TSPSC Group-1 Prelims English Medium Model Papers

TSPSC - Group-1 : MODEL PAPER -1
movement has clearly defined its aims

1. Consider the following statements with the slogan of land, food, and
regarding the Naxalite movement liberation.
i) The Naxalite movement started from
a village called Naxalbari in the state 3. Assertion (A): First person to call for
of Chhattisgarh. the achievement of economic and
ii) The Santhal tribes led by Charu social equality through revolutionary
Majumdar, assembled in this village of struggle was Karl Marx.
Naxalbari and launched the Reason (R): Karl Marx explained the
movement for economic and social concept of equality in his book “Das
equality in 1967. Kapital”.
Which of the statements given above Select the answer using the codes
is correct? given below
A) Only i A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
B) Only ii proper explanation of A
C) Both B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
D) None proper explanation of A
Ans: B C) Only A is true
* The Naxalite movement started from D) Only R is true
a village called Naxalbari, in the state Ans: A
of West Bengal. In 1967, the Santhal * The new democratic revolution
tribes, led by Charu Majumdar, means the fight against landlordism
assembled in this village of Naxalbari and imperialism. The first person to
and launched the movement for call for the achievement of economic
economic and social equality. Hence, and social equality through
the movement is named as Naxalite revolutionary struggle was Karl Marx.
movement, after the name of the Karl Marx explained the concept of
Village. equality in his book “Das Kapital”.
2. The Naxalbari peasant movement 4. Consider the following famous

has clearly defined its aims with the personalities
slogan Which among the following? i) Charu Majumdar
A) land, food, and liberation ii) Kanu Sanyal
B) land, culture, and liberation iii) Jangal Santhal
C) forest rights, food, and culture Who among the above launched the
D) forest rights, culture, and shelter peasant uprising in Naxalbari?
A) Only i
Ans: A B) Only I and ii
* The Naxalite movement started from C) Only I and iii
a village called Naxalbari, in the state D) All the above
of West Bengal. The Naxalbari peasant Ans:D
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* Charu Mazumdar, one of the leaders ii) The Naxalbari peasant movement
of the CPI-M, is believed to have held contributed to a culture of sacrifice.
that “there was an excellent iii) The uniqueness of the Naxalbari
revolutionary situation in the country movement lies in its clear-cut strategy
with all the classical symptoms”. On and its unifying nature.
May 25 of that year, he along with the How many statements given above
two other key leaders, Kanu Sanyal are correct?
and Jangal Santhal, launched the A) Only one statement
peasant uprising in Naxalbari. The B) Only two statements
movement was quick to face the C) All three statements are given above
wrath of the state government with D) None of the above
the police dealing with protesters Ans: B
with an iron hand. The leaders in different states either
independent or with CPI (Marxist)
5. Assertion (A): In 1925, Communist were united in the name ‘All India
leaders gathered in Bombay to Communist Revolutionaries
reinstate C.P.I. in India. Coordination Committee and at last
Reason (R): Satya Bhakta worked as on 22nd April 1969 established CPI
the first secretary of C.P.I. (ML).
Select the answer using the codes
given below 7. Consider the following demands of
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the the Rythu cooli sangamas
proper explanation of A i) Stop giving presents to landlords
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a ii) Abolish untouchability
proper explanation of A iii) Abolish vetti
C) Only A is true Which of the above were the main
D) Only R is true demands of the Rythu cooli
Ans: D sangamas?
* Manabendra Nath Roy (M.N. Roy), A) Only I and iii
was inspired by Russian Communist B) Only ii and iii
theories of achieving economic and C) Only iii
social equality through revolutionary D) All the above
struggle. In 1925, Communist leaders Ans: A
gathered in Kanpur to reinstate C.P.I The struggle put forward several
in India. Satya Bhakta worked as the demands under the leadership of
first secretary of C.P.I. Rythu coolie sangams. Their slogans
were to hike the daily, monthly, and
6. Consider the following statements yearly wage rates, and abolish vetti.
regarding the Naxalbari movement Stop giving presents to landlords,
i) The All-India Communist return lakhs of rupees collected in the
Revolutionaries Coordination name of fines, and occupy banjar,
Committee was established in April Shikam, and Banchari lands and
1976. timber under the control of landlords.

8. Assertion (A): The siricilla-Jagitial Baddam Yella Reddy founded
jaithrayathra was an expression of Hyderabad Communist Party. The
the peasantry against the Communists did not cooperate with
exploitation of landlords. the British in World War II in 1939.
Reason (R): The siricilla-Jagitial
jaithrayathra was a symbol of 10. Consider the following statements
people’s consciousness, self- regarding the Communist party
confidence, and dedication towards i) The Communists supported the
the movement. British during the Quit India
Select the answer using the codes movement.
given below ii) The Communists opposed the British
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the during the Quit India movement.
proper explanation of A Which of the statements given above
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a is correct?
proper explanation of A A) Only i
C) Only A is true B) Only ii
D) Only R is true C) Both
Ans: A D) None
The siricilla-Jagitial jaithrayathra was Ans: A
an expression of the peasantry against In 1942, the Communists supported the British
the exploitation of landlords. The during the Quit India movement.
siricilla-Jagitial jaithrayathra was a Because of this, Communists lost
symbol of people’s consciousness, some of their importance in India.
self-confidence, and dedication
towards the movement. 11. Words like gampakatta,
Pochammakatta, Mysammakatta,
9. Consider the following statements and Guttakatta are very famous
regarding the communist party of during the anti-feudal struggle in
India Telangana, these are associated
i) The Andhra Communist Party was with?
founded by Puchalapalli Sundarayya A) Taxes on various professions
in Vijayawada. B) Taxes on grazing taxes
ii) The Communists did not cooperate C) It is a natural right that kalledars used
with the British in World War II. to collect tendu leaves
Which of the statements given above D) It is a natural right that toddy tapers
is correct? are used to collect the toddy without
A) Only i paying tax.
B) Only ii Ans: C
C) Both The Kalledars, contractors for so many
D) None decades without paying money used
Ans: B to collect tendu freely in the name of
In 1936, Puchalapalli Sundarayya founded gampakatta, Pochammakatta,
Andhra Communist Party in Kakinada. Mysammakatta, and Guttakatta.
In 1940, Ravi Narayan Reddy and

12. Consider the following statements The ones who supported Chinese
regarding the Rythu coolie Sangham Ideology and do not want to work
i) A huge Rythu cooli meeting was held with Congress from above were?
in Jagitial in September 1978. A) Only I and iii
ii) Several representatives from Tamil B) Only ii and iii
Nadu, Bihar, Assam and attended the C) Only I and ii
Jagitial meeting. D) All the above
iii) The famous sociologist A. K. Roy in his Ans: C
speech remained that the Indravelli India-Russia relations strengthened
incident ignited the entire country. after Russian Communist leaders
Which of the statements given above is Bullanin and Khrushchev visited India
incorrect? in 1956. In 1956, a Communists
A) Only I and ii meeting was held at Palghat, Kerala.
B) Only ii The ones who supported Chinese
C) Only ii and iii Ideology and do not want to work
D) All the above with Congress were: Puchalapalli
Ans: B Sundarayya and Basava Punnaiah.
A huge rythu coolie meeting was held
in Jagitial on 7th September 1978. 14. Consider the following statements
Peasants and agricultural laborers regarding the Telangana region tribal
from 150 villages participated in it. areas rule in 1949
Inspired by the Jagitial meeting, the i) The Nizam government gave most of
rythu coolie Sangham held a meeting the villages under the makta and
in Pydipalli village in Warangal taluq ezara.
and one more meeting was held in ii) The areas that fall under the makta
Laxettipet in Adilabad district. Since it and ezara are under the control of
was held after the Indravelli episode, family members of the Nizam only.
the premise of the meeting was iii) Telangana region tribal areas act
named Indravelli Nagar, several paved the way for the establishment
representatives from Tamil Nadu, of Girijan panchayats.
Bihar, Assam and attended the How many statements given above
Laxettipet meeting in Adilabad district are correct?
to show their solidarity with the A) Only one statement
people movement. The famous B) Only two statements
sociologist A. K. Roy in his speech C) All three statements are given above
remained that the Indravelli incident D) None of the above
ignited the entire country. Ans: B
Unlike in the Andhra region, there was
13. Consider the following leaders no legal protection for tribal lands in
i) Puchalapalli Sundarayya the Telangana region till 1940. The
ii) Basava Punnaiah Nizam government's main aim was to
iii) Ravi Narayan Reddy enhance its revenue. The Nizam
government gave most of the villages
under the makta and ezara. All these

areas are under the control of non- 16. Consider the following statements
tribes. Telangana region tribal areas regarding the Communist party
Act paved the way for the i) All India Co-ordinating Committee of
establishment of Girijan panchayats. Communist Revolution was formed by
It gave power to government Charu Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal.
representatives to review the lands of ii) The supporters of the All-India Co-
non-tribes and to abolish the ordinating Committee of Communist
ownership of non-tribes of tribal Revolution supported the armed
lands. struggle but said no to immediate
armed struggle and gave a call to
15. Consider the following statements contest in panchayat elections.
i) The elections were held in West Which of the statements given above
Bengal in 1967 is correct?
ii) The CPI (M) party won the elections A) Only i
and Jyothi Basu was sworn in as Chief B) Only ii
Minister in 1967. C) Both
iii) Charu Majumdar was the General D) None
Secretary of the Congress in Calcutta Ans: A
in 1967. the Naxalite movement, which began
Which of the statements given above in 1967, was split into A.I.C.C.R and
is correct? U.C.C.R.I.M.L in the earlier phase.
A) Only I and ii A.I.C.C.R (all-India Coordinating
B) Only ii and iii Committee of Communist Revolution)
C) Only i was formed by Charu Majumdar and
D) All the above Kanu Sanyal. They called for an
Ans: C immediate armed conflict and to
In 1967, elections were held in West Bengal boycott the local body elections in
before elections, CPI (M) party West Bengal.
released the manifesto, in which the
party promised to distribute 6 lakh 17. Consider the following famous
acres of Vacant land to Tribals in persons
Bengal. With these promises, the CPI i) Charu Majumdar
(M) party won the 1967 elections. ii) Kanu Sanyal
Ajay Mukherjee was sworn in as Chief iii) Bardhan
Minister and Jyothi Basu as Deputy The Communist Party of India
Chief Minister and Home Minister. But (Marxist Leninist) CPI (M.L) was
the CPI (M) government has refused founded by?
to distribute the vacant lands to the A) Only i
poor by its election promise. Charu B) Only ii and iii
Majumdar, General Secretary of the C) Only I and ii
CPI (M) in Darjeeling, opposed the D) All the above
Decision of the party. Ans: C
Communist Party of India (Marxist Leninist)
CPI (M.L): On 22nd April 1969, on the

occasion of Lenin Jayanthi Utsavalu, Ans: A
Charu Majumdar and Kanu Sanyal Srikakulam activists Panchadi Krishna Murthy
founded the C.P.I(M. L) party. and Choudhary Tejeshwar Rao made
contact with Charu Majumdar and
18. Consider the following statements continued the Naxalbari movements.
regarding the peasant struggle in the The Naxalbari and Srikakulam
Srikakulam movements were identified and
i) The moneylenders and landlords declared as “Spring Thunder” by the
occupied the tribal lands and made Chinese official magazine, this
the tribals work as bonded labor became a sensation in those days.
(vetti) on their land.
ii) These bonded laborers were known as 20. Consider the following statements
“Kolams” regarding the Vishakapatnam Steel
Which of the statements given above Plant agitation
are incorrect? i) There was a movement for
A) Only i Vishakapatnam Steel Plant with the
B) Only ii slogan “Vishakapatnam Steel –
C) Both Andhra right” (Vishakapatnam Ukku –
D) None Andrula Hakku) in 1966.
Ans: B ii) Puchalapalli Sundarayya was behind
The moneylenders and landlords occupied the the students and led the
tribal lands and made the tribals work Vishakapatnam Steel Plant
as bonded labor (vetti) on their land. movement.
These bonded laborers were known as Which of the statements given above
“Kambaris”. are incorrect?
A) Only i
19. Consider the following statements B) Only ii
regarding the Srikakulam C) Both
movements D) None
i) Srikakulam activist Panchadi Krishna Ans: B
Murthy, Choudhary Tejeshwar Rao In 1966, there was a movement for
made contacts with Charu Majumdar Vishakapatnam Steel Plant with the
and continued the Naxalbari slogan – “Vishakapatnam Steel –
movements. Andhra right” (Vishakapatnam Ukku –
ii) The “Thunder Bolt” was the name Andrula Hakku). Warangal R.E.C.
given by the Chinese official magazine students participated in this
to the Naxalbari and Srikakulam movement in large numbers.
movements. Kondapalli Seetharamaiah was behind
Which of the statements given above is the students and led the movement.
correct?
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both
D) None

21. Match the following regarding the A) Only I and ii
Radical Student Union meeting B) Only ii and iii
headed by C) Only i
Meeting of Radical Student Union D) All the above
headed by Ans: C
i) 1st State level conferences The goons of the joginapalli Venkata
Kondapalli Seetharamaiah Rama Reddy raped a woman
ii) 2nd State level conferences liberation association president
Cherukuri Rajkumar Rajavva in front of her husband on
iii) 3rd State-level conferences 29th October 1978 in Kodurupaka
Venkata Ramana village in Sircilla taluq. Rajavva played
Which of the pairs given above are a key role in organizing 100 women
matched properly? under the Women’s liberation
A) Only I and ii association. She was successful in
B) Only iii spreading the movement in 25
C) Only ii villages. She fought against the
D) All the above atrocities of landlords and the hike in
Ans: C labour wages.
In February 1975, R.S.U 1st State level
conferences were held in Hyderabad. 23. Consider the following statements
In this meeting, the first R.S.U State regarding the Radical Youth Council
Committee was formed. State i) The Radical Youth Council held its first
Committee President was Venkata state-level meeting in Karimnagar.
Ramana. In 1978, second state-level ii) Naradasu Lakshman Rao has headed
conferences were held in Warangal. In the first Radical Youth Council
this meeting, R.S.U State Presidential meeting.
responsibilities took over by – Which of the statements given above
Cherukuri Raj Kumar (R.E.C Student). is correct?
R.S.U conducted the 3rd and 4th A) Only i
conferences under the leadership of B) Only ii
Raj Kumar. C) Both
D) None
22. Consider the following statements Ans: D
regarding women's liberation After the tour, in 1978 June, the Radical Youth
associations Council held its first state-level
i) Rajavva played a key role in organizing meeting in Guntur, to which people
women under women’s liberation from Karimnagar and Adilabad
associations. attended in large numbers.
ii) Rajavva along with her husband killed
the landlord of Joginpalli landlord. 24. Consider the following statements
iii) Rajavva fought against the atrocities regarding the contribution of Rythu
of landlords and Vetti Chakiri. coolie sangham
Which of the statements given above
is correct?

i) The Rythu coolie sangham campaigned to A) Only i
abolish the exploitative practices of B) Only ii
child marriages and forced labor. C) Both
ii) The Rythu coolie sangham campaigned to D) None
distribute the occupied lands only to Ans: A
untouchable families who were in Democratic Student Organization (Prajatantra
forced labor or Vetti Chakiri. Vidyarthi Samastha): In October 1973,
iii) Naradasu Lakshman Rao wrote a book the Students with revolutionary ideas
titled “Gramalaku tharalandi-Na formed the “Democratic Student
Anubhavalu” (Move to Villages-My Organization”. The official magazine
Experiences) on the activities of of this organization – is “Alochana (to
armed struggle. think)”.
Which of the statements given above are
incorrect? 26. Consider the following statements
A) Only I and ii i) The “Srujana” was a revolutionary
B) Only iii literary magazine run by Sri Varavara
C) Only ii and iii Rao.
D) All the above ii) Sri Varavara Rao was working as a
Ans: A professor at Osmania University
The Rythu coolie sangham campaigned to Hyderabad.
abolish exploitative practices, Which of the statements given above
distributing the occupied lands to are incorrect?
agricultural labor, and poor peasants A) Only I B) Only ii
based on land to the tiller, and invited C) Both D) None
peasants and agricultural laborers to Ans: B
participate in the revolution against At the same time, revolutionary
colonialism. Naradasu Lakshman Rao, politics had an impact on the popular
who attended the campaign “Move to revolutionary poet “Pendyala
Villages” wrote a book titled Varavara Rao”, who was running the
“Gramalaku tharalandi-Na “Srujana”, a literary magazine.
Anubhavalu” (Move to Villages-My Varavara Rao who was working as a
Experiences). lecturer, gave lectures in colleges at
Warangal for spreading the Telangana
25. Consider the following statements movement.
regarding the Democratic Student
Organization 27. Consider the following personalities
i) The students with revolutionary ideas of the “Andhra Co-ordination
formed the “Democratic Student Committee” to build a revolutionary
Organization” in October 1973. movement in the State of Andhra
ii) The Official magazine of the Pradesh
Democratic Student organization is i) Devulapalli Venkateshwara Rao,
known as Red Army (Erra Dalam). ii) Chandra Pulla Reddy
Which of the statements given above iii) Rama Narsaiah
is correct? iv) Puchalapalli Sundarayya

Who among the above were the 29. Assertion (A): The “Revolutionary
members who formed the Andhra Writer’s Association” (Virasam) was
Coordination Committee? formed on 4th July 1972.
A) Only I, ii, and iii Reason (R): Sri Pendyala Varavara Rao is the
B) Only I and iv President of the Revolutionary
C) Only ii, iii, and iv Writer’s Association” (Virasam).
D) All the above Select the answer using the codes
Ans: A given below
Telangana Armed Struggle leaders A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
Miryalaguda former M.P. Devulapalli proper explanation of A
Venkateshwara Rao (Nalgonda B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
district), former MLA Chandra Pulla proper explanation of A
Reddy of Kurnool district, Rama C) Only A is true
Narsaiah of Warangal district, and D) Only R is true
others together with Tarimela Nagi Ans: D
Reddy formed the “Andhra Co- Srikakulam’s revolutionary movement has
ordination Committee” to build a greatly influenced the students,
revolutionary movement in the State. poets, writers, and intellectuals of the
State. As a part of this, on 4th July,
28. Consider the following statements 1970; the “Revolutionary Writer’s
regarding the central organization Association” (Virasam) was formed.
committee Varavara Rao is the President of
i) The Central organizing committee Virasam.
(COC) was formed under the
leadership of Kondapalli 30. Consider the following famous
Seetharamaiah in 1972. personalities of the Telangana region
ii) The Central organizing committee was i) Gaddar
later changed to the People’s War ii) B. Narsingh Rao
Group in 1980. iii) P. Varavara Rao
Which of the statements given above iv) Vimalakka
is correct? The “Hyderabad Art Lovers” (Art lovers
A) Only i association) was formed by?
B) Only ii A) Only I, ii, and iii
C) Both B) Only I and ii
D) None C) Only ii, iii, and iv
Ans: C D) All the above
In 1972, the Central organizing committee Ans: B
(COC) was formed under the In 1970, “Hyderabad Art Lovers” (Art lovers
leadership of Kondapalli association) was formed by Gaddar
Seetharamaiah. This party started and B. Narsingh Rao.
“Pilupu”, a political magazine. This 31. Consider the following statements
Central organizing committee later regarding the rural poor communities
changed to the People’s War Group i) Rural Poor Communities Association
(1980). was set up under the guidance of

UCCRI (ML) in several districts across Srikakulam Commune. In its
the State to fight alcoholism and introductory program, it explained the
superstitions in rural areas. 1967 Naxalbari struggle and paid
ii) G. Satyanarayana Reddy served as the tributes to Martyrs from Koranna,
President of the rural poor community Manganna of Srikakulam to Hari
Association. Bhushan. It also introduced the
Which of the statements given above families of martyrs.
are incorrect?
A) Only i 33. Consider the following statements
B) Only ii regarding the Civil rights movements
C) Both i) Tarimela Nagi Reddy and Varavara
D) None Rao launched “Civil rights
Ans: A movements”.
Rural Poor Communities Association was set ii) Mahakavi Sri Sri participated in the
up under the guidance of UCCRI (ML) tour along with Tarimela Nagi Reddy
in several districts across the State to in sympathizing with the Civil rights
fight farmer’s issues. In 1985, for the movements.
first time, the rural poor communities Which of the statements given above
Association was formed at the State are incorrect?
level and held its meeting in A) Only i
Hyderabad. G. Satyanarayana Reddy B) Only ii
of Adavi Middela Pally, served as the C) Both
President of the rural poor community D) None
Association. Ans: A
In 1973-74, Tarimela Nagi Reddy and
32. Match the following regarding the Devulapalli launched “Civil rights
Rythu coolie Langham second movements”, after coming out from
meeting jail. And made extensive trips to
About meeting. Important event various districts as a part of the
i) Venue. Warangal movement. Mahakavi Sri Sri also
ii) Premises named as. Sircilla Commune participated in the tour along with
iii) Main event. It introduced the families Tarimela Nagi Reddy. Sri Sri
of martyrs. commented that “these few days
How many pairs given above are spent with Nagi Reddy were most
matched properly? Unforgettable & sacred days of my
A) Only one pair life”.
B) Only two pairs
C) All the three pairs 34. Consider the following statements
D) None of the above i) Maroju Veeranna formed “Dalit
Ans: A Bahujan Mahasabha”.
The Rythu coolie sangham second meeting ii) Maroju formed the Communist Party
was held in Karimnagar on 22-23 May of the United States of India
1983. The main entrance of the (Communist Party for all States in
meeting premises was named India).

