Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Phone : 011-47623456  Fax : 011-47623472

Sample Paper for NEET - 2024

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 5 5 x0
(1) x (2)
16 0 4
SECTION - A
16 x0 x0
1. In Young’s double slit experiment, the ratio of path (3) (4)
difference corresponding to third maxima obtained in 25 4
air to the third minima obtained in water is 4. Four particles A, B, C and D are situated at the corners
of a square of side d. They start moving with same
 4
  of water   speed v along the sides of square in same sense.
 3
d
4 4 Then their relative velocity of approach after t  is
(1) (2) 2v
3 5
v
3 8 (1) (2) 2v
(3) (4) 2
5 5
2. An unpolarised beam of light falls on a system of four v
(3) (4) 0
polaroids, which are arranged consecutively in a line 2
such that each polaroid is turned through the angle 5. A solid cylinder of radius R is kept at rest on a smooth
45° with respect to the preceding one. The percentage horizontal surface. A horizontal force is applied to move
of incident intensity stopped by the system is the cylinder under pure rolling. Then height of force
(1) 6.25 % (2) 93.75 % from horizontal surface is
(3) 25 % (4) 73.25 % R
3. In a vertical spring mass system if stretching in spring (1) R (2)
2
at equilibrium near earth surface is x0 then the
3R
extension in spring at a height 1600 km from earth (3) (4) 2R
2
surface is (radius of earth R = 6400 km)

(1)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

6. The potential energy function in one dimension is given 1

this reflected wave becomes of the incident wave
as shown in figure. If total energy of the particle is 5J, 3
then in the region from x1 to x2, the value of its kinetic then equation of the reflected wave is
energy will be (1) y = 0.4sin(t + 2x)

(2) y = – 0.4sin(t – 2x)

(3) y = – 0.4cos(t + 2x)

(4) y = – 0.4cos(t – 2x)

11. A t rav el ling wav e pulse is giv en by

(1) 8 J (2) 11 J
10
y where symbols have their usual
(3) 5 J (4) 0 J 2  ( x  3t )2
7. A rope can withstand the 120% weight of a meanings; x, y are in meter and t is in second, then
monkey tries to climb up along this rope. The
(1) The pulse is travelling along + ve y – axis
maximum acceleration of monkey on the rope
such that the rope does not break is (2) The pulse is travelling along – ve y – axis
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(3) The amplitude of wave pulse is 10 m
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2

(3) 2 m/s2 (4) 1.2 m/s2 (4) The velocity of wave pulse is 3 m/s

8. A uniform wire of length l and mass m is suspended 12. A parti cle i s ex ecuti ng S.H.M along x-ax is
from the ceiling and a block of mass m is suspended with origin as the mean position. If velocity v of the
at the other end of wire. If A is the area of cross section particle is related wi th position x as
of the wire, then 9v2 = 36 – x2 then time period of the oscillation will be
(1) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire
(1) 3s (2) 3s
2 mg
is (3) 6s (4) 6s
A
(2) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire
13. Equal mole of nitrogen and helium are mixed. The
is zero
(3) Tensile stress in wire at the point attached to ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to that in nitrogen
is
2 mg
the ceiling is
A 5 15
(1) (2)
(4) Tensile stress at any cross section of the wire is 16 8
2 mg
2 7
9. The accuracy in the measurement of length (3) (4)
5 5
50 cm of a simple pendulum is 1 mm. If time period of
14. A gas is contained in a vessel of volume V0 at a
2s is determined by measuring the time of 50
pressure P0. If the gas is to be pumped out by a suction
oscillations using a watch of resolution 0.2s. The
pump of stroke volume V then number of moles of gas
percentage error in the determined value of g is
remained in the vessel after two strokes is (where, R
(1) 0.2% (2) 0.3% is gas constant, T is constant temperature of gas)

(3) 0.6% (4) 0.4% P0V03 P0V02

(1) (2)
10. Equation of a plane progressive wave is given by RT (V0  V )2 RT (V0  V )2
y = 1.2cos(t + 2x). If this wave is incident on a denser
medium and reflected from it such that amplitude of P0V03 P0V02
(3) (4)
RT (V0  V )3 RT (V0  V )3

(2)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

15. 125 identical and nearly spherical rain drops are falling 20. Consider a thin prism of angle 3° and refractive index
through atmosphere vertically with a terminal speed 1.5. A horizontal incident ray on prism is shown in
of 2m/s. If these drops coalesce to form a big drop, figure. If a plane mirror is vertically placed close to the
then terminal speed of the big drop is prism then total deviation produced in the incident ray
is
(1) 5 m/s (2) 50 m/s

(3) 25 m/s (4) 125 m/s

16. The following graph shows the variation of maximum 3°

kinetic energy (Kmax) of the photoelectrons emitted
versus frequency (f) of incident radiation in an
experiment of photoelectric effect. The stopping (1) 178.5 (2) 177°
potential of the surface for the incident light of
wavelength 4133.33Å is nearly (3) 180° (4) 180.5°

Kmax 21. A telescope has an objective of focal length

(eV) 150 cm and magnifying power 30. The distance
between two lenses in normal adjustment will be

