ISC Class 12 Biology Item Bank

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PREFACE
With a growing emphasis on competency-based education globally, the educational landscape

in India has also steered towards high-quality learning experiences that allow learners to
incorporate critical thinking and problem-solving approaches. This approach goes beyond rote
memorisation and focuses on developing the skills and knowledge that students need to apply
in their real-world scenarios.
The Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations (CISCE), as a national-level
progressive examination board, has taken several steps to infuse competency-based education
in CISCE schools through teacher capacity-building on item development for competency-
based assessments and the incorporation of competency-focused questions at the ICSE and ISC
levels from the examination year 2024.
To further facilitate the adoption of competency-based assessment practices in schools and to
support teachers and students towards the preparation for attempting higher-order thinking
questions in future board examinations, Item Banks of Competency-Focused Practice
Questions for selected subjects at the ICSE and ISC levels have been developed. This Item
Bank consists of a rich variety of questions, both objective and subjective in categories, aimed
at enhancing the subject-specific critical and analytical thinking skills of the students.
In this Item Bank, each question is accompanied by the topic and cognitive learning domain/s
that it intends to capture. The cognitive domains reflected in these questions include
understanding, analysis, application, evaluation and creativity, along with some questions of
the higher-order recall domain. The Answer Key at the end presents the possible answers to a
given question, but it is neither limiting nor exhaustive.
These practice questions are also meant to serve as teacher resources for classroom assignments
and as samplers to develop their own repository of competency-focused questions. Apart from
offering a good practice of higher-order thinking skills, engaging with these questions would
allow students to gauge their own subject competencies and use these assessments for learning
to develop individual learning pathways.
During the development of this Item Bank, a large pool of questions was prepared by a team
of experienced CISCE teachers. The questions that were finalised by the internal and external
reviewers as being higher-order competency-focused questions have been collated in this item
bank.
I acknowledge and appreciate all the ICSE and the ISC subject matter experts who have
contributed to the development and review of these high-quality competency-focused questions
for CISCE students.
We are hopeful that teachers and students will utilise these questions to support their
teaching-learning processes.
July 2024 Dr. Joseph Emmanuel

Chief Executive & Secretary
CISCE

Biology ISC-Class XII
Table of Contents
S.No. Types of Questions Page Nos.
I. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1-6
II. Assertion-Reason Questions 7-8
III. Very Short Answer Questions 9-12
IV. Short Answer Questions 13-18
V. Long Answer Questions 19-24
VI. Very Long Answer Questions 25-27
Answer Key 28-37
ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions

COMPETENCY-FOCUSED PRACTICE QUESTIONS
ISC-CLASS XII
Biology
I: Multiple Choice Questions (1 Mark Each)
Please select ONE correct answer from the following options provided in MCQs.
S.No. Questions
1. [Genetics and Evolution]

A homozygous pea plant with axial flowers and inflated pods was crossed with another
homozygous pea plant with terminal flowers and constricted pods. When the plant of
F1-generation was self-pollinated, a total of 800 plants were produced in F2-generation.
Among these plants, how many would have terminal flowers and inflated pods?
(a) 50
(b) 300
(c) 150
(d) 450 (Application)
2. [Reproduction]
In a prescribed period, the same number of oogonia and spermatogonia produced by two
humans could yield different number of gametes subsequently. This occurs because of
which of the following options?
(a) The difference in the number of primary oocytes and primary spermatocytes formed.
(b) The difference in the number of secondary oocytes and secondary spermatocytes
formed.
(c) The difference in the number of polar bodies formed.
(d) The difference in their mode of cell divisions. (Analysis)
ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 1

S.No. Questions
3. [Biology and Human Welfare]

When an infected female mosquito bites a human, it transmits a pathogen, causing
swelling in the arms, legs and genitals.
Name the organism that causes the above-mentioned symptoms.
(a) Salmonella typhi
(b) Corynaebacterium diphtheriae
(c) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Ascaris lumbricoides (Recall)

Why is the incubation period especially important in the epidemiology of HIV infection?
(a) The load of virus in the body is the heaviest.
(b) The individual is normally asymptomatic during this stage.
(c) Transmission of HIV is easiest during this stage.
(d) This is the only infective stage for HIV transmission. (Understanding)

In a laboratory, a Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) test was conducted with three
water samples.
These were marked as follows:
A-River water
B-Untreated sewage water
C- Discharged water from a sewage treatment plant.
However, the attendant conducting the experiment forgot to note down names of the
samples with BOD values. The BOD values recorded are given below:
6mg/L, 300mg/L, 25mg/L
Identify the correct water sample with the BOD value from below:
(a) A-6mg/L, B-25mg/L, C-300mg/L
(b) A-25mg/L, B-300mg/L, C-6mg/L
(c) A-300mg/L, B-25mg/L, C-6mg/L
(d) A-300mg/L, B-6mg/L, C-25mg/L (Analysis)

An experiment conducted by the students of class XII found that secondary treatment of
municipal and residential waste in their locality could produce biogas. The presence of
which of the following in the given waste would account for it?
(a) Anaerobic bacteria
(b) Aerobic bacteria
(c) Yeast
(d) Algae (Understanding)

S.No. Questions

A doctor advised his patient who was suffering from indigestion to include curd in his
diet for early recovery.
Identify the medicinal role of curd and the organism involved in its production from the
options given below:
(a) Antacid-Clostridium sp.
(b) Antalkali-Lactobacillus acidophilus
(c) Antakali-Propionibacterium shermani
(d) Antacid - Lactobacillus acidophilus (Recall)

