IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

XII - NEET RPT - 8

Date : 03.12.2023 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII -NEET CODE-A Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry , Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.

Part – A (Physics) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT.

Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Part – C (Botany&Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded
4 Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark
if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.
******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********
SUBJECT SYLLABUS PAPER SETTER
RAY OPTICS, (DELETD TOPICS : DEFECTS OF EYE), WAVE
OPTICS
PHYSICS (DELETD TOPICS : DOPPLER EFFECT IN LIGHT RESOLVING Mr.SAKSHI SURESH
POWER), NUCLEI
(DELETD TOPICS : RADIO ACTIVITY COMPLETE)
PREPARATION OF MOHR'S SALT AND ALUM,
QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS OF ANIONS, AMINES,
CHEMISTRY DETECTION OF AMINO GROUP, PREPARATION OF Mr.G.VANKATESWARARAO
ACETANILIDE, PARA NITRO ACETANILIDE, ANILINE,
COORDINATION CHEMISTRY
BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES,
BOTANY Mr.SUNIL
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE, GRAMINAE
ORGANISMS AND POPULATION, ECOSYSTEM, Mr.PRABHAKAR
ZOOLOGY
BIODIVERSITY
RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
PHYSICS
1. Figure shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incident. If the incidenting
light ray is turned by 100 and the mirror by 200 as shown, then the angle turned
by the reflected ray is

1) 300 clockwise 2) 300 anticlockwise 3) 500 clockwise 4) 500 anticlockwise

2. Two mirrors labelled L1 for left mirror and L2 for right mirror in the figure are
parallel to each other and 3.0m apart. A person standing 1.0m from the right
mirror (L2) looks into this mirror and sees a series of images. The second
nearest image in the right mirror is situated at a distance.

1) 2.0m from the person 2) 4.0m from the person

3) 6.0m from the person 4) 8.0m from the person
3. Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the
figure. A light ray is incident at an angle 300 at a point just inside one end of A.
The plane of incidence coincides with the plane of the figure. The maximum
number of times the ray undergoes reflections (including the first one) before it
emerges out is

1) 28 2) 30 3) 32 4) 34
4. The velocity of image w.r.t. ground in the below figure is

1) 45m/s and approaches the mirror

2) 45m/s and moves away from the mirror
3) 60m/s and approaches the mirror
4) 60m/s and moves away from the mirror
5. A glass slab of thickness 4cm contains the same number of waves as 5cm of
water when both are traversed by the same monochromatic light. If the
4
refractive index of water is , then that of glass is
3
5 5 16 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 4 15 2

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RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
6. Light ray is travelling from a denser medium into a rarer medium. The velocity
of light in the denser and rarer medium is 2 108 m / sec and 2.5 108 m / sec . The
critical angle of the two media is
1) sin 1   2) sin 1   3) sin 1   4) sin 1  
5 4 1 3
4 5 2 5
7. A light ray is incident at an angle 450 on parallel sided glass slab and emerges
out grazing the vertical surface. The refractive index of the slab is
3 5 3 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
8. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre at C as shown in figure.
The ray emerges from the sphere parallel to line AB, the refractive index of the
sphere is

3 1
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4)
2 2
9. A denser medium of refractive index 1.5 has a concave surface with respect to
air of radius of curvature 12cm. An object is situated in the denser medium at a
distance of 9cm from the pole. Locate the image due to refraction in air
1) A real image at 8cm 2) A virtual image at 8cm
3) A real image at 4.8cm 4) A virtual image at 4.8cm
10. An object is placed first at infinity and then at 20cm from the object side focal
plane of a convex lens. The two images thus formed are 5cm apart. The focal
length of the lens is
1) 5cm 2) 10cm 3) 15cm 4) 20cm
11. The refractive index of a prism for a mono chromatic light is 2 and its
refracting angle is 600. For minimum deviation the angle of incidence will be
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 750
12. If iˆ denotes a unit vector along an incident ray r̂ a unit vector along the
refracted ray into a medium of refractive index '  ' and n̂ a unit vector normal to
the boundary of the media direted towards the incident medium, then the law of
refraction can be written as
1) iˆ.nˆ    rˆ.nˆ  2) iˆ  nˆ    nˆ  rˆ  
3) iˆ  nˆ    rˆ  nˆ  
4)  iˆ  nˆ  rˆ  nˆ
13. A plane wave front falls on a convex lens. The emergent wave front is
1) Plane 2) Cylindrical
3) Spherical diverging 4) Spherical converving
14. Two coherent waves are represented by y1  a1 cos  t and y2  a2 sin  t . The
resultant intensity due to interference will be
1)  a12  a22  2)  a12  a22  3)  a1  a2  4)  a1  a2 
15. The bending of light about corners of an obstacle is called
1) Dispersion 2) Refraction 3) Deviation 4) Diffraction
16. Assertion: If the whole apparatus of young’s experiment is immersed in liquid,
the fringe width will decrease.
Reason: The wavelength of light in water is more than that in air.
1) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation
of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
4) Assertion is false and reason is true.

