Test ID : 888

106/3A & 106/2, Postal Nagar, Bodhupatty (Post), Namakkal – 637 003.
Ph: 04286 – 234410, 234411, 234413, 234414 Cell : 95009 79461, 95009 79462
E- mail : gpccnamakkal@gmail.com Website : www.gpccnamakkal.com
Our Branches :
GPCC @ SSVM Girls Matric Hr. Sec. School Campus, Karur Green Park Academy, Chennai
GPCC @ Green Garden Matric Hr. Sec. School Campus, Erode Green Park Career Academy, Kovai

.MOCK TEST – V. SET - A

Std : Long Term Max. Marks : 720

Test Date : 27.04.2024 Time : 3.20 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1) This test is 3 hours 20 min duration and Maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 200 questions. There are four parts in the question paper, consisting
Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. Each part consists of 50 questions.
3) Each part consists of two sections, Section - A and Section - B.
4) Section - A of each subject consists of 35 questions and Section - B consists of 15
questions. Candidates have to answer for all the 35 questions from Section - A and only 10
questions out of 15 questions from Section - B.
5) Candidates are allowed to answer maximum of 180 questions only from all four parts.
6) There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deduced for incorrect choice
and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted question.
7) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
9) Dark only one circle for each question. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
10) Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
11) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet.
13) Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
14) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.

Stay Cool … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer …

Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 888 [A]

PHYSICS
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
1. The ratio of the magnitudes of the kinetic 5. A body starts from rest and travels 5m, 7m in
energy to the potential energy of an electron in two consecutive seconds. Then acceleration is
the 5th excited state of a hydrogen atom is 1) 1 m/s2 2) 2 m/s2
1 3) 3 m/s2 4) 0 m/s2
1) 4 2)
4 6. Flux φ (in weber) in a closed circuit of
1 resistance 12 Ω varies with time according to
3) 4) 1
2
the equation φ = (8t3 + 6t2 + 2), where ‘t’ is in
2. What will be orbital speed of a satellite around second. The magnitude of the induced current
a planet of mass 1030 kg of radius 108 m, when at t = 1s will be
it is revolving very close to planet?
1) 1 A 2) 0.5 A
1) 8.2 x 105 m/s 2) 3.5 x 105 m/s
3) 3 A 4) 6 A
3) 7.2 x 105 m/s 4) 9.3 x 104 m/s
7. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium have four
3. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of
valence electrons each. These are
value C1 is charged by a source of potential
characterized by valence and conduction
difference 4V. When another parallel
combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2 bands separated by every band gap
is charged by a source of potential difference respectively equal to (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge.
V. If both have same energy stored in it, the Which of the following option is true.
value of C2 interms of C1 is given by 1) (Eg)C = (Eg)si = (Eg)Ge
2C1 n2 2) (Eg)C > (Eg)si > (Eg)Ge
1) 2) 16 C1
n1 n 2 n1 3) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge > (Eg)Si
n2 16 C1 4) (Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C
3) 2 C1 4)
n1 n1n 2 8. A cylindrical drum open at top, containing 30
4. A current carrying closed loop in form of a litres of water. It drains out though a small
right isosceles triangle ABC is placed in xy opening at the bottom 10 litres of water comes
plane in a uniform magnetic field acting along out in time t1, the next 10 litres in next t2 sec
the y-axis as shown in figure. If the magnetic and the last 10 litres in a further time t3
force on the arm BC is F , then force on the seconds then,
arm CA and AB are respectively 1) t1 = t2 = t3
2) t1 > t2 > t3
3) t1 < t2 < t3
4) t1 = t2 > t3
1) − F + F 2) zero, zero
3) zero, − F 4) −F , zero
 2 Test ID : 888 [A]
9. The value of current (I) in given circuit is 13. What is acceleration of 6 kg mass, when
acceleration of 3 kg is 3 m/s2 as shown in
figure?

1) 12 mA 2) 24 mA 1) 3 m/s2 2) 4 m/s2
3) 12 µA 4) 36 µA 3) 1 m/s2 4) 2 m/s2
10. Statement 1 : Pressure can be subtracted from 14. A vessel filled with two non mixable liquids 1
pressure gradiant. and 2 having densities ρ1, ρ2. A solid ball,
Statement 2 : Only like quantities can be made of a material of density ρ3 is dropped in
added or subtracted from each other. the vessel. It comes to equilibrium in the
1) statement 1 and statement 2 both are true position shown in figure. The relation between
2) statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false densities is
3) statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
4) both statements false
11. In the given circuit, the charge that transfer to
ground long time after closing the switch will
be

1) ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3 2) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2

