THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R.

MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code :6064

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER VI – PATHOLOGY–II
Q.P. Code: 526064
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script. No overwriting
should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Ferruginous bodies are seen in

a. Silicosis b. Coal workers pneumoconiosis
c. Asbestosis d. Sarcoidosis

2. Collar button lesions are seen in

a. Bronchial adenoma b. Bronchial carcinoid
c. Adenocarcinoma lung d. Tb bronchus

3. Tzanck test demonstrates intranuclear viral inclusions of Herpes as

a. Acidophillic b. Basophillic
c. Eosinphillic d. Ground Glass inclusions

4. Around 80% of Squamous cell carcinomas of the oral cavity are due to
a. HPV-12 b. HPV-14 c. HPV-15 d. HPV-16

5. The most common risk factor for Warthin’s tumour is

a. Alcoholism b. Smoking c. HPV- infection d. HIV – infection

6. Longitudinal mucosal tears near gastro-esophageal junction are called

a. Boerhaeve syndrome b. Mallory-weiss syndrome
c. Barret’s esophagus d. Variceal tear

7. The cytotoxin in H.Pylori is

a. Cag-A b. Cag-B c. Cag-C d. Cag-D

8. Intestinal type gastric cancers are strongly associated with mutations in

a. ALK-pathway b. NOTCH signalling c. WNT signalling d. CDKN signalling
9. Peutz-Jegher’s syndrome is a
a. Malignant polyp b. Sessile polyp
c. Hamartamatous polyp d. Hyperplastic polyp

10. Laennec cirrhosis is

a. Macronodular cirrhosis b. Micronodular cirrhosis
c. Cardiac cirrhosis d. Infantile cirrhosis

11. The most common altered oncogene in pancreatic cancers is

a. BRAF b. KRAS c. BMPR d. EGFR

12. The fluorescent microscopy changes in minimal change disease seen is

a. IgG and C3 b. IgG and C4 c. C3 and C4 d. Negative

13. Thyroidisation is a classical feature of

a. TB pyelonephritis b. Chronic pyelonephritis
c. Acute pyelonephritis d. Interstitial nephritis

14. Schiller- Duvall bodies are classically seen in

a. Teratomas b. Choriocarcinomas c. Yolk sac tumour d. Seminomas

15. Condyloma acuminatum are caused by

a. High risk HPV b. Low risk HPV c. Herpes simplex d. HIV

16. The tumour suppressor gene inactivation seen in endometrial hyperplasia is

a. BRAF b. ERBB c. PTEN d. NOTCH

17. The commonest mutations seen in carcinoma breast involves

a. PTEN b. BRAF c. BRCA d. ERBB

18. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is caused by breakdown in

a. TSH b. Self tolerance to thyroid autoantigens
c. CD4 Cells d. CD8 Cells

19. Medullary thyroid carcinomas secrete

a. Insulin b. Growth hormone c. Calcitonin d. Glucagon

20. RANKL gene is expressed in

a. Enchondroma b. Osteosarcoma
c. Chondrosarcoma d. Giant cell tumour of bone
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 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :6064
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)
PAPER VI – PATHOLOGY–II
Q.P. Code: 526064
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script. No overwriting
should be done.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)
1. Sheehan’s syndrome is:
A. Irradiation damage of pituitary gland
B. Scarred pituitary adenoma
C. Post partum pituitary necrosis
D. Surgical removal of pituitary gland

2. Major criteria in the modified Jones’ criteria include the following except:
A. Carditis B. Polyarthritis
C. Raised C-reactive protein D. Subcutaneous nodules

3. Bronchial carcinoid arises from:

A. Columnar ciliated epithelium B. Goblet cells
C. Kulchitsky cells D. Alveolar lining cells

4. Bronchogenic carcinoma has increased incidence in the following

pneumoconiosis:
A. Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis B. Silicosis
C. Asbestosis D. Bagassosis

5. Emphysema associated most often with alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency is:

A. Panacinar B. Centriacinar C. Distal acinar D. Irregular

6. Wegener’s granulomatosis generally produces lesions in the following tissues

except:
A. Nose B. Ears C. Lungs D. Kidneys

7. The most common risk factor for Warthin’s tumour is

A. Alcoholism B. Smoking C. HPV- infection D. HIV – infection

8. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis occurs most often in association with the

following:
A. Shigella dysentery B. Candida enterocolitis
C. Cephalosporin antibiotics D. Clostridial food poisoning

