Obstetrics Quiz 2 3.

According to the Philippine Midwifery Law, a

registered midwife is allowed to handle mothers in
- CBRC Midwifery labor and delivery with the following considerations:

1.The mean duration of normal pregnancy from the 1. The pregnancy is normal.;
first day of the last normal menstrual gestational
age? 2. The labor and delivery is uncomplicated;

A. 250 days 3. Suturing of perineal laceration is allowed provided

the midwife has special training;
B. 270 days
4. As a delivery room midwife she is not allowed to
C. 260 days insert intravenous fluid unless she has special
training for it.
D. 280 days
A. 1 and 2
Feedback:
B. 1, 2, and 3
This duration is equivalent to approximately 40
weeks. The calculation is based on a typical C. 3 and 4
gestational period of 280 days, which is used to
define a full-term pregnancy. D. 1, 2, and 4

2. Postpartum blues is said to be normal provided 4. Inability to recognize the danger signs of
that the following characteristics are present. These pregnancy will result in:
are
A. delay in seeking care
1. Within 3-10 days only;
Feedback:
2. The woman exhibits the following symptoms-
episodic tearfulness, fatigue, If pregnant individuals or their support systems do
not recognize the warning signs of complications,
oversensitivity, poor appetite; they may not seek timely medical attention. This
delay can lead to worsening of the condition and
3. Maybe more severe symptoms in primipara increased risks for both the mother and the baby.

A. All of the above B. delay in reaching an appropriate health facility

B. 1 and 2 C. delay in receiving appropriate care in a health
facility
Feedback:
D. delay in recovery
Within 3-10 days only: Postpartum blues typically
occur within the first few days to 1-2 weeks after 5. The temperature elevation seen just before or
childbirth and usually resolve within this time frame. during ovulation is primarily caused.
This transient nature is a key feature of postpartum
blues. The woman exhibits the following symptoms A. intraperitoneal irritation from the released ovum
—episodic tearfulness, fatigue, oversensitivity, poor
appetite: These symptoms are common in B. a thermogenic effect of FSH
postpartum blues and are generally mild and
temporary. C. a thermogenic effect of progesterone

C. 2 only D. a thermogenic effect of estrogen e. a sympathetic

neutral response to ovum release
D. 2 and 3
6.Which of the following statements about B. A condition for which there is no restriction for the
inflammation of the Bartholin’s gland is correct? use of the contraceptive method

A. an abscess may result in a puerperial infection C. A condition where the theoretical or proven risks
usually outweigh the advantages of using the
B. drainage should be accomplished at the time of method
delivery
Feedback:
C. the principal organism found in Bartholin gland
abscesses is Neisseria gonorrhea This category implies that while the method may be
used, it requires careful consideration and often
D. oral antibiotics may be as effective as drainage of additional monitoring due to the potential risks
an abscess involved.

7.Spinnabarkeit is an indicator of ovulation which is D. A condition where the advantages of using the
characterized as: method generally outweigh the theoretical or proven
risks.
A. Thin watery mucus that can be stretched into a
long strand about 10 cm 10. Effleurage a technique used to displace pain, is
described as
Feedback:
A. Light abdominal massage
Spinnbarkeit refers to the stretchiness and
consistency of cervical mucus. During the fertile Feedback:
period, which occurs around ovulation, cervical
mucus becomes more elastic, clear, and stretchy, Effleurage involves gentle, gliding strokes typically
resembling egg whites. This type of mucus can applied to the skin with the hands. In the context of
stretch into long strands, which helps facilitate sperm labor and childbirth, effleurage is used as a form of
movement through the cervical canal. massage to help reduce pain and discomfort. It can
promote relaxation and provide a soothing effect,
B. Thick mucus that is detached from the cervix often used in combination with other techniques to
during ovulation manage pain and support the laboring individual.

