APSC PRELIMS TS - 4th CSAT (15th Mar 2023)

4th_CSAT_15th March
Q1. Direction: Read the following passage and and true, both for design and colour, loses all
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this sense of it when coming face to face with what they
item should be based on the passage only. so wrongly conceive to be a higher type of culture.
Since 1961, human diets across the world have We should try to promote and save the Indian
become more diverse in the consumption of major Tribal Art. The best things in the Indian arts and
commodity staple crops, with a corollary decline in crafts should be introduced in modern society.
consumption of local or regionally important crops, Which one of the following statements best reflects
and thus have become more homogeneous the critical message of the passage?
globally. The differences between the foods eaten A. Tribal Art needs to be commercialized
in different countries were reduced by 68% B. The essence of tribe culture to be infused with
between 1961 and 2009. The modern "global time
standard" diet contains an increasingly large C. Tribal Art has its own characteristics
percentage of a relatively small number of major D. Tribesman has his own affection towards tribe
staple commodity crops, which have increased culture
substantially in the share of the total food energy
(calories), protein, fat, and food weight that they Q3. Direction: Read the following passage and
provide to the world's human population, including answer the item that follows. Your answer to this
wheat, rice, sugar, maize, soybean (by +284%), item should be based on the passage only.
palm Oil (by +173%), and sunflower (by +246%). The U.S. Food and Drug Administration has
Whereas nations used to consume greater created draft guidance on data integrity for the
proportions of locally or regionally important crops, pharmaceutical manufacturers required to adhere
wheat has become a staple in over 97% of to the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations. Outside
countries, with the other global staples showinq the U.S., similar data integrity guidance has been
similar dominance worldwide. Other crops have issued by the United Kingdom (2015), Switzerland
declined sharply over the same period, including (2016), and Australia. Various standards for the
rye, yam, sweet potato (by —45%), cassava (by - manufacture of medical devices address data
38%), coconut sorghum (by —52%), and millets integrity either directly or indirectly, including ISO
(by —45%). Such crop diversity change in the 13485, ISO 14155, and ISO 5840. In early 2017,
human diet is associated with mixed effects on the Financial Industry Regulatory Authority
food security, improving under-nutrition in some (FINRA), noting data integrity problems with
regions but contributing to the diet- related automated trading and money movement
diseases caused by over-consumption of surveillance systems, stated it would make "the
macronutrients. development of a data integrity program to monitor
Which of the following is the most logical inference the accuracy of the submitted data" a priority. In
that can be drawn from the above passage? early 2018, FINRA said it would expand its
A. Global food supply and diet have become more approach on data integrity to firms' "technology
homogeneous. change management policies and procedures"
B. Homogeneity in global diet has led to an and Treasury securities reviews. Other sectors
increase in diet- related diseases. such as mining and product manufacturing are
C. Earlier nations used to consume greater increasingly focusing on the importance of data
proportions of locally or regionally important crops. integrity in associated automation and production
D. Crop diversity change in the human diet is monitoring assets. Cloud storage providers have
associated with mixed effects on food security. long faced significant challenges ensuring the
integrity or provenance of customer data and
Q2. Direction: Read the following passage and tracking violations.
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this Which of the following is the most rational
item should be based on the passage only. inference that can be drawn from the above
The march of civilization has a paralyzing effect on passage?
tribal people. Open a shop - and they will throng to A. Use of data integrity is increasing across several
buy the gaudiest products of our factories. For the different industries.
tribesman, whose taste in his own sphere is so fine
SPM IAS Academy, D.S. Mansion 2nd floor, Opposite Indian Oil Petrol Pump, Near Assam State Zoo, Zoo
Road, Guwahati, Assam – 781005 Phone: 6901259799, Students’ Support Team: 7099064717,
Email: spmiasacademy@gmail.com
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4th_CSAT_15th March
B. FINRA is implementing data integrity C. Customer Relationship Management enhances