Riya, Ali and John were asked to study the following cases and interpret them.
Case Mother Father Children

Case 1 Normal With Son always normal
disease
Case 2 Normal With Son and daughters
disease could show disease
They interpreted these cases by suggesting a possible disease for each as tabulated
below:
Case 1 Case 2
Riya Colour blindness Sickle cell anaemia
Ali Thalassemia Haemophilia
John Down’s syndrome PKU
Whose interpretation(s) is/ are correct?
(a) Riya
(b) Ali
(c) John
(d) Both Riya and John (Evaluate)

S.No. Questions

Given below is the graphical representation of Meselson and Stahl’s experiment wherein
E. coli cultured in 15NH4Cl medium was transferred to a medium containing 14NH4Cl
and allowed to multiply for some time. Study it carefully and answer the question that
follows.
Identify the type of DNA indicated by curve ‘P’ and ‘Q’.

(a) P: 14N 14N and Q: 15N 15N
(b) P: 15N 15N and Q: 14N 14N
(c) P: 14N 15N and Q: 14N 14N
(d) P: 14N 14N and Q: 14N 15N (Analysis)

S.No. Questions

The given Venn diagram represents two processes (P and Q) of the central dogma with
some missing components (R and S).
Identify P, Q, R and S.
P Q R S
(a) Translation Replication Amino acids DNA polymerase
(b) Replication Transcription Leading strand Releasing factor
(c) Transcription Translation mRNA Rho factor
(d) Replication Transcription Okazaki fragments Sigma factor
(Understanding)

What will happen if the ‘o’ gene of lac operon is mutated such that it loses affinity for the ‘i’
gene product?
(a) No transcription of structural genes will take place.
(b) Continuous transcription of structural genes will take place.
(c) β-galactosidase and permease will be synthesized, but transacetylase will not be
synthesized.
(d) RNA polymerase will be unable to bind to the promoter. (Analysis)

S.No. Questions

Given below are four statements regarding the steps involved in Deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA) fingerprinting.
Identify the INCORRECT statement.
1. Sample size of the DNA is increased by electrophoresis.
2. DNA fragments are denatured by restricting endonuclease.
3. Separated DNA fragments are fixed by Ultraviolet (UV) light.
4. Double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) is hybridised with radiolabelled variable number
tandem repeats (VNTR) probe.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 (Recall)
13. [Biotechnology and its Applications]

Golden Rice was made by adding two special genes to rice, one from daffodils and one
from a soil bacterium. These genes help the rice produce more vitamin A. Which cloning
vector from below was used for the process of transfer of gene?
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) pBR322
(c) Retrovirus
(d) BAC (Understanding)
During the synthesis of recombinant insulin, the gene for alpha and beta polypeptides
are inserted into the plasmid by the side of which of the following gene?
(a) Antibiotic resistant gene
(b) Lac Z promoter gene
(c) Beta galactosidase gene
(d) Replication gene (Recall)
15. [Ecology and Environment]
The Atlantic cod (Gadus callarias) is a fish which lays about 5,000,000 eggs in its
lifetime. On average, only two of these eggs survive to become an adult cod. How does
this promote evolution?
(a) All offsprings are genetically identical, so become better adapted.
(b) Laying many eggs provides food for other species to survive and become better
adapted.
(c) Some young cod change to become adapted to the environment and survive and pass
on their genes.
(d) Offsprings with favourable variation survive and pass on their genes.
(Understanding)

II. Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each)
The questions in this section have two statements marked Assertion and Reason. Read both the
statements carefully and choose the correct option.
S.No. Questions

Assertion: The population growth rate is negative for urn-shaped type of population.
Reason: A declining population has low birth rate compared to death rate.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (Analysis)

Assertion: In Polymerase chain reaction (PCR), DNA Polymerase is used to amplify
(replicate) a piece of DNA by in vitro enzymatic replication.
Reason: As the Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process progresses, the DNA
generated is itself used as a template for replication.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (Understanding)
18. [Reproduction]
Assertion: Double fertilisation produces the precursor of endosperm.
Reason: Embryo develops after the endosperm.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (Application)

S.No. Questions

Assertion: The interphase nucleus of a female child suffering from Down’s syndrome
shows 45 autosomes.
Reason: Down’s syndrome occurs due to trisomy of autosomes and not sex
chromosomes.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Assertion: Darwin’s finches show a variety of beaks suited for eating large seeds, flying
insects and cactus seeds.
Reason: Ancestral seed-eating stock of Darwin’s finches radiated out from South
America mainland to different geographical areas of the Galapagos Islands.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.

III: Very Short Answer Questions (1 Mark Each)
S.No. Questions

A chimpanzee can hold objects with its hand whereas the elephant can hold the object
by its trunk.
How would you classify the organs, hand and trunk based on evolution?
(Understanding)

Why is there a reduced biodiversity richness at higher altitudes in comparison to
equatorial regions? (Understanding)

In mice, yellow coat (YY) and white coat (yy) are homozygous, while cream coloured
mice are heterozygous.
If a cream-coloured mouse is crossed with a yellow-coloured mouse what will be the
possible genotypic ratio of their offsprings? (Application)

How is it that only one DNA strand is copied during transcription, and not both?
(Evaluate)

‘Spliceosomes formed during RNA splicing are present in the fungal cell but absent in
a bacterial cell’. Justify this statement. (Analysis)

