C) between 6 and 7
(D) between 10 and 11
Correct Answer: A
Question 832 In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of

: hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
(A) 1.93 A
(B) 9.65 A
(C) 19.3 A
(D) 0.965 A
Correct Answer: C
Question 833
The one which decreases with dilution is
:
(A) molar conductance
(B) conductance
(C) specific conductance
(D) equivalent conductance
Correct Answer: D
Question 834 Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal

: solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of
the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC
is
(A) 28 mm
(B) 56 mm
(C) 70 mm
(D) 140 mm
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Correct Answer: C
Question 835
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
:
(A) 1 M solution of glucose
(B) 0.05 M solution of glucose
(C) 6% solution of glucose
(D) 25% solution of glucose
Correct Answer: A
Question 836
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
:
(A) to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
(B) to minimise the snow fall
(C) to minimise pollution
(D) to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Correct Answer: A
Question 837 A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms
: occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the
centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the
compound is
(A) AB2
(B) A2B
(C) AB
(D) AB3
Correct Answer: B
Question 838 In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta
: directing because it
(A) decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
(B) decreases electron density at meta position
(C) increases electron density at meta position
(D) increases electron density at ortho and para position
Correct Answer: D
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Question 839 The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by
: treating the alcohol with
(A) PCI5
(B) PCI3
(C) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
(D) dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Correct Answer: B
Question 840
The carbon bond length in benzene is
:
(A) in between C2H6 and C2H4
(B) same as in C2H4
(C) in between C2H6 and C2H2
(D) in between C2H4 and C2H2
Correct Answer: A
Question 841 The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of
: calcium formate and calcium acetate is
(A) methanal
(B) propanal
(C) propanone
(D) ethanal
Correct Answer: B
Question 842 An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product
: obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test.
The possible structured of X is
(A) CH3CH2OH
(B) CH3 – C – CH3
(C) (CH3)2CHOH
(D) CH3CHO
Correct Answer: C
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Question 843 Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2,
: (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
(A) NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
(B) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
(C) (CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
(D) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Correct Answer: B
Question 844
The one which has least iodine value is
:
(A) sunflower oil
(B) ginger oil
(C) ghee
(D) groundnut oil
Correct Answer: C
Question 845
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
:
(A) glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
(B) glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
(C) glucose reduces the blood sugar level
(D) glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Correct Answer: D
Question 846 There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of
: tripeptides than can be obtained is
(A) 8000
(B) 6470
(C) 7465
(D) 5360
Correct Answer: A
Question 847 At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at
: 303 K ?
(A) 403 K
(B) 303 K
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(C) 606 K
(D) 273 K
Correct Answer: C
Question 848 Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate
: formed during the process is
(A) m–bromophenol
(B) 2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
(C) 2-4 dibromophenol
(D) A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Correct Answer: B
Question 849
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
:
(A) Nickel
(B) Zinc
(C) Sodium
(D) Aluminium
Correct Answer: D
Question 850 Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and
: subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
(A) Benzyl alcohol
(B) Acetophenone
(C) Anisole
(D) Toluene
Correct Answer: C
Question 851
The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is:
:
(A) Guanine
(B) Adenine
(C) Uracil
(D) Thymine
Correct Answer: D
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Question 852
The total number of lattice arrangements in different crystal system is:
:
(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 8
(D) 14
Correct Answer: D
Question 853
Alcoholic potash is used to bring about :
:
(A) Dehydrogenation
(B) Dehydration
(C) Dehydrohalogenation
(D) Dehalogenation
Correct Answer: C
Question 854
Which of the following is the correct statement?
:
(A) Order of a reaction has always an integral value
(B) Mechanism of a reaction proposed is always final
(C) Zero order reactions are multi-step reactions
(D) Order of reaction can be predicted even without knowing the rate law
Correct Answer: D
Question 855
The unit of quantity of electricity is:
:
(A) Ohm
(B) Ampere
(C) Coulomb
(D) Volt
Correct Answer: C
Question 856 Which of the following organic compounds answers both iodoform test and
: fehling’s test ?
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(A) Methanal
(B) Ethanol
(C) Propane
(D) Ethanal
Correct Answer: D
Question 857 10 dm3 of N2 gas and 10 dm3 of gas X at the same temperature and pressure
: contain the same number of molecules.
(A) NO
(B) H2
(C) CO2 or CO
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 858 When the electrons of hydrogen atoms return to L shell from shells of higher
: energy, we get a series of lines in the spectrum. This series is called
(A) Balmer series
(B) Lyman series
(C) Bracket series
(D) Paschen series
Correct Answer: A
Question 859
The alcohol obtained by the hydrolysis of oils and fats is:
:
(A) Glycol
(B) Glycerol
(C) Propanol
(D) Pentanol
Correct Answer: B
Question 860
Which of the following alloys is used for making magnets for hearing aids?
:
(A) Alnico
(B) German silver
(C) Invar
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(D) Monel metal
Correct Answer: A
Question 861
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
:
(A) the nature of enzymes involved
(B) the nature of the substrate
(C) the amount of carbon dioxide released
(D) the amount of oxygen utilised
Correct Answer: B
Question 862
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
:
(A) Water vapour
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Methane
(D) Oxygen
Correct Answer: D
Question 863 Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were
: colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The
probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 0%
(D) 25%
Correct Answer: C
Question 864
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
:
(A) fresh-water mussel
(B) tortoise
(C) frog
(D) jelly fish
Correct Answer: B
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Question 865 Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young
: ones directly?
(A) Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
(B) Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
(C) shrew, bat, kiwi, car
(D) Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Correct Answer: A
Question 866 Compare the statement A and B.

: Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
(A) Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
(B) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
(C) Statement A is wrong and B is correct
(D) Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Correct Answer: A
Question 867 What is/are true about heart wood?

: (A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
(A) B,C and D
(B) A and D
(C) B and D
(D) A, B and C
Correct Answer: B
Question 868 Compare the statements A and B.

: Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity
of lateral buds.
Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make
mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
(A) Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
(B) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
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(C) Statement A is wrong and B is correct

(D) Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Correct Answer: A
Question 869
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
:
(A) Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
(B) Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic
nutrition
(C) Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
(D) Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Correct Answer: D
Question 870
Stoma opens, when
:
(A) guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
(B) guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
(C) guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
(D) guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Correct Answer: D
Question 871
Which of the following is properly matched ?
:
(A) Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
(B) Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
(C) arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
(D) Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Correct Answer: B
Question 872 A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body
: temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would
probably show a tumour in
(A) medulla oblongata
(B) pons
(C) cerebellum
(D) hypothalamus
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Correct Answer: D
Question 873
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
:
(A) protein particles
(B) a class of bacteria
(C) a class of viruses
(D) fungi
Correct Answer: A
Question 874
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
:
(A) grafting
(B) hybridization
(C) embryo culture
(D) shoot apex culture
Correct Answer: D
Question 875 A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal
: congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
(A) cyanosis
(B) bronchitis
(C) rhinitis
(D) bronchial carcinoma
Correct Answer: C
Question 876 Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given
: below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
(A) C→A→D→B→E
(B) A→C→E→D→B
(C) A→D→C→E→B
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(D) B→A→C→D→E
Correct Answer: B
Question 877
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
:
(A) Amoeba, sponge, leech
(B) Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
(C) Earthworm, sponge, leech
(D) Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Correct Answer: C
Question 878
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
:
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) Edward jenner
(C) Robert Koch
(D) Alexander Flemming
Correct Answer: B
Question 879
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
:
(A) 120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
(B) 120 mm. Hg
(C) 80 mm. Hg
(D) 128/80 mm. Hg
Correct Answer: C
Question 880
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
:
(A) Allium cepa
(B) Drosophila
(C) Humans
(D) grasshoppers
Correct Answer: B
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Question 881
the plants respond to photo – periods due to the presence of :
:
(A) Phytochromes
(B) Stomata
(C) Enzymes
(D) Phytohormones
Correct Answer: A
Question 882
Identify the edible fresh-water telesots:
:
(A) Sharks
(B) Rays and skates
(C) Hilsa ilisha
(D) Catla catla
Correct Answer: D
Question 883
Plasmids occur in:
:
(A) Viruses
(B) Chromosomes
(C) Bacteria
(D) Chloroplasts
Correct Answer: C
Question 884 Match the names of antibiotics listed under column 1 with their source given
: under column 2; choose the correct combination of alphabets of the two
columns:
Column 1 Column 2
Streptomyces
A Neomycin p
fradiae
Penicillium
B Terramycin q
notatum
Streptomyces
C Viridian r
rimosus
Gliocladium
D penicillin s
virens
(A) A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
(B) A = r, B = s, C = p, D = q
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(C) A = p, B = r, C = s, D = q
(D) A = s, B = p, C = r, D = q
Correct Answer: C
Question 885
The bond formed between the first phosphate group and adenosine in ATP is:
:
(A) Nitro – phosphate bond
(B) Adeno – phosphate bond
(C) Phosphoester bond
(D) Phosphoanhydride bond
Correct Answer: C
Question 886
The protists have:
:
(A) Gene containing nucleo-proteins condensed together in loose mass
(B) Nucleo-protein in direct contact with the nest of the cell substance
(C) Only tree nucleic acid aggregates
(D) Membrane bound nucleo-proteins lying embedded in the cytoplasm
Correct Answer: D
Question 887
Antrum is the cavity of:
:
(A) Gastrula
(B) Graffian follicle
(C) Ovary
(D) Blastula
Correct Answer: B
Question 888
Which of the following statement is wrong?
:
(A) Endospores are produced in pteridophyta
(B) Naked seeds are seen in gymnosperms
(C) Capsule is present in the sporophyte of bryophyte
(D) Basidiocarp is the fruiting body of fungus
Correct Answer: A
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Question 889
The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are:
:
(A) Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxely
(B) Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
(C) Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
(D) Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries
Correct Answer: A
Question 890
This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissues:
:
(A) These cells never produce glands
(B) The cells have a rapid rate of cell division
(C) Tissues are highly vascularized
(D) Large intercellular spaces are seen between the cells
Correct Answer: B
Question 891
Great Indian Bustard sanctuary is located in:
:
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Pakistan
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: A
Question 892
The result of ozone hole is:
:
(A) Acid rain
(B) Global warming
(C) The UV radiations reach the earth
(D) Greenhouse effect
Correct Answer: C
Question 893
This is not cells of areolar tissue:
:
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(A) Macrophages
(B) Schwann cell
(C) Plasma cell
(D) Adipose cell
Correct Answer: B
Question 894
The pH of stomach range between:
:
(A) 7.1 – 8.2
(B) 7.6 – 8.6
(C) 1.5 – 2.0
(D) 6.8 – 7.2
Correct Answer: C
Question 895 Match the name of the experiments listed under column 1 with the aim of the
: experiment given under column 2; choose the answer which give the correct
combination of the alphabets:
column 1 column 2
Gridling Ascent of
A. experiment p sap
Cobalt
chloride
B. paper q Transpiration
method
Unequel
transpiration
C. Crescograph r
on leaf
surfaces
Bell jar
D. s translocation
experiment
(A) A = s, B = r, C = p, D = q
(B) A = r, B = p, C = s, D = q
(C) A = q, B = p, C = s, D = r
(D) A = s, B = p, C = q, D = r
Correct Answer: A
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Toppersexam.com
Question 896
Number of endangered species of angiosperms in India is:
:
(A) 15,000
(B) 500
(C) 3,000
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: B
Question 897
Transduction in bacteria is mediated by:
:
(A) Cosmids
(B) F - factors
(C) Plasmid vectors
(D) Phage vectors
Correct Answer: D
Question 898 Match the common name of diseases listed under column 1 unit their medical
: terms listed under column 2; choose the answer which gives the correct
combination of the alphabets of the two columns:
Column 1 Column 2
Blood clotting in
A. p Rhinitis
small capillaries
B. Value defects q Stenosis
Parkinson's
C. Hay fever r
disease
Coronany
D. Paralysis s
thrombosis
(A) A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r
(B) A = r, B = s, C = q, D = p
(C) A = q, B = s, C = r, D = p
(D) A =s, B = p, C = r, D = q
Correct Answer: A
Question 899
The cell wall of bacteria is composed of:
:
(A) Murein
(B) Chitin
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(C) Cellulose
(D) Suberin
Correct Answer: A
Question 900 The phenomenon, in which an allele of one gene suppresses the activity of an
: allele of another gene, is known as:
(A) Suppression
(B) Inactivation
(C) Epistasis
(D) Dominance
Correct Answer: C
Question 901
In ancient times Haryana was known as ........
:
(A) Brahmawata
(B) Gujarat
(C) Kurukshetra
(D) Delhi
Correct Answer: A
Question 902
By what name was the state of Haryana known in ancient times ?
:
(A) Brahmavrata Pradesh
(B) Brahmashri Pradesh
(C) Brahma Ki Uttawedi
Correct Answer: C
Question 903
The ancient and sacred river of Haryana is…………… .
:
(A) Saraswati
(B) Drishadvati
(C) Ganga
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: D
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Toppersexam.com
Question 904
Agroha (Hisar) is mentioned in which texts?
:
(A) Divyavdan
(B) Kathakosh
(C) Bhadrabahu Charita
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 905
Which of the following texts has mention about Agroha (Hisar) ?
:
(A) Rajatarangini
(B) Abhigyan Shakuntalam
(C) Maltimadhav
(D) Divyavdana
Correct Answer: D
Question 906 Which of the following Jaina texts provides information from the social,
: religious cultural life of Haryana from first century to the third century?
(A) Parishishtaparvan
(B) Bhadrabahu Charitra
(C) Kathakosh
Correct Answer: D
Question 907
Maharaja Agrasena was associated with which place ?
:
(A) Sirsa
(B) Pehowa
(C) Rohtak
(D) Agroha
Correct Answer: D
Question 908
Rohtak district got its mention in which historical text ?
:
(A) Divyavdan
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(B) Majihima Nikaya

