Test ID : 877

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.MOCK TEST – II. A

Std : Long Term Max. Marks : 720
Test Date : 26.04.2023 Time : 3.20 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Important Instructions :
1) This test is 3 hours 20 min duration and Maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 200 questions. There are four parts in the question paper, consisting
Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. Each part consists of 50 questions.
3) Each part consists of two sections, Section - A and Section - B.
4) Section - A of each subject consists of 35 questions and Section - B consists of 15
questions. Candidates have to answer for all the 35 questions from Section - A and only 10
questions out of 15 questions from Section - B.
5) Candidates are allowed to answer maximum of 180 questions only from all four parts.
6) There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deduced for incorrect choice
and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted question.
7) Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
9) Dark only one circle for each question. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
10) Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
11) On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
12) The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet.
13) Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
14) No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.

Stay Cool … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer …

Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 877

PHYSICS
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
1. A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10 m C) Isochoric III) Heat absorbed goes
above the ground and throws a stone process partly to increase
horizontally, with an initial speed of 5m/sec. internal energy and
Neglecting the air resistance, the speed with partly to do work
which the stone hits the ground will be ___
D) Isobaric IV) No work is done on
m/sec. (g = 10 m/s2)
process or by gas
1) 20 2) 15
Choose the correct answer from the options
3) 30 4) 25
given below.
2. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The 1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D - IV
block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from
2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D - III
its equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a
3) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D - III
frictionless surface from rest. The kinetic
energy of the block at x = 5 cm is 0.25 J the 4) A – I, B – II, C – III, D - IV
spring constant of spring is ___ Nm-1. 6. A body cools from 60oC to 40oC in 6 minutes.
If temperature of surrounding is 10oC then
1) 50 N/m 2) 80 N/m
after next 6 minutes, its temperature will be
3) 87 N/m 4) 67 N/m
1) 21oC 2) 28oC
3. The weight of a body at the surface of earth is
3) 38oC 4) 33oC
18 N. The weight of the body at an altitude of
7. A mass ‘m’ attached to free end of a spring
3200 km above the earth’s surface is (given,
executes SHM, with a period of 1 sec. If the
radius of earth Re = 6400 km)
mass is increased by 3 kg the period of
1) 9.8 N 2) 4.9 N oscillation increases by one second, the value
3) 19.6 N 4) 8N of mass ‘m’ is ____ kg.
4. Surface tension of a soap bubble is 2.0 x 10-2 1) 2 kg 2) 1 kg
N/m. Work done to increase the radius of soap 3) 5 kg 4) 3 kg
bubble from 3.5 cm to 7 cm will be 8. A steel wire with mass per unit length
22 7.0 x 10-3 kg is under tension 70 N. The speed
(Take π = )
7 of transverse wave in the wire will be
1) 0.72 x 10-4 J 2) 3.76 x 10-4 J 1) 200 π m/sec 2) 100 m/sec
3) 18.48 x 10-4 J 4) 9.24 x 10-4 J 3) 10 m/sec 4) 50 m/sec
5. Match list I with list II 9. Two charges q1 and q2 are separated with
distance ‘d’ and placed in a medium of
List – I List - II dielectric constant ‘k’. What will be the
A) Isothermal I) Work done by gas equivalent distance between charges in air for
process decreases internal the same electrostatic force?
energy 1) d k 2) k d
B) Adiabatic II) No change in 3) 1.5d k 4) 2 d k
process internal energy

A
 2 Test ID : 877
10. Two cells are connected between points A and 13. A concave mirror of focal length f1 is placed at
B as shown cell (1) has emf of 12 V and a distance of ‘d’ from a convex lens of focal
internal resistance of 3 Ω cell (2) has emf of length f2. A beam of light coming from
infinity and falling on this convex lens –
6V and internal resistance of 6 Ω. An external
concave mirror combination returns to
resistance of 4Ω is connected across A & B. infinity. The distance ‘d’ must be equal to
The current flowing through 4Ω will be 1) f1 + f2 2) –f1 + f2
3) 2f1 + f2 4) -2f1 + f2
14. A potentiometer wire of length 10m and
resistance 20 Ω is connected in series with a
25 V battery and external resistance 30 Ω. A
cell of emf E is secondary circuit is balanced
by 250 cm long potentiometer wire. The value
of E is
1) 1 A 2) 2 A
1) 2.5 V 2) 1.5 V
3) 4 A 4) 7 A
3) 1 V 4) 2 V
11. The magnitude of magnetic induction at
15. Light of two different frequencies whose
midpoint ‘O’ due to current arrangement as photons have energy 1 eV and 2.5 eV
 a respectively illuminate a metallic surface of
shown in figure will be  r = 
 2 work function is 0.5 eV successively ratio of
maximum speed of emitted electrons will be
F 1) 1 : 2 2) 1 : 1
3) 1 : 5 4) 1 : 4
A B O
r r E 16. The speed of swimmer is 4 km/hr in still
i D
water. If the swimmer makes his strokes
C normal to the flow of river of width 1 km, he
reaches a point 750 m down the stream on the
µ 0i 2µ 0i opposite bank. The speed of river water is
1) 2) 1) 4 km/hr 2) 7 km/hr
πa πa
3) 3 km/hr 4) 1 km/hr
µ 0i µ 0i
3) 4) A block of 3 kg is attached to a string whose
2πa πa 2 17.
other end is attached to the wall. An unknown
12. A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of
force F is applied so that the string makes an
power 20 mW and duration 300 ns. Assuming angle of 30o with the wall. The tension T is
speed of light as 3 x 108 m/sec. The (Given g = 10 m/sec2)
momentum of object becomes equal to
1) 0.5 x 10-17 kg m/sec
2) 2 x 10-17 kg m/sec
3) 3 x 10-17 kg m/sec
4) 1 x 10-17 kg m/sec