ρ
3) ρ1 < > ρ2 4) ρ1 = ρ2 = ρ3
5
15. The mass of 37 Li is 0.042 amu less than the
sum of masses of its constituents. The binding
energy per nucleon is
1) 5.586 MeV 2) 10.522 MeV
1) 13 µC 2) 12 µC
3) 2.433 MeV 4) 3.739 MeV
3) 9 µC 4) zero
16. A bullet of mass 1 g moving with a speed of
12. A transverse wave is described by the equation
20 m/s hit an ice block of mass 990 g kept on
 x
y = y0 sin(2π)  ft −  . The maximum particle a frictionless floor and gets stuck in it. The
 λ
amount of ice that melts, if 50% of the lost
velocity is four times the wave velocity if kinetic energy goes to ice, will be
πy 0 πy 0 1) 3 x 10-4 g 2) 3 x 10-2 g
1) λ = 2) λ =
4 2 3) 3 x 10-1 g 4) 3 x 10-3 g
3) λ = πy0 4) λ = 2πy0
 3 Test ID : 888 [A]
17. In the figure, the bulbs are identical and the 20. Match the following:
inductor is also ideal. Which of the following Physical quantity Formula
statements gives the correct observation after
1) Magnetic induction a) I
the switch is closed?
(B) H
2) Intensity of b) (1 + χ)
Magnetization (I)
3) Magnetic c) µH
susceptibility (χ)
4) Relative permeability d) M
(µr) v
1) The bulb B2 lights up earlier than B1 and 1) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 - a
finally both the bulbs shine equally bright 2) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 - b
2) B1 lights up earlier and finally both bulbs 3) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 - a
acquire equal brightness 4) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 - b
3) B2 lights up earlier and finally B1 shines 21. A charged particle Q is accelerated through a
brighter than B2 potential difference ‘V’ acquires velocity ‘x’,
4) B1 and B2 lights up together with equal if the same charge is accelerated through
brightness all the time double potential difference, velocity acquired
18. Two plane mirrors are placed at an angle θ so is
that a ray parallel to one mirror gets reflected x
1) 2x 2)
parallel to second mirror after two consecutive 2
reflections. The value of θ will be x
o o 3) 2x 4)
1) 30 2) 60 2
o
3) 75 4) 90o 22. If 700 J of energy is spent in increasing speed
19. A particle is moving with velocity 2iˆ + 3jˆ . of a wheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm, then its
The initial position vector of the particle is moment of inertia is ( kg – m2 ; π2 = 10)
ˆi − ˆj then the final position vector after 2 sec 1) 1 2) 14
will be 3) 21 4) 3.5
23. An external pressure P is applied on a cube at
1) 5iˆ + 5jˆ
0oC so that it is equally compressed from all
2) 5iˆ − 5jˆ sides. ‘k’ is bulk modulus of the material of
3) 5iˆ − 7ˆj cube and ‘α’ is its coefficient of linear
expansion. Suppose we want to bring the cube
4) 5iˆ + 7ˆj to its original size by heating. The temperature
should be raised by
 4 Test ID : 888 [A]
3α 28. When a spring is stretched by 2 cm, it stores
1) 2) 3pkα
pk 100 J of energy. If it is stretched further by
p p 2 cm, the stored energy will be increased by
3) 4) 1) 100 J 2) 200 J
3αk 2k
24. The phasor diagram shown below represents 3) 300 J 4) 400 J
29. A plane EM wave EZ = 100 cos (6 x 108t + 4x)
V/m, where ‘x’ is in metre and ‘t’ in second,
propagates in medium, what is refractive index
of the medium?
1) 1.2 2) 2.0
1) purely inductive circuit
3) 1.4 4) 1.5
2) purely resistive circuit
30. ‘n’ number of cells of emf E each connected
3) purely capacitive circuit
in series by reversing the polarity of them
4) LCR circuit
alternatively. The internal resistance of the cell
25. When a mass ‘m’ is attached to a spring it is ‘r’ then
oscillates with period 4s. When an additional
a) emf is zero, and total resistance is nr if ‘n’
mass of 2 kg is attached to a spring, time
is odd
period increases by 1s. The value of ‘m’
b) emf is E and total resistance is nr if n is odd
(nearly)
r
1) 3.5 kg 2) 8.2 kg c) emf is E and total resistance is if n is
n
3) 4.7 kg 4) 2.6 kg
even
26. A beam of light consisting of two
d) emf is zero and total resistance is nr if ‘n’ is
wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to
even
obtain interference fringes in a young’s double
1) a, b are correct 2) b, d are correct
slit experiment. What is the least distance
from the central maximum where the bright 3) a, c are correct 4) b only correct
fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide? 31. Poisson’s ratio can not have the value.
(distance between slits = 4 mm, distance 1) 0.1 2) 0.8
between screens and slits is 2m) 3) 0.2 4) 0.5
1) 0.65 mm 2) 1.3 mm 32. A gas mixture contain 4 moles of hydrogen
3) 2.6 mm 4) 3.9 mm and 4 moles of neon. Neglecting the
27. In a vernier calipers, there are 20 divisions on vibrational modes, the CP of the mixture is
the vernier scale which coincides with 18 1) 6 R
divisions of the main scale. 1 cm on main 2) 4 R
scale is divided into 10 equal parts. The least 3) 3 R
count of the instrument is 4) 5 R
1) 0.002 cm 2) 0.01 cm
3) 0.001 cm 4) 0.02 cm
 5 Test ID : 888 [A]
33. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright E
source placed 1 m away, when the same
1 3) 4)
source of light is placed   m away, the x
2 x=R
number of electrons emitted by photocathode 35. In the circuit shown below, the diode is
would connected in forward bias. The purpose of
1) decreases by a factor of 2 resistance R in the above circuit is
2) increases by a factor of 2
3) decreases by a factor of 4
4) increases by a factor of 4
34. A hollow charged sphere of radius R has a
constant surface charge density ‘σ’ of the
following graphs the one, which shows the 1) To decrease the threshold voltage drop
variation of electric field strength E with across diode
distance ‘x’ from the centre of the sphere is 2) To increase the threshold voltage drop
across diode
3) To limit the current through the diode
1) 2) 4) All of the above

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
36. A 30 kg boy standing in a 120 kg boat floating List – I List – II
on water is 20 m from the shore of a river. If (Position of object) Magnification
he moves 8 m on the boat towards shore, then I) at focus before a A) -∞
how far is he from the shore now? convex mirror
1) 12 m II) at centre of B) 0.5
curvature before
2) 1.6 m
concave mirror
3) 20 m
III) at focus before C) +1
4) 13.6 m
concave mirror
37. Match List – I with List – II and select the
IV) at centre of D) -1
correct answer using codes given below the
curvature before
list. convex mirror
E) 0.33
 6 Test ID : 888 [A]

Codes :
1) I – B, II – D, III – A, IV - E
2) I – A, II – D, III – C, IV - B
3) I – C, II – B, III – A, IV - E
4) I – B, II – E, III – D, IV - C
38. A body starts moving from rest with constant
acceleration covers displacement (s1) in first 1) 20 m/s 2) 25 m/s
‘t’ sec and s2 in first (t + 1)s. The displacement 3) 15 m/s 4)17 m/s
(s1 + s2) will be made in time
42. Transverse waves are generated in two
1) 2t -1 uniform wires A and B of the same material
2) 2t +1 by attaching their free ends to a vibrating
3) 2t 2 − 2t + 1 source of frequency 200 Hz. The area of cross
section of A is half that of B while tension on
4) 2t 2 + 2t + 1 A is twice than on B. The ratio of wavelengths
39. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic of transverse waves in A and B is
wave is given by
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 :1
By = (2 x 10-7T) sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)
3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1
Write the expression for the electric field.
43. A series L, R circuit connected with an ac
1) Ey = 60 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t)
source E = 25 sin (1000 t) V has a power
2) Ex = 60 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t) 1
3) Ez = 60 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t) factor of . If the source of emf is changed
2
4) Ez = 80 NC-1 sin (0.5 x 103x + 1.5 x 1011t) to E = 20 sin (2000 t) V, the new power factor
40. In a meter bridge experiment null point is of the circuit will be
obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire 1 1
when resistance ‘X’ is balanced against 1) 2)
2 3
another resistance ‘Y’. If X < Y, then where
1 1
will be the new position of the null point from 3) 4)
5 7
the same end. If one decides to balance a
resistance of 4X against Y. 44. If the equation of a state of a gas is expressed
1) 50 cm 2) 80 cm  a 
as  p + 2  (v – b) = RT here P = pressure,
3) 40 cm 4) 70 cm  v 
V = volume, T = absolute temperature, a, b, R
41. An object of mass, m = 1.5 kg is acted upon
by the force as shown in the figure that varies a
are constants, then 2 will have dimensions
with the position of the object. If the object b
starts from rest at a point x = 0, then its speed 1) M1L-1T-2 2) M3L-3T-6
at x = 50 m will be 3) M1L6T-2 4) None of these
 7 Test ID : 888 [A]