Riya studied the following three mRNAs:
(a) AUGUUUGAU
(b) UAAUGGGAC
(c) UAGUUUGAU
She was confused to see that out of these mRNAs, only the first (a) mRNA could be
translated whereas others could not. Help Riya understand the reason for this.
(Analysis)
To link alien DNA with the cloning vector, why should the vector have a single
recognition site for the commonly used restriction enzymes? (Analysis)

S.No. Questions

What is the advantage of pBR322 containing recognition sites for many different
Restriction enzymes? (Recall)
29. [Reproduction]
How many chromosomes are present in the pollen and Primary Endosperm Nucleus of
a plant which has 36 chromosomes in its sporogenous cell?
(Application)
30. [Reproduction]
Suggest an Assisted Reproductive Technique (ART) each for the following individuals
to bear children.
(a) A woman who cannot produce fertile eggs.
(b) A woman whose fallopian tube is blocked. (Understanding)

An antibody molecule is represented as H2L2. Explain. (Understanding)

Ali was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal laboratory conditions
where the resources were replenished. Which growth curve equation would represent
the growth in this case? (Analysis)

Predict the consequences when both the template and the coding strands of a DNA
segment participate in transcription process? (Evaluate)

S.No. Questions

Shown below are two forms of insulin named X and Y. Which one of the two is
biologically active and why?
X Y
(Analysis)
Vanda orchids were seen on specific branches of a Lagerstroemia trees in a park, with
its roots hanging in the air.
Identify the type of ecological interaction between Vanda and Lagerstroemia.
(Understanding)

When both the parents are heterozygous for Phenylketonuria (PKU), what will be the
probability of their first child being phenotypically normal but a carrier?
(Understanding)

S.No. Questions

If protein was the genetic material, then according to Hershey and Chase experiment the
pellet in the diagram given below will show the presence of which radioactive element?
(Application)

The pedigree chart given below represents the pattern of inheritance of polydactyly in a
family. Study it carefully and write the genotype of individual 1.
(Application)

IV. Short Answer Questions (2 Marks Each)
S.No. Questions
Two insects, ‘A’ and ‘B’ belonged to different families. A few cells from the antennae
of these insects were scraped and subjected to karyotyping and other investigations.
The following data was obtained. Study it carefully and answer the questions that
follow:
Karyotype and other investigation report
A B
Number of chromosomes 16 8
Sex chromosome Absent XX
Parthenogenesis Seen Not seen
Gamete formation Mitosis Meiosis
(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B.’
(b) Mention the sex of ‘A’ and ‘B.’ (Analysis)
Study the following diagram and answer questions given below:
(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.

(b) Biotechnologists synthesised a cDNA from ‘X’ RNA using reverse transcriptase
and inserted this cDNA into the plasmid of E. coli for insulin production. Will they
be successful in getting insulin? Justify your answer. (Application)

S.No. Questions
Tisha and Ravi were discussing about DNA replication in the given DNA sequence
and made two statements.
Tisha: “Each of the two new daughter strands formed after DNA replication would
have an identical base sequence”.
Ravi: “The nucleotide sequence of one daughter strand would be identical to that of
the coding strand”.
(a) Who made a correct statement? Give a reason for your answer.
(b) Due to the absence of certain enzymes, the parental DNA strands showed certain
defects mentioned below during replication. Identify the enzyme in each case.
(i) The parental DNA strand supercoils and eventually breaks.
(ii) The growing DNA strand had a lot of mismatched nucleotides. (Application)

Find out the number of base pairs in E. coli DNA, if its DNA is 1.02 mm long.
(Application)
43. [Reproduction]
A couple struggled with infertility for an extended period. Subsequently, it was
discovered that neither partner was capable of producing viable gametes. Give two
reasons which could have contributed to this issue.
(Understanding)
44. [Reproduction]
"The process of sexual reproduction differs between closed flowers and open flowers."
Explain. (Recall)
45. [Reproduction]
How does self-incompatibility restrict autogamy? How does pollination occur in such
plants? (Understanding)

Which trophic level in a food chain is known as ‘transducers’ and why?
(Understanding)

S.No. Questions

(a) How does the activity of HindII contrast with that of EcoRI?
(b) Which one of these enzymes can be preferably used in Rdt? Give a reason.
(Recall & Application)

While doing a Polymerase chain reaction (PCR), “extension” step is missed. What will
be its effect on the process? (Understanding)

A passenger met with a minor accident and started bleeding through the skin. He was
immediately rushed to the nearby hospital. The doctor immediately gave tetanus
antitoxin to him.
(a) Why did the doctor not administer a tetanus vaccine?
(b) Explain the basic difference between vaccination and immunisation.

(Understanding & Recall)

Bring out the difference between de Vries mutation theory and Darwinian variations?
(Analysis)

If there are 303 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 100 amino acids and the
base at position 241 is deleted, reducing the RNAs length to 302 bases.
(a) How many amino acids will be altered during translation?
(b) What will such type of mutation be called? (Application & Recall)

Observe the given sequence of nitrogen bases in a DNA fragment and answer the
following questions.
5’ATTGTCGACGGG3’
3’TAACAGCTGCCC5’
(a) Identify the palindrome in the given sequence.
(b) Name the restriction enzyme and its source that will cleave the palindromic
sequence identified above.
(Application)

S.No. Questions

(a) Why does the lac operon shut down some time after the addition of lactose in the
medium where E. coli was growing?
(b) What is the constant necessity for a minimal level of expression in the lac operon?
(Application)

Explain why RNA, which initially served as the focal point for transmission of
hereditary characters, was eventually replaced by DNA throughout the course of
evolution. (Analysis)