A
 3 Test ID : 877
1) 20 N 2) 25 N 1) 1 cm 2) 1 mm
3) 10 N 4) 15 N 3) 0.1 mm 4) 0.1 cm
18. As per given figure, a small ball P slides down 21. A water heater of power 2000 W is used to
the quadrant of circle and hits the other ball Q heat water. The specific heat capacity of water
of equal mass which is initially at rest. is 4200 J kg-1K-1. The efficiency of heater is
Neglecting the effect of friction and assume 70%. Time taken required to heat 2 kg of
the collision to be elastic, the velocity of ball water from 10oC to 60oC (Assume that the
Q after collision will be (g = 10 m/sec2) specific heat capacity of water remains
constant over the temperature range of water)
1) 100 sec 2) 50 sec
3) 300 sec 4) 40 sec
22. The average kinetic energy of a molecule of
the gas is
1) 0 2) 0.25 m/sec
1) proportional to absolute temperature
3) 2 m/sec 4) 4 m/sec
2) proportional to volume
19. Every planet revolves around the sun in an
3) proportional to pressure
elliptical orbit. The correct statements are
4) depends on the nature of the gas
A) The force acting on a planet is inversely
proportional to square of distance from 23. Which of the following correctly represents
sun. the variation of electric potential (V) of a
charged spherical conductor of radius (R) with
B) Force acting on the planet is inversely
radial distance (r) from the centre?
proportional to product of the masses of
planet and sun
C) The centripetal force acting on the planet
1) 2)
is directed away from the sun
D) The square of time period of revolution of
planet around the sun is directly
proportional to the cube of semi-major
axis of elliptical orbit. 3) 4)
Choose the correct option answer from the
options given below.
24. A cell of emf 90 V is connected across series
1) A and D only 2) C and D only
combination of two resistors each of 100 Ω
3) B and C only 4) A and C only resistance. A voltmeter of resistance 400 Ω is
20. The Young’s modulus of a steel wire of length used to measure the potential difference across
6m and cross-section area is 3 mm2 is each resistor. The reading of the voltmeter will
2 x 1011N/m2. The wire is suspended from it’s be
support on a given planet. A block of mass 4
kg is attached to the free end of wire. The
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is
1
of it’s value on the earth. The elongation of
4
wire is (Take g = 10 m/sec2)

A
 4 Test ID : 877
1) 40 V 2) 80 V 30. The following particles are moving with same
3) 45 V 4) 90 V velocity, then maximum de-Broglie
25. A wire of length 1m moving with velocity wavelength will be for
8 m/sec at right angles to a magnetic field of 1) proton 2) α-particle
2T. The magnitude of induced emf between 3) neutron 4) β-particle
the ends of wire will be 31. A particle having the same charge as of
electron moves in a circular path of radius
0.5 cm under the influence of a magnetic field
of 0.5T. If an electric field of 100 V/m makes
it to move in a straight path then the mass of
particle is (e = 1.6 x 10-19C)
1) 20 V 2) 8 V
1) 9.1 x 10-31 kg 2) 1.6 x 10-27 kg
3) 12 V 4) 16 V
3) 1.6 x 10-19 kg 4) 2.0 x 10-24 kg
26. In a series LR circuit with XL = R power 32. Two identical charged spheres suspended from
factor is P1, if a capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ common point by two massless strings of
with XC = XL is added to the circuit the power length l, are initially at a distance d (d << l)
factor become P2 the ratio of P1 and P2 will be apart because of their mutual repulsion. The
1) 1 : 3 2) 1 : 2 charges begin to leak from both the spheres at
3) 1 : 1 4) 1 : 2 a constant rate. As a result, the spheres
27. A bar magnet with a magnetic moment 5.0 approach each other with a velocity ‘v’, then
Am2 is placed in a parallel position relative to ‘v’ varies as a function of the distance ‘x’
magnetic field of 0.4 T. The amount of between the spheres as
required work done in turning the magnet 1) v α x1/2 2) v α x-1
from parallel to antiparallel position relative to 3) v α x -1/2 4) v α x
the field direction is 33. For the given combination below correct truth
1) 4 J 2) 1 J table is
3) 2 J 4) zero
28. A thin prism having refracting angle 10o is
made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This
prism is combined with another thin prism of
glass of refractive index 1.7 this combination
A B X A B X
produces dispersion with deviation. The
refracting angle of second prism should be 0 0 1 0 0 0
1) 4o 2) 6o 1) 0 1 0 2) 0 1 1
3) 8o 4) 10o 1 0 0 1 0 1
29. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the 1 1 0 1 1 0
separation between coherent sources is halved
and the distance of the screen from the A B X A B X
coherent source is doubled, then the fringe 0 0 1 0 0 0
width becomes 3) 0 1 0 4) 0 1 1
1) half 2) four times 1 0 1 1 0 1
3) one-fourth 4) double 1 1 0 1 1 1

A
 5 Test ID : 877
34. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole 3M
3) M 4)
moment M is bent in the form of an arc as π
shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole 35. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal
moment will be length 18 cm in air is immersed in water. The
change in focal length of lens will be ___ cm
 4
 µ H 2O = 
 3
1) 54 cm 2) 72 cm
2 M
1) M 2) 3) 18 cm 4) 24 cm
π 2
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
36. In a potentiometer experiment the balancing 39. If a radioactive element having half-life of 30
length with a cell is 560 cm. When an external min is undergoing beta decay, the fraction of
resistance of 10 Ω is connected in parallel to radioactive element remains undecayed after
the cell, the balancing length is changed by 90 min will be
60 cm. The internal resistance of cell is 1 1
1) 2)
1) 1.2 Ω 2) 0.8 Ω 8 16
3) 2 Ω 4) 1.5 Ω 1 1
3) 4)
37. Sixty four conducting drops of each of radius 4 2
0.02 m carrying a charge 5µC are combined to 40. Which of the following statement is not
form a big drop. The ratio of surface charge correct in the case of light emitting diodes?
density of bigger drop to smaller drop will be I) It is heavily doped p-n junction
1) 4 2) 2 II) It emit light only when it is in forward
3) 7 4) 9 biased
38. Two polaroides A and B are placed in such a III) It emit light only when it is reverse biased
way that the pass axis of polaroids are IV) The energy of light emitted is equal to (or)
perpendicular to each other. Now, another slightly less than energy gap of
Polaroid C is placed between A and B semiconductor used
bisecting angle between them. If intensity of Choose the correct answer from the options
unpolarised light is I0 then intensity of given below.
transmitted light after passing through
1) II and IV 2) I
polaroid B will be
3) III 4) II
I I
1) 0 2) 0 41. If the velocity of light ‘C’, universal
4 2 gravitational constant G and plank constant ‘h’
I are choosen as fundamental quantities. The
3) 0 4) zero
8 dimensional formula of mass ‘m’ in new
system is
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 6 Test ID : 877
1) h-1/2C1/2G 2) h1C1G-1 R 22 R1
1) 2)
3) h-1/2C1/2G1/2 4) h1/2C1/2G-1/2 R1 R2
42. A galvanometer having a coil of resistance
R2 R12
60Ω shows full scale deflection when a 3) 4)
R1 R 22
current of 1.0 amp passes through it. It can be
converted into an ammeter to read current upto 46. A block of mass slides down the plane
5.0 amp by g
inclined at angle 30o with an acceleration .
1) Putting in series a resistance of 15 Ω 4
2) Putting in series a resistance of 240 Ω The value of coefficient of kinetic friction will
be
3) Putting in parallel a resistance of 15 Ω
2 3 +1 1
4) Putting in parallel a resistance of 240 Ω 1) 2)
2 2 3
43. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different
process the half life time of first process is 3 2 3 −1
3) 4)
5 min and that of second process is 30 sec. 2 2
The effective half-life time of nucleus is (in 47. An object of mass 8 kg is hanging from one
seconds) end of uniform rod CD of mass 2 kg and
300 11 length 1m pivoted at it’s end C on a vertical
1) 2)
11 300 wall as shown in figure. It is supported by
30 110 cable AB such that the system is in
3) 4) equilibrium. The tension in the cable is
11 3
44. Given below are two statements. (g = 10 m/s2)
Statement 1 : In a typical transistor all three
regions emitter, base and collector have same
doping level.
Statement 2 : In a transistor collector is
thickest and base is thinnest segment.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below. 1) 240 N 2) 90 N
1) Both statements 1 and statement 2 are 3) 300 N 4) 30 N
correct 48. A solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ.
2) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect If the radius of sphere is 5 cm, then its radius
3) statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is of gyration about PQ will be x m. The value
correct of ‘x’ is
4) statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
incorrect
45. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and
R2 are placed in same plane with their centres
coinciding. If R1 >> R2. The mutual induction
between them will be directly proportional to