45. A 200 kg satellite is revolving around earth in

circular orbit of radius 2R. Amount of energy
required to transfer it to a circular orbit of
radius 4R is (Me = 6 x 1024 Kg, R = 6.4 x 106
m) nearly 1) 8 3 N 2) 10 N
1) 1.57 x 109 J 2) 1.57 x 106 J
3) 16 N 4) 8 N
3) 3.13 x 109 J 4) 3.13 x 106 J
49. The charged block is on a smooth horizontal
46. Two condensers of 20 µF and 30 µF are surface. An electric field is switched on when
connected in series across a 200 V DC supply. the spring is at it’s natural length. The
Then the charge on each condenser is maximum elongation of the spring is
1) 2400 µC 2) 4200 µC
3) 2600 µC 4) 3000 µC
47. An electron mass m and magnitude of charge
|e| initially at rest gets accelerated by constant qE 2qE
1) 2)
electric field E. The rate of change of de- k k
Broglie wavelength of this electron at time ‘t’ qE 2qE
3) 4)
ignoring relativistic effects 2k 3k
−h | e | Et 50. Current sensitivity of a galvanometer
1) 2)
| e | Et 2 h decreases by a factor of 50 when a shunt of
resistance 10 Ω is connected to a
−h h
3) 4) − galvanometer of resistance G. Then the value
| e | Et |e|E t
of G can be
48. If block is kept on rough surface shown in
1) 980 Ω 2) 98 Ω
figure. Find friction acting on block? (g = 10
m/s2) 3) 49 Ω 4) 490 Ω

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
51. Consider the following curve In the above graph X represents group with
highest atomic radius and Y shows least
atomic radius group. Which element belongs
to group Y?
1) Na
2) Mg
3) Cl
4) Si
 8 Test ID : 888 [A]
52. Match the column I with column II 1) 5,6-dibromo-6-chloro-1,3-cyclohexadiene
Column II 2) 2,3-dibromo-6-chloro-1,4-cyclohexadiene
Column I
(C-C bond length 3) 1,2-dibromo-1-chloro-3,5-cyclohexadiene
(Hydrocarbon)
in Ao) 4) 5,6-dibromo-5-chloro-1,3-cyclohexadiene
A Acetylene I 1.39 56. Which of the following reaction is incorrect?
High temp.
B Benzene II 1.20 1) n(CH2= CH2) 
pressure
→ –(CH2– CH2)n–
Catalyst
C Ethylene III 1.54
2) n(CH3 – CH = CH2) 
High temp.pressure
Catalyst
→
D Ethane IV 1.34
– (CH2 – CH2 – CH2)n –
A B C D
3) n(CH ≡ CH) Linear
Polymerization
→ polyacetylene
1) II I IV III
2) II IV I III
3) I IV II III 4) 3(CH ≡ CH) Red hot
Iron tube /873K
→

