Goaltide Upsc Prelims Test Series 2024-Test Budget and Map

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PRELIMS TEST SERIES

2024- TEST BUDGET
AND MAP
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GOALTIDE UPSC PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2024- TEST BUDGET AND MAP
Q1. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament.
Consider the given documents with the pair of reason their presentation is mandated by:
1. The Macro Economic Framework Statement A. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management Act, 2003
2. Demands for Grants (DG) B. Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India
3. Finance Bill C. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution : a
Explanation: 2 and 3 are incorrectly matched.
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1.The Macro-economic Framework Statement is presented to Parliament under Section 3 of

the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 and the rules made thereunder. It contains
an assessment of the growth prospects of the economy along with the statement of specific underlying
assumptions. It also contains an assessment regarding the GDP growth rate, the domestic economy and
the stability of the external sector of the economy, fiscal balance of the Central Government and the
external sector balance of the economy.
2.Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that the estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated
Fund of India included in the Annual Financial Statement and required to be voted by the Lok Sabha, be
submitted in the form of Demands for Grants. The Demands for Grants are presented to the Lok Sabha
along with the Annual Financial Statement.
3.At the time of presentation of the Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament, a
Finance Bill is also presented in fulfillment of the requirement of Article 110 (1)(a) of the Constitution,
detailing the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of taxes proposed in the Budget.
Q2. As one of the biggest headlines in government economic policy, the budgeted capital expenditure
classified by the government as capex is projected to increase by 11.1% to about ₹11 trillion in 2024-
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue
expenditure.
2. Over the last three budgets, India has seen a rising trend in the capital expenditure (capex)
budget with a sharp increase by around 30% each year.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither of them
Solution: b
Explanation: First statement is incorrect.
Debt financing occurs when a firm raises money for working capital or capital expenditures by selling
debt instruments to individuals and/or institutional investors. In return for lending the money, the
individuals or institutions become creditors and receive a promise that the principal and interest on the
debt will be repaid. The other way to raise capital in debt markets is to issue shares of stock in a public
offering; this is called equity financing. Both debt financing and equity financing are considered as
capital expenditures.
Second statement is correct. It seems a difficult one but it's not if you are well aware of the recent
economic policy of govt. Specific number like 30% is given just to confuse you. Just remember, capex is
crucial for India’s growth dreams to become the third largest economy in the world. This is in line with
the Government's focus and commitment to Four I's - Infrastructure, Investment, Innovation and
Inclusion in the next 25 years.

Q3. India's Union Budget for 1973–74, presented by which of the following Finance minister , is widely
known as the Black Budget.
a. Indira Gandhi

b. Haribhai M. Patel
c. Yashwantrao B Chavan
d. Subramanian
Solution: c
Explanation: The ‘black budget’ of 1973-74 was presented by India’s then Finance Minister Yashwantrao
B Chavan, under the leadership of India’s third PM Indira Gandhi.
It is because the country had a fiscal deficit of Rs 550 crore that year, meaning the government's
revenue was estimated to be Rs 550 crore short of its expenditure. It was a time when India was going
through acute financial distress.
Q4. Govt pegs fiscal deficit target at 5.1% of GDP for FY25.
How many of the following are the positive aspects of Fiscal Deficit?
1. Financing of long-term investments
2. Crowding out effect
3. Bond Yield increased
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: a
Explanation:

1.Fiscal deficit enables the government to increase spending on public services, infrastructure, and other
important areas that can stimulate economic growth. Hence it’s a positive aspect.
2.The crowding out effect is an economic theory that argues that rising public sector spending drives
down or even eliminates private sector spending. Hence, not a positive aspect.
3.The rising bond yield means the government will have to pay more as yield (or return to the investors),
leading to a rise in cost of borrowings. When Government keeps borrowing and borrowing to fill up the
fiscal deficit pothole, then bond yield will increase which is not good because more and more of
taxpayers’ money (i.e. Government ‘s incoming money) will go in repaying that bond interest rate rather
than going into education or healthcare. Hence not a positive aspect.
Q5. Arrange the following sectors in terms of their budget allocation in increasing order:
1. Rural development
2. Health
3. Social welfare
4. Defence
Select the correct order.
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 3-2-1-4
c. 4-3-2-1
d. 2-3-1-4
Solution: b
Explanation:
• Transport and Defence sectors featured second and third on the list in terms of absolute
allocations. But contributions to those sectors declined when expressed as a share of the total
Budget.
• The government increased the rural development ministry's budget to Rs 2.66 lakh crore for
2024-25.
• The Interim Budget 2024–25, with an allocation of ₹ 90,171 crore for health, aims to improve
access to healthcare services and infrastructure in India and ₹56,501 crore has been set aside
for social welfare programmes.

Q6. Which of the following sector recorded the biggest drop in terms of budget allocation in comparison
to the last year?

a. Health
b. Fertilizer subsidy
c. Rural development
d. Education
Solution: b
Explanation:
The Budget allocated to the fertiliser subsidy recorded the biggest drop. It formed 3.44% of the total
Budget in FY25, a 0.77 percentage points drop from the 4.21% of the total Budget in FY24.
Fertiliser subsidies cut amid hope that the improving situation in Ukraine and increased domestic
production will help in managing the situation. Also, will give push for bio- and organic fertilisers and the
increased use of nano-urea.
Rural development, IT and Telecom, Health, Energy, Education, Social Welfare, Scientific departments,
Health, Urban Development and Planning and Statistics are sectors which recorded marginal increases
as a share of the total Budget.
Q7. Arrange the following avenues from where the budget money comes from in terms of their
decreasing order:
1. Borrowings
2. Income tax
3. GST
4. Corporation tax
Select the correct order.
a. 4-2-3-1
b. 3-2-1-4
c. 1-2-3-4
d. 2-3-1-4
Solution: c
Explanation: Borrowings and other liabilities form the largest chunk of where money flows in from for
this Budget, at 28%. At the second spot is income tax at 19%, followed by inflow from GST and other
taxes at 18%. Corporation tax also makes up a significant chunk at 17%. Non-tax revenue, union excise
duties, customs and non-debt capital receipts is where the government gets the rest of its budget
money from.

Q8. With reference to central government spending in India according to the interim budget, 2024.
Consider the following statements:
1. The government spends equal amounts in interest payments and paying out the States’ share of taxes
and duties.
2. The expenditure on Central Sector Schemes is less than the centrally-sponsored schemes.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither of them
Solution: b
Explanation:

The government spends equal amounts in interest payments and paying out the States’ share of taxes
and duties— 20%. Next on the list is central sector schemes, which snag 16% of the pie. Finance
Commission and other transfers, the defence sector and centrally-sponsored schemes get about 8%
each of the government’s money. Other miscellaneous expenditures take up 9%, while subsidies get 6%.
Pensions round out the spend, claiming 4% of the government’s money.
Q9. With respect to state-wise allocation of net proceeds of central taxes and duties in the Interim
Budget of 2024, Arrange the following states in terms of increasing order of their allocations:
1. Assam
2. Haryana
3. Bihar
Select the correct code.
a. 1-2-3
b. 2-1-3
c. 3-2-1
d. 3-1-2
Solution: b
Explanation:



Q10. Consider the following statements related to budgetary allocation for MeitY in the Budget for
2024-2025.
1. Allocation towards the Digital India Program reduced in the 2024-2025 BE.
2. There is the total exclusion of ‘Promotion of Digital Payments’ from MeitY’s budget.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither of them
Solution: c
Explanation: The decrease can mainly be attributed to reduction or removal of allocation towards digital
payments, PLI for Large Scale Electronics and IT Hardware, and the PMG-DISHA scheme.
Last year, we noted that the allocation to the domain of Promotion of Digital payments plummeted to
₹ 1500 crores as compared to ₹2137 Cr allocated to it in the 2022-2023 RE, reflecting a decline of 29.8%.
Now, it is down to 0. Presumably, this was done because digital payments have already been well
adopted by society and assimilated into our daily lives adequately, and no further promotion or
incentivisation for them seems necessary.

Q11. Rearrange the following Ministries from the highest to the lowest in terms of their budgetary
allocation with respect to the Interim Budget of 2024.
1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare
2. Ministry of Railways
3. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
4. Ministry of defence
a. 4-3-2-1
b. 2-1-3-4
c. 2-3-4-1
d. 3-2-4-1
Solution: a
Explanation: In terms of allocations, the Ministry of Defence received the highest amount at ₹6.2 lakh
crore followed by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways at ₹2.78 lakh crore. On the other hand,
the Agriculture Ministry got the lowest amount at ₹1.27 lakh crore.

Q12. Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are further divided into Core of the Core Schemes and Core
Schemes. How many of the following scheme/schemes is/are Core of the Core Schemes?
1. National Health Mission
2. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Program
3. National Social Assistance Progam
4. National Livelihood Mission – Ajeevika

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: b
Explanation:

The flagship schemes of the central government are called Core of Core schemes or umbrella schemes.
Those schemes which are for social protection and social inclusion should form the core of core and be
the first charge on available funds for the National Development Agenda.
Examples: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (MGNREGA), National
Social Assistance Programme etc. (2 and 3)
Core schemes: the schemes that comprise the National Development Agenda where the Centre and
States will work together in the spirit of Team India.
The funding pattern is usually 60:40. The central government takes up more share in these schemes and
the states are expected to pitch in the remaining funds.
Although, in cases of difficulty where states like North Eastern states, Jammu & Kashmir, and some
special category states need extra attention, a 90:10 ratio of funding can be seen usually.
Examples: National Health Mission, National Livelihood Mission - Ajeevika etc. (1 and 4)
Q13. Consider the following statements about Revised estimates of the budget:
1. It is the amount of money allocated in the Budget to any ministry or scheme for the coming
financial year.
2. There is a separate voting session held for the revised estimates in the parliament.
3. Any additional projections made in the Revised Estimates need to be authorized for expenditure
through the Parliament's approval/ Re-appropriation order.
How many of statements given above is/are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: a
Explanation: First statement is incorrect as it is the definition of Budget estimates not Revised
estimates. Revised Estimates are mid-year review of possible expenditure, taking into account the
trend of expenditure, New Services and New Instrument of Services etc.
Second statement is incorrect. The government does not require Parliament’s vote for Revised
Estimates.
Third statement is correct.
Q14. Consider the following pairs of the documents under provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management Act, 2003 and their purposes/aspects:
A. Macro-economic framework explains how the current policies are in
conformity with sound fiscal management
principles and gives the rationale for any major
deviation in key fiscal measures.

B. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement contains an assessment of the growth prospects

of the economy
C. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement sets out three-year rolling targets for four
specific fiscal indicators in relation to GDP at
market prices
D. Medium Term Expenditure Framework presented in the session after the one in which
Statement the Budget is presented — usually, that is the
monsoon session.

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Solution: b
Explanation: (FRBM) became an Act in 2003. The objective of the Act is to ensure inter-generational
equity in fiscal management, long run macroeconomic stability, better coordination between fiscal and
monetary policy, and transparency in fiscal operation of the Government.
Statements C and D are correctly matched.

Q15. Railways has been allocated ₹2.55 lakh crore for the financial year 2024-25, up by 5.8% from last
year's allocation. Now consider the following statements:
1. Railways is the principal departmentally-run commercial undertaking of Government.
2. As per the Interim Budget 2024, Centre will implement five major economic railway corridor
programmes.
3. The Railway Budget was separated from the General Budget in 1924, after the recommendations of
the Acworth Committee in 1920-21.
How many of the given statement/s is/are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: b
Explanation: Second statement is incorrect.
Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, in her Budget speech, said that the Centre will implement
three major economic railway corridor programmes — energy, mineral and cement corridor, also being
referred to as Energy Economic Corridor; Port connectivity corridor a.k.a Rail Sagar; and High traffic
density corridors a.k.a Amrit Chaturbhuj.
Q16. "Sarvangeen, Sarvsparshi aur Sarva-samaveshi" used in the Interim Budget 2024-25 speech to
describe:
a. transformation in the last ten years
b. Govt's approach to development
c. encouragement to private sector to scale up research
d. challenges arising from population growth and demographic changes
Solution: b

Explanation: This literally translates to "all-round, all-pervasive and all-inclusive". FM, in her budget
speech, said that the government is working with an approach to development that is all-round, all-
pervasive and all-inclusive.
Q17.The Finance minister in her budget speech for 2024-25 unveiled a new acronym for GDP. Select the
correct option.
a. Government- Development- Progress
b. Governance- Digitalisation- Progress
c. Governance- Development - Performance
d. Governance- Digitalisation- Performance
Solution: c
Explanation: While acknowledging the government's track record in terms of Gross Domestic Product
(GDP), FM expanded the conventional understanding, GDP now encompasses 'Governance,
Development, and Performance,' emphasizing a more comprehensive approach to measure the
nation's progress.

Q18.GYAN, which stands for knowledge in Hindi, was the first acronym mentioned in the Finance
Minister’s address. It represents
a. Gareeb -Youth - Annadata - Nari
b. Green energy - Youth - Army - Nation
c. Gyan - Yoga - Annadata - Nari
d. Gareeb- Yojana - Annadata - Nyay
Solution: a
Explanation: It represents Gareeb (Poor), Youth, Annadata (Farmer), and Nari (Woman).
The government aims to empower the most economically struggling people and address youth
problems by leveraging India’s strength through its policies and security initiatives. The government’s
top priorities are going to be to increase farmer incomes, maintain food security, and support and uplift
India’s women.
Q19.Development programmes, in the last ten years, have targeted each and every household and
individual, through how many of the following schemes:
1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)
2. Har Ghar Jal scheme
3. Saubhagya scheme
4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana scheme

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Solution: d
Explanation:FM in her budget speech said, " Our humane and inclusive approach to development is a
marked and deliberate departure from the earlier approach of ‘provisioning up-to-village level’.
Development programmes,in the last ten years, have targeted each and every household and individual,
through ‘housing for all’, ‘har ghar jal’, electricity for all, cooking gas for all, bank accounts and financial
services for all, in record time."

Q20. According to Interim Budget 2024, consider the following statements :

1. The FDI inflow during 2014-23 was USD 596 billion marking a golden era.
2. The FDI inflow during 2014-23, is twice the inflow during 2005-14.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Explanation: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman pointed out the following given above in her Budget
speech for 2024-25.

Q21. According to Interim Budget 2024, consider the following statements regarding the development
approach of India:
1. Government is working with an approach to development that is all-round, all pervasive and
all-inclusive.
2. Government is working to make India a ‘Viksit Bharat’ by 2050.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
Explanation: Our Government is working with an approach to development that is all-round, all
pervasive and all-inclusive. It covers all castes and people at all levels. We are working to make India a
‘Viksit Bharat’ by 2047. For achieve that goal, we need to improve people’s capability and empower
them.
Q22.According to Interim Budget 2024, consider the following statements:

1. PM Awas Yojana (Urban) is close to achieving the target of 3 crore houses.
2. Through rooftop solarization, one crore households will be enabled to obtain up to 500 units
free electricity every month.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
Explanation: Making a slew of announcements, Smt Nirmala Sitharaman said, the Government will pay
utmost attention to make the eastern region and its people a powerful driver of India’s growth, PM
Awas Yojana (Grameen) is close to achieving the target of three crore houses and two crore more
houses will be taken up in the next five years to meet the requirement arising from increase in the
number of families.

Similarly, through rooftop solarization, one crore households will be enabled to obtain up to 300 units
free electricity every month.
Q23.The recent presentation of the Interim Budget included a significant emphasis on advancing Blue
Economy 2.0. Consider the following statements:
1. It is aimed at promoting climate-resilient activities and sustainable development in coastal
areas.
2. Blue Economy is one of the dimensions of Government of India’s Vision of New India by 2030.
3. This is reflected in the SDG 6 (clean water and sanitation) which calls to conserve and
sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources for sustainable development.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: b
Explanation: "For promoting climate resilient activities for Blue Economy 2.0, a scheme for restoration
and adaptation measures, and coastal aquaculture and mariculture with integrated and multi-sectoral
approach will be launched," Sitharaman said in her Interim Budget speech.

READ BELOW THE INDIA’S VISION OF THE BLUE ECONOMY:

It ascertains the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), especially SDG14 ‘Life Below
Water' which calls to conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources for
sustainable development.

Q24. The Finance Minister in the Interim Budget 2024-25 has announced the expansion of the
application of Nano DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate) as a Fertilizer on various crops in all agro-climatic
zones. Consider the following statements related to Nano DAP:
1. Unlike conventional DAP, which comes in granular form, IFFCO’s Nano DAP is in liquid form.
2. World’s first Nano DAP plant has been set up in Kalol, Gandhinagar.
3. It's tiny particles, size less than 10 Nanometre (nm), makes Nano DAP more efficient than its
conventional counterpart.
4. It contains 16% Nitrogen and 8% Phosphorus by volume.
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Solution: b
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q25. In a big push for the Rooftop solar segment, the Interim budget announced an outlay of ₹10,000
crore under the Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana. Consider the following statements:
1. Total rooftop solar installed capacity is more than 20 GW as of December 2023.
2. In terms of rooftop solar capacity, Gujarat tops the list followed by Karnataka.
3. In terms of total solar capacity, Rajasthan is at the top with and Gujarat is at the second
position.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: a
Explanation: 'Pradhan Mantri Suryodaya Yojana’, a government scheme under which one crore
households will get rooftop solar power systems.
The ‘Pradhanmantri Suryodaya Yojana’ adds on to an ongoing rooftop solarisation programme running
for at least a decade now. About 40 per cent, or 40 gigawatt (GW), of the government’s initial target of
setting up 100 GW of solar capacity by 2022 was meant to be through rooftop systems. However, by
2023 end, the country’s total solar capacity stood at 73.3 GW, of which grid-connected rooftop
systems comprised only about 11 GW, or 15 per cent.

Only statement 3 is correct.
[Source: MNRE]
Q26.Consider the following statements with respect to Green energy push in the Interim Budget, 2024.
1. Viability gap funding will be provided for harnessing offshore wind energy capacity of 1 GW for
achieving 'net-zero emissions' by 2047.
2. Mandatory blending of compressed biogas in CNG for transport vehicles, and in PNG for
domestic consumption.
3. Setting up of 100 million tonnes of coal gasification and liquefaction capacity by 2030.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Solution: b
Explanation: Moving ahead finally to harness the untapped potential of off-shore wind energy, Finance
Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Thursday announced viability gap funding for setting up at least one
gigawatt of wind energy capacity for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
Off-shore wind refers to wind turbines located in the middle of the sea, rather than at the coastline.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q27. As per the Interim Budget 2024, the government will provide financial assistance "for procurement
of biomass aggregation machinery to support collection." The government has allocated Rs 150 crore for
the biomass collection scheme. Consider the following statements regarding 'Biomass aggregation':
1. It the thermochemical conversion of organic materials in closed, pressurized vessels at high
temperatures.
2. Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs
(herbiviores and decomposers).
3. The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
a. Only one

b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: b
Explanation: First statement is wrong.
UPSC sometimes confuse aspirants by making simple words sound complex. If you will be anxious while
attempting the question, you might mark the first Statement as right.
It is the definition of Biomass gasification instead.
Biomass aggregation refers to the process of gathering and collecting organic matter derived from living
or recently living organisms. It involves the accumulation of plant residues, animal waste, or dedicated
energy crops for various purposes, such as energy production, biofuels, or composting.
Second and third statements are directly taken from NCERT.

Net primary productivity, or NPP, is gross primary productivity minus the rate of energy loss to
metabolism and maintenance. In other words, it's the rate at which energy is stored as biomass by
plants or other primary producers and made available to the consumers in the ecosystem.

The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of
phytoplankton.

Q28. With respect to the Budget 2024, FM announced the expansion of key rail infrastructure projects
such as Metro Rail and Namo Bharat to additional cities. Consider the following statements:
1. The Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) trains will be known as 'Namo Bharat'.
2. The RRTS is a new rail-based, semi-high-speed, high-frequency commuter transit system with a
design speed of 180 kmph.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Explanation: We can see the emphasis on modern infrastructure, including metro rail network and
NaMo Bharat, as a significant catalyst for urban and industrial transformation.

Q29.The allocation to the Ministry of Civil Aviation's flagship regional connectivity scheme called UDAN
has decreased by around 60% to Rs. 502.00 crore in the interim budget estimates for 2024-25. Consider
the following statements:
1. UDAN scheme is a part of the National Civil Aviation Policy 2016.
2. The partner State Governments (other than UTs and NER states) contribute a 30% share to the
Regional Connectivity Fund.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
Explanation:
Regional Connectivity Scheme (RCS)-UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) was conceived by the Ministry of
Civil Aviation (MoCA) to promote regional air connectivity by making flying affordable for the common
citizen.
UDAN is first-of-its-kind scheme globally, designed to jump-start the regional aviation market. The first
UDAN flight was launched by Hon’ble Prime Minister on 27th April, 2017 between Shimla to Delhi.
• The Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA), Government of India released the National Civil
Aviation Policy 2016 (NCAP 2016). One of the objectives of NCAP 2016 is to “enhance
regional connectivity through fiscal support and infrastructure development”.
• A Regional Connectivity Fund (RCF) has been created under powers conferred under Rule
88-B of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 to provide the VGF requirements under the scheme.

Second statement is incorrect:

Q30.In interim budget speech for 2024, FM underscored the pivotal role of (FDI), 'redefined' it as 'First
Develop India' which includes negotiating Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) with its trade partners.
With which of the following countries India have signed the BIT subsequent to adoption of Model BIT,
2015.
1. Kyrgyzstan
2. UK
3. Israel
4. Brazil
5. UAE
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2,3 and 5
c. 1,4 and 5
d. 1,2 and 4
Solution: c
Explanation: While presenting the interim Union budget, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman stated
that India will be negotiating Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) with its trade partners to boost the
inflow of foreign direct investment.


• BITs are agreements between two countries for the reciprocal promotion and protection of
investments in each other’s territories by individuals and companies.
• The first BIT signed by India was with the UK on March 14, 1994.
• In 2015, India drafted a new model BIT to replace the existing model Bilateral Investment
Promotion Agreement (2003).


Q31. Union Finance Minister on February 1 announced the government’s plans to focus on vaccination
against Cervical cancer for girls aged 9 to 14 as part of her Interim Budget 2024. Consider the following
statements:
1. Cervical cancer is the second most common cancer in women globally after the breast cancer.
2. Women living with HIV are 6 times more likely to develop cervical cancer compared to the
general population.
3. LEETZ is one of the treatment of precancers and prevents cervical cancer.
How many of the statements given above are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given
below.
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: b
Explanation: The government is planning to include the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine in the
country's immunisation program, potentially making vaccines to prevent cervical cancer more
affordable. Finance Minister stated that the government aims to encourage vaccination for girls aged 9
to 14 to prevent cervical cancer. Currently, the HPV vaccine is available in private hospitals.


Statement 1 is incorrect.

Q32.The Union Finance Minister announced the expeditious rollout of the newly designed U-WIN
platform in her budget speech. It is related to:
a. Covid-19 vaccine management system
b. Private universities' accreditation
c. Monitoring the implementation of water related schemes
d. Vaccination and immunisation programmes
Solution: d
Explanation: India's U-WIN portal, similar to the Covid-19 vaccine management system Co-WIN, is set to
be launched in October. It will document all vaccination and immunisation programmes in the country,
including registration, follow-ups, and vaccination certificates. The platform will also be used to register
and vaccinate pregnant women and record vaccination details of children.