Genotypes of Sickle cell anaemia can be determined due to differences in the size of
the DNA bands produced by digesting the Haemoglobin gene DNA with restriction
enzyme. The gel electrophoresis depicts the DNA fragments produced after genotyping
two siblings’ ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Study it carefully and answer the following questions.
(a) Determine if the given statement is accurate or not. Provide reasoning for the same.
‘The parents of individuals X and Y are heterozygous.’
(b) Identify the allele which gives a DNA fragment of:

1. larger size
2. smaller size (Evaluate)

S.No. Questions

Ritu and Ali performed an experiment as depicted where all the parameters were kept
constant except that, Ritu added papaya pulp to her test tube whereas Ali added an
unknown enzyme ‘X’ to his test tube.
(a) In Ritu’s case, name the process responsible for the conversion.
(b) Identify enzyme ‘X’.
(c) Give a possible reason for the observation made by Ritu and Ali.
(Analysis)

S.No. Questions

Study the figure of an ecological pyramid given below and then answer the questions
that follow:
(a) Identify the type of pyramid.

(b) Give two examples of pyramids mentioned in (a).
(c) Which is the topmost trophic level shown in the figure?
(Understanding)

A doctor prescribed a drug as a sedative and pain killer to a patient who had undergone
a surgery. Even after recovery, he indiscriminately took the medicines and later craved
for the same.
(a) What do you conclude about his condition?
(b) Suggest any two measures to him to overcome this problem.
(Application)

V: Long Answer Questions (3 Marks Each)
S.No. Questions

An ecologist, David Tilman, proposed that in an ecosystem the stability of a biological
community depends on its species richness. How was it supported by Paul Ehrlich?
(Analysis)

The graph illustrates the concentration of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) in
various samples, including (A) untreated sewage, (B) secondary effluent, (C) river
water, and (D) primary effluent.
(a) Which sample contains the highest level of Pathogenic microbes?
(b) Name the sample that contains the lowest level of pathogenic microbes.
(c) Which sample can be used for domestic purposes?
(Analysis)

(a) Name one cloning vector that causes tumour in plant cells and the other cloning
vector that causes cancer in animal cells.
(b) Elaborate on how biotechnologists have utilized these cloning vectors for human
benefit?
(Recall & Understanding)

S.No. Questions

The weight of a tomato plant is controlled by 3 pairs of alleles in a cumulative manner.
Saloni crossed a tomato plant ‘X’ with plant ‘Y’.
(a) Identify the type of inheritance shown by the tomato plant. What will be the total
types of allelic combinations in the gametes of a tomato plant heterozygous for all
three genes?
(b) What will be the weight of the progeny plant obtained by crossing plant ‘X’ with
‘Y’?
(c) Find the weight of the tomato plant with genotype AAbbcc.
(Application)

S.No. Questions

A geneticist discovers a new gene in a fungal genome. Given below is a stretch of
DNA of a structural gene of a transcription unit.
5’--- ATG GTC TCT CAG GTC CCC ---3’
(a) Write the sequence of nucleotides in the corresponding mRNA strand that will be
transcribed, along with its polarity.
(b) If GUC of the transcribed mRNA is an intron, then how many bases will be present
in the mRNA?
(c) If ‘C’ of 4th codon is replaced by ‘T’, then it will lead to which type of mutation?
Choose from the options given below:
1. Same sense mutation

2. Missense mutation
3. Nonsense mutation
(d) How many amino acids will be present in the polypeptide chain obtained from this
mutated DNA?
(e) Consider a hypothetical situation, if this type of mutation occurs in the ‘y’ gene of
lac operon in E. coli, then what effect will it have on the synthesis of all the three
enzymes? Give a reason for your answer.
(Application)

You have obtained a sample of DNA, and you synthesise mRNA from this DNA and
purify it. You then separate the two strands of the DNA and analyse the base
composition of each strand and of the mRNA. You obtain the data shown in the table
below:
A G C T U
NA strand 1 16.1 24.0 29.0 21.9 0
NA strand 2 22.2 28.8 17.3 17.3 0
RNA 16.0 23.9 28.8 0 22.3
Answer the following questions.

(a) Which strand of the DNA is the non-coding strand, serving as a template for mRNA
synthesis? Give a reason for your answer.
(b) What would be the polarity of the DNA strand 1 and 2?
(c) If you isolate the genetic material from a retrovirus, then name the processes that
would be carried out to obtain the above shown data.
(Analysis)

S.No. Questions

Study the statements given below and classify them into the categories of narrowly
utilitarian, broadly utilitarian and ethical reasons related with the conservation of
biodiversity.
(a) Sustenance of all species is a requirement for the survival of man on earth.
(b) We derive lubricants, tannins, firewood and fibre from nature.
(c) Plants of forests produce food for all by photosynthesis and purify air.
(Understanding)
66. [Reproduction]
Majority of flowering plants release the pollen grains in two-celled stage.
(a) Write the functional roles of the two cells.
(b) Plants need the pollinators to help in the transfer of pollen grains. Yet, some plants
are ready to offer pollen grains as food to them. How is this possible?
(Recall & Understanding)
67. [Reproduction]
(a) The process of fertilisation is a link between two generations. Justify.
(b) Why is fertilisation genetically important in a species?
(Application)

The diagram given below represents an immune response/mechanism in the human
body.
(a) What is the mechanism's name and significance in the human body?
(b) What is the difference between primary and secondary lymphoid tissues?
(Understanding)

S.No. Questions

Why is no inoculum necessary when mixing cow dung and water for digestion in the
biogas plant? Explain the role of microbes in this process. Identify the conditions under
which they exhibit optimal activity and effectiveness.
(Understanding)

(a) What is the term for the plant resulting from the introduction of CryIAb to prevent
corn borer infestation?
(b) Summarise the action of the introduced gene. (Understanding)

Observe the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Identify the type of cellular proliferation given in the diagram?