9. Chronic carrier state of the following hepatotropic virus infection is observed in the
following except:
A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HDV

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10. The following conditions have unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia except:
A. Dubin-Johnson syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
C. Jaundice of prematurity D. Gilbert syndrome

11. A 40 years old woman presents with fever, malaise, signs of jaundice, clay-coloured
stools, and high-coloured urine for 10 days. A liver biopsy reveals hepatocyte drop out
necrosis, focal inflammation and ballooning degeneration and a few intensely
eosinophilic oval bodies are found. What are these microscopic bodies called?
A. Councilman bodies B. Mallory bodies
C. Psammoma bodies D. Russell bodies

12. The most common features of nephritic syndrome include the following except:
A. Heavy proteinuria B. Hypertension
C. Microscopic haematuria D. Oliguria

13 . Basement membrane material in membranous glomerulonephritis appears as:

A. Dense deposits B. Spikes protruding from GBM
C. Double-contoured D. Tram-track

14. Medullary thyroid carcinomas secrete

A. Insulin B. Growth hormone C. Calcitonin D. Glucagon

15. Schiller- Duvall bodies are classically seen in

A. Teratoma B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Yolk sac tumour D. Seminomas

16. Condyloma acuminatum are caused by

A. High risk HPV B. Low risk HPV C. Herpes simplex D. HIV

17. Chocolate cyst of the ovary is:

A. Haemorrhagic corpus luteum B. Ruptured luteal cyst
C. Endometriotic cyst D. Ruptured follicular cyst

18. A 60 years old woman reports to physician for progressive fatigue, loss of appetite and
malaise for the last 2 months. An upper GI endoscopy reveals an ulcerative mass
located along the lesser curvature. CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral ovarian
masses. Which of the following condition this patient is most likely to have?
A. Ampullary carcinoma B. Krukenberg tumour
C. Serous adenocarcinoma of the ovary D. Endometrioid carcinoma of the uterine body

19. The following type of carcinoma of the breast is characterised by ‘Indian file’ pattern
of tumour cells:
A. Infiltrating duct carcinoma B. Invasive lobular carcinoma
C. Medullary carcinoma D. Tubular carcinoma

20. Characteristic inclusions seen in parkinsonism are:

A. Hirano bodies B. Neurofibrillary tangle C. Negri bodies D. Lewy bodies
*****
[MBBS 0822]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :6064
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER VI – PATHOLOGY–II
Q.P. Code: 526064
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script. No overwriting
should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. A characteristic finding in sputum of patients with Atopic asthma is

A) Keyser flescher ring B) Curschmann spirals
C) Hyaline bodies D) Ferruginous bodies

2. The most common tumour suppressor gene lost in Malignant mesothelioma is

A) BRAF B) JAK-STAT C) CDKN2A D) RET

3. Carotid body tumour is typically

A) Sympathetic paraganglioma B) Parasympathetic paraganglioma
C) Incidentaloma D) Glomus jugulare

4. Hirschsprung disease requires histologic confirmation of loss of

A) Muscularis B) Ganglion cells C) Villi D) Stromal layer

5. Diagnosis of Barrett’s oesophagus requires endoscopic evidence of metaplastic columnar

mucosa
A) At the OG junction B) Above the OG junction
C) Below the OG junction D) In the hilum

6. Peutz-jeghers syndrome is
A) Autosomal dominant B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-Linked recessive D) X-Linked Dominant

7. Fibrin ring non caseating granulomas in liver is seen in

A) Hepatoma B) Drug induced liver injury
C) Cirrhosis D) Budd-Chiari syndrome

8. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is one of the main causes for

A) Alport’s syndrome B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Meig’s syndrome D) Goodpasture syndrome
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9. Chromophobe Renal cell carcinoma, the cell of origin is thought to be
A) Foot processes B) Mesangium
C) Intercalated cell of collecting duct D) Parietal epithelium

10. Painful hematuria is most common symptom of

A) Renal Calculi B) Penile tumours
C) Bladder cancers D) Prostatic cancers

11. An identical tumour arising in the ovary, similar to Seminoma testes is

A) Yolk sac tumour B) Embryonal carcinoma
C) Dysgerminoma D) Teratoma

12. One of the theories of pathogenesis holds good for Endometriosis

A) Pascal’s theory B) Gleason’s theory
C) Regurgitation theory D) Polypoid theory