Which of the statements given above is together with the women’s Naxalite
correct? group of the forest i.e.; Dandakaranya
A) Only i Mahila Sanghatan. KAMS was fighting
B) Only ii for social and economic issues. Also
C) Both fought for equal wages for men and
D) None women and won. It fought against
Ans: C social discrimination towards tribal
In August 1997, the Maroju Veeranna group women.
left the C.P.I (M.L) Janashakti party
due to differences regarding the Class 36. Consider the following statements
– Caste theories. Maroju Veeranna regarding the Rythu Coolie Sanghalu
have formed “Dalit Bahujan i) The disgruntled people in Nalgonda
Mahasabha”. Later, Maroju formed taluk villages have formed Rythu
the Communist Party of the United Coolie Sanghalu (Peasant labor
States of India (C.P.U.S.I Communist unions)
Party for all States in India). The party ii) The main objective of the Rythu
disappeared after the death of Maroju Coolie Sanghalu is to fight for the
Veeranna in the encounter in May rights of farmers.
1999. Which of the statements given above
are incorrect?
35. Consider the following statements A) Only i
regarding the Krantikari Adivasi B) Only ii
Mahila Sangatan C) Both
i) Krantikari Adivasi Mahila Sangatan D) None
fought for rural women living on the Ans: A
plains. the disgruntled people in Jagityal and Siricilla
ii) Krantikari Adivasi Mahila Sangatan taluk villages have formed Rythu
fought for equal wages for men and Coolie Sanghalu (Peasant labor
women and won. unions) to fight for their rights. The
iii) Krantikari Adivasi Mahila Sangatan Peasants started the movement
fought against social discrimination under the leadership of the Peasant
towards tribal women. labor union (Rythu Coolie Sanghalu)
Which of the statements given above with the following demands.
is correct?
A) Only I and ii 37. Consider the following statements
B) Only ii and iii regarding the
C) Only iii i) The agricultural laborer’s union held a
D) All the above big farmer meeting at Lakshettipeta of
Ans: B Warangal district.
Krantikari Adivasi Mahila Sangatan (KAMS): ii) The leader who educated the farmers
they especially fought for the of Lakshettipeta was Kalyanam
problems faced by tribal women in the Venkateshwar Rao.
forest area. The women’s Naxalite Which of the statements given above
group of the plains i.e.; R.C.S worked is correct?

A) Only i iii) The Migration of Banjaras increased in plain
B) Only ii areas of the Erstwhile Karimnagar and
C) Both Mahbubnagar districts of Telangana.
D) None Which of the statements given above are
Ans: B incorrect?
The agricultural laborer’s union A) Only ii
(Raithu Coolie Sanghalu) held a big B) Only I and ii
farmer meeting at Lakshettipeta of C) Only ii and iii
Adilabad district. The leader who D) All the above
educated the farmers of Lakshettipeta Ans: A
– Kalyanam Venkateshwar Rao. The Banjaras were included in the non-
classified tribe category in 1977 and
38. Consider the following statements from then onwards lands on a large
regarding the scale were purchased by non-tribes.
i) The Centre had declared Siricilla and Banjaras from Maharashtra entered
Jagityal taluks as disturbed areas on Telangana via Adilabad district. This
20th October 1965. migration of Banjaras increased in
ii) On the request of then chief minister plain areas of the Warangal and
of Andhra Pradesh K. Brahmananda Khammam districts.
Reddy the Centre declared Siricilla and
Jagityal taluks as disturbed. 40. Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above regarding the 1 of 70 Act
is correct? i) It completely abolished the transfer of
A) Only i immovable properties.
B) Only ii ii) It also abolished land transfers and
C) Both immovable properties among tribes.
D) None iii) It was made the responsibility of the non-
Ans: D tribes to prove that their lands were
On the request of Chenna Reddy the legalized in scheduled areas.
Centre declared Siricilla and Jagityal How many statements given above
taluks as disturbed areas on 20th are correct?
October, 1978. The Civil rights of the A) Only one statement
farmers were taken away due to the B) Only two statements
declaration as disturbed areas. The C) All the three statements
revolutionists were brutally D) None of the above
suppressed. Ans: B
The 1 of 70 Act is important and relates to
39. Consider the following statements scheduled areas. The land transfer act
i) The Banjaras were included in the of 1959 was amended in 1970 and is
non-classified tribe category in 1990. known as 1 of 70. It completely
ii) The Banjaras entered Telangana from abolished the transfer of immovable
Maharashtra through Adilabad properties, and tribal lands to non
district. tribes in any form. It abolished land
transfer and immovable properties

among non-tribes. If non tribes sold C) Only iii
their title lands to non tribes it was D) All the above
null and void. It was made the Ans: A
responsibility of the non-tribes to The tribal people rebelled in agency
prove that their lands were legalized areas in the years 1808, 1813, 1835,
in scheduled areas. and 1839. These rebellions led to
Rampa Pithuri in 1879. The land issue
41. Consider the following statements played a key role for Seetharama Raju,
regarding in the 1940 Gond Kolam rebellion in
i) The Rythu coolie Sangham like the CPI (ML) Adilabad against the Nizam
and People’s War party were affiliated government and the 1969 Srikakulam
with Naxalite parties. tribal rebellion.
ii) The People’s war party transformed into the
Jan Shakti Party in Telangana. 43. Consider the following statements
iii) The Rythu coolie Sangham elected its new regarding the Naxalism movement
executive council in the third meeting. i) Naxalism began in the Andhra
Which of the statements given above is Pradesh State in 1967 when Kasu
correct? Marri Chenna Reddy was the Chief
A) Only I and iii Minister.
B) Only i ii) The Naxalite movement was started in
C) Only ii and iii Srikakulam district and was
D) All the above intensified.
Ans: B Which of the statements given above are
The Rythu coolie Sangham elected its incorrect?
new executive council in the second A) Only i
meeting. It comprises one member B) Only ii
from each district. The Rythu coolie C) Both
Sangham like the CPI (ML) and D) None
People’s War party was affiliated with Ans: A
Naxalite parties. The People’s war Naxalism began in the State in 1967
party transformed into the Moist when Kasu Brahmananda Reddy was
Party. the Chief Minister. The movement
started in Srikakulam district and was
42. Match the following regarding the intensified. Brahmananda Reddy’s
tribal rebellions during Telangana government has dealt harshly with
armed movement the Naxalites.
Name of the tribal rebellion. Year
i) Rampa Pithuri. 1935 44. Consider the following slogans
ii) Gond-Kolam rebellion. 1940 i) Mavenate, Mave Raju
iii) Srikakulam tribal rebellion. 1969 ii) Jaan dete magar jameen nahi dete
Which of the pairs given above are matched iii) Jangal hamari Jeevan
properly? Which of the slogans given above are
A) Only ii and iii associated with Adivasi gond tribal
B) Only I and ii peasants of Adilabad?

A) Only iii 46. Consider the following statements
B) Only I and ii regarding Radical Student Union
C) Only ii and iii i) Students of the Kondapalli Seetharamaiah
D) All the above group disagreed with the leadership
Ans: B of Chandra Pulla Reddy and came out
The Adivasis with the impact of Jagityal Jaithra of PDSu and formed Radical Student
Yatra started their struggle for rights. Union.
Ramjigond and Komuram Bheem ii) It was named as Radical Student Union by
inspired their struggle. The basic Puchalapalli Sundarayya.
problem of the tribe is the land and Which of the statements given above are
apart from that they fought for the incorrect?
rights over forests and wealth A) Only i
beneath the earth and ultimately the B) Only ii
state power. They gave slogans like C) Both
Mavenate Mave Raju (Our rule in our D) None
Village) and Jaan date magar James Ans; B
nahi dete (we will give us but not Students of the Kondapalli
lands) and fought with paramilitary Seetharamaiah group disagreed with
forces. the leadership of Chandra Pulla Reddy
and came out of PDSu and formed
45. Consider the following famous Radical Student Union in October
personalities 1974. It was named Radical Student
i) Kolluri Chiranjeevi Union by Sri Sri.
ii) Kishanji,
iii) Ganapati 47. Scheduled areas land transfer act was
iv) Kondapalli Seetharamaiah enacted in 1959, consider the
Which of Kakatiya Medical College Students following
Union” leaders given above turned i) Reserve forest
into naxalism? ii) Title deeds
A) Only I, ii, and iii iii) House
B) Only ii, iii, and iv iv) Crop
C) Only I and iv v) Timber
D) All the above vi) Trees
Ans: A Which of the segments given above are
Kondapalli Seetharamaiah, Chandra Shekar included in the list of immovable
Reddy, and K.G. Krishna Murthy of properties under this act?
Warangal were actively involved in A) Only I, iii, iv, and vi
the communist activists, and B) Only ii, iv, and vi
“Kakatiya Medical College Students C) Only iii, iv, v, and vi
Union” leader Kolluri Chiranjeevi D) All the above
and Kishanji, Ganapati has turned Ans: C
towards Naxalism. Scheduled areas land transfer act was
enacted in 1959, it was enacted to
protect the interests of tribes after

the formation of Andhra Pradesh. It iii) Komaram Bheem gave the slogan “Jal,
was extended to the Telangana region Jungle, Zameen” (Water, forest, and
in 1963. It was based on a 1917 act land).
made by the British. House, Crops, Which of the statements given above
Timber, and Trees are included in the is correct?
list of immovable properties. A) Only I and ii
B) Only iii
48. Consider the following statements C) Only ii and iii
regarding the government order of D) All the above
Andhra Pradesh Ans: C
i) The government of Andhra Pradesh Komaram Bheem (1901 – 1940): He
issued G. O. M. s. 136 in 1976, hails from the Gond tribe of Komaram
ii) The Lambada and Sugalis were Bheem Asifabad district (formerly
identified as Scheduled Tribes through Adilabad). In 1938-39, the
G. O. M. s. 149. Government took over thousands of
Which of the statements given above acres of land surrounding Sirpur for
is correct? the Sirpur paper industry. Komaram
A) Only i Bheem united all these tribes and
B) Only ii started the revolt by making Babejuri
C) Both and Jodeghat hills their centers. As a
D) None part of this revolt, he gave the slogan
Ans: B “Jal, Jungle, Zameen” (Water, forest,
Before 1976, Lambada have no and land).
identity of Scheduled Tribes in the
Telangana region. As per G. O. M. s. 50. Consider the following tribal groups
149 issued in 1976, Lambadas and of Telangana
Sugalis were identified as Scheduled i) Chenchus
Tribes. Due to this, the Lambada, who ii) Thoti
have O.B.C status in the neighboring iii) Kolam
States have migrated to Telangana, iv) Gond
thereby increasing the population of The tribal clans identified as Particularly
Lambadas. Vulnerable Tribal Groups in Telangana
are?
49. Consider the following statements A) Only I, ii, and iii
regarding the Komaram Bheem B) Only I, iii, and iv
i) Komaram Bheem hails from the C) Only I and iv
Chenchu tribe of Komaram Bheem D) All the above
Asifabad district (formerly Adilabad). Ans: A
ii) Komaram Bheem united all these The Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are
tribes and started the revolt by the tribes living in hilly areas, who are
making Babejuri and Jodeghat hills unable to access Government
their centers. facilities, are away from the agrarian
economic conditions of these
lowlands, and are severely backward.

The tribal clans identified as PVTGs in iii) Jai Andhra Movement of 1972 was the
Telangana are Chenchus, Thoti, response to the Supreme Court
Kolam, and Konda Reddlu. verdict in favor of Mulki rules.
How many statements given above are
51. Consider the following statements correct?
regarding the regional parties in A) Only one statement
Andhra Pradesh B) Only two statements
i) The then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi C) All three statements are given above
revoked the Presidential rule in D) None of the above
Andhra Pradesh on 10th December Ans: B
1973. The gentlemen’s agreement for the
ii) The then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi formation of Andhra Pradesh was to
appointed P. V. Narasimha Rao as the protect the interests of the Telangana
Chief Minister in 1973. region. The gentlemen’s agreement
Which of the statements given above envisaged that there will be a
are incorrect? separate Telangana region board to
A) Only i look into budget allocation and
B) Only ii planned development of Telangana.
C) Both In the meantime, the Supreme Court
D) None of India ruled in favor of continuing
Ans: B with the Mulki rules. This led to
On 10th December 1973, then Prime resentment in the Andhra region and
Minister Indira Gandhi revoked the a movement named Jai Andhra was
Presidential rule in Andhra Pradesh taken up by people of that region in
and appointed Jalagam Vengal Rao as 1972.
the Chief Minister. Vengala Rao
migrated to Khammam district from 53. Consider the following statements
Krishna district. regarding Tanguturi Anjaiah
i) The trade union leader Sri T. Anjaiah
52. Consider the following statements was made the Chief Minister of
regarding the protect the interests of Andhra Pradesh in October 1985.
Telangana ii) Tanguturi Anjaiah belongs to the
i) The gentlemen’s agreement for the Nalgonda district in the Telangana
formation of Andhra Pradesh was to region.
protect the interests of the Telangana Which of the statements given above
region. are incorrect?
ii) The gentlemen’s agreement A) Only i
envisaged that there will be a B) Only ii
separate Telangana region board to C) Both
look into budget allocation, D) None
recruitment, and planned Ans: C
development of Telangana. The trade union leader T. Anjaiah was
made the Chief Minister in October
1980. Anjaiah joined Allwyn company

in Hyderabad as a laborer and grew In January 1983 elections, the Telugu
into a labor leader and entered Desam Party contested in alliance
politics. He belongs to the Medak with Menaka Gandhi-led “Sanjay
district in the Telangana region. Vichar Manch” party. Out of a total of
294 Assembly seats in Andhra
54. Consider the following statements Pradesh, the Telugu Desam party
i) The famous film actor Sri Nandamuri contested 289 seats leaving 5 seats to
Taraka Ramarao founded the “Telugu Sanjay Vichar Manch and T. D. P won
Desam” party on 29th March 1982. 198 seats (a total of 202 seats
ii) The Telugu Desam party was including Sanjay Vichar Manch seats)
established under the slogan “political and formed the Government.
power should remain with Telugu
people”. 56. Assertion (A): The Telugu Desam
Which of the statements given above party under Nandamuri Taraka
is correct? Ramarao Government abruptly
A) Only i abolished the Patel and Patwari
B) Only ii systems.
C) Both Reason (R): In the Telangana region,
D) None Patel and Patwaris used to collect the
Ans: A village land revenue and look after the
On 29th March 1982, NTR founded collection of crops after cropping.
“the Telugu Desam” party under the Select the answer using the codes
slogan “Self–respect of Telugu’s”, given below
claiming that the Central Government A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
was degrading the Self– respect of proper explanation of A
Telugu people. B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
55. Consider the following statements proper explanation of A
regarding the 1983 elections C) Only A is true
i) Telugu Desam Party contested the D) Only R is true
1983 elections in alliance with CPI. Ans: C
ii) Telugu Desam party won 198 seats In 1983, the N.T.R. Government abruptly
out of total 294 Assembly seats in abolished the Patel and Patwari
Andhra Pradesh in those elections. systems. In Telangana, Patel and
iii) Telugu Desam Party contested in Patwaris used to look after the Ponds/
alliance with the “Sanjay Vichar Tanks with the help of “Niradi”. With
Manch” party in the 1983 elections. the abolition of the Patel and Patwari
Which of the statements given above is system, there was no one to take care
correct? of the ponds/tanks.
A) Only i
B) Only ii and iii 57. Consider the following statements
C) Only iii regarding the Varuni – Vahini Sara
D) Only I and ii scheme of the TDP party under NTR
Ans: B

i) The Telugu Desam party under Sri The Telangana projects such as the Bhima
Nandamuri Taraka Ramarao launched project and Nettampadu Project,
the “Varuni – Vahini” scheme in 1983. which are designed to utilize the
ii) The main objective of the government waters of the Krishna River were
under this scheme is to close the ignored. The works on the Sri Ram
village liquor shops which sell drink, Sagar project, to supply water to the
Sara. Telangana region, were delayed. Most
Which of the statements given above is of the funds for this project were
correct? diverted to Telugu Ganga Project. The
A) Only i Telugu Ganga Canal is intended to
B) Only ii provide drinking water to the city of
C) Both Madras.
D) None
Ans: A 59. Consider the following statements
In 1983, N.T.R. launched “Varuni – i) Telugu literary writer Dasarathi
Vahini” (distribution of Sara in Krishnama Charya was appointed as
packets), which created turmoil in the court poet of the Andhra Pradesh
Telangana. Before 1983, the people in Government by the TDP government
Telangana used to drink Sara (Alcohol) led by NTR.
on special occasions or any festival. ii) The TDP government under N.T.R.
But with Varuni – Vahini scheme, the erected 32 idols of the veterans on the
government opened liquor shops in all tank bund and chose only 12 of them
the villages with police protection to be from Telangana.
(PRASAD), this made drinking alcohol Which of the statements given above
(Sara) a daily habit and due to this is correct?
families were fragmented. A) Only i
B) Only ii
58. Consider the following projects on C) Both
the Krishna River D) None
i) Bhima project Ans: D
ii) Nettampadu Project Telugu literary writer Dasarathi
iii) Telugu Ganga project Krishnama Charya was the court poet
iv) Sri Ram Sagar project of the Andhra Pradesh Government
Which of the projects given above (Between 1977 – 83), but the NTR
proposed during the Telugu Desam government removed Krishnama
party government under chief Charya from the post of Court poet.
minister NTR belonged to the N.T.R. erected 32 idols of the veterans
Telangana region that was ignored? on the tank bund saying that brought
A) Only I, ii, and iii honor to The Telugu Nation. Only 8 of
B) Only ii, iii, and iv them are from Telangana.
C) Only I, ii, and iv
D) All the above
Ans: C

60. Protesting the Andhra people’s First Telugu daily newspaper in Telangana –
attack on the Telangana language, Telangana Patrika
many stories were written in the Newspapers of Telangana region during
Telangana dialect and these Hyderabad government before 1948.
compilations are known as
“Echchamma Muchatlu” and “Ma 62. Consider the following statements
Ooru Matladindi. These are written regarding the
by? i) Ayyadevara Kaleswara Rao was the
A) Dasarathi Krishnama Charya President of Vishalandhra
B) Professor Jaya Shanker Mahasabha.
C) Prof. Yashoda Reddy ii) The Vishalandhra Mahasabha
D) C. Narayana Reddy meeting was held at Osmania Arts
Ans: C College.
Protesting the Andhra people’s attack Which of the statements given above
on the Telangana language, Prof. are incorrect?
Yashoda Reddy wrote many stories in A) Only i
the Telangana dialect. Yashoda Reddy B) Only ii
has released the compilations such as C) Both
“Echchamma Muchatlu” and “Ma D) None
Ooru Matladindi. Ans: B
In 1952, Ayyadevara Kaleswara Rao,
61. Match the following regarding the who is the President of Vishalandhra
magazine and their founder Mahasabha, was the chief guest at a
Name of the magazine meeting held at Hanumakonda Arts
founder College. He insulted Telangana
i) First magazine in the State of Students by saying that they do not
Hyderabad Risala Tabbi have a culture and the language they
ii) First English magazine in Telangana speak is not Telugu. Students
Deccan Times protested and did not allow the
iii) First Telugu weekly in Telangana meeting to take place. He had to stop
Hita Bhodini his speech in the middle and leave.
Which of the pairs given are matched Prof. Jaya Shankar revealed this
properly? incident in his autobiography, where
A) Only I and ii he was a student during this incident.
B) Only ii
C) Only iii 63. Assertion (A): The Golconda
D) All the above magazine editor Suravaram Pratap
Ans: D Reddy published “Golconda Kavula
Print Media: First magazine in the State of Sanchika”.
Hyderabad –Risala Tabbi (Urdu) Reason (R): Suravaram Pratap Reddy wrote a
First English magazine in Telangana –Deccan review in Golconda magazine and
Times (1864) insulted the scholars saying that
First Telugu weekly in Telangana –Hita Bhodini “Nizam Rashtramandu Andhrakavulu
(1909) Poojyam”.