(b) Name the disease associated with this mode of cell division.
(c) State one method for detection of the disease given in (b) and a treatment approach.
(Understanding & Application)

S.No. Questions

Blood samples of three individuals (A, B and C) were collected and sent for DNA
analysis to look out for mutated genes. The given image represents the different alleles
for globin chains on their chromosomes and the number of α, β, γ and δ chains of
haemoglobin formed from their respective alleles. Study it carefully and answer the
following questions.
Source (edited): https://www.mdpi.com/2218-273X/11/5/755

(a) Interpret the above information by completing the following table:
Individual Condition (Normal / Genetic disorder) Clinical description
A Normal Normal Haemoglobin
B ------------------------- -------------------------
C ------------------------- -------------------------
(b) Consider a hypothetical situation, wherein individual ‘B’ undergoes test cross, what
percent of the off springs will be suffering from the major genetic disorder?
(c) What type of mutation leads to the genetic disorder depicted above?
(Application)

X-gal (also abbreviated BCIG) is an organic compound consisting of galactose linked
to a substituted indole. This compound was synthesized by Jerome Horwitz and
collaborators.
(a) Name the method that uses the above compound to select recombinants.
(b) On which principle is this method based on?
(c) Which enzyme’s presence is tested by using X-gal in molecular biology?
(Understanding)

VI: Very Long Answer Questions (5 Marks Each)
S.No. Questions

E. coli is grown in a nutrient medium containing equal amounts of glucose and lactose.
The graph below shows the growth curve of E. coli growing in it. Study it carefully and
answer the following questions.
(a) Identify sugar ‘X’ and ‘Y’.

(b) Why is sugar ‘X’ the preferred carbon source by E. coli?
(c) What is the significance of the short lag phase?
(d) Diagrammatically explain the major steps involved in the lac operon when glucose
is completely removed from this medium.
(e) lac mRNA is monocistronic or polycistronic? Justify your answer by giving a
reason.
(Analysis)

S.No. Questions

Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follow.
What is the causative agent of the disease? Describe its mode of transmission along with
two preventive measures for controlling it?
(Understanding)
Given below is a table depicting population interactions between species A and species
B.
Type of interaction Species A Species B
(a) (-) (+)
(b) (+) (-)
(i) Name the two types of population interactions (a) and (b) depicted in the above table.
(ii) Justify giving three reasons, how the type of interaction (b) is important in an
ecological context.
(Application)

S.No. Questions
77. [Reproduction]
Read the given Summary and answer the questions that follow:
• The menstrual cycle is complex and controlled by many different glands and the
hormones that these glands produce.
• The four phases of the menstrual cycle are menstruation, the follicular phase,
ovulation, and the luteal phase.
• The common menstrual problems include heavy or painful periods and premenstrual
syndrome (PMS).
• Knowing when in the menstrual cycle a woman is most likely to conceive can
increase the chance of pregnancy.
Source:
https://www.betterhealth.vic.gov.au/health/conditionsandtreatments/menstrual-cycle
(a) Why is menstrual cycle indispensable for sexual reproduction in humans?
(b) Write any four conditions in which a female may not have menstruation.
(c) In a nursing mother menstrual cycle stops temporarily. What could be the possible
natural reason? (Recall & Understanding)

Okazaki fragments are small sections of DNA that are formed during the process of
DNA replication in the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. However, in his research
laboratory, when Rishabh tried to generate multiple copies of a segment of DNA under
in vitro conditions, Okazaki fragments were not formed.
(a) Name and describe the techniques used by Rishabh for generating multiple copies
of DNA under in vitro conditions.
(b) Why were no Okazaki fragments produced during this process?
(Analysis)

ANSWER KEY
Q.No. Expected Answers
1. (c) 150
2. (b) the difference in the number of secondary oocytes and secondary spermatocytes
formed.
3. (c) Wuchereria bancrofti
4. (b) The individual is normally asymptomatic during this stage
5. (a) A-6mg/L, B-25mg/L, C-300mg/L
6. (a) Anaerobic bacteria
7. (d) Antacid- Lactobacillus acidophilus
8. (a) Riya
9. (d) P: 14N 14N and Q: 14N 15N
10.
P Q R S
(d) Replication Transcription Okazaki fragments Sigma factor
11. (b) Continuous transcription of structural genes will take place.
12. (d)1, 2 and 4
13. (a) Agrobacterium
14. (c) Beta galactosidase gene
15. (d) Offsprings with favourable variation survive and pass on their genes.
16. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
17. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.
18. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
19. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.

20. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
21. Analogous
22. The decrease in temperature, unstable and unpredictable climates contribute reduced
biodiversity richness at higher altitudes.
23. 1:1
(1 YY: 1 Yy)
24. If both the strands are copied, two complementary RNA strands will be produced which
forms dsRNA. (0.5 mark)
Both RNA strands would code for two different types of proteins. (0.5 mark)
25. Fungal cells are eukaryotic, splicing of introns are carried out by spliceosomes.
(0.5 mark)
Bacterial cells are prokaryotic where introns are absent as the genes are non-split.
(0.5 mark)
26. The first mRNA begins with the start codon (AUG) which codes for methionine.
(0.5 mark)
Other mRNAs begin with a stop codon (UAA/UAG) which do not code for any amino
acid. (0.5 mark)
27. Presence of more than one recognition site within the vector will generate several
fragments, which will complicate gene cloning.
28. It contains recognition sites for many different Restriction Enzymes (REs) and thus, it is
easy to find a suitable RE which can cut the plasmid as well as foreign DNA at the same
recognition site and thus foreign DNA can be easily ligated with the plasmid.
29. Pollen-18 chromosomes; (0.5 mark)

Primary Endosperm Nucleus-54 chromosomes. (0.5 mark)
30. (a) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer. (0.5 mark)

(b) In Vitro Fertilisation / Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection. (0.5 mark)
31. 2 heavy polypeptide chains and 2 light polypeptide chains joined by sulphide bonds.
32. dN/N = rt(K-N/K)
33. Both act as template, a dsRNA would be formed which would prevent protein formation.
34. • Y is biologically active insulin. (0.5 mark)

• Mature insulin contains only A and B chains without C. (0.5 mark)

35. This is a case of interaction called Commensalism /Ectocommensalism.

(in which vanda is benefitted and the tree is neither benefitted nor harmed.)
(may be accepted as equivalent answer)
36. ½ or 50%
37. S35
38. Genotype of individual 1: Aa
39. (a) ‘A’: Honeybee. (0.5 mark)

‘B’: Drosophila melanogaster (0.5 mark)
(b) ‘A’: Male. (0.5 mark)
‘B’: Female. (0.5 mark)
40. (a) A: Exon B: Intron. (0.5 mark)

(b) No, since cDNA is synthesised from (X RNA) hnRNA. It will have introns which
cannot be spliced in E. coli as it does not have an enzyme for it. (0.5 mark)
41. (a) Ravi (0.5mark)

Reason: (0.5mark)
3’TAGCCCAGC5’ 3’TAGCCCAGC5’ (daughter strand)
(daughter strand) 5’ATCGGGTCG3’ 5’ATCGGGTCG3’

(b) (i) Topoisomerase. (0.5mark)
(ii) DNA polymerase. (0.5mark)
42. No. of base pairs = Length of DNA

Dist. Between bp
1.02 ×107
No. of base pairs = (1mark)
3.4
No. of base pairs = 3 × 106 bp (1mark)
43. The male partner's inability to produce sperm could be attributed to tight undergarments
or issues with pituitary secretions (LH, FSH), cryptorchidism, alcoholism, etc. Similarly,
the female partner's inability to produce eggs might stem from problems with her pituitary
secretions (FSH, LH), issues with fimbriae collecting the egg, health issues affecting egg
production, etc. (Any two valid points -2X1= 2 marks)

44. • In the closed flowers, only autogamy is possible. (1 mark)

• In the open flowers, all the three types of pollinations/autogamy, geitonogamy and
xenogamy are possible. (1 mark)
• In the closed flowers, no genetic variability/evolution is possible. (1 mark)
• In the open flowers, there is possibility of genetic variability/evolution. (1 mark)
(Any one point to be accepted for each type of flower.)
45. Self -incompatibility restricts autogamy by a process known as self-sterility. (1 mark)
Such plants pollinate by cross pollination. (1 mark)
46. (i) Transducers refer to producers /algae or plants. (1 mark)

(ii) They convert solar energy /energy from sunlight into chemical energy or food energy
through photosynthesis. So, known as transducers.
OR
They convert solar energy into a form that can be used by other organisms in the food
chain. (1 mark)
47. (a) HindII produces blunt/flush ends and EcoRI produces cohesive or overhanging or
sticky ends on cutting the DNA.
(b) Foreign DNA cannot be ligated with the smooth ends produced by HindII, hence
EcoRI is preferred. (2X1 = 2 marks)
48. Synthesis and polymerisation of DNA will be arrested. DNA will not get amplified.
(2X1 = 2 marks)
49. (a) To provide immediate immunity, whereas with vaccine immunity, it takes time.
(1 mark)
(b) Vaccination is the term used for getting a vaccine — that is, actually having the
injection or taking an oral vaccine dose. Immunisation is the process of both getting
the vaccine and becoming immune to the disease after vaccination.
(Any relevant point -1mark)
50. (a) Mutations are large heritable changes in the characteristics of a population that arise
suddenly and cause speciation in a single step while evolution for Darwin is gradual
and occurs due to variations over a number of generations.
(b) Mutations are random and directionless while variations are small and directional.
(Any two points explained-2marks)
51. (a) 240 bases code for 80 amino acids.

100 – 80 = 20 amino acids. (1mark)
(b) Frame shift mutation (1mark)

52. (a)
5’…GTCGAC…3’
3’…CAGCTG…5’
(b) HindII and source Haemophilus influenzae strain D.
53. (a) After addition of lactose, complete breakdown of lactose to glucose and galactose takes
place. Therefore, there is no more lactose to bind to the repressor protein and the lac
operon shuts down. (1 mark)
(b) A very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present in the cell all the time,
otherwise lactose cannot enter the cells. (1 mark)
54. Since RNA was unstable and prone to mutations, DNA evolved from RNA with chemical
modifications that made it more stable. DNA has double stranded nature and has
complementary strands. These further resist changes by evolving a process of repair.
(Any two relevant points of DNA being more stable than RNA) (2X1 = 2 marks)
55. (a) True

Hb A Hb S
Hb A Hb A Hb A Hb A Hb S
Hb S Hb A Hb S Hb S Hb S
• Since X is heterozygous (HbA HbS) and Y is homozygous (HbS HbS).

• Both parents must be heterozygous.
(b) 1. larger size: Hb S.

2. smaller size: Hb A.
56. (a) Transformation (0.5 mark)

(b) DNase (0.5 mark)
(c) Ritu: Papaya pulp contains protease which will digest protein, but DNA is intact. So,
transformation occurs. (0.5 mark)
Ali: DNase will digest DNA so transformation will not occur. (0.5 mark)
57. (a) Pyramid of number. (½ X 1 = ½ mark)

(b) Grassland ecosystem, Pond ecosystem. (½ X 2 =1 mark)
(c) Secondary consumer / Carnivore. (½ X 1 = ½ mark)

58. (a) Drug dependence/ addiction is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic
and unpleasant withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs is abruptly discontinued
/ because of perceived benefits, drugs are frequently used repeatedly from which the
person may not be able to get out. (1 mark)
(b) Measures:
• Education and counselling- to face problems and stresses
• To channelize the energy into healthy pursuits like reading, music, yoga and
other extracurricular activities
• Seeking help from parents.
• to guide the person appropriately and immediately.
• Seeking professional and medical help.
• To help the person to get rid of the problem completely with sufficient efforts and
will power.
(any two points) ( ½ mark each)
59. (i) Paul Ehrlich proposed ‘Rivet popper hypotheses’ to support the assertion of David
Tilman.
(ii) According to this, an aeroplane is compared to ecosystem which is joined by a number
of rivets which are equal to species.
(iii) If every passenger starts popping a rivet initially that may not affect the safety of the
flight and the same way if the removal of species will lead to its extinction and the loss of
keystone species will then dangerously affect the stability of ecosystem.
(3X1=3 marks)
60. (a) Sample D contains the highest level of Pathogenic microbes.

(b) Sample B contains the lowest level of pathogenic microbes.
(c) Sample B can be used for domestic purposes. (3X1=3marks)
61. (a) The tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens (Natural Genetic
Engineer) has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic
to the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest
into a variety of plants as in RNAi. (2X1=2marks)
(b) Similarly, retroviruses have also been disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable
genes into animal cells as in gene therapy for diseases like Severe combined
immunodeficiency (SCID). (1mark)
62. (a) Polygenic inheritance.

8 types of combinations of alleles in the gametes.
(b) Weight of progeny plant (AaBbCc) = 90 + 54/ 2 (0.5 mk) =72g
(c) Weight of plant with genotype AAbbcc
Weight of dominant allele = 90/6 = 15g
Weight of recessive allele = 54/6 = 9g
Weight with genotype AAbbcc = 15 + 15 + 9 + 9 + 9 + 9 = 66g

63. (a) 5’--- AUG GUC UCU CAG GUC CCC --- 3’ (0.5mark)
(b) 18 – 6 = 12 bases. (0.5mark)
(c) 3. Nonsense mutation. (0.5 mark)
(d) 3 amino acids. (0.5 mark)
(e) β galactosidase will be synthesised, Permease and Transacetylase will not be
synthesised. (0.5 mark)
Lac z gene will be translated however, lac y and a will not be translated due to
non-sense mutation in y gene. (0.5 mark)
64. (a) DNA strand 2 because DNA strand 1 and mRNA have almost same base composition.
(0.5X2 = 1 mark)
(b) DNA strand 1 : 5’ to 3’
DNA strand 2 : 3’ to 5’ (0.5X2 =1 mark)
(c) Reverse transcription to obtain DNA.
Transcription to obtain mRNA. (0.5X2 = 1 mark)
65. (a) Ethical argument.

(b) The narrowly utilitarian argument.
(c) The broadly utilitarian argument.
66. (a) The smaller generative cell divides (mitotically) to produce two male gametes.
(1 mark)
The larger vegetative cell nourishes the generative cell. (1 mark)
(b) Those plants produce large number of pollen grains / In those plants’ pollination is
not that easier compared to the other plants, so the price is paid. (anyone) (1 mark)
67. (a) Fertilisation (fusion of male and female gametes) results in zygote which is a product
from two parents of the present generation. (1 mark)
Zygote is the first cell from which an organism of the next generation is formed.
Thus, fertilisation is a link between two generations. (1 mark)
(b) Fertilisation helps in maintaining the same chromosome number of a species /
Fertilisation ensures the maintenance of diploid chromosomes in a species. (1 mark)
68. (a) It’s a defensive mechanism of the body and they destroy the invading microorganisms
by phagocytosis. (1mark +1mark)
(b) Proliferation and maturation of lymphocytes occurs in the primary lymphoid tissues.
Antigens are localised and the adaptive immune response is initiated in the secondary
lymphoid tissues. (2X0.5=1 mark)
69. Methanogens are present in cow dung so there is need to add inoculum. (1 mark)
Breakdown of cellulose. (1 mark)
Anaerobic conditions. (1 mark)

70. (a) Bt corn. (½ mark)

(b) Cry I Ab/ Bt toxin gene codes for crystal protein; the Bt toxin protein (Cry) exists as
an inactive protein, but once an insect ingests it, it gets converted into an active form
due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilizes the crystal. The activated toxin
binds to the surface of mid gut and creates pores that cause swelling, lysis and
eventually death of the insect. (½ X 5 = 2½mark)
71. (a) Metastasis refers to the migration of cancer cells from the primary tumour site to
distant parts of the body. (1mark)
(b) leading to the spread of malignant disease/ cancer. (1mark)
(c) Diagnosis involves techniques like biopsy, histological examinations, and Pap tests,
while treatment options include surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy.
(Any 2X0.5=1mark)
72. (a)
Individual Condition (Normal / Genetic Clinical description
disorder)
A Normal Normal Haemoglobin
B Thalassemia minor Mild anaemia
C Thalassemia major Severe anaemia poor oxygen
carrying capacity
(b) 50% of the offsprings.

(c) Frame shift mutation.
73. (a) Blue-white method.

(b) This method is based on the insertional inactivation of Lac Z gene, present on the
vector, which can cleave a colourless X-gal into a blue coloured product.
(c) β-galactosidase. (3X1=3marks)


(a) ‘X’: Glucose
74.
‘Y’: Lactose
(b) Reasons:
• Glycolysis starts with glucose (X). Glucose is the only carbon source bacteria can use
for ATP production.
• Using lactose requires spending cellular energy to make enzymes that can break them
down.
(c) Lag phase indicates that glucose is utilized and that’s the time taken by the bacteria
to synthesize enzymes to breakdown lactose.
(d)
Repressor protein.
Binding of repressor protein with inducer.
Translation of 3 enzymes.
(e) Polycistronic.
This mRNA carries information for the synthesis of all three proteins
(galactosidase, permease, transacetylase).
75. The causative agent is Ascaris lumbricoides. (1mark)

The female Ascaris lays as many as 2,70,00,000 eggs in its lifetime and deposits about
2,00,000 eggs daily. The eggs are laid along with faeces. These contaminate food, water
and raw vegetables. Man gets infected by swallowing raw vegetables.
(Any 2X1=2 marks)
Preventive Measures:
(i) Disposal of human faeces by underground sewage system.
(ii) Children should be asked to wash their hands carefully and properly before handling
food. (Any two relevant points X1=2 marks)

76. (i) (a)– Amensalism. (1 mark)

(b)– Predation / parasitism. (1 mark)
(ii) Justifications-
• Nature’s way of transferring energy fixed by plants to higher trophic levels/conduits for
energy transfer.
• Keep prey population under control.
• Predators help in maintaining species diversity in a community, by reducing the intensity

of competition among competing prey species. (1X3 Points = 3 marks)
77. (a) Menstrual cycle helps in the production of female gamete/egg which is involved in
the fertilisation; Menstrual cycle prepares the uterus of the female for the
implantation of the embryo. (1+1 marks)
(b) Mental/emotional stress, physical stress, pregnancy, poor health, disorders,
abnormality in the reproductive parts (any four). (4 X ½ = 2 marks)
(c) It is nature’s way of recovery for the woman after delivering a baby. (1 mark)
78. (a) Polymerase chain reaction which involves the following steps:
• Denaturation- Denaturation is required to separate the double-stranded DNA sample.
It is done at 94-98 ℃ for 20-30 seconds. It breaks the hydrogen bonds present
between base pairs.
• Annealing-2 sets of primers, one each added to 3 prime ends of each DNA strand.
Polymerisation/Elongation – Addition of complementary bases to the 3-prime end of
each strand is done by DNA polymerase. (1 mark X 4)
(b) Rishabh did not get Okazaki fragments because his lab method copies DNA
smoothly and continuously, not in the piece-by-piece way that happens inside cells.
Rishabh probably used Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), a common lab method.
• Process: In PCR, the DNA is heated to separate the strands, then cooled to allow
new DNA to be built continuously on each strand.
• Result: Because PCR copies DNA in a single, continuous manner for both strands,
there's no need to make small sections like Okazaki fragments.
Whereas normal method in cells follows a replication process where in one strand running
in the 3’ to 5’ direction addition of complementary nucleotide sequence is continuous and
in the other strand it is discontinuous forming Okazaki fragments. (1mark)


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Click here to buy Latest Educart ISC Class 12 Books - https://amzn.to/3sO7MAC

With a growing emphasis on competency-based education globally, the educational landscape

July 2024 Dr. Joseph Emmanuel

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S.No. Types of Questions Page Nos.

I. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 1-6

II. Assertion-Reason Questions 7-8

III. Very Short Answer Questions 9-12

IV. Short Answer Questions 13-18

V. Long Answer Questions 19-24

VI. Very Long Answer Questions 25-27

Answer Key 28-37

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions

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COMPETENCY-FOCUSED PRACTICE QUESTIONS

I: Multiple Choice Questions (1 Mark Each)

1. [Genetics and Evolution]

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 1

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3. [Biology and Human Welfare]

4. [Biology and Human Welfare]

5. [Biology and Human Welfare]

6. [Biology and Human Welfare]

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 2

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7. [Biology and Human Welfare]

8. [Genetics and Evolution]

Case Mother Father Children

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 3

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9. [Genetics and Evolution]

Identify the type of DNA indicated by curve ‘P’ and ‘Q’.

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 4

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10. [Genetics and Evolution]

11. [Genetics and Evolution]

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 5

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12. [Genetics and Evolution]

13. [Biotechnology and its Applications]

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 6

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II. Assertion-Reason Questions (1 Mark Each)

16. [Ecology and Environment]

17. [Biotechnology and its Applications]

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 7

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19. [Genetics and Evolution]

20. [Genetics and Evolution]

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 8

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III: Very Short Answer Questions (1 Mark Each)

21. [Genetics and Evolution]

22. [Ecology and Environment]

23. [Genetics and Evolution]

24. [Genetics and Evolution]

25. [Genetics and Evolution]

26. [Genetics and Evolution]

ISC Competency-Focused Practice Questions 9