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RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
17. Match the following:
Column – I Column - II
(A) Silver lining of mountains (I) Polarization by refraction
(B) Rectilinear propagation light (II) Transverse nature of light
(C) Polarization (III) Diffraction
(D)
.
Pile of plates (IV) Ray optics
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) IV III II I 2) III IV I II
3) II IV IV I 4) III IV II I
18. Two coherent sources of different intensities send waves that interfere. The ratio
of maximum to minimum intensity is 25. The intensity ratio of the sources is
1) 25 : 1 2) 5 : 1 3) 9 : 4 4) 625 : 1
19. First diffraction minima due to a single slit diffraction is at   300 for a light of
wavelength 6000A0 . The width of slit is
1) 1106 cm 2) 1.2 106 m 3) 2 106 cm 4) 2.4 106 m
20. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarized for reflection
from air to glass (Refractive index n) is
1) sin 1  n  2) sin 1 1/ n  3) tan 1 1/ n  4) tan 1  n 
21. The critical angle of a transparent crystal is 600. Then its polarizing angle is
 2   1 
1)   tan 1 
 3
  
2)   sin 1 2 3)   cos 1 
 2
 4)   cot
1
2  
22. Two polaroids are kept crossed to each other. Now one of them is rotated
through an angle of 450. The percentage of incident light now transmitted
thorugh the system is
1) 15% 2) 25% 3)50% 4) 60%
23. The 1st diffraction minimum due to single slit diffraction is  , for a light of wave
length 5000A0. If the width of the slit is 1104 cm then the value of 
1) 300- 2) 450 3) 600 4) 150
24. A mercury thermometer is transferred from melting ice to a hot liquid. The
mercury rises to 9/10 of the distance between the two fixed points. Find the
temperatue of the liquid in Fahrenheit scale
1) 1940F 2) 1620F 3) 1120F 4)1130F
25. A steel rod of length 0.5km is used in the construction of a bridge. It has
withstand a temperatue change of 400C. The gap that is allowed for its
expansion is [   106 / 0 C ]
1) 0.02cm 2) 0.02mm 3) 2m 4) 20mm
26. A beaker contains 200g of water. The heat capacity of the beaker is equal to that
of 20g water. The initial temperature of water in the beaker is 200C. If 440g of
hot water at 920C is poured in it, the final temperature (neglecting radiation
loss) will be nearly.
1) 580C 2) 680C 3) 730C 4) 780C
27. If 10g of the ice at 00C is mixed with 10g of water at 100C, then the final
temperature of the mixtue will be
1) 50C 2) 00C 3) 1000C 4) 400C
28. An air bubble rises from the bottom of a lake and its radius is doubled on
reaching the surface. If the temperature is constant the depth of the lake is.(1
atmospheric pressure =10m height of water column)
1) 7m 2) 70m 3) 10m 4) 0.7m
29. State the equation corresponding to 8g of O2 is
1) PV = 8RT 2) PV= RT/4 3) PV = RT 4) PV = RT/2
30. 2kg ice block should be dropped from ‘x km’ height to melt completely. The 8kg
ice should be dropped from a height of
1) 4x km 2) x km 3) 2x km 4) x/2 km

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RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
31. When 20J of work was done on a gas, 40J of heat energy was released. If the
initial internal energy of the gas was 70j, what is the final internal energy?
1) 50J 2) 60J 3) 90J 4) 110J
32. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the same metal form
the sides of an isosceles triangle ABC right angled at B. The points A and B are
maintained at temperatures ‘T’ and ‘ 2T ’ , respectively, in the steady state.
Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, temperature of point C is

3T T T T
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 1 2 1 3  2 1 2 1

33. The radius of the nucleus of mass number 125 is

1) 175 1015 m 2) 351015 m 3) 70 1015 m 4) 7 1015 m
34. The nuclei 6C13 & 7N14 can be described as
1) Isotones 2) Isobars 3) Isomers 4) Isotopes
35. The binding energies of a deuteron and an  -particle are 1.125, 7.2
MeV/nucleon respectively. The more stable of the two, is
1) Deutron 2)  -particle
3) Both 4) Sometimes deuteron and sometimes  -particle
36. Nuclear forces are
1) Non-central forces 2) Saturated
3) Spin dependent 4) All the above
37. Match the following.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Moderator (I) Absorbs heat
(B) Control rods (II) Prevent neutrons exposed outside
(C) Radiation shielding (III) Absorb neutrons
(D)
.
Coolant (IV) Slow down neutrons
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) IV III II I 2) III IV II I
3) IV III I II 4) IV II I III
38. r1 and r2 are the radii of atomic nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 27 respectively.
The ratio  r1 / r2  is
1) 64/27 2) 27/64 3) 4/3 4) 1
39. Energy released as mass of 2 amu is eonverted into energy is
1) 1.5 1010 J 2) 3 1010 J 3) 1863 J 4) 931.5 MeV
40. The energy released by the fission of 1g of 235U in joule, given that the energy
released per fissionis 200MeV. (Avogdro’s number = 6.023 ×1023)
1) 8.202 1012 2) 8.202 108 3) 8.202 1010 4) 8.202 1014
41. A match box of 5cm ×5cm ×1cm dimensions is filled with nuclear matter. Its
weight is in the order of
1) 10g 2) 108g 3) 1012g 4) 1015g

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RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
42. Binding energy per nucleon vs. mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the
figure. W, X, Y and Z.

are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is
1) Y  2Z 2) W  X  Z 3) W  2Y 4) X  Y  Z
43. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest emits an  -particle. If the Q
value of the reaction is 5.5MeV, calculate the kinetic energy of the  -partcle.
1) 4.4 MeV 2) 5.4 MeV 3) 5.6 MeV 4) 6.5 MeV
44. If the binding energy per nucleon in 3 Li and 2He nuclei ar 5.60 MeV and 7.06
7 4