(C) Nakula-Digvijayam
(D) Kathakosh
Correct Answer: C
Question 909
Information about the ancient history of Haryana is found in which Purana ?
:
(A) Narad Purana
(B) Matasya Purana
(C) Vishnu Purana
(D) Vamana Purana
Correct Answer: D
Question 910
The Vamana Purana mentions how many forests of Haryana ?
:
(A) 4
(B) 7
(C) 11
(D) 12
Correct Answer: B
Question 911 Which of the following rivers of Haryana is not mentioned in Vamana
: Purana ?
(A) Indravati
(B) Saraswati
(C) Aapaga
(D) Anshumati
Correct Answer: A
Question 912 Which text has mentioned the description of the rivers mowing in Thanesar
: and Kurukshetra of Haryana ?
(A) Vamana Purana
(B) Prithvi Purana
(C) Purana Katha
(D) Katha Sahitya
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Correct Answer: A
Question 913
Harshacharita was written by ......... .
:
(A) Banabhatta
(B) Rajyavardhana
(C) Adityavardhana
(D) Prabhakawardhana
Correct Answer: A
Question 914
Banabhatta was the friend and court poet of which of the following rulers ?
:
(A) Prithviraj Chauhan
(B) Harshavardhana
(C) Anangpala
(D) Hemchandra
Correct Answer: B
Question 915 The first archaeological excavation in Haryana was done by which
: Archaeologist ?
(A) Cunningham
(B) BB LaI
(C) HL Srivastava
(D) DD Snooper
Correct Answer: D
Question 916
The oldest inscription of Haryana is………………. .
:
(A) Topra inscription
(B) Ropar inscription
(C) Pehowa inscription
(D) Banawali inscription
Correct Answer: A
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Toppersexam.com
Question 917 Who established Topra inscription of Ashoka period (in Yamunanagar
: district of Haryana) to Firuz Shah Kotla in Delhi ?
(A) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(B) Sultan Nasiruddin
(C) Ibrahim Lodi
Correct Answer: A
Question 918 All the seven notes of music have been mentioned in the inscription which
: has been found at which place of Haryana ?
(A) Sudh
(B) Agroha
(C) Rohtak
(D) Mitathal
Correct Answer: B
Question 919 Which inscription provides information that Pehowa was famous for horse
: trading in the ancient period ?
(A) Topra Inscription
(B) Ropar Inscription
(C) Bhojdeva Inscription
(D) Banawah Inscription
Correct Answer: C
Question 920
Coins of Indo-Greek rulers have been found from which place of Haryana ?
:
(A) Karnal
(B) Khokhrakot (Rohtak)
(C) Mewat
(D) Hansi
Correct Answer: B
Question 921 From which place of Haryana coins of Gupta ruler Samudragupta have been
: obtained ?
(A) Mitathal
(B) Rakhigarhi
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(C) Banawali
(D) Kapalmochan
Correct Answer: A
Question 922 Copper currency of Harsha period has been found from which place of
: Haryana ?
(A) Sonipat
(B) Panipat
(C) Jhajjar
(D) Mewat
Correct Answer: A
Question 923
Most of the Sculptures found in Haryana are related to which religion ?
:
(A) Vaishnavism
(B) Buddhism
(C) Jainism
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 924 In Haryana which of the following is the main centre of Kushana period
: sculptures ?
(A) Rohtak
(B) Sirsa
(C) Panipat
(D) Kurukshetra
Correct Answer: A
Question 925
Stone tools of palaeolithic age are found at which place of Haryana ?
:
(A) Dhamli
(B) Pinjore
(C) Firozpur
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: D
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Toppersexam.com
Question 926 From which place of Haryana evidences of lower palaeolithic period have
: been found ?
(A) Pinjore-Kalka region
(B) Mewat region
(C) Malwa region
(D) Jhajjar-Nuh region
Correct Answer: A
Question 927 Evidences of agriculture of Neolithic period have been found from which
: place of Haryana ?
(A) Sirsa
(B) Hisar
(C) Siswal
(D) Kurukshetra
Correct Answer: C
Question 928 The first evidences of Siswal culture have been found from which district of
: Haryana ?
(A) Hisar
(B) Rohtak
(C) Kurukshetra
(D) Sirsa
Correct Answer: A
Question 929
At first, Siswal people were settled near which river valley in Haryana ?
:
(A) Yamuna River Valley
(B) Sahibi River Valley
(C) Saraswati River Valley
(D) Drishadvati River Valley
Correct Answer: D
Question 930 Black-shiny decorated pottery have been found in Haryana, it depicts culture
: of which period ?
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(A) Vedic Period