4) IV II I III
57. During electrolysis of acidulated water
53. Assertion (A) : Active mass of 1mole of any
(i = 965 amp), the weight of O2(g) on y-axis
gas at STP is 1/22.4. (mol/L)
and time(sec) on x-axis taken then slope is
Reason (R) : 22.4 L of any gas at STP
contains Avogadro number of atoms.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a wO
2 slope = ?
correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
correct explanation of the (A) time
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false 1) 8 x 102 2) 8 x 10–2
4) (A) is false (R) is true 3) 9.65 4) 965
54. Number of moles of Fe+2 ion(s) oxidized by 58. Match the columns
−
one mole of MnO ion in acid medium is
4
Column – I (Electrolyte for electrolysis)
1 2 A) CuSO4(aq)
1) 2)
5 3 B) NaCl(aq)
3 C) Diluted H2SO4(aq)
3) 5 4)
2 D) AgNO3(aq)
55. What is the correct IUPAC name of the Column – II
compound shown below? (Products obtained at inert electrodes)
Cl P) O2 evolved at anode
Br Q) H2 evolved at cathode
R) Cl2 evolved at anode
Br
S) Ag deposition at cathode
 9 Test ID : 888 [A]
1) A-P ; B-Q, R ; C-P, Q ; D-P, S
2) A-P, Q ; B-P, Q ; C-Q, R ; D-P, S 1)
3) A-P, S ; B-Q, R ; C-P, Q ; D-P, Q
4) A-Q, R ; B-Q, R ; C-P, Q ; D-P, Q
59. Select the correct order from the following
I) Acidic nature order is H2O < H2S < H2Se < 2)
H2Te
II) Reducing property order is H2S < H2Se <
H2Te
3)
III) Reducing property of dioxides is SO2 >
SeO2 > TeO2
CH2OH
CH2OH
IV) HEH bond angle order is H2O > H2S > 4) HCl
H2Se > H2Te heat
HO Cl
1) I only 2) II only
63. Match the following
3) III only 4) All
Column – A Column – B
60. Statement – I : Cu cannot liberate hydrogen
gas from acids.
Statement – II : E oCu+2 /Cu is positive. A) p) Br2 in CS2
1) Both Statement-I and II are true
2) Both Statement-I and II are false
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false B) q) Na2Cr2O7/H2SO4
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
61. An ionic compound X+Y− is most likely to be OH O
formed when
1) the ionization energy of ‘X’ is high and C) r) Zn/∆
electron affinity of ‘Y’ is low
2) the ionization energy of ‘X’ is low and O
electron affinity of ‘Y’ is high OH OH
3) the ionization energy of ‘X’ is high and
electron affinity of ‘Y’ is high D) s) CHCl3/NaOH
4) the ionization energy of ‘X’ is low and
electron affinity of ‘Y’ is low Br
62. Identify incorrect major product in the 1) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
following reactions 2) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q
3) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s
4) A-s, B-q, C-r, D-p
 10 Test ID : 888 [A]
64. The total number of basic groups in lysine is 68. According to Heisenberg’s uncertainty
1) 1 2) 2 principle, when the uncertainty in momentum
3) 3 4) 4 is zero then uncertainty in the position of a
particle is
65. The pressure volume work for an ideal gas can
1) 0.5 x 10–24 cm 2) 0.5 x 10–24 m
be calculated by using the expression
3) 5 x 10–24 m 4) Infinity
W = − ∫ Pext dV . When an ideal gas if
69. Match the following
compressed, which of the following is correct
Column – I Column – II
related to magnitude of work done.
(Atom / Ion) (Electronic configuration)
1) W(reversible) = W(irreversible)
A) Cu p) 1s22s22p63s23p63d10
2) W(reversible) < W(irreversible)
B) Cu2+ q) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2
3) W(reversible) > W(irreversible) C) Zn2+ r) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1
4) W(reversible) = W(irreversible) + Pext ∆V D) Cr2+ s) 1s22s22p63s23p63d9
66. Assertion (A) : A solution of the product t) 1s22s22p63s23p63d4
obtained by heating a mole of glycine with a 1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
mole of chlorine in presence of red 2) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-t
phosphorous generates chiral carbon atom.
3) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
Reason (R) : A molecule with two chiral
4) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p
carbons is always optically active
70. Choose the correct matching
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
Column – I Column – II
correct explanation of the (A)
(Titration between (Suitable indicator)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
compounds)
correct explanation of the (A)
A) NaOH + CH3COOH i) Phenolphthalein
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
B) NaOH + HCl ii) Neither
4) Both (A) and (R) are false phenolphthalein nor
67. Statement – I : In K4[Fe(CN)6], the methyl orange
coordination sphere is K+ and the counter ion C) CH3COOH + NH4OH iii) Either
is [Fe(CN)6]4– phenolphthalein (or)
Statement – II : The ionizable groups are methyl orange
written outside the bracket are called counter D) H2SO4 + NH4OH iv) Methyl orange
ions. 1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
1) Both Statement-I and II are true 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2) Both Statement-I and II are false 3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false 4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
 11 Test ID : 888 [A]
71. Assertion (A) : An electron in both atomic
and molecular orbitals can be influenced by
two or more nuclei depending upon number of 1) 2)
atoms in the molecule.
Reason (R) : An atomic orbital is monocentric
Br
while a molecular orbital is polycentric.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
3) 4)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true 75. In the given reaction the final major product(s)
72. Match the following correctly will be
Column – I Column – II
A) Lewis acid (LA) P) NH3
B) Lewis base (LB) Q) BF3
C) Both LA & LB R) SO2
D) Neither LA nor LB S) CH4 What are A and B?
1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
2) A-Q, B-P, C-R, D-S
1)
3) A-P, B-Q, C-S, D-R
4) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
73. The standard electrode potentials of redox
couples are given below. Which of the
following is the strongest oxidizing agent? 2)
o +3 +2
E Values : Fe / Fe = +0.77V,
Cu+2 / Cu = +0.34V
I2(s)/I– = +0.54V
3)
Ag+/Ag(s) = +0.80V
1) Fe+3 2) I2(s)
+2
3) Cu 4) Ag+
74. The major products ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are 4)
respectively
76. The standard Gibb’s energy for Daniel cell is
H2/Pd
'X' 1) -212.27 kJ/mol
1 eq
2) +212.27 J/mol
HBr 3) -212.27 J/mol
1 eq
'Y'
4) +212.27 kJ/mol
 12 Test ID : 888 [A]
77. Match the terms of column – I with column –II 1) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
Column – I 2) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
A) Inversion of cane sugar 3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
B) Decomposition of N2O and N2O5 4) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
C) Thermal decomposition of HI on gold 80. Which of the following is a limitation of
surface crystal field theory?
D) CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl 1) it does not explain colour of coordination
Column – II compounds
1) First order reaction 2) it does not take into account the covalent
2) Zero order reaction character of bonding between the ligand
and the central metal atom
3) Fractional order reaction
3) it does not explain the magnetic properties
4) Pseudo first order reaction
of complexes
1) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
4) all of the above
2) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
81. Hydration of 3-Phenylbut-1-ene with dilute
3) A-1, B-2, C-2, D-4
H2SO4 gives majorly
4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-2
1) 3-Phenylbutan-1-ol
78. In which of the following there is no change in
2) 3-Phenylbutan-2-ol
hybridisation?
3) 2-Phenylbutan-1-ol
∆
1) PCl5 
−Cl → PCl3 4) 2-Phenylbutan-2-ol
2

2) 2PCl5(g) ∆
→ [PCl4]+ + [PCl6]− 82. Arrange the following alcohols in the order of
reactivity towards gaseous HBr.
∆
3) PCl5 + H2O 
−2HCl→ POCl3 F
∆
4) PCl3 + 3H2O 
−3HCl→ H3PO3
79. Match the following columns
OH
Column – I Column – II
(II)
(Compound/Element) (Use)
F F
A) Lanthanoid oxide P) Television screen
B) Misch metal Q) Petroleum
cracking OH
C) Magnesium based R) Lanthanoid metal (III)
alloy of misch metal + iron 1) II > III > IV > I
D) Mixed oxides of S) Bullets 2) I > IV > II > III
lanthanoides are 3) I > II > III > IV
employed as catalyst 4) III > II >IV > I
 13 Test ID : 888 [A]
83. Match the following 85. The four compounds given below undergo
Column – I Column – II coupling with diazonium salts.
Complex Coordination number
3–
A = [Fe(C2O4)3] i) 4
+
B = [Co(en)2Cl2] ii) 5
C = [Fe(CO)5] iii) 6
2+
D = [Ni(NH3)4] iv) 3
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv The correct decreasing order of reactivity
3) A-iii, B-iii, C-ii, D-i towards coupling is
4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i 1) I > II > III > IV
84. The purpose of adding dilute H2SO4 in the 2) IV > III > II > I
preparation of Mohr’s salt is
3) II > I > III > IV
1) To prevent the hydrolysis of ferrous sulphate
4) I > III > II > IV
2) To increase the solubility of the salts used
3) To prevent the precipitation of carbonates
of metals
4) To neutralise ammonium salts
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
86. 10ml of alkane (gas) on complete combustion 1) 3 x 10–1 M
gives 30ml of CO2(g) at STP. What is the 2) 5 x 10–2 M
molecular formula of alkane? 3) 1 x 10–14 M
1) C3H6 2) C2H6 4) 2 x 10–13 M
3) C3H8 4) C3H4 89. The Ksp of CaF2 is 1.08 x 10–10. What volume
87. Slope and intercepts of the plots log10Kc of water required to dissolve 1g of CaF2 (Mol.
1 wt. = 78) ? (approximately)
versus are given respectively
T 1) 1L 2) 24L
−∆H ∆S
o o
−∆H o
∆S o
3) 0.24L 4) 43L
1) , 2) ,
R R 2.303R 2.303R 90. The Osmotic pressure of 0.1M aqueous
−∆H ∆S
o o
∆H o
−∆S o solution of MgCl2 at 500K is 8.167 atm. What
3) , 4) ,
2.303R 2.303 2.303 2.303R will be the percentage ionization of the salt?
88. pH of gastric juice is 1.3 approximately. Find 1) 24.5% 2) 98%
hydroxyl ion concentration at 298K? (log 2 = 3) 72% 4) 49%
0.3, log 5 = 0.7)
 14 Test ID : 888 [A]
91. The reaction mechanism for the reaction P → R 94. The correct structure of lactose is
is CH2OH H
k
I) P ↽k1⇀ 2Q (fast) H O H HOH2C O H
2
1) H CH2OH
k3 H H OH H
II) P + 2Q 
→ R. (slow) OH O OH
Rate law of reaction P → R is _____ OH OH H OH
1) k1[P][Q] 2) k1k2[P]
k1k 3 [P]2
3) 4) k1k2[Q]
k2 2)
92. The following two compounds I and II can be
distinguished by using reagent