everywhere. the perceived quality of products and services from
C. Cloud Storage providers do not like to use data a customer's viewpoint.
integrity. D. Organizations cannot survive without Customer
D. Mining and Product manufacturing use data Relationship Management.
integrity efficiently.
Q5. The marks obtained by a student were entered
Q4. Direction: Read the following passage and as 78 instead of 68. Due to this, the average marks
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this of the class increased by 0.5 marks. How many
item should be based on the passage only. students are there in the class?
Customer satisfaction has important implications A. 20
for the economic performance of firms because it B. 30
has the ability to increase customer loyalty and C. 35
usage behaviour and reduce customer complaints D. 25
and the likelihood of customer defection. The
implementation of a CRM approach is likely to Q6. The average cost of 16 items is Rs. 59. Four
affect customer satisfaction and customer items with an average price of 60 are returned and
knowledge for a variety of different reasons. Firstly, three other items costing Rs. 39, Rs. 49, and Rs.
firms can customize their offerings for each 40 are also returned. What is the new average
customer. By accumulating information across price?
customer interactions and processing this A. 84
information to discover hidden patterns, CRM B. 54
applications help firms customize their offerings to C. 64
suit the individual tastes of their customers. This D. 44
customization enhances the perceived quality of
products and services from a customer's Q7. The average weight of 13 parcels comes out
viewpoint, and because the perceived quality is a to be 15 kg. If one parcel goes missing, the
determinant of customer satisfaction, it follows that average weight gets reduced by 1.5 kg, then find
CRM applications indirectly affect customer out the weight of missing parcel.
satisfaction. CRM applications also enable firms to A. 33 kgs
provide timely, accurate processing of customer B. 57 kgs
orders and requests and the ongoing management C. 53 kgs
of customer accounts. For example, Piccoli and D. 45 kgs
Applegate discuss how Wyndham uses IT tools to
deliver a consistent service experience across its Q8. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below
various properties to a customer. Both an followed by a Question:
improved ability to customize and reduced S1 : n is a prime number.
variability of the consumption experience enhance S2 : it leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 4.
perceived quality, which in turn positively affects Question:
customer satisfaction. Furthermore, CRM If it is a unique natural number between 10 and 20,
applications also help firms manage customer then what is n?
relationships more effectively across the stages of Which one of the following is correct in respect of
relationship initiation, maintenance, and the above Statements and the Question?
termination. A. S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
Which of the following is the most logical and B. S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.
rational inference that can be drawn from the C. S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the
above passage? Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is
A. Customer Relationship Management helps a lot sufficient to answer the Question.
in increasing customer satisfaction. D. S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer
B. Customer satisfaction has important the Question.
implications on the economic performance of firms.
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Q9. Direction: Read the following question and A. 90 km