(B) Indus Valley civilisation
(C) Siswal civilisation
Correct Answer: A
Question 931 The excavation of Mitathal village, located in Bhiwani district of Haryana,
: was conducted by ........ .
(A) Dr. Manmohan Kumar
(B) Dr. Surajbhan
(C) R.S. Bisht
(D) Dr. Amrendra Nath
Correct Answer: B
Question 932
Banawali is located in which district of Haryana ?
:
(A) Fatehabad
(B) Rohtak
(C) Sirsa
(D) Hisar
Correct Answer: A
Question 933 Rakhigarhi, a famous site of Siswal culture is located in which district of
: Haryana ?
(A) Hisar
(B) Sonipat
(C) Kurukshetra
(D) Sirsa
Correct Answer: A
Question 934 Painted pottery of Siswal culture has been found from which place of
: Haryana ?
(A) Kunal
(B) Farmana
(C) Giravad
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(D) Balu
Correct Answer: B
Question 935
Royal crown has been found from which place of Haryana ?
:
(A) Banawali
(B) Rakhigarhi
(C) Kunal
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: C
Question 936
Which is the first excavated site of 'Hakra Culture’ ?
:
(A) Kunal
(B) Mitathal
(C) Bhinana
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: A
Question 937 Around 5000 years old Indus Valley Civilisation has been found in the ..........
: district of Haryana .
(A) Ranchi
(B) Hisar
(C) Kurukshetra
(D) Angirus
Correct Answer: B
Question 938
Which Harappan site is located in Fatehabad district of Haryana ?
:
(A) Banawali
(B) Lothal
(C) Dholavira
(D) Kalibangas
Correct Answer: A
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Toppersexam.com
Question 939 At which place, two terracotta sculptures of Matra devi have been found in
: Haryana ?
(A) Banawali
(B) Rakhigarhi
(C) Mitathal
(D) Bhirrana
Correct Answer: A
Question 940 The largest number of barley and grains evidences have been discovered at
: which Harappan site of Haryana ?
(A) Mitathal
(B) Banawah
(C) Siswal
(D) Bhirrana
Correct Answer: B
Question 941 Rakhigarhi, a Harappan civilisation place is located in which of the following
: district of Haryana ?
(A) Hisar
(B) Kurukshetra
(C) Fatehabad
(D) Sirsa
Correct Answer: A
Question 942 In the excavation of which of the following sites of Haryana the remains of
: 4500 years old civilisation found ?
(A) Rakhigarhi
(B) Siswal
(C) Rohtak
(D) Karnal
Correct Answer: C
Question 943
Which of the following is the oldest, Harappan historical site in Haryana ?
:
(A) Bhadana
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(B) Rakhigarhi
(C) Banawali
(D) Kunal
Correct Answer: B
Question 944
The historical site Mitathal is located in which district of Haryana ?
:
(A) Rohtak
(B) Sirsa
(C) Bhiwani
(D) Bahadurgarh
Correct Answer: C
Question 945 Which of the following archaeological site of Indus Valley Civilisation in
: Haryana is correctly matched ?
(A) Mitathal-Bhiwani
(B) Rakhigarhi-Fatehabad
(C) Banawali-Yamunanagar
(D) Siswal-Kurukshetra
Correct Answer: A
Question 946
Which of the following is not a Harappan site ?
:
(A) Rakhigarhi
(B) Faridabad
(C) Banawali
(D) Daulatpur
Correct Answer: B
Question 947
What is the name of Haryana in Rigveda ?
:
(A) Raj Haryana
(B) Harivi
(C) Haryali
(D) Harn
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Correct Answer: D
Question 948
In which Purana, Haryana is named as 'Hariyali’ ?
:
(A) Vamana Purana
(B) Prithvi Purana
(C) Purana Katha
(D) Skanda Purana
Correct Answer: D
Question 949
'Panprastha’ is the oldest name of which district of Haryana ?
:
(A) Sonipat
(B) Kurukshetra
(C) Panipat
(D) Kaithal
Correct Answer: C
Question 950
In which text Kurukshetra is known as 'Harishetra’ ?
:
(A) Vayu Purana
(B) Garuda Purana
(C) Shiva Purana
(D) Skanda Purana
Correct Answer: D
Question 951
The oldest epic of Haryana is ......... .
:
(A) Rigveda
(B) Bhagavad Gita
(C) Chatuweda
(D) Ausho
Correct Answer: B
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Question 952
........ said that the word 'Haryana’ came from Aryan .
:
(A) Dr. HR Gupta
(B) Pt. Rahul Sankrityayan
(C) Satish Dwiwedi
(D) Chahmana
Correct Answer: A
Question 953
Aryan people called Haryana as ......... .
:
(A) Devlok
(B) Devprayag
(C) Devbhoomi
(D) Devsangam
Correct Answer: C
Question 954 Which of the following mighty kings are associated with history of Haryana
: ?
(A) Puru Clan
(B) Bharat Clan
(C) Kuru Clan
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: D
Question 955
Haryana state was the home of which dynasty ?
:
(A) Bharata dynasty
(B) Maurya dynasty
(C) Lodhi dynasty
(D) Gupta dynasty
Correct Answer: A
Question 956
The war of Mahabharata took place in ......... BC .
:
(A) 900
(B) 800
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(C) 700
(D) 600
Correct Answer: A
Question 957
The famous Kurukshetra War (Mahabharat) was fought for the throne of
:
(A) Indraprashtax
(B) Hastinapur
(C) Gandhar
(D) Yadu
Correct Answer: B
Question 958
The holy district of Haryana is ........ .
:
(A) Panchkula
(B) Kurukshetra
(C) Amba Ia
(D) Hisar
Correct Answer: B
Question 959
Ved Vyasa write’ Mahabharata at which place ?
:
(A) Sonipat
(B) Kurukshetra
(C) Hisar
(D) Panipat
Correct Answer: C
Question 960
The name of Mahabharata is ......... .
:
(A) Dharam Bharata
(B) Panchali Katha
(C) Jaya Samhita
(D) Jay Bharata
Correct Answer: C
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Question 961 The famous religious book/text of 'Mahabharata’ was written in which
: district of Haryana ?
(A) Hisar
(B) Sonipat
(C) Karnal
(D) Kurukshetra
Correct Answer: D
Question 962
........battle ground is known as 'DharamShetra’ .
:
(A) Panipat
(B) Kurukshetra
(C) Mewat
(D) Kargil
Correct Answer: B
Question 963
Which city of Haryana is associated with Karna of Mahabharata ?
:
(A) Karnal
(B) Kurukshetra
(C) Kunjpura
(D) Kunal
Correct Answer: A
Question 964
In which epic Haryana is known as 'Bahudhanyak’ ?
:
(A) Mahabharata
(B) Vishnu Purana
(C) Ramayana
(D) Ashtadhyayi
Correct Answer: A
Question 965
King ......... established the Karnal city during Mahabharata period .
:
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(A) Yudhishtir
(B) Karna
(C) Duryodhana
(D) Shakuni
Correct Answer: B
Question 966 Kurukshetra has been described as the Dharmakshetra Kurukshetra in the
: first verse of the .............
(A) Puranas
(B) Ramayana
(C) Mahabharatha
(D) Gita
Correct Answer: D
Question 967
Haryana has been illustrated in which epic ?
:
(A) Ramayana
(B) Gitanjali
(C) Mahabharata
(D) Shakuntala
Correct Answer: C
Question 968 During the times of Mahabharata, Haryana was referred with which of the
: following names ?
(A) Hitapradesh
(B) Vindyapradesh
(C) Ditarashtra
(D) Bahudhanyaka
Correct Answer: D
Question 969 Lord Krishna gave teachings of Gita to Arjun at which holy place of Haryana
: ?
(A) Markanday Teertha
(B) Jyotisar
(C) Brahma Kund
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(D) Kaleshwar Teertha
Correct Answer: B
Question 970 The book written by the Chinese traveller depicts power and glory of which
: place of Haryana ?
(A) Thanesar
(B) Patiala
(C) Mahendragarh
(D) Kurukshetra
Correct Answer: A
Question 971
Which space agency a mission to explore a specific celestial body ?
:
(A) European Space Agency (ESA)
(B) China National Space Administration (CNSA)
(C) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
Correct Answer: C
Question 972 The James Webb Space Telescope has reignited interest in the search for
: extraterrestrial life, What method is a primary tool for astronomers in this
search ?
(A) Directly observing alien lifeforms
(B) Analyzing the atmospheres of exoplanets for potential biosignatures
(C) Sending probes to potentially habitable planets
(D) Decoding radio signals from potential alien civilizations
Correct Answer: B
Question 973 Which technological advancement is a major focus in the field of artificial
: intelligence research ?
(A) General artificial intelligence (human-level intelligence)
(B) Quantum computing for AI applications
(C) Explainable AI (making AI models more transparent)
(D) Biomimicry-inspired AI algorithms
Correct Answer: A
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Toppersexam.com
Question 974
The surge in global oil prices is primarily caused by what factor ?
:
(A) Increased production from OPEC+ countries
(B) Discovery of new major oil reserves
(C) Disruptions to supply due to the Russia-Ukraine war
(D) Environmental regulations limiting oil exploration
Correct Answer: C
Question 975 The world's first ever commercial flight powered by sustainable aviation fuel
: (SAF) took place, What is the primary benefit of SAF ?
(A) Reduced noise pollution
(B) Lower operating costs for airlines
(C) Significantly decreased greenhouse gas emissions
(D) Improved safety features for aircraft
Correct Answer: C
Question 976 The International Labour Organization (ILO) a report on global