C. Thin mucus that is yellowish with a fishy odor B. Focusing on an object to block sensory input

D. Thick mucus vaginal discharge influenced by a C. The prophylaxis method

high level of estrogen
D. The psychosexual method
8.After delivery, which of the following portions of
the decidua remains to give rise to the new 11. The role of the fetus in pregnancy is that of a
endometrium?
A. More or less passive passenger
A. decidua parietalis
B. Symbion
B. decidua capsularis
C. Dynamic force, producing bioactive agents
C. decidua vera essential to pregnancy

D. decidua basalis D. Producer of progesteron

9.Category 3 of the Medical Eligibility Criteria for Use 12. The following are important considerations to
of Contraceptive Devices, Medications, and teach the woman who is on low-dose (mini-pill) oral
Techniques is? contraceptive EXCEPT:

A. A condition that represents an unacceptable A. The pill must be taken every day at the same time
health risk if the contraceptive method is used
B. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she 16. The IUD is not recommended for women who:
must take 2 pills for added protection
A. all of these
C. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she
needs to take another temporary method until she Feedback:
has consumed the whole pack
In general, the IUD is a highly effective form of
D. If she is breastfeeding, she should discontinue contraception but requires careful consideration of
using mini-pill and use the progestin-only type. individual health and circumstances. Always consult
with a healthcare provider to determine the most
13. During pregnancy, which portion of the uterus appropriate contraceptive method based on
from the lower uterine segment? personal health and lifestyle.

A. external cervical os B. are pregnant

B. Fundus C. have never had children

C. isthmus D. have multiple sexual partners

D. Cornus 17. When the uterus is firm and contracted after

delivery but there is vaginal bleeding, the midwife
14. The following are interventions to make the should suspect
fundus contract postpartally EXCEPT
A. Laceration of soft tissues of the cervix and vagina
A. Make the baby suck the breast regularly
Feedback:
B. Apply an ice cap on the fundus
If the uterus is firm and contracted, uterine atony (a
C. Massage the fundus vigorously for 15 minutes lack of uterine tone) is unlikely. In this case,
until contracted persistent vaginal bleeding despite a firm uterus
suggests that there might be lacerations or tears in
D. Give oxytocin as ordered the cervix or vaginal walls, which can lead to
significant bleeding.
15. In sympto-thermal method, the parameters
being monitored to determine if the woman is fertile B. Uterine atony
or infertile are:
C. Uterine inversion
A. Temperature, cervical mucus, cervical consistency
D. Uterine hypercontractility
Feedback:
18. The identification of which of the following in
Temperature: Basal body temperature (BBT) is amniotic fluid suggests that respiratory distress
measured daily. A rise in temperature indicates that syndrome is less likely to develop.
ovulation has occurred. Cervical mucus: The
consistency and amount of cervical mucus are A. Phosphatidylglycerol
monitored. Fertile mucus is typically clear, slippery,
and stretchy, similar to egg whites, indicating the B. Sphingomyelin
fertile window. Cervical consistency: The texture and
position of the cervix are observed. During the fertile C. Lecithin
period, the cervix is often higher, softer, and more
open. D. Phosphatidylinositol

B. Release of ovum, temperature, and vagina 19. An absolute contraindication to breastfeeding is:

C. Temperature and wetness A. psychotic mother

B. an unconscious morbid mother A. immaturity
C. pregnancy of the mother B. infection
D. mother suffering from leprosy Feedback:
20. The following are nursing interventions to relieve Premature infants are at a higher risk for
episiotomy wound pain EXCEPT
infections due to their underdeveloped immune
A. Giving analgesic as ordered systems and other physiological challenges.
Infection can lead to serious complications and
B. Sitz bath is a leading cause of mortality among preterm
infants.
C. Perineal heat
C. birth injury D. shivering
Feedback:

Applying heat directly to the perineal area is typically 4. A practical guide that can be used when
not recommended for episiotomy pain as it can determining the amount of formula milk to be
potentially increase swelling and discomfort. Instead, given per feeding is:
cold packs or ice are usually suggested to reduce
swelling and numb the area. A. age in months multiplied by 2 B. age in
months +2 C. age in months divided by 2
D. Perineal care
5. Lanugo is found in almost all parts of NB’s
body. Your correct assessment of this condition
is the baby is:

A. premature B. postmature C. full term D.

Aborted

6. A NB who has a unilateral cleft-lip most likely

unable to:

A. swallow C. breath D. salivate

B. suck

Infant Care & Feeding Quiz 2 Feedback:

- CBRC Midwifery A unilateral cleft lip can affect the infant's ability
to create a proper seal around the nipple or
1. Breastmilk contains more digestible proteins bottle, which is necessary for effective sucking.
called: This can lead to difficulties with feeding, as the
baby may have trouble generating enough
A. lactalbumin B. casein C. albumin D. suction to draw milk.
taurine
7. The ff provides the infant with passive
2. When the baby is crying vigorously and is immunity:
pink all over, the APGAR score is:
A. colostrum
A. 10 B. 9 C. 8 D. 5
Feedback:
3. Main cause of death of premature infant is:
Colostrum is the first milk produced by the D. expose to air
mother after childbirth. It is rich in antibodies,
particularly immunoglobulin A (IgA), which Feedback:
provides passive immunity to the infant by
Allowing the cord stump to be exposed to air
transferring maternal antibodies to help protect
helps it dry out naturally. Proper exposure to air
the baby from infections.
promotes the drying process and reduces the
B. polio vaccine C. BCG D. measles vaccine risk of infection.

8.The Umbilical cord is normally expected to fall 13. Desquamation in neonate is considered
off for how many days? normal if it is occur at what age?

A. 3 days B. 7 days C. 12 days D. 5 days A. 1st-week

B. 2nd to 4th-week

9.Infants begin to have social smile at what Feedback:

age?
It is common for newborns to experience
A. 2 weeks B. 4 weeks C. 8 weeks D. peeling of the skin, particularly in the first few
16 weeks weeks after birth. Desquamation is usually
observed between the second and fourth weeks
10.Infancy is a period characterized by: of life as the baby's skin adjusts to the new
environment outside the womb.
A. rapid growth and development B. period of
developing initiative in the child 14. When doing the initial cord dressing, the
MW inspected the cord for its blood vessels.
C. period of developing autonomy D. You should expect to find that:
developing trust
A. there are 2 blood vessels, 1 artery and 1 vein
11. When you did the initial cord dressing, you
observed a jelly–like substance in the umbilical B. there are 3 blood vessels, 2 arteries and 1
cord, this is called: vein

A. KY jelly B. petroleum jelly Feedback:

C. wharton’s jelly D. vernix caseosa The umbilical cord typically contains two
umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein. The
Feedback: two arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the
fetus to the placenta, while the vein carries
Wharton's jelly is a gelatinous substance found
oxygenated blood from the placenta to the
in the umbilical cord. It helps protect the blood
fetus.
vessels within the cord and provides cushioning
to prevent compression and injury. C. there are 3 blood vessels, only one of which
is a vein
12. If the cord stump is moist, the MW can do
which of the ff to hasten drying of the stump: 15. An inexpensive and effective method of
relieving itchiness in prickly heat among babies
A. paint the stump with 40% alcohol B.
is by applying.
lace and aid over stump C. paint the stump
with betadine A. baby oil B. corn starch C. alcohol
D. cologne
16. A reflex elicited by a loud sound: A. iron C. fluoride D. magnesium

A. Moro B. yawn C. grasp D. sucking B. calcium

Feedback: Feedback:

The Moro reflex, also known as the startle Calcium is crucial for the development of strong
reflex, is characterized by the infant's response bones and teeth in infants. It plays a vital role in
to a loud sound or sudden movement. The bone mineralization and overall skeletal health.
typical reaction involves the baby extending
their arms and legs, then quickly bringing them
back in towards the body, often accompanied
by crying.

17.The stool of a breastfeed baby will appear to

be:

A. mushy and golden yellow B. well formed

and watery yellow
Primary Health Care Quiz 2
C. well formed and light yellow D. hard and
dark yellow - CBRC Midwifery

18. The primary considerations to be followed 1. Source of infection of measles is secretion of

when selecting a toy for an infant is: the nose and throat of the infected person.
Filterable virus of measles is transmitted by:
A. safety B. attractiveness C. beauty D.
size A. Water supply C. Food ingestion

Feedback: B. Droplet D. Sexual contact

Safety is the most critical factor because infants Feedback:

are highly curious and tend to put objects in
their mouths. Toys should be free from small Measles is primarily spread through respiratory
parts that could be choking hazards, made from droplets when an infected person coughs or
non-toxic materials, and constructed without sneezes. The virus can also spread by direct
sharp edges or parts that could break off and contact with nasal or throat secretions of an
pose a danger. infected person. It is not typically transmitted
through water, food, or sexual contact.
19. When assessing a male NB the genitals are
inspected to check if there is cryptorchidism 2.Which of the following is not a primary
which means that: strategy to achieve health goals:

A. testes are descended B. testes have not A. Support of local health system development
descended into the aortal sac
B. Development of national standards for health
C. testes are within the scrotal sac D. No
C. Assurance of health care for all
testes at all
D. None of the above
20. The essential mineral needed by an infant in
his diet to make his bones and teeth strong is: Feedback:
All of the listed strategies—supporting local D. The Family
health system development, developing
national standards for health, and ensuring Feedback:
health care for all—are considered primary Midwives often focus on providing services to
strategies for achieving health goals. They are families within the community. This approach
essential components of comprehensive health allows them to address the health needs of
planning and implementation to improve health individuals while considering the family unit's
outcomes. overall well-being, including.
3.Which of the following is the primary focus of 6.The following are mission of the DOH except:
community midwifery practice?
A. Ensure accessibility
A. Cure of illnesses B. Prevention of illness
B. .Quality of healthcare
C. Rehabilitation back to health
C. Health for all Filipinos
D. Promotion of health
D. Quality of Life of all Filipinos
Feedback:
7.The basic principles to achieve improvement in
Community midwifery primarily emphasizes health include all BUT:
health promotion and preventive care. While
curing illnesses, preventing illness, and A. Universal access to basic health services must
rehabilitation are important aspects of healthcare, be ensured
community midwifery focuses on promoting
overall health and well-being, educating B. The health and nutrition of vulnerable groups
individuals and families, and implementing must be prioritized
preventive measures to reduce health risks.
C. Performance of the health sector must be
4.The correct temperature to store vaccines in a enhanced
refrigerator is:
Feedback:
A. between -4 deg C and +8 deg C
Enhancing sector performance is often considered
B. between 2 deg C and +8 deg C a means to achieve these goals rather than a
fundamental principle itself.
Feedback:
D. Support the frontline workers and the local
This range ensures that vaccines remain effective health system
and safe for use. Vaccines should not be frozen, so
temperatures outside this range, especially those 8.The midwife explains to a breastfeeding mother
below 0°C, are to be avoided. that breast milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s
nutrient needs only up to:
C. between -8 deg C and 0 deg C
A. 5 months C. 1 year
5.In community, which of the following is our unit
of service as a midwife? B. 6 months D. 2 years

A. The Community Feedback:

B. The Extended Members of every family Breast milk provides all the essential nutrients and
energy a baby needs for the first 6 months of life.
C. The individual members of the Barangay After 6 months, complementary foods should be
introduced while continuing breastfeeding to Feedback: Core group formation involves
meet the growing nutritional needs of the baby. identifying and training key individuals who can
lead and facilitate community efforts. This step is
9.Midwife Ron is aware that unused BCG should crucial for building a strong leadership foundation
be discarded after how many hours of within the community to support and drive
reconstitution? community organizing activities effectively.
A. 2 hours C. 8 hours 13. Beth, a midwife, takes an active role in
community participation. What is the primary goal
B. 4 hours D. At the end of the day
of community organizing?
Feedback:
A. To educate the people regarding community
After reconstitution, the BCG vaccine should be health problems
used within 4 hours to ensure its effectiveness
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community
and to prevent any potential loss of potency.
health problems
10. Midwife Tina is aware that the disease
C. To maximize the community’s resources in
declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4
dealing with health problems.
as a target for eradication in the Philippines is?
D. To maximize the community’s resources in
A. Poliomyelitis C. Rabies
dealing with health problems.
B. Measles D. Neonatal tetanus
14. The WHO held a meeting in this place where
Feedback: Primary Health Care was discussed. What is this
place?
Presidential Proclamation No. 4, signed in 1998,
declared measles as a target for eradication in the A. Alma Ata B. Russia
Philippines. This proclamation aimed to enhance
C. Vienna D. Geneva
efforts to eliminate measles through
comprehensive immunization programs and 15. When the midwife determines whether
public health initiatives. resources were maximized in implementing Ligtas
Tigdas, she is evaluating:
11. As a public midwife, you teach mother and
family members the prevention of complications A. Effectiveness C. Adequacy
of measles. Which of the following should be
closely watched? B. Efficiency D. Appropriateness

A. The temperature fails to drop. Feedback:

B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva. Efficiency refers to the ability to achieve desired

outcomes using the least amount of resources. In
C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx. the context of Ligtas Tigdas, a program aimed at
measles immunization, evaluating efficiency
12. May knows that the step-in community
involves assessing whether the resources (such as
organizing that involves training of potential
time, money, and personnel) were used
leaders in the community is:
effectively to achieve the program's goals.
A. Integration B. Community organization
16. According to Freeman and Heinrich,
D. Core group formation C. Community study community health is a developmental service.
Which of the following best illustrates this
statement?
A. The community midwife continuously develops Measles vaccine and MMR (Measles, Mumps, and
herself personally and professionally. Rubella) vaccine are typically stored in the freezer
to preserve their effectiveness.

C. Measles vaccine D. MMR

B. Health education and community organizing
are necessary in providing community health 20. Local health boards were established at the
services. provincial, city and municipal levels. At the
municipal level, the chairman of the board is the:
C. Community health is intended primarily for
health promotion and prevention and treatment A. Rural Health physician B. Governor
of disease.
C. Mayor
D. The goal of community health is to provide
health services to people in their own places of D. Chairman of the Committee on Health
residence.

17. The student midwife is aware that the

pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot
and you may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the:

A. Nasal mucosa C. Skin on the abdomen

B. Buccal mucosa D. Skin on neck

Feedback:

Koplik’s spots appear as small, white or bluish-

white spots with a red halo and are typically
located on the buccal mucosa (the inner lining of
the cheeks), especially opposite the molar teeth.
They are a distinctive early sign of measles.

18. Myrna, a public midwife, will conduct

outreach immunization in a Barangay Masaya with
a population of about 1500. The estimated
number of infants in the barangay would be:

A. 45 infants B. 50 infants

C. 55 infants D. 65 infants

19. The midwife is aware that the biological used

in the Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI)
should NOT be stored in the freezer?

A. DPT B. Oral polio vaccine

Feedback:

The DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus)

vaccine should be stored in the refrigerator, not
the freezer, to maintain its potency. Freezing can
damage the vaccine and make it less effective. The
Professional Growth & Development Quiz 6.A registered midwife was found guilty of a
CBRC Midwifery violation of RA 6425 and was sentenced with
life imprisonment. The R.M committed a:
1.The legal basis for celebrating the Midwifery
Week every third week of October in A. Light felony B. Less grave felony
proclamation
C. Grave felony D. Heinous crime
A. 949 B. 118 C. 539 D. 1275
Feedback:
2.The application of ethics refers to
Grave felonies are serious crimes that carry
A. Character B. Conscience severe penalties. The severe nature of drug-
related offenses under RA 6425 aligns with this
C. Moral classification.
Feedback: 7. A midwife requests the companion of the
patient who sustained a third degree laceration
Ethics involves the study and application of
to stay with the patient. Meanwhile, she is
moral principles and values that guide behavior
getting medical assistance. The midwife can be
and decision-making. It concerns what is
held liable for
considered right and wrong in various
situations, and how individuals should act based A. Malpractice B. Negligence
on those principles.
C. Unethical behavior
3. Proper manners and ceremonies which result
to good social relationship is D. Dishonorable conduct

A. Ethics B. Adjustment 8.When a midwife’s behavior is in accordance

with propriety and decency of works, dress and
C. Etiquette D. Prudence conduct, she
4.The term unprofessional conducts includes A. Respect the Golden Rule
which of the following
B. Has discipline
A. Serious ignorance
C. Acts with proper decorum
B. Lack of knowledge & skills
D. Is obedient
C. Violation of Code of Ethics
9.When a midwife lacks the necessary abilities,
D. Imprudence knowledge and skills to perform her roles and
functions as a professions, she is considered to
5. Who among the following can be a member
be
of the International Confederation of
Midwives? A. Negligence
A. Members of the board and midwifery B. Irresponsible
B. National organization for midwives

C. DOH nurses C. Incompetent

D. Registered midwives Feedback:
Incompetence refers to the lack of ability, B. Exercise of political power or activism
knowledge, or skills required to perform
professional duties effectively and safely. Feedback:

10. Doing induced abortion is illegal as per the While a professional midwife should have a
law in the Philippine constitution sense of accountability, possess relevant
degrees, and adhere to ethical practices as
A. Article II-12 outlined in the Code of Ethics for midwifery,
exercising political power or activism is not a
Feedback: defining characteristic of professionalism in this
context. Professionalism in midwifery focuses
This section of the Constitution states: "The
more on the practical, ethical, and educational
State recognizes the sanctity of life and shall
aspects of the role rather than political
protect and promote the right to life of the
engagement.
unborn from conception." This provision
underscores the constitutional protection of the C. Several titles degrees appended to her name
unborn and effectively makes induced abortion
illegal except under very limited circumstances. D. Ethical practice as per Code of ethics for
midwifery
B Article III-1 C. Article III-12 D. Article III
14. IMAP must have a nomination committee to
11. The term of office of IMAP officers as per endorse applicants for the Board of Midwifery
their new by-laws is now according to this law
A. 2 years C. 4 years A. RA 7392
B. 3 years D. 1 year Feedback:
Feedback: RA 7392, also known as the Midwifery Law of
1992, outlines the governance and operational
This term length allows for continuity and
guidelines for midwifery in the Philippines,
stability within the organization while providing
including the roles of professional organizations
sufficient time for officers to implement their
like IMAP in the nomination process for the
agendas and contribute to the association’s
Board of Midwifery.
objectives.
B. RA 7164 C. EO 496 D. EO 226
12. The Code of Ethics for Midwifery does not
carry a legal force or sanction as per 15. One of the following is not qualified to be a
principal of a school of midwifery
A. Board Resolution No. 665 s. 1985
A. Registered nurse-midwife
B. Board Resolution No. 557 s. 1998
B. Obstetrician
C. Board Resolution No. 100 s. 1993
C. R.M with 2 years experience in the field of
D. Board Resolution No. 187 s. 1991
specialization
13. The following are the true characteristics of
D. R.M with master’s degree
a professional midwife, but one
16. Membership of IMAP is an ethical obligation
A. Sense of accountability
of every registered midwife. This is mentioned
under the
A. Code of ethics B. RA 7392 A. Every member who is present participated in
the deliberation
C. RA 7305 D. RA 6675
B. The agenda for the meeting has been
17. To be qualified as faculty of a school of approved
midwifery, a R.M must have
C. 50% plus one (1) of the total membership
A. 1 year of satisfactory teaching experience attended the meeting
B. 2 years of experience in the field of D. The presiding officer is with up-to-date
specialization knowledge about the organization
C. With at least 18 units of education courses

D. At least bachelor’s degree in the field of

health and social sciences

18. The government agency that gives

assistance to the overseas workers when they
decide to come back to the Philippines to serve
the Filipino people.

A. POEA

B. OWWA

Feedback:

OWWA offers various programs and services to

support returning Overseas Filipino Workers
(OFWs), including reintegration assistance,
livelihood programs, and other support services
to help them transition back to life in the
Philippines.

C. Philippine Embassy D. DFA

19. When a patient is allowed to choose the

family planning methods she wants without
compulsion is one way of respecting her right to

A. Confidentiality

B. Autonomy

C. Advocacy

D. Benefiance

20. A quorum during an association ‘s meeting

means that