decide which of the given statement(s) is/are B. 100 km
sufficient. C. 110 km
If x is a natural number, then is x + 6 odd? D. 95 km
Statements:
1. x - 15 is a whole number. Q14. Direction: Read the given statements and
2. x - 6 is an odd number. conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
A. 2 alone is sufficient while 1 alone is not sufficient information given in the statements is true, even if
to answer the question. it appears to be at variance with commonly known
B. Both 1 and 2 together are sufficient to answer facts, decide which of the given conclusions
the question. logically follow(s) from the statements.
C. Either 1 or 2 is sufficient to answer the question. Statements:
D. 1 alone is sufficient while 2 alone is not sufficient Some forks are spoons.
to answer the question. All spoons are bowls.
Conclusions:
Q10. A quality of wheat at Rs. 9.30 per kg is mixed 1. Some bowls are spoons.
with another quality at a certain rate in the ratio 6 : 2. Some spoons are forks.
7. If the mixture so formed be worth Rs. 10 per kg, 3. Some bowls are forks.
what is the rate per kg of the second quality of A. All of the conclusions follow.
wheat? B. Only conclusions 2 and 3 follow.
A. Rs. 10.40 per kg C. Only conclusions 1 and 2 follow.
B. Rs. 10.60 per kg D. Only conclusions 1 and 3 follow.
C. Rs. 10.04 per kg
D. Rs. 10.11 per kg Q15. In a certain code RAIN is written as TCKP.
How is CLOUD written in that code?
Q11. If the difference between the original two- A. ENRWF
digit number and the one obtained from reversing B. FNQWE
the digits is 27, find the maximum number of such C. EMQWF
2-digit numbers possible. D. ENQWF
A. 5
B. 8 Q16. Direction: Based on the statement given
C. 9 below, choose the best possible conclusion(s) that
D. 7 follows:
Statement:
Q12. Direction: The following questions are based Online classes are leading to health issues in
on the ability to perceive direction and distance. children such as headaches, eye problems and
Prakash starts walking from a point A towards stress during Covid-19 pandemic as they are
South. After walking 40 meters, he took a left turn. spending more time on screen than before.
He then walked 30 meters and reached a point B. Conclusions:
What is the total distance between A and B and B l. During Covid-19 pandemic teachers are adopting
is towards which direction of A? virtual teaching method to teach their students.
A. 70 m South East II. Children who are not attending online classes
B. 50 m South West are not facing any health issues.
C. 50 m South East A. Only conclusion I follow
D. 70 m South West B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusion I and II follow
Q13. A, B and C are three persons standing at D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
different positions. The distance between A and B
is 60 km. whereas the distance between A and C
is 80 km. B is in the West of A and C is in the South
of A. What is the distance between B and C?
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Q17. Direction: Read the following information Q19. Direction: Read the following passage and
carefully and answer the following questions: answer the item that follows. Your answer to this
A boy starts from point A to east direction and goes item should be based on the passage only.
10m to reach point B. From point B he turn to his More than eight out of ten Americans feel listening
left and goes 15m to reach point C. At point C he to commercials in exchange for free radio is a •fair
turns to his right and goes 10m to reach point D, deal".
and then he turns to his right and goes 15m to Furthermore, broadcast radio advertising often
reach point E. In the last he turns to his left from offers the advantage of being localized and
point E and goes 8m to reach point F. what is the inexpensive in comparison With Other mediums
total distance he travelled in his journey and in such as television. Thus, radio advertising can be
which direction is the point F from the point A? an effective, low-cost medium through which a
A. 58m, West business can reach its target consumer; Studies
B. 48m, West show that radio ads create emotional reactions in
C. 58m, East listeners. In turn, consumers perceive the ads as
D. 48m, East more relevant to them personally, which can lead
to increased market awareness and sales for
Q18. Direction: Read the following passage and businesses running ad schedules. Twenty-five
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this percent of listeners say they're more interested in
item should be based on the passages only. a product or business when they hear about it on
Melting glaciers add to rising sea levels, which in their preferred station. Local DJs create a personal
turn increases coastal erosion and elevates storm relationship with their listening audience, and that
surge as warming air and ocean temperatures audience is more likely to trust what they say and
create more frequent and intense coastal storms respond to their message. Live endorsements are
like hurricanes and typhoons. Meltwater from the growing in popularity, as advertisers seek new
ice sheets and glaciers flows into the ocean, means to reach consumers and Cut through the
causing sea levels to rise. This can lead to surrounding clutter. Studies show that live reads
flooding, habitat destruction, and other problems. have recall and response rates higher than the
Ice reflects the Sun's energy better than land or typically recorded Spot. Perhaps because of the
water. The melting freshwater from glaciers alters relationship listeners develop with their favorite
the ocean, not only by directly contributing to the station, twenty-six percent of listeners are more