MeV respectively, then in reaction

1 H 1  3 Li 7  2 2 He 4 ,
energy of proton must be
1) 28.24 MeV 2) 17.28 MeV 3) 1.46 MeV 4) 39.2 MeV
45. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass number A as
1) A2 2) A 3) Constant 4) 1/A

CHEMISTRY
46. The aqueous solution of salt gives white ppt with lead acetate solution which is
insoluble in hot water and nitric acid. The salt contains.
1) Cl  2) Ba2 3) CO32  4) SO42 
47. Which of the following anion is detected by brown ring test?
1) CO32  2) Br  3) C2O42 4) NO3
48. In detection of CO2, lime water turns milky due to the formation of
1) CaO 2) CaCl2 3) CaCO3 4) Ca(HCO3)2
49. In the detection of sulphide ion in an inorganic compound, sodium
nitroprusside is added to the salt solution. A violet colour is obtained which is
due to formation of
1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6] 2) Fe[SCN)3
3) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] 4) Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS]
50. Which compound will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
1) NaCl 2) HgCl2 3) CaCl2 4) NH4Cl
51. The weight of Mohr’s salt (M.Wt = 392 g/mol) required to prepare 0.1M in 250ml
soluiton is _______ grams.
1) 39.2 2) 3.92 3) 9.8 4) 19.6
52. A solution of white crystals gives a precipitate with AgNO3, but no precipitate
with solution of Na2CO3. The action of conc.H2SO4 on the crystals yields brown
gas. The crystal is
1) NaNO3 2) KCl 3) Ca(NO2)2 4) NaBr
53. Which of the following is more basic in gaseous state?
1) (CH3)3N 2) (CH3)2NH 3) CH3NH2 4) NH3
54. Azodye test is used for the identification of
1) Aliphatic primary amine 2) Aromatic primary amine
3) Aromatic secondary amine 4) Aliphatic secondary amine
55. Salt with which one of the following anion on oxidation produce deep blue
colour with starch.
1) Chloride 2) Iodide 3) Acetate 4) Bromide
56. CuSO4 + NH4OH gives deep blue compelx of
1) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 2) [Cu(NH3)2]SO3 3) [Cu(NH3)6]SO3 4) [Cu2(NH3)6]SO3

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RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
57. When solutions of ferrous sulphate and Ammonium sulphate are mixed
together, evoparated and cooled to get crystals of _______coloured.
1) Yellow 2) Light green 3) Orange 4) Red
58. Wrong statement among the following :
1) Boiling point of n-Butylamine is more than that of N-ethyl ethanamine
2) Solubility of N-methyl ethanamine in water is more than that of N,N-dimethyl
ethanamine
3) In nitration of aniline, percentage yield of nitro aniline is para > ortho > meta
4) Benzene diazonium fluoroborate is water insoluble and stable at room
temperature
59. Nitration of acetanilide followed by hydrolysis mainly gives (major product) :
1) o-Nitroaniline 2) p-nitroaniline
3) o-and p-nitroaniline 4) o-nitrolinium ion
60. Acetanilide when treated with bromine in acetic acid mainly gives
1) O-Bromoacetanilide 2) N-Bromoacetanilide
3) P-Bromoacetanilide 4) m-Bromoacetanilide
61. Which of the following is a chelate complex ion?
2 2 3
1) Cu  en 2  2) CuCl4  3) Cu  NH 3  4  4) Cu  CN 4 
2

62. The coordination number of central metal ion in the complex K 3  Fe  OX 3  is

1) One 2) Three 3) Six 4) Seven
63. The IUPAC name of the complex K 2  Ni  CN 4  is
1) Tetrapotassiumtetracyanonicklate (O) 2) Potassiumtetracyanonickel (O)
3) Potassiumtetracyanonickelate (II) 4) Tetrapotassiumtetraeyanonickel
(O)
64. Co  NH 3 5 Cl  SO4 and Co  NH 3 5 SO4  Cl are
1) Hydrate isomers 2) Ionisation isomers
3) Coordination isomers 4) Linkage isomers
65. Which of the following shows coordination isomerism?
1) Co  NH 3 5 NO2  Cl2 2) Co  NH 3 6  Cr  CN 6 
3)  Pt  NH 3 2 Cl2  4) K 3  Ag  S 2O3  2 
66. Which of the following complexes show linkage isomerism?
2
1) Co  NH 3 5  SCN   Cl2 2) Cr  H 2O 3  NH 3 3 
3
3)  Pt  NH 3 2 Cl2  4) Cr  en 3 
67. Which of the following can’t show optical activity?
3 
1) Co  en 3  2) cis- Co  en  2 Cl2 

3) trans- Co  en  2 Cl2  4) Bis(glycinato) Nickel (II)
68. Which of the following is/are inner orbital complex?
4 3 3
1)  Fe  CN 6  2) Cr  NH 3 6  3)  Mn  CN 6  4) All of these
3 3
69.  Fe  H 2O 6  and  Fe  CN 6  differ in
1) oxidation number 2) coordination number
3) structure 4) magnetic nature
70. Hexachlorocobaltate(III) ion is found to be high spin complex. The hybridization
of cobalt is
1) d 2 sp3 2) sp3d 2 3) sp 3d 4) sp3
71. CFSE (0) for metal ion in d 7 configuration in presence of strong field ligand is
1) -0.60 2) -0.80 3) -1.60 4) -1.80
72. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K 4  Fe  CN 6 
based on crystal field theory?
1) t24g eg o 2) t2 g 6 eg o 3) eg 3t23g 4) eg 4t2g
2