13. One complication of Monochorionic twin pregnancy is

A) Hydrops fetalis B) Chorangioma
C) Twin- Twin Transfusion syndrome D) Down’s syndrome

14. HER2 positive breast cancers have their HER2 gene amplification on
A) Chromosome 17q B) Chromosome 5p
C) Chromosome 7p D) Chromosome 11q

15. A functioning corticotroph adenoma producing adrenal hypersecretion of

cortisol leads to
A) Cushing’s syndrome B) Conn syndrome
C) Phaeochromocytoma D) Empty sella syndrome

16. Hurthle cells represent a response to chronic follicular epithelial injury called as
A) Dysplastic B) Metaplastic C) Anaplastic D) Dystrophic response

17. The gene defects in Type 2 Diabetes are seen in

A) BRAF B) MODY C) RET D) KRAS

18. The histologic hallmark of Mycosis fungoides is

A) Tombstone appearance B) Loss of rete ridges
C) Pautrier microabscesses D) Lichenosis

19. Activation of osteoprogenitors in healing of fractures is by

A) TGF-α B) PDGF C) ILN-γ D) IL-6

20. Lewy bodies are characteristically seen in

A) Multiple sclerosis B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) Parkinson disease D) Prion disease.

*********
[MBBS 0223]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code :6064
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER IV – PATHOLOGY–II
Q.P. Code: 526064
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Honey comb fibrosis of the lung is seen in

A) End stage fibrotic lung B) Organised fibrosis of the lung
C) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis D) Intertitial lung disease

2. Onion skin fibrosis is seen in

A) primary sclerosing cholangitis B) primary biliary cirrhosis
C) extra hepatic biliary atresia D) chronic hepatitis

3. Lepidic growth pattern is seen in which tumor

A) metastatic prostratic carcinoma B) adenocarcinoma of lung
C) renal cell carcinoma D) neuro endocrine tumor

4. Physaliferous cells is seen in

A) sacrococcygeal teratoma B) chordoma
C) high grade pleomorphic sarcoma D) choroid plexus papilloma

5. Splendore hoeppli phenomenon is seen in

A) rhinosporidiosis B) mucormycosis
C) actinomycosis D) maduramycosis

6. Zymogen granules is seen in which tumor of salivary gland

A) acinic cell carcinoma B) adenoid cystic carcinoma
C) mucoepidermoid carcinoma D) pleomorphic adenoma

7. Linitis plastica is seen in

A) carcinoma pharynx B) carcinoma oesophagus
C) carcinoma stomach D) carcinoma colon

8. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by

A) Clostridium difficile B) Clostridium tetani
C) Tropheryma whippeli D) Necator duodenale

9. Toxic megacolon is seen in

A) indeterminate colitis B) lymphocytic colitis
C) ulcerative colitis D) crohns disease
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 … 2 …

10. Puetz jeghers syndrome is due to

A) loss of function mutation of stk11 gene
B) loss of function mutation of smad4 gene
C) loss of function mutation of apc gene
D) loss of function mutation of snk gene

11. Groung glass hepatocytes is seen in

A) Hepatitis B virus B) Hepatitis C virus
C) Hepatitis A virus D) Hepatitis D virus

12. AI anti trypsin deficiency is due to

A) mutation in pax gene B) mutation in pizz polypeptide
C) mutation in at1 gene D) mutation in mrp2 gene

13. Glomerular filtration barrier is induced by all except

A) cd2ap B) hyalin C) nephrin D) podocin

14. Polycystic kidney disease is due to mutation in

i) polycystin 1 ii) polycystin 2 iii) nephrocystin iv) fibrocystin
A) i, ii B) i, ii, iii C) i, iii D) i, ii, iii, iv

15. Michaelis gutamann bodies is seen in

A) cystitis glandularis B) squamous metaplasia of gall bladder
C) malakoplakia D) actinomycosis

16. AMACR stands for

A) Anti Methionine and Cycin Rnases
B) Alpha Methylacyl Coenzyme A Racemase
C) Anti Methionine and Citrate and Reductase
D) Alpha Methyl Acetyl Carboxyl Racemase

17. Call exner bodies are seen in

A) Granulosa cell tumor B) Granular cell tumor
C) Sertoli leydig cell tumor D) Fibrothecoma

18. Young syndrome composed of the following except

A) Brochiectasis B) Situs inversus C) Sinusitis D) Azoospermia

19. Orphan annie eye nuclei is seen in

A) Papillary carcinoma thyroid B) Medullary carcinoma thyroid
C) Follicular carcinoma thyroid D) Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid

20. Crooke hyaline change is seen in

A) Hypercortisolism B) Corticotropic adenoma
C) Both of the above D) None of the above.

