MT-4

NEET MODULE TEST-4 (08-02-2024)

LTC_VAIDYAH (SET-I)
SYLLABUS
Botany : 35 questions are from: Morphology of flowering plants: up to 5.9.2 Solanaceae and 5.9.3 Liliaceae
15 questions are from: Plant Kingdom (15Q)
Zoology : 35 questions are from:: Breathing and Exchange of Gases (20Q) and Body Fluids and Circulation
(15Q): Blood - Plasma and Formed Elements, Blood Groups, Coagulation of Blood and Lymph
15 questions are from: Structural Organization in Animals (15Q)
Physics : Track1: Electromagnetic Induction (6Q) and A. C Circuits (19Q): Complete chapter

SR ELITE, AIIMS S60 & MPL

Track 2 : Track 2: EM waves (5Q) and Wave optics (20Q): Huygen's principle, coherent & non coherent
addition of waves, YDSE - applications and numerical, Diffraction-Examples, Fresnel and Fraun hopper
diffractions – concept (as per teaching schedule –up to 2-2-24)
Chemistry : 25 questions are from: Track 1: Stoichiometry: Significant figures, Accuracy, Precision, Laws of chemical
combinations, Mole concept, Empirical formula and molecular formula & Oxidation state, Redox reactions & Types of
redox reactions, Types of redox reactions & Balancing of redox reactions and applications, Equivalent weight and n factor
and Concentration methods: Molarity , Normality, Formality, molality and mole fraction.

Test Date:- 08 –02 - 2024 18 questions are from: Track2: Organic chemistry: Electron migration effects: Inductive effect,
Electromeric effect and its applications, Mesomeric effect & Resonance and its applications, Hyper conjugation , Reagents &
Reactive intermediates, Acidic character of Alcohols, Phenols and Carboxylic acids, Basic character of Amines and
aromaticity, Reaction mechanism: Elimination(E1 , E2, E1CB and Benzyne mechanism)
7 questions are from: Nomenclature of organic compounds, Structural and Stereoisomerism ,

Guidelines :
In every subject:
a) In Section-A, 35 Questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from Section-A
b) In Section-B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which answer 10 question only

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 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
BOTANY (3) Scutellum is apical in position in
SECTION-A monocot seed
01. Filaments of stamens are fused to form two (4) Coleoptile and coleorhiza are found in
bundles in the seeds of monocot and dicots
(1) Citrus (2) Pisum respectively
(3) Euphorbia (4) Hibiscus 08. In mango and coconut, fruit is
02. In which plant, lateral branches originate (1) Drupe, caryopsis
from the basal and underground portion of (2) Drupe, berry
the main stem, grow horizontally beneath (3) Berry, Berry
the soil and then come out obliquely upward (4) Drupe, drupe
giving rise to leafy shoots 09. Given figures A and B represents
(1) Oxalis (2) Strawberry respectively
(3) Eichhornia (4) Chrysanthemum
03. How many statements are incorrect ?
i) Leaves originate from intercalary
meristems
ii) Leaves are arranged acropetal order on
stem
iii) In Colocasia, storage stem acts as organ (1) Valvate aestivation, axile placentation
of perennation (2)Twisted aestivation, free central
iv) In monocots, leaf base may become placentation
swollen which is called pulvinus (3)Imbricate aestivation, parietal
v) Veins provide rigidity to leaf base placentation
(1) 2 (2) 3 (4)Vexillary aestivation, marginal
(3) 4 (4) 5 placentation
04. Epigynous flowers are found in 10. Statement I:Corolla may be bell-
(1) Guava, cucumber shaped,funnel shaped or wheel shaped
(2) Rose, ray florets of sunflower Statement II :Valvate aestivation is found in
(3) Cucumber, Hibiscus Calotropis.
(4) Mustard, guava (1)Both statements I and II are correct
05. Underground stems of some plants spread to (2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
new niches and when older parts die new (3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
plants are formed.These plants are (4) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(1) Strawberry (2) Mint 11. Select the incorrect statements; .
(3) Pistia (4) Banana i) In Mustard and Argemone ovary is one-
06. In Salvia and Mustard chambered but it becomes two chambered
(1) Stamens are attached to petals due to the formation of the false septum
(2) There is a variation in the lengths of ii) Cassia has valvate aestivation in petal
filaments of stamens within a flower iii) Sunflower has half inferior ovary in disc
(3) Monoadelphous condition of stamens in florets
iv) Flowers are arranged in basipetal order
the flower
on the floral axis in Pea
(4) Stamens show synandrous condition v) Epipetalous stamens are found in brinjal.
07. Which of the following statements is correct (1) (iii) and (iv) only
(1) In the seeds of maize, seed coat is fused (2) (iv) and (v) only
with fruit wall (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) Embryo does not include cotyledon (4) (iii), (iv) and (v)
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12. Algae with mannitol as reserve food Statement I : In conifers, the needle like
material is leaves reduce the surface area.
(1) Spirogyra (2) Ulothrix Statement II : Leaves in some
(3) Polysiphonia (4) Ectocarpus Gymnosperms are adapted to withstand
13. An edible red algae is extremes of temperature, humidity and
(1) Fucus (2) Porphyra wind.
(3) Laminaria (4) Chlorella (1) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
14. In Pinus, the haploid structure are (2) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(1) Megaspore, Endosperm and embryo (3) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(2) Megaspore, Pollen grain, archegonia (4) Both the statements I and II are correct
(3) Megaspore, integument and root 19. Which of the following crop belongs to
(4) Pollen grain, leaf and root family Malvaceae?
15. Select the odd one out with respect to (1) Sweet potato (2) Mustard
homospory (3) Niger (4) Cotton
(1) Lycopodium (2) Funaria 20. Stems are modified into flat and green
(3) Selaginella (4) Dryopteris structure in
16. Read the following five statements ( A to E) (1) Euphorbia (2) Opuntia
and select the option with all correct (3) Potato (4) Mangifera
statements. 21. Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae
(A) In all pteridophytes, gametophyte is and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens,
dependent on sporophyte pick out the characteristics specific to
(B) In bryophytes, gametophyte is family, Fabaceae but not found in
independent Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
(C) Gametophyte is multicellular in (1) Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
bryophytes (2) Monoadelphous and Monothecous
(D) Dryopteris is not heterosporous anthers
pteridophyte (3) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
(E) Selaginella is advanced among (4) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
pteridophytes as it produces seeds 22. Given organisms belong to how many
(1) B and D (2) B, C and D families ?
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and E Tobacco, Datura, Tulip, Colchicum,
17. Match the given columns Petunia, Indigofera, Sesbania
Column-I Column-II (1) One (2) Two
A Gemma cups i. Moss (3) Three (4) Four
B Protonema ii. Porella 23. Bicarpellary, syncarpous ,superior ovary
with parietal placentation is the
C Leafy liverwort iii. Marchantia
characteristics of
D Coralloid root iv. Cycas (1) Solanaceae (2) Brassicaceae
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (3) Malvaceae (4) Liliaceae
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv 24. Leaf base pulvinate, vexillary aestivation of
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i petals and non-enodspermic seeds are
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i characteristic features of
18. Read the following statements and choose (1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae
the correct option. (3) Liliaceae (4) Brassicaceae