Select the answer using the codes B) B.N. Shastri
given below C) Jandyala Papaiah Sastri
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the D) Gollapudi Somayajula Sastri
proper explanation of A Ans: C
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a During the 1969 movement, Jandyala Papaiah
proper explanation of A Sastri ridiculed Telangana Telugu as
C) Only A is true “Taurakyandhramu”.
D) Only R is true
Ans: C 66. Consider the following statements
The Mudumbai Venkatacharya of regarding the LPG reforms in Andhra
Andhra region wrote a review in Pradesh
Golconda magazine and insulted the i) Then the Andhra Pradesh chief
scholars saying that “Nizam minister N. Chandra Babu Naidu
Rashtramandu Andhrakavulu introduced economic reforms in the
Poojyam” (Andhra poets are revered state in the year 1995.
in Nizam State). As an answer to this, ii) The Andhra Pradesh government has
Golconda magazine editor Suravaram approached the International
Pratap Reddy published “Golconda monetary fund for the loan.
Kavula Sanchika” (Poet’s issue) in iii) The “A.P. Agenda for Economic
1934, in which he published poems Reforms” program was suggested to
written by 354 Telangana poets. get loans under the LPG reforms.
64. Consider the following writers is correct?
i) Allam Rajaiah, A) Only I and iii
ii) Kaluva Mallaiah B) Only ii and iii
iii) Juvvadi Gautham Rao C) Only i
Who among the writers given above D) All the above
criticized the for-writing stories and Ans: A
novels in the Telangana dialect? Then chief minister of Andhra Pradesh
A) Only I and ii N. Chandra Babu Naidu introduced
B) Only iii economic reforms in the state in the
C) Only ii and iii year 1995. Andhra Pradesh
D) All the above government has approached World
Ans: A Bank for the loan. But World Bank
They claimed that their Andhra before granting a loan suggested
language is pure Telugu and forcibly various reforms to be taken by the A.P
tried to rub it on Telugu people. Some government as “A.P Agenda for
criticized Allam Rajaiah, and Kaluva Economic Reforms”.
Mallaiah for writing stories and novels
in Telangana dialect. 67. Consider the following statements
65. Who among the following ridiculed i) The total cost of the Andhra Pradesh
Telangana Telugu as Economic Restructuring Project
“Taurakyandhramu”? (APERP)” was Rs. 3300 crores.
A) Prof. Yashoda Reddy

ii) The Andhra Pradesh Economic Based on its report in 1998, Andhra
Restructuring Project (APERP) was Pradesh Electricity Reforms act-1998
prepared by the then chief minister of was passed by the legislature. Later in
Andhra Pradesh during LPG reforms in 1999, March Andhra Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh. Electricity Regulatory Commission
Which of the statements given above was formed and the Andhra Pradesh
are incorrect? State Electricity Board was divided
A) Only i into AP Genco and AP Transco.
B) Only ii
C) Both 69. Assertion (A): The Government of
D) None United Andhra Pradesh has
Ans: B appointed a Gangopadhyay
As the Andhra Pradesh government committee
has accepted the conditions of the Reason (R): The main of the
World Bank, the World Bank has Gangopadhyay committee was to give
prepared the “Andhra Pradesh suggestions/recommendations on the
Economic Restructuring Project state to implement more welfare
(APERP)”. The total worth of this schemes to reduce rural poverty.
project was Rs. 3300 crores, out of this Select the answer using the codes
the World Bank will give a loan of Rs. given below
2200 crores, and the remaining Rs. A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
1100 should be adjusted by the proper explanation of A
Central and State government. B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
proper explanation of A
68. Consider the following statements C) Only A is true
regarding the LPG reforms of Andhra D) Only R is true
Pradesh Ans: C
i) The Hiten Bhayya Committee was The Government of Andhra Pradesh
appointed by the then chief minister has appointed a Gangopadhyay
of Andhra Pradesh for the reforms in committee for
the electricity sector. suggestions/recommendations on
ii) Andhra Pradesh Electricity Reforms state administration, Salaries, and on
act-1998 was passed by the legislature the reduction of Government
on the Hiten Bhayya Committee expenditure.
report.
Which of the statements given above 70. Consider the following statements
is correct? regarding the Koneru Ramakrishna
A) Only i Rao Committee during the LPG
B) Only ii reforms
C) Both i) The Koneru Ramakrishna Rao
D) None Committee opined that the
Ans: C government’s involvement should be
Hiten Bhayya Committee was appointed for there in higher education.
the reforms in the electricity sector.

ii) Higher education in the state of The government of Andhra Pradesh
United Andhra Pradesh should not has reduced expenditure in which of
be imparted by private institutions. the sectors given above under the LPG
Which of the statements given above program?
is correct? A) Only I, ii, and iii
A) Only i B) Only iii and iv
B) Only ii C) Only I, iii, and iv
C) Both D) All the above
D) None Ans: C
Ans: D The government of Andhra Pradesh
The Koneru Rama Krishna Rao has reduced expenditure in different
Committee: This committee opine sectors, especially in welfare schemes.
that the government’s involvement Except in primary education, the
should not be there in higher allocation of funds was reduced in
education. Higher education should health, education, and medical
be imparted by private institutions. sectors, to agriculture & irrigation.
71. In 1998, as part of the “Andhra 73. Consider the following statements
Pradesh economic restructuring regarding the new economic reforms
Project”, the Andhra Pradesh under the Andhra Pradesh
government took a loan of how much i) The government of Andhra Pradesh
crores from the World Bank during used to give subsidy rice for poor
the LPG reforms? people for 1 kg for Rs. 2 before the
A) Rs. 2200 crores LPG reform.
B) Rs. 3200 crores ii) During the LPG reform period the
C) Rs. 5500 crores subsidy rice for poor people was
D) Rs. 9500 crores increased to 1kg per Rs. 5.50 and 50
Ans: A percent of the quota was reduced to
In 1998, as part of the “Andhra each family.
Pradesh economic restructuring Which of the statements given above
Project”, the Andhra Pradesh are incorrect?
government took a loan of Rs. 2200 A) Only i
crores from the World Bank. As a part B) Only ii
of APERP, the Andhra Pradesh C) Both
government implemented many D) None
reforms based on the Ans: B
recommendations given by the World T he government used to give subsidy
Bank. rice for poor people for 1 kg for Rs. 2,
which was increased to 1kg per Rs.
72. Consider the following sectors 3.50, and 25 % of the quota was
i) Welfare schemes. reduced to each family. These new
ii) Primary education, economic reforms have forced the
iii) Health, state into a debt trap and increased
iv) Medical sectors

the debt pressure on the public From the date of formation of Andhra
instead of decreasing it. Pradesh state in 1956 till 2014, out of
74. Consider the following statements total 58 years, the Andhra leaders
regarding the Private investments ruled for 47 years 6 months and
during LPG reforms in Andhra Telangana leaders ruled only for a
Pradesh period of 10 years 6 months. Out of
i) Private investments under LPG this, if the reign of Jalagam Vengal
reforms were mainly centered in the Rao, who was born in Srikakulam and
developing regions. settled in Khammam is excluded, then
ii) The inequalities increased between Telangana leaders ruled only for 6
different regions, especially between years. The Chief Ministers from the
Andhra and Rayalaseema regions. Telangana region were P.V.
Which of the statements given above is Narasimha Rao, Marri Chenna Reddy
correct? (twice), and T. Anjaiah. Out of these
A) Only i three, no one ruled for a period of 5
B) Only ii years. The three Chief Ministers ruled
C) Both only for 6 years in four terms.
D) None
Ans: D 76. The situation of Telangana during the
The Private investments were mainly period of LPG reforms period was
centered in the developed regions, clearly explained through the song it
which in turn increased economic goes as “Palle Kanneru Peduthundo
opportunities for the developed Kanipinchani Kutrala …. Palle Gandhi
regions. Due to this, inequalities ayipothundo”, the song was written
increased between different regions, by?
especially between Telangana (except A) Samudrala Gopala swamy Sashtri
Hyderabad) and Coastal Andhra B) Goreti Venkanna
regions. C) Kura Devender
D) Gaddar
75. Consider the following ex-chief Ans: B
ministers of Andhra Pradesh Telangana society has been badly
i) P.V. Narsimha Rao, affected by the policies undertaken by
ii) Marri Chenna Reddy, the government during economic
iii) T. Anjaiah reforms During this period, the
iv) Jalagam Vengal Rao situation of Telangana was explained
Who among the above were the in the form of a song by Goreti
Chief Ministers of the united Andhra Venkanna. “Palle Kanneru
Pradesh who are actually from the Peduthundo Kanipinchani Kutrala ….
Telangana region? Palle Gandhi ayipothundo….”.
A) Only I, ii, and iii
B) Only I and ii 77. Consider the following statements
C) Only I, ii, and iv i) In Telangana, Beedi cultivation was
D) All the above first started in the Nalgonda district.
Ans: A

ii) The Workers who make beedis are Andhra Pradesh during Basheer Bagh
known as rollers. firings – Chandra Babu Naidu.
is correct? 79. The YSR government appointed a
A) Only i committee to study the problems of
B) Only ii weavers in 2004, the committee was
C) Both headed by?
D) None A) Dr. Gopala Rao Survepally
Ans: B B) K. Rosaiah
In Telangana, Beedi cultivation was C) Professor P. Sainath
first started in the Nizamabad district. D) None of the above
Workers who make beedis are known Ans: B
as “rollers”. Workers in this sector, In 2004, the YSR government
especially women suffer from TB, and appointed a committee under the
cancer-like diseases due to inhalation leadership of K. Rosaiah to study the
of the pungent smell of Tobacco while problems of weavers. The committee
making beedis. made 14 recommendations but the
government neglected them. The
78. Consider the following statements government has set up “APCO” to
regarding the Basheer Bagh firing market the products of weavers. But it
incident was not successful.
i) The farmers and left parties took up
the Chalo Assembly program against 80. Consider the following statements
the increased fertilizer and pesticide regarding the Telangana movement
prices. i) Devendra Swamy & his friends
ii) During the farmer protest, the police founded the “Telangana Praja Party”
firing took place at Basheer Bagh. in Hyderabad.
iii) The Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh ii) Bhupathi Krishnamurthy famously
during Basheer Bagh firings was Y. S. known as Telangana Gandhi and Kaloji
Rajasekhar Reddy. Narayana Rao have declared their
Which of the statements given above support to Telangana Praja Party.
is correct? Which of the statements given above
A) Only I and ii is correct?
B) Only ii and iii A) Only i
C) Only ii B) Only ii
D) All the above C) Both
Ans: C D) None
On 28th August 2000, the farmers and Ans: D
left parties took up the Chalo In 1984, Devendra Swamy & his
Assembly program against the friends founded the “Telangana
increased electricity tariffs. During Party” in Warangal. Bhupati
this protest, police firing took place at Krishnamurthy, known as Telangana
Basheer Bagh. Three farmers were Gandhi and Kaloji Narayana Rao have
killed in these firings. Chief Minister of declared their support to this party.

This party has attracted leaders from A) Only i
Warangal and other districts for B) Only ii
separate Telangana. C) Both
D) None
81. Consider the following personalities Ans: B
i) Pratap Kishore, In 1985, the editor of the State
ii) E.V. Padmanabham Advisory newspaper Satyanarayana
iii) Ale Narendra established “Telangana Jana Sabha”
iv) Satyanarayana as its President (Telangana Jana Sabha
The founders of the Telangana was formed due to the merging of T.
Democratic Front (TDF) for organizing D. F & Telangana Party). On 27th
the Telangana movement are? February 1985 Telangana Jana Sabha
A) Only I, ii, and iii conducted a meeting under the
B) Only ii, iii, and iv presidentship of Akhila Bharat Arya
C) Only I, ii, and iv Samaj leader Vandemataram Ram
D) All the above Chandra Rao in Andhra Saraswat
Ans: C Parishad Hall in Hyderabad.
The inspiration for the victory at the
Himayat Nagar by-elections -1983: a 83. The Sarvadeshik Arya Pratinidhi
meeting was held in YMCA hall, Sabha” has appointed a two-member
Narayanaguda, which was attended commission to enquire into
by Pratap Kishore, E.V. Padmanabham Telangana’s problem. Consider the
(Flash & Fellowmen newspaper following members
founder) and the editor of State i) Vandemataram Ram Chandra Rao
Advisory newspaper Satyanarayana. ii) Om Prakash Tyagi
They founded Telangana Democratic iii) H.K.S. Malik
Front (TDF) for organizing the iv) Ale Narendra
Telangana movement. Satyanarayana Which of the above were the
was elected as the convenor of TDF. members of the commission?
A) Only I and ii
82. Consider the following statements B) Only I and iii
regarding the political parties in C) Only ii and iii
Telangana D) Only I and iv
i) Telangana Jana Sabha was formed Ans: C
due to the merging of the Telangana The “Sarvadeshik Arya Pratinidhi
Democratic Front & Telangana Jana Sabha” was affiliated to Arya Samaj,
Sangha Party. this sabha has appointed a two–
ii) Telangana Jana Sabha conducted a member commission with its Delhi
meeting under the presidentship of representatives. Om Prakash Tyagi
Akhila Bharat Arya Samaj leader and H.K.S. Malik to enquire into
Vandemataram Ram Chandra Rao in Telangana’s problem.
Hyderabad.
Which of the statements given above 84. Consider the following writings
is correct? i) Jailu local (Short stories)

ii) Prajala Manisha legislation providing equal rights for
iii) Novel Named Gangu women on property.
Who among the following was the author?
A) Vattikota Alwar swamy 86. Consider the following personalities
B) Dasarathi from Telangana
C) C. Narayana Reddy i) Pratap Kishore,
D) Nawab Ali Yara Jung ii) Sanavullah,
Ans: A iii) Sher Khan
The Vattikota Alwar Swamy was iv) Shavuddin
inspired by the library movement. He The Telangana supporters June 1987
fought against the Nizam. So, he was started march (Pada Yatra) to Delhi
jailed and from there he wrote a short are?
story collection titled Jailu Lopala A) Only I, ii, and iii
(inside the Jail). Other works are B) Only ii, iii, and iv
Prajala Manishi and Gangu (Novel). C) Only I and iv
D) All the above
85. Assertion (A): The Telugu Desam Ans: D
Party government enacted In June 1987 some of the Telangana
legislation providing equal rights for supporters started a march (Pada
women on property. Yatra) to Delhi. The important leaders
Reason (R): The Telugu Desam Party among them were Pratap Kishore,
government made a law providing Sanavullah, Sher Khan, and
reservations for the backward castes Shavuddin.
in education and employment based
on the report of Justice Hanumanth 87. Consider the following statements
Rao Commission. regarding the Telangana Praja Samiti
Select the answer using the codes i) Telangana Praja Samithi was revived
given below in 1987.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the ii) Vandemataram Ram Chandra Rao was
proper explanation of A elected as the President of
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a Telangana Praja Samiti.
proper explanation of A Which of the statements given above is
C) Only A is true correct?
D) Only R is true A) Only i
Ans: C B) Only ii
The TDP after consolidating in power C) Both
took key decisions in the direction of D) None
social Justice. The Telugu Desam Party Ans: A
government made a law providing In 1987, Telangana Praja Samithi was
reservations for the backward castes revived. Bhupathi Krishna Murthy was
in education and employment based elected as its President.
on the report of Justice Muralidhar
Rao’s commission. It enacted

88. Consider the following statements regarding the formation of small
regarding the Telangana Porata states. This conference held
Samithi discussions on the formation of small
i) Bhupathi Krishna Murthy and states and gave a document of
Mechineni Kishan Rao have founded knowledge to the central
an organization known as “Telangana government, and demanded the
Porata Samithi” formation of Telangana, Jharkhand &
ii) The main objective of the “Telangana Vidarbha states based on the
Porata Samithi is to achieve a separate demands of the people. This
Telangana state. conference was also attended by the
Which of the statements given above Telangana representatives.
is correct?
A) Only i 90. Consider the following statements
B) Only ii regarding the re-emergence of
C) Both Telangana identity
D) None i) Telangana Information Trust was
Ans: B established in 2000.
K.R. Amos and Mechineni Kishan Rao founded ii) Telangana Information Trust also
an organization known as “Telangana attempted to bring out a Telangana
Porata Samithi” and started their newspaper titled Maa Telangana.
movement for achieving a separate iii) Mr. Prabhakar Rao and Dr. P.
Telangana state. Haranath played an instrumental role
in establishing the Telangana
89. Assertion (A): The All-India conference on the Information Trust.
formation of small states was held in Delhi in How many statements given above
are correct?
1987.
A) Only one statement
Reason (R): During this conference, B) Only two statements
representatives gave a document of C) All three statements are given above
knowledge to the central government D) None of the above
and demanded the formation of Ans: B
Telangana and Chhattisgarh states Early signs of the rebirth of Telangana
based on the demands of the people. on the political horizon appeared in
Select the answer using the codes 1987. In that year Telangana
given below Information Trust started functioning,
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the Mr. Prabhakar Rao and Dr. P.
proper explanation of A Haranath, and other people played an
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a instrumental role in establishing the
proper explanation of A trust. It was registered in 1988. It also
C) Only A is true attempted to bring out a Telangana
D) Only R is true newspaper titled Maa Telangana, it
Ans: C functioned as a forum for the veterans
During the 1987 period, an All-India of the 1969-72 struggle.
conference was held in Delhi

91. Consider the following statements D) Only R is true
regarding the Telangana movement Ans: A
i) The “Jala Sadhana Samithi” During the 1991-92 period, Velichala Jagapathi
movement organized by Velichala Rao as convenor formed the
Jagapathi Rao in Nalgonda. “Telangana Legislative Forum” with
ii) The Jagapathi Rao participated in a about 100 Members Legislative
March (Pada Yatra) from Nalgonda to Assembly of different parties from the
Srisailam project as a part of the “Jala Telangana region and elected Jana
Sadhana Samithi” movement. Reddy as its Chairman.
Which of the statements given above 93. Consider the following statements
is correct? regarding the eight points 1969
A) Only i agreement
B) Only ii i) The formation of a planning forum for
C) Both funds.
D) None ii) To reduce injustices in the allocation
Ans: B of funds to Telangana.
The Jagapathi Rao actively iii) To reduce injustices in the allocation
participated in the “Jala Sadhana of funds to the backward regions of
Samithi” movement organized by both the Andhra and Telangana
Dushcharla Satyanarayana in regions.
Nalgonda. Jagapathi Rao participated How many statements given above
in a March (Pada Yatra) from are correct?
Nalgonda to Srisailam project as a part A) Only one statement
of the “Jala Sadhana Samithi” B) Only two statements
movement. C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above
92. Assertion (A): Velichala Jagapathi Ans: B
Rao as convenor formed the The main features in the eight points
“Telangana Legislative Forum” with of the 1969 agreement were for the
about 100 Members Legislative formation of a planning forum for
Assembly of different parties from funds, to reduce injustices in the
the Telangana region during the allocation of funds to Telangana, to
1991-92 period. give more powers to the planning
Reason (R): Jana Reddy was elected as the forum for improvement of the
Chairman of the Telangana Telangana region, for the allotting the
Legislative Forum. jobs in Telangana to the local
Select the answer using the codes given candidates of Telangana and to
below restrict as required by the constitution
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the of India and other measures were part
proper explanation of A of the agreement.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
C) Only A is true

94. Consider the following statements C) Only ii and iii
i) The Telangana Legislative forum D) All the above
members have also given a Ans: C
memorandum to the then Chief The six-point plan had provisions to
Minister Kotla Vijaya Bhaskar Reddy. appoint a single state-level planning
ii) Jana Reddy was elected as the board, appoint a subcommittee for
Chairman of the Telangana Legislative the backward Telangana region, and
Forum. for the establishment of a central
Which of the statements given above university to increase persons with
is correct? higher education. The six-point
A) Only i formula plan rewrote the lesser or
B) Only ii more rights of Telangana. Mainly the
C) Both cancellation of the Mulki rules was a
D) None big loss. Along with Mulki rules and
Ans: B the regional committees were also
During the 1991-92 period, Velichala abolished through the six-point
Jagapathi Rao as convenor formed the formula.
“Telangana Legislative Forum” with
about 100 Members Legislative 96. Consider the following regarding the
Assembly of different parties from the Osmania University forum for
Telangana region and elected Jana Telangana
Reddy as its Chairman. The legislative i) Prof. Kodandaram,
forum members have also given a ii) Prof. Jayashankar,
memorandum to the then Chief iii) Prof. Keshav Rao
Minister Nedurumalli Janardhan iv) Prof. Madhusudhan Reddy
Reddy. Who among the above members
played a key role in the formation of
95. Consider the following statements the Osmania University forum for
regarding the six-point formula Telangana?
i) It had a provision to appoint a sub- A) Only I, ii, and iii
committee for the backward regions B) Only ii, iii, and iv
of both Telangana and Andhra C) Only I, ii, and iv
regions. D) All the above
ii) It had provision for the establishment Ans: B
of a central university to increase During this conference, the Osmania
persons with higher education. University forum for Telangana was
iii) Along with Mulki rules and the formed by O.U professors under the
regional committees were also leadership of Prof. Lakshman, Prof.
abolished through the six-point Jayashankar, Prof. Keshav Rao and
formula. Prof. Madhusudhan Reddy played an
Which of the statements given above active role.
is correct?
A) Only I and ii
B) Only iii

97. Consider the following statements 99. Assertion (A): Hyderabad was made
regarding the Telangana movement as a free zone under the six-point
i) The Telangana Legislative Forum plan.
released a plan of action for the Reason (R): The six-point plan was changed
Telangana state formation in 1998. and the residence stay of a Telangana
ii) The Telangana Legislative Forum person was reduced and it was
released calendars with the Telangana sufficient with four years continuous
map in the year 1988. stay instead of fifteen years.
Which of the statements given above Select the answer using the codes
are incorrect? given below
A) Only i A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
B) Only ii proper explanation of A
C) Both B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
D) None proper explanation of A
Ans: A C) Only A is true
On the occasion of the new year in D) Only R is true
1988, the Telangana Legislative Forum Ans: C
distributed Telangana greetings along The six-point plan had provisions to
with a Telangana map. The Telangana appoint a single state-level planning
Legislative Forum also released board, the two regions of the state
calendars with Telangana maps in the were divided into seven zones as per
year 1988. the six-point plan. Hyderabad the
heart of Telangana made a free zone.
98. Consider the following statements The Mulki rules were changed and the
i) The Telangana Jana Sabha was residence stay of a Telangana person
released Telangana political map by was reduced and it was sufficient with
Kaloji Narayan Rao. four years continuous stay instead of
ii) The 1st political map of Telangana was fifteen years.
released by Kaloji Narayan Rao.
Which of the statements given above are 100. Consider the following statements
incorrect? regarding the political party
A) Only I B) Only ii formation
C) Both D) None i) The Telangana Rastra Samiti (TRS)
Ans: D party was established in May 2003.
The forum also released calendars ii) The Osmania University forum has
with Telangana maps in the year 1988. invited K.C.R to Arts College and held
Osmania University Forum for a big meeting in Tagore Auditorium to
Telangana, along with United Front, create awareness about the party.
Telangana information trust, and Which of the statements given above
Telangana Jana Sabha has released are incorrect?
Telangana political map by Kaloji A) Only i
Narayan Rao. This was the 1st political B) Only ii
map of Telangana. C) Both
D) None

Ans: A the Supreme Court with the support
The Osmania University forum conducted of Indira Gandhi.
many programs every year by Which of the above statements are correct
celebrating September 17th as A) 1 only
Telangana liberation day and B) 1 and 2
November 1st as Telangana betrayal C) None of the above
day. During the period of formation of D) 2 only
the TRS party, in May 2001, this forum Answer: B
invited K.C.R to Arts College and held
a big meeting in Tagore Auditorium to 103) Match the following presidents with
create awareness about the party. organisation
Presidents Organisation
101) Consider the following statements? 1. Praja Parishad
1. Kasu Brahamananda Reddy is the one, who a.Atal Bihari Vajpayee
lost the chief minister post due to 2. Andhra Sena
1969 Telangana movement b. Sardar Guthu Latchanna
2. PV Narasimha Rao do after becoming the 3. Jana Sangh party
Chief Minister, he took steps to c. Madala Janaki Ram
identify the non-locals and sent them Choose the correct answer from the options
back to their native places. given below
3. On 14 February 1972, Andhra Pradesh High a) 1-a,2-c,3-b.
Court ruled that Mulki regulations b) 1-c,2-a,3-b
were unconstitutional c) 1-b,2-c,3-a
Which of the above statements are correct Answer: c)
A) 1 only B) 1,2 only The Jana Sangh party, which called for united
C) All of the above D) 3 only state during 1960 movement, have
Answer: C supported the demand for separate
After Kasu Brahmananda Reddy resigned as states of Andhra-Telangana during
C.M in September 1971, P.V Narsimha 1972-1973 this party presided by Atal
Rao became Chief Minister of A.P on Bihari Vajpayee
30th September 1971 Madala Janaki Ram led the Andhra Sena as a
On 14 February 1972, Andhra Pradesh High component of the Jai Andhra
Court 5-member bench ruled that Movement
Mulki regulations were Sardar Gouthu Latchana was appointed as the
unconstitutional president of Praja Parishad which was
established to spearhead the
102) Consider the following statements movement for the formation of a
regarding Jai Andhra Movement separate Andhra state.
1. The Government of Andhra Pradesh issued
an ordinance on 2 May 1972 104) Why did PV Narasimha Rao turn against
prohibiting all land transactions in the Andhra investors and feudal
state. t community?
2. PV Narasimha Rao challenged the High a. Because he wanted to support Telangana
Court verdict on Mulki regulations in sentiment.