(1) 95 cm (2) 145 cm

14
6 × 10 f(Hz)
(3) 125 cm (4) 155 cm
(1) 1.0 V (2) 0.5 V
22. A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude A
(3) 3.0 V (4) 2.5 V and time period T. If at t = 0 particle starts from
17. A part of the circuit is as shown in figure. The current A
in 2  branch is rest, then time taken by it to travel a distance
4
will be
T T
(1)
16
(2)
16
 
cos 1 3
4

T T
10V (3) 2  cos  
1 3
4 (4) 2  cos
1 1
 
4

23. In an ideal transformer, number of turns in primary

(1) 1 A (2) 4 A coil are 140 and that in the secondary coil are 280. If
current in the primary coil is 7 A, then that in the
(3) 0.5 A (4) 0 A
secondary coil is
18. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plate
separation d is filled with a dielectric of dielectric (1) 14 A (2) 3.5 A
constant K = 2 and thickness d/3. The effective
(3) 7 A (4) 4 A
capacitance of the capacitor will be
A0 A0 24. A point charge q is placed at a distance ‘r’ from one
(1) 6 (2) 3 end of a uniformly charged thin rod of length ‘L’ as
d 2d
shown in the figure. Magnitude of electric force between
6 A0 5 A0 them will be
(3) (4)
5 d 3 d
19. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number z is in an
excited state of quantum number 2n. It can emit a
photon of maximum energy 204 eV. If it makes a
transition in quantum state n, a photon of energy 40.8 1 Qq 1 Qq
(1) 4 r (r  L) (2) 4 r 2
eV is emitted the value of n will be 0 0

(1) 1 (2) 2 Qq Qq
(3) 2 r 2 (4)
(3) 3 (4) 4 0 4 r ( L  r )2
2

(3)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

25. The binding energy of deutron ( 1 H 2) i s (1) Is half wave rectified

1.15 MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle
(2) Is full wave rectified
 2 He 
4
has a binding energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon.
(3) Has the same peak values in the positive and
Energy released in the following reaction will negative half cycles
be 1 H2  1 H2  2He 4  Q
(4) Has the different peak values in the positive and
(1) 5.95 MeV (2) 26.1 MeV negative half cycles
(3) 23.8 MeV (4) 28.9 MeV
29. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest
26. After learning SHM, Guddu a curious student of XI gets accelerated by constant electric field E. The rate
class, designed a spring pendulum with identical of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at
springs of spring constant k and a small block of mass time t is
‘m’ as shown in figure
2h h
(1) (2)
eEt eEt

h –2h
(3)  (4)
eEt 2 eEt 2
30. In a YDSE experiment, the coherent sources are at
2d distance from each other and screen is placed a
distance D from the slits. If nth bright fringe is formed
on the screen exactly opposite to a slit, the value of n
must be

d2 d2
When block is at rest it just touches the lower spring. (1) (2)
4 D D
So, Guddu forgot to connect lower spring with block.
The time period of oscillation of the block when it is 2d 2 d2
(3) (4)
slightly pushed downward and released, is D 2 D
31. A liquid having coefficient of volume expansion  is
m 2m
(1) 2 (2) 2 completely filled in a container made of material having
2k k linear coefficient of expansion . If the liquid does not
flow out of the container on heating, then
m m  1 
(3)  (4) 
k 1   (1)  = 3 (2)  = 6
2k  2
(3)  > 3 (4)  < 3
27. Two coherent light waves of intensities I and 4I
32. N parallel capacitors each of capacitance C are
 connected to a battery of V volt, the total energy stored
superpose at a point with phase difference of . The
2 by the capacitors is
resultant intensity of the superposed wave at that point
will be NCV 2
(1) (2) NCV2
(1) 5I (2) 7I 2
(3) 6I (4) 8I
CV 2
28. In the circuit given below, V(t) is the sinusoidal voltage (3) 2NCV2 (4)
2N
source, voltage drop VAB (t) across the resistance R is
33. Two charges +3Q and –Q are placed at some distance
apart. If N0 is the number of electric field lines originates
from +3Q, then the number of field lines which
terminates on –Q is
(1) N0 (2) 3N0

N0 N0
(3) (4)
3 2

(4)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

34. Two small blocks each of mass 2 kg are connected

T T
by an inextensible string (light). Blocks are placed (1)
16
(2)
16
 
cos1 3
4
over a fixed smooth wedge as shown in the figure and
system is released f rom rest. Magnitude of
T T
acceleration of both the blocks will be (g = 10 m/s2) (3)
2
cos1 3
4  (4)
2
 
cos 1 1
4

40. Part AB of the track shown below is smooth and

90º beyond point-B track is rough. A block of mass 2 kg
is released from rest at point A and it stops after
travelling 8 m on track BC. The value of friction
coefficient between block and track BC is
B

37º 53º A
A 1m

(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2

3 1m
(3) m / s2 (4) 2 m/s
2
2
35. Longest weavlength of Balmer series of H-atom is
6563Å. Longest wavelength of Lyman series, will be C
B
(1) 1215 Å (2) 2245 Å
1 1
(3) 6000 Å (4) 4560 Å (1) (2)
4 8
SECTION - B
3 6
36. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is expanded (3) (4)
4 5
P
slowly according to the law  constant. If the 41. The network shown below is a part of a complete circuit.
V If a current of 5 A is flowing through it and it is
temperature of the gas increased from T0 to 2T0, then decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s, then magnitude of
heat supplied to the gas in this process is potential difference between the points P & O will be
3
(1) 2RT0 (2) RT0
2

RT0
(3) RT0 (4)
2 (1) 20V (2) 15 V
37. L1 and L2 are the self-inductances of two coils (3) 10 V (4) 7V
respectively. To induce same emf in the coils change
42. Three mole of an ideal gas is taken through the process
of current of 2 A has to be produced in 10 S and 10 ms
ABC as shown in the figure. The total work done by
respectively. The ratio L1 : L2 is the gas is
(1) 1 : 1000 (2) 1000 : 1
T
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
B C
2T 0
38. At resonance condition in a LCR series circuit, the
net potential difference across the capacitor and A
inductor is T0

(1) Zero (2) Positive P

P0 2P0 8P0
(3) Negative (4) Can’t be determined
(1) 2 RT0 ln2 (2) 4 RT0 ln2
39. A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude A
and time period T. If at t = 0 particle starts from rest, (3) – 12 RT0 ln2 (4) – 4 RT0 ln2
A
then time taken by it to travel a distance will be
4
(5)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

43. A particle of mass 10 g is executing SHM according (1) Material A

to the equation y = 4 sin (4t + /3), having time period (2) Material B
T. Kinetic energy of the particle at t = T/4, will be (3) Both are equally elastic
(1) 9.6 unit (2) 0.48 unit (4) Can’t be determined
(3) 1.92 unit (4) 0.96 unit 47. 1 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 8 g of water at 8°C, the
44. The value of current in the 2  resistor in the given equilibrium temperature of the mixtuer will be
circuit is
(1) 1°C (2) 0°C
(3) 2°C (4) 8°C
48. In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of current
passing through the battery just after the key is closed

(1) 1A (2) 2A
8 4
(3) A (4) A
3 3
45. A swimmer can swim with 4 m/s in still water. He
cross a river of width 80 m by swimming perpendicular (1) 1 A (2) 2 A
to the river flow. If the speed of river is 3 m/s, then the
drift of the swimmer when he cross the river is 10
(3) Zero (4) A
(1) 80 m (2) 40 m 13
(3) 100 m (4) 60 m 49. A transformer with primary turns as 100 and secondary
46. The stress versus strain graph for wires of two turns as 300 is supplied with 50 V ac, the output
materials A and B is shown in figure. The material voltage is
which is more elastic among the two is (1) 50 V (2) 100 V
B (3) 200 V (4) 150 V

50. A uniform electric field E  2iˆ  3j  4kˆ (N / C) exists
A
in a region. The electric flux (in SI units) passing
through a square of side 2 cm lying in x – y plane is

Stress (1) 4 × 10–4 (2) 34 × 10–4

°
60

°
45

Strain (3) 16 × 10–4 (4) Zero

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 53. For the reaction P + Q  Product
Following data were obtained.
51. The maximum number of oxygen atoms among the
following are present in [P] [Q] Initial rate (mol L–1 s–1)
(1) 1.5 gm molecule H2SO4 (i) 2 M 2M 0.02
(2) 2.6 gm molecule KMnO4 (ii) 4 M 2M 0.04
(iii) 4 M 4M 0.16
(3) 12.04 x 1024 oxygen molecules
Overall order of the reaction is
(4) 18 ml of H2O molecule
(1) 0 (2) 2
52. If Kc for the reaction
(3) 3 (4) 1
N2  g  3H2  g   2NH3 is X then K C f or the 54. In which of the following reaction the product given
reaction is incorrect?
Cu
2 1 (1) CH4  O2 CH3OH
NH3  N2  g   H2  g is 523K / 100atm
3 3
Cr2O3
1 (2) 
773K /10  20 atm

(1) X3 (2)
X3 KMnO
(3)  CH3 3 CH    CH3 3 COH
4

X 1
(3) (4) 3
Ni
(4) CH4  H2O   CO  3H2
3 X 

(6)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

55. Oxidation number of S in H2SO5 is

CH 3 CH3
(1) +2 (2) +5
(3) CH3 – C – NH2 (4) CH3 – NH
(3) +6 (4) 10
CH 3
56. Which of the following cannot be formed by Wurtz
reaction? 63. The most basic among the following in aqueous
(1) C2H6 (2) CH4 medium is

(3) C3H8 (4) C4H10 (1) (CH3)2NH (2) CH3NH2

57. Which among the following solutions will show (3) (CH3)3N (4) NH3
negative deviation from Raoult’s Law? 64. In Carius method of estimation of halogen, 0.20 g of
(1) Nitric acid and water an organic compound give 0.188 g of AgBr.

(2) Benzene and toluene The % of bromine in the compound is (Molar mass
of Ag = 108 g mol–1, molar mass of Br =80gmol–1)
(3) Ethanol and acetone
(1) 10% (2) 20%
(4) n-hexane and n-heptane
(3) 30% (4) 40%
58. Which of the following is true?
65. Ratio of radius of second orbit of Li2+ ion to the
o o o
(1)  KCl   NaCl   KBr   NaBr
m m m
o
m
radius of fourth orbit of Be3+ ion is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(2) mo KCl   omNaCl  mo KBr  mo NaBr
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 3
o o o o
(3)  KCl   NaBr   KBr   NaCl
m m m m 66. If Kb for ammonia is 2 × 10–5 then the ionisation
constant of NH4 ion is
(4) mo NaBr   omKCl   mo NaCl   omNaBr
(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 2.5 × 10–10
59. P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O gives sodium salt of
(3) 5 × 10–10 (4) 5 × 1010
(1) Phosphinic acid
67. Select the complex ion, which is paramagnetic in
(2) Phosphoric acid
nature.
(3) Pyrophosphorous acid
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
(4) Metaphosphoric acid
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
60. Which of the following on reaction with Grignard
68. Total number of electrons present in bonding
reagent followed by hydrolysis will not form alcohol?
molecular orbital of O2 is
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(1) 6 (2) 4
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) CH3OCH3
(3) 10 (4) 8
CHO Conc.NaOH 69. Two moles of ideal gas expand isothermally and
61.   A
reversibly to double its volume at 400°C. The entropy
CHO
change during the process is (log 2 = 0.3)
Product A is
(1) 6.74 J (2) 11.5 J
COOH CH2OH (3) 15.61 J (4) 19.5 J
(1) (2)
COOH COOH 70. Which of the following is most basic in nature?