A
 7 Test ID : 877
1) 110 cm 2) 120 cm 50. A person observes two moving trains, A
3) 140 cm 4) 200 cm reaching the station and B leaving the station
49. A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such with equal speed of 30 m/sec. If both trains
that its volume changes from 8 litres to emit sounds with frequency 300 Hz. (Speed of
27 litres. If ratio of final pressure of gas to sound = 330 m/sec) approximate difference of
16 frequencies heard by the person will be
initial pressure of a gas is then the ratio
81
1) 33 Hz
CP
will be 2) 55 Hz
CV
3) 80 Hz
4 3
1) 2) 4) 10 Hz
3 1
1 3
3) 4)
2 2
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
51. The pair of species having same percentage
(mass) of elements is/are
1) Oxalic acid and glucose 2)
2) Diborane and borazole
3) Fructose and vinegar
4) Heavy water and hydrogen peroxide
52. The order of increasing energy of valence
electron (in terms of n, l) 3)
I) F II) Na III) Be IV) S
1) III < II < I < IV
2) III < I < II < IV
3) IV < II < I < III
4) IV < I < II < III 4)
53. Which of the following volume (v),
temperature (T) plots represents the behaviour
of one mole of an ideal gas at one atmosphere 54. For the decomposition of following reaction
2O3(g) → 3O2(g), ∆H & ∆S respectively are?
(Assume spontaneous at any temperature)
1) –ve, +ve 2) +ve, +ve
1)
3) +ve, –ve 4) –ve, –ve

A
 8 Test ID : 877
55. Calculate the molar solubility of Ni(OH)2 in 59. When an aqueous concentrated solution of
0.4g of NaOH in 100ml aqueous solution. The CuSO4 is electrolysed using inert electrodes
solubility product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 x 10–15 M3 I) O2 is liberated at the anode
1) 2 x 10–15 2) 1 x 10–14 II) Cu is deposited at the cathode
3) 2 x 10–13 4) 1 x 10–12 III) as the current flows, pH of solution
56. Find out incorrect match with respect to decreases
oxidation state
IV) Concentration of CuSO4 solution remains
1 constant
1) N in N3H → −
3 The correct combinations
2) P in Ba(H2PO2)2 → +1 1) I, III only
3) Cr in CrO5 → +6 2) II, III & IV only
4) O in OF2 → -2 3) I, II & III only
57. The unit cell with structure given refers to ___ 4) I, II, III & IV
crystal system
60. Consider the plots for the types of reaction
c
nA → B + C
90o 90o
b
a 90o

(Match box)
(a, b, c are length of edges) i)
1) Orthorhombic 2) Tetragonal
3) Hexagonal 4) Cubic
58. Match the following
Column – I
A) 1M CH3COCH3 & 1M CHCl3 ii)
B) 0.1M Sucrose & 0.05M CuSO4 (α = 1)
C) Na3PO4 (α = 0.9)
D) Ethylene glycol
Column – II
1) antifreeze substance iii)
2) i = 3.7
3) Maximum boiling azeotrope
These plots respectively correspond to the
4) Isotonic solutions
reaction orders
1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
1) 0, 1, 2 2) 1, 2, 0
2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 3) 0, 2, 1 4) 2, 0, 1
4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