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[MBBS 0723]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :6064
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER II – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526064
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Centrilobular emphysema is seen in

A) Silicosis B) Asbestosis C) Anthracosis D) Berylliosis

2. Langerhans cells are

A) Mature dendritic cell B) Immature dendritic cell
C) Mast cell D) Modified nerve cell

3. Mesotheliomas are
A) Silicosis related B) Asbestosis related
C) Anthracosis related D) Berylliosis related

4. Gastroesophageal varices are due to

A) Stomach cancers B) Duodenal ulcers
C) Portal hypertension D) Hepatitis

5. Lesions in crohn’s disease are

A) Limited to mucosa B) Limited to stroma
C) Limited to submucosa D) Transmural

6. One of the commonest pathways involving colonic carcinogenesis is

A) APC/β-Catenin pathway B) WNT pathway
C) NOTCH Pathway D) P13K pathway

7. A predominant feature of alcoholic liver disease is

A) Florid duct lesion B) Macrovesicular steatosis
C) Von Meyenberg complex D) Cholangitis

8. Klatskin tumours are seen in

A) Pancreas B) Stomach C) Liver D) Colon
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 … 2…

9. The most common mutations in cystic neoplasms of pancreas is

A) RET B) BRAF C) BRCA D) KRAS

10. MPGN shows deposits in electron microscopy in

A) Sub epithelial B) Subendothelial C) Foot processes D) No deposits

11. Sclerosing retroperitoneal fibrosis is related to

A) IgM B) IgA C) IgG4 D) IgG2

12. Carcinosarcomas occur in

A) Pre-menopausal women B) Post-menopausal women
C) Adolescent girls D) Nulliparous

13. Women with preeclampsia have decreased

A) FGF B) VEGF C) PDGF D) TGF

14. Phyllodes tumour have mutations in

A) BRAF B) KRAS C) MED12 D) RET

15. The most common type of pituitary adenoma is

A) Gonadotroph B) Corticotroph C) Somatotroph D) Lactotroph

16. The melanoma which is unrelated to sun exposure is

A) Lentigo type B) Superficial spreading type
C) Acral type D) Mucosal Melanomas

17. Mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is pathognomonic of

A) Osteopenia B) Osteoporosis
C) Paget’s disease D) Rheumatoid arthritis

18. Subacute combined degeneration of the cord is a result of

A) Vit B1 deficiency B) Vit B6 deficiency
C) Vit B12 deficiency D) Vit B9 deficiency

19. The critical initiating event for the development of Alzheimer’s disease is
A) Tau protein B) Aβ generation
C) Amyloid formation D) Neuritic plaque formation