CH2ONa CH2OH (1) La(OH)3 (2) Yb(OH)3

(3) (4) (3) Eu(OH)3 (4) Ce(OH)3
COOH COONa
62. W hich of the following will not giv e positive 71. Molarity of an aqueous solution containing 12 g urea
carbylamine test? in 500 ml solution is

(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3 – CH – NH2 (1) 0.2 M (2) 0.3 M

CH 3 (3) 0.6 M (4) 0.4 M

(7)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

72. Number of electrons in copper atom for which 79. Select the pair of solution which cannot act as buffer.
azimuthal quantum number (l) is 2, is
(1) NaOH(aq) and CH3COOH(aq)
(1) 6 (2) 9
(2) CH3COONa(aq) and CH3COOH(aq)
(3) 10 (4) 7
(3) NH4Cl(aq) and NH4OH(aq)

(4) NH4NO3(aq) and HNO3(aq)

73. 80. Standard electrode potential of following reaction is

6Fe2+(aq) + Cr2O72–(aq) + 14H+(aq)  6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+
+ 7H2O
Choose the incorrect option based on above reaction
(1) A is anilinium hydrogensulphate E 0
Fe3 /Fe2
0
 0.77 V and ECr O 2 /Cr 3
2 7
 1.33 V 
(2) B is sulphanilic acid
(1) 0.26 V (2) 0.56 V
(3) A has electron withdrawing group attached with
ring (3) 1.22 V (4) 1.12 V
(4) C has –NO2 group attached with ring 81. Among the following which is most susceptible to
74. de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass of nucleophilic substitution reaction?
6.62 × 10–22 kg moving with 1 m/s speed is
(Planck’s constant is 6.62 × 10–34 Js)
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.01 Å
(1) (2)
(3) 0.2 Å (4) 0.02 Å
75. Element of highest first negative electron gain enthalpy
is
(1) N (2) O
(3) F (4) Cl
76. Pair of compounds, which cannot be distinguished (3) (4)
by iodoform test is
(1) CH3OH and CH3CH2OH
(2) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2OH 82. Aromatic species is

(3) CH3CH2OH and CH3COCH3

(1) (2)
(4) CH3COCH3 and PhCOCH2CH3

77. During the conversion of N2 from N2, electron will be
(3) (4)
lost from
(1) 2px (2) 2pz 83. Alkanes of highest boiling point among the following
* *
is
(3) 2 p x (4)  2 pz
(1) Pentane
78. Reaction for which H is less than U at 27°C is
(2) 2-methyl butane
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
(3) Butane
(2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) 2-methyl propane
(3) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(4) NH4HS(s)  NH3(g) + H2S(g)

(8)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

84. W hich will give fastest electrophilic aromatic 90. Correct order of ionisation energies is
substitution among the following? (1) Li > Be > B (2) Be > Li > B
(3) Be > B > Li (4) B > Be > Li
91. Heterocyclic aromatic compound among the
following is
(1) (2)
NH2

(1) (2)

O
(3) (4)
(3) (4) N
N
H
92. Most stable carbocation among the following is
 
85. Number of moles of CO2(g) dissolved in 100 mol of (1) C6H5 CH2 (2) CH3  C  CH2
water at 298 K is
(Pressure of CO2 = 0.5 bar, KH(CO2) = 1.6 × 103 bar) CH 3

(3) CH2  CH  CH2 (4) CH3 – C+
(1) 0.2 mol (2) 0.3 mol
(3) 0.02 mol (4) 0.03 mol CH 3

SECTION - B H2
A
Pd/BaSO 4
86. The charge required to reduce 0.2 mol nitrobenzene 93. R – C  C – R A and B are
into aniline is Na
B
Liq. NH3
(1) 0.6 F (2) 0.2 F
(3) 1.2 F (4) 1.6 F
(1) Same molecules (2) Chain isomers
87. Outer orbital complex is formed by
(3) Geometrical isomers (4) Position isomers
2
(1) [Ni(CN)4 ] (2) [Co(en)3]Cl3
94. xMnO4  H2O  I  yMnO2  zOH  IO3
(3) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2 (4) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3 The value of x, y and z for balanced equation respec-
tively are
88. The ether which is most difficult to cleave on
heating with HBr is (1) 2, 2 and 1 (2) 1, 2 and 4

(1) O (3) 2, 2 and 2 (4) 2, 2 and 3

(2) Ph – CH2 – O – CH2 – Ph 95. 1 mol of CoCl3.4NH3 on reaction with excess of AgNO3
solution gives
(3) Ph – O – CH3
(1) 1 mol AgCl (2) 2 mol AgCl
(4) Ph – O – Ph
(3) 3 mol AgCl (4) No AgCl
89. If half life time of a first order reaction is 12 min then
find the time required for 99.9% completion of
96.  Co  NH3 3 NO 2 3  can show
reaction.
(1) 60 min (2) 120 min (1) Geometrical isomerism
(3) 48 min (4) 1200 min (2) Optical isomerism
(3) Structural isomerism

(4) Both (1) and (3)

(9)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

97. Which compound, undergoes fastest SN1 reaction 99. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives
among the following?
(1) n–Hexane (2) Gluconic acid
Cl (3) Fructose (4) Saccharic acid
(1) (2)
Cl 100. Consider the following reaction

CH 2Cl CH3
CH3 – C – Br + CH3CH 2ONa+ P(Major)
(3) Cl (4)
CH3

NH2 Major product P is

NaNO 2 (i) CO2 (1) CH3 – C = CH 2

98. A H2O B NaOH C D
HCl warm (ii) H+ CH3
0 – 5°C
The product D is CH3
(2) CH3 – C – OC2H5
OH OH
CH3
OH CHO
(1) (2)
CH3
(3) CH3 – C – CH2 – OCH3
OH OH CH3
CH2OH COOH
(3) (4) (4) CH3 – CH – CH2 – OC2H6
CH3
BOTANY
SECTION - A 104. What will be the sequence of mRNA if the coding
strand can be read in the following manner?
101. Plasma membrane is an absolute requirement for
living organisms, because it is/has 3’-TACGTACGTACGTACGTA -5’
(1) Responsible for the relationship of a cell with the (1) 5’-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAU -3’
outside world
(2) 5’- UACGUACGUACGUACGUA - 3’
(2) Composed of lipids only that are arranged in a
(3) 5’-AUGGAAGGAUGCAUGGAU - 3’
bilayer
(3) Composed of proteins only (4) 5’-UACGUACGGGAUCGAUCU -3’