: unemployment trends, What is the general trend observed in the report ?
(A) Significant decrease in unemployment rates
(B) Stagnation in unemployment rates
(C) Increase in unemployment rates, particularly among young people
(D) A shift towards remote work opportunities
Correct Answer: C
Question 977
Finland and Sweden submitted applications to join NATO, What is NATO ?
:
(A) The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (military alliance)
(B) The North American Trade Organization (economic agreement)
(C) The New African Trade Organization (economic agreement)
(D) The Nuclear Arms Treaty Organization (arms control treaty)
Correct Answer: A
Question 978 The World Health Organization (WHO) is monitoring a new outbreak of
: Monkeypox in several countries, What continent was the initial outbreak
reported in ?
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(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) South America
(D) Europe
Correct Answer: B
Question 979 The James Webb Space Telescope has captured groundbreaking images of
: Jupiter, What is a significant discovery from these images ?
(A) A new ring system
(B) An active volcanic eruption on Io
(C) The presence of water vapor on Ganymede
(D) A previously unknown moon
Correct Answer: B
Question 980 SpaceX its Starship rocket on a successful test flight, What is the primary
: focus of the Starship program ?
(A) Deploying communication satellites
(B) Sending probes to Mars
(C) Establishing a lunar base
(D) Interplanetary passenger travel
Correct Answer: D
Question 981 The economy of India grew by 7.8 percent in the first quarter of 2024, What
: is the closest estimate for the annual growth rate for the financial year 2023-
24 ?
(A) 8.0%
(B) 8.1%
(C) 8.2%
(D) 8.3%
Correct Answer: B
Question 982 A recent scientific breakthrough has led to significant progress in the
: development of :
(A) Quantum computing
(B) Fusion energy
(C) Self-driving cars with complete autonomy
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(D) A cure for the common cold
Correct Answer: A
Question 983 Convict Munna, involved in the 1993 Mumbai blasts, was identified by
: another name as :
(A) Mohammad Ali Khan
(B) Manoj Kumar Gupta
(C) Both a and b
(D) Only a
Correct Answer: C
Question 984
Which country a ban on single-use plastics ?
:
(A) The United States
(B) China
(C) Germany
(D) Brazil
Correct Answer: B
Question 985 A recent climate change report suggests the Arctic Ocean could be ice-free in
: summer by :
(A) 2040
(B) 2050
(C) 2060
(D) 2030
Correct Answer: B
Question 986
Which country plans to launch a mission to explore Venus ?
:
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Japan
(D) United States
Correct Answer: B
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Toppersexam.com
Question 987 What groundbreaking new technology is being developed to combat climate
: change ?
(A) Carbon capture and storage
(B) Advanced solar panels with higher efficiency
(C) Large-scale wind farms
(D) Genetically modified plants that absorb more CO2
Correct Answer: A
Question 988
A new social media campaign is raising awareness about the issue of :
:
(A) Mental health
(B) Online bullying
(C) Fake news
Correct Answer: A
Question 989
A recent report suggests global hunger is :
:
(A) Increasing
(B) Decreasing
(C) Stable
(D) Unknown
Correct Answer: A
Question 990
Which athlete broke the world record in the 100-meter sprint ?
:
(A) Usain Bolt
(B) Elaine Thompson-Herah
(C) Trayvon Bromell
(D) Fred Kerley
Correct Answer: A
Question 991
What major environmental summit is scheduled to take place later this year ?
:
(A) COP28
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(B) The World Conservation Congress