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 9 Test ID : 877
61. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 65. Match the following
incorrect? List – I List – II
1) Enthalpy of adsorption is low 20-40 kJ mol–1 (ion) (limit concentration)
in physical adsorption –
A) F i) 500 ppm
2) When KI solution is added to AgNO3 B) Pb ii) 50 ppm
solution, results positively charged solution C) SO −4 2 iii) 2 ppm
3) For the coagulation of TiO2 sol, the −
flocculating power is in the order D) NO 3 iv) 50 ppb
[Fe(CN)6]–4 > PO 4−3 > SO 4−2 > Cl− 1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
4) The diameter of the dispersed particles is 2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
much smaller than the wavelength of the 3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
light used in “Tyndall effect” 4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
62. Statement – I : During boiling, the soluble 66. Which of the following is incorrect
Mg(HCO3)2 is converted into insoluble Mg(OH)2 combination
Statement – II : During boiling, the soluble 1) IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic
Ca(HCO3)2 is converted into insoluble CaCO3 number 120 − Ubn
1) Both Statement-I and II are true 2) The energy order of the available orbitals in
5th period of − 5s < 4d < 5p
2) Both Statement-I and II are false
3) Order of increasing metallic character −
3) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is false
P < Si < Be < Mg < Na
4) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is true
4) Al & S belongs to group 13 & 16
63. Which of the following statement is wrong? respectively then formula of the compound
1) Solvay process cannot be extended to the – Al3S2
manufacture of K2CO3 because K2CO3 has 67. Which one of the following represents out of
low solubility phase due to different orientation direction of
2) NaHCO3 is a mild antiseptic for skin approach?
3) Among nitrate of alkali metals, LiNO3 only
gives two para magnetic species on heating 1)
4) The low solubility of LiF in water is due to
its high lattice enthalpy where as the low 2)
solubility of CsI is due to smaller hydration
enthalpy of its constituent ions
64. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) In C–60 fullerene six membered ring is 3)
fused with six (or) five membered ring but a
five membered ring can’t fuse with six
membered rings
2) The chain length of polymer can be
controlled by adding (CH3)2SiCl2
3) Kieselghur, crystalline form of silica is used 4)
in filtration plants
4) The dioxides SnO2, PbO2 and among mono
oxides SnO, PbO are amphoteric
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 10 Test ID : 877
68. Which one of the following molecule doesn’t 74. The octedral complex of a metal ion M+3 with
have 50% p-character? four mono dentate ligands L1, L2, L3 and L4
1) [Ni(CN)4]–2 2) PF5 absorb wavelengths in the region of red, green,
3) BrF5 4) SF6 blue and yellow, respectively. The decreasing
order of ligand strength of the four ligands is
69. The spin only magnetic momentum of metal
1) L1 < L4 < L2 < L3 2) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1
ion which is used as catalyst in Deacons’
process, is ______ 3) L1 > L4 > L2 > L3 4) L3 > L2 > L4 > L1
75. Type of isomerism which exists between
1) 2.83 BM 2) 3.85 BM
[Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2
3) 1.73 BM 4) 4.92 BM
1) ionization isomerism
70. Inter halogen compound of Cl (A) is used for
2) coordination isomerism
the production of UF6 in the enrichment of
3) linkage isomerism
U235 then hybridization and shape of ‘A’ is
4) geometrical isomerism
1) sp3d3 ; pentagonal bipyramidal
76. What is the IUPAC name of the following
2) sp3d ; T-shape
compound?
3) sp3d2 ; see-saw
4) sp3 ; tetrahedral
71. Among hydrolysis of Xe fluorides, which
doesn’t leads to a redox reaction?
1) XeF2 2) XeF4 1) 3-bromo-3-methyl-1, 2-dimethylprop-1-ene
3) XeF6 4) All 2) 2-bromo-3-methylpent-3-ene
72. What is the oxidation state of catalyst (iron 3) 3-bromo-1, 2-dimethylbut-1-ene
ion) as intermediate form in the following 4) 4-bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
reaction? 77. The hyper conjugative stabilities of 2-butene
2I + S2O8 → I2 + 2SO4
– –2 –2 is due to
1) +3 2) +2 1) σ→p (empty) electron delocalization
3) +1 4) zero 2) σ→σ* (empty) electron delocalization
73. Match List – I with List – II 3) σ→p (filled) electron delocalization
List – I List – II 4) σ→π* (empty) electron delocalization
(Name of ore /mineral) (Chemical formula) 78. The structure
A) Calamine i) Al2(OH)4Si2O5
B) Malachite ii) FeS2 shows
C) Fool’s gold iii) ZnCO3
D) Kaolinite iv) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i 1) geometrical isomerism only
2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii 2) optical isomerism only
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 3) geometrical & optical isomerism
4) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i 4) tautomerism

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 11 Test ID : 877
Kolbe's
CH3COONa(aq)  1) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
electrolysis→ A
79.
(Hydro
Carbon ) 2) CH3I < CH3Br < CH3Cl < CH3F
Cl /hν AlcKOH 3) CH3Cl < CH3F < CH3Br < CH3I

Mono → B 
2 →
(alkyl 4) CH3I < CH3Br < CH3F < CH3Cl
chorination halide
83. The major product (C) of the following
Bri)alcKOH
C 
CCl → D →
2
ii) NaNH E reaction sequence will be
(Hydro 4 2 (Hydro
carbon ) carbon )

The order of acidic character of hydrocarbons

CH2=CH–CHO
1) A < C < E 2) C < A < E
3) E < C < A 4) E < A < C
80. Match the following.
1)
List – I List – II
(As para substituent (operated electronic
2)
of phenol) effect for acidic nature)
••
A) − O CH 3 i) –IE & –ME
••
3)
B) –NO2 ii) +IE & H.C
C) –CH3 iii) –IE & +ME Br
D) –Cl iv) –IE only
IE : Inductive effective 4) Ph
ME : Mesomeric effective D
HC : Hyper conjugation 84. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting
1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii with
2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv 1) Acetaldehyde 2) Methanol
3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii 3) Methanal 4) Vinyl chloride
4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 85. Match the following
81. Total number of hydroxyl groups present in a List – I List – II
molecule of major product ‘P’ is _______ A) Riboflavin i) Beri-beri
B) Thiamine ii) Scurvy
C) Pyridoxine iii) Cheilosis
D) Ascorbic acid iv) Convulsions
1) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
1) 4 2) 6
2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
3) 8 4) 2
3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
82. For the compounds,
4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
CH3F, CH3Cl, CH3Br, CH3I. The correct
order of increasing dipole moments is

A
 12 Test ID : 877
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
86. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO2(g)
H2O(l) and glucose(s) at 25oC are –400 kJ/mol,
–300 kJ/mol and –1300 kJ/mol, respectively. 3) k
The standard enthalpy of combustion per gram
of glucose at 25oC T
1) +2900 kJ 2) –2900 kJ
3) –16.11 kJ 4) +16.11 kJ
87. Separate solutions of NaW, NaX, NaY and 4) k
NaZ each of concentration 0.1 M has pH 7, 9,
10 and 11 respectively at 25oC. The strongest
acid among these is T
1) HW 2) HX 90. The coagulation power of electrolytes having
3) HY 4) HZ ions Na+, Al+3 and Ba+2 for As2S3 sol increases
+2
in the order
88. When the concentration of Zn (aq) is 10 times
1) Al+3 < Ba+2 < Na+
+2
the concentration of Cu (aq) in Daniell cell, the 2) Na+ < Ba+2 < Al+3
expression for ∆G is _____ 3) Ba+2 < Na+ < Al+3
[F = Faraday, R = gas constant, 4) Al+3 < Na+ < Ba+2
T = temperature ; E ocell = 1.1V] 91. The decreasing order of reactivity of the
following organic molecules towards AgNO3
1) –1.1F + 2.303 RT 2) –2.2F + 2.303 RT
solution is
3) 1.1F 4) –2.2F
A) CH 3 − CH − CH 3
89. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant |
(k) with temperature (T) are given below. The Cl
plot that follows Arrhenius equation is B) CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − NO 2
|
Cl
1)

C)
1) A > B > C 2) C > B > A
3) C > A > B 4) B > A > C
2)
92. The reaction product of