(4) Variable ratios of proteins and lipids in different 105. A cell biologist found Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic
cell types reticulum are in close association w.r.t. function during
his experiment. Select the most appropriate reason
102. Which of the following codons codes for amino acid
for such association.
phenylalanine?
(1) A number of proteins are synthesized by
(1) AUG (2) UUU
ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum
(3) UGU (4) UGC
(2) Golgi apparatus principally performs the function
103. All of the following processes are performed in a
of packaging materials
template independent manner, except
(3) Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles
(1) Tailing of hnRNA
from the ER, fuse with cis face of the Golgi
(2) Capping of hnRNA apparatus and move towards maturing face
(3) RNA polymerization by a polynucleotide (4) Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near
phosphorylase, severo ochoa the nucleus with its distinct, forming and maturing
(4) Formation of hnRNA face
(10)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

106. Which of the following karyotypic condition can cause 112. Which of the following organisms exhibits mixotrophic
gynaecomastia as one of the prominent symptoms? mode of nutrition?
(1) 44 + XXY (2) 44 + XY (1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
(3) 44 + XO (4) 44 + XYY (3) Sime moulds (4) Paramoecium
107. Which of the following criteria is not used to identify 113. Coralloid roots are generally found in
any area as hotspots? (1) Sequoia (2) Pinus
(1) They are areas which show high degree of (3) Selaginella (4) Cycas
endemism
114. Read the following statements and select the
(2) They are regions of accelerated habitat loss appropriate option.
(3) They have very high level of species richness Statement A: Photorespiration results in the release
(4) They donot need urgent measures to save it from of CO2 with the utilization of ATP.
extinction Statement B: In C3 plants, RuBisCO as functions
108. Read the following statements and state true (T) or carboxylase only.
false (F) w.r.t. monocot leaf. (1) Only statement B is incorrect
A. In monocot leaf, both layers of epidermis are (2) Only statement A is incorrect
cuticularized.
(3) Both statements are correct
B. Mesophyll is always differentiated into palisade
(4) Both statements are incorrect
and spongy parenchyma.
115. Which of the following is the primary CO2 acceptor in
C. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
Sorghum?
D. Bulliform cells are found on adaxial surface.
(1) Oxaloacetic acid
A B C D
(2) RuBP
(1) T F T F
(3) Phosphoenol pyruvate
(2) T F T T
(4) OAA
(3) F F T T
116. In glycolysis, which of the given steps involves ATP
(4) T F F T utilisation?
109. Which of the following events is not a consequence (1) Glucose-6-phosphate 
of biodiversity loss?
Fructose-6-phosphate
(1) Decline in plant production
(2) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 
(2) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations
1,3, bisphosphoglyceric acid
(3) Increase in primary productivity of plants
(4) Increased variability in pest and disease cycles (3) Glucose-6-phosphate 
110. Select the incorrect match from the following options. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(1) Butyric acid – bacterial product (4) 1,3, bisphosphoglyceric acid 
(2) Ethanol – fungal product 3-phosphoglyceric acid
(3) Streptokinase – bacterial product 117. Which of the given population interactions is incorrect
(4) Cyclosporin A – bacterial product w.r.t. mutualism?
111. Occurrence of more than one embryo within a seed (1) Lichens
cannot be observed in (2) Mycorrhizae
(1) Citrus (2) Optuntia (3) Fig and wasp
(3) Banana (4) Mango (4) Cuscuta on hedge plants
(11)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

118. Which of the following disease is not caused by 124. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct
Prions? option.

(1) Potato spindle tuber disease Column I Column II

(2) Cr-Jacob disease A. Leptotene (i) Synapsis

B. Zygotene (ii) Crossing over
(3) Mad cow disease
C. Pachytene (iii) Dissolution of
(4) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
synptonemal complex
119. A child has heterozygous allele for blood group A.
D. Diplotene (iv) Beginning of
What can be the possible interpretation(s) w.r.t. blood
condensation and
group of his/her parents?
coiling of chromatin
A. Both the parents have same genotype lA lo and lA fibres
l°
A B C D
B. Both the parents are of blood group O
(1) (iii) (iv) (iii) (i)
C. One of the parent may have blood group AB while (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
other have blood O. (3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(1) Only B (2) Only A and C (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) Only B and C (4) Only A 125. Select the correct order in which the following steps
of DNA fingerprinting are performed.
120. Cells that do not divide further exit G1 phase to enter
a. Detection of hybridized DNA by autoradiography.
an inactive stage called
b. Blotting of separated DNA fragments.
(1) M phase (2) G0 phase
c. Digestion of DNA by Restriction Endonuclease.
(3) G2 phase (4) S phase d. Isolation of DNA
121. Which of the given factors is/are most important e. Separation of DNA by electrophoresis.
climatic factors that regulate decomposition? f. Hybridization using VNTR probe.
(1) d  c  e  b  f  a
(1) Detritus rich in lignin
(2) a  d  b  e  c  f
(2) Detritus rich in phenolics (3) b  e  c  f  a  d
(3) Temperature only (4) c  f  d  a  b  e
126. Read the following statements and state true (T) or
(4) Both moisture and temperature
false (F) w.r.t. chromosomal disorders.
122. All of the following tissue forms periderm, except A. Rudimentary ovaries can be observed in individuals
suffering from Turner’s syndrome.
(1) Secondary xylem (2) Cork cambium
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a result of trisomy.
(3) Cork (4) Secondary cortex C. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell
123. W hich of the f ollowing f eature is unique to division results in the gain or loss of a single
chromosome results in polyploidy.
angiosperms?
D. Individuals afflicted with Turner’s syndrome
(1) Double fertilization exhibits many loops on finger tips.
(2) Presence of differentiated body E. Significant development of breasts is found in
individuals afflicted with Turner’s syndrome
(3) Presence of diplontic life cycle A B C D E
(4) Presence of seeds (1) F F F F T
(2) T T F F F
(3) T F T F T
(4) F T T T T
(12)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