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25. The correct floral formula of Solanum 30. Match the column-I with column-II w.r.t
nigrum is represented by aestivation
Column-I Column-II
% K 5 C  5  A5 G 2
(1) i) Valvate

K 5 C  5  A5 G 2
(2) a)
ii) Vexillary
K  5  C  5  A5 G 2
(3)
b)
% K 5 C  5  A5 G 2
(4) iii) Twisted
26. Match the following columns and choose
the correct option. c)
Column-I Column-II iv) Imbricate
(Placentation) (Example)
A Marginal i. China rose
B Axile ii. Pea d)
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
C Free central iii. Sunflower
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
D Basal iv Dianthus (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv 31. Root hairs are epidermal tubular outgrowth
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv of which of the regions of the root?
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (1) Meristematic zone (2) Elongation zone
27. Statement I:Veins provide water and (3) Maturation zone (4) Root cap zone
minerals to leaf lamina. 32. Read the following statements and choose
Statement II:Shape of lamina is nearly same the correct option:
in leaves of different plants Statement I: Gametophytes in gymnosperm
(1) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct are reduced to few cell
(2) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect Statement II: Gametophytes remain within
(3) Both the statements I and II are incorrect sporangia retained on sporophyte in
(4) Both the statements I and II are correct gymnosperms
28. Supporting roots of maize stem, which arise (1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
from the lower nodes are called (2) Statement II is correct but I is incorrect
(1) Pneumatophores (2) Prop roots (3) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Stilt roots (4) Tap roots (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
29. Read the following statements and choose 33. Match the column I and column II and
the correct option. select the correct option :
Statement-I : Coconut fruit develops from Column I Column II
monocarpellary superior ovary (a) Bisexual flower i) Hibiscus
(b) Actinomorphic flower ii) Pea
Statement-II : In drupe type of fruits,
(c) Zygomorphic flower iii) Datura
pericarp is fused with seed coat (d) Asymmetric flower iv) Canna
(1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) Statement II is correct but I is incorrect (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Both statements I and II are correct (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect (4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
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 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
34. The natural system of classification for 39. Consider the following statements regarding
flowering plants was given by gymnosperms and choose the correct
(1) Carolus Linnaeus option.
(2) Bentham and Hooker Statement I: Pyrenoids are storage body in
(3) Engler and Prantl green algae
(4) R. H. Whittaker Statement II: Pyrenoids contain protein
35. Read the following statements and choose besides starch.
the correct option. (1) Both statements I and II are correct
Assertion : Phylogenetic classification (2) Both statements 1 and II are incorrect
system is based on evolutionary (3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
relationships between the various (4) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
organisms. 40. Read the following statements and choose
Reason : Chemotaxonomy is based on the option which is true w.r.t fibrous root
chromosome number, structure, and their system
behaviour etc. A. Found in both monocot and dicot plants
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the B. Develop from base of the stem
correct explanation of A C. Is adventitious root
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT D. It is primary root and long lived
the correct explanation of A (1) A and B are correct
(3) A is not correct but R is correct (2) A and D are incorrect
(4) A is correct but R is not correct (3) B and D are correct
(4) B and C are incorrect
SECTION – B
41. Assertion A : The first stage of gametophyte
36. Assertion : Placentation in Malvaceae
in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
members is axile
Reason R : Protonema develops directly
Reason : Ovary is multilocular and ovules
from spores produced in capsule.
are attached to axial placenta
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
the correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
42. Match the given columns
37. Venus fly trap captures insect by
Column-A Column-II
(1) Bell shape flower
(2) Modified leaves A Sphagnum i. Liverworts
(3) Modified stem B Marchanita ii. Protonema
(4) Thorns C Polytrichum iii Cotton moss
38. Statement I: All dicots have reticulate D Selaginella iv Lycopsida
venation. (1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
Statement II: Monocots mostly have parallel (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
venation. (3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(1) Both statements I and II are correct (4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect 43. Motile stages are not found in life cycle of
(3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect (1) Polysiphonia (2) Ectocarpus
(4) Statement II is correct but I is incorrect (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Fucus
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44. Which of the following has pear shaped 52. Read the following features
motile gamete formation ? (a) A chronic disorder
(1) Marchantia (2) Porphyra (b) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(3) Dictyota (4) Sphagnum (c) Alveolar walls are damaged
45. Wall flower, an ornamental and medicinal (d) Respiratory surface is decreased
plant of Brassicaceae is (e) Affects the trachea
(1) Brassica alba In the above, the salient features of
(2) Cheiranthus cheiri emphysema is
(3) Lepidium sativa (1) a, b and c (2) a, c and d
(4) Mathiola incana (3) c, d and e (4) a, c and e
46. Find odd one w.r.t gram seed 53. Identify the INCORRECT statement with
(1) Presence of testa and tegmen respect to frog
(2) Embryonal axis with plumule and (1) It is provided with simple eyes
radical possessing only one unit
(3) Endosperm as food storing tissue (2) It never drinks water but absorbs it
(4) Cotyledons as food storing parts through the skin
47. Assertion ; In Calotropis and Guava plants, (3) It has sinus venosus on the ventral side
opposite type of phyllotaxy is present. that joins the left auricle
Reason : In opposite type, a pair of leaves (4) Medulla oblongata passes out through
arise at each node in opposite direction. the foramen magnum and continues into
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and spinal cord
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion 54. A person has 5.5 liters of blood in his body.
(2) Both Assertion and reason are true, but How much amount of Hb can be expected in
Reason is not the correct explanation of his blood?
Assertion (1) 660 to 880gms (2) 460 to 550gms
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (3) 1000 to 2000gms (4) 1000 to 1500gms
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
55. Given below are two statements:
48. Tricappellary ,syncarpus ,superior ovary
having axile placentation is found in Statement-I:The anatomical setup of lungs
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Liliaceae in thorax is such that any change in the
(3) Solanaceae (4) Fabaceae volume of the thoracic cavity will be
49. Set of ornamental plants are reflected in the lung cavity.
(1) China rose, Beans and Lupin
(2) Tomato, Petunia and Pea Statement-II: Lungs are situated in the
(3) China rose, Petunia and Tulipa thoracic chamber that is anatomically an air-
(4) Mustard, Atropa, Tobacco tight chamber.
50. The body of the ovule is fused within the In the light of the above statements, choose
funicle at : the correct answer from the options given
(1) Hilum (2) Micropyle below:
(3) Nucellus (4) Chalaza
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
ZOOLOGY
true
SECTION – A
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
51. Major proteins of blood are fibrinogen, true
globulin and albumin help respectively in
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(1) clotting, defense, osmotic balance false
(2) clotting, osmotic balance, defense (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) defense, osmotic balance, clotting false
(4) osmotic balance, defense, clotting
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 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
56. Ligament is made up of (2) „C‟ is part of conducting part but „D‟ is
(1) dense irregular connective tissue part of respiratory part
(2) yellow elastic connective tissue (3) „B‟ is supported by bony rings but „C‟ is
(3) adipose connective tissue supported by cartilaginous rings