20. Flexner-wintersteiner rosettes are seen in

A) Lymphoma B) Uveal melanoma
C) Retinitis pigmentosa D) Retinoblastoma

*********
[MBBS 0224]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0524] MAY 2024 Sub. Code :6064
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)
PAPER II – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526064
Time: 20 Minutes Answer All Questions Maximum : 20 Marks
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)
1. Post MI day 10 which enzyme is raised
A) CPK B) Troponin C) LDH D) Myoglobin
2. Which valve is most commonly involved in prosthetic valve endocarditis
A) Mitral valve B) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic valve D) Pulmonary valve
3. Most commonly affected age group in rheumatic fever
A) 15-25 years B) 25-35 years C) 5-15 years D) 35-45years
4. A 50 year old man presents to emergency department with chest pain and syncope.
Physician suspects coronary pathology. Coronary arteriography shows significant
atherosclerotic involvement of left anterior descending and circumflex arteries.
Which of the following provides major proliferative stimuli for the cellular
components of atherosclerotic plaques?
A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Platelets D) Erythrocytes
5. Endoscopic biopsy shows intraepithelial lymphocytes in all the following conditions except
A) Celiac disease B) Viral enteritis C) Giardiasis D) Campylobacter entercolitis
6. Angiodysplasia is most commonly seen in which part of colon
A) Cecum B) Transverse colon C) Sigmoid colon D) Rectum
7. A 20-year-old man is healthy but has a family history of colon cancer. He undergoes
colonoscopy and there are over 200 tubular adenomas ranging in size
from 0.2 to 1 cm on gross inspection. Which of the following genetic diseases is
he most likely to have?
A) Hereditary non-polyposis colon carcinoma syndrome
B) PTEN-associated syndrome
C) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
D) Adenomatous polyposis coli
8. A 25-year-old male presented with intermittent cramping abdominal pain, fever and
low-volume diarrhea. A colonoscopy reveals mucosal edema and patchy ulceration in the
ascending colon. Which of the following serological marker is positive in this case?
A) Perinuclear anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
B) Anti endomysial antibodies
C) Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies
D) Anti smooth muscle antibody
9. A patient with an elevated serum alpha fetoprotein undergoes resection of a liver
mass. The mass has the following features: crowded cells growing in thick
(4 or more cells) cords/plates, occasional mitoses, an absence of normal bile ducts,
and necrosis. Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A) Hepatocellular adenoma B) Cholangiocarcinoma
C) Focal nodular hyperplasia D) Hepatocellular carcinoma
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 … 2…
10. On reviewing a liver biopsy specimen, the following features are identified: steatosis,
Mallory bodies, and acute inflammation. Which of the following is the MOST
LIKELY diagnosis?
A) Primary biliary cirrhosis B) Acetaminophen overdose
C) Herpetic hepatitis D) Alcohol-related liver disease
11. Which of the following statements BEST DESCRIBES genetic hemochromatosis?
A) Iron deficiency anemia develops from a mutation in the HFE gene
B) It is an autosomal dominant disorder that can lead to iron overload in the liver
and other organs
C) Patients homozygous for a mutant HFE allele absorb excessive quantities of
iron from the diet
D) Women typically manifest the disease earlier than men, who are protected by
higher androgen levels
12. Impaired hepatic blood flow in veno-occlusive disease is due to:
A) Thrombosis of the major hepatic veins B) Nodular regeneration of the parenchyma
C) Fibrous obliteration of terminal hepatic veins D) Fibrous obliteration of large bile ducts
13. Ovarian cyst lined by luteinized granulosa cells
A) Follicular cysts B) Cystic follicle C) Luteal cyst D) Serous cyst
14. A 45 year old female presented with bulky uterine mass. Histopathology shows
bizarre spindle cells with mitotic activity > 10/10Hpf. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A) Leiomyoma B) Endometrial Stromal sarcoma
C) Leiomyosarcoma D) Malignant mixed mullerian tumour
15. Which of the following statement is true regarding serous carcinoma of endometrium
A) Endometrial hyperplasia is a risk factor B) Poor prognosis
C) Associated with MLH 1 mutation D) Low grade tumour
16. Identify the false statement regarding endometrial hyperplasia
A) Associated with obesity
B) Most common genetic alteration is MET mutation
C) atypical hyperplasia have more risk of malignancy
D) Presence of metaplastic epithelium is benign
17. An 18-year-old man complains of a subacute onset of knee pain. A radiograph
demonstrates an expansile, 10-cm mass arising within the proximal tibia with
associated lifting of the periosteum and linear radiating calcifications perpendicular to
the bone axis. This mass is concerning for which of the following?
A) Osteosarcoma B) Rheumatoid arthritis C) Bone fracture D) Osteoid osteoma
18. The presence of a bulky, polypoid, grape-like mass protruding from the vagina
of a 3-year-old girl should raise concern for which of the following?
A) Synovial sarcoma B) McCune-Albright syndrome
C) Ewing sarcoma D) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
19. Which lesion is a palmar variant of fibromatosis characterized by an irregular, nodular
thickening of the palmar fascia?
A) Desmoid fibromatosis B) Peyronie disease
C) Dupuytren contracture D) Dermatofibroma
20. Osteomas of the jaw are associated with which syndrome?
A) McCune-Albright syndrome B) Down syndrome
C) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome D) Gardner syndrome
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[MBBS 0524]