b. Because he wanted to support the central 3. Kakani Venkataratnam, B.V.Subba Reddy,
government's law of land acquisition. Vasantha Nageshwar
c. Because he was against the Mulki Rao,N.G.Ranga,Sardar, Gouthu
regulations. Latchana participated in jai Andhra
d. None of the above. movement
Answer: B. Which of the above statements are correct
PV Narasimha Rao turned against Andhra A) 1 only
investors and feudal community to B)1 and 2
comply with the central government's C)None of the above
law of land acquisition. D)2, 3 only
Answer: B
105) When did the state legislative of Andhra Initially,” Jai Andhra “Movement led by Kakani
Pradesh assembly pass the land Venkataratnam
ceiling bill? After the death of Kakani Venkata Ratnam “Jai
a. May 2nd, 1972. Andhra "movement was led by
b. September 15th, 1972. B.V.Subba Reddy,Vasantha
c. October 3rd, 1972. Nageshwar Rao.
d. None of the above. Kakani Venkataratnam, B.V.Subba Reddy,
Answer: B. Vasantha Nageshwar Rao,
The Andhra Pradesh state legislative assembly N.G.Ranga,Sardar, Gouthu Latchanna
passed the land ceiling bill on participated in jai Andhra movement.
September 15th, 1972.
108) Which of the following leaders did NOT
106) Who is the State Reorganisation participate in the Jai Andhra
Commission member who expressed Movement?
the view that the formation of a. Venkaiah Naidu
Andhra and Telangana states was a b. Y.S.R
wise decision? c. Chandra Babu Naidu
1.Hridaynath Kunzru d. Marri Chenna Reddy
2.K.M.Panikkar Answer: d.
3.Fazal Ali Marri Chenna Reddy did not participate in the
4.Jawaharlal Nehru Jai Andhra Movement. He established
Answer: 1. the Separate Telangana Congress
Hridaynath Kunzru opined that “Creation of Forum during the movement.
Andhra and Telangana states is a wise
decision”. 109) Who led the Joint Action Committee of
Andhra Venkateshwara University
107) Consider the following statements Students in calling for an armed
1.Initially,” Jai Andhra “Movement led by struggle to achieve a separate state?
B.V.Subba Reddy a. Marri Chenna Reddy
2. After the death of Kakani Venkata Ratnam b. B.J. Augustine
“Jai Andhra "movement was led by c. Venkaiah Naidu
B.V.Subba Reddy,Vasantha d. Y.S.R
Nageshwar Rao. Answer: b.

B.J. Augustine was the president of 4. V.B. Raju,.P.V.Narasimha Rao,Kodati
the Joint Action Committee of Andhra Rajamallu,M.M.Hashim.
Venkateshwara University Students Answer: 1
who called for an armed struggle for S.B. Giri, G.S. Melkote, Mallikarjun, and M.M.
the achievement of a separate state. Hashim were leaders who refused to
support the six-point formula and
110) Match the following directly informed the Minister of State
Event date for Home Affairs, K.C. Pant, that they
1.Tirupati Sabha would not sign the document.
(a) 10th january,1973
2.President's rule imposed in A.P 112) What was the outcome of the Andhra
(b) 31st December,1972 Congress working committee
3.Six-point formula meeting in Hyderabad on 1st October
(c) 2nd january,1973 1973?
4.Telengana sangharshana samiti A) The leaders unanimously rejected the 6-
(d)21st september,1973 conference point formula
Choose the correct answer from the options B) The leaders were split in their support of
given below: the 6-point formula
A) 1-b,2-a,3-d,4-c C) The leaders unanimously agreed to the 6-
B) 1-c,2-b,3-a,4-d point formula
C) 1-b,2-a,3-c,4-d D) The leaders deferred their decision on the
D) 1-b,2-c,3-d,4-a 6-point formula to a later date
Answer: A Answer: C)
On 31st December 1972, the Congress The leaders unanimously agreed to the 6-
leaders of the Andhra region held a point formula.
meeting in Tirupati which was
presided over by B.V. Subba Reddy. 113) According to the presidential ordinance
On 10th january,1973. President's rule issued on 18th October 1975, which
imposed in A.P of the following statements are
21st september,1973 Six-point correct?
formula Telengana sangharshana 1.Local candidate eligibility period reduced to
conference 4 years for those who studied from
4th to 10th grade consecutively in the
111) leaders who refused to sign the paper area.
and directly informed K.C.Pant of 2. The state government issued G.O NO- 674,
their opposition to the six-point which outlines the guidelines for seats
formula? in educational institutions.
1. S.B. Giri, Which of the following statements
G.S.Melkote,Mallikarjun,M.M.Hashim are incorrect?
2. G. S. Melkote, Mallikarjun, M.M.Hashim, a) 2 only
P.V.Narasimha Rao b) 1only
3. P.V. Narasimha Rao,Kodati c) 1 and 2
Rajamallu,M.M.Hashim d) None of the above
Answer: 1

The time period for considering a candidate as 117) What was the purpose of appointing
a local has been reduced to four the Sundaresan Committee?
consecutive years of studying from a) To examine reports submitted by IAS
4th to 10th grade in a specific area. officers
b) To identify officials from Telangana
114) What should be established to c) To increase the number of collectors in 23
implement Article-371-D, states
Presidential orders effectively? d) To examine reports submitted by the Jai
a) A legislative committee Bharat Reddy committee
b) A cabinet sub-committee Answer: d)
c) A monitoring authority To examine reports submitted by the Jai
d) An education program for employees Bharat Reddy committee
Answer: c)
A monitoring authority should be established 118) What did the Sundaresan Committee
further effective implementation of report reveal?
presidential orders. a) High representation of officials from
Telangana
115) which of the following statements is b) Low representation of officials from
correct regarding the five-point plan Telangana in various services
announced by then P.M Smt. Indira c) High representation of Telangana people
Gandhi? among collectors
a) It was declared on 28th September 1973. d) Low representation of Telangana people
b) There will be separate police forces for both among High Court Judges
regions of Andhra and Telangana. Answer: b)
c) With regard to Gazetted posts, the 1st or Low representation of officials from
2nd level posts in various services Telangana in various services IAS
were to be recognised as local posts. 8%,IPS 11%, IFS 15%, High Court
d) Mulki Rules were not applicable to Non- Judges 25%. only one Telangana
Gazetted Appointments to the level of person among the collectors of 23
Tahsildar in the region of Telangana States.
Answer: c
Regarding Gazetted posts, local posts were to 119) With reference to “Jai Bharath Reddy
be identified as the first or second committee”, considered the
level positions in various services. following statements:
116) Who appointed the Sundaresan 1.This committee is also known as officers
Committee? committee
a) Jai Bharat Reddy 2.In 1984 the NTR government appointed “Jai
b) Telangana government Bharath Reddy committee” Following
c) N T Rama Rao government the complaint launched by Telangana
d) High Court Judges NGO president Swaminathan
Answer: c) 3.The other two members in the committee
N T Rama Rao government are Kamalanathan, Umapati Rao
are correct

a)1,2 and 3 Answer: a
b)1,3 only Telangana Sangharshana Samiti Conference
c) 2,3 only held at Hyderabad in the president
d) 1,2 only ship of Jagan Mohan Reddy.
Answer: a)
The committee appointed by the NTR 122) What was Haimen Dorf's role in Nizam
government in 1984, which was also College?
known as the Officers Committee, was a) He was a professor of English literature
set up in response to a complaint b) He was a professor of Mathematics
made by Telangana NGO president c) He was an advisor for the tribally backward
Swaminathan. The committee was classes of Hyderabad state
comprised of Jai Bharath Reddy, d) He was a sports coach
Kamalanathan, and Umapati Rao. Answer: c
Haimen Dorf was made a professor at
120) What was the Five Point Formula? Nizam College by the Nizam, where he
A. A set of regulations to address advised on matters related to the
discrimination in government jobs underprivileged classes of Hyderabad
B. A series of court judgments related to the state.
Mulki rules 123) What is the title of Haimen Dorf's book
C. A plan to promote education and on the Gonds?
employment opportunities in A) Tribal Hyderabad
Telangana B) Northeast India Tribes
D. A formula to determine the eligibility of C) The Raj Gond's of Hyderabad
candidates for government jobs D) Chenchu and Gonds Tribes
Answer: C Answer: C)
The Five Point Formula was a Haimen Dorf wrote a book titled "Raj Gond's
significant step towards resolving the of Hyderabad" about the Gond tribe in
issues of education and employment Hyderabad state.
and ensuring equitable opportunities
for all individuals in Telangana. 124) Who served Haimen Dorf and his wife
most dearly while they were in the
121) Consider the following statements: village of Marlawai?
1. Andhra Sangharshana Samiti A) Elizabeth Dorf
Conference held a large public B) Hyderabad state officials
meeting at Guntur C) Durbar officials
2. Telangana Sangharshana Samiti D) Aatram Lachu Patel
Conference held at Hyderabad in the Answer: D
president ship of Jagan Mohan Reddy. Aatram Lachu Patel, a young Gond man,
Which of the following statements are served Haimen Dorf and his wife most
correct? dearly while they were in the village of
a) 2 only Marlawai.
b) 1only
c) 1 and 2
d) None of the above

125) Where did Haimen Dorf live while Pollution has a bad effect on the
conducting his research on tribes in environment in the long run.
Telangana?
A) Hyderabad city A. Neutral
B) Keslapur Nagoba Jatara B. Worse
C) Adilabad district C. Detrimental
D) Raj Gond's village D. No improvement
Answer: C) Answer: C
Haimen Dorf lived in a Gond village Explanation:
named Marlawai in Adilabad district Detrimental’ means 'something that is
while conducting his research on bad and causes harm.'
tribes in Telangana. 'Neutral' is incorrect as it does not
126. In the following question, signify the same meaning as 'bad'.
some parts of the sentence has errors 'Neutral' means 'having no strongly
and some have none. Find out which marked or positive characteristics or
part of the sentence has an error. If a features'.
sentence is free from error then your 'Worse' cannot be used as it denotes
answer is (4), i.e. No error. comparison between two entities,
which is not happening in the given
The scissor is (1)/ lying on (2)/ the table. (3)/ sentence.
No error (4)
A. 1 128. Pick out the correct synonym for the
B. 2 given word.
C. 3
D. 4 Avarice
Answer: A A. Generosity
Explanation: B. Greed
‘Scissor’ is not a noun but a verb. Here, the C. Envy
correct usage would be ‘scissors’. D. Hatred
There are two ways to correct this sentence - Answer: B
The 'pair of scissors' is… (Here, the subject Explanation:
becomes a pair of). Thus, the verb 'Avarice' means extreme greed for
used is singular. wealth or material gain. It is clear that
The 'scissors' are..( Scissors always take a 'greed' is correct.
plural verb).
129. Choose the word which is MOST
127. In the question below, a part of the SIMILAR in meaning to the given
sentence is underlined. Below are word.
given alternatives to the underlined
part which may improve the August
sentence. Choose the correct A. Sparse
alternative. In case no improvement B. Majestic
is needed choose ‘No improvement’. C. Illicit
D. Render

Answer: B The Ministry of Panchayati Raj in collaboration
Explanation: with the Government of Madhya
The word 'august' means 'having great Pradesh celebrated National
importance and especially of the Panchayati Raj Day on 24th April at
highest social class.' The meanings of Rewa in Madhya Pradesh (first state in
the words are: the country to implement the 3-tier
Sparse=> thinly dispersed or scattered panchayati raj envisaged in the 73rd
Majestic=> having or showing Constitution Amendment Act, 1992).
impressive beauty or scale SWAMITVA Scheme: Aims to provide the
Illicit=> forbidden by law, rules, or custom ‘record of rights’ to village household
Render=> deliver owners issuance of property cards to
the property owners. This empowers
130. Choose the alternative which best PRIs with better data on land
expresses the meaning of the ownership.
Idiom/Phrase. PM handed over the SVAMITVA (Survey of
to feel like a fish out of water Villages and Mapping with Improvised
A. disgusted Technology in Village Areas) Property
B. uncomfortable Card to select beneficiaries,
C. disappointed symbolizing the attainment of the
D. homeless milestone of 1.25 crore property cards
Answer: B distribution under SVAMITVA Scheme
Explanation: in the country.
Just like fish feel uncomfortable out of
water the idiom ‘to feel like a fish out 132. Choose incorrect pair
of water’ would be used to describe A. Nagri Dubraj rice variety- Chattisgarh
the state of a person who is feeling B. MANAMADURAI POTTERY- tamil
uncomfortable with his environment Nadu
or surroundings. C. wood carvings- Ladakh
D. Khola Chilli- Maharastra
131. Consider the following statements Answer: D
A. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj in Explanation:
collaboration with the Government of Recently Manamadurai pottery of
Madhya Pradesh celebrated National Sivagangai district, Tamil Nadu got the
Panchayati Raj Day Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
B. SWAMITVA Scheme aims to provide A unique type of clay is sourced from
the ‘record of rights’ to village water bodieslike Nedunkulam,
household owners Nathapurakki, Sundaranadappu,
Choose correct code Seikalathur to make these pots.
1. A only Prime Minister applauds GI Tag for
2. B only Ladakh's Wood Carving, a first of its
3. Both kind. Wood carving of Ladakh has
4. None been an aesthetically
Answer: 3 vibrant art form in Ladakh region. It
Explanation: will boost exports, promotes goods at

international level, and will bring dialogue, harmony and universal
economic prosperity to producers and peace.
stakeholders. Recognize significance of Buddhist pilgrimage
Chhattisgarh's Nagri Dubraj rice as a living heritage.
variety got a geographical indication
tag. 134. Consider following statements
Khola chilli is a famous variety of chilli A. Shingles is caused by the reactivation
grown on the hill slopes of Canacona, of the varicella zoster virus (VZV)
located in the district of South Goa. B. Drugs Controller General of India has
Named after the village of Khola developed the Know Your Medicine
where it is exclusively grown, the chilli web and mobile application
is known for its distinctive taste and Choose correct code
colour. 1. A only
2. B only
133. Consider the following statements 3. Both
A. Global Buddhist Summit 2023 took 4. None
place in New Delhi Answer: 1
B. Summit was organised by Ministry of Explanation:
minority affairs, in collaboration with GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) Pharma has launched
Delhi-based International Buddhist vaccine “Shingrix” in India to prevent
Confederation shingles.
Choose correct code Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the
1. A only varicella zoster virus (VZV),same virus
2. B only that causes chickenpox.
3. Both National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) has
4. None developed the Know Your Medicine
Answer: 1 web and mobile application with an
Explanation: aim to create a clean sporting
Global Buddhist Summit 2023 environment in India
concluded with New Delhi
Declaration. 135. JUPITER ICY MOONS EXPLORER
Summit was organised by Ministry of (JUICE) MISSION was launched by
culture, in collaboration with Delhi- A. NASA
based International Buddhist B. European Space Agency
Confederation, to engage global C. Canadian Space Agency
Buddhist dhamma leadership and D. Japanese space Agency
scholars on matters of Buddhist and Answer: B
universal concerns. Explanation:
Key highlights of New Delhi European Space Agency (ESA) has launched
Declaration JUICE from Europe's spaceport French
In the present world scenario, texts, Guiana on an eight-year-long voyage
doctrines and philosophy of Buddha to Jupiter and its moons through
Dhamma are best guide for inter-faith Ariane-5.

Spacecraft will complete fly-bys of Venus, (First number)2 + (Second number)2 = Third
Earth, and the Earth-Moon system to number
arrive at its destination in 2031. In first column, (4)2 + (5)2 = 41
It is the first large-class mission in ESA's Cosmic In third column, (6)2 + (8)2 = 100
Vision 2015-2025 programme. Similalry,
In second column, (7)2 + (6)2 = 85
136. Find the missing number from the 138. M is 2 years older than P. L is 2 years older
below options. than O. O's age is the average of the
ages of L and N, P's age is the average
of the ages of L and M and L's age is
the average of P and O. Who is the
youngest?
A. L B. M
C. N D. O
A. 8
Answer: C
B. 9
Explanation:
C. 11
It is given that M is older than P and L is older
D. 6
than O.
Answer: A
We know that when we take average of 2
Explanation:
numbers, the resultant average is
The logic is:
always the lies somewhere between
565 - 222 = 343
both numbers.
343 = 73
Here, P's age is the average of the ages of L and
Similarly,
M. Since, M is older than P, L will be
899 - 387 = 512
younger than P.
512 = 83
i.e., M > P > L
=> ? = 8
Similarly, L's age is the average of P and O.
Since, P is older than L so, O will be
137. Select the option that will correctly
younger than L.
replace the question mark (?) in the
i.e., M > P > L > O
given pattern.
Again, O's age is the average of the ages of L
4 7 6
and N. Since, L is older than O so, N
5 ? 8 will be younger than O.
41 85 100 Now, the final arrangement is,
M>P>L>O>N
139. Satish is 9 ranks ahead of Ajay in the class
A. 13
of 39 students. If Ajay’s rank is 15th
B. 6
from the last, then what is Satish’s
C. 9
rank from the start?
D. 11
A. 14th
Answer: B
B. 24th
Explanation:
C. 18th
In a column:
D. 16th
Answer: D

Explanation: 141. How many triangles are there in the
Here, Ajay’s rank is 15th from the last. Satish’s following figure?
rank is 9 rank ahead of Ajay.
So, Satish’s rank from the last = 15 + 9 = 24th
Therefore, Satish’s rank from the start = 39 –
24 + 1 = 16th
140. If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then A. 22

which of the answer figures is the right image B. 32
of the given figure? C. 30
D. 16
Answer: C
Explanation:
Direct counting
142. A square paper is folded and cut as

shown below. How will it appear
when unfold?
A.
B.
A.
C.
B.
D.
Answer: D
C.
Explanation:
D.
Answer: B
Explanation:

143. Four positions of a cubical dice are
shown below. Find the number
opposite to 1?
145. If 2013, 2nd June. was on Sunday,

A. 2 then in which year it will be
B. 5 repeated?
C. 4 A. 2017
D. 6 B. 2019
Answer: C C. 2020
Explanation: D. 2018
Numbers adjacent to 1 are 2, 5, 6 and 3. Answer: B
Therefore, 4 is opposite to 1. Explanation:
Number of odd days in ordinary year = 365 / 7
144. Study the given pattern carefully and = 1 remainder = 1 odd day.
select the figure that will complete Number of odd days in leap year = 366 / 7 = 2
the pattern given in the question remainder = 2 odd days.
figure. 2nd June, 2013 = Sunday
2nd June, 2014 = Monday
2nd June, 2015 = Tuesday
2nd June, 2016 = Thursday (leap year)
2nd June, 2017 = Friday
2nd June, 2018 = Saturday
2nd June, 2019 = Sunday
146. Read the given figure and find the region
representing persons who are
educated and employed but not
confirmed in job.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A. abe
Answer: A B. bd
Explanation: C. adc
D. ac
answer: B
explanation:

1. All cars are helicopters. : False (This is
possible but not definite.)
2. Some helicopters are vehicles. :True
(As it is given that all the vehicles are
helicopters, it is necessary that some
of the helicopters must be vehicles.)
3. No car is helicopter. : False (As it is
given that some cars are vehicles, we
can conclude that the cars which are
vehicles are also helicopters. So, 'no
From the given figure it is clear that ‘b’ and ‘d’ car is helicopter' proves to be false.)
I common between both circles of
‘Educated’ and ‘Employed’. 148. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’.
‘A - B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’.
147. Read the given statements and conclusions ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’.
carefully. Assuming that the ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the husband of B’.
information given in the statements If T ÷ V + Q – J × M + U, then how is T related
are true, even if it appears to be at to J?
variance with commonly known A. Father-in-law
facts, decide which of the given B. Son-in-law
conclusions logically follows(s) from C. Brother
the statements. D. Father
Statements: Answer: A
All vehicles are helicopters. Explanation:
Some cars are vehicles.
Conclusions:
1. All cars are helicopters.
2. Some helicopters are vehicles.
3. No car is helicopter.
A. Only conclusions 2 and 3 follow
B. Either conclusions 1 or 3 follows
C. Only conclusion 2 follows
D. Only conclusion 3 follows
Answer: C
Explanation: T ÷ V + Q - J × M + U means T is the husband of
V. V is the mother of Q. Q is Wife of J
who is brother of M. M is the mother
of U.
Hence, T is the father-in-law of J.
149. A series is given with one term missing.

Select the correct alternative from
the given options that will complete
the series?

Copper, Iron, Zinc, Aluminium, Silver, Lead, ?
A. Nickle
B. Chlorine
C. Iodine
D. Sulfur
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the given series, list of metals is
given so on applying that condition,
option A is the right answer because
Nickle is metal while other options are
non-metals elements.
150. Select the combination of letters that

when sequentially placed in the gaps
of the given letter series will
complete the series.
ab_bcab_b_ab_bcab_bc
A. cdcdc
B. dcdcd
C. ccdcc
D. ddcdd
Answer: D
Explanation:
abcbc - abdbc - abdbc - abcbc → does not
follow any pattern
abdbc - abcbd - abcbc - abdbc → does not
follow any pattern
abcbc - abcbd - abcbc - abcbc → does not
follow any pattern
abdbc - abdbc - abdbc - abdbc → follows a
pattern.