Q33.In Budget 2024, FM launches new schemes for biomanufacturing and biofoundry to promote
green growth. How many of the following statements given below is/are correct?
1. Biomanufacturing is the use of biological systems that have been engineered or used outside their
natural context to produce a product.
2. Biopolymers are a subset of Bioplastics.
3. Polyhydroxybutyrate (PHB), a bioplastic is used for making bank notes in India.
4. Biofoundry provides automation and analytics infrastructure to support the engineering of biological
systems.
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Solution: b
Explanation:

Bio manufacturing is the process of using living cells and organisms to produce products such as
medicines, vaccines, and biofuels. It involves the use of biotechnology and genetic engineeing to
manipulate living organisms to produce desired products. Statement 1 is correct.
Bioplastics are a subset of biopolymers, meaning all bioplastics are biopolymers but not all biopolymers
are bioplastics. Biopolymers are the broad class of materials that include bioplastics, but that also
includes natural polymers such as silk, chitosan and wool. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Biopolymers are polymers which are found in living organisms, such as the cellulose in wood, silk from
silkworms, or collagen in mammals. Synthetic biopolymers can also be created to reproduce those found
naturally. Neither natural nor synthetic biopolymers are produced from petroleum products.
The paper currently being used for printing of banknotes in India is made by using 100% cotton.
Biofoundry is a facility that provides infrastructure, technology, and capacity for biomanufacturing. It
allows researchers to experiment with cells, adjusting their genetic codes and molecular machinery until
they can predictably engineer a cellular system. Biofoundries aim to automate biology and enable a
predictable and reliable way to design biologically related products. The National Science Foundation
has launched a BioFoundries program to accelerate advances in the biological sciences. Statement 4 is
correct.
Q34.The Interim budget 2024-25 presented by Union Minister for Finance has said a strategy will be
formulated to achieve 'atmanirbharta' for oil seeds. How many of the following will be included in it?
1. mustard
2. groundnut

3. soyabean
4. sunflower
5. sesame
a. Only two
b. Only three
c. Only four
d. All five
Solution: d
Explanation: During her speech, FM said “Building on the initiative announced in 2022, a strategy will be
formulated to achieve ‘atmanirbharta’ for oil seeds such as mustard, groundnut, sesame, soybean, and
sunflower. This will cover research for high-yielding varieties, widespread adoption of modern farming
techniques, market linkages, procurement, value addition, and crop insurance”.
However, for the Oil Year (November- October) 2022-23 India had imported 167.1 lakh tonnes of edible
oil which was 16 per cent higher than the previous year.
Q35. In the Interim Budget 2024-25, the FM announced that the implementation of the PMMSY will be
stepped up to enhance aquaculture productivity. Consider the following statements related to PM
Matsya Sampada Yojana:
1. PMMSY is a wholly centrally sponsored scheme.
2. Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is implementing PMMSY to bring about Blue Revolution
through sustainable and responsible development of fisheries sector.

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
Explanation: The PMMSY is an umbrella scheme that is classified into two separate segments— Central
Sector Scheme (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS). The programme primarily aims to harness
the potential of the fisheries sector. It also targets enhancing fish production and productivity through
the expansion, intensification, and diversification in the sector.

The Department of Fisheries under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is the
nodal agency for the implementation of the scheme.
Q36. "DBTs through PM JANDHAN scheme totalling Rs 34 lakh crore resulted in savings of Rs 2.7 lakh
crore to govt": Finance Minister in Budget Speech. Now, consider the following statements related to
PM JANDHAN.
1. More than 55.5% bank accounts of JANDHAN have been opened by women.
2. It is managed by Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance.
3. It has completed 10 years of its implementation in 2023.
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Solution: b
Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) has successfully completed nine years of
implementation. It was launched on August 28, 2014 and stands as one of the largest financial inclusion
initiatives globally.
Q37. In the Interim Budget 2024, FM talked about the PM JANMAN scheme. This scheme targets:
a. Pregnant women with weak socio-economic status
b. Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
c. Street Vendors
d. Safai Karamcharis, Scavengers and their dependants
Solution: b
Explanation:

The Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM JANMAN) is an initiative approved by the
Union Cabinet specifically designed to cater to the critical requirements of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups (PVTGs), focusing on their welfare and empowerment.

Q38. While presenting Interim Budget 2024, Finance Minister mentioned about a loan scheme called
PM-SVANidhi Scheme. Consider the following statements:
1. PM SVANidhi Scheme was launched by the Ministry of Finance.
2. The scheme is applicable to all the Indian states.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme was launched by the
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs on June 01, 2020.
It is a micro-credit facility that provides street vendors with a collateral-free loan of Rs 10,000 with low
rates of interest (below 12%) for a period of one year, aiding the vendors in getting back on their feet
financially.
The duration of the scheme initially was until March 2022. It has been extended till December 2024,
with a focus on enhanced collateral-free affordable loan corpus, increased adoption of digital
transactions and holistic socio-economic development of the Street Vendors and their families.
The Scheme is available for beneficiaries belonging to only those States/UTs which have notified Rules
and Scheme under Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act,
2014.

Q39.FM has earmarked ₹ 60,000 crore in the Budget 2024-25 for the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman
Nidhi (PM-KISAN) Yojana. Consider the following statements related to PM KISAN:
1. Government of India has also developed ‘Kisan e-Mitra’ (a voice-based AI Chatbot), which
enables farmers to raise queries and get them resolved in their own language in real-time
2. The Kisan-eMitra (PM KISAN Portal) is available in all the official languages.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
Explanation: Considering the need for positive supplementary income support for the farmer families in
the country and to promote a productive, competitive, diversified, inclusive and sustainable agriculture
sector, the Government of India launched an ambitious scheme for farmers’ welfare - the Pradhan
Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) on 2nd February 2019.
Under the scheme, the eligible farmer families are provided a benefit of Rs. 6000/- per year in three
equal instalments of Rs. 2000/- each, every four months.
The benefit is transferred directly to the bank accounts of eligible beneficiaries through Direct Benefit
Transfer mode, using modern digital technology.

Q40. In the highest-ever allocation for the Department of School Education and Literacy, the
government has allotted more than Rs 73,000 crore for school education in the interim Budget for 2024.
Consider the following statements related to schemes for schools:
1. PM SHRI is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to strengthen select existing schools to
provide high-quality education in an equitable, inclusive and joyful school environment.
2. NISHTHA Scheme is the largest capacity-building teacher training programme.
3. SHRESHTA scheme is launched for the purpose of providing seats for the meritorious SC boys
and girls in the best private residential schools in the country.
How many of the following statement/s is/are correct?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: c
Explanation:


Q41. Union Finance Minister in her budget speech said the government plans to raise the target for
Lakhpati Didi schemes from 2 crore to 3 crore. Consider the following statements related to the
scheme:
1. A Lakhpati Didi is a Self-Help Group member who earns an annual household income of Rupees
One Lakh or more.
2. The Lakhpati Didi program is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Explanation:


Q42. With reference to the Interim Budget, 2024, consider the following statements:
1. India’s female labour force participation rate rose from 23.3% in 2017-18 to more than 40% in
2022-23.
2. Female enrollment in Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) courses in has
crossed 50% mark.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
Explanation: FM Nirmala Sitharaman emphasises on the need for women empowerment, with a focus
on increased female labour force participation.

There has been a rise in female labour force participation rate from 23.3 percent in 2017-18 to 37
percent in 2022-23, as per the government.
She highlighted that 43% female enrolment in STEM courses is one of the highest in the world. Also,
Female enrollment in higher education has gone up by twenty-eight per cent in ten years.

Q43. Interim Budget 2024 provides thrust for PM Vishwakarma Scheme, cluster projects for MSMEs and
others. What is the primary objective of the PM Vishwakarma scheme?
a. to uplift traditional artisans and craftspeople
b. socio-economic upliftment of the Safai Karamcharis
c. capacity building for future generations of the civil servants
d. skills Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement
Solution: a
Explanation:The Prime Minister Vishwakarma Skill Honor (PM VIKAS), commonly referred to as PM
Vishwakarma is a program initiated by the Indian government aimed at empowering artisans and
craftspeople nationwide.

The scheme is named after Vishwakarma, the Hindu god of craftsmen and artisans.
Initiated on September 17, 2023, by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), this
program is designed to benefit artisans and craftspeople involved in 18 designated trades, such as
blacksmiths, potters, carpenters, weavers, and more.
Q44.According to Interim Budget 2024, Consider the following statements regarding the tech savvy
youth:
1. A corpus of rupees one lakh crore will be established with a fifty-year interest free loan.
2. The corpus will provide long-term financing or refinancing with long tenors and low or nil
interest rates.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Explanation: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Thursday said that for tech-savvy youth, this will
be a golden era. She said a corpus of Rs 1 lakh crore will be established and an interest-free loan will be
provided for 50 years.

Q45. According to Interim Budget 2024, consider the following statements regarding eNAM:
1. It has integrated more than 1000 mandis.
2. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) is the lead agency for implementing eNAM under
the aegis of Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Explanation: The pan-India electronic National Agricultural Market (e-NAM) is a trading portal. It
integrates the existing State-run Agricultural Produce Marketing Committees (APMCs) mandis. The
interim budget plans to integrate 1,361 mandis and increase trading volumes to Rs 3 lakh crore in 2024-
2025, serving 1.8 crore farmers.

Q46. Scientists have recently unearth mysteries of giant, moving "Lala Lallia". Which of the following
option correctly describes its location?
a. Sahara Desert

b. Mariana Trench
c. The Himalayas
d. Antarctic Peninsula
Solution: a
Explanation: Lala Lallia, meaning "highest sacred point”, is situated within the Sahara Desert in a small
sand sea called Erg Chebbi, Morocco.
Scientists unveiled the first in-depth study of a star dune, One of the wonders of the deserts, the vaguely
pyramid-shaped sand formations with star-like appearance when viewed from above.
They also have been spotted on Mars and on Saturn's large moon Titan.
Earth's largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in western China.
Q47. The commissioning of INS Jatayu, an upgraded naval base on the Minicoy island in the
Lakshadweep, marks a significant development in India’s maritime security. Consider the following
statements:
1. It will be the first ever Indian naval base in Lakshadweep.
2. 2.Minicoy Island sits at the intersection of crucial Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs) like the
Nine Degree Channel and the Ten Degree Channel.
3. Amindivi Islands are the northernmost, while the Minicoy Islands are the southernmost part of
Lakshadweep.
How many of the following statements given above are correct?
a. Only one

b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: a
Explanation: Only 3 is correct.
INS Jatayu will effectively be the country’s second naval base in Lakshadweep. The Navy’s first base on
the islands, INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti, was commissioned in 2012.
Eight Degree Channel separates Indian Minicoy island from Maldives and the Nine Degree Channel
separates the island of Minicoy from the Lakshadweep archipelago.
Q48. Which of the following country that borders the North Sea becomes first in EU to recognise ecocide
as international crime?
a. Norway
b. Denmark

c. Belgium
d. UK
Solution: c
Explanation: Belgium became the first European country to officially recognize ecocide as a crime at
national and international level.
In 1970, biologist Arthur Galston was the first to draw a connection between environmental devastation
and genocide (which is recognised as an international crime).
He made this link when addressing the U.S. military's utilization of Agent Orange, an herbicide, during
the Vietnam War.
In 2021, a panel of criminal and environmental lawyers from around the world created a legal definition
for "ecocide" as the basis of a push to criminalize mass damage and destruction of ecosystems.
Other countries bordering the North sea are:
Q49. How many of the following pairs of joint development projects recently in news are correctly
matched with the neighbouring country involved?
1. Pancheshwar : Bhutan
2. Kaladan : Nepal

3. Gelephu : Myanmar
Select the correct code:
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: d
Explanation: Pancheshwar Multipurpose Project (PMP) is a bi-national Multi Purpose Project, proposed
on river Mahakali (known as river Sarada in India), primarily aimed at energy production and
augmenting irrigation in India and Nepal.
Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Project was jointly identified by India and Myanmar to create a multi-
modal mode of transport for the shipment of cargo.
Gelephu Smart City Project of Bhutan is expected to be an “economic corridor connecting South Asia
with Southeast Asia via India’s northeastern States”. Gelephu is one of three entry points to Bhutan
from India, the others being Samdrup Jongkhar to its east and Phuntsholing to its west.

Q50. In a shocking event, NASA has revealed that Badwater Basin in Death Valley has defied its arid
reputation by hosting an ephemeral lake for an extended period. Desert valley is a desert valley located
in which of the following deserts?
a. Chihuahuan Desert
b. Mojave Desert
c. Atacama desert
d. Sahara desert
Solution : b
Explanation: North America’s driest region, Badwater Basin, nestled within Death Valley has experienced
a significant increase in precipitation since August 2023, leading to the unexpected formation of Manly
Lake (formed after Hurricane Hilary).

Death Valley is well-known as one of the hottest places on Earth and the driest place in North America
and is essentially a dry salt flat. It is a desert valley in Eastern California, in the northern Mojave Desert,
bordering the Great Basin Desert.
Badwater Basin is the lowest elevation point in North America, lying 282 feet (86 meters) below sea
level.

Q51. Kiru hydroelectric power project is a run-of-the-river scheme being developed over which of the
following river in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K), India.
a. Nubra
b. Chenab
c. Shyok
d. Jhelum
Solution: b
Explanation: Kiru hydroelectric power project is a run-of-the-river scheme being developed over the
Chenab River in the Kishtwar Tehsil of Doha district in Jammu and Kashmir (J&K), India.

It is being constructed between the existing Kirthai II (upstream) and Kwar (downstream) hydel power
projects.
Two options can be easily eliminated as:
The Shyok River is a tributary of the Indus River that flows through northern Ladakh.
The Nubra River is a river in the Nubra Valley of Ladakh in India. It is a tributary of the Shyok River.
Q52. Recent rare sighting of a bull shark attacking a fisherman in Maharashtra’s Vaitarna River marked
the first occurrence of such an event. Consider the following statements about Vaitrana river:
1. It lies in the north of Tapi river.
2. It flows through the south of Tansa wildlife sanctuary.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
a. 1 only

b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
Explanation: The Vaitarna River is a river in Nashik and Palghar district of Maharashtra. The Tansa is its
left bank tributary and the Pinjal, Dehraja, and Surya are its right bank tributaries.

Q53. The European Union (EU) has officially launched a new naval mission called Operation Aspides to
protect which of the following regions?
a. Mediterranean Sea
b. Black Sea
c. Red Sea
d. North Sea
Solution: c
Explanation: Mission Aspides is a European Union (EU) naval mission to protect cargo ships in the Red
Sea from attacks from Yemen’s Houthi rebels. Aspides, means “shield” in Greek.

Also, look carefully the map of other options attached below:
Q54. The Israel-Hamas war has opened a new front in the Red Sea, which will impact Asian economies.
With respect to this, consider the following countries.
1. Eritrea
2. Yemen
3. Jordan
4. Djibouti
5. Somalia
6. Sudan
How many of the above countries share boundary with the Red Sea?
a. Only three

b. Only four
c. Only five
d. All six
Solution: b
There are six countries (Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti) bordering the Red Sea.
Q55. The govt has undertake a mission to reclaim the ‘chars’ areas from encroachers to safeguard the
“ecological integrity” of which of the following river valley?
a. Ganga
b. Godavari
c. Brahmaputra
d. Beas
Solution: c
Explanation: The riverine areas (island) of the river Brahmaputra, locally known as “Char/ Chapori”.
Chars are island-like silt depositions in the lower parts of river basins. They are made of sand and silt.

Q56. Consider the following pairs :

Terms oftenly seen in the news State/UT
1. Pandaram lands Puducherry
2. Khazan lands Goa
3. Kayals Kerela
How many of the following pairs given is/are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: b
Explanation: Around 60% of land in Lakshadweep, which includes some parts of the Androth, Kalpeni,
Kavaratti, Minicoy, and Agatti islands, along with six uninhabited islands, constitutes Pandaram land.
Khazans are the coastal wetlands of Goa which cover about 5% of the total geographical area of Goa.
This is a low-lying, salt water-logged area that is affected by tidal flow.

The term Kayal means backwater. In Kerala, these backwaters are locally known as Kayals. One of the
very famous backwaters in the state is Vembanad.
Q57. Kaji Nemu, a variety of indigenous lemon, was declared the state fruit of the state which
1. shares two international borders
2. contains three of six physiographic divisions of India.
Select the corect answer.
a. Manipur
b. Uttarakhand
c. Arunachal Pradesh
d. Assam
Solution: d
Explanation:

Indian states that share an international border with 2 countries are Assam, Uttarakhand and Mizoram.
Arunachal Pradesh shares border with 3 countries – Myanmar in the east, China in the north and Bhutan
in the west.
The second statement is taken directly from the Assam Govt's portal.

Q58. Recently, scientists have discovered a megastructure, stone Age wall beneath the Baltic sea. With
this, Consider the following:
1. Gulf of Bothnia
2. Gulf of Riga
3. Gulf of Finland
4. Gulf of Gdansk
Arrange the following gulfs surrounding it from North to South:
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 1-3-2-4
c. 3-2-1-4
d. 1-4-3-2
Solution: b
Explanation: Archaeologists have identified what may be Europe’s oldest human-made megastructure,
submerged 21 meters below the Baltic Sea in the Bay of Mecklenburg, Germany. This structure – which
has been named the Blinkerwall.

Q59. Recently, NASA’s Earth Observatory shared an in-depth analysis of the factors contributing to the
disappearance of which of the following water body:
a. Black Sea
b. Aral Sea
c. Dead Sea
d. Chilika lake
Solution: b
Explanation: Aral sea is a landlocked endorheic sea in Central Asia, straddles the boundary between
Uzbekistan to the south and west and Kazakhstan to the north and east.
The lake, the Aral Sea, was made by waters from the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers that were
dependent on glacial melt, reports NASA. Aral Sea was the fourth-largest body of inland water in the

world. It began shrinking in the 1960s after the rivers that fed it were diverted by Soviet irrigation
projects and almost dried up by 2010.
The series of images from the Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectroradiometer (MODIS) on NASA’s
Terra satellite documents the changes.
Such type of questions are asked frequently in past by UPSC.

For example: PYQ from UPSC Pre (2018)
Q60. The Geological Institute of Israel recently uncovered an underwater canyon near that dates back to
the Messinian Event. This event is related to which of the following:
a. Dead Sea
b. Lake Baikal
c. Mediterranean Sea
d. Caspian sea
Solution: c
Explanation:

About Messinian Event

1) It is also known as the Messinian Salinity Crisis (MSC)
2) It was a geological event during which the Mediterranean Sea went into a cycle of partial or nearly
complete desiccation (drying up). It was one of the most severe ecological crises in the Earth’s history.
3) The MSC began approximately 6 million years ago (MYA) and lasted until around 5.3 MYA. It began
when the connection between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea was cut off.
Q61. Match the following pairs.

Hydroelectric project (HP) River
1. Ratle Jhelum
2. Subansiri Lower Brahmaputra
3. Shahpurkandi Ravi
How many of the following pairs given above is/are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution : a
Explanation:. Only Ratle HEP is correctly matched

The Subansiri Lower Dam, officially named Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project (SLHEP), is an under
construction gravity dam , located 2.3 km upstream of Subansiri River on Arunachal Pradesh.
The Shahpurkandi Dam project is located on the Ravi River in Pathankot district, Punjab, India,
downstream from the existing Ranjit Sagar Dam.
Q62. Scientists have discovered a shallow “soda lake,” Lake Chance, in Canada, resembling Darwin’s
“warm little ponds” that might have initiated life on Earth. Which of the following Indian lake is a soda
lake?
a. Lonar lake
b. Wular lake
c. Loktak lake
d. Chilika lake
Solution: a
Explanation: A soda lake or alkaline lake is a lake on the strongly alkaline side of neutrality, typically with
a pH value between 9 and 12.High carbonate concentration, especially sodium carbonate, is responsible
for the alkalinity of the water.

Many soda lakes also contain high concentrations of sodium chloride and other dissolved salts, making
them saline or hypersaline lakes as well.
Lonar Lake (Crater Lake), Sambhar Salt Lake, Khyagar Lake, Tso Moriri Salt Lake, Tso Kar Salt Lake ,
Pangong Salt Lake are some of the Indian Soda Lakes.

Q63.Lake Retba (pink lake), located in Senegal, is under threat of extinction due to increase in Nitrate
level and pollution. Consider the following:
1. Mauritania
2. Mali
3. Gambia
4. Guinea
5. Western Sahara
How many of the following do/does not share any boundary with Senegal?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. Only four
Solution: a
Explanation: Lake Retba is also known as Lac Rose (meaning “pink lake”).
Lake Retba is separated only by some narrow dunes from the Atlantic Ocean. Its distinct pink colour is
caused by the Dunaliella salina bacteria. This is attracted by the lake’s salt content.
Western Sahara doesn’t share a boundary with Senegal.
Q64. The Odisha state govt is recently planning to introduce Sambar and Gaur (bison) in the Chandaka-
Dampara wildlife sanctuary. Consider the following statements:

1. Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary marks the northeastern limits of the Eastern Ghats.
2. Tiger is the principal species here.
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a
Explanation:
Second statement is incorrect.

The area was once a stronghold of tiger, until 60s; when the last tiger embraced captivity in 1967.

Q65.If a person travels from Andhra Pradesh to Tamil Nadu through the Eastern Ghats how many of the
following hills will be encountered by him?
1. Javadi Hills
2. Garhjat Hills
3. Sirumalai Hills
4. Shevaroy Hills
5. Baba Budan Hills
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a. Only two
b. Only three
c. Only four
d. All five
Solution: b
Explanation: 1,3 and 4 are the correct ones.
Garhjat Hills also known as Odisha highlands is a mountain range stretch into Odisha from the Utkal
Plains in the Chotanagpur region of Jharkhand and the Chhattisgarh Plains.
Baba Budangiri, also known as Chandradrona, is a hill and mountain range in the Western Ghats of
India, located in Karnataka.
Q66. Arrange the following islands located in the Mediterranean sea from West to East:
1. Ibiza (Balearic Islands)

2. Cyprus
3. Crete
a. 1-3-2
b. 2-3-1
c. 1-2-3
d. 3-2-1
Solution: a
Explanation:
Q67. Consider the following pairs of tribes recently mentioned in news:

Tribe Region
1. Yakuts : Congo Basin
2. Soligas : Cauvery basin
3. Tuaregs : Alaska
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: a
Explanation: The Yakuts (or Sakha, as they call themselves) are a native Siberian population that mainly
live throughout the Sakha Autonomous Republic (Yakutia) of the Russian Federation.

Indigenous groups Soligas and Yeravas have been living in the Cauvery Basin and the surrounding hills of
peninsular India for thousands of years.The scientific community has named a new genus of wasp (Soliga
ecarinata) in honor of this community.
The Tuaregs of the Sahara are camel riders and dwell in grass zeriba. The Tuaregs are part of the Berber
group of people. Much of Tuareg art is in the form of jewellery, leather and metal saddle decorations,
and finely crafted swords.

Q68. How many of the following are the members of OPEC?

1. Libya
2. Qatar
3. Angola
4. Indonesia
5. Gabon
a. Only two
b. Only three
c. Only four
d. All five
Solution: a
Explanation:

The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the
signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq,
Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.

Q69. Istanbul, Turkey, connects Europe and Asia and is split by the Golden Horn and the ___(A)______
Strait which links the Black sea and ___(B)______.
Which of the following pair will be the correct answer for the blanks A and B?
a. Dardanelles strait, Aegean sea
b. Bosphorus Strait, Sea of Marmara
c. Dardanelles strait, Mediterranean sea
d. Bosphorus Strait, Aegean sea
Solution: b
Explanation: Istanbul, Turkey, connects Europe and Asia and is split by the Golden Horn and the
Bosphorus Strait which links the Sea of Marmara to the Black Sea.
The Golden Horn is a major urban waterway and the primary inlet of the Bosphorus in Istanbul, Turkey.
Q70. The Brazzaville Summit, also known as the "Summit of the Three Basins", was a significant event
held in Brazzaville doesn't include which of the following basin?
a. Congo Basin
b. Brahmaputra Basin
c. Amazon basin
d. Borneo-Mekong-Southeast Asia Basin
Solution: b

Explanation: The Brazzaville Summit, also known as the Summit of the Three Basins, was a significant
event held in Brazzaville, the capital of the Republic of Congo, from October 26 to 28, 2023. The
Republic of Congo, as the initiator of the alliance between the Three Great Basins, hosted this Founding
Summit.
Q71. The Danube delta has provided Ukraine with an alternative passage for its grain after Russia
withdrew from the Black Sea grain deal . This new trade route is:
a. English Channel
b. North Channel
c. Sulina Channel
d. Eurasia Canal
Solution: c
Explanation: The Danube delta has provided Ukraine with an alternative passage for its grain after
Russia withdrew from the Black Sea grain deal last month. The deal, brokered by the UN and Turkey,
used to provide safe passage for cargo ships carrying grain from Ukrainian Black sea ports of Odessa,
Chornomorsk etc.

The Sulina Channel, a distributary of the Danube River, serves as a “riverine expressway” for
transporting goods from major Ukrainian ports to the Black Sea.
Q72. How many of the following states of India share international boundaries with Bangladesh?
1. Assam
2. Sikkim
3. Mizoram
4. Manipur
5. Tripura


a. Only two
b. Only three
c. Only four
d. All five
Solution: b
Explanation: West Bengal, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura and Assam share boundaries with Bangladesh.
Q73. Murmansk seaport is one of the largest ice-free ports in Russia and forms the backbone of the
economy of the city is located on which of the following peninsula?
a. Kola Peninsula
b. Kamchatka Peninsula
c. Yamal Peninsula
d. Crimean Peninsula
Solution: a
Explanation: Murmansk port is located in northwestern Russia, on the Kola Peninsula, near the Barents
Sea and the Arctic Ocean. Kola Peninsula bounded on the north by the Barents Sea and on the east and
southeast by the White Sea.

Russia - Ukraine is a hot topic so we should not ignore the map of other options.
Q74. Indian Standard Time (IST) passes through how many following states of India?
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Telangana
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Odisha
5. Tamil Nadu

a. Only two
b. Only three
c. Only four
d. All five
Solution: b
Explanation: Indian standard time passes through Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha,
and Andhra Pradesh. The longitude of India's Standard Meridian is 82°30'E.
Q75. Which of the following pair indicates the easternmost and southernmost nation of African
mainland?
1. Dakar
2. Ras Hafun
3. 3.Cape Agulhas
4. Cape Town
a. 1-3
b. 2-3
c. 1-4
d. 2-4
Solution: b
Explanation:The Mauritian island of Rodrigues is the easternmost point of Africa. Ras Hafun in eastern
Somalia is, however, the easternmost point of the African Mainland.

The southernmost point of the continent is Cape Agulhas in South Africa.
Q76. In January 2024, The World Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA) stated: “Presently, the The
Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park (PNHZP) has the largest captive population of snow leopards
in the world.” PNHZP is located in which of the following Indian state/ UT?
a. Ladakh
b. Uttarakhand
c. West Bengal
d. Sikkim
Solution: c
Explanation: The Snow Leopard Breeding Project at Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park,
Darjeeling (West Bengal) is one of the most successful and only breeding programme of the species in

South East Asia. A total of sixty-seven snow leopard births have been recorded in the park. Darjeeling
zoo is the largest high altitude zoo in India.
Q77. Atal Setu, India's longest sea bridge, is built over which of the following creek?
a. Thane creek
b. Vasai creek
c. Malad creek
d. Panvel creek
Solution: a
Explanation: Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the country's longest bridge, built over
the Thane Creek in the Arabian Sea, connecting Mumbai to Navi Mumbai and dramatically reducing
travel time.
The 21.8-km Mumbai Trans Harbour Link, officially named Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal
Setu, is the the longest sea bridge of the country.

Q78. Consider the following pairs:

Place Located near hills
1. Shillong Mishmi hills
2. Kohima Naga Hills
3. Aizawl Patkaibum
How many of the pairs given above are not correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: b
Explanation: The Mishmi Hills are located at the northeastern tip of India, in northeastern Arunachal
Pradesh.
Kohima is the capital city of the northeastern state of Nagaland. The town lies in the Naga Hills, 30 miles
(48 km) southeast of the railroad at Dimapur.

Aizawl is the capital city of the northeastern state of Mizoram. It is located in the Mizo hills (formerly
Lushai Hills).
Q79. The Wallace Line is a boundary that separates the ecozones of ______?
a. Asia and Europe
b. Europe and Africa
c. Asia and Australia
d. North America and South America
Solution: c
Explanation: The Wallace Line is an imaginary boundary that runs between Australia and the Asian
islands and mainland.
This boundary marks the point where there is a difference in species on either side of the line. To the
west of the line, all of the species are similar or derived from species that are found on the Asian
mainland. To the east of the line, there are many species that of Australian descent.
Q80. Arrange the following Buddhist Pilgrimage sites from North to South:

1. Kushinagar
2. Sarnath
3. Lumbini
4. Bodh Gaya
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 3-1-2-4
c. 3-2-1-4
d. 4-3-2-1
Solution: b
Explanation: In India, there are many important places related to Buddhism. The Astamahasthanas are
eight special places connected to Buddha’s life. These include four places linked to Gautama Buddha’s
life, like Lumbini, Bodhgaya, Sarnath, and Kushinagar, as well as four other places: Sravasti, Sankasya,
Rajgir, and Vaishali.
Q81. Considering the northernmost point of each of the following states, arrange them from North to
South.
1. Rajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Odisha
a. 1-3-2-4
b. 1-3-4-2
c. 3-1-2-4
d. 3-1-4-2
Solution: b
Explanation: It's an easy question but might confuse you under the performance pressure.
Rajasthan lies between 23.3°N to 30.12°N latitude. The state of Odisha extends from 17.31°N latitude to
22.31°N latitude.
Madhya Pradesh is located in the geographic heart of India between the latitude of 21.6°N–26.30°N
Gujarat state is located between 20° to 24.40°N latitude.

Therefore, when the northernmost point of states is arranged from north to south Rajasthan comes first
then Madhya Pradesh, then Gujarat, and then Odisha.
Q82. In recent years, the issues have escalated into a full-blown crisis, exacerbated by the assassination
of President Jovenel Moïse and the rise of gang violence across the country. The Dominican Republic is a
Caribbean nation shares the island of Hispaniola with this country to the west.
Select the correct answer:
a. Cuba
b. Haiti
c. Jamaica
d. Guyana
Solution: b
Explanation: Haiti is a Caribbean country that shares the island of Hispaniola with the Dominican
Republic to its east.

Q83. Odisha declares Gupteswar in Koraput district as its fourth biodiversity heritage site. Consider the
following pairs:
Biodiversity heritage sites Location
1. Naro hills Madhya Pradesh
2. Nallur Tamarind Grove Karnataka
3. Hajong Tortoise Lake Assam
How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: c
Explanation: Biodiversity Heritage Site is a unique conservation approach recognised under the Section
37 of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. According to the National Biodiversity Authority, India has a total
of 45 Biodiversity Heritage Sites as of February 2024.

The divine, “Gupteswar Forest” situated in the southernmost region of Odisha and a part of Eastern
Ghats, is a great assemblage of significant species of flora and fauna.
Q84. This is an important river-based inland waterway in Eastern Europe. The river (waterway) rises in
the Black Forest and flows eastwards through many countries. This is the second-longest river in Europe.
The river ends in the Black Sea.
Which of the following river waterways is being described in the above passage?
a. Rhine

b. Danube
c. Volga
d. Thames
Solution: b
Explanation:
The Danube is the second-longest river in Europe, after the Volga in Russia. It rises in the Black Forest
mountains of western Germany and flows to its mouth on the Black Sea. Along its course it passes
through 10 countries: Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova,
and Ukraine.

Q85. Recently PM Narendra Modi inaugurates Sela Tunnel, the world's longest twin-lane tunnel in which
of the following state/UT?
a. Ladakh
b. Jammu Kashmir
c. West Bengal
d. Arunachal Pradesh
Solution: d
Explanation: The Sela Tunnel project is aimed at providing all weather connectivity to Arunachal
Pradesh's Tawang region — the part long contest by China which describes it as a part of ancient
territory.
Q86. Nearly 400 Ethiopians in the Tigray Region have died of starvation recently. Tigray civil war and
other crises carries significant global implications. With respect to this, consider the following
statements:
1. Tigray is situated to the south of Addis Ababa region.
2. Tigray is bordered by Sudan to the north.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: d
Explanation: Tigray is bordered by Eritrea to the north, Sudan to the west, the Amhara Region to the
south and the Afar Region to the east and south east.

Q87. The Indian Navy Ship (INS) SUMEDHA has made a port call to Nigeria to improve existing bilateral
relations as well as security in the Gulf of Guinea. Consider the following statements:
1. Among the many rivers that drain into the Gulf of Guinea are the Niger and the Volta.
2. Null Island, defined as the intersection of the Equator and Prime Meridian, is in the gulf.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: c
Explanation: Both are correct statements.

Q88. Fifth mass coral bleaching event in eight years hits Great Barrier Reef. GBR is located in which of
the following sea:
a. Coral sea
b. Timor sea
c. Arafura sea
d. Bali sea

Solution: a
Explanation: The Great Barrier reef, the world's largest coral reef complex, is located in the Coral Sea, off
the coast of Queensland, Australia.
Q89. India and Albania announced plans recently to establish diplomatic missions in each other's
capitals. With this, answer Albania is bounded by the which of the following two seas:
1. Adriatic Sea
2. Aegean Sea
3. Balearic Sea
4. Ionian sea
a. 2 and 4
b. 3 and 1
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
Solution: d
Explanation: Albania is situated in Southeast Europe on the Balkan Peninsula. It shares borders with
Montenegro, Kosovo, North Macedonia, and Greece, and is bordered by the Adriatic and Ionian Seas.
Tirana serves as its capital.

Q90. This National Park is located along the Western Ghats in the state of Karnataka. Three important
rivers, the Tunga, the Bhadra, and the Netravati are said to have their origin here. The animals found
there include malabar civets, wild dogs, sloth bears and spotted deer.
The above passage describes which of the following national parks?
a. Nameri National Park
b. Eravikulam National Park
c. Kudremukh National Park
d. Bannerghatta National Park
Solution: c
Explanation: Kudremukha National Park is a well-known protected area located in the Western Ghats of
Karnataka, India. The park was established in 1987. Kudremukha means ‘horse’s face’ and it refers to a
peak that resembles the face of a horse at an altitude of 1,894 meters. Thunga , Bhadra and Netravati
rivers originate from the hills at “Gangamoola” of the Park.

Q91. The long-standing territorial dispute over the Essequibo region escalated into a crisis in 2023. The
dispute involved which of following countries:
1. Guyana
2. Suriname
3. Venezuela
4. Colombia

Select the correct pair:

a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
Solution: a
Explanation: The Guyana–Venezuela territorial dispute is an ongoing territorial dispute between Guyana
and Venezuela over the Essequibo region.
Q92. How of the following states have only one tiger reserve?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Manipur
4. Jharkhand
5. Odisha
a. Only two
b. Only three
c. Only four
d. All five
Solution: b
Explanation: States with only one Tiger reserve are -
• Nagarjunsagar Srisailam - Andhra Pradesh
• Valmiki Tiger Reserve - Bihar
• Palamau Tiger Resere - Jharkhand
• Dampa Tiger Reserve - Mizoram

3 and 5 are incorrect as:

Odisha have two TRs- Satkosia and Similipal TR whereas there's no tiger reserve in Manipur.
Q93. Recently, the Union Minister of Earth Sciences flagged off India’s first winter scientific expedition
to the nation's Arctic Research Station, known as:
a. Bharati
b. Dakshin Gangotri
c. Himadri
d. Maitri
Solution: c
Explanation: India has launched its first winter expedition to Himadri, the nation's Arctic Research
Station situated in Ny-Ålesund within the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard in the Arctic region. The
team from Raman Research Institute(RRI) was chosen as the initial group of scientists to conduct various
experiments in the region.

Q94. The Darien Gap is recently seen in news due to migration crisis, is located:
a. Across northern Colombia and southern Panama border
b. Across northern Sudan and southern Egypt
c. Across Eastern Poland and Southern Ukraine
d. Across northern Italy and southern Serbia
Solution: a
Explanation: The Darien Gap is a stretch of densely forested jungle across northern Colombia and
southern Panama. The treacherous Darien Gap route that spans parts of Central and South America has
seen an increasing number of people attempting to pass on their way to claiming asylum in the US.

Q95. 'The folklore tells a story dating back to Mahabharata when Pandavas attempted to build a
staircase to ascend to Heaven at monolithic Masrur Rock Temples located at the opposite of this lake
but Indira intervened. But, successfully built the 'Stairway to Heaven' at 'Bathu ki Ladi' temples where
that staircase still exists even today'. This Lake was designated a Ramsar site in 2002.
Which of the following Ramsar site is being referred to in the above lines:
a. Wular lake
b. Pong Dam Lake
c. Chandra Taal
d. Renuka Lake
Solution: b
Explanation: It's Pong Dam Lake, also known as Maharana Pratap Sagar. The lines are taken directly from
the website of the HP govt.
Q96. The opening ceremony of the Paris Olympics on July 26, 2024, will be held on which of the
following river:
a. Loire river
b. Rhône river
c. Rhine River
d. Seine river
Solution: d
Explanation: Paris, host of the 2024 Olympics, intends to use the Seine River for opening ceremonies and
swimming events.
The Seine River is France’s second-longest river after the Loire, covering a distance of 775 kilometers.
This river has a drainage basin, known as Paris Basin.

Q97. Consider the following pairs:

Indus Valley cities Located near River
1. Mohenjo-daro Indus
2. Harappa Ravi
3. Kalibangan Beas
4. Lothal Narmada
How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four
Solution: b
Explanation: The city of Mohenjo-Daro was located on the banks of the river Indus.
The city of Harappa was located on the river Ravi.

Lothal was one of the southernmost cities of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization, thrived along the
Bhogava river, a tributary of Sabarmati, not Narmada.
It was the first city to be discovered and hence the IVC is also known as the Harappan Civilization.
The city of Kalibangan was located on the banks of the Ghaggar-Hakra River in the present-day state of
Rajasthan not Beas.
Q98. Consider the following Indian cities through which the Tropic of Cancer passes:
1. Udaipur
2. Jasdan
3. Sonhat

4. Krishnanagar
Arrange the following from West to East
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 2-3-4-1
c. 2-1-4-3
d. 4-3-2-1
Solution: b
Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer is a hypothetical line running across the centre of India at an
inclination of 23.5 degrees north of the Equator.
This hypothetical line on earth will go through 17 nations, and India is among those 17 nations. In India,
there are eight states.
Those eight places are Jasdan in Gujarat, Kalinjarh in Rajasthan, Shajapur in Madhya Pradesh, Sunhat in
Chhattisgarh, and Lohardaga in Jharkhand, Krishnanagar in West Bengal, Udaipur in Tripura, Champai
in Mizoram.
(You must know, TOC doesn't pass through the Udaipur, Rajasthan. So don't think that options given is
incorrect)
Q99. ISRO built a second rocket launchport in Tamil Nadu’s Kulasekarapattinam located in which of the
following district?

a. Tirupati
b. Thoothukudi
c. Kanyakumari
d. Madurai
Solution: b
Explanation:
In a momentous occasion for India's space ambitions, Hon'ble Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi
remotely laid the foundation stone for India's second spaceport at Kulasekharapattanam, a coastal
village in Tamil Nadu's Thoothukudi district on February 28, 2024.
The proximity of Kulasekarapattinam's rocket launch pad to the equator will make the site ideal for
rocket launches.

Q100. Consider the following pairs.

Places in News Location
1. Red Aurora Ladakh
2. White hydrogen France
3. Ureilite meteorite Madhya Pradesh
How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None
Solution: c
Explanation:
News 1:

News 2:
News 3:


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GOALTIDE UPSC

PRELIMS TEST SERIES

GOALTIDE IAS ACADEMY

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

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1.The Macro-economic Framework Statement is presented to Parliament under Section 3 of

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How many of statements given above is/are correct?

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B. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement contains an assessment of the growth prospects

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Statements C and D are correctly matched.

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Q20. According to Interim Budget 2024, consider the following statements :

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Q22.According to Interim Budget 2024, consider the following statements:

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READ BELOW THE INDIA’S VISION OF THE BLUE ECONOMY:

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Only statement 3 is correct.

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Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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Second and third statements are directly taken from NCERT.

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Second statement is incorrect:

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