127. If a certain mutation makes the lac y gene non- (3) Oxidise nitrites and use the released energy for
functional, which of the following effect will be observed their food production.
in the cell present in lactose containing medium? (4) Some of them possess heterocyst
(1) Structural genes will express constitutively. 134. Read the following statements and choose the correct
(2) Breakdown of lactose will retard. option.
(3) Cell permeability towards -galactosides will Statement A: Heartwood comprises of dead
increase. elements with highly lignified walls.
(4) Cell will show enhanced levels of transacetylase. Statement B: The peripheral region of the secondary
128. Which of the following reactions is catalyzed by xylem is involved in the conduction of water.
ribozyme in translation? (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Peptide bond formation (2) Only statement A is incorrect
(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA (3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(3) Binding of smaller subunit of ribosome to mRNA (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Movement of ribosome along the length of mRNA 135. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the
129. W hich of the following structures is a primary primary CO2 fixation in mesophyll cells of C4 plants?
constriction of chromosome? (1) RuBisCO
(1) Kinetochore (2) Centromere (2) Hexokinase
(3) Satellite (4) Nucleosome (3) PEPcase
130. Select the odd one out w.r.t. chloroplast. (4) Malate dehydrogenase
(1) Inner membrane is relatively less permeable. SECTION - B
(2) Stroma contains enzyme required for the 136. If a colour-blind male marries a female who is
synthesis of carbohydrates and proteins,. heterozygous for normal colour vision, the probability
of their son being colour-blind is
(3) Chlorophyll pigments are present in stroma.
(4) Flat membranous tubules connect the thylakoids 1
(1) 0 (2)
of different grana. 2

131. In which of the given plants, double fixation of CO2 1 3

(3) (4)
occurs? 4 4
(1) Rice (2) Potato 137. What will be the value of RQ if tripalmitin and fructose
are the respiratory substrates, respectively?
(3) Sorghum (3) Wheat
(1) 0.9 and 0.7 (2) 0.7 and 1
132. Select the incorrect match
(3) 1 and 1.13 (4) 0 and infinite
(1) G1 phase – Continuous growth of cell 138. W hich of the following plants is a member of
(2) G2 phase – Centriole duplication Lycopsida?
(1) Dryopteris (2) Selaginella
(3) S phase – DNA duplication
(3) Pteris (4) Adiantum
(4) G0 phase – Metabolically active stage
139. Select the correct match w.r.t. ‘aestivation’ of petals.
133. Which of the following features is not associated with
(1) Valvate – Pea
cyanobacteria?
(2) Twisted – Cassia
(1) Form blooms in polluted water.
(3) Imbricate – Cotton
(2) Colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous (4) Vexillary – Bean
sheath.

(13)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

140. The number of individuals of population who left the 146. A protozoan which is endoparasite and does not have
habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period locomotory structure is
under consideration refer to
(1) Trypanosoma
(1) Immigration (2) Emigration
(2) Paramoecium
(3) Natality (4) Mortality
(3) Plasmodium
141. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘bacterial
transcription’. (4) Amoeba
(1) mRNA does not require any processing to become 147. How many cells are found in a mature angiosperm
active embryo sac?
(2) Transcription and translation takes place in same (1) 8 (2) 10
compartment as there is no separation of cytosol
and nucleus (3) 7 (4) 5

(3) Translation begins only after the m-RNA is fully 148. Biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis directly depends
transcribed on
(4) Transcription and translation can be coupled in (1) Presence of light
bacteria
(2) Assimilatory power produced during light reaction
142. Which of the following is not found in/on stroma
lamellae? (3) Splitting of water

(1) NADP reductase (2) PS I (4) Diffusion of O2 out of chloroplasts

(3) Electron acceptor (4) P700 149. Coenocytic hypha is found in which fungi?
143. Which of the following fungal class is known as (1) Mucor (2) Penicillium
imperfect fungi?
(3) Agaricus (4) Trichoderma
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
150. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. features of human
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes genome project.
144. The bioactive element that has been commercialised (1) The functions are unknown for over 50 percent of
as blood cholesterol lowering agent is produced by the discovered genes
(1) Monascus purpureus
(2) Chromosome 1 has fewest genes while the Y has
(2) Trichoderma polysporum most genes
(3) Streptococcus (3) Less than 2 percent genome codes for protein
(4) Aspergillus niger (4) The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes
145. Arrange the following categories in ascending order vary greatly, with largest known human gene being
w.r.t. classification of Mango. dystrophin at 2.4 million bases