A
 13 Test ID : 877
96. Match the following
Column – I Column – II
1) (Compound) (Use)
I) Ca(OH)2 A) Casts of statues
II) NaCl B) White wash
2) 1
III) CaSO4. H2 O C) Antacid
2
IV) NaHCO3 D) Washing soda
3) preparation
1) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
2) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
4) 3) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
4) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
93. How will you convert butan-2-one to
97. Assertion (A) : Among the allotropes of ‘C’
propanoic acid
diamond is an insulator, whereas graphite is a
1) Tollen’s reagent good conductor of electricity.
2) Fehling’s solution Reason (R) : Hybridization of C in diamond
3) NaOH/I2/H+ and graphite are sp3 and sp2 respectively
4) 2, 4-DNP 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is a
94. Which of the following is least basic? correct explanation of the (A)
(in aqueous medium) 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a
•• correct explanation of the (A)
1) (C2 H 5 )3 N
3) (A) is true but the (R) is false
••
2) (C 2 H 5 ) 2 NH 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
•• 98. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is NOT operative, the
3) C2 H 5 − NH 2 paramagnetic species among the following is
4) All are equal basic in nature 1) Be2 2) B2
95. The artificial sweetner that has the highest 3) C2 4) N2
sweetness value in comparsion to cane sugar is 99. Reaction of NH3 with excess Cl2 gives
1) Sucralose 1) NH4Cl and N2 2) NH4Cl and HCl
2) Aspartane 3) NCl5 and NH4Cl 4) NCl3 & HCl
3) Saccharin 100. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO −4 in
4) Alitame faintly alkaline medium is
1) IO3− 2) I2
3) IO − 4) IO −4
A
 14 Test ID : 877

BOTANY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
101. Incorrect one w.r.t vegetative propagules is 107. Identify a wrongly matched pair from the
1) Ginger – Rhizome following
2) Agave – bulb 1) A filamentous blue-green algae – Nostoc
3) Bryophyllum- leaf buds 2) A pleomorphic prokaryote –Mycoplasma
4) Water hyacinth – offsets 3) A flagellated protistan – Gonyaulax
4) A dikaryotic fungus - Albugo
102. The protein encoding gene/s that controls the
108. Statement I:The distribution of living
cotton bollworms is/are
pteridophytes is limited and restricted to
1) cryIAc 2) cryIIAb narrow geographical regions
3) cryIAb 4) both 1 and 2 Statement II: The sporophyte requires cool,
103. Who among the following postulated the damp, shady places to grow and water for
presence of an adapter molecule required for fertilization
translation? 1) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
1) Severo Ochoa 2) Maurice Wilkins 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Francis Crick 4) James Watson 3) Both statements I and II are correct
104. Watson and Crick hypothesized semi- 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
conservative mode of DNA replication on the 109. Which among the following events of cell
basis of cycle occur in the same stage?
A) Anti-parallel nature of polynucleotide 1) Centriole duplication and centromere
chains splitting
B) Complementarity between polynucleotide 2) Centromere splitting and disappearance of
chains ER
3) Centriole duplication and DNA replication
C) Right-handed helical structure of
polynucleotide chains 4) DNA replication and chromatids separation
110. Statement I : In plant body, water, minerals
1) A and B 2) B and C
and food cannot be moved by diffusion alone
3) A and C 4) A, B and C
Statement II : Various ions, and water can be
105. Identify the incorrect match from the transported up to a small heights in stems by
following root pressure
1) Lysosomes – rich in hydrolytic enzymes 1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Contractile vacuole – osmoregulation 2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Amyloplasts – store proteins 3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
4) Cytoskeleton – motility of the cell 4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct
106. How many H-bonds would you expect in a 111. Identify the mis-match from the following
dsDNA having 255A0 length and 10% 1) Bougainvillea– axillary buds - thorns
Thymine? 2) Pisum – axillary buds - tendrils
1) 210 2) 105 3) Cactus – complete leaf – spines
3) 225 4) 150 4) Onion – leaf bases - storage leaves
A
 15 Test ID : 877
112. The following features are related to 117. How many of the following statements about
i) It is absorbed as monovalent cation Ethylene are true?
ii) It is required in more quantity to the i) It breaks the seed and bud dormancy
meristematic tissues ii) It initiates the germination of groundnut
iii) It helps to maintain anion-cation balance seeds
iv) It involves in protein synthesis iii) It initiates the sprouting of potato tubers
1) Calcium 2) Magnesium
iv) It promotes rapid internode and petiole
3) Chlorine 4) Potassium elongation in deep water rice plants
113. How many redox-equivalents are released
v) It promotes root growth and root hair
during the oxidation of one molecule of
formation
glucose in aerobic respiration?
1) Five 2) Ten 1) Three 2) Five
3) Twenty 4) Twenty four 3) Two 4) Four
114. Extrinsic factors that affect the plant's growth 118. Which group of plants is represented by the
and development are following characteristics?
A) light B) temperature A) Special type of leaf anatomy
C) nutrition D) oxygen status B) Tolerance to high temperatures
E) gravity C) Show a response to high light intensities
1) A, B and C 2) B, C and D D) Lack of photorespiration and have greater
3) C, D and E 4) All of these productivity of biomass
115. Statement - I : In respiration, the energy
1) C4 plants 2) C3 plants
released during electron transport is used in
3) CAM plants 4) Both 1 and 3
phosphorylation
119. Identify the correct statement from the
Statement – II : The proton gradient is
essential for synthesis of ATP. following
1) Both statements I and II are correct 1) In C3 plants, CO2 saturation is above 450
2) Both statements I and II are wrong µl/L
3) Statement I is correct II is wrong 2) In C3 plants, CO2 saturation is below 360
4) Statement I is wrong II is correct µl/L
116. Statement I: Each PGR has unique 3) In C4 plants, CO2 saturation is above 450
physiological effects, and different PGRs may µl/L
have similar effects on a plant. 4) CO2 saturation is not seen in C4 plants
Statement II: Differentiation results in the 120. Which of the following enzyme is exclusively
development of structures that are
present in monerans?
corresponding with the function.
1) Nitrogenase
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) RuBisCO
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect 3) Peptidyl transferase
4) Statement I is incorrect, II is correct 4) DNA polymerase

A
 16 Test ID : 877
121. What happens, when the pressure greater than 1) A- ii, B- iv, C- i, D- iii
the atmospheric pressure is applied to pure 2) A- iii, B- i, C- iv, D- ii
water? 3) A- iii, B- iv, C- i, D- ii
1) Solute potential will increase
4) A- iv, B- i, C- ii, D- iii
2) Pressure potential will decrease
126. In which of the following, each character is
3) Solute potential will decrease given equal importance and at the same time
4) Pressure potential will increase hundreds of characters can be considered?
122. Vascular bundles are classified on the basis of
1) Numerical Taxonomy
1) presence or absence of cambium 2) Cytotaxonomy
2) location of xylem and phloem
3) Chemotaxonomy
3) their position in the plant body
4) All of these
4) both 1 and 2
127. Which among the following group of plants
123. Match the following
represent bryophytes?
Column I Column II 1) Atracheophytic non-archegoniates
A Bulliform cells i Stele of roots 2) Atracheophytic archegoniates
B Starch sheath ii Pulp of pear 3) Tracheophytic non-archegoniates
C Conjuctive tissue iii Monocot leaves 4) Tracheophytic archegoniates
D Sclereids iv Dicot stem 128. According to R.H. Whittaker’s five kingdom
classification, Chlamydomonas belongs to
1) A- ii, B- iv, C- i, D- iii
2) A- iii, B- i, C- iv, D- ii 1) Monera 2) Protista
3) A- iii, B- iv, C- i, D- ii 3) Fungi 4) Plantae
4) A- iv, B- i, C- ii, D- iii 129. T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious

124. Identify the incorrect statement from the

agents that are chemically made up of
following 1) free RNAs
1) In cymose type of inflorescence the main 2) abnormally folded proteins
axis terminates in a flower 3) RNA and protein
2) In racemose inflorescences the flowers are 4) DNA and protein
borne laterally in an acropetal succession 130. Identify the higher taxon from the following
3) A zygomorphic flower can be divided into 1) Insecta 2) Triticum
two similar halves in any vertical plane
3) Angiospermae 4) Diptera
4) In hypogynous flowers all other floral parts
131. The following events represent which phase of
are situated below the gynoecium
meiosis?
125. Match the following
A) Disappearance of nucleolus
Plant Placentation
B) Appearance of fully condensed
A Primrose i Parietal chromosomes
B Argemone ii Axile C) Spindle assembled to prepare the
C Tomato iii Marginal homologous chromosomes to separate
D Pea iv Free central D) Breakdown of nuclear envelope

A
 17 Test ID : 877
1) Metaphase-I 2) Prophase-I 134. Assertion (A) : Golgi apparatus is in close
3) Telophase-I 4) Anaphase-I association with the ER
132. Which of the following cannot be separated Reason (R) : Materials that are packed in the
easily from the apoenzyme? form of vesicles from ER fuse with cis face of
golgi apparatus.
1) NAD+ 2) NADP+
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
3) Heam 4) FAD correct explanation of (A)
133. Identifythe correct statement w.r.t functions 2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
of the cell wall the correct explanation of (A)
A) It gives the shape to the cell 3) (A) is correct but (R) is false
B) It protects the cell from mechanical 4) (A) is false but (R) is correct
damage and infection 135. Arrange the following in ascending order

C) It helps in cell-to-cell interaction based on their life span

D) It provides barrier to undesired A) Crocodile B) Crow
macromolecules C) Butter fly D) Tortoise
1) A, B, C and D 2) D, C, B and A
1) A, B and C 2) B, C and D
3) C, B, A and D 4) D, A, B and C
3) A, C and D 4) A, B, C and D
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
136. Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil can be seen 139. Experimental proof for the chromosomal
in theory of inheritance was given by
1) Michelia 2) Papaver 1) Thomas Hunt Morgan
3) Rose 4) Lotus 2) Sutton and Boveri
137. How many genomes are involved in double 3) Correns and von Tschermak
fertilisation? 4) de Vries and Correns
1) Two 2) Three
140. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, what is the
3) Four 4) Five proportion of double homozygous single
138. Identify the incorrect statement from the dominants?
following
1) 4/16 2) 2/16
1) Cleistogamous flowers are invariably
3) 8/16 4) 6/16
bisexual
141. Statement I : The two alleles of a
2) Wind pollinated flowers often possess well-
chromosome contain different copy numbers
exposed stamens
of VNTR
3) In Zostera pollen grains are long, ribbon
like Statement II : The regulation of lac operon
can be visualized as regulation of enzyme
4) Yucca Shows the symbiotic association
synthesis by its substrate.
with a species of lemurs
A
 18 Test ID : 877
1) Both the statements are correct 145. Pick out the correct statements w.r.t
2) Both the statements are incorrect insertional inactivation
3) Statement – I is correct, statement – II is A) Presence of gene of insert results
incorrect inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene
4) Statement – I is incorrect, statement – II is B) Recombinant colonies do not produce any
colour
correct
C) Recombinant colonies appear in blue
statement w.r.t Meselson and Stahl
142. Incorrect
colour
experiment
D) Presence of gene of insert results
1) They conducted a series of experiments activation of the antibiotic resistance gene
with Streptococcus
1) A and B 2) B and C
2) They performed cesium chloride density 3) C and D 4) A and D
gradient centrifugation
146. If rop site of pBR322 is inactivated due to
14 15
3) They used N and N isotopes for the mutation
experiment 1) tetR will be inactivated
4) They separated DNAs based on densities 2) particular copy number can be maintained
143. The main sources of biofertilisers are 3) copy number cannot be maintained
A) Bacteria B) Fungi 4) pBR322 will be destroyed in the host cell
C) Cyanobacteria 147. If the sequence of the coding strand is as

1) A and B 2) B and C follows.

3) A and C 4) A, B and C 5'-TACCGTACGTACGTACGTACG-3'
What would be the sequence the primary
144. Match the following
transcript?
Column I Column II 1) 3'-UACCGUACGUACGTACGUACG-5'
A Citric acid i Trichoderma 2) 5'-UACCGUACGUACGUACGUACG-3'
polysporum 3) 3'-AUGGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-5'
B Cyclosporin A ii Clostridium 4) 5'-AUGGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-3'
butylicum 148. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA
C Statins iii Aspergillus fragments are resolved based on
niger 1) their size 2) their charge
3) their base composition 4) all of these
D Butyric acid iv Monascus
149. The vector used to introduce the nematode-
purpureus
specific genes into tobacco plant is
1) A- ii, B- iv, C- i, D- iii 1) pBR322 2) Ti plasmid
2) A- iii, B- i, C- iv, D- ii 3) Bacteriophage 4) pUC19
3) A- iii, B- iv, C- i, D- ii 150. An antiprotease is used to treat
4) A- iv, B- i, C- ii, D- iii 1) AIDS 2) SCID
3) Emphysema 4) Sleeping sickness

A
 19 Test ID : 877
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A (35 questions)
(Answer all the questions)
151. Which of the following animal is bilaterally 156. Statement - I: Cockroach is uricotelic animal.
symmetrical and eucoelomate? Statement - II: Cockroach conserve water by
1) Taenia 2) Ascaris excreting uric acid.
3) Nereis 4) Pleurobrachia 1) Both Statements I and II are correct
152. Which of the following set of animals belong 2) Statement I is correct, statement II is
to same phylum? incorrect
1) Chelone, Chameleon, Chaetopleura 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
2) Limulus, Locusta, Apis correct
3) Sea hare, sea lily, sea horse 4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
4) Dog fish, saw fish, star fish 157. Match the following columns and choose the
153. Match the following columns and choose the correct option.
correct option.
Column - I Column - II
Column - I Column - II
A. Hepatic lobule i) Base of villi
Type of epithelium Found in
B. Crypts of
A. Simple squamous i) Lining of intestine ii) Glisson’s capsule
Lieberkuhn
B. Simple cuboidal ii) Bronchioles
C. Sphincter of Oddi iii) Gall bladder
C. Simple columnar iii) Alveoli of lungs
iv) Hepato pancreatic
D. Ciliated iv) Ducts of glands D. Cystic duct
duct
1) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
1) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
2) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
3) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
4) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
154. Which type of tissue is tendon and it
158. When maltase acts on its substrate, the
connects?
products formed are
1) Dense irregular, bone to bone
2) Dense regular, bone to smooth muscle 1) glucose + galactose
3) Dense regular, bone to bone 2) glucose + fructose
4) Dense regular, skeletal muscle to bone 3) fructose + fructose
155. Among the following incorrect one w.r.t 4) glucose + glucose
structures and their location in the abdomen of 159. Chemosensitive area is present near
cockroach. respiratory rhythm centre in medulla is
1) Mushroom shaped gland - 6th-7th segments activated by
of male 1) less CO2 and H+ ions in blood
2) Spermathecae - 6th segment of male 2) less O2 and H+ ions in blood
3) Boat shaped sternum - 7th segment of female 3) excess CO2 and H+ ions in blood
4) Anal cerci - 10th segment of male and female 4) excess O2 and H+ ions in blood
A
 20 Test ID : 877
160. ‘P’ is an agranulocytic WBC, least in number 165. Study the following w.r.t types of joints
and ‘Q’ is a granulocytic WBC, least in between bones choose the correct one.
number. Identify ‘P’ and ‘Q’ respectively. 1) Pivot joint - between occipital bones and
1) Monocyte and Eosinophil atlas
2) Lymphocyte and Basophil 2) Saddle joint - between carpal and
3) Monocyte and Basophil metacarpal of thumb
4) Lymphocyte and Eosinophil 3) Ball and socket joint - knee joint
161. Study the following and choose the incorrect
4) Gliding joint - humerus and pectoral girdle
one.
166. Vestibular apparatus of human ear consists of
Heart
Animals Circulation 1) Otolith and organ of Corti
chambers
2) Three semicircular canals and cochlea
1) Pisces 2 Single
3) Otolith and cochlea
2) Amphibians 3 Incomplete double
4) Otolith and three semi-circular canals
3) All reptiles 3 Incomplete double
167. All the following are the parts of limbic
4) Aves 4 Complete double system except.
162. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) 1) Hippocampus
activates 2) Amygdala
1) juxtaglomerular cells to release renin 3) Medulla
2) adrenal medulla to release aldosterone
4) Inner parts of cerebral hemispheres
3) adrenal cortex to release adrenaline
168. Identify the hormone with its correct
4) posterior pituitary to release oxytocin
matching of source and function.
163. Study the following choose the correct one.
1) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary - growth and
1) Columns of Bertini are the extensions of
maintenance of mammary glands
medulla into the cortical region
2) Melatonin - pineal gland - regulates the
2) Renal corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the
nephron present in cortical region normal rhythm of the sleep wake cycle
3) Vasa recta highly developed in cortical 3) Progesterone - corpus luteum - growth and
nephrons activities of female secondary sexual
4) Sebaceous glands eliminate sterols, organs
hydrocarbons and lactic acid through 4) ANF - atrial wall - increases blood pressure
sebum 169. Which of the following is not the function of
164. Choose the incorrect one. catecholamines?
1) Myasthenia gravis - autoimmune disorder 1) Sweating 2) Pupilary dilation
affecting neuromuscular junctions leading 3) Glycogenesis 4) Piloerection
to paralysis of skeletal muscle
170. Assertion (A): In human beings sex of the
2) Muscular dystrophy - genetic disorder -
baby is decided by male.
degeneration of skeletal muscle
3) Tetany - rapid spasm in muscle due to high Reason (R): Normal human male produces
Ca2+ in plasma 50% of sperms with X-chromosome and 50%
4) Uremia - increase level of urea in blood of sperms with Y-chromosome.