(C) The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands
(D) The Convention on Biological Diversity
Correct Answer: A
Question 992 The Federal Reserve its decision on interest rates, Did they raise, lower, or
: keep them the same ?
(A) Raise
(B) Lower
(C) Kept the Same
(D) No Announcement Yet
Correct Answer: A
Question 993
The United Nations a new initiative aimed at achieving :
:
(A) Universal access to clean water and sanitation
(B) Eradication of global hunger by 2030
(C) Gender equality in education
(D) Sustainable development goals across all nations
Correct Answer: A
Question 994 A major international conference on climate change aims to address the issue
: of :
(A) Carbon Emissions Reduction
(B) Deforestation Rates
(C) Ocean Acidification
(D) All of the Above
Correct Answer: D
Question 995 Scientists are developing new treatments for a emerged infectious disease.
: This disease is :
(A) Dengue Fever
(B) Ebola Virus Disease
(C) Malaria
(D) A new strain of Influenza
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Correct Answer: A
Question 996
A new breakthrough in the field of renewable energy involves :
:
(A) Geothermal Power
(B) Hydrogen Fuel Cells
(C) Solar Panel Efficiency
(D) Wind Turbine Technology
Correct Answer: C
Question 997
Which economic indicator is a key measure of a country's inflation rate ?
:
(A) GDP
(B) Unemployment Rate
(C) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(D) Trade Deficit
Correct Answer: C
Question 998
A major international sporting event is currently underway in :
:
(A) Australia
(B) France
(C) Italy
(D) South Africa
Correct Answer: A
Question 999
A new species of deep-sea creature was discovered in the :
:
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) Pacific Ocean
Correct Answer: D
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Toppersexam.com
Question 1000
A major climate conference is scheduled to take place in :
:
(A) Brazil
(B) Germany
(C) Kenya
(D) Singapore
Correct Answer: A
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HSSC JE Electrical in English (July)

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Toppersexam.

(A) it displays the proprietary information created by AOL

(E) None of these

(A) pre - determined setting

Question 28 ________________ means to enlarge window to its maximum area so that it

Question 33 _____________ is an area of memory assigned to store any e-mail message

Question 38 A connection from one HTML documents to another HTML document is

(A) hyper link

(B) plug and play

(A) right click

Question 47 An operation to retrieve information image as well as text which is stored in

Question 52 ___________--- is a process of sending documents to a storage where they are

Question 54 An interactive tool provided with windows OS to assist user in installation of

(E) None of these

(D) Both b and c

(C) in one package

Question 74 All windows application have to be executed in windows or in DOS mode

Question 76 A connection from the current document to another document or to a

Question 81 A mathematically oriented high level language frequently used in time

Question 86 A technique in which a number of similar items or transactions to be processed

Question 91 A thin wafer of silicon on which integrated electronic components are

(E) None of these

Question 97 To detect, locate and remove errors in programs and / or malfunctions in

(C) object program

(B) only OS dependent

(A) loading windows based application

(E) None of these

(D) All of these

Question 143 A process known as _____________- is used by large retailers to study

Question 144 _________________- terminals ( formerly known as cash registers ) are

(B) processing data into information

Question 150 Technology no longer protected by copyright available to everyone is

Question 172 __________________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to

(E) None of these

(D) Very important resource under search

(E) None of these

(C) DISKCOY can be used on hard disks

(B) change the date

(B) Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17

Question 219 Consider the following statements

Question 226 Consider the following statements

Question 236 Which of the statements given below is/are correct

(C) the 6th five year plan

Question 252 Consider the following

Question 255 Match the following

A. Year of the Great Divide 1. 1950

Question 262 Mathc the following

Community development programme

Question 266 Which of the following gives an accurate measurement of economic

Question 268 An underdeveloped economy is generally characterized by

Question 269 The basic objectives of Indian Planning are

(B) 1,2 and 3

Question 270 Consider the following statements

Question 272 Microeconomics is concerned with

Question 273 Put in chronological order

Question 274 The Planning Commission of India

Question 279 Consider the following

(C) 1,2, 4 and 5

Question 283 Match the following

(A) 0.8 â„¦