A  Dicot yledonae,B  Anacardiaceae

C  Spindales,D  Angiospermae

(1) B  C  D  A (2) B  C  A  D
(3) A  B  C  D (4) D  C  B  A

(14)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 159. In the diagram given below, A and B respectively
represent binding sites for
151. Bones differ from cartilage as the former lacks
(1) Pliable matrix (2) Lacunae
(3) Calcium salts (4) Collagen fibres
152. An exclusive feature of neurons is the presence of
(1) Nucleus (2) Nissl’s granules
(3) Cell membrane (4) Cytoplasm (1) Myosin, actin (2) Actin, ATP
153. Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the (3) ATP, myosin (4) Tropomyosin, actin
addition of
160. Match Column - l and Column - ll w.r.t. animals and
(1) Chilled ethanol (2) Heated methanol their respective taxa.
(3) Chilled acetone (4) Heated propanol Column-1 Column-ll
154. Match Column I and II w.r.t. secondary metabolites. a. Bombyx (i) Aschelminthes
Column-I Column-II b. Ancylostoma (ii) Cnidaria
a. Polymeric substance (i) Cellulose c. Gorgonia (iii) Urochordata
b. Alkaloid (ii) Curcumin d. Ascidia (iv) Cephalochordata
c. Drug (iii) Codeine (v) Arthropoda
d. Lectin (iv) Carotenoids Choose the correct option:-
(v) Concanavalin A (1) a(ii), b(v), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(v), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Choose the correct option. (3) a(v), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(v)
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v) 161. Choose the incorrect statement.
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(v) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(v) (1) Inhibin is secreted by sustentacular cells in the
155. Inspiration occurs when testis and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
(1) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases (2) LH triggers the secretion of testosterone from
interstitial cells of Leydig.
(2) Volume of pulmonary cavity increases
(3) Menstruation in human females occurs due to
(3) Pressure within pulmonary cavity increases surge in FSH.
(4) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax (4) The anterior lobe of pituitary secretes FSH which
156. Choose the odd one w.r.t. factors favourable for the causes growth of ovarian follicles.
association of O2 and Hb. 162. Flame cells are excretory structures in
(1) Less H+ ion concentration (1) Annelids (2) Platyhelminthes
(2) Low pC02 (3) Molluscs (4) Hemichordates
(3) Low temperature 163. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(4) Low pH immunoglobulins.
157. The blood vessel that would normally contain least (1) IgA is mainly present in colostrum.
amount of urea is (2) IgE is involved in allergic reaction.
(1) Hepatic vein (2) Renal artery (3) IgG from mother to foetus is mainly responsible
(3) Hepatic artery (4) Renal vein for natural active immunity.
158. Excretion in prawns occurs through (4) Some immunoglobulins can cross the placenta
and provide immunity to the foetus.
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Green glands
(3) Nephridia (4) Kidneys

(15)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

164. Read the following statements 171. Corn borer infection in crops can be kept at bay by
making the transgenic plant express the gene
A : Zona pellucida is a non-cellular layer secreted by
the secondary oocyte around itself. (1) cryIAc (2) cryllAb
B : Zona pellucida usually remains intact until the (3) crylAb (4) Lac Z
embryo reaches the uterus. 172. Nematode specific genes are introduced into the host
Choose the correct option. plants by using disarmed_______vectors.

(1) Only A is correct Select the option that correctly fills the blank.

(2) Only B is correct (1) Bacteriophage (2) Retrovirus

(3) Both A and B are incorrect (3) Agrobacterium (4) pBR322

173. If a human female has a 28 day menstrual cycle, then
(4) Both A and B are correct
the highest level of estrogen will be seen during which
165. Golden rice has been developed to cure the disorder period among the following?
caused due to the deficiency of vitamin
(1) Day 5 to Day 9 (2) Day 12 to Day 14
(1) E (2) A (3) Day 17 to Day 19 (4) Day 3 to Day 7
(3) C (4) B 174. Simple squamous epithelium present in the
166. According to Charles Darwin, all of the following can endothelium of blood vessels is also present in the
cause evolution, except lining of
(1) Natural selection (2) Saltation (1) PCT of nephrons

(3) Branching descent (4) Variations (2) Air sacs of lungs

167. Match column-l with column-ll and select the correct (3) Small intestine
option. (4) Ducts of salivary glands
Column-l Column-ll 175. Identify the disorder which is characterised by difficulty
in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of
a. Spermicidal foams (i) Non-steroidal pill
bronchi.
b. LNG-20 (ii) Used along with (1) Emphysema (2) Pneumonia
vaults
(3) Asthma (4) Silicosis
c. Saheli (iii) Makes cervix
hostile to sperms 176. Choose the odd one w.r.t. diseases that spread
through contaminated food and water.
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Ascariasis
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(3) Filariasis (4) Typhoid
168. An addictive compound obtained from Cannabis sativa
177. In human female all of the given structures are paired,
which is known to affect cardiovascular system is
except
(1) Heroin (2) Hashish
(1) Labia minora (2) Clitoris
(3) Cocaine (4) Caffeine (3) Fallopian tube (4) Labia majora
169. Select the pair of hormones that are not antagonistic 178. In continuous culture system, the used medium is
to each other. drained out from one side while fresh medium is added
(1) Aldosterone and vasopressin from the other side, to maintain the cells in
(2) Glucagon and insulin (1) Exponential phase (2) Lag phase

(3) Calcitonin and parathormone (3) Decline phase (4) Stationary phase

(4) ANF and Angiotensin 179. How many groups of the animals given in the box
below are uricotelic in nature?
170. A plasmid can be all, except
Reptiles, Birds, Cartilaginous fishes, Mammals,
(1) Circular
Aquatic insects, Hydra, Land snails
(2) Double stranded
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) Devoid of histones
(3) 5 (4) 6
(4) Chromosomal DNA

(16)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

180. Compound epithelium is present in the inner lining of 188. About 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body is con-
tributed by
(1) Pancreatic ducts (2) Small intestine
(1) Spleen (2) Thymus
(3) Stomach (4) PCT
(3) MALT (4) Lymph nodes
181. Identify the non-polymeric substance.
189. The stained DNA can be extracted from agarose gel
(1) Proteins (2) Nucleic acids
by the process called
(3) Palmitic acid (4) Polysaccharides
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Elution
182. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones can lead to
(3) Fingerprinting (4) Transformation
(1) Acromegaly (2) Graves’ disease
190. The production of both sense and antisense RNA in
(3) Simple goitre (4) Cretinism host cells leads to mRNA silencing. This technique
has been used to control nematode infection in
183. Which of the following is not the correct expression
for respiratory volumes and capacities? (1) Stem of tobacco plant
(1) VC = IC + ERV (2) FRC = ERV + RV (2) Seeds of cotton plant
(3) TLC = IC + VC (4) EC = TV + ERV (3) Roots of tobacco plant
184. Deposition of calcium, fats and cholesterol leading to (4) Stem of cotton plant
narrowing of lumen of coronary arteries is termed as
191. All of the following are inserted into the female
(1) Angina (3) Atherosclerosis reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus,
except
(2) Heart failure (4) Hypertension
(1) Diaphragms (2) Vaults
185. All of the following are bacterial STIs, except
(1) Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea (3) Cervical cap (4) Lippes Loop