73. Which of the following does not show optical isomeirsm?

o  3 
1) Co  NH 3 3 Cl3  2) Co  en  Cl2  NH 3 2  3) Co  en 3  4) Co  en  2 Cl2 

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RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
74. Of the following complex ions, which is diamagnetic in nature?
2
1) CoF6  2)  NiCl4  3)  Ni  CN  4  4) CuCl4 
3 2 2

4
75. The crystal field stabillisation energy (CFSE) for Co  Cl 6  is 18000cm 1 . The
CFSE for CoCl4 
2
will be
1
1) 8000cm 2) 6000cm1 3) 16000cm1 4) 18000cm1
76. Which of the following is least basic?
NH2 CH2–NH2
1) 2) 3) C2H5 – NH2 4)

77. Which of the following amine does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent?
CH 3

1) CH 3  CH 2  NH 2 2) CH 3  C  CH 3 3)  CH 3 3 N 4) CH 3  NH 2

NH 2
78. C 2 H 5  NH 2  
 A 
HNO2
 B 
KCN
 C end product in the given sequence is
PCl5

1) C2H5CN 2) CH3NH2 3) C2H5 – NH2 4) CH3CONH2

79. A compound X has molecular formula C7H7NO on treatment with Br2 and KOH,
X-gives an amine Y. ‘Y’ gives carbylamine test. ‘Y’ upon diazotisation and
coupling with phenol gives an azo dye. Thus X is
1) C6H5CONH2 2) C6H5CH2NO 3) C6H5COONH4 4) All of these
80. Which of the following compounds gives azo dye test with -Naphthol?
1) Aniline 2) Methylamine 3) Diphenylamine 4) Etnylamine
81. In the given set of reactions
COONa
  Et  Br
KOH aq.
Phthalimide   B   C 
NaOH
D . D is
COONa

1) CH3 – NH2 2) CH3CH2NH2

3) CH3 – CH2NH – CH3 4) (CH3)2NH
82. Find the end product in the following reaction.
Et  Cl
C6 H 6 
AlCl3
 X 
NBS / hv
Y 
Alc . KOH
 Z HBr

Peroxide
 P (major).

CHBr - CH3 CH2CH2Br CH2CH3

CH2Br

1) 2) 3) 4)

Br
83. Which of the following alkene gives same product in acid catalysed addition of
water and hydro boration oxidation?
1) But-2-ene 2) 1, 2-dimethyl cyclohexene
3) Ethylene 4) All the above
84. An alkene on reductive ozonolysis gives one mole acetone, one mole
acetaldehyde and one mole glyoxal. Which of the following is correct IUPAC
name of the alkene?
1) 2-methylhexa-2,4-diene 2) 3-methylhex-2,4-diene
3) hex-1,3,5-triene 4) 4-methylhex-1,3,5-triene
Br2 1 mole 
85. n  propane 
U.V. light
 X 
Na / Ether
 Y . Correct IUPAC name of “Y” is
1) 2,2-dimethylbutane 2) 2,3-dimethylbutane
3) 2,3-dimethylpentane 4) 2,2-dimethylpentane
1 conc.HNO3  H 2 SO4
86. C6 H 6 
 2  Fe + HCl  ? The product is
(3) Br2  CH 3COOH

1) only o-bromoaniline 2) 2,4,6-tribromoaniline

3) o- and p-bromoaniline 4) only p-bromoaniline

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NH2
H2SO4
87. Major product of the reaction is
200OC
CH3

NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

SO3H SO3H
1) 2) 3) 4)
CH3 CH3 CH3
HO3S CH3
SO3H
NH 4 OH  AgNO3 CH 3  Cl
88. 1,1  dichloro propane 
Alc
KOH
 
NaNH 2
1 mole       P.
What is “P” in the above reaction?
1) Butyne-1 2) Butyne-2 3) Butene 4) But-2-ene
89. The final product c, obtained in this reaction would be
NH2

AC2O Br2 H2O

A CH COOH B C.
3 𝐻

CH3
NH2 COCH3 NH2 NHCOCH3
COCH3 Br Br Br
1) 2) 3) 4)

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

90. In potash alum the coordination number of Al 3 ion is ______

1) 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 12

BIOLOGY
91. The different basic steps of genetically modifying an organism are given below
randomly.
I. Identification of DNA with desirable genes.
II. Transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
III. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host.
IV. Introduction of identified DNA into the host.
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps?
1) I, II, III and IV 2) I, IV, III and II 3) III, IV, II and I 4) I, III, IV and II
92. The key tools required for the recombinant DNA technology are
I. restriction enzymes II. polymerase enzymes
III. ligases IV. Vector V. host organism
Select the correct option.
1) I, II and III 2) I, III, IV and V 3) I, II, III and V 4) I, II, III, IV and V
93. In the naming of restriction enzymes, the first letter of the name is derived from
..... A .... and next two letters from the ..... B ..... and fourth letter from the
name of ..... C .... of .... D .... from which the enzymes are extracted. A to D in
the statement can be
A B C D A B C D
1) genus species strain bacteria 2) species genus strain bacteria
3) genus species variety eukaryote 4) species genus variety eukaryote
94. Restriction enzyme cuts the DNA strand a little away from the centre of
palindrome site between
1) same two bases on same strand 2) same two bases on opposite strand
3) opposite bases on same strand 4) opposite bases on opposite strand
95. How many fragments will be generated, if a linear DNA molecule is digested with
a restriction enzyme having 4 recognition sites on the DNA?
1) 3 2) 5 3) 4 4) 6

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96. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme restriction
endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statements
1) The enzyme recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
DNA.
2) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
3) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
4) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each
strand.
97. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movements on agarose gel during gel
electrophoresis ?
1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
2) The smaller the fragments size, the farther it moves
3) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
4) Negatively charged fragments do not move
98. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of E. coli cloning vector pBR322.