global sea-level rise, but also because it pushes interested in a product or business when a DJ
down the heavier salt water, thereby changing endorses it. As more advertisers turn to live
what scientists call the THC, or Thermo (heat) endorsements, heavy demand is placed on DJs to
Haline (salt) Circulation, meaning currents in the announce them. And, as the number of available
ocean. The ice disappears and the front edge of DJs shrinks, those that are left are often inundated
the glacier moves up the valley. Glacial melt with requests to do endorsements.
increases water flow and creates stream valleys Which of the following is the most logical inference
and rivulets. It also creates glacial lakes, which can that can be drawn from the above passage?
lead to dangerous flash floods, known as mountain A. Radio advertising can be an effective, low-cost
tsunamis, if the flow is blocked and natural dams medium through which a business can reach its
break target consumer.
Which of the following is implied in the passage? B. Efficacy of radio has been observed and self-
A Melting glacier leads to an increase in the sea explicit almost everywhere.
level. C. Radio ads create emotional reactions in
B. Melting glacier will turn the earth into a desert. listeners.
C. Meltwater from the ice sheets and glaciers flows D. Radio can lead to increased market awareness
into the ocean. and sales for businesses running ad schedules.
D. Melting glacier is bad for the environment
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Q20. Direction: Read the following passage and B. There are various ways to ensure cleanliness in
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this wafe fabrication.
item should be based on the passage only. C. Only the top surface of the wafer and the room
Microfabrication is carried out in cleanrooms, needs to be clean.
where the air has been filtered of particle D. Cleanliness occupies the major budget in the
contamination and temperature, humidity, manufacture of wafer.
vibrations, and electrical disturbances are under
stringent control. Smoke, dust, bacteria, and cells Q21. Direction: Read the following passage and
are micrometres in size, and their presence will answer the item that follows. Your answer to this
destroy the functionality of a micro fabricated item should be based on the passages only.
device. Cleanrooms provide passive cleanliness Chlorophyll, the primary pigment used in
but the wafers are also actively cleaned before photosynthesis, reflects green light and absorbs
every critical step. RCA-I clean in ammonia- red and blue light most strongly. In plants,
peroxide solution removes organic contamination photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts, which
and particles; RCA-2 cleaning in hydrogen contain chlorophyll. These other pigments may
chloride-peroxide mixture removes metallic help channel light energy to chlorophyll A or
impurities. Sulfuric acid-peroxide mixture (a.k.a. protect the cell from photo-damage. Chlorophyll's
Piranha) removes organics. Hydrogen fluoride job in a plant is to absorb light— usually sunlight.
removes native oxide from the silicon surface. The energy absorbed from light is transferred to
These are all wet cleaning steps in solutions. Dry two kinds of energy-storing molecules. Through
cleaning methods include oxygen and argon photosynthesis, the plant uses the stored energy
plasma treatments to remove unwanted surface to convert carbon dioxide (absorbed from the air)
layers, or hydrogen bake at elevated temperature and water into glucose, a type of sugar.
to remove native oxide before epitaxy. Pre-gate Which of the following is implied in the passage?
cleaning is the most critical cleaning step in CMOS A. Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis.
fabrication: it ensures that the ca. 2 nm thick oxide B. Not all plants possess chlorophyll.
of a MOS transistor can be grown in an orderly C. Chloroplast contains chlorophyll.
fashion. D. Chlorophyll's job is to absorb light.
Oxidation and all high-temperature steps are very
sensitive to contamination, and cleaning steps Q22. Which among the following is an irrational
must precede high- temperature steps. Surface number?
preparation is just a different viewpoint; all the √1296, √576, √1156, √1325
steps are the same as described above: it is about A. √1296
leaving the wafer surface in a controlled and well-
B. √576
known state before you start processing. Wafers
are contaminated by previous process steps (e.g. C. √1156
metals bombarded from chamber walls by D. √1325
energetic ions during ion implantation), or they
may have gathered polymers from wafer boxes, Q23. Direction: Two statements and two
and this might be different depending on wait time. conclusions 1 and 2 are given below. Consider the
Wafer cleaning and surface preparation work information given in the statement to be true even
similarly to the machines in a bowling alley: first if it seems to be at variance from commonly known
they remove all unwanted bits and pieces, and facts and decide which of the given conclusions
then they reconstruct the desired pattern so that logically and definitively follows the information
the game can go on. given in the statement.
Statements:
Which of the following is the most critical inference All bags are trolleys.
that can be drawn from the above passage? All briefcases are trolleys.
A. Deploying a high degree of cleanliness is an Conclusion:
extremely important step in wafer fabrication. 1. All trolleys are bags.
2. Some trolleys are briefcases
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A. Both conclusions follow. A. 31

B. Only conclusion 2 follows. B. 87
C. Only conclusion 1 follows. C. 12
D. Neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion 2 follows. D. 56
Q24. A bucket of 16 litres capacity is filled to the Q29. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below
brim with water. Water from this bucket is to be followed by a question:
transferred into smaller utensils. A mug filled to S1: The ratio Of the efficiency to complete the work
capacity has to be dipped 50 times to completely of A, B and C is 3 : 4 : 5 respectively.
transfer the water in the bucket into the utensils. S2: Total amount A B and C earned by working
What is the capacity of the mug? together is Rs. 7200.
A. 250 mL Question: What is the amount earned by B alone?
B. 275 mL Which one of the following is correct in respect of
C. 320 mL the Statement and the questions?
D. 225 mL A. S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the
question.
Q25. In the following question, select the related B. S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
letters from the given alternatives. C. S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
KLMN: GIKM :: PQRS:? D. S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer
A. FGDS the question.
B. DFSA
C. LNPR Q30. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below
D. VBDS followed by a Question:
S1: Anuj sends emails from Monday to Saturday
Q26. Find the maximum number of children among every month.
whom 429 pencils and 715 pens can be equally S2: Anuj sends one email in the evening and one
distributed. at night time.
A. 143 Question: How many emails did Anuj sent this
B. 100 month, if the month starts on Monday and ends on
C. 120 Monday?
D. 160 Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements and the question?
Q27. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below A. S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the
followed by a question: question but neither of them alone is sufficient.
S1: FOG is written as '265' and DISH is written as B. S1 and S2 together sufficient and one of them
'3184'. alone is sufficient as well.
S2: RAW is written as '709'. C. S1 is alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Question: What is the code for DRAW? D. S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Which one of the following is correct in respect Of
the Statement and the questions? Q31. The ratio of alcohol and water in a solution of
A. S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question. 70 litres is 5 : 2. How much water should be added
B. Either S1 or S2 is sufficient to answer the to the solution to reverse the ratio?
question. A. 120 litres
C. S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the B. 105 litres
question. C. 115 litres
D. S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. D. 130 litres
Q28. Find the 4th number from the right end in the Q32. Which least number when divided by 16, 20,
given series, after deleting the number succeeding 25 and 64 leaves a remainder 9 in each case?
every even number. A. 1825
74, 25, 87, 13, 56, 9, 12, 75, 31, 59, 42, 55 B. 1785
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C. 1609 the following is the heaviest ball?