I) II)

3)

a) aq. NaHCO3
b) Neutral FeCl3
c) HCl/ZnCl2 anhydrous
d) Tollens reagent 4)
e) Fehilings solution
1) a, b, e only 2) a, b, c, d only
3) b, c, d only 4) a, b, c only 95. Heat of neutralization between HCl and NaOH
93. The major product ‘Y’ in the following is 13.7k.cal and between HCN and NaOH is
reaction is 3k.cal at 45oC. Calculate the heat of ionization
of HCN.
1) 10.7 k.cal 2) 13.7 k.cal
3) 15.7 k.cal 4) 204 k.cal
96. The heats of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(l)
are x and y (k.cal.mol−1) respectively. The heat
1) 2) of combustion of benzene is z (k.cal.mol−1).
Heat of formation of benzene is (Consider
standard states)
1) 6x + 3y – z 2) 2x – 6y + z
3) 4) 3) x + y – z 4) z + 3y – 4x
 15 Test ID : 888 [A]
97. Assertion (A) : The volume of 0.2M KMnO4 100. The major product ‘Q’ obtained in the
required to oxidize 20ml of 0.1M oxalic acid following sequential reaction is
in acid medium is 40ml.
Reason (R) : 2moles of KMnO4 reacts with
5moles of oxalic acid in acid medium
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
correct explanation of the (A) NO2
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false 1) 2)
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
NO2
98. The number of 1o, 2o and 3o amines possible
with the molecular formula C4H11N. NO2
1) 3, 3, 1 2) 4, 3, 1 NO2
3) 3, 2, 1 4) 4, 2, 1 3) 4)
99. Find the number of stereo isomers of 1, 2-
dihydroxy cyclopentane.
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
BOTANY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
101. Which of the following are energy sources of 103. Assertion (A) : Endospermic seeds are
DNA replication? present in castor.
a) dATPs b) dGTPs Reason (R) : Endosperm is not completely
c) dTTPs d) dCTPs consumed by growing embryo in castor.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1) a only 2) a and c
correct explanation of (A)
3) a and b 4) a, b, c and d
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
102. Two key events take place during the ‘S’ correct explanation of (A)
phase in animal cell such as DNA replication
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
and centriole duplication. In which sites of the
4) (A) is false but (R) is true
cell do these events occurs? 104. Cell cycle includes
1) Nucleoplasm and Cytoplasm respectively 1) Duplication of genome
2) Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm respectively 2) Duplication of other cell constituents
3) Both occurs inside the nucleus 3) Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis
4) Both occurs inside/within the cytoplasm 4) All of these
 16 Test ID : 888 [A]
105. Identifythe incorrect statement from the 109. Themain physiological function attributed to
following regarding restriction endonucleases. GA3 is
1) They inspect the length of DNA. 1) Enhance genetic dwarfism
2) They recognise specific recognition 2) Root initiation on stem cuttings
sequence. 3) Bolting / Internodal elongation
3) They cut the phosphodiester bonds and 4) Promote senescence
hydrogen bonds. 110. Identifythe weed that has become a major
4) They are chemically proteins. cause of pollen allergy in India.
106. Innon-cyclic electron transport, electrons 1) Wheat 2) Carrot grass
from photolysis of water will enters into 3) Sea grass 4) Mirabilis
1) Lumen 2) PS-I 111. Identifythe character of generative cell from
3) PS-II 4) Stroma the following
1) It has large irregular nucleus
107. Which of the following is considered as
energy currency of the cell? 2) It has abundant food reserve

1) Adenosine triphosphate 3) It is a largest cell of pollengrain

4) It is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm
2) Nicotinamide adeno dinucleotide
112. Assertion (A) : Neurospora is commonly
3) Adenylic acid
used in biochemical and genetic work.
4) Guanylic acid
Reason (R) : It belongs to Ascomycetes fungi.
108. Matchcolumn I with column II and choose the
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct option. correct explanation of (A)
Column I Column II 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
A Algae I Non-archegoniates correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
First
B Bryophytes II 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
spermatophytes
113. Arrange the following taxa in the correct
C Pteridophytes III Non-embryophytes sequence of classification of Homo sapiens
D Gymnosperms IV First tracheophytes from lower to higher taxa
E Angiosperms V First archegoniates (i) Primata
(ii) Chordata
A B C D E
(iii) Mammalia
1) I II IV III V
(iv) Hominidae
2) IV III I V II
1) i, iii, iv, ii 2) iv, i, iii, ii
3) V II III IV I
3) ii, iii, i, iv 4) iv, ii, iii, i
4) III V IV II I
 17 Test ID : 888 [A]
114. Which of the following statements is not 117. Theminimum number of meiotic divisions
correct? required to produce 200 zygotes is
1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the 1) 200 2) 150
basis of genetic mapping of human genome
3) 50 4) 250
2) Polymorphism is the basis of DNA
118. Consider,
a dsDNA molecule is having 20%
fingerprinting
guanine, what would be the proportion of
3) Polymorphism arises due to mutations
adenine?
4) Negligible range of inheritable mutations in
1) 60% 2) 80%
a population is known as polymorphism
115. Identifythe given image and choose the 3) 30% 4) 40%
correct option. 119. Statement I : Hard and stony endocarp is the
characteristic feature of drupe fruit.
Statement II : In coconut entire pericarp is
edible.
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
120. Which of the following brown algae can be
used as food?
1) Ultra structure of bacterial flagellum
A) Laminaria B) Porphyra C) Sargassum
2) Ultra structure of centrioles
1) A, B and C 2) A and B
3) Ultra structure of eukaryotic flagellum
4) Ultra structure of fimbriae 3) B and C 4) A and C
121. Morphology of edible parts in potato and
116. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct option. sweet potato are
Column I Column II 1) Root tuber and root tuber