A
 21 Test ID : 877
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 1) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv
explanation of A 2) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not 3) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
correct explanation of A 4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
3) A is true but R is false 174. Mark the set of STIs that are not completely
4) A is false but R is true curable
171. Choose the correct sequence in the 1) Syphilis and Hepatitis-B
reproductive events of human male. 2) Genital herpes and Gonorrhoea
A. Spermiogenesis 3) Hepatitis-B and genital herpes
B. Spermatid formation 4) HIV infection and Genital warts
C. Spermiation 175. Choose the correct statement w.r.t given
D. Insemination figure.
1) A - C - B - D 2) B - C - D - A
3) A - B - C - D 4) B - A - C - D
172. Match the following w.r.t embryonic
development in human being.
Column - II
Column - I 1) Its genotype is represented as AA + ZW
Structures developed
Time 2) It produces single type of gametes
or formed
A. End of 12 weeks i) Limbs and digits 3) It has one more chromosome than female
4) It is haploid but its female is diploid
B. 4 weeks after ii) Hair on head
176. β-Thalassemia is controlled by
th
C. During 20 week iii) External genitalia 1) a single gene HBB on chromosome 11
D. End of 8 weeks iv) Heart 2) a single gene HBB on chromosome 16
E. End of 24 weeks v) Eye lashes 3) two closely linked genes HBB1 and HBB 2
1) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i, E - v on chromosome 11
2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii, E - v 4) two closely linked genes HBB1 and HBB2
on chromosome 16
3) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - v, E - i
177. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t immunity.
4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - v, E - ii
1) Cell mediated immunity - T-lymphocytes
173. Match the following columns and choose the
correct option. 2) Passive immunity - snake venom antiserum
3) Hepatitis - B vaccine -yeast cell
Column - I Column - II
4) Humoral immunity - interferons
A. Copper IUD’s i) Inhibit ovulation 178. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic
ii) Suppress sperms converter are advised to use unleaded petrol
B. Oral pills
motility because lead
iii) Make the uterus 1) decreased the efficiency of the vehicle
C. Sterilisation
unsuitable for implantation 2) causes inactivation of catalyst
iv) Block the transport of 3) is a heavy metal
D. Hormonal IUD’s
gametes 4) increases burning of petrol
A
 22 Test ID : 877
179. All the following hormones play an important 1) ii and iv 2) i and ii
role in RBC production except. 3) i, iii and iv 4) ii and iii
1) Thyroxine 2) Erythropoietin 183. How many of the following sets are correct
3) Cortisol 4) Thymosin with reference to character and animal?
180. Assertion (A): Net primary productivity is a. Skin cast - Lizards
less than the gross primary productivity. b. Lungs with air sacs - Bat
Reason (R): Net primary productivity is equal c. Air bladder - Hippocampus
to the gross primary productivity minus d. Radula - Pila
energy lost through respiration. e. Extra and intracellular digestion - Spongilla
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct f. Regeneration capacity - Planaria
explanation of A 1) a, b, c, d and f 2) a, b, d and f
2) Both A and R are true and R is the not 3) a, b, d, e and f 4) a, c, d and f
correct explanation of A 184. Substances that absorbed in large intestine of
3) A is true but R is false man
4) A is false but R is true 1) fatty acids, glucose, fructose
181. Which of the following pair contains an 2) drugs, some water, some minerals
infectious and non-infectious disease 3) simple sugars, water and alcohol
respectively? 4) glucose, amino acids, drugs
1) Typhoid and AIDS 185. Study the following, choose the incorrect one.
2) Pneumonia and malaria 1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity in
3) Cancer and ascariasis progeny
4) Dengue and cancer 2) Mule is an example for interspecific
182. Side effects of anabolic steroids in females hybridization
include. 3) Crossing between Marino rams and
i) Abnormal menstrual cycle Bikaneri Ewes results Hisardale which is
ii) Enlargement of the prostate gland example for out crossing
iii) Enlargement of clitoris 4) MOET used in the developing herd in size
iv) Excessive hair growth on face and body. in a short time
SECTION – B (15 questions)
Section – B consists of 15 questions. Candidates are allowed to answer any 10 questions only out of 15 questions
given. In case if candidates attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions only considered for
marking.
186. The interacting species live closely together in Column - I Column - II
which of the following interaction? A. Air prevention and control
1) Parasitism, competition and commensalism i) 1974
of pollution Act
2) Parasitism, predation and competition B. Water Act ii) 1986
3) Parasitism, commensalism and predation
C. Montreal Protocol iii) 1997
4) Predation, amensalism and parasitism
D. Kyoto Protocol iv) 1987
187. Match the following columns and choose the
E. Environmental Protection
correct option. v) 1981
Act
A
 23 Test ID : 877
1) A - v, B - i, C - iii, D - iv, E - ii 191. The phenomenon sexual deceit found between
2) A - v, B - i, C - iv, D - iii, E - ii 1) fig species - female wasp
3) A - v, B - iii, C - i, D - iv, E - ii 2) Ophrys - bee species
4) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - i, E - ii 3) sea anemone - clown fish
188. Placenta acts as temporary endocrine tissue 4) abingdon tortoise - goats
and secreted which of the following 192. Study the following figure w.r.t response of
hormones? organisms against temperature. Find out
a) hCG b) FSH c) Estrogen correct match.
d) LH e) hPL
1) a, c and e 2) a, b and c
3) a, b and e 4) b, c and d
189. Study the following statements. Choose the
correct one.
a) First human - like being the hominid was
Homo erectus
b) First amphibians evolved from lobed fin
1) A - plants, B - birds
fishes
2) A - birds, B - mammals
c) First cellular forms of life appeared on
3) A - mammals, B - plants
earth about 2 bya
4) A - birds, B - plants
d) First tetrapods are Pisces
193. In which of the following both pairs have
e) First triploblastic animals are flat worms
correct combination?
1) a, b and d 2) b, c and d
1) In-situ conservation : wild life safari park
3) b, c and e 4) all are correct
Ex-situ conservation : tissue culture
190. Match the following columns and choose the
2) In-situ conservation : seed bank
correct option.
Ex-situ conservation : biosphere reserve
Column - I Column - II 3) In-situ conservation : national park
A. Ringworms i) Salmonella typhi Ex-situ conservation : seed bank
B. Typhoid ii) Haemophilus influenzae 4) In-situ conservation : botanical garden
C. Filariasis iii) Rhino viruses Ex-situ conservation : sacred groves
194. What is the relative contribution of CO2,
D. Pneumonia iv) Plasmodium
CFCs, CH4 and N2O to global warming
E. Common cold v) Wuchereria respectively?
F. Malaria vi) Trichophyton 1) 60%, 20%, 14% and 6%
1) A - vi, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - ii, F - iv 2) 60%, 14%, 20% and 6%
2) A - vi, B - i, C - iii, D - v, E - ii, F - iv 3) 60%, 6%, 20% and 14%
3) A - vi, B - v, C - ii, D - iii, E - i, F - iv 4) 60%, 20%, 6% and 14%
4) A - vi, B - i, C - v, D - ii, E - iii, F - iv
A
 24 Test ID : 877
195. Study the following w.r.t evolution of man. 1) 20 2) 55
a. Australopithecines - East African grass land 3) 45 4) 90
b. Homo habilis - fossils found in java 198. Statement - I: India is one of the 12 mega
c. Neanderthal man - used hide to protect their biodiversity countries of the world.
body Statement - II: India shares 8.1 % of global
d. Homo erectus - brain capacity 650 - 800 cc species diversity.
e. Prehistoric cave art - 10,000 years back 1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Choose the correct option. 2) Statement I is correct, statement II is
1) b, d and e are correct, a and c are incorrect incorrect
2) a, c and d are correct, b and e are incorrect 3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
3) a and c are correct, b, d and e are incorrect correct
4) b and d are correct, a, c and e are incorrect 4) Both Statements I and II are correct
199. Which of the following is correct?
196. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t the
given graph? Convergent evolution Divergent evolution
1) Fore limb bones of Wings of butterfly
some mammals and birds
2) Hearts and brains of Eyes of octopus and
vertebrates mammals
3) Thorns of
Potato and sweet
Bougainvillea and
potato
tendrils of Cucurbita
4) Eyes of octopus and Forelimb bones of
mammal some mammals
200. Study the following.
1) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 shift the Log S = Log C + Z log A, is the relationship
curve to right side between species richness and area on log scale
2) At low temperature the curve shifts to left The value of ‘Z’ in large areas like the entire
side continents will be between
3) At high pH the curve shifts to right side 1) 0.1 to 0.2
4) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen the 2) 0.6 - 1.2
curve shifts to right side 3) 2 to 4
197. It
is estimated that 170 billion tons of organic 4) 5 to 10
matter (dry weight) is produced annually.
What contribution in terms of billion tons is
expected by oceans?

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