1) A–Eco RI, B–Bam HI, C–ori, D–ampR

2) A–ampR, B–ori, C–Bam HI, D–Eco RI
3) A–ori, B–Bam HI, C–Eco RI, D–ampR
4) A–Bam HI, B–Eco RI, C–ampR, D–ori
99. A selectable marker is used to
1) Help in eliminating the non-transformants, so that selectively permitting the
growth of the transformants.
2) Identify the gene for a desired trait in an alien organism
3) Select a suitable vector for tansformation in a specific crop
4) Mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using restriction enzyme
100. The treatment of host cell with divalent cation leads to the
1) Change in permeability of DNA
2) Increased efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
3) Decreased efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium
4) Both 1 and 3
101. Match the following enzymes with their functions.
Column I Column II
A. Lysozyme 1. Joins the DNA fragments
B. Exonuclease 2. Extends primers on genomic DNA template
C. DNA ligase 3. Dissolve the bacterial cellwall
D. Taq DNA polymerase 4. Removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA
A B C D A B C D
1) 3 1 4 2 2) 3 4 1 2
3) 4 3 1 2 4) 2 4 1 3
102. Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given
below.
Column I (Substrates) Column II (Enzymes)
A. RNA 1. Chitinase
B. Chitin 2. Cellulase
C. Cellulose 3. Ribonuclease
A B C A B C
1) 1 2 3 2) 3 1 2
3) 3 2 1 4) 2 1 3

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103. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Isolation of purified DNA 1. Protease
B. Removal of proteins 2. Gel electrophoresis
C. Isolation of DNA fragments 3. Chilled ethanol
D. Amplification of gene 4. PCR
A B C D A B C D
1) 1 2 3 4 2) 3 1 2 4
3) 2 1 3 4 4) 3 2 1 4
104. I. DNA being a hydrophilic molecule cannot pass through cell membranes.
II. The bacteria should be made competent to accept the DNA molecule.
The correct option regarding the above statements is
1) I is true, but II is false 2) II is true, but I is false
3) I and II are true 4) I and II are false
105. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to a bioreactor?
I. It can process only small volumes of culture.
II. It provides optimum temperature, pH, salt, vitamins and oxygen.
III. Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor is a stirred type reactor in which air is
bubbled.
Choose the correct option.
1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
106. Which statement is correct?
I. The downstream processing and quality control testing vary from product to
product.
II. In bioreactors, raw materials are biologically converted into specific products.
III. Large amount of recombinant protein can be produced by gene cloning.
IV. pBR322 vector was constructed by using DNA derived from naturally
occurring plasmids of E. coli.
1) I, II and III 2) Only IV 3) II, III and IV 4) All of these
107. Identify the correct statements.
I. The first recombinant DNA was constructed by using a piece of DNA from
plasmid carrying antibiotic resistance gene in the bacterium Salmonella
typhimurium and linked it to the plasmid of E. coli.
II. When DNA from different surces cut by the same restriction enzyme, the
resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of sticky ends and these can be
joined together using DNA ligases.
III. The presence of more than one recognition sites for commonly used
restriction enzymes within the vector will generate several fragments, which will
complicate the gene cloning.
1) I, II and III 2) I and II 3) Only I 4) II and III
108. Study the given figure carefully and select the correct statements regarding this.

I. It represents typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing differential migration

of DNA fragments.
II. Lane 1 contains undigested DNA fragments.
III. Lanes 2 to 4 contain digested DNA fragment.
IV. Smallest DNA bands are present at A position and largest DNA bands are
present at B position.
1) I, II and III 2) I, II and IV 3) II and III 4) III and IV
109. How many fragments will be generated, if a closed circular DNA molecule is
digested using a restriction enzyme having six recognition sites on the DNA?
1) 4 2) 6 3) 7 4) 5
110. Find the correct palindromic sequence for the given DNA segment
5’ ATTGCAAT 3’
1) 5’GAACGTTA3’ 2) 3’TAACGTTA5’ 3) 5’AAACGTTT3’ 4) 3’ATTGCAAT5’

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111. Assertion: In a genetic engineering process, it is necessary to prepare a sterile
ambience.
Reason: Sterile ambience inhibits the growth of undesirable microbes during
manufacture of product.
1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false 4) If A is false, but R is true
112. Assertion: Genetic engineering can overcome the drawbacks of traditional
hybridization.
Reason: Genetic engineering can create desired DNA sequences to meet specific
requirements.
1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false 4) If A is false, but R is true
113. Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle?
1) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+H+
2) There is one point in the cycle where FAD + is reduced to FADH2
3) During conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is
synthesized
4) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl Co-A) with pyruvic
acid to yield citric acid
114. Assertion: E.coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamH I site cannot grow in
medium containing tetracycline.
Reason: Recognition site for BamH I is present in tetR region of pBR322.
1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false 4) If A is false, but R is true
115. Match the organisms with its use in Biotechnology
A) Bacillus thuringiensis i) Cloning vector
B) Thermus aquaticus ii) Construction of first rDNA molecule
C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens iii) DNA polymerase
D) Salmonella typhimurium iv) Cry proteins
A B C D A B C D
1) ii iv iii i 2) iv iii i ii
3) iii ii iv i 4) iii iv i ii
116. Identify the given type of Stirred tank bioreactor. P and Q are entry for some
inputs.