(4) dense regular connective tissue (4) „A‟ is muscular but „E‟ is cartilaginous

57. Which of the following is INCORRECT 62. An elaborate network of vessels called the
statement with respect to RBC? lymphatic system collects interstitial fluid
and drains it back to the
(1) Most abundant of all the formed
elements in the blood (1) greaterarteries (2) major veins

(2) Formed in red bone marrow in adults (3) portal veins

(3) Destroyed by spleen that acts as their (4) peritubular capillaries

graveyard 63. Receptors associated with ---- (A) ---- and --
(4) Devoid of nucleus and are biconvex in -- (B) ---- can recognize changes in CO2 and
shape H+ concentration and send necessary signals
to the rhythm centre for remedial actions
58. Pertaining to lungs, the long exposure to
dust can give rise to inflammation leading to In the above A and B are

(1) thrombosis (2) fibrosis (1) A-aortic arch; B-carotid artery

(3) atelectasis (4) psychosis (2) A-aortic arch; B-pulmonary artery

59. Which of the following is correct sequence (3) A-caval vein; B-carotid artery
with respect to granulocytes? (4) A-pulmonary vein; B-carotid artery
(1) Basophils >Eosinophils> Neutrophils 64. Bone is rich in
(2) Eosinophils> Basophils > Neutrophils (1) chondroitin salts and collagen fibres
(3) Basophils <Eosinophils< Neutrophils (2) calcium salts and reticular fibres
(4) Eosinophils< Basophils < Neutrophils (3) calcium salts and collagen fibres
60. Conusarteriosus of frog is the starting point (4) chondroitin salts and reticular fibres
of 65. Match List-I with List-II:
(1) arterial system (2) venous system List-I List-II
(3) portal system (4) coronary system A. Megakaryocytes I. Immunoglobulins
61. Observe the following diagram with respect B. Erythrocytes II. Rh antigen
to A, B, C, D and E C. B-lymphocytes III. Special cells of
bone marrow
D. Monocytes IV. Kidney shaped
nucleus
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Which of the following is the correct (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
combination? (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(1) „A‟ is cartilaginous but „B‟ is without the (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
support of cartilage
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

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 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
66. In the brain, the respiratory rhythm centre is (4) A is correct but R is not correct
located in the 72. Given below are two statements: one is
(1) limbic system (2) medulla oblongata labelled as Assertion A and the other is
(3) ponsVarolii (4) cerebellum labelled as Reason R:
67. Read the following statements Assertion (A): The role of oxygen in the
(a) Teeth do not help in mastication regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite
insignificant.
(b) Salivary glands are absent
Reason (R) : 100 ml of blood can deliver 5
(c) Tongue acts as a feeding organ ml of oxygen to the tissues.
(d) Oral cavity helps in ingestion and In the light of the above statements, choose
exchange of gases the most appropriate answer from the
The above statements are true for a options given below:
(1) human being (2) cockroach (1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
(3) frog (4) lizard correct explanation of A
68. Which of the following is correct with (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the
respect to Rh incompatibility? correct explanation of A
(1) Mother-Rh–, Father- Rh+, Offspring- Rh– (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) Mother-Rh–, Father- Rh+, Offspring-Rh+ (4) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Mother-Rh+, Father-Rh+, Offspring-Rh– 73. Which of the following is a common feature
(4) Mother-Rh+, Father-Rh–, Offspring-Rh+ for skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle?
69. Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing (1) Branching pattern
wheezing due to inflammation of (2) Immune to fatigue
(1) trachea and bronchi (3) Having striations
(2) bronchi and alveoli (4) Somatic response
(3) trachea to alveoli 74. A person with blood group „O‟ is considered
(4) bronchi and bronchioles as universal donor because he doesn‟t have
70. Output zone of a neuron is (1) nucleated RBC (2) stroma of RBC
(1) axon hillock (2) dendrite (3) antigens on RBC
(3) axon terminal (4) node of Ranvier (4) antibodies in plasma
71. Given below are two statements: one is 75. Given below are two statements:
labelled as Assertion A and the other is Statement-I: Volume of air that will remain
labelled as Reason R: in the lungs after a normal expiration is
Assertion (A): B-lymphocytes and T- termed expiratory capacity.
lymphocytes are important for immune Statement-II: Expiratory capacity includes
responses of the body. tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume.
Reason (R) : B-lymphocytes are In the light of the above statements, choose
agranulocytes while T-lymphocytes are the correct answer from the options given
granulocytes. below:
In the light of the above statements, choose (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
the most appropriate answer from the true
options given below: (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the true
correct explanation of A (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(2) A is not correct but R is correct false
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct explanation of A false