A Cotton fibre I Hormone 2) Stem tuber and stem tuber

3) Stem tuber and root tuber respectively
Exoskeleton of
B II Enzyme 4) Root tuber and stem tuber respectively
arthropods
C Trypsin III Cellulose 122. Which of the following provides tensile
strength to primary dicot stem?
D Insulin IV Chitin
1) Bast fibres
A B C D
2) Parenchyma
1) IV III II I
2) IV II I III 3) Collenchyma
3) III IV II I 4) All of these
4) I II III IV
 18 Test ID : 888 [A]
123. Assertion (A) : Some tropical plants are more 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
efficient in CO2 fixation. correct explanation of (A)
Reason (R) : They have special type of CO2 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
fixation mechanism called C4 pathway. correct explanation of (A)
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 3) (A) is true but (R) is false
correct explanation of (A) 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not 129. Theprocess of multiplication of alien DNA
the correct explanation of (A) which is integrated into the host genome is
3) (A) is correct but (R) is false called
4) (A) is false but (R) is correct 1) Gene transfer 2) Gene cloning
124. Which layer of the cell envelope determines
3) Gene silencing 4) Gene splicing
the shape of the cell and provides a strong
130. Match
column I with column II and choose the
structural support to prevent the bacterium
correct option.
from bursting or collapsing?
Column I Column II
1) Capsule 2) Cell membrane
3) Glycocalyx 4) Cell wall Doubling of the
A I Karyokinesis
DNA content
125. Mendel work was published in the year
1) 1990 2) 1865 Doubling of the
3) 1875 4) 1965 B no. of II G1 phase
chromosomes
126. Which of the following is correct w.r.t the
plant selected by Mendel for his work? Doubling of the
1) It is a bisexual plant C most of the cell III Anaphase
organelles
2) It is self pollinated plant
3) It is a dicot plant Doubling of the
D IV S phase
no. of nuclei
4) All of the above
127. The techniques of genetic engineering include A B C D
A) Creation of recombinant DNA 1) I II IV III
B) Gene cloning 2) IV III II I
C) Gene transfer 3) IV III I II
1) A and B 2) B and C 4) I II III IV
3) A and C 4) A, B and C 131. The
maximum number of existing transgenic
animals are
128. Assertion(A) : Photolysis of water fulfill the
electron deficiency in PS-II but not PS-I. 1) Cow 2) Pig
Reason (R) : Water splitting complex (OEC) 3) Mice 4) Rabbit
is associated with PS-II only.
 19 Test ID : 888 [A]
132. Thefirst human hormone produced by rDNA 2) Polymerase Chain Reaction
technology is 3) Polymerase Complementary RNA
1) Estrogen 2) Insulin 4) Both (1) and (2)
3) Testosterone 4) Thyroxin 135. Statement I: Plasma membrane is
133. pBR322 is used to transform the following exceedingly thin and not visible as a separate
cells layer.
1) Human cells 2) Yeast cells Statement II: Plasma membrane is selectively
3) Bacterial cells 4) All of these permeable and present in all living cells.
134. Expand PCR, a technique which is used in 1) Both statements I and II are correct
amplification of DNA? 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
1) Photosynthetic Carbon Reduction
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
136. Assertion: Daughter DNA molecules are 138. Match column-I and column-II w.r.t genetic
identical to the parental DNA molecule. codes and corresponding amino acids.
Reason: Complementarity does not mean Column-I Column-II
identical.
A CAC I Methionine
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the
B AAA II Valine
correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the C GUU III Histidine
correct explanation of the (A) D AUG IV Lysine
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false 1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
4) Both (A) and (R) are false 2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
137. Select the incorrect statement from the 3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
following. 4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
1) W.M. Stanley crystallized the viruses for 139. Who among the following is related to
the first time gibberellins?
2) The protein coat of viruses is called capsid 1) E.Kurosawa 2) Miller
3) Viral symptoms includes leaf rolling and 3) H.H.Cousins 4) F.W. Went
curling, dwarfing and stunted growth 140. A lateral branch with short internodes and
4) T.O. Diener discovered an infectious agent each node bearing a rosette of leaves and tuft
which is larger than viruses of balancing roots are found in
 20 Test ID : 888 [A]
1) Wolffia 2) Pistia 3) Cellular respiration
3) Eichhornia 4) Both (2) and (3) 4) All of these
141. Modified photosynthetic petiole is present in 147. Select correct match.
1) Asparagus 2) Opuntia 1) GA3 − Early seed production in conifers
3) Euphorbia 4) Australian acacia 2) Auxins – Overcomes apical dominance
142. Commercially important jute fibres are 3) Ethylene – Seed maturation and
1) Bast fibres development
2) Secondary phloem fibres 4) Cytokinin – Synchronised fruit set in pine
3) Xylem fibres apple
4) Both 1 & 2 148. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by bacteria do
143. Which of the following is related to synthesis not kill the bacteria themselves because
of lipoproteins? 1) Toxin is immature
1) ER 2) Mitochondria 2) Bacteria are resistant to toxin
3) Chloroplast 4) Peroxisome 3) Toxin is inactive
144. Among the secondary metabolites listed 4) Bacteria enclose the toxin in a special sac
below, which substances are polymeric in 149. Ifa dsDNA molecule with 204nm is having
nature. 1560 hydrogen bonds and 20% adenine. What
A) Starch B) Gums C) Rubber would be the number of hydrogen bonds
D) Cellulose E) Ricin present between guanine and cytosine?

1) B and C only 1) 1200 2) 1800

2) A, B and C only 3) 1080 4) 1440

150. Choose the correct expression from the
3) B, C and D only
following regarding sewage treatment.
4) B, C, D and E only
1
145. The ultimate oxidizing agent of Z-scheme of 1) BOD ∝
No.of micorbes
electron transport is
1) PS-I 2) NADP+ 1
2) BOD ∝
3) Cytochromes 4) Fd Pollutant potential

146. Allthe energy required for life processes is 3) BOD ∝ Organic matter
obtained by 4) BOD ═ Inorganic matter
1) Oxidation of food
2) Breaking of C-C bonds of complex
compounds within the cell
 21 Test ID : 888 [A]
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
151. Match the following. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Column - I Column - II
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
A) Physalia i) Sea anemone
correct explanation of A
B) Adamsia ii) Sea pen 3) A is true but R is false
C) Pennatula iii) Portuguese man-of-war 4) A is false but R is true
154. Which part of the circulatory system of
D) Meandrina iv) Sea fan
cockroach has funnel shaped chambers?
E) Gorgonia v) Brain coral
1) Heart 2) Alary muscles
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v 3) Blood vessels 4) all of these
2) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv, E - v 155. How many factors given in the box favour for
3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - v, E - iv the formation of carbamino-haemoglobin near
4) A - iii, B - i, C - v, D - ii, E - iv the tissues?

152. Match the following. Low pO2, High pCO2, High H+

concentration, Lower temperature
Column - I Column - II
Choose the correct option.
A) Smooth muscles i) Afferent fibres 1) one 2) two
B) Carry impulse away 3) three 4) four
ii) SNS
from the CNS 156. During a trauma which of the following does

C) Skeletal muscles iii) Efferent fibres not occur.

1) Stimulation of platelets to release certain
D) Carry impulse
iv) ANS factors
towards the CNS
2) Release of certain clotting factors by
1) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i damaged tissues
2) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i 3) Coagulation of blood
3) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i 4) No role of calcium ions in mechanism of
4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv clotting
157. Which of the following monoecious
153. Assertion(A): The members of the phylum
ectoparasite contains nephridia as excretory
vertebrata possess notochord during their
organ?
embryonic period.
1) Earthworm
Reason (R): In vertebrates notochord is
2) Nereis
replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral
3) Round worm
column in the adult.
4) Blood sucking leech
 22 Test ID : 888 [A]
158. In
honey bees females are having A 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
chromosomes, female gametes are having B explanation of A
chromosomes, males are having C 2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
chromosomes and male gametes are having D correct explanation of A
chromosomes 3) A is true but R is false
A B C D 4) A is false but R is true
1) 16 16 16 32 162. Human excretory system includes all, except
2) 16 8 32 16 i) a pair of kidneys
3) 32 16 16 16 ii) unpaired ureters
4) 32 16 16 8 iii) unpaired urethra
159. Which one of the following is often seen in iv) pair of ureters
plants? v) pair of urethra
1) Aneuploidy
vi) unpaired urinary bladder
2) Polyploidy 1) ii and v only 2) ii, iii and v only
3) Failure of segregation of chromatids 3) ii, iii and vi only 4) ii and vi only
4) both 1 and 3
163. Assertion(A): Vertebral column extends from
160. Match the following columns and choose the the base of the skull.
correct option. Reason (R): Each vertebra has a central
Column - I Column - II hollow portion called neural canal.
A) Open circulatory system i) Fish 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
B) Closed circulatory system ii) Arthropoda explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not
C) Single circulation iii) Annelids
correct explanation of A
D) Double circuit circulation iv) Crocodile
3) A is true but R is false
1) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i 4) A is false but R is true
2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv 164. Identifythe endocrine gland labelled as ‘A’ in
3) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv the given figure and choose the incorrect
4) A - ii, B - iv, C - iii, D - i option related to its hormone.
161. Assertion(A): Coronary artery disease, often
referred to as atherosclerosis.
Reason (R): In CAD there is buildup of
calcium, fats, cholesterol and fibrous tissues
(plaques) in the inner lining of coronary
arteries.
 23 Test ID : 888 [A]
1) stimulates the process of bone resorption 169. Hymen can be broken by
2) stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal 1) sudden fall or jolt
tubules 2) insersion of vaginal tampon
2+
3) increases Ca absorption from the digested 3) sports like horseback riding and cycling etc
food 4) all the above
4) decreases the Ca2+ levels in the blood 170. Assertion(A): The menstrual flow results due
165. Find out incorrect match from the following. to breakdown of endometrial lining of uterus
1) Human male gamete - AX / AY and blood vessels which form liquid that comes
2) Human female gamete - AX only out through vagina.
3) Zygote - either AAXX or AAXY Reason (R): In the absence of fertilization, the
4) Embryo either - AXX or AXY corpus luteum degenerates. This causes
166. Which of the following scientist noted that disintegration of endometrium leading to
menstruation.
embryos never pass through the adult stages of
other animals? 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1) Ernst Heckel explanation of A

2) Thomas Hunt Morgan 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
3) Karl Ernst von Baer
3) A is true but R is false
4) Ernst Mayr
4) A is false but R is true
167. Whichof the following are correct w.r.t
171. Thenatural method of contraception that has
homology?
been reported to be effective only upto a
1) Hearts of different vertebrates
maximum period of six months following
2) Brains of different vertebrates
parturition is
3) Forelimbs of different mammals
1) periodic abstinence
4) all of these
2) withdrawal
168. Statement-I: Soon after the infant is delivered
3) lactational amenorrhea
the placenta also expelled out of the uterus.
4) coitus interruptus
Statement-II: Oxytocin acts on the uterine
172. Whichof the following are generally advised
muscle and causes stronger uterine
for the male/ female partners as a terminal
contractions.
method to prevent any more pregnancies?
1) Both Statements I and II are correct
1) Barriers
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
2) Surgical methods
incorrect
3) IUDs
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
correct 4) Pills