P Q
1) P-For creating vacuum Adding foam
2) For creating vacuum Removing foam
3) Sterile air For creating vacuum
4) Steam for sterilization Sterile air
117. Identify the blank spaces A, B, C and D given in the following table and select
the correct answer.
Types of microbes Scientific names Commercial products
Bacterium A Lactic acid
Fungus B Citric acid
C Acetobacter aceti Acetic acid
Fungus Penicillium notatum D
1) A–Lactobacillus, B–Aspergillus niger, C–Bacterium, D–Penicillin
2) A–Staphylococcus, B–Clostridium, C–Yeast, D–Penicillin
3) A–Lactobacillus, B–Microsporum, C–Yeast, D–Penicillin
4) A–Staphylococcus, B–Microsporum, C–Agaricus, D–Penicillin

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118. Which of the following is incorrectly matched in the given table?
Microbes Products Applications
1) Monascus purpureus Statins Lowering of blood
cholesterol
2) Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from
blood vessel
3) Clostridium Lipase Removal of oil stains
butylicum
4) Trichoderma Cyclosporin-A Immunosuppressive
polysporum drug
119. Primary treatment of wastes is the
1) Physical removal of large and small particles from sewage
2) Biological removal of large and small particles from sewage
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) Chemical removal of large and small particles from sewage
120. Given below is the flowchart of sewage treatment. Identify A, B, C, D and E and
select the correct option.

1) A–Small aeration tank, B–Microbial digestion, C–High BOD, D–Activated

sludge, E–Aerobic sludge digesters
2) A–Large aeration tank, B–Mechanical agitation, C–Increased BOD, D–
Activated sludge, E–Aerobic sludge digesters
3) A–Small aeration tank, B–Microbial digestion, C–Low BOD, D–Activated
sludge, E–Anaerobic sludge digesters
4) A–Large aeration tank, B–Mechanical agitation, C–Reduced BOD, D–Activated
sludge, E–Anaerobic sludge digesters
121. The BOD test measures the rate of uptake of oxygen by microbes in water
bodies. The greater BOD of sample water, indicates that
1) it is highly polluted 2) it is not polluted
3) it is moderately polluted 4) pollution level cannot be determined
122. Consider the following statements.
I. Antibiotics are chemical substances produced by some microorganisms which
can kill or retard the growth of other disease-causing microorganisms.
II. Penicillin was the first antibiotic discovered by Alexander Fleming, while
working on bacterium Staphylococcus.
III. The function of penicillin as an antibiotic was established by Ernst Chain
and Howard Florey.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) II and III only 4) I, II and III
123. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents.
1) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
2) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
3) Nostoc, Azospirillum, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
4) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic virus, Aphids
124. Select the group of organisms that are used as biofertilisers in organic farming.
1) Oscillatoria, Nostoc, Glomus and Anabaena
2) Trichoderma, Baculovirus and B. thuringiensis
3) Nostoc, Azolla pinnata and Tobacco mosaic virus
4) Penicillium, Streptococcus and Aspergillus

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125. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Lactobacillus 1. Cheese
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 2. Curd
C. Aspergillus niger 3. Citric acid
D. Acetobacter aceti 4. Bread
5. Acetic acid
A B C D A B C D
1) 2 4 3 5 2) 3 4 5 1
3) 2 1 3 5 4) 2 4 5 3
126. Identify the correct floral formula of the family Poaceae

1) 2)

3) 4)
127. In the given floral diagram, A, B and C indicate.

1) A-Palea, B-Lodicule, C-Lemma 2) A-Lemma, B-Palea, C-Lodicule

3) A-Lodicule, B-Palea, C-Lemma 4) A-Palea, B-Lemma, C-Lodicule
128. Which of the following represents the floral characters of Poaceae?
1) Pedicellate, bracteate, bisexual, trimerous actinomorphic, complete and
superior ovary
2) Pedicellate, bracteate, bisexual, pentamerous, zygomorphic, complete and
superior ovary
3) Bracteate, bracteolate, incomplete, uni or bisexual, perianth modified into
lodicules, stamens three, superior ovary and feathery stigma
4) Bracteate, unisexual, actinomorphic stamens five and inferior ovary
129. Identify the A B and C in the following figure.

1) A: feathery stigma, B: Lemma,C: stamens

2) A: Bifid stigma, B: Lemma, C : stamens
3) A: Bifid stigma, B: Bracts, C: Pistil
4) A: feathery stigma, B: Bracteoles, C:style
130. Caryopsis is a fruit in which
1) there are many seeds 2) seeds are exposed in dehiscence
3) fruit wall is absent 4) fruit wall is fused with seed coat
131. Which of the following is incorrect about the family Graminae
1)Basic food of mankind Rice, wheat, barley, corn, bajra
2) Fodder: leaves and stems Rice, wheat, corn and other grass species
3) Ornamental  Kans, munj
4) Aromatic oils Lemon grass, ginger grass