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76. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are (3) Buccal cavity → Pharynx →
modified from Oesophagus → Stomach → Duodenum →
(1) columnar epithelial cells Caecum → Rectum
(2) chondrocytes (4) Pharynx → Buccal cavity →
(3) compound epithelial cells Oesophagus → Stomach → Duodenum →
Ileum → Rectum
(4) squamous epithelial cells
81. Identify the correct statement
77. Fibrins are formed by the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens in the plasma by (1) Leucocytes are generally short lived
(1) theenzyme, thrombokinase (2) RBCs have an average life span of 20
(2) the enzyme, thrombin days
(3) the hormone, thrombin
(3) Monocytes are non-phagocytic
(4) the anticoagulant, heparin
78. Synthesis of H2CO3 from CO2 and H2O with (4) Platelets are cell components with nuclei
the help of carbonic anhydrase is abundant 82. Neural signal from the following centre can
in
reduce the duration of inspiration and
(1) plasma (2) RBCs
thereby alter the respiratory rate
(3) WBCs (4) lymph
79. Given below are two statements: (1) Respiratory rhythm centre
Statement-I: Serum never clots. (2) Dorsal respiratory group
Statement-II: Serum is without coagulatory
(3) Apneusticcentre
factors.
(4) Pneumotaxiccentre
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given 83. Identify the INCORRECT combination from
below: the following
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is (1) Adipocyte – Eccentric nucleus
false
(2) Fibroblasts – Secrete polysaccharides
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false that form matrix
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is (3) Chondrocytes – Secrete small cavities to
true
stay in matrix
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true (4) Osteocytes – They are lodged in cavities
80. Select the correct sequence of organs in the namely lamellae
alimentary canal of frog starting from mouth 84. Moist surface of the body helps in
(1) Buccal cavity → Pharynx → respiration in
Oesophagus → Stomach → Duodenum → (1) cockroach and earthworm
Ileum → Rectum
(2) Buccal cavity → Pharynx → (2) earthworm and frog
Oesophagus → Stomach → Ileum → (3) frog and fish
Duodenum → Rectum
(4) earthworm and fish

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 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
85. Match the following Statement-I: The bone marrow of all bones
Column-I Column-II is the site of production of blood cells.
(a) Biceps (i) non-excitable Statement-II: Bone marrow starts the
cells of neural tissue production of blood cells since foetal stage.

(b) Fusiform fibres (ii) cardiac muscle In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
fibres
below:
(c) Intercalated discs (iii) smooth muscle
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
fibres true (2) Statement I is false but Statement II
(d) Neuroglia (iv) attached to is true
skeletal bone (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) are false
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) 89. Residual volume of air is the air
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (1) that comes out during normal expiration
SECTION-B (2) that comes out during forceful expiration
86. In the blood group inheritance, all are (3) that never comes out from the lungs
possible with respect to offspring except (4) can be measured with spirometer
Mother Father Offspring 90. Smoking is one of the major causes of
(1) A B AB (1) emphysema (2) pneumonia
(2) B AB A (3) tuberculosis (4) corona
(3) AB AB B 91. Which of the following products are
(4) AB O O secreted directly into the fluid bathing the
gland?
87. Assertion (A): A person goes to high
altitude and experiences „altitude sickness‟ (1) Digestive enzymes
with symptoms like breathing difficulty and (2) Bile salts
heart palpitations. (3) Earwax and oil
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric (4) Hormones
pressure at high altitude, the body does not 92. Which of the following volume is maximum
get sufficient oxygen. in a healthy person?
In the light of the above statements, choose (1) ERV (2) TV
the correct answer from the options given
(3) IRV (4) RV
below.
93. Simple organisms like sponges and
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the coelenterates circulate water from their
correct explanation of A surroundings through their body cavities to
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the facilitate the cells to exchange these
correct explanation of A substances. Their body cavities respectively
are
(3) A is true, but R is false
(1) pseudocoelom and coelom
(4) A is false, but R is true (2) schizocoelom and enterocoelom
88. Given below are two statements: (3) spongocoel and gastro-vascular cavity
(4) canal system and water vascular system
10
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
94. Inspiration and expiration are carried out by (3) simple columnar epithelium
creating ….. (A) …..gradients between the (4) simple glandular epithelium
atmosphere and the alveoli with the help of 98. The part (A) and part (B) of brain have
specialized muscles ….. (B) ….. and ….. respiratory centres by name respiratory
(C) ….. rhythm centre and pneumotaxiccentre
In the above, A, B and C are respectively
A B C The locations of A and B are
(1) Osmotic External Diaphragm (1) A-Forebrain; B-Mid brain
intercostal (2) A-Midbrain; B-Hindbrain
(2) Pressure External Diaphragm (3) A-Hindbrain; B-Midbrain
intercostal (4) A-Hindbrain; B-Hindbrain
(3) Osmotic External Internalintecostal 99. Which of the cells get specialized for
intercostal secretion and constitute glandular
(4) Pressure Internal Diaphragm epithelium?
intercostal (1) Columnar cells only
(2) Cuboidal cells only
95. Leucocytes are colourless due to the
(3) Both columnar and cuboidal cells
(1) presence of pseudopodia
(4) Neither columnar nor cuboidal cells
(2) lack of haemoglobin
100. Which of the following organisms exhibit
(3) presence of multilobed nuclei
branchial respiration?
(4) lack of mitochondria
(1) Insects (2) Snails
96. Given below are two statements:
(3) Snakes (4) Leeches
Statement-I: Lungs of human act as suction
PHYSICS
pumps in inspiration.
SECTION – A
Statement-II: An increase in pulmonary
volume decreases the intra-pulmonary 101. A square colil ABCD is lying in xy plane
pressure to less than the atmospheric with its centre ar origin. A long straight wire
pressure which forces the air from outside to passing through origin carries a current i =
move into the lungs. 2t in positive z-direction . The induced
current in the coil is
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true (2) Statement I is false but Statement II
is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II
are false (1) clockwise
97. The type of epithelium that found in (2) anticloclwise
proximal convoluted tubule of nephron is (3) alternating
(1) simple squamous epithelium (4) zero
(2) simple cuboidal epithelium
11
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
102. At an instance current of 2A is flowing 108. A transformer has 400 primarty turns and
which is increasing at a rate of 4 A/s 300 secondary turns. If the operating voltage
through a coil of inductance 2 H. The energy for the load connected to the secondary is
stored in the inductor per unit time at that measured to be 300v. What is the voltage
given instant is supplied to the primary.
(1) 2 J/s (2) 1 J/s (1) 200V (2) 300V
(3) 16 J/s (4) 4 J/s (3) 400V (4) 800 V
103. Power factor in series LCR circuit at 109. An alternating current is given by
resonance is i=(3sinωt+4cos ωt)A
1 The rms current will be
(1) 1 (2)
2 7 1
(1) A (2) A
(3) zero (4) infinite 2 2
104. In the circuit shown in figure value of VR is 5
(3) A
2
(4) Information is insufficient to find the rms
current
110. A : Inductive reactance of an inductor in DC
circuit is zero.
R : Angular frequency of DC circuit is zero.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
(1) 400 V (2) 200 V
not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) 300 V (4) zero
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
105. The electric current in a circuit is given by
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
i=3t
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
Here, t is in second and i in ampere. The rms
the correct explanation of (A)
current for the period t=0 to t=1 s is
111. In a pure inductive circuit, the current
(1) 3 A (2) 9 A
(1) Lags behind the applied emf by an angle
(3) 3A (4) 3 3A π
106. An alternating voltage given by (2) Lags behind the applied emf by an angle
V=300 2sin (50t) (in volts) is connected π
across a 1μF capacitor through an AC 2
ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will π
(3) Leads the applied emf by an angle
be 2
(1) 10 mA (2) 40 mA (4) Applied emf are in same phase
(3) 100 mA (4) 15 mA 112. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are
107. At a frequency ω 0 the reactance of a certain given by  π and
V=5sin 100πt- 
 6
capacitor equals that of a certain inductor . If
 π
the frequency is changed to 2 ω 0 , what is I=4sin 100πt+ 
 6
the ratio of the reactance of the inductor to
(1) Voltage leads the current by 300
that of the capacitor?
(2) current leads the voltage by 300
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) current leads the voltage by 600
(3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 1 : 2
(4) current are voltage are in phase

12
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
113. Which of the following combinations should 118. The phase and orientation of the electric
be selected for best tuning of an L-C-R field vector linked with electromagnetic
circuit used for communication ? wave differ from those of the corresponding
(1) R=20Ω,L=3H,C=12μF magnetic field vector, respectively by
(2) R=25Ω,L=2H,C=32μF (1) zero and zero (2) π/2 and π/2
(3) zero and π/2 (4) π/2 and zero
(3) R=20Ω,L=1H,C=1μF
119. The condition under which a microwave
(4) R=25Ω,L=2.5H,C=10μF
oven heats up a food item containing water
114. In an oscillating LC circuit, the maximlum molecules most efficiently is
charge on capacitor is Q0 . The charge on (1) The frequency of the microwave
capacitor when the energy is distributed match or nearly match with the resonant
between the electric and magnetic fields in frequency of the water molecules
(2) The frequency of the microwaves has no
the ratio 1 : 3 is ___
relation with natural frequency of water
Q0 Q0 molecules
(1) (2)
2 2 (3) Microwaves are heat waves, so always
produce heating
Q0 Q0 (4) infra – red waves produce heating in
(3) (4)
3 3 microwave oven
115. For a L – C – R series circuit List – I with 120. Electromagnetic waves with wavelength 1
List-II (Terms have the usual match ) is used in satellite communication , 2 is
used to kill germs in water purifies , 3 is
List – I List – II used to detect leakage of oil in underground
a) X L =X C d) Current leads pipelins and 4 is used to improve visibility
applied voltage in runways during fog and mist conditions.
b) X L >X C e) Current lags Arrange these wavelengths in ascending
applied voltage order of their magnitude
c) X L <X C f) Current and (1) 3  2  4  1
applied voltage (2) 3  2  1  4
are in phase (3) 3  4  1  2
(4) 3  2  4  1
(1) a  e, b  d,c  f
121. Which one of the following phenomena is
(2) a  f , b  e,c  d not explained Huygens construction of
(3) a  e, b  f ,c  d wavefront ?
(1) Refraction (2) Reflection
(4) a  f , b  d,c  e
(3) Diffraction (4) Origin of spectra
116. The equation of an alternating voltage is
122. In the case of interference, the maximum
e =100sin100πt cos100πt . Its peak value and minimum intersities are in theratio 16 :
and frequency are 9. Then
(1) 100 V, 50 Hz (2) 50 V, 100 Hz (1) The maximum and minimum amplitudes
(3) 200 V , 100 Hz (4) 100 V, 200 Hz will be in the ratio 9 : 5
(2) The intensities of the individual waves
117. A series circuit has a resistance of 60 and
will bw in the ratio 4 : 3
impedance 100 . If p.d . applied across the (3) The amplitudes of the individual waves
circuit is 120 V,the power consumed in the will be in the ratio 7 : 1
citcuit will be (4) The amplitudes of the individual waves
(1) 86.4 W (2) 864 W will be in the ratio 4 : 1
(3) 240 W (4) 480 W
13
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
123. A double slit experiment is performed with (3) 8 (4)16
light of wavelength 500 nm. A thin film of 129. In Young‟s double slit experiment intensity
thickness 2μm and refractive index 1.5 is at a point‟s (¼) of the maximum intensity.
Angular position of this points is
introduced in the path of the upper beam.
λ  λ 
The location of the central maximum will (1) sin -1   (2) sin -1  
(1) remain unshifted d  2d 
(2) shift downward by two fringes  λ   λ 
(3) sin -1   (4) sin -1  
(3) Shift upward by two fringes  3d   4d 
(4) shift downward by 10 finges 130. Two coherent sources S1 and S 2 produce
124. The maximum number of possible
interference fringes. If a thin mica plate is
interference maxima for slit separation equal
introduced in the path of light from S1 then
to twice the wavelength in Young‟s double
slit experiment is the central maximum
(1) infinite (2) five (1) shift towards S 2
(3) three (4) zero (2) shift towards S1
125. The internsity at the maximum in a Young‟s (3) do not shift to any side
double slit experiment is I 0 . Distance (4) disappear
between twoslits is d=5λ , where λ is the 131. In Young‟s double slit experiment if one of
wavelength of light used in the experiment . the slits is closed.
What will be the intensity in front of one of (1) the contrast between the bright and dark
the slits on the screen placed at a distance bands decreases
D=10d ? (2) the width of the bands decreases
I (3) the central band becomes dark band
(1) I o (2) 0
4 (4) the interference bands disappear
3 I producing uniform illumination
(3) I 0 (4) 0 132. In Young‟s double – slit experiment , the
4 2
central bright fringe can be identified.
126. In Young‟s double slit experiment , 12 (1) As it has greater intensity than the other
fringes are observed to be formed in a bright fringes
certain segment if wavelength of 600nm is (2) As it is wider than the other bright
used. If the wavelength of lilght is changed fringes
to 400nm, number of fringes observed in the (3) As it is narrower than the other bright
same segment fringes
(4) By using white light instead of
(1) 12 (2) 18
monochromatic light
(3) 24 (4) 30 133. Diffraction of light is
127. Huygen‟s principle is used (1) the bending of light at the surface of
(1) todetermine the velocity of light separation when it travels from rarer
(2) to find the position of a wave front medium to denser medium
(3) to dertermine the wavelength of light (2) the bending of light at the surface of
(4) to find the focal length of a lens separation when it travels from denser
128. The maximum intensity that can be medium to rarer medium
developed in the case of n identical (3) encroachment of light into the
W geometrical shadow of the obstacle placed in
coherent waves each of intensity 2 2 its path
m
W (4) emergence of a light ray grazing the
interfering is 32 2 . The value of n is surface of separation when it travels from
m
(1) 2 (2) 4 denser to rarer medim.