1. Lime is usually added to soil in order to  it permits improved water penetration

1. Increase the oil PH for acidic soils
2. Improve crop yields  it improves the uptake of major plant
3. Provide a source of calcium and nutrients (nitrogen, phosphorus, and
magnesium for plants potassium) of plants growing on acid Soils
4. Allow improved water penetration 
for acidic soils 2. Which of following can be characterized as a
Which of the above is/are correct? chemical change?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Burning of the wax of a candle
b) 1 only 2. Baking a cake
c) 1 and 3 only 3. Digestion of food
d) 2 and 4 only 4. Evaporating alcohol
Answer: a) Select the correct answer using the codes
Explanation: Agricultural lime, also below.
called aglime, agricultural limestone, a) 2 and 3 only b) 3 and 4 only
garden lime or liming, is a soil c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only
additive made from pulverized Answer: a)
limestone or chalk. The primary Explanation:
active component is calcium  A new compound (product) results from
carbonate. Additional chemicals vary a chemical change as the atoms
depending on the mineral source and rearrange themselves to form new
may include calcium oxide. Unlike the chemical bonds. For e.g. Burning wood;
types of lime called quicklime Souring milk; Mixing acid and base;
(calcium oxide) and slaked lime Digesting food; Cooking an egg; Heating
(calcium hydroxide), powdered sugar to form caramel; Baking a cake;
limestone does not require lime Rusting of iron.
burning in a lime kiln; it only requires  No new chemical species forms in a
milling. The effects of agricultural physical change. Changing the state of a
lime on soil are: pure substance between solid, liquid, and
 it increases the pH of acidic soil (the gas phases of matter are all physical
lower the pH the more acidic the soil); in changes since the identity of the matter
other words, soil acidity is reduced and does not change. For e.g. Crumpling a
alkalinity increased sheet of aluminum foil; Melting an ice
 it provides a source of calcium and cube; Casting silver in a mold; Breaking a
magnesium for plants bottle; Boiling water; Evaporating
alcohol; Shredding paper; and

Sublimation of dry ice into carbon dioxide Which of the above given statements is/are
vapor. correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
3. Which of the following can be used as b) 1 and 3 only
naturally occurring indicators of acids and c) 2 and 3 only
base? d) 2,3 and 4 only
1. Turmeric Answer: D
2. China Rose petals Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR):
3. Litmus obtained from lichens ○ In DSR, the pre-germinated seeds are
Select the correct answer using the codes directly drilled into the field by a
below. tractor-powered machine.
a) 1, 2 and 3 ○ There is no nursery preparation or
b) 1 and 3 only transplantation involved in this
c) 1 and 2 only method.
d) 2 and 3 only ○ Farmers have to only level their land
Answer: a) and give one pre-sowing irrigation.
Explanation: Advantage with Direct Seeding of Rice
 Special type of substances are used to ○ Water savings.
test whether a substance is acidic or ○ Less numbers of
basic. These substances are known as laborersrequired.Statement 1 is
indicators. The indicators change their incorrect.
colour when added to a solution ○ Reduce methane emissions due to a
containing an acidic or a basic substance. shorter flooding period and
 Turmeric, litmus, china rose petals decreased soil disturbance compared
(Gudhal), etc., are some of the naturally to transplanting rice
occurring indicators. The most commonly seedlings.Statement 2 and 3 is
used natural indicator is litmus. It is correct.
extracted from lichens. Drawbacks of Direct Seeding of Rice
 It is available in the form of a solution, or ○ Non-availability of herbicides.
in the form of strips of paper, known as ○ The seed requirement for DSR is also
litmus paper. Generally, it is available as high, 8-10 kg/acre, compared to 4-5
red and blue litmus paper. kg/acre in transplanting. Statement 4
is correct.
4. With reference to Direct Seeded ○ Further, laser land leveling is
Rice,consider the following statements compulsory in DSR. This is not so in
1. It saves water but it requires more transplanting.
labor ○ The sowing needs to be done timely
2. It emits less methane than normal so that the plants have come out
transplanting properly before the monsoon rains
3. In this method decreased soil arrive.
disturbance
4. In this method Seed requirement is 5. Match the following acids with what they
high are usually found in:
1. Formic Acid: Lemon

2. Oxalic Acid: Spinach properties if it falls from top, be it
3. Ascorbic Acid: Ant’s Sting from buildings or anything else.
4. Lactic Acid: Curd Option 4 is incorrect: Keeping the
Select the correct answer using the codes opposing poles of two magnets facing
below. each other will help in preserving the
a) 1 and 3 only magnetic properties. Magnets should
b) 2 and 3 only be kept in pairs with their unlike
c) 2 and 4 only poles (North poleand South pole of
d) 1 and 4 only two magnets facing each other) on
Answer: c) the same side to avoid losing the
Explanation: The relevant table is as follows: magnetic properties.
Option 5 is incorrect: Sticking a piece
6. In which of the following situations does of iron at the end of the magnet will
magnets lose their properties? avoid magnet losing its properties.
1. On heating the magnet to a high For instance, at the end of the horse-
temperature. shoe magnet, one should keep a
2. On throwing it down from a great piece of iron across thepoles to save
height. its properties.
3. On hammering it hard with an iron
hammer. 7. Consider the following statements regarding
4. On keeping the different poles of two the applications of Nitrogen and its
magnets facing each other. compounds:
5. On sticking a piece of iron at the end 1. Nitrogen gas can be used for
of the magnet. soldering purposes.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Nitrogen in form of nitrous oxide is
given below: used while giving Anaesthetics to the
a) 1 and 2 only patients.
b) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. Matchstick contains nitrogen in
c) 1, 3 and 4 only powdery form.
d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 4. Nitrogen can be used in steel making
Answer: b process.
Explanation: Option b is the correct answer. Which of the statements given above are
A magnet is a material or object that correct?
produces a magnetic field. This a) 1 and 3 only
magnetic field is a reason why b) 1, 2, and 4 only
magnets tend to attract objects that c) 2 and 4 only
have iron content. However, it loses d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
its tendency to attract objects under Answer: b
certain conditions. Explanation: Option b is the correct answer.
Option 1, 2 and 3 is correct: Magnets Statement 1 is correct: When
lose their properties if they are electronics are being assembled,
heated, hammered or dropped from nitrogen gas is used for soldering.
some height. It tends to lose its Using nitrogen gas reduces the

surface tension to provide a cleaner for example), hyperspectral imaging
breakaway from the solder site. breaks the image down into tens or
Statement 2 is correct: Almost every hundreds of colours. The spectral
major drug class contains some range in hyperspectral data can
nitrogen gas, even antibiotics. extend beyond the visible range
Nitrogen gas, in the form of nitrous (ultraviolet, infrared).
oxide, is also used in anaesthetics. Multispectral imaging (MSI) is a term
Statement 3 is incorrect: Nitrogen gas that should probably be reserved for
is not used in Matchstick. The head of imaging that simultaneously uses two
safety matches is made of an or more different spectroscopy
oxidizing agent such as potassium methods in the imaging mode (eg,
chlorate, mixed with sulfur, fillers, wavelength and fluorescence
and glass powder. The side ofthe box lifetime) In HSI, the unique color
contains red phosphorus, binder, and signature of an individual object can
powdered glass. be detected. Unlike other optical
Statement 4 is correct: There are technologies that can only scan for a
various instances when nitrogen can single color, HSI is able to distinguish
be added to steel during steelmaking the full color spectrum in each pixel.
such as melting. Also, by Therefore, it provides spectral
electroplating the stainless steel with information in addition to 2D spatial
nitrogen gas, the finisheproduct is images.
stronger and more resistant to
corrosion 9. With reference to ‘Litmus Paper’, consider
the following statements:
8. Hyperspectral imaging can work in which of 1. It is a type of pH indicator that is used
the following regions of electromagnetic to test the acidity or basicity of a
spectrum? solution.
1. Visible light 2. Near Infrared 2. It is made from natural dyes
3. Ultraviolet extracted from lichens.
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. It can accurately provide the pH value
below. of any solution.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
Answer: d) a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
HI has grown increasingly popular Answer: b
recently in military, industrial, and Explanation: Option b is the correct answer.
scientific arenas. Hyperspectral Statement 1 is correct: Litmus paper
imaging is the capturing and is a simple and easy-to-use pH
processing of an image at a very large indicator that has been used for
number of wavelengths.Whereas centuries to test the acidity or
multispectral imaging might evaluate basicity of a solution. When litmus
an image in three or four colors (red, paper is dipped into an acidic
green, blue and near-infrared (NIR), solution, the dye in the paper

changes color from blue to red. d) 1 and 3 only
Conversely, when litmus paper is Answer: a
dipped into a basic solution, the dye Explanation: Option a is the correct answer.
changes color from red to blue. The Statement 1 is correct: Noble gases
paper can also be used to test the pH are comparatively inert in nature. The
of a neutral solution, which will not noble gases do not easily form
change the color of the paper. compounds with other elements. The
Statement 2 is correct: Litmus paper noble gases have a full valence
is made from natural dyes extracted electron outer shell, which
from lichens, specifically Roccella makesthem chemically inert and less
tinctoria and Roccella pygmaea. likely to form compounds with other
These lichens are collected, dried, elements.
and ground into a powder. The Statement 2 is correct: Noble Gasses are
powder is then mixed with an alkali known as the least reactive Chemical
solution, such as ammonia, to extract elements. Noble Gases are nearly
the dye. The dye is then mixed with a inert because their atoms have an
binder, such as gum arabic, and entire valence electron shell. Noble
applied to paper to create litmus gases are less dense thanother gases.
paper. The finished product is a pH Helium is the lightest of the noble
indicator paper that changes color gases and is less dense than the other
based on the acidity or basicity of a noble gases.
solution. Statement 3 is incorrect: Noble gases
Statement 3 is incorrect: Litmus paper has a are insoluble in water and most other
limitation of not showing the liquids, which makes themuseful in
accurate pH value of given solution. applications where gases need to be
Litmus paper only shows whether a separated from liquids. Be cause they
material is acidic or basic, while pH do not dissolve in liquids, they can be
strips specify the pHvalue (alkaline). easily separated from liquids by
simply allowing the liquid to settle, or
10. With reference to ‘Noble gases’, consider by using a separatory funnel. This
the following statements: property makes them useful in
1. They do not easily form compounds applications such as gas
with other elements. chromatography, where they are
2. They are less dense than most of the used as the carrier gas to separate
other gases. different components of a mixture.
3. They are easily soluble in water and Statement 4 is incorrect: All the
other liquids. Noble Gasses conduct electricity and
4. They cannot conduct electricity and fluorescence which can be needed in
fluorescence. many conditions to maintain a
Which of the statements given above is/are constant and safe environment.
correct? Noble gases have high
a) 1 and 2 only thermalconductivity, which makes
b) 2 only them useful in applications where
c) 1, 2 and 4 only

heat needs to be transferred quickly 2. Most non-metals do not react with
and efficiently. water under normal conditions.
3. All the existing non-metals do not
11. A stone attached to a spring balance will be react with acid.
observed as “weightless” when 4. Non-metals react with base to form
1. The spring balance is kept in a salt and water.
satellite revolving around earth. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The spring balance is falling freely. correct?
3. The spring balance is taken at a) 1 and 3 only
Tropopause. b) 2 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the codes c) 4 only
below. d) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 and 2 only Answer: b
b) 2 and 3 only Explanation: Option b is the correct answer.
c) 1 and 3 only Statement 1 is incorrect: Some non-
d) 2 only metals, such as sulfur and
Answer: a) phosphorus, can react with oxygen to
Explanation: Weightlessness may be form acidic oxides, which means that
defined as the state in which a body these oxides will have acidic
loses its weight due to free fall.If a properties when dissolved in water.
stone piece is suspended from a However, not all non-metals that
spring balance suspended by a hand react with oxygen form acidic oxides.
finger, the balance shows the actual Some non-metals such as carbon and
weight of the stone. nitrogen, when they react with
When the balance is released from oxygen, form neutral oxides such as
hand finger, the balance falls freely CO2 and NO2 respectively, which do
with the hanging stone piece. The not have acidic properties when
balance shows a zero reading. So, 2 is dissolved in water.
correct. Statement 2 is correct: Most non-
A satellite is also a freely falling body metals do not react with water under
orbiting round the earth. It tiles to normal conditions, and when they
reach the earth but its path being do, they typically form acidic oxides.
parallel to earth’s surface. It does not An example of this is the reaction of
reach the earth. Hence the satellite sulfur dioxide (SO2) and water, which
and all the bodies inside it become forms sulfuric acid (H2SO4), an acidic
weightless. So, 1 is correct. oxide.
It is due to this situation of Statement 3 is incorrect: While some
weightlessness of astronauts that non-metals, such as carbon and
experience floating in spaceship. nitrogen, do not react with acids
under normal conditions, other non-
12 With reference to ‘Non-Metals’, consider the metals such as sulfur, phosphorus
following statements: and chlorine can react with acidsto
1. The reaction of non-metals with form various compounds. For
oxygen gives only acidic oxides. example, sulfur can react with

hydrochloric acid (HCl) to form sulfur and carbon-13 are isotopes of carbon
dioxide (SO2) and hydrogen chloride because they have the same number
(HCl), and phosphorus can react with of protons (6) but different numbers
hydrochloric acid to form phosphoric of neutrons (6 and 7, respectively).
acid (H3PO4) and hydrogen chloride. Statement 2 is incorrect: Isobars are
Statement 4 is correct: Non-metals atoms of different elements that
react with base to form Salt and the have the same atomic mass.
water. It does not form Thismeans they have different
hydrogenafter reaction. This is known numbers of protons and neutrons,
as neutralization reaction, in which but their tota l mass is the same. For
an acid and a base react to form example, chlorine-35 and sulfur-35
water and a salt. For example, carbon are isobars because they have
dioxide (CO2) can react with sodium different numbers of protons (17 and
hydroxide (NaOH) to form sodium 16,respectively) and neutrons (18
carbonate (Na2CO3) and water and 19, respectively), but their
(H2O), sulfur dioxide (SO2) can react atomic masses are 35.
with calcium hydroxide (Ca (OH)2) to Statement 3 is correct: Isotopes can
form calcium sulfite (CaSO3) and be used to study plant growth and
water (H2O). soil fertility. Isotopes are used in soil
fertility research is through isotopic
13. With respect to Isotopes and Isobars, analysis. Isotopes can also be used in
consider the following statements: the study of irrigation water,to
1. Isotopes of an element have different understand the origin of the water
numbers of protons and neutrons in and how it affects the soil and plant
nucleus. growth. Additionally, isotopes can be
2. Isobars are atoms of different used to study the effects of different
elements that have the same atomic types of fertilizers on plant growth,
number, but different atomic mass. and to understand the mechanisms
3. Isotopes can be used to study the of nutrient uptake by plants.
effects of different types of fertilizers
on plant growth. 14. With reference to different acids present in
Which of the statements given above is/are food, consider the following pairs:
correct? Food Source Acids
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 1. Milk - Lactic Acid
c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only 2. Amla - Oxalic Acid
Answer: c 3. Grapes - Tartaric Acid
Explanation: Option c is the correct answer. 4. Spinach - Ascorbic acid
Statement 1 is incorrect: Isotopes are Which of the pairs given above are correctly
atoms of the same element that have matched?
the same number of protonsin their a) 1 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only
nucleus, but a different number of c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 2 and 4 only
neutrons. This means they have the Answer: c
same atomic number, buta different Explanation: Option c is the correct answer.
atomic mass. For example, carbon-12

Pair 1 is correctly matched: Milk 2. Design Linked Incentive Scheme has
contains lactic acid. Lactic acid is an been launched under this mission.
organic acid that is naturally 3. It aims to make India a global hub for
produced in the body during the electronics manufacturing and
fermentation of carbohydrates by design.
lactic acid bacteria. It is also found in Which of the statements given above is/are
a variety of fermented foods, correct?
including milk and other dairy a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
products. c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Oxalic Answer: d
acid is a naturally occurring organic Explanation: Option d is the correct answer.
acid found in many plants, including Statement 1 is correct: The India
fruits and vegetables such as Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was
rhubarb, spinach, beet greens, and launched in 2021 with a total
chard. It is also found in some nuts, financial outlay of Rs 76, 000 crore
such as almonds and peanuts, and in under the aegis of the Ministry of
some seeds, such as sesame and Electronics and IT (MeitY). It is part of
poppy seeds. Oxalic acid is a the comprehensive program for the
colourless crystal or white powder development of sustainable
that is soluble in water and has a semiconductor and display
sharp, acidic taste. Amla is rich in ecosystem in the country. The
citric acid. programme aims to provide financial
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Tartaric support to companies investing in
acid is present in the juices of various semiconductors, display
fruits, particularly in tamarinds manufacturing and design ecosystem.
,unripe grapes, Pineapples, Potatoes, Statement 2 is correct: Design Linked
Carrots and is one of the main acids Incentive (DLI) scheme is one of the
in wine. Tartaric acid is anextremely four schemes that has been
versatile acid and it is utilized in a introduced under India
wide range of industries. Malic acid is Semiconductor Mission. The scheme
also found in the Grapes. offers financial incentives,
Pair 4 is correctly matched: Spinach designinfrastructure support across
contains several acids, including various stages of development and
oxalic acid and ascorbic acid (vitamin deployment of semiconductor design
C), which can be harmful in large for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets,
amounts. However, it does not System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP
contain other acids like citric acid, Cores and semiconductor linked
acetic acid, lactic acid, or malic acid. design.
Statement 3 is correct: The vision of
15. Consider the following statements with India Semiconductor Mission is to
respect to the India Semiconductor Mission: build a vibrant semiconductor and
1. It provides fiscal support for the display design and innovation
development of semiconductor ecosystem to enable India’s
manufacturing facilities in India.

emergence as a global hub for action of the pores in the blotting
electronicsmanufacturing and design. paper. The blotting paper is a thin
and smooth paper which grants an
16. Consider the following statements: infant thicker liquid like ink to absorb,
If there were no phenomenon of capillarity so it involves capillary action. That is
1. It would be difficult to use a kerosene required for liquids flow that means
lamp to dissolve things.
2. One would not be able to use a straw Statement 4 is correct. Capillary
to consume a soft drink action and root pressure can support
3. The blotting paper would fail to a column of water some two to three
function meters high. The water poured into
4. The big trees that we see around the grassland rises in the
would not have grown on the Earth uncountable capillaries formed in the
Which of the statements given above are stems (Xylem) of plants and trees and
correct? reaches the leaves.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only 17. Which of the following phenomenon is
c) 2 and 4 only observed due to Doppler Effect?
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Fluctuations in the pitch of a siren
Explanation: Option b is the correct answer. based on its movement
Statement 1 is correct. The oil in the 2. Redshift or blueshift
wick of a lamp rises due to the 3. Fission processes in Nuclear Reactors
capillary action of threads in the wick. Select the correct answer using the codes
Since the adhesive force between the below.
cloth and kerosene is more compared a) 1 and 2 only
to cohesive force therefore when a b) 3 only
cloth is dipped in the kerosene oil, it c) 2 and 3 only
rises in the cloth due to the capillary d) 1, 2 and 3 only
effect which makes it difficult to use Answer: a)
a kerosene lamp. Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect. The The Doppler Effect (or Doppler shift)
tendency of a liquid in a capillary is the change in frequency of a wave
tube or absorbent material to rise or (or other periodic event) for an
fall as a result of surface tension. observer moving relative to its
When a person suck through a straw, source.
the pressure inside the straw For e.g. it causes a car engine or siren
decreases and due to the pressure to sound higher in pitch when it is
difference the soft drink rises from approaching than when it is receding.
the straw. Hence, no capillarity action Redshift and blueshift describe how
in using a straw to consume the soft light shifts toward shorter or longer
drink as we applied additional wavelengths as objects in space (such
pressure from the mouth. as stars or galaxies) move closer or
Statement 3 is correct. A blotting farther away from us. The concept is
paper soaks ink by the capillary

key to charting the universe's be unable to propel yourself forward
expansion. by running.
The Doppler Effect for Statement 2 is correct: Sliding friction
electromagnetic waves such as light between pen and paper enables us to
is of great use in astronomy and write on the paper. The pencil "lead"
results in either a so-called redshift or slides easily over the paper, but
blueshift. It has been used to there's just enough friction between
measure the speed at which stars and the pencil and paper to leave amark.
galaxies are approaching or receding Statement 3 is correct: When one
from us; that is, their radial velocities. body rolls over the surface of another
S3 is irrelevant to Doppler effect. body, the resistance to its motion is
called rolling friction. Rolling reduces
18) With respect to the Friction, consider the friction. It is always easier to roll than
following statements: to slide a body over another. That is
1. The force of friction allows us to the reason it is convenient to pull
accelerate forward when we run on luggage fitted with rollers. In many
the ground. machines, friction is reducedby using
2. Friction between pen and paper ball bearings. Also, Friction can be
enables us to write on the paper. reduced by using lubricants.
3. The force of friction can be reduced
in machines by using ball bearings. 19) Which of the following are the potential
Which of the statements given above are applications of Ultrasound Waves?
correct? 1. To detect flaws and cracks in metal blocks.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only 2. To diagnose heart conditions.
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 3. To break the stones formed in the kidney.
Answer: d 4. To measure the distance, direction
Explanation: Option d is the correct and speed of underwater objects.
answer. Select the correct answer using the code
Statement 1 is correct: The force of given below:
static friction (Fs) is a force between a) 1 and 4 only
two surfaces that prevents those b) 1, 2 and 4 only
surfaces from sliding or slipping c) 2 and 3 only
across each other. This is the same d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
force that allows you to accelerate
forward when you run. Our foot can Answer: d
grip the ground during running and Explanation: Option d is the correct answer.
push backward, whichcauses the Option 1 is correct: Ultrasounds can
ground to push forward on foot. be used to detect cracks and flaws in
Here, both the surfaces are metal blocks. Metallic components
prevented from slipping acrosseach are generally used in construction
other, a static frictional force. If there sectors. The cracks or holes inside the
were absolutely no friction between metal blocks are invisible from
your feet and the ground,you would outside thus ultrasonic waves are
allowed to pass through the metal

block and if there is even a small Select the correct answer using the code
defect, the waves get reflected back given below:
indicating the presence of the flaw or a) 1 and 2 only b) 2,4 and 5 only
defect. c) 2,3,4 and 5 only d) 1,2,4 and 5 only
Option 2 is correct: Ultrasonic waves Answer: b
are made to reflect from various Explanation: Option b is the correct answer.
parts of the heart and form the image Option 1 is incorrect: Sound moves
of the heart. This technique is called faster in warm air than the cold air.
echocardiography, a type of medical The speed of sound in a medium
imaging of the heart,using standard depends on the temperature of the
ultrasound. It can be useful in medium. Higher the temperature,
diagnosing heart conditions. faster the speed of sound.
Option 3 is correct: Ultrasound may Option 2 is correct: Sound travels
be employed to break small stones faster in solids than gases. The speed
formed in the kidneys. into fine of sound depends on the density of
grains. These grains later get flushed the medium. Higher the density,
out with urine. faster the sound travels. The velocity
Option 4 is correct: SOund Navigation of sound decreases as it movesfrom
And Ranging (SONAR) is a device that solid to gaseous state.
uses ultrasonic waves to measure the Option 3 is incorrect: Sound travels
distance, direction and speed of faster in humid air than dry air as
underwater objects. Sonar consists of particles are packed more densely in
a transmitter and a detector and is humid air than the dry air. Humid air
installed in a ship. The transmitter has more water vapour and less air in
produces and transmits ultrasonic comparison to dry air.
waves. The distance of the object Option 4 is correct: Sound travels
that reflected the sound wave can be farther in cold weather than in hot
calculated by knowing the speed of weather. It is because sound moves
sound in waterand the time interval faster in warm air than colder air,
between transmission and reception which leads to wave bending away
of the ultrasound from the warm air and back towards
the ground. This stops the wave.
20. Which of the following statements are That's why sound is able to travel
correct with respect to Sound? farther in chilly weather.
1. Sound travels faster in cold air than Option 5 is correct: Hitting the source
warm air with greater force produces a louder
2. Sound travels faster in solid medium sound. The loudness or softness of a
than the gaseous medium. sound is determined basically by its
3. Sound travels faster in dry air than in amplitude. The amplitude of the
humid air. sound wave dependsupon the force
4. Sound travels farther in cold weather with which an object is made to
than in hot weather. vibrate. Higher the amplitude louder
5. Hitting the source with greater force the voice.
produces a louder sound.

21. Consider the following pairs Geo-spatial technology refers to the
Navigation System Developed/Owned use of technology to collect, analyze,
by and visualize data that is related to a
1. GALILEO- European Union specific location. This can include
2. GLONASS- Russia data such as maps, satellite imagery,
3. QUASI-ZENITH- South Korea and geographic information systems
Which of the pairs given above is/are (GIS) data. The technology is used in
matched correctly? a wide range of fields, including
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only urban planning, environmental
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only management, military operations,
Answer: C and natural resource management.
Explanation: GLONASS is an acronym, which Some examples of geo-spatial
stands for Globalnaya Navigazionnaya technologies include:
Sputnikovaya Sistema, or Global Navigation Option 1 is correct: Geo-spatial
Satellite System. GLONASS is Russia’s version technology can be used to track the
of GPS (Global Positioning System). location and movement of goods, as
List of Global Navigation Satellite Systems: well as to monitor and analyze data
• GPS of the United States of America. related to the quality of the goods,
• Galileo of the European Union. such as temperature or humidity
• IRNSS or NAVIC of India. data. GPS devices can be attached to
• Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS) of vehicles or cargo to track their
Japan location in real-time. This information
can be used by logistics companies,
22) Consider the following activities: manufacturers and retailers to
1. Tracking the location of goods optimize routes, reduce costs, and
2. Analyzing the distribution of mineral improve supply chain efficiency. GIS
resources can be used to create maps and
3. Referring weather forecasts to visualizations that show the location
particular territories and movement of goods, as well as to
4. Assessing vegetation on a selected analyze data related to the quality of
terrain the goods.
5. Managing personal finances of an Option 2 is correct: Geo-spatial
individual technology, specifically GIS and
At the present level of technology available, remote sensing, can be used to map
which of the above activities can be and analyze the distribution of
successfully carried out by using Geo-Spatial mineral resources. Remote sensing
technology? technologies such as satellite imagery
a) 1, 2 and 5 only and aerial photography can be used
b) 2 and 4 only to detect and map the surface
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only expression of mineral deposits and to
d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only identify areas of mineralization. GIS
Ans) c can then be used to analyze and
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. visualize the data, creating maps that

show the distribution and Which of the statements given above is/are
characteristics of mineral resources. correct?
Option 3 is correct: Geo-spatial (a) 1 and 2 only
technology can be used to visualize (b) 2 and 3 only
and analyze weather data, such as (c) 3 only
through the use of GIS or by (d) 1, 2 and 3
overlaying weather forecasts onto Answer: B
maps. GIS allows users to overlay Neutrinos are tiny particles, almost massless,
weather forecasts, radar images and that travel at near light speeds. They
other weather data onto maps. This are born from violent astrophysical
can be used to create visualizations events like exploding stars, nuclear
that show current weather conditions fusion in the sun and gamma ray
and forecasted weather patterns, bursts. Hence statement 1 is
such as temperature, precipitation, incorrect.
wind speed and direction. Neutrinos are one of the most abundant
Option 4 is correct: Geo-spatial particles in the world, after photons
technology can be used to assess the and can move easily through matter.
state of vegetation on a selected The core of the Sun is an important
terrain, such as through the use of source of neutrinos. Hence statement
remote sensing or GIS. Remote 2 is correct.
sensing technologies such as satellite INO project primarily aims to study
imagery, aerial photography, and atmospheric neutrinos in a 1,300-m
LiDAR can be used to map and deep cavern in the Bodi West Hills in
monitor vegetation cover and Theni district, Tamil Nadu. Hence
structure, such as tree height, canopy Statement 3 is correct.
cover, and leaf area. This information
can be used to monitor changes in 24) With reference to ‘Additive Manufacturing’,
vegetation cover and structure over consider the following statements:
time, such as in response to land use 1. It is a process of creating a physical
change, natural disturbances, or object by cutting away material from
climate change. a solid piece of material.
Option 5 is incorrect: Geo-spatial 2. It requires the creation of a virtual
technology is not typically used for design of the object using a 3D
personal finance, as it is not directly modelling program.
related to managing one's finances. 3. Compared to the traditional
manufacturing processes, additive
23. Consider the following statements manufacturing reduces material
1. Neutrinos are tiny particles travel at waste during the manufacturing
more than speed of the light. processes.
2. Neutrinos are one of the most Which of the statements given above is/are
abundant particles in the world. correct?
3. Indian Neutrino Particle observatory a) 1 only
is about to set up in Bodi West Hills b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 internal structures, which is used to
Ans) c guide the additive manufacturing
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. process.
The Ministry of Electronics & Statement 3 is correct: In traditional
Information Technology has released manufacturing methods such as
a “National Strategy on Additive subtractive machining, a large
Manufacturing”. It aims to position amount of material is cut away or
India as a global hub for Additive removed to create the desired shape
Manufacturing development and of the object. This results in a
deployment. significant amount of material waste.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Additive In contrast, additive manufacturing
manufacturing, also known as 3D builds up the object layer by layer,
printing, is a process of creating a using only the material that is needed
physical object by laying down to create the final shape. This process
successive layers of material. The results in minimal material waste, as
object is built up layer by layer, only the necessary amount of
rather than being cut away from a material is used.
piece of solid material as in
traditional manufacturing methods. 25) Consider the following technological
3D printer is controlled by a innovations:
computer, which receives the 1. A self-driving car making decisions
instructions from the CAD software about when to brake, accelerate, and
and controls the build process. The change lanes.
computer ensures that the printer 2. A pacemaker automatically adjusting
accurately builds the object layer by the pace of the heart to bring it back
layer, adding material until the object to the desired rate.
is complete. 3. A drone using a combination of GPS,
Subtractive manufacturing, also cameras and lidar to navigate.
known as traditional machining, is a Which of the above technological
process of creating a physical object innovations are the correct applications of
by cutting away material from a solid ‘Cyber-Physical systems?
piece of material. a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 2 is correct: Under b) 2 and 3 only
additive manufacturing technology, a c) 1 and 3 only
virtual design of the object is created d) 1, 2 and 3
using a 3D modeling program based Ans) d
on Computer Aided Design (CAD). Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The CAD software is used to create a Option 1 is correct: A self-driving car making
digital 3D model of the object, which decisions about when to brake,
can then be converted into a physical accelerate, and change lanes is a
object using an additive correct example of a Cyber-Physical
manufacturing process. The digital 3D system. It uses computational models
model contains detailed information and sensors to interact with the
about the object's shape, size, and physical world in a meaningful way,

making decisions about the car's 3. Neutrinos require vacuum-like
movement based on the data it condition so that they can be
receives from its sensors. effectively detected.
Option 2 is correct: A pacemaker Select the correct answer using the codes
automatically adjusting the pace of given below:
the heart to bring it back to the a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
desired rate is also a correct example c) 1 and 3 only d) 3 only
of a Cyber-Physical system. It uses Ans) a
computational models and sensors to Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
monitor the heart rate and adjust the Statement 1 is correct: The India-
pace accordingly. based Neutrino Observatory (INO)
Option 3 is correct: A drone using a needs to be underground in order to
combination of GPS, cameras, and reduce background noise and
lidar to navigate, while also following increase the sensitivity of the
a pre-defined flight path is a correct detector. Neutrinos are subatomic
example of a Cyber-Physical system. particles that are difficult to detect
The drone uses computational because they interact very weakly
models and sensors to interact with with matter.
the physical world, making decisions Building the detector underground
about its movement based on the helps to reduce the background noise
data it receives from its sensors. It from other particles that are present
uses sensor data like GPS and lidar to in the atmosphere. The rock burden
detect its position, cameras to detect of over 1 km in all directions shields
obstacles and computational models the detector from other cosmic rays.
to plan its path, its control system Since neutrinos can easily pass
uses the sensor data and the through anything, they will reach the
computed path to control the detector while the other particles will
movement of the drone and make be filtered out by the rock in the
adjustments as needed. mountain.
Thys, by placing the detector
26) “India based Neutrino observatory (INO)” is underground, scientists can
proposed to be built in a deep underground effectively shield it from the
cave in the Bodi West Hills of Tamil Nadu. unwanted particles and increase the
Which of the following is/are the correct sensitivity of the detector.
reasons for building the observatory Statement 2 is incorrect: The
underground? underground observatory does not
1. It helps to reduce the background preserve the physical properties of
noise from other particles that are neutrinos as they are not affected by
present in the atmosphere. atmospheric matter. Neutrinos are
2. The underground observatory subatomic particles that interact very
preserves the physical properties of weakly with matter, so they can pass
neutrinos as they are affected by through large amounts of rock and
atmospheric matter. soil without interacting.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Neutrinos do not polarimetric measurements of Earth
require vacuum-like conditions to from the lunar orbit.
react with other atoms and it can be Statement 2 is correct: The GSLV Mk-III will
detected in underground as well as in carry Chandraayan 3 to its designated
the atmosphere. However, orbit. This three-stage vehicle is
underground detectors are more India's most powerful launcher to
advantageous for neutrino detection date, and is capable of launching 4-
than atmospheric detectors because ton class of satellites to the
the underground location helps to Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit
reduce the background noise from (GTO).
other particles and to shield the Statement 3 is incorrect: Notably, the
detector from cosmic rays. Chandrayaan-3 mission will only be
carrying a Lunar lander and rover,
27) With reference to the Chandrayaan-3 unlike its predecessor which carried
mission, consider the following statements: an orbiter, lander and rover. It will
1. It is a follow-on mission to communicate to the earth with help
Chandrayaan-2 to demonstrate of orbiter of Chandraayan 2.
India’s capability of soft landing. Statement 4 is incorrect: Chandrayaan-3 is an
2. GSLV MkIII will be the launching indigenous mission. Whereas India
vehicle for Chandrayaan-3. and Japan are collaborating to launch
3. It comprises of Orbiter, Lander and a joint Lunar Polar Exploration
Rover to explore the unexplored Mission around 2024 25.
South Pole of the Moon.
4. It is a joint collaboration mission of 28) Which of the following is/are cited by the
India and Japan. scientists as evidence/evidences for the
Which of the statements given above are continued expansion of universe?
correct? 1. Detection of microwaves in space
a) 1 and 2 only 2. Observation of redshift phenomenon
b) 2 and 4 only in space
c) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. Movement of asteroids in space
d) 3 and 4 only 4. Occurrence of supernova explosions
Ans) a in space
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Chandrayaan-3 is a Select the correct answer using the codes
follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2 given below:
to demonstrate India’s capability of a) 1 and 2 only
soft landing. It will be launched by b) 2 only
GSLV MkIII from SrihariKota. The c) 1, 3 and 4
propulsion module will carry the d) None of the above can be cited as
lander and rover configuration till evidence.
100km lunar orbit. The propulsion Ans) a
module has Spectro-polarimetry of Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
HAbitable Planet Earth (SHAPE) Statement 1 is correct: The cosmic
payload to study the spectral and microwave background (CMB) is

thought to be leftover radiation from 3. Vikram-S, a suborbital launch vehicle,
the Big Bang, or the time when the has been launched under this
universe began.So, the detection of mission.
microwaves in space is and evidence Choose the correct answer using the code
for the continued expansion of given below:
universe. According to Big Bang a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
theory, when the universe was born c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
it underwent a rapid inflation and Ans) c
expansion, and continues to expand Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
even today. Heralding a new age in India’s space
Statement 2 is correct: A redshift sector, the Indian National Space
reveals how an object in space Promotion and Authorization Center
(star/planet/galaxy) is moving (IN-SPACe), Department of Space
compared to us. It lets astronomers (DOS), recently authorized the first
measure a distance for the most private sector launch of a Launch
distant (and therefore oldest) objects Vehicle by Skyroot Aerospace – a
in our universe. Studying light from Hyderabad based space start-up. This
galaxies throughout our universe, will enable the first-ever launch of a
astronomers have noticed something privately designed and built rocket
surprising: almost all of it is from India. The mission carried three
redshifted. In fact, not only is it customer payloads.
redshifted, galaxies that are farther Statement 1 is correct: Under Mission
away are more redshifted than closer Prarambh, the launch of Vikram-S, a
ones. So, it seems that not only are suborbital launch vehicle from M/s
all the galaxies in the universe Skyroot Aerospace Pvt. Ltd.,
moving away from us, the farther Hyderabad, was accomplished
ones are moving away from us the successfully on November 18, 2022. It
fastest. This is evidence of continued marks the first launch of a launch
expansion of universe. vehicle built by a private company in
Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect: India.
Movement of asteroids in space and Statement 2 is incorrect: The mission
occurrence of supernova explosions was authorized by the Indian
in space code are not evidences of National Space Promotion and
continued expansion of universe. Authorization Center (IN-SPACe), not
Antrix.
29) Which of the following statements about Statement 3 is correct: The Vikram-S
Mission Prarambh is/are correct? rocket is a single-stage sub-orbital
1. It marks the launch of India’s first launch vehicle which would carry
privately developed space launch three customer payloads and help
vehicle. test and validate the majority of the
2. The mission was authorized by Antrix, technologies in the Vikram series of
the commercial and marketing arm of space launch vehicles has been
the Indian Space Research launched under this mission
Organization.

30) Which of the following processes involves given plant to radiation, such as
the application of nuclear technology? gamma rays, to cause mutations. The
1. Food Irradiation to increase shelf life. irradiated material is then cultivated
2. Sterilization of medical equipment. to generate a plantlet. Plantlets are
3. Plant mutation breeding. selected and multiplied if they show
Select the correct answer using the code desired traits. Countries that have
given below: utilised plant mutation breeding have
a) 2 only frequently realized great socio-
b) 3 only economic benefits. In Bangladesh,
c) 2 and 3 only new varieties of rice produced
d) 1, 2 and 3 through mutation breeding have
Ans) d increased crops three-fold in the last
Exp) Option d is the correct answer few decades.
There are a number of other
beneficial uses for nuclear technology 31) With reference to the Technological
in addition to creating electricity. Achievements of Mars Orbiter Mission
These range from agriculture to (MOM), consider the following statements:
medical, and space exploration to 1. The mission gave an opportunity to
water desalination. classify extra-terrestrial landslides
Statement 1 is correct: Food using machine learning models.
irradiation is the application of 2. It photographed, for the first time,
ionizing radiation to food. It is a the far side of the Mars' moon
technology that improves the safety Deimos.
and extends the shelf life of foods by 3. The mission is credited with the
reducing or eliminating discovery of ‘supra-thermal’ Argon-
microorganisms and insects. Like 40 atoms in the Martian exosphere.
pasteurizing milk and canning fruits 4. The mission captured the seasonal
and vegetables, irradiation can make changes of thickness of Martian polar
food safer for the consumer. ice caps.
Statement 2 is correct: Hospitals use 5. It has helped in understanding of the
gamma radiation to sterilize medical composition of several gases in the
products and supplies such as Martian exosphere.
syringes, gloves, clothing, and Which of the statements given above are
instruments that would otherwise be correct?
damaged by heat sterilization. a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Many medical products today are b) 1, 3, and 4 only
sterilized by gamma rays from a c) 2, 4, and 5 only
cobalt-60 source, a technique which d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
generally is much cheaper and more Ans) d
effective than steam heat Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
sterilization. Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) or
Statement 3 is correct: Plant Mangalyaan is a space probe
mutation breeding is the process of launched by the ISRO in 2013 and has
exposing the seeds or cuttings of a been in the Martian orbit since 2014.

It was launched using a Polar Satellite 2. The Event Horizon is the boundary
Launch Vehicle (PSLV) rocket C25. defining the region of space around a
Statement 1 is correct: The mission black hole from which nothing can
gave an opportunity to classify extra- escape.
terrestrial landslides using machine 3. Within the Event Horizon, the escape
learning models. velocity is less than the speed of light.
Statement 2 is correct: The MOM Which of the statements given above are
spacecraft photographed, for the first correct
time, the far side of Deimos, one of a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
the natural satellites of Mars. c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 3 is correct: The mission is Ans) a
also credited with the discovery of Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
‘supra-thermal’ Argon-40 atoms in Statement 1 is correct: Singularity: It
the Martian exosphere. It gave some is the one-dimensional point or a
clue on one of the potential small ring in the Centre of a black
mechanisms for the escape of hole which contains a huge mass in
atmosphere from Mars. an infinitely small space, where
Statement 4 is correct: The mission density and gravity become infinite
captured the time-variation of the and space-time curves infinitely. It is
Martian polar ice caps, i.e., seasonal a tiny volume with very high density.
changes of thickness of polar ice Statement 2 is correct: The event
caps-spreading during Martian winter horizon: It is the "point of no return"
and shrinking during Martian around the black hole. It is not a
summer. It also measured the physical surface, but a boundary
Martian apparent albedo that defining the region of space around a
indicated the reflecting power of the black hole from which nothing (not
Martian surface. even light) can escape.
Statement 5 is correct: Mars Orbiter Statement 3 is incorrect: Within the
Mission has gifted an understanding event horizon, the escape velocity
of the composition of several gases in (vescape) exceeds the speed of the
the Martian exosphere. It quantified light (c) and an object is trapped
the altitude where the Martian forever if it falls within the region
atmosphere has a transition from the defined by event horizon. Outside the
CO2 rich regime to atomic Oxygen- event horizon, vescape < c and the
rich regime during the local evening. objects are able to escape.
32) With reference to the Singularity and Event 33) With reference to Zinc-Air batteries,
Horizon of a Black hole, consider the consider the following statements:
following statements: 1. Zinc air batteries are usually
1. The Singularity is a location in the rechargeable and can be used
Centre of a black hole which contains multiple times before being disposed.
a huge mass in an infinitely small 2. Continuous supply of oxygen from
space. external sources is necessary to

sustain chemical reactions in these batteries cost $200 to $250 a KWh,
batteries. zinc- air batteries cost around $150
3. These batteries are used in hearing KWh. With wider usage, the price is
aids as these batteries can be expected to come below $100 KWh.
produced in smaller sizes.
4. Zinc Air batteries are usually cheaper 34) With reference to Flex Fuel Vehicles,
than lithium-ion batteries. consider the followings statements:
Which of the statements above are correct? 1. They are capable of running on pure
a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 and 4 only ethanol.
c) 3 and 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Flex Fuel vehicles running on 20%
Ans) c ethanol blended petrol will be
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. completely free of carbon monoxide
Statement 1 is incorrect: Zinc–air emissions.
batteries are non-rechargeable 3. Increased use of Flex Fuel Vehicles
batteries and they are disposable can help to create additional revenue
batteries. They are batteries powered for the farmers.
by oxidising zinc with oxygen from How many of the above statements are
the air. These batteries have high correct?
energy densities and are relatively a) Only one statement
inexpensive to produce. b) Only two statements
Statement 2 is incorrect: Zinc air c) All three statements
batteries do not require supply of d) None of the statements
oxygen from external sources to Ans) b
sustain chemical reactions within it. Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Unlike fuel cells, in these batteries Statement 1 is correct: Flex engines
the chemical energy usually comes are capable of running on 100%
from substances that are already petrol or 100% bio ethanol as well. A
present in the battery. On the other flex fuel, or flexible fuel can run on
hand, fuel cells require a continuous more than one type of fuel or even a
source of fuel and oxygen to sustain mixture of fuels. The most common
the chemical reaction. versions use a blend of petrol and
Statement 3 is correct: Size of the ethanol or methanol.
zinc batteries range from small to Statement 2 is incorrect: Flex Fuel
very large sizes. Small size batteries vehicles running on 20% ethanol
are being used in hearing aids, wrist blended petrol will not eliminate the
watches etc. Mercury batteries which emission of Carbon Monoxide.
are in the shape of buttoned cells However, they reduce the carbon
was used in the hearing aids but due monoxide emissions by 50 per cent in
to some environmental concerns, two-wheelers and 30 per cent lower
now zinc batteries are used in place in four-wheelers compared to petrol.
of mercury batteries. Also, Hydrocarbon emissions will be
Statement 4 is correct: Zinc Air lowered by 20 per cent, compared to
batteries are cheaper than lithium- petrol.
ion batteries. While lithium-ion

Statement 3 is correct: The increased 36. With reference to the ‘India’s three stage
use of Flex Fuel Vehicles will cause a nuclear programme', which of the following
wide uptake of ethanol or methanol statement(s) is/are correct?
as a fuel. It can help to create an 1. Its ultimate objective is the utilization
additional revenue stream for of India’s reserves of uranium-235.
farmers. This will provide direct 2. In the first stage, Pressurized Heavy
benefits to farmers and help in Water Reactors (PHWRs) will be used
doubling the farmer’s income. to produce energy from natural
uranium.
35) With reference to ‘Near Field 3. The second stage involves using the
Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of indigenous Fast Breeder Reactor
the following statements is/are correct? technology.
1. It is a contactless communication Select the correct answer using the codes
technology that uses electromagnetic given below:
radio fields. a) 1 only b) 3 only
2. NFC is designed for use by devices c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only
which can be at a distance of even a Ans) c
metre from each other. Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
3. NFC can use encryption when The Indian nuclear power
sending sensitive information. programme, launched in 1954,
Select the correct answer using the code envisaged a three-stage development
given below. of nuclear power generation from the
a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only country’s uranium and thorium
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 resources.
Ans) c Statement 1 is incorrect. The three-
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. stage nuclear power production
Statement 1 is correct and 2 is program in India had been conceived
incorrect: NFC is the set of protocols with the ultimate objective of
that enable electronic devices to utilizing the country’s vast reserves of
establish radio communication with thorium-232.
each other by bringing them into Statement 2 is correct. In the first
proximity to a distance of typically 10 stage, Pressurized Heavy Water
cm or less (not one metre), an Reactors (PHWRs) will be used to
antenna can be used to extend the produce energy from natural
range to 20 cm. NFC transmits data uranium. PHWRs do not just produce
through electromagnetic radio fields, energy; they also produce fissile
to enable communication between plutonium (Pu)-239.
two devices. Both devices must Statement 3 is correct. The second
contain NFC chips, as transactions stage involves using the indigenous
take place within a very short Fast Breeder Reactor technology
distance. fuelled by plutonium-239 to produce
Statement 3 is correct: NFC often establish a energy and more of plutonium-239.
secure channel and use encryption By the end of the second stage of the
when sending sensitive information. cycle the reactor would have

produced more fissile material than it optics to assist in correcting image
would have consumed, thus earning blur.
the name “Breeder.” TMT will enable scientists to study
The final stage of the cycle would fainter objects far away from us in
involve the use of Pu-239 recovered the Universe, which gives information
from the second stage, in about early stages of evolution of the
combination with thorium-232, to Universe.
produce energy and U-233, another It will give us finer details of not-so-
fissile material using Thermal far-away objects like undiscovered
Breeders. planets and other objects in the Solar
This production of U-233 from System and planets around other
thorium-232 would complete the stars.
cycle. U-233 would then be used as
fuel for the remaining part of the fuel 38) For the measurement/estimation of which
cycle. of the following are satellite images/remote
sensing data used?
37. With reference to The Thirty Meter 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation
Telescope (TMT) in news, consider the of a specific location
following statements. 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice
1. It has been designed for near- paddies of a specific location
ultraviolet to mid-infrared 3. Land surface temperatures of a
observations. specific location
2. It is an international project being Select the correct answer using the code
partly funded by India. given below.
3. It will enable scientists to study a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
gravitational waves from massive c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
objects far away. Ans) d
Select the correct answer using the codes Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
below. Statement 1 is correct: It is possible
a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 and 3 only to measure chlorophyll content in the
c) 1 and 2 only d) 3 only vegetation of a specific location as
Answer: c) chlorophyll will reflect more light in
Explanation: It is a proposed astronomical the green and near infrared spectrum
observatory with an extremely large compared to other wavelengths.
telescope (ELT). It is an international Hence, statement 1 is correct.
project being funded by scientific Statement 2 is correct: Remote
organisations of Canada, China, India, sensing from satellites can also
Japan and USA. deliver information on greenhouse
Planned location: Mauna Kea on the gas (GHGs) soil emissions by
island of Hawaii in the US state of estimating tropospheric, near-surface
Hawaii. CO2 and CH4 concentrations based
The TMT is designed for near- on the measurement of the intensity
ultraviolet to mid-infrared of the reflected sunlight in small
observations, featuring adaptive wavelength bands in the visible and

short-wavelength IR portion of the recovery of spent stages of rocket,
spectrum. So, greenhouse gas for landing payloads on to Mars or
emissions from rice paddies of a Venus and in making space habitat
specific location can also be for human space flight missions.
estimated by satellite image/remote
sensing data. 40. Regarding the Bose-Einstein Condensate
Statement 3 is correct: With the (BEC), consider the following statements:
development of remote sensing from 1. At Bose-Einstein Condensate, each
space, satellite data offers the atom behaves as a separate
possibility for measuring land surface individual entity.
temperature over the entire globe 2. BECs can be easily studied on Earth,
with sufficiently high temporal but not in outer space.
resolution and with complete 3. Recently, scientists have observed
spatially averaged rather than point BEC for the first time in space.
values Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
39) Which of the following can be the a) 2 and 3 only
applications of ISRO’s Inflatable b) 1 and 3 only
Aerodynamic Decelerator (IAD)? c) 3 only
1. Recovery of spent stages of a rocket. d) 1, 2 and 3
2. For landing payloads on to Mars or Ans) c
Venus. Exp) Option c is correct.
3. Making space habitat for human Statement 1 is incorrect . Bose-
space flight missions Einstein Condensate (BEC) is the fifth
Select the correct answer using the state of matter whose existence was
codesgiven below: predicted by Albert Einstein and
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only Indian mathematician Satyendra
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Nath Bose in the early 1920s. It is
Ans) d formed when atoms of certain
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. elements are cooled to near absolute
Statement 1 2 and 3 are correct: An zero (0 Kelvin/-273.15 Celsius). At this
Inflatable Aerodynamic Decelerator point, atoms become a single entity
(IAD) designed and developed by with quantum properties wherein
Vikram Sarabhai Space Center has each particle also functions as a wave
been successfully test flown in a of matter.
Rohini sounding rocket from TERLS, Statement 2 is incorrect . BECs are
Thumba. This is first time that an IAD extremely fragile. The slightest
is designed specifically for spent interaction with the external world is
stage recovery. All the objectives of enough to warm them past their
the mission were successfully condensation threshold. This makes
demonstrated. them nearly impossible for scientists
The Inflatable Aerodynamic to study on Earth, where gravity
Decelerator has huge potential in interferes with the magnetic fields
variety of space applications like

required to hold them in place for used by spacecraft as "parking spots"
observation. to reduce fuel consumption needed
Statement 3 is correct. Recently, Scientists at to remain in position. So, Statements
NASA have observed Bose-Einstein 1 and 2 are correct.
Condensate (BEC) for the first time in The James Webb Space Telescope
space offering unprecedented insight will not be in orbit around the Earth,
that could help solve some of the like the Hubble Space Telescope is - it
quantum universe's most intractable will actually orbit the Sun, 1.5 million
conundrums. kilometers (1 million miles) away
from the Earth at what is called the
41) Consider the following statements with second Lagrange point or L2 and not
respect to Lagrange points(L-points) which is in the Lagrange point at L3. L2 is ideal
recently seen in news: for astronomy because a spacecraft is
1. At Lagrange points, the gravitational close enough to readily communicate
pull of two large masses precisely with Earth, can keep Sun, Earth, and
equals the centripetal force required Moon behind the spacecraft for solar
for a small object to move with them. power, and (with appropriate
2. Lagrange points in space can be used shielding) provides a clear view of
by spacecraft to reduce fuel deep space for our telescopes. So,
consumption. Statement 3 is not correct.
3. The James Webb space telescope
(JWST) will orbit the sun, a million 42) Consider the following statements with
miles away from Earth at the third reference to Quantum computing:
Lagrange point. 1. Superposition means that each bit
Which of the statements given above are can represent both a ‘1’ and a ‘0’ at
correct? the same time.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Quantum entanglement is the
(b) 2 and 3 only physical phenomenon that occurs
(c) 1 and 3 only when a pair or group of particles is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 generated and they interact in such a
ANS: A way that the quantum state of each.
EXPLANATION: particle of the pair or group cannot
A Lagrangian point is a position or be described independently of the
location in space where the state of the others.
combined gravitational forces of two 3. Quantum supremacy can only be
large masses (two large bodies here achieved by quantum computers.
may be the Earth and Sun or the Which of the above statements are correct?
Earth and Moon produce enhanced a) 1 and 2 only
regions of attraction and repulsion) b) 2 and 3 only
precisely are equal to the centripetal c) 1 and 3 only
force that is felt by d) 1, 2 and 3
a third body which is relatively Answer: b
required for a smaller object to move Explanation: option b is correct
with them. And these points can be

Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 1 is correct. 3D printing or
Superposition relates to qubits additive manufacturing uses
(quantum bits) and not bits. computer-aided designing to make
Superposition means that each qubit prototypes or working models of
can represent both a ‘1’ and a ‘0’ at objects by laying down successive
the same time whereas a bit can only layers of materials such as plastic,
represent either 0 or 1 at a particular resin, thermoplastic, metal, fiber or
time and instance. ceramic. With the help of software,
Statement 2 is correct. Quantum the model to be printed is first
entanglement is the physical developed by the computer, which
phenomenon that occurs when a pair then gives instructions to the 3D
or group of particles is generated and printer.
interacts, in a way such that the 3D food printing is the process of
quantum state of each particle of the manufacturing food products using a
pair or group cannot be described variety of additive manufacturing
independently of the state of the techniques. It can be used to prepare
others. confectionary items like chocolates.
Statement 3 is correct. Quantum Statements 2 and 4 are correct. The
supremacy refers to quantum flexibility of 3D printing allows
computers being able to solve a designers to make changes easily
problem that a classical computer without the need to set up additional
cannot. The basic advantage of equipment or tools. It enables
quantum computers is speed as it is manufacturers to create medical
able to simulate several classical devices matched to a patient’s
computers working in parallel. anatomy (patient-specific devices) or
Recently, google claimed its devices with very complex internal
supercomputer Sycamore has structures.
achieved quantum supremacy. These capabilities have sparked huge
interest in 3D printing of medical
43) "3D printing" has applications in which of devices and other products,including
the following? food, household items, and
1. Preparation of confectionery items automotive parts. 3D printing can be
2. Manufacture of bionic ears used to manufacture artificial parts
3. Automotive industry like bionic ears and model organs
4. Reconstructive surgeries which can be used in reconstructive
5. Data processing technologies surgeries. Medical devices produced
Select the correct answer using the code by 3D printing include orthopedic and
given below: cranial implants, surgical
a) 1, 3 and 4 only instruments, dental restorations such
b) 2, 3 and 5 only as crowns, and external prosthetics.
c) 1 and 4 only Statement 3 is correct. 3D-printing
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 has application in automotive
Answer: d industry, auto and ancillary auto and
Explanation: Option d is correct. motor spare part business, such as

engines, interior and exterior parts of To provide digital content to visitors
luxury vehicles, or landing efficiently and securely, regardless of
gear,complex brackets, and turbine where they are in the world orwhat
blades. device they use. So, Statement 1 is
Statement 5 is correct. Data correct.
Visualization tools such as datasets, A CDN's primary purpose is to
graphs, charts, or blueprints are used improve web speed by reducing the
in almost every field in order to time it takes to deliver content and
better understand aspects like richmedia to users. CDN does not
products and company growth. While host content and can’t replace the
these tools are extremely useful, with need for proper web hosting; it
the help of 3D printing, companies doeshelp cache content at the
can bring their charts or drawings to network edge, which improves
life. website performance. So, Statement
The type of in-depth analysis that 3D 2 is not correct.
printing can create allows for better CDNs should protect content
pattern recognition, deeper providers and users by mitigating
information absorption, higher many attacks without malicious
realistic representation of products, entities ever compromising delivery
and additional product viewpoints. and availability. CDNs can handle
more traffic and avoid network
44) Consider the following statements with failures better than the origin server,
reference to the Content Delivery Network increasing contentavailability.
(CDN) : Examples of CDNs are:
1. It delivers content from the website An e-commerce organization uses
to users in different geographies one to deliver content at busy times
2. CDN can host content and will of the year when traffic spikesare
replace the need for proper web likely. So, Statement 3 is correct.
hosting
3. It helps to protect an organization 45) Consider the following statements about
against traffic spikes Biomolecules :
Which of the statements given above are 1. Carbohydrates are linear chains
correct ? connected by peptide bonds
(a) 1 and 2 only (b)1 and 3 only 2. Insulin in human body is a fibrous
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 protein
Ans: b 3. Triglycerides is a type of fat found in
EXPLANATION: butter
A CDN (Content Delivery Network), Select the correct answer using the code
also known as a content distribution given below :
network, is a network of servers that (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
are geographically distributed and (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
interconnected. They provide cached Ans: c
internet content from a network EXPLANATION:
location near a user's location.

Carbohydrates are monosaccharides a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
linked into polysaccharide chains by a c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
type of covalent bond known as a Solution: b)
glycosidic bond. So, Statement 1 is Justification: S1 and S2: Nanoparticles can
not correct. include carbon, like fullerenes, as
Fibrous proteins are polypeptide well as nanometer-scale versions of
chains that run parallel and are held many other elements, such as gold,
together by hydrogen and disulphide silicon, and titanium. Quantum dots,
bonds; a fiber-like structure is a type of nanoparticle, are
formed. Such proteins are generally semiconductors made of different
insoluble in water. elements, including cadmium and
Keratin (present in hair, wool, silk), sulfur. Quantum dots have unusual
myosin (present in muscles), etc., are fluorescent capabilities.
fibrous proteins. Scientists and engineers have
Insulins are Globular proteins where experimented with using quantum
the chain of polypeptides coil around dots in everything from photovoltaic
and give a spherical shape. These are cells (used for solar power) to fabric
usually soluble in water. So, dye.
Statement 2 is not correct Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made
Triglycerides are also called neutral nanoscale crystals that that can
fats. They are essential for providing transport electrons. When UV light
energy to the body and a vehicle of hits these semiconducting
energy storage, primarily in adipose nanoparticles, they can emit light of
tissue. They are mainly found in the various colors. These artificial
vegetable oils, such as corn (maize), semiconductor nanoparticles that
olive, palm, and sunflower, and have found applications in
animal fats, such as tallow, lard and composites, solar cells and
butter So, Statement 3 is correct. fluorescent biological labels.
S3: The properties of nanoparticles
46) With respect to Quantum dots, that have have been important in the study of
found use in display technologies like nanomedicine. One promising
Quantum Dot Television, solar cells, LEDs development in nanomedicine is the
and lasers, consider the following use of gold nanoparticles to fight
statements. lymphoma, a type of cancer that
1. Quantum dots (QDs) are man-made attacks cholesterol cells.
nanoscale crystals that that can Researchers have developed a
transport electrons. nanoparticle that looks like a
2. When visible light hits QDs, they can cholesterol cell, but with gold at its
emit light of various colours. core. When this nanoparticle
3. QDs can be used as biosensors for attaches to a lymphoma cell, it
ultrasensitive detection of prevents the lymphoma from
biomolecules like acids and enzymes. "feeding" off actual cholesterol cells,
Select the correct answer using the codes starving it to death.
below.

Quantum dots are used intensively in Proton therapy is given with painless
the development of fluorescence and radiation through the skin from a
FRET-based biosensors for machine outside the body. It may
ultrasensitive detection of allow for a higher radiation dose to
biomolecules like: acids, enzymes, the tumor. This increases the chances
sugars, antibodies, and antigens. The that all the tumorcells targeted by
property of quantum dots that make the proton therapy will be destroyed.
them so interesting for biosensing Around 60% less radiation can be
applications is their narrow emission delivered to the healthy tissues
band, which permits multiplexes surrounding the malignant tumor,
detections of DNA strands or lowering the risk of radiation damage
antibodies or toxins in pathogen to these tissues.
detections or gene parts in DNA It is also used for treating children
fingerprinting. because it reduces the chance of
harming healthy, growing tissue.
47) Recently Proton therapy is invented by So, Statement 3 is correct.
researchers. It is a more efficient cancer
treatment in the world. Consider the
following statements related to proton 48) Recently, Indian Farmers Fertilizer
therapy : Cooperative (IFFCO) has developed the
1. Proton therapy uses x-rays to treat world’s first Liquid Nano Urea. What are its
cancer. advantages over conventional Urea?
2. Cyclotron is used for generating high- 1. It is better absorbed by the plant
power energy radiation in proton leaves.
therapy. 2. It has a higher shelf life as compared
3. Proton therapy has less chance of to conventional urea.
damaging other healthy tissue 3. It will significantly reduce water
surrounding malignant tumours. consumption for irrigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. It will help in decreasing the air
correct ? pollution.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only given below:
Ans: b a) 2 and 3 only b) 1 and 4 only
EXPLANATION: c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only
So, Statement 1 is not correct. Ans) c
A machine called a synchrotron or Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
cyclotron speeds up protons. The Statement 1 is correct: Liquid nano
high speed of the protons creates urea is sprayed directly on the leaves
high energy. This energy makes the and gets better absorbed by the
protons travel to the desired depth in plant. Conventional urea fails to have
the body. The protons then give the the desired impact on crops as it is
targeted radiation dose to the tumor. often applied incorrectly on the
So, Statement 2 is correct. plants. This leads to the efficiency of
conventional urea of about 25%,

whereas efficiency of liquid nano eater," which are so small they do
urea to be as high as 85-90%. not even have a single cell but are
Statement 2 is correct: Liquid nano instead just a piece of DNA
urea has higher shelf life as surrounded by a protein coat.
compared to conventional urea. It Thus, they are viruses, not Bacteria.
has a shelf life of a year and farmers So, Statement 1 is not correct.
need not be worried about “caking” After affecting the Bacteria, the
when it encounters the moisture. bacteriophage hijacks the
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no bacterium's cellular machinery to
relation between using liquid nano prevent it from producing bacterial
urea and significant water reduction components and instead forces the
for irrigation use. Liquid nano urea cell to produce viral components. So,
releases nitrogen which is a major Statement 2 is correct.
component of chlorophyll. Bacteriophages can infect and
Statement 4 is correct: The imbalance replicate only in bacterial cells. It
use of conventional urea leads to cannot infect and replicate in human
most of the nitrogen in it is either get cells, but Bacteriophages are an
vaporized or lost as a gas, which important part of the human
results in air pollution. Nano urea is a Microbiome. The reason for the
revolutionary product which will replication in human cells is yet to be
help in solving this problem by found, and research is going on. So,
reducing the use of urea by up to 50 Statement 3 is correct.
percent. Hence, Nano Urea is an eco-
friendly product. 50) Consider the following statements regarding
Quarks :
49) Consider the following statements regarding 1. Quarks are elementary particles
a Bacteriophage : which come up in six flavours such as
1. It is a bacteria that can integrate its up, down, charm, strange, top and
own DNA into DNA of another bottom.
bacteria. 2. The Large Hadron Collider beauty
2. It hijacks the host bacterium's cellular (LHCb) experiment investigates the
machinery to produce the slight difference between the matter
bacteriophage’s own proteins. and antimatter by studying the
3. Bacteriophages cannot infect and "Strange quark" particle.
replicate in human cells. 3. Protons and electrons are elementary
Which of the statements given above is/are particles made up of three different
correct ? quarks.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 correct ?
Ans: c (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
EXPLANATION: (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
A bacteriophage is a type of virus that Ans: b
infects bacteria. The word EXPLANATION:
"bacteriophage" means "bacteria

Quarks are the elementary particles matter in the Universe.Thus, Protons
that are the smallest known building are made up of two different Quarks
blocks of the Universe. The present and electrons are not made up of
standard model has six "flavors" of Quarks.So, Statement 3 is not
quarks. They are up, down, charm, correct.
strange, top and bottom.
So, Statement 1 is correct. 51) Which of the following statements are not
The Large Hadron Collider beauty correct regarding Monoclonal Antibodies
(LHCb) experiment specializes in (mAbs) ?
investigating the slight differences 1. They are man-made proteins that act
between matter and antimatter by like human antibodies in the immune
studying a type of particle called the system.
"beauty quark" or "b quark." It is not 2. Being highly reactive, mAbs currently
by studying the strange quark have limited scope as they cannot
particle. So, Statement 2 is not bind to more than one protein
correct. simultaneously.
Leptons are elementary particles 3. CAR – T cell therapy involves
which carry one unit of electric artificially engineered White Blood
charge or neutral. Therefore, the cells to destroy cancer cells.
charged leptons are the electrons, Select the correct answer using the code
muons and taus. Each of these types given below :
has a negative charge and a distinct (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
mass. Electrons, the lightest leptons, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
have a mass of only 1/1,840 that of a Ans: b
proton. The neutral EXPLANATION:
Leptons are called Neutrino, which The body's immune system attacks
has no electric charge and no any foreign substances by making
significant mass. large numbers of antibodies. An
On Contrast, Protons and Neutrons antibody is a protein that sticks to a
are made up of two kinds of quarks, specific protein called an antigen.
up and down quarks. Antibodies circulate throughout the
A quark is an elementary particle and body until they find and attach to the
a fundamental constituent of matter. antigen. Once attached, they can
Protons are composed of two up force other parts of the
quarks and a down quark, while immune system to destroy the cells
neutrons are composed of two containing the antigen.
downs and an up. The up- Researchers can design antibodies
anddownquarks are the lightest that specifically target a certain
varieties. Because more-massive antigen. They can then make many
particles tend to decay into less copies of that antibody in the lab.
massiveones, the up-and-down These are known as monoclonal
quarks are also the most common in antibodies (mAbs or Moabs).
the Universe; therefore, protons Monoclonal antibodies are thus,
andneutrons make up most of the proteins to stimulate the immune

system. And they are man-made enhance the number of PhDs in
proteins that act like human Electronics System Design &
antibodies. So, statement 1 is correct. Manufacturing (ESDM) and IT/IT
A type of monoclonal antibodies Enabled Services (IT/ITES) sectors in
mAbsincludes, bispecific monoclonal the country. The research areas
antibody (BsMAb, BsAb) which is an under the scheme include Artificial
artificial protein that can Intelligence (covering 82 PhD fellows)
simultaneously bind to two different and Machine Learning (covering 59
types of antigens. PhD fellows). Option 3 is correct:
Bispecific antibodies are currently Department of Science & Technology
approved for the treatment of is implementing the National Mission
leukemias and for cancer on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical
immunotherapy. So, statement 2 is Systems (NM-ICPS) to promote R&D,
not correct. Human Resource Development
CAR T cell therapyis a type of cancer (HRD), Technology Development,
immunotherapy treatment ,in which, Entrepreneurship Development,
a patient’s Tcellswhich is a part of International Collaboration etc. As
White Blood Cells ,are genetically part of the Mission implementation,
engineered in the laboratory, so they 25 Technology Innovation Hubs (this)
will bind to specific have been established in reputed
proteins(antigens) on cancer cells and institutes across the country in
kill them. So, statement 3 is correct. advanced technologies including
Machine Learning and Artificial
52) Which of the following are the initiatives by Intelligence.
the Government of India to promote the Option 4 is incorrect: Mission LiFEwas
development of Artificial Intelligence in introduced by Prime Minister Modi at
India? the COP26 in Glasgow in November
1. FutureSkills PRIME initiative 2021. It is an India-led global mass
2. Visvesvaraya PhD Scheme movement that will nudge individual
3. National Mission on Interdisciplinary and collective actions towards the
Cyber-Physical Systems protection and preservation of
4. Mission LiFE environment. As part of Mission LiFE
5. RAISE scheme (Lifestyle for Environment), the
Select the correct answer using the codes Indian Government unveiled a list of
given below: 75 lifestyle practices that can
a) 1, 3 and 4 only promote climate-friendly behavior. It
b) 2, 3 and 5 only is not among the initiative that aims
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only to promote development of Artificial
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Intelligence in the country.
Ans) c Option 5 is correct: Government of
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. India organized Responsible AI for
Option 2 is correct: Government of Social Empowerment (RAISE) in 2020,
India has initiated ‘Visvesvaraya PhD a first-of-its-kind global meeting of
Scheme’ with an objective to minds on Artificial Intelligence to

drive India’s vision and roadmap for National Supercomputing Mission
social transformation, inclusion and are:eg.
empowerment through responsible Weather Prediction.
AI. It was attended by 79,000+ Molecular Dynamics.
stakeholders from academia, National Security/ Defence Applications.
research, industry and government Disaster Simulations and Management.
representatives from 147 Computational Chemistry..
participating countries. Large Complex Systems Simulations and
Cyber Physical Systems.
53) Which of the following are the areas of the Big Data Analytics.
application of the National Supercomputing Information repositories/ Government
Mission ? Information Systems. So, Option
1. Weather prediction (d) is correct.
2. National security
3. Disaster management 54) Consider the following statements with
4. Cyber-physical systems reference to the Metaverse :
5. Big Data Analytics 1. It is a combination of augmented
6. Information repositories reality and virtual reality
Select the correct answer from the codes 2. Metaverse does not always require
given below : wearable headsets to have an
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only immersion experience
(b) 3, 5 and 6 only 3. Non-fungible-tokens can be used as
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only the key to access and experience the
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 Metaverse
Ans: d Which of the statements given above is/are
EXPLANATION: correct ?
The National Supercomputing (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Mission was established in 2015 to (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
connect national academic and Ans: d
researchinstitutions to a grid of more EXPLANATION:
than 70 high-performance computing Metaverse, a term first coined in
centers at the cost of 4,500 crores science fiction, combines the prefix
overa seven-year period. "meta," meaning beyond, and
The Department of Science and "universe." The Metaverse describes
Technology (Ministry of Science and an imaginative and prescient field
Technology) and the Ministry of related to 3D digital international,
Electronics and Information wherein actual and virtual worlds are
Technology (MeitY) are carrying out incorporated with technology,
the mission through the Centre for including virtual reality (VR)and
Development of Advanced augmented reality (AR). There are
Computing (C-DAC) in Pune and the numerous metaverses already – for
Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in example, in digital gamingplatforms
Bengaluru.Some Applications of like The Sandbox and virtual worlds
like Decentraland.

Augmented reality (AR) integrates 55) Consider the following statements with
digital information with the user's reference to the National Mission on
environment in real-time. Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems :
Virtual Reality (VR) is a computer- 1. The mission aims to improve the
generated environment with scenes cyber physical system infrastructure
and objects that appear real, making in the country by establishing
the user feel immersed in their Technology Innovation Hubs.
Surroundings.Thus, Metaverse 2. This mission targets academic and
combines Augmented Reality and Research and Development
Virtual Reality. So, Statement 1 is institutions.
correct. 3. Under the mission, first-of-its-kind
Metaverse can be used for Internet of Things (IoT) device has
immersion experience by using been developed to monitor ambient
wearable headsets and even without temperature during the
using wearable headsets. For transportation of vaccines
example, VRChat, Horizon Worlds, 4. The Mission is jointly implemented by
and AltspaceVR.Immersive GOI In collaboration with UNCTAD
Technology is any technology that How many statements given above is/are
extends reality or creates a new correct ?
reality by leveraging the 360space. (a) Only one statement
Immersive Technology create a new (b) Only two statements
reality by completely shutting a user (c) Only three statements
out from the rest of the world and (d) All four statements
immersing them in a digital Ans: c
environment. So, Statement 2 is EXPLANATION: National Mission on
correct. Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems
Non Fungible Tokens serve as a key (NMICPS) is a comprehensive Mission that
concept to access and experience the would address technology development,
metaverse ecosystem, application development, human resource
allowingpeople to own virtual goods development &skill enhancement,
in the form of real estate, items like entrepreneurship, and start-up development
cars, boats, or even accessories in CPS and associated technologies. It is to
andpaintings - all possible through beimplemented by the Department of
NFTs. Science &Technology, which is under the
For example, if you own a virtual land Ministry of Science and Technology.NM-ICPS,
in the Metaverse (which is quite which fosters technological solutions in
possible), you gain an NFT as the health, education, energy, environment,
deed to the virtual property. This agriculture,strategic cum security. Industry
means you are the rightful owner and 4.0 is implemented through 25 Technology
only have exclusive access to Innovation Hubs (TIHs)established in top
enterthe location in the Metaverse, academic and National Research &
allowing access to others. So, Development Institutes. All these hubs are
Statement 3 is correct. workingon developing solutions for people-
centric problems.

These hubs will focus on generating 2. Under Web 2.0 services, it may crash
new knowledge through basic and when the servers of a particular
applied research in areas that are platform go offline at the
mandated to them. They will be the headquarters, but it would not be
source of fundamental knowledge/ possible with a Web 3.0 platform.
technologies needed to prepare India Which of the statements given above is/are
for the next generation of correct ?
technologies .So, Statement 1 and 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
are correct. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Under this mission, AmbiTag, the Ans: b
first-of-its-kind Internet of Things EXPLANATION:
(IoT) device that monitors ambient A Web 2.0 website allows users to
temperature during the read content and interact and
transportation of vaccines, including collaborate through social media
Covid-19, medicines, blood samples, dialogue as creators of user-
food, and dairy products, meat generated content in a virtual
products, and animal semen, has community. But Web 1.0 does not
been developed by researchers at the allow users to interact; it just allows
IIT users to read the content. Web 3.0
Ropar, Technology Innovation Hub - represents the next iteration or
AWaDH and startup called phase of the evolution of the
ScratchNest. So, Statement 3 is web/internet. It is built upon thecore
correct. concepts of decentralization,
National Mission on Interdisciplinary openness, and greater user
Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) is utility.Thus, Web 2.0 and Web 3.0
a Pan India Mission and covers entire allow users to read and interact with
gamut of India that includes Central content. So, Statement 1 is not
Ministries, State Governments, correct.
Industry and Academia which is to be Web 3.0 has decentralized elements
implemented by Department of to bring control back to users instead
Science &Technology. Thus, it is of creators. Web 2.0 services, for
implemented by Government ofIndia instance, may crash when the servers
and it doesnot have any collaboration of a particular platform go offline at
with United Nations Conference on the headquarters. This, however,
Trade and Development.So, wouldn’t be possible with a Web 3.0
Statement 4 is not correct. platform that essentially is run by
everyone using it in multiple,
56) Consider the following statements with simultaneously updated copies via a
reference to Web 2.0 and Web 3.0 : P2P (peer-to-peer) network, like
1. Web 2.0 allows users to simply read torrents. So, Statement 2 is correct.
content and not really interact with
it, but Web 3.0 allows users to read
content and interact with it.

57) Which of the following is/are contactless readers that don’t require you to
payment technologies ? insert cards into the terminal.
1. Near Field Communication Users hold their phone next to where
2. Magnetic Secure Transmission a card would be swiped to initiate a
3. Radio Frequency Identification connection. In other words,
Select the correct answer from the codes contactlesspayments work with
given below older, pre-chip terminals using
(a) 1 only magnetic signals.
(b) 1 and 3 only Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID)
(c) 2 and 3 only uses radio waves to read and capture
(d) 1, 2 and 3 information stored on a tag attached
Ans: d to an object. RFID allows the
EXPLANATION: cardholder to wave the RFID card in
Contactless payment technology front of a contactless
allows transactions without requiring paymentterminal to complete a
physical contact between the transaction.
cardand the terminal. The RFID chip in the credit card is not
Near-field communication (NFC) is a powered and relies on radio
short-range wireless technology that frequency (RF) energy transferred
makes your smartphone, tablet, fromthe powered contactless
wearables, payment cards, and other payment terminal to the card to
devices even smarter. Near-field power the chip-on-card. Because
communication is the ultimate in contactlesspurchases do not require
connectivity. With NFC, you can a signature or PIN entry, banks set a
transfer information between devices maximum purchase limit per
quickly and easily with a single transaction.So, Option (d) is correct.
touch—whether paying bills,
exchanging business cards, 58) Consider the following statements with
downloading coupons, or sharing a reference to Edge computing :
research paper. NFC began in the 1. It is a type of centralized cloud
payment-card industry and is computing.
evolving to include applications in 2. It reduces bandwidth requirements
numerous industries worldwide. at central locations and processes
Magnetic secure transmission, or data locally.
MST, uses “magnetic” signals to 3. It is more safe from malicious attacks
connect the user’s mobile device and as compared to cloud computing.
the terminal. This process essentially 4. It has lower latency compared to
mimics the magnetic connection cloud computing.
created when swiping traditional How many statements given above is/are
credit cards. correct ?
The primary advantage of MST (a) Only one statement
technology is that it works on most (b) Only two statements
NFC-ready terminals. MST-enabled (c) Only three statements
devices work with most types of (d) All four statements

Ans: b 59) Consider the following statements with
EXPLANATION: reference to the Satellite internet :
Edge computing is a platform that 1. It provides lower latency compared
enables data to be analyzed, to cable and fiber internet.
processed, and transferred at the 2. It functions well even in severe
edge ofa network. The concept is to weather conditions.
analyze data locally, closer to where 3. It will ensure connectivity in the
it is stored, in real-time without remotest parts of the country and
latency, rather than send it far away helps in achieving 100% internet
to a centralized data center. This penetration.
minimizes the need for long-distance Which of the statements given above is/are
communications between client and correct ?
server, which reduces latency and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
bandwidth usage. Thus, (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Edgecomputing is a form of Ans: c
decentralized, distributed computing EXPLANATION:
infrastructure. So, Statement 1 is not Satellite Internet, which works
correct and Statement 2 is correct. similarly to satellite TV, is a wireless
From a security standpoint, data at connection spread across satellite
the edge can be troublesome, dishes located both in space and on
especially when it’s being handled by the Earth. It provides remote areas of
different devices that might not be as the planet with easy access to
secure as centralized or cloud-based communication networks to keep
systems. Edge computing has some people connected and give access to
virtual security risks. Remotely up-to-date information and
accessing these devices could allow communication systems.
hackers to steal data, sabotage Latency is the time it takes for data to
operations or gain access to pass from one point on a network to
corporate systems. It cannot protect another. Satellite internet provides
the user’s data from any malware higher latency compared to cable and
attacks, So, Edge computing is fiber internet. Cable and fiber
considered less safe than cloud internet offers 20 to 50 milliseconds
computing. So, Statement 3 is not latency, whereas satellite internet
correct. has 600 milliseconds, this is because
Edge computing can be called an satellites are positioned at 22000
extension of cloud computing, miles above the earth, So satellite
whereby it differs in the time taken internet data takes a longer time to
to process the information. In the reach the receiver. Thus, it provides
case of edge computing, the data is higher latency compared to cable and
analyzed locally, closer to where it is fiber internet. So, Statement 1 is not
stored, in real-time, without latency, correct.
as compared to cloud computing. So, Satellite internet service is more
Statement 4 is correct. likely to have connection issues
during bad weather than other types

of internet since data has to travel 3. Recently it has been used to produce
through the air (rather than through Braille Maps for Visually challenged
wires buried underground). students.
Satellite signals are transmitted via Which of the statements given above is/are
radio waves, which travel best correct ?
through open air but can get (a) 1 and 2 only
deflectedor dispersed when they (b) 1 and 3 only
pass through water, buildings, and (c) 3 only
heavy foliage. This is why satellite (d) 1, 2 and 3
signalsweaken during weather Ans: b
conditions like rain, snow, and dust EXPLANATION:
storms. The water or dust particles in Digital embossing technology is a
the airdeflect and break apart the technology that eliminates the need
radio signal, resulting in a spotty or for printing plates, moulds,
weak signal. Thus, the satellite chemicals, and solvents, emitting no
internetcannot function well in pollutants or waste and reducing
severe weather conditions. So, overall energy usage than traditional
Statement 2 is not correct. printing technologies.
Satellite Internet service provides This innovative technology has been
Internet access to areas where wired, introduced, designed and
fiber and cable options are implemented first time in India by
inaccessible. Satellites are used to National Atlas & Thematic Mapping
deliver broadband Internet services Organisation (NATMO), functioning
to hard-to-reach users in the as the Attached Office of the
underservedregions. The Internet Department of Science & Technology
Penetration is the relationship not by the Survey of India.
between the number of Internet Braille Maps were produced for
users in eachcountry and its visually challenged students from all
demographic data.Thus, Satellite over the country which was
Internet helps connect the remotest developed using Digital Embossing
parts of the country and helps Technology, enabling them for ease
achieve 100% InternetPenetration in of use, user friendly, bettern feeling
India. So, Statement 3 is correct. and durable in terms of quality.
The soft laminated maps are placed
60) Consider the following statements with onto the digital embossing devices
reference to Digital Embossing technology: with perfect registration for spot UV
1. It emits fewer pollutants compared coating. Soft copy maps are masked
to traditional printing technologies. in the area of interest for embossing.
2. This innovative technology has been AI technology is used for 3D
introduced, designed and embossing to get the final Braille
implemented in India for the first Maps.
time by Survey of India. So, Statement 1 and 3 are correct and
Statement 2 is not correct.

61) With reference to the Intergovernmental range of kelp in the Northern
Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Report, Hemisphere will expand poleward.
consider the following statements: Statement 3 is correct. The Global
1. The high uptake of anthropogenic mean Sea Surface Temperature has
carbon by oceans results in increased increased since the beginning of the
pH level of water. 20th century from 1850–1900 to
2. The range of kelp forests in the 2011–2020 by 0.88°C (very likely
Northern Hemisphere may expand range: 0.68– 1.01°C). The key
poleward due to climate change. characteristic of ocean temperature
3. The global mean Sea Surface change relevant for ecosystems is
Temperature has on average climate velocity, a measure of the
increased since the beginning of the speed and direction at which
20th century. isotherms move under climate
Which of the statements given above is/are change which gives the rate at which
correct? species must migrate to maintain
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only constant climate conditions.
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) b 62) Which of the following methods is/are used
Exp) Option b is correct. as carbon capture and storage (CCS)
The Intergovernmental Panel on technology?
Climate Change (IPCC) is the United 1. Oxyfuel method
Nations body for assessing the 2. Pre-combustion method
science related to climate change. 3. Post-combustion method
Statement 1 is incorrect. The ocean’s Select the correct answer using the code
uptake of anthropogenic carbon given below.
affects its chemistry in a process a) 1 only
referred to as ocean acidification, b) 2 and 3 only
which increases the concentrations of c) 2 only
aqueous CO2, bicarbonate and d) 1, 2 and 3
hydrogen ions, and decreases pH, Ans) d
carbonate ion concentrations and Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
calcium carbonate mineral saturation Carbon capture and storage, also
states. The pH of seawater water gets known as CCS or carbon
lower as it becomes more acidic. sequestration, describes a family of
Statement 2 is correct. Kelp technologies designed to tackle
ecosystems will decline with the global warming by capturing carbon
increased frequency of heatwaves dioxide. There are three main types
and sea temperature extremes as of carbon capture and storage (CCS)
well as through the impact of invasive technology that could eventually help
subtropical species. The Climate reduce emissions from power
change will contribute to the stations and other industrial sites:
continued decline in the extent of pre-combustion, post-combustion
kelps in the temperate zone and the and oxyfuel.

Statement 1 is correct. Oxy-fuel 4. To take non-fossil energy capacity to
combustion is the process of burning 500 GW by 2030
a fuel using pure oxygen, or a mixture 5. To meet 50% of the energy
of oxygen and recirculated flue gas, requirement from renewables by
instead of air. Since the nitrogen 2070
component of air is not heated, fuel Choose the correct answer using the options
consumption is reduced, and higher given below:
flame temperatures are possible. a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Statement 2 is correct. In Pre- b) 1, 3 and 4 only
combustion method, the coal is c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
gasified to produce a synthetic gas d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
made from carbon monoxide and Ans) a
hydrogen. The former is reacted with Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
water to produce carbon dioxide, While delivering his national statement on
which is captured. The hydrogen can India's behalf, the PM presented five
be diverted to a turbine where it can commitments from India towards
be burned to produce electricity. climate action at COP26. Following
Alternatively, some of this gas can be are the commitments:
bled off to feed hydrogen fuel cells ‘Panchamrita’ promises include:
for cars. 1) India will reduce its projected carbon
Statement 3 is correct. In Post- emission by one billion tonnes by
combustion method, CO2 is 2030 (Statement 1 is correct)
separated from the flue gas of the 2) India will reduce the carbon intensity of its
power station by bubbling the gas economy by 45 per cent by 2030
through an absorber column packed (Statement 2 is correct)
with liquid solvents such as ammonia. 3) India will achieve net zero by 2070
Once the chemicals in the absorber (Statement 3 is incorrect)
column become saturated, a stream 4) India will get its non-fossil energy capacity
of superheated steam at around to 500 gigawatts by 2030 (Statement
120C is passed through it. This 4 is correct)
releases the trapped CO2, which can 5) India will meet 50 per cent of its energy
then be transported for storage requirements till 2030 with
elsewhere. renewable energy (Statement 5 is
incorrect)
63) Which of the following statements are part
of the five-fold strategy declared by India at 64) With reference to Environmental Protection
COP-26? Act, 1986, which of the following statements
1. To reduce India’s projected carbon is/are correct?
emission by one billion tonnes by 1. The Environment Impact Assessment
2030 in India is statutorily backed under
2. To reduce Economy’s carbon this act.
intensity by 45% by 2030 2. The act defines Critical Wildlife
3. To achieve Net Zero emissions by Habitat for forest dwellers.
2030

3. The Coastal Regulation zone is of Environment, Forest and Climate
notified under the Act. change under the Environment
Choose the correct answer using the options Protection Act 1986. While the CRZ
given below: Rules are made by the Union
a) 1 only environment
b) 1 and 3 only ministry,implementation is to be
c) 3 only ensured by state governments
d) 2 and 3 only through their Coastal Zone
Ans) b Management Authorities.
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Government of India has enacted the 65) Consider the following statements with
comprehensive Environmental reference to steps taken by India to combat
Protection Act, 1986 to deal with the plastic pollution:
environmental degradation and 1. India piloted a resolution on
pollution. Some details are as follows: ''Addressing Single Use Plastic
Statement 1 is correct - The Product Pollution'' in the United
environmental impact assessment in Nations Environment Assembly.
India was started in 1976-77 when 2. Plastic Waste Management
the Planning Commission asked the Amendment Rules, 2021 prohibits all
then Department of Science and single use plastic items by 2022.
Technology to examine the river- 3. The thickness of plastic carry bags has
valley projects from environmental been increased from 5 microns to 25
angle. The Government of India microns recently.
enacted the Environment 4. Extended producer responsibility
(Protection) Act on 1986. To achieve (EPR) is now applicable to both pre-
the objectives of the Act, one of the consumer and post-consumer plastic
decisions that were taken is to make packaging waste.
environmental impact assessment Which of the above statements is/are
statutory. correct?
Statement 2 is incorrect - The Critical a) 1 and 4 only b) 3 only
Wildlife Habitats have been c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 4 only
envisaged in Scheduled Tribes and Ans) a
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, India is committed to mitigate
2006. The power to notify the rules pollution caused by littered single use
to designate a CWH rests with plastics. In 2018, the Hon’ble Prime
Ministry of Environment and Forests. Minister announced that India would
Statement 3