4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

 24 Test ID : 888 [A]
173. The number of MTPs performed in a year all 1) Smack can be obtained from ‘A’
over the world is 2) ‘B’ with hallucinogenic properties and
1) nearly 45 to 50 billion product of ‘A’ acts on cardiovascular
2) nearly 45 to 50 million system
3) nearly 30 to 40 billion 3) Hashish can be obtained from the flower of
4) nearly 30 to 40 million ‘B’
174. Select the correct statement. 4) Coke can be obtained from ‘A’
1) Male Drosophila is homogametic 177. Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for
2) In male grasshoppers 100% sperms have no 1) allergies
sex chromosomes 2) auto immunity
3) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny 3) graft rejections
depends on the type of egg rather than sperm 4) innate immunity
4) Human females have one of their sex of Papaver somniferum is used to
178. Latex
chromosome much shorter than the other extract
175. Statement-I: Antibodies against cancer - 1) cocaine 2) charas
specific antigens are used for detection of certain 3) morphine 4) ganja
cancers. 179. Read the following statements.
Statement-II: Cellular oncogenes can induce a. A group of individuals resulting by asexual
transformation of a normal cell into cancerous reproduction considered as a population.
neoplastic cells without any activation. b. All the cormorants in a wetland is an
1) Both Statements I and II are correct example of communities in an ecosystem.
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is c. An individual has births and deaths, but a
incorrect population has birth rates and death rates
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is per capita.
correct d. Population size, technically called
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect population density.
1) a and b are correct, c and d are incorrect
2) all statements are incorrect
3) all statements are correct
4) a, c and d are correct b is incorrect
176. A) B)
180. Statement-I: Detritivores help in fragmentation.
Statement-II: Detritivores break down detritus
into smaller particles.
 25 Test ID : 888 [A]
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 183. The sigmoid curve of population growth is
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is also known as
incorrect 1) exponential growth
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is 2) geometric growth
correct 3) Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 4) both 1 and 2
181. Ecological diversity exists at 184. Read the following and choose the correct
1) species level statements.
2) genetic level A. Predators keep prey population under
3) ecosystem level control.
4) organism level B. Plants have evolved diverse morphological
182. Extinction of an ecologically unique and chemical defenses against herbivores.
assemblage of more than 200 species of C. Predators help in maintaining species
cichlid fish in lake Victoria in East Africa is diversity in a community.
due to D. Predators in nature are prudent.
1) fragmentation of large territories into 1) only A and D 2) only D
smaller ones 3) A, B, C and D 4) only C
2) over exploitation 185. Which of the following does not have nerve
3) alien species invasions cells?
4) pollution 1) Sponges 2) Hydra
3) Insects 4) all of these

SECTION – B (15 questions)

Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
186. Readthe following and choose the true 187. Match the following columns and choose the
statements w.r.t Amphibia. correct options.
a) Tympanum represents the ear Column - I Column - II
b) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive (Epithelia) (Characters)
tracts open into a common chamber cloaca p) Move mucus in a
A) Cuboidal
specific direction
c) Sexes are separated and fertilization is
internal B) Squamous q) Tall and slender cells
C) Columnar r) Cube - like cells
d) Salamandra is limbless and with tail
s) Flattened cells with
1) a and c 2) a and b D) Ciliated
irregular boundaries
3) b and c 4) c and d
 26 Test ID : 888 [A]
1) A- r, B - s, C - q, D - p 190. Match the column I with column II.
2) A- r, B - p, C - s, D - q Column - I Column - II
3) A- p, B - q, C - r, D - s A) Expiratory i) 2500 mL to 3000
4) A- q, B - p, C - s, D - r Reserve Volume mL
188. Assertion(A): Compound epithelium plays a B) Inspiratory
major role in absorption and secretion. ii) 500 mL
Reserve Volume
Reason (R): Compound epithelium is found
iii) 1000 mL to 1100
in the buccal cavity C) Residual Volume
mL
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
iv) 1100 mL to 1200
explanation of A D) Tidal Volume
mL
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A 1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
3) A is true but R is false 2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
4) A is false but R is true 3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
189. Identifythe correct statements w.r.t urine 4) A - iv, B - i, C - iii, D - ii
formation in humans? 191. Choose the wrong statement.
A) 1100 - 1200 ml of blood is filtered by the 1) Motor unit = motor neuron + many muscle
kidneys per minute fibres
B) Selective secretion of hydrogen, potassium 2) Ca2+ levels in cytoplasm of muscle cell
ions and NH3 occurs at DCT. increases during muscle contraction
C) Collecting duct is a long duct extends from 3) During contraction of muscle, there is no
medulla to the inner parts of cortex change in A - band size
D)PCT helps to maintain the pH and ionic 4) In a maximally contracted muscle, H-zone
balance of the body fluids of I - band disappears
Choose the correct answer from the options 192. Whichof the following are the contributions
given below of David Tilman related to biodiversity?
1) A, B and C a) Plots with more species showed less year to
2) A, B, C and D year variation in total biomass.
3) B, C and D b) Western Ghats ecosystems are less
functional if one of its tree frog species is
4) A, B and D
lost
c) Rich biodiversity is imperative for the
survival of human race on this planet
d) Increased diversity contributed to higher
productivity
 27 Test ID : 888 [A]
1) a and b 2) b and c 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
3) a and d 4) c and d explanation of A
193. Matchthe following columns and choose the 2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct option. correct explanation of A

Column - I Column - II 3) A is true but R is false

4) A is false but R is true
A) Producer i) Eagle
196. When a stimulus is applied at a site on the
B) Primary consumer ii) Bacteria
polarized membrane of a neuron, at that site
C) Secondary consumer iii) Man 1) it becomes freely permeable to Na+ ions
D) Decomposer iv) Cow 2) it becomes freely permeable to K+ ions
v) Algae 3) it causes reversal of polarity from positive
1) A- iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii to negative on the outer side
2) A- ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii 4) both 1 and 3
3) A- iv, B - iii, C - v, D - ii 197. Choose incorrect option related to cortisol.
4) A- v, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii 1) produces anti-inflammatory reactions
194. Statement-I:Nearly 45,000 species of plants 2) suppresses the immune response
and twice as many of animals have been 3) stimulates the RBC production
recorded from India. 4) promotes the cellular uptake and utilization
Statement-II: According to May’s global of amino acids
estimates only 22 percent of the total species 198. Whichof the following statements are correct
have been recorded so far. about Down’s syndrome?
1) Both Statements I and II are correct A) This disorder was first described by
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is Langdon Down (1866)
incorrect B) Such an individual has overall masculine
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is development, however the feminine
correct development is also expressed
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect C) The affected individual is short statured
195. Assertion(A):In a collection of moths carried D) Physical, psychomotor and mental
out from England after industrialisation i.e., in development is retarded
1920, there were more dark winged moths than Choose the correct answer from the options
white winged moths. given below.
Reason(R): After industrialisation dark 1) B and D only 2) A and C only
winged moths were able to camouflage 3) A, B and C only 4) A, C and D only
themselves i.e., hide in dark background to
escape from the predation.
 28 Test ID : 888 [A]
199. Assertion(A): The geological history of earth 200. In
nature a given habitat has enough resources
closely correlates with the biological history of to support a maximum possible number,
earth. beyond which no further growth is possible in
Reason(R): Ancestors were present at habitat it is called
different periods in the history of earth and 1) Nature’s carrying capacity
new forms of life arose at different periods of 2) Darwin’s fitness
history of earth. 3) Biotic potential
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
***All The Best***