14
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
134. When two coherent waves interfere, the 137. A conducting wire frame is placed in a
minimum and maximum intensities are in magnetic field which is directed into the
the ratio 16 : 25. Then paper. The magnetic field is increasing at a
a) the maximum and minimum amplitudes constant rate. The directions of induced
will be in the ratio 5 : 4 currents in wires AB and CD are
b) the amplitudes of the individual waves
will be in the ratio 9 : 1
c) the intensities of the individual waved
will be in the ratio 41 : 9
d) the intensities of the individual waves will
be in the ratio 81 : 1
(1) a,b and c are true
(2) a,b and d are true (1) B to A and D to C
(3) a and b are true (2) A to B and C to D
(4) b and c are true (3) A to B and D to C
135. Consider the following statement A and B (4) B to A and C to D
and identify the correct answer.
138. A small square loop of wire of side l is
A) Fresnel‟s diffraction pattern occurs when
the source of light or the screen on which the placed inside a large square loop of wire of
diffraction pattern is seen or when both are
at finite distance from the aperture side L( L  l ) . The loops are coplanar and
B) Diffration of light can be used to study
the helical structure of nucleic acids their centres coincide. The mutual
(1) A is false but B is true
inductance of the system is proportional to
(2) A is true but B is false
(3) Both A and B are true
(1) l / L (2) l 2 / L
(4) Both A and B are false
(3) L / l (4) L2 / l
SECTION –B
139. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in
136. A conducting rod AB of length l  1m is
moving at a velocity v = 4 m/s making an its own plane with velocity v in a uniform
angle 300 with its length. A uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its plane as
magnetic field B=2T exists in a direction shown in the figure. Electric field is induced
perpendicular to the plane of motion. Then

(1) VA -VB =8V (2) VA -VB =4V

(3) VB -VA =8V (4) VB -VA =4V (1) in AD, but not in BC
(2) in BC, but not in AD
(3) neither in AD not in BC
(4) in both AD and BC

15
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
140. The power factor of the circuit shown in the (3) 3.0 A (4) 2.5 A
figure is 144. For plane electromagnetic waves
propagating in the +z direction . Which one
of the following combination gives the
correct possible directions for E and B field
respectively ?
ˆ ˆ and (3i-2j)
(1) (-2i-3j) ˆ ˆ
ˆ ˆ and (4i-3j)
(2) (3i+4j) ˆ ˆ
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2 ˆ ˆ and (2i-j)
(3) (i+2j) ˆˆ
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.6 ˆ ˆ and (i+2j)
ˆ ˆ
(4) (2i+3j)
141. What will be the reading of the voltmeter
across the resistance and ammeter in the 145. Light with energy flux of 24wm-2 is
circuit shown in the figure ? incident on a perfectly polished disc of
radius 3.5 cm for one hour. The momentum
transferred to the disc is
(1) 1.1μkgms -1 (2) 2.2μkgms-1
(3) 3.3μkgms -1 (4) 4.4μkgms-1
146. Interference pattern is obtained with two
coherent fight sources of intensity ratio „b‟.
In the interference pattern , the ratio of
(1) 300 V, 2 A I max -I min
will be
(2) 800 V, 2A I max +I min
(3) 100 V, 2 A b 2 b
(4) 200 V, 2 A (1) (2)
(b+1) (b+1)
142. The voltage time (V-t) graph for a triangular 2
wave having peak value V0 is as shown in b  b +1 
(3) (4)  
figure. The rms value of V is (b+1) 2  b-1 
147. In Young‟s duble slit experiment , the slits
are 2mm apart and are illuminated by
photons of two wavelengths λ1 =12000A 0
and λ 2 =10,000A 0 . At what minimum
V0 V distance from the common central bright
(1) (2) 0
3 2 fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a
V V bright fringe from one interference pattern
(3) 0 (4) 0 coincide with a bright fringe from the other
2 3 ?
143. A coil with resistance, a capacitor and an (1) 3 mm (2) 5 mm
AC source of voltage 24 V (rms) are (3) 6 mm (4) 4 mm
connected in series. By varying the 148. The path difference between two interfering
frequency of the source, a maximum rms waves at a point on the screen is λ/6 where
current of 6 A is observed. If this coil is  is the wave length of each wave . The
connected to a DC battery of emf 12 V and ratio of intensity at this point and that at the
internal resistance 4 , the current through it central fringe will be
will be (1) 0.75 (2) 7.5
(1) 2.0 A (2) 1.5 A (3) 85.3 (4) 853
16
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
149. In Young‟s double – sit experiment using (1) self indicator (2) diphenyl amine
monochromatic light of wavelength  , the (3) starch (4) methyl orange
intensity of light at a point on the screen 155. A gaseous hydrocarbon requires 6 times its
where path difference is  , is K units . own volume of O2 for complete oxidation
What is the intensity of light at a point and produces 4 times its volume of CO2 at
where path difference is  / 3 ?
same pressure and temperature. The
(1) K/2 (2) K/4 formula of gas is
(3) 2K/3 (4) K/ 6 (1) C4 H10 (2) C4 H 8
150. Young‟s double slit experiment is performed
in a liquid . The 10th bright fringe in liquid (3) C4 H 5 (4) C8 H16
lies where 6th dark fringe lies in vacuum. 156. Which of the following species does not
Velocity of light in the liquid is show disproportionation ?
(1) 1.35×108m/s (1) ClO4 (2) ClO3

(2) 1.45×108m/s (3) ClO2 (4) ClO
(3) 1.55×108m/s 157. Match the following
8
(4) 1.65×10 m/s Medium Equivalent weight
CHEMISTRY of KMnO4
SECTION-A
151. Which of the following reactions indicates A Acidic i 158
the oxidising behavior of H 2 SO4 ?
B Neutral ii 79
(1) 2 PCl5  H 2SO4  2 POCl3  2 HCl  SO2Cl2
C Strongly iii 52.6
(2) 2 NaOH  H 2SO4  Na2SO4  2 H 2O
basic
(3) NaCl  H 2SO4  NaHSO4  HCl
D Weakly iv 31.6
(4) 2 HI  H 2SO4  I 2  SO2  2 H 2O basic
152. Two gaseous samples were analysed. One
The correct match is
contained 1.2 g of carbon and 3.2 g of
oxygen. The other contained 27.3% carbon (1) A – iv, B –iii, C – i, D –iii
and 72.7% oxygen. The experimental data (2) A –iv, B – iii, C – i, D –ii
is in accordance with (3) A – iv, B –ii, C – i, D – iii
(1) Law of conservation of mass (4) A –iv, B – iii, C –i, D – i
(2) Law of definite proportions
(3) Law of reciprocal proportions
158. (A) : Glucose C6 H12O6  and acetic acid
(4) Law of multiple proportions CH3COOH  have same empirical formula.
153. A copper plate of mass 10g is coated with (R) : Molecular weight of glucose is 3 times
6 1020 atoms of silver each on its two that of acetic acid.
sides. The increase in mass of the silver (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
coated copper plate is ___ correct explanation of A
(1) 1.08gms (2) 2.16gms (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(3) 0.216gms (4) 10.216gms correct explanation of A
154. The indicator used to detect the end point in (3) A is true but R is false
the redox titration between K2Cr2O7 and (4) A is false but R is true
FeSO4 is
17
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
159. 164. Weight of urea to be dissolved in 100 gm of
aMnO4  b C2O42  cH   Mn 2  CO2  H 2O water so as to prepare decimolal solution is
.The values of a, b, c respectively in the (1) 0.6 gm (2) 6 gm
balanced equation are (3) 1.2 gm (4) 12 gm
(1) 2, 5, 16 (2) 1, 5, 16 165. Assertion (A) : In CrO 5 the oxidation
(3) 1, 4, 12 (4) 1, 3, 16 number of chromium is +6.
160. The actual product of 5.03 and 3.2 is 16.096.
Reason (R) : CrO 5 has two peroxy bonds in
The correctly reported answer will be
(1) 16.7 (2) 16.76 its structure
(3) 16 (4) 16.8 (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
161. Four students A, B, C and D measured the correct explanation of A
weight of silver coin. True weight of the (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
coin is 2.0g. Reports of the students is correct explanation of A
given below (3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
166. The percentage of nitrogen in magnesium
nitride is
(1) 14 (2) 28
(3) 42 (4) 56
167. Which of the following weighs maximum
(1) 0.1 gm atoms of calcium
(2) 0.1 gm moles of dioxygen
Report of which student is more precise and
(3) 6  10 molecules of methane
22
more accurate (4) 1.12 lts of NH3 gas at STP
(1) A (2) B
168. The law of multiple proportions is illustrated
(3) C (4) D by the two compounds
162. Statement – I : The ratio of number of atoms (1) Sodium chloride and sodium bromide
present in equal masses of ozone and (2) Ordinary water and heavy water
oxygen is 1:1
(3) Caustic soda and caustic potash
Statement – II : Equal volumes of all gases (4) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide
under the same conditions of temperature
169. Match the following :
and pressure contain equal number of atoms
List – I (Reaction ) List – II (Reagent)
(1)Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is
I) Decarboxylation A) Zn/C2 H5OH
correct
(2)Statement-I is correct. Statement-II is
in correct II) Dehalogenation B) Conc.H 2SO 4 /
(3)Statement-I is incorrect. Statement-II is
correct III) Dehydrohalogenatio C) Alc.KOH /Δ
(4)Statement-I is incorrect. Statement-II is n
in correct IV) Dehydration D) NaOH+CaO
163. Normality of 9.8% W/V H 3PO 4 is
(1) I-B II-C III-D IV-A
(1) 1 N (2) 3 N
(2) I-D II-A III-C IV-B
(3) 1.5 N (4) 2 N
(3) I-D II-A III-B IV-C
(4) I-B II-D III-A IV-C
18
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
170. (3) b > c > a (4) c > b > a
H H 174. Most stable benzyl carbocation among the
following is
+
D T
H3C CH2
H 3C
(1)
OH
exhibits +
H 3C-H 2C CH 2
(1) Geometrical isomerism (2)
(2) Optical isomerism +
(3) constitutional H 3C-CH CH 2
(4)Both 1 & 2 CH 3
171. Which of the following pair is not (3)
homologues. CH 3
(1) H3C-CH=CH 2 & H3C-CH 2 -CH=CH 2 +
H 3C-C CH 2
Cl Cl
CH 3
(4)
& 175. Incorrect statement among the following.
(2) (1)
(3) HCOOH & CH 3COOH Methyl free radical is paramagnetic in nature
(4) CH3CH 2OH & CH3 -CH 2 -O-CH3 (2) Methyl carbonium ion has trigonal planar
shape
172. IUPAC name of the given compound is
(3) Heterolytic cleavage requires more energy
CHO
Br than Homolytic cleavage.
(4) Free radicals are formed due to
heterolytic cleavage.
(1) 2 – Bromocyclo hex-4-en- 1-carbaldehyde 176. Mesomeric, Inductive and Hyper conjugation
(2) 2-Bromobenzene carbaldehyde effects operate in
(3) 6 – Bromocyclohex – 3 – en-1 – (1) CH 3 -CH=CH 2
carbaldehyde (2) H 2C=CH-CH=CH 2
(4) 6-Bromocyclohex-4-en-1-carbaldehyde
OH
173. (a)
CH 3
C(CH 3 )3
CH 3 - C - Br (3)
O
CH 3
H3C-CH=CH-C-CH3
(b) (4)
CH 3 -CH-Br 177. In C 2 H 5OH , the bond that undergoes
heterolytic cleavage most readily is
CH 3 (1) CC
(c) CH3 -CH 2 -CH 2 -Br (2) CO
Reactivity towards E1 is (3) CH
(4) OH
(1) a > b > c (2) b > a > c

19
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
178. Which alkyl bromide will yield only one (3)
alkene upon E 2 elimination O

O
(4)
(1) Br O

Br
(2)
O
Br
181. Which of the following is not an electrophile
CCl2
(3) (1) (2) SO 3
+ +
H 3O NO 2
(3) (4)
182. Statement I : Tropone is nonbenzenoid
Br heterocyclic aromatic compound
(4)
Statement II : Furan is heterocyclic aromatic
179.A : Ethylene dichloride and Ethylidene
compound
chloride are positional isomers. (1) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is
R : 1,2 – dichloro ethane and 1,1- incorrect
dichloroethane differ in position of chloro (2) Statement I and Statement II both are
groups on the parent chain. correct.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is (3) Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II
the correct explanation of (A) is correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
incorrect.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 183. In Aniline and Benzylamine NH 2 group can
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
act as ___
not the correct explanation of (A)
(1) –I, +M (2) +M, -I
180. Which of the following does not exhibit
(3) +M , -M (4) –M , - I
resonance
184. Which of the following has a meso isomer
(1) 2-chlorobutane
(1)
(2) 2 – hydroxyl propanonic acid
O
(3) 2,3 – dichlorobutane
(4) 2,3 – dichloro pentane
185. Assertion : In gas phase, basic strength of
O O alkyl amines is
(2) (C2 H5 )3 N>(C2 H5 ) 2 NH>C2 H5 NH 2
O Reason : in gas phase, only “+1” effect of
O
-C2 H5 group decides the basic strength
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A)
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 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
SECTION – B B) Decomposition of limestone is not a
186. The relative number of atoms of different redox reaction, since no element shows
elements in a compound are as follows. increase or decrease is oxidation state
A = 1.33, B = 1 and C = 1.5. The empirical C) In the reaction of NH3 with CuO
formula of the compound is
resulting in Cu, N 2 and H 2O, NH 3 acts as
(1) A2 B2C3 (2) ABC
oxidising agent
(3) A8 B6C9 (4) A3 B3C4
D) Fe exhibits its maximum oxidation state
187. 136. How many moles of Mg3  PO4 2 will in  Fe(CO)5 
contain 0.25 moles of oxygen atoms
(1) A, B only
(1) 1.25  102 (2) 2.5  102
(2) B, C only
(3) 3.125  102 (4) 2  102
(3) C, D only
188. Bromine reacts with concentrated alkali to
(4) A, B, C only
give bromide ion and bromate ion.
Equivalent weight of bromine is 193. „n‟ factor of K4  Fe(CN)6  in the reaction

(1)
5M
(2)
5M K 4  Fe(CN)6   Fe3  CO32 _ NO3 is
8 3 (1) 48
3M 4M (2) 12
(3) (4)
5 6 (3) 61
189. A,B,C are three elements forming a part of (4) 36
compound with oxidation states of +2,+5,-2 194. Correct order of basic strength is
respectively. What could be the compound?
(1) A2  BC 2 (3) A2  BC4 3
I. N
(3) A3  BC4 2 (4) ABC
190. The number of moles of acidified KMnO4
required to oxidize one mole of ferrous N
oxalate is II. H

(1) 0.2 moles (3) 0.5 moles NH 2

(3) 0.6 moles (4) 0.4 moles
191. Number of electrons in one drop of D2O III.
(1drop = 0.05ml, density of D2O may be
assumed to be 1 g/ml) N
(1) 1.5 10 22
(2) 3 10 23
IV. H

(3) 6 1023 (4) 1.5 1021 (1) IV > I > II > III
192. Incorrect statement/s among the following is (2) II > I > III > IV
/are (3) II > I > IV > III
A) In permanganate titrations KMnO 4 (4) I >II > III > IV
acts as self indicator and thus no external
indicator is required

21
 NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)
195. Correct acidic strength order (4) 4 – ethyl – 3
(I) O 2 N-CH 2 -COOH – propyl hex
(II) NC-CH 2COOH – 1 – ene

(III) FCH 2 COOH

(1) I > II > III (2) I  II  III
(3) II  I  III (4) III  I  II
196. Number of σ-π conjugations in the given 200. The correct stability order for the
compound is following species is

+

O
(1) 4 (2) 6 I.
(3) 7 (4) 8 
197. Some statements related to Benzyne are
given below, pick out the correct statements II. O
among them. 
(A) It is also called 1,2-didehydrobenzene
III.
(B) In Benzyne all carbon atoms are in sp 2
hybridisation
IV. 
(C)It is aromatic in nature
(D) It has 4 (pπ-pπ) bonds (1) II > IV >I> III (2) I> II >III >IV
(1) only AB (2) A , B, C (3) II >I> IV>III (4) I>III>II>IV
(3) A, B, D (4) A, B , C, D
198. Identify the incorrect statements :
(1) Isobutyl chloride and tertiary butyl
chloride are a pair of positional isomers
(2) Maleic acid and fumaric acid are a pair
of diastereomers
(3) Cresol and benzyl alchohol are pair of
functional isomers
(4) 1 – cyanoprapane and 2-cyanopropane
are positional isomers
199. Incorrect IUPAC name
(1) CHO-Cl Methanoyl
chloride

(2) O O Ethanoic
anhydride
H 3 C - C - O - C - CH 3

(3) Br 1,2 – di
Br bromo cyclo
hex – 1 – ene

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NEET MT-4 (08-02-24)

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