D. 2105 A. Hockey Ball
B. Cricket Ball
Q33. Which of the following statement is correct? C. Volley Ball
Statement 1: The HCF and LCM of numbers D. Football
cannot be equal to each other
Statement 2: Remainder is always less than or Q39. The sum of the ages of the mother and her
equal to divisor daughter at Present is 50 years. 5 years ago; The
A. only 1 mother was 7 times of her daughter. What is the
B. only2 Present age of the mother?
C. Both 1 and 2 A. 50 years
D. Neither 1 nor 2 B. 60 years
C. 40 years
Q34. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ... is D. 80 years
continued in the same pattern, which one of the
following is not a term of this series? Q40. By Selling 20 Umbrellas for Rs. 2400, A man
A. 31 losses 20%, How many should he sell for Rs. 7200
B. 32 to gain 20%?
C. 33 A. 34
D. 35 B. 31
C. 40
Q35. In an election, two candidates Rohit and Virat D. 42
get some vote. Rohit gets 60% of the vote and wins
the election by 800 votes. How many total votes Q41. Direction: Read the following passage and
are polled in the election? answer the item that follows. Your answer to this
A. 4400 item should be based on the passages only.
B. 4200
C. 4000 Parrots are omnivores, which means that they can
D. 40000 eat both meat and vegetation. Most parrots eat a
diet that contains nuts, lowers, fruit, buds, seeds,
Q36. If + denotes ×, × denotes +, - denotes ÷ and and insects. Seeds are their favorite food. They
÷ denotes -, then find the value of have strong jaws that allow them to snap open
150 + 4 × 250 – 5 ÷ 100 nutshells to get to the seed that’s inside. The best
A. 550 foods for a pet parrot to eat are fresh vegetables,
B. 525 fruit, and pellets or seeds. In the wild, parrot's diets
C. 600 can vary considerably and they like to eat fruit and
D. 575 fruit seeds, nuts, flowers, and corn where they can
find it. The domesticated parrot is no different, with
Q37. Direction: Find the wrong term in the the diet needing to be varied. As is true for many
following series. 12, 14, 18, 26, 46, 74, 138, 266, pets, many human foods are good for pet birds,
522 when prepared correctly.
A. 522
B. 46 Parrots can eat bread, but only the low-salt whole
C. 18 wheat ones. Parrots should not be given bread
D. 26 frequently, since bread doesn't offer them much of
any nutrients. As an occasional treat, parrots can
Q38. The following Questions are based on inter- have bread but never as a part of a regular healthy
se ranking between to people or a group of people. diet. Safe fruits that are also often included in
The cricket ball is heavier than the hockey ball and parrot pellet mixes according to Avian Web are
volleyball is lighter than the football. Hockey ball is apple, apricot, banana, cranberry, mango,
heavier than the football and tennis ball. Which of nectarine, orange, papaya, peach, pear, and
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pineapple. It sounds a little odd to feed eggs to necessary skills they need to progress in the
parrots. Eggs are completely natural food and are modern world. However, labor at an early stage
good for your birds-they have no carbohydrates prevents children from going to school and
and no sugar-but, as with anything, moderation is obtaining such abilities. There is a large amount of
key to a healthy flock stress - in most cases – put on these children to
provide for their families since there is normally no
Which of the following can be inferred from the other mode of income within the household.
above passage? Additionally, the psychological effects of child labor
A. The domesticated parrot and the wild parrot are often as critical as the physical effects, which
should be given different types of foods. can lead to long-lasting traumas. The children who
B. Parrots have strong jaws that allow them to snap have suffered horific acts of
open nutshells to get to the seed that's inside. violence may grow up to develop mental illnesses
C. Most parrots eat a diet that contains nuts, such as depression, guilt, anxiety, loss of
flowers, fruit, buds, seeds, and insects. confidence, and hopelessness.
D. Variety can be added to parrot food but one
needs to choose food correctly while feeding What of the following can be inferred from the
parrots. given passage?
A. Child Labour can be eradicated completely by
Q42. Direction: Read the following passage and people participation at the ground level.
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this B. Child Labour can be prevented by proper
item should be based on the passages only. funding of the NGOs working for children welfare.
You need water to replenish the lost fluid from C. Mere implementation of Child Labour Laws will
sweat. You also need enough water in your system not eliminate child labour completely.
to have a healthy stool and avoid constipation. D. Child Labour can have many bad effects on the
Your kidneys are also important for filtering Out growth and overall development of the child.
waste through urination. Adequate water intake
helps your kidneys work more efficiently and helps Q44. What will come in place of question mark (?)
to prevent kidney stones. Around 60 percent of our in the following number series?
body is made up of water and we can only live 0, 7, 26, 63, ?
three to five days Without fluids. Water plays many A. 168
important roles in the body including flushing waste B. 124
from the body, regulating body temperature, C. 126
transportation of nutrients and is necessary for D. 120
digestion.
Q45. Direction: Read the following passage and
Which of the following can be inferred from the answer the item that follows. Your answer to this
given passage? item should be based on the passages only.
A. Adequate water intake helps kidneys work more
efficiently. Lying can wear you out emotionally. They keep
B. Around 60 percent of our body is made up of you from addressing the real issue. They can take
water. a toll on your friendships. They can lead to anxiety.
C. Water is very important and hence we should You might start to feel isolated. They can affect
drink water for good health. your sleep. They can create trust issues. Lying can
D. Water is important for transportation of nutrients be cognitively depleting, it can increase the risk
and is necessary for digestion. that people will be punished, it can threaten
people's self- Worth by preventing them from
Q43. Direction: Read the following passage and seeing themselves as good people, and it can
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this generally erode trust in society. When we lie, it
item should be based on the passages only. stimulates three main sections of our brains. Lying
Education is an important aspect of a child's activates the frontal lobe for its role in the truth-
upbringing, as it allows children to develop the 5uppressing process, the limbic system due to the
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anxiety that comes with deception, and the cannot take us to our goal. We have to convert our
temporal lobe because it's responsible for knowledge into action which needs regular
retrieving memories and creating mental imagery. practice. If you are not practicing in our field, you
Which of the following can be inferred from the cannot master it. We can learn anything we want
passage? in the world with regular practice.
A. Telling lies can have a bad effect on the mental
health. Which of the following can be inferred from the
B. Telling lies can have a bad effect on social well- given passage?
being. A. There is no substitute for hard work and
C. Both A and B success.
D. Neither A nor B B. To Succeed in life in any particular field or
subject, one needs to practice
Q46. Direction: Read the following passage and C. Only continuous practice can help a person to
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this achieve the target
item should be based on the passages only. D. We can learn anything we want in the world with
regular practice
It affects the mental health and emotional health of
people. The environmental effects of it are that Q48. Direction: Read the following passage and
including surface faulting, tectonic uplift and answer the item that follows. Your answer to this
subsidence, tsunamis, soil liquefaction, ground item should be based on the passages only.
resonance, landslides and ground failure, either
directly linked to a quake source or provoked by The main modern causes of extinction are the loss
the ground shaking. Some of the common impacts and degradation of habitat (mainly deforestation),
of earthquakes include structural damage to overexploitation (hunting, overfishing), invasive
buildings, fires, damage to bridges and highways, species, climate change, and nitrogen pollution.
initiation of slope failures, liquefaction, and Extinction occurs when species are diminished
tsunami. Earthquakes are very useful to humans because of environmental forces (habitat
because they provide a picture of what's going on fragmentation, global change, natural disaster,
underground. This can make oil and gas extraction overexploitation of species for human use) or
more efficient, and allows scientists to monitor the because of evolutionary changes in their members
progress of water during geothermal energy (genetic inbreeding, poor reproduction, decline in
extraction. population number’s). Habitat loss, which is the
Which of the following have been assumed by the primary cause of species endangerment globally,
author in the given passage? impacts an animal's ability to find food and shelter.
A. Earthquakes occur at various places on the Diseases can decrease the number of animals in a
Earth. population that are able to breed. As a result the
B. Earthquakes have good effects. replacement rate for the population decreases,
C. Earthquakes have bad effects. thereby endangering the species.
D. Both (B) and (C)
Which of the following have been assumed by the
Q47. Direction: Read the following passage and author in the given passage?
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this A. Loss of habitat many times causes extinction of
item should be based on the passages only. species.
B. Evolutionary changes also leads to extinction of
There is no substitute for hard work and success. species
We must have to practice on that particular thing, C. Both (A) and (B)
in which we want to succeed. Nobody can perform D. Many species have undergone extinction.
well in his/her field if he/she does not practice
regularly. Only continuous practice can help a
person to achieve the target. Knowledge is a big
thing but if the practice is not done, knowledge
9
4th_CSAT_15th March
Q49. Direction: In a winter sale offered by a D. 66

Clothing Shop following discount plans are offered
for buyers of Jeans- Q54. Sachin shares 250 gifts in 4 children. The part
Plan 1-successive discounts of 20% and 13% of the first child is the same as twice the portion of
Plan 2-a discount of 14% followed by other the second child, thrice the part of the third child,
discount of 21% four times the part of the fourth child. How many
Plan 3- two successive discount of 20% and 25% gifts have come in the second child's part?
Plan 4- two successive discounts of 17%. A. 60
In which Plan the selling price will be the least? B. 30
A. Plan 1 C. 120
B. Plan 2 D. 140
C. Plan 3
D. Plan 4 Q55. Suraj completes 1/9 of a work in 9 days. At
this rate, how many more days he will take to
Q50. I am 2-digit number. complete the work?
l am a composite number. A. 62
I am a multiple of 13. B. 12
I am even number. C. 72
I am …… D. 52
A. 96
B. 98 Q56. If CHAIR is coded as 270817 and TEMPLE
C. 78 is coded as 1941215114, then how will PLASTIC
D. 65 be coded?
A. 15011181982
Q51. A businessman sold an article after allowing B. 15110118982
15% and 10% Successive discounts to a C. 15101181982
customer. If the businessman would have sold the D. 15110181982
article allowing 25% discount at a time, then:
A. the first type of discount is profitable to the Q57. In a group of 20 people, 12 are Engineers, 14
customer are Doctors while 5 of them are neither Engineers
B. the second type of discount is profitable to the nor Doctors. The number of people who are both
customer engineers and doctor is?
C. both types of discounts have same effect on the A. 11
customer B. 1
D. None of the above C. 3
D. 14
Q52. Rs. 94000 is divided among A, B and C such
that 20% of A's share = 25% of B's share = 15% of Q58. If 10 Jan 2008 was Tuesday, which day was
C's share. What is the share (in Rs.) of C? on 10 Jan 2009?
A. 23500 A. Wednesday
B. 29500 B. Thursday
C. 40000 C. Sunday
D. 42000 D. Monday
Q53. 5 pairs of footwears are to selected out of 4 Q59. If the 5th of the month falls 5 days after
pairs of shoes and 6 pairs of sandals. In how many Saturday, then what will be the day on the 17th of
ways this can be done if there should be at least 3 that month?
pairs of shoes? A. Wednesday
A. 44 B. Tuesday
B. 72 C. Sunday
C. 54 D. Monday
10
4th_CSAT_15th March
Q60. Three people Tara, Aman and Piu gave these Many civilizations have flourished and then failed
statements: or fallen apart. There are many reasons for this,
Tara said, either Jasmine or Ruby washed the but many historians point to three patterns in the
clothes. Aman said, Ruby washed the clothes. fall of civilizations: internal change, external
Piu said, neither Jasmine nor Ruby washed the pressure, and environmental collapse. The fall of
clothes. civilizations is never the result of a single event or
Of these people, only one person is a liar. pattern. Sometimes, civilizations seem to
Who washed the clothes? "disappear entirely. Population dynamics are the
A. Ruby most pervasive forces of internal change to
B. Jasmine civilization. A sudden population shift or a shift in
C. Data inadequate demographics may force a civilization's
D. None of these infrastructure to break down. Populations may
grow, due to migration or a period of unusual
Q61. Direction: Read the following passage and health. Populations may shrink, due to disease,
answer the item that follows. Your answer to this extreme weather, or other environmental factors.
item should be based on the passages only.
Q62. What are the three patterns in the fall of
The military method can help one avoid sleeping civilizations as pointed by historians?
late. Relax your entire face, including the muscles A. Internal change, external collapse, and
inside your mouth. Drop your shoulders to release environmental pressure.
the tension and let your hands drop to the side of B. Internal pressure, external change, and
your body. Exhale, relaxing your chest. Relax your environmental collapse.
legs, thighs, and calves. Clear your mind for 10 C. Internal collapse, external pressure, and
seconds by imagining a relaxing scene. There are environmental change.
many more habits that help one avoid late D. Internal change, external pressure, and
sleeping. Lower the temperature. Use the 4- 7-8 environmental collapse.
breathing method. Get on a schedule. Experience
both daylight and darkness. Practice yoga, Q63. What is the main context discussed by the
meditation, and mindfulness. Avoid looking at your author in the passage?
clock. Avoid naps during the day. Watch what and A The author wants to say that civilizations fall
when you eat. Studies have found that many teens gradually over a period of time.
have trouble falling asleep that early, though. It's B. The author is trying to understand the reasons
not because they don't want to sleep. It's because why civilizations fall.
their rains naturally work on later schedules and C. The author is of the view that not all civilizations
aren't ready for bed. In those cases, it's called may exist forever
delayed sleep phase syndrome, also known as D. The author has claimed the environment to be
"night owl" syndrome. the major cause of decline of civilization.
Which of the following has been assumed by the Q64. A writer sells a book draft at INR 2 lakhs to
author in the passage? the publisher at a profit of 10% and the publisher
A. Teenagers always sleep late. sells the book to the readers at a profit of 20%. If
B. Sleeping late is bad for the health. 100 readers bought the book, the price which each
C. It is the daily bad habits that make only sleep reader paid for the book is?
late. A. INR 2450
D. Both B and C B. INR 2500
C. INR 2640
Ques (62-63): Direction: Read the following D. INR 2698
passage and answer the item that follows. Your
answer to this item should be based on the
passages only.
11
4th_CSAT_15th March
Q65. Which one set of letters when sequentially

placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall
complete it?
_da_dda_ dda_
A. aadd
B. adad
C. daaa
D. ddad
Q66. A container is full of 64 litres milk, 16 litre milk

is taken out & replaced by water and this process
is further repeated 2 times more. Find the quantity
of milk in the final mixture.
A. 10 litre Q70. Which month saw the highest consumption of
B. 27 litre all items?
C. 25 litre A. Jan
D. 20 litre B. Feb
C. March
Q67. If x and y are two negative integers such D. Jan and March
that x > y, then which of the following is true?
Q71. By what percent is the consumption of
A. (1 - X) > (1 - y) Geyser more/less than the consumption of bulb in
B. (1 - x) < (1 - y) Jan?
C. None of the above A. More by 220%
D. Couldn't be determined B. More by 150%
C. Less by 200%
Q68. Consider the following alphabet sequence: D. Less by 100%
L, M, N, V, P, A, B, C, D, E, F, G, S, I, J, W, X, Y,
Z, K, Q, R, H, T, U, O Ques (72-73): Direction: For the next items,
If every alphabet is replaced by the alphabet consider the following data with regard to different
present immediately next to it in the above types (1, 2, 3, 4, 5) of multivitamin tablets produced
alphabet sequence, how will "PAINTER" be written in a company (in lakhs).
as?
A. ABJVUFH
B. ABJUVFH
C. ABVJUFH
D. ABJVFUH
Q69. A polygon has 20 diagonals. The number of

sides of the polygon is:
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
Q72. In which one of the following pairs of years,
D. 8
the difference in total number of tablets produced
between them is minimum?
Ques (70-71): Direction: The data on
A. (2003, 2005)
consumption of different electronic items (in lakhs)
B. (2001, 2005)
in three months is given below.
C. (2003, 2004)
D. (2000, 2002)
12
4th_CSAT_15th March
Q73. In which year, the production of Type 1 is D. 16

more than the sum of the production of Type 3 and
Type 4? Q78. In a code language, 'QUESTION' is written
A. 2001 as PTDRSHNM'. How will ANSWER' be written in
B. 2002 that language?
C. 2003 A. NRVDQ
D. 2004 B. YLQUCP
C. YMRVDQ
Q74. Direction: Consider the following alphabet D. ZMRVDQ
sequence:
B, P, E, F,G, X Y, L, M, A C, D, N, V, W, Q, R, H, Q79. Two walls and a ceiling of a room meet at
T, Z, K, S, I, J, U, O right angles at a point P. A fly is in the air 1 m from
If every vowel is replaced by its immediately one wall, 8 m from the other wall and 9 m from the
preceding letter in the above sequence, how will point P. How many meters is the fly from the
"TREASURE" be written as? ceiling?
A. TRFMUFJP A. 4
B. TRFMSJFS B. 6
C. TRPMSJRP C. 12
D. TRPMKJPR D. 15
Q75. Select the option that will correctly replace Q80. Which number should come in place of the
the question mark (?) in the given pattern question mark(?) in the following chart?
A. 60 A. 100
B. 55 B. 50
C. 50 C. 24
D. 45 D. 28
Q76. Identify the number that does not belong to
the given series.
2, 7, 14, 25, 38, 55, 74, 99, 126
A. 14
B. 55
C. 99
D. 38
Q77. How many different triangles are there in the

figure shown below?
A. 28
B. 24
C. 20
13

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4th_CSAT_15th March

B. FINRA is implementing data integrity C. Customer Relationship Management enhances

Q9. Direction: Read the following question and A. 90 km

A. Both conclusions follow. A. 31

C. 1609 the following is the heaviest ball?

Q49. Direction: In a winter sale offered by a D. 66

Q65. Which one set of letters when sequentially

Q66. A container is full of 64 litres milk, 16 litre milk

Q69. A polygon has 20 diagonals. The number of

Q73. In which year, the production of Type 1 is D. 16

Q77. How many different triangles are there in the

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