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132. Study the following statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis in
mitochondria.
I. F1 head-piece contains the site for the synthesis of ATP from ADP+ Pi.
II. F0 part forms the channel through which protons cross the inner membrane.
III. The passage of protons through the channel is coupled to the catalytic site of
the F1 component for the ATP production.
IV. For each ATP produced, 2H+ pass through F0 from the intermembrane space
to the matrix against the electrochemical process gradient.
Select the option depicting the correct statements.
1) I and II 2) I, II and III 3) I and III 4) I, II, III and IV
133. Assertion (A) : 6 cycles of Calvin cycle are required for synthesis of one glucose
molecule.
Reason (R): In each Calvin cycle, only one molecule of CO2 is fixed. Hence, 6
molecules of CO2 are required for one molecule of glucose.
1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) If A is true, but R is false 4) If A is false, but R is true
134. How many H ions are formed from 12 water molecules during non-cyclic
+

photophosphorylation?
1) 12 2) 24 3) 36 4) 48
135. Match the following columns.
Column I (Location) Column II(PGRs)
A. Human urine 1. Cytokinin
B. Gibberella fujikuroi 2. Auxin
C. Herring fish DNA 3. Ethylene
D. Ripening fruit 4. ABA
E. Abscission of leaves 5. GA
A B C D E A B C D E
1) 2 3 4 5 1 2) 2 5 1 3 4
3) 1 2 3 4 5 4) 5 4 3 2 1
136. In spite of interspecific competition in nature, in which mechanism the
competing species might have evolved for their survival?
1) Competitive release 2) Ammensalism
3) Predation 4) Resource Partitioning
137. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to predation?
1) It is necessitated by nature to maintain the ecological balance
2) It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
3) It might lead to extinction of a species if a predator is too efficient and
overexploits its prey
4) Both the interacting species are negatively impacted.
138. Match Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column – II
A. Saprophyte i. Symbiotic association of fungi with plant
roots
B. Parasite ii. Decomposition of dead organic materials
C. Lichens iii. Living on plants or animals
D. Mycorrhiza iv. Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
139. Which is not true for population?
1) Population of a species live in groups in a well defined geographical region
2) They may share similar resources
3) They always do not share but only compete for same resources
4) Potentially interbreed
140. Amensalism can be represented as:
1) Species A (+) ; Species B (+) 2) Species A (-) ; Species B (-)
3) Species A (+) ; Species B (0) 4) Species A (-) ; Species B (0)

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141. Exponential population growth is represented by:
1) dN/dt = rN 2) dt/dN = rN 3) dN/rN = dt 4) rN/dN = dt
142. What type of human population is represented by the following pyramid?

1) Expanding population 2) Vanishing population

3) Stable population 4) Declining population
143. Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?
1) Natality 2) Mortality 3) Species interaction 4) Sex ratio
144. If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ died during a week, the death
rate in the population is ________ individuals per Drosophila per week.
1) Zero 2) 0.1 3) 10 4) 1.0
145. In the exponential growth equation
Nt = N0ert, ‘e’ represents:
1) The base of exponential logarithms 2) The base of natural logarithms
3) The base of logistic logarithms 4) The base of number logarithms
146. In the equation GPP – R = NPP. ‘R’ represents:
1) Retaradation factor 2) Environment factor
3) Respiration losses 4) Radiant energy
147. In relation to gross primary productivity and net primary productivity of an
ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?
1) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
2) Gross primary productivity and net primary productivity are one and same.
3) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and net primary
productivity
4) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.
148. Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into
simple substances by microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
149. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
2) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
3) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright.
4) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
150. The mass of living material at a tropic level at a particular time is called:
1) Net primary productivity 2) Standing crop
3) Gross primary productivity 4) Standing state
151. Read the statements and select correct option
(i) Joints are points of contact between bones, muscles or between bones and
tissue has slightly pliable matrix
(ii) Force generated by the skeletal system is used for movement through joints
(iii) Synovial joints only help in locomotion.
1) i and iii are incorrect 2) ii and i are correct
3) i and ii are incorrect 4) All incorrect

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152. Match Column – I with Column – II
Column – I Column – II
A. Fourth trophic level i. Crow
B. Second trophic level ii. Vulture
C. First trophic level iii. Rabbit
D. Third trophic level iv. Grass
Choose the correct answer from the option given below
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
153. Find out of the correct statement.
1) To understrand the ethos of an aquatic ecosystem we take a lake as an
example.
2) A constant input of solar energy is the basic requirement for any ecosystem
to function and sustain
3) Primary productivity depends on the plant and animal species inhabiting a
particular area
4) Fragmentation, humification and catabolism steps in decomposition operate
simultaneously on the detritus.
154. Which of the following has fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of the
brain
1) Association Areas 2) Pons 3) Hypothalamus 4) Brain stem
155. Population density may be expressed in
1) Numbers 2) Biomass 3) Percent cover 4) All of these
156. At a electrical synapse the membranes of the pre - and post synaptic neurons
are
1) Separated by a fluid filled space 2) Separated by wider synaptic cleft
3) Not separated but neurotransmitters flow directly into the synapses
4) Pre- and post-synaptic neurons are in very close proximity.
157. Which one of the following is not considered to a function as unit of an
ecosystem?
1) Stratification 2) Energy flow 3) Decomposition 4) Productivity
158. According to Alexander Von Humboldt:
1) Species richness increases with increasing area, but only up to limit
2) There is no relationship between species richness and area exploded
3) Species richness goes on increasing with increasing area of exploration
4) Species richness decreases with increasing area of exploration
159. Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global
biodiversity?
1) Mosses and Ferns 2) Algae 3) Lichens 4) Fungi
160. Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
1) Mango 2) Groundnut 3) Rice 4) Maize
161. Which of the following hormone regulate gene expression
1) LH 2) FSH 3) Tetraiodothyronin 4) Hyperglycaemic hormone
162. The organisation which publishes the Red List of species is
1) WWF 2) ICFRE 3) IUCN 4) UNEP
163. Which of the following animal species are facing highest percent threat of
extinction?
1) Amphibians 2) Mammal 3) Reptiles 4) Birds
164. Which of the following is not a method of in-situ conservation?
1) Sanctuaries 2) Biosphere reserves
3) National Parks 4) Seed banks
165. In-situ conservation refers to
1) Conserve only extinct species
2) Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
3) Conserve only high risk species
4) Conserve only endangered species