(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Genital herpes 192. Choose the incorrect match.
Eyes of Octopus and Convergent
SECTION - B (1) mammals Evolution
186. Aldosterone is secreted by A in response to B blood Bones of forelimbs of Divergent
pressure, causes C of D from E .
(2) vertebrates evolution
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly. Flipper of Penguin and Homologous
(3) Dolphin organs
A b C D E Heart of bat, man and Homology
(4) Cheetah
Adrenal +
(1) High Secretion K PCT
medulla 193. Choose the marine fish among the following.
Pituitary + (1) Hilsa (2) Catla
(2) Low Reabsorption K DCT
gland (3) Labeo (4) Rohu
Adrenal +
(3) High Secretion Na PCT 194. If a gene of interest is inserted within the coding
cortex sequence of the enzyme (-galactosidase, the
Adrenal recombinants will appear in which colour in the
(4) Low Reabsorption Na+ DCT
cortex presence of chromogenic substrate?
187. Which of the following segments allows passage of (1) Blue (2) Red
small amounts of urea into medullary interstitium to (3) Green (4) White
keep up the osmolarity?
195. All of the following involve in vitro fertilisation, except
(1) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT
(2) Collecting duct
(3) IUT (4) ICSI
(3) Thin segment of ascending limb
(4) Distal convoluted tubule

(17)
 Sample Paper for NEET-2024

196. Match column I with column II and select the correct 198. The type of joint present between temporal bone and
option. occipital bone is also present between
Column I Column II (1) Atlas and axis

a. Ascariasis (i) Haemophilus (2) Carpal and metacarpal

influenzae (3) Humerus and pectoral girdle
b. Filariasis (ii) Wuchereria (4) Parietal bone and frontal bone
c. Ringworm (iii) Roundworm 199. Assertion (A): If the head of a cockroach is cut off, it
will still live for as long as one week.
d. Pneumonia (iv) Trichophyton
Reason (R): The head region is supplied by
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) suboesophageal ganglion and rest of the body is
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) supplied by supraoesophageal ganglion.

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) In the light of above statements select the correct
option.
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
197. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. human explanation of (A)
evolution. (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
(1) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult explanation of (A)
chimpanzee skull than adult human skull. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) The story of evolution of modern man appears to (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
be parallel evolution of human brain and language.
200. Arrange the below given ancestors of man in
(3) Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and decreasing order of their cranial capacities.
human settlements started.
a. Homo habilis b. Homo erectus
(4) Ramapit hecus was more man-like while c. Neanderthal man d. Cro-magnon man
Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
Choose the correct option.
(1) d > c > b > a (2) c > d > b >a
(3) a > b > d > c (4) b > a > d > c



(18)
Sample Paper for NEET-2024

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Phone : 011-47623456  Fax : 011-47623472

Sample Paper for NEET - 2024

ANSWERS
1. (4) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (4) 161. (3)
2. (2) 42. (3) 82. (3) 122. (1) 162. (2)
3. (3) 43. (4) 83. (1) 123. (1) 163. (3)
4. (4) 44. (2) 84. (3) 124. (4) 164. (4)
5. (3) 45. (4) 85. (4) 125. (1) 165. (2)
6. (1) 46. (2) 86. (3) 126. (2) 166. (2)
7. (3) 47. (2) 87. (3) 127. (2) 167. (1)
8. (3) 48. (1) 88. (4) 128. (1) 168. (2)
9. (3) 49. (4) 89. (2) 129. (2) 169. (1)
10. (4) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (3) 170. (4)
11. (4) 51. (3) 91. (3) 131. (3) 171. (3)
12. (4) 52. (4) 92. (4) 132. (2) 172. (3)
13. (2) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (3) 173. (2)
14. (1) 54. (2) 94. (3) 134. (3) 174. (2)
15. (2) 55. (3) 95. (1) 135. (3) 175. (3)
16. (2) 56. (2) 96. (4) 136. (2) 176. (3)
17. (4) 57. (1) 97. (1) 137. (2) 177. (2)
18. (3) 58. (1) 98. (4) 138. (2) 178. (1)
19. (2) 59. (1) 99. (1) 139. (4) 179. (1)
20. (1) 60. (4) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (1)
21. (4) 61. (4) 101. (1) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (3) 62. (4) 102. (2) 142. (1) 182. (2)
23. (2) 63. (1) 103. (4) 143. (2) 183. (3)
24. (1) 64. (4) 104. (1) 144. (1) 184. (3)
25. (3) 65. (4) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (4)
26. (4) 66. (3) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186. (4)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (4) 147. (3) 187. (2)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (3)
29. (3) 69. (2) 109. (3) 149. (1) 189. (2)
30. (?) 70. (1) 110. (4) 150. (2) 190. (3)
31. (4) 71. (4) 111. (3) 151. (1) 191. (4)
32. (1) 72. (3) 112. (2) 152. (2) 192. (3)
33. (3) 73. (4) 113. (4) 153. (1) 193. (1)
34. (1) 74. (2) 114. (1) 154. (2) 194. (4)
35. (1) 75. (4) 115. (3) 155. (2) 195. (1)
36. (1) 76. (3) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (1)
37. (2) 77. (2) 117. (4) 157. (4) 197. (1)
38. (1) 78. (1) 118. (1) 158. (2) 198. (4)
39. (3) 79. (4) 119. (2) 159. (2) 199. (3)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (1)

(19)