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166. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed
as:
1) Alien species 2) Endemic species
3) Rare species 4) Keystone species
167. A stable community should
1) Show much variation in productivity from yeat to year
2) Be resistant to occational man made disturbances
3) Be resistant to invasions by alien species only
4) Both 1 and 2 are correct but 3 is incorrect.
168. Which is the desirable approach to save organsims facing a very high risk of
extinction in the wild and needs urgent measrues ?
1) Ex-situ conservation 2) Insitu conservation
3) Save the entire forest/area 4) Take them into the national parks
169. Red list contains data or information on
1) Threatened species 2) Marine vertebrates only
3) All economically important plants
4) Plants whose products are in international trade
170. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when:
1) The value of ‘r’ approaches zero 2) K = N
3) K > N 4) K < N
171. In whicih of the following seasons brood parasitism is observed
1) Winter to spring 2) Spring to summer
3) Autumn to winter 4) Summer to autumn
172. In “rivet popper hypothese” loss of rivets on the wings represented as
1) Extincted species 2) Threatened species
3) Key Species 4) Ecosystem
173. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
1) Mac Arthur 2) Verhulst and Pearl 3) C. Darwin 4) G.F. Gause
174. What will be happen if the number of organisms increased at a place?
1) Interspecies competition 2) Intraspecies competition
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) None of the above
175. Total amount of energy trapped by green plants in food is called
1) Gross primary production 2) Net primary production
3) Standing crop 4) Standing state
176. Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly
described?
1) Leaching: Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
2) Fragmentation: Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
3) Humification: Leads to the accumulation of a dark colored substance humus
which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate
4) Catabolism: Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
177. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will
be adversely affected, because:
1) Mineral movement will be blocked
2) The rate of decomposition will be very high
3) Fragementation process will be blocked.
4) Herbivores will not receive solar energy
178. Organisms occupy a specific place in the food chain based on the source of their
nutrition or food is known as
1) Trophic level 2) Stratification 3) Standing state 4) Standing crop
179. Species diversity is maximum in:
1) Tropical rain forest 2) Temperate forest 3) Deserts 4) Hill slopes
180. Which of the following are essential for the normal growth of tissues and their
repairing/regeneration.
1) Somatostatin 2) hormones secreted by non-endocrine tissues
3) Androgens 4) Oestrogen

*****

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RPT - 8 CODE- A XII _NEET MODEL-03.12.2023
: ANSWER KEY:
STD: XII – NEET RPT - 8 DATE : 03-12-2023
CODE- A SUB: PHYSICS
S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key
1 1 11 2 21 1 31 1 41 4
2 3 12 3 22 2 32 1 42 3
3 2 13 4 23 1 33 4 43 2
4 1 14 2 24 1 34 1 44 2
5 1 15 4 25 4 35 2 45 3
6 2 16 3 26 2 36 4
7 1 17 4 27 2 37 1
8 2 18 3 28 2 38 3
9 4 19 2 29 2 39 2
10 2 20 4 30 2 40 3
SUB:CHEMISTRY
Q.No Key Q. No Key Q. No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
46 4 56 1 66 1 76 4 86 2
47 4 57 2 67 3 77 3 87 1
48 3 58 3 68 4 78 1 88 2
49 3 59 2 69 4 79 1 89 3
50 2 60 3 70 2 80 1 90 2
51 3 61 1 71 4 81 2
52 4 62 3 72 2 82 3
53 1 63 3 73 1 83 4
54 2 64 2 74 3 84 1
55 2 65 2 75 1 85 2
SUB : BOTANY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
91 2 101 2 111 1 121 1 131 3
92 4 102 2 112 1 122 4 132 2
93 1 103 2 113 4 123 1 133 1
94 2 104 3 114 1 124 1 134 2
95 2 105 3 115 2 125 1 135 2
96 3 106 4 116 4 126 1
97 2 107 4 117 1 127 1
98 1 108 1 118 3 128 3
99 1 109 2 119 1 129 1
100 2 110 2 120 4 130 4
Topic: SUB : ZOOLOGY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
136. 4 146. 3 156. 4 166. 2 176. 2
137. 4 147. 1 157. 1 167. 2 177. 1
138. 4 148. 4 158. 1 168. 1 178. 1
139. 3 149. 1 159. 4 169. 1 179. 1
140. 4 150. 2 160. 3 170. 2 180. 2
141. 1 151. 4 161. 3 171. 2
142. 4 152. 4 162. 3 172. 3
143. 3 153. 2 163. 1 173. 4
144. 2 154. 2 164. 4 174. 3
145. 2 155. 4 165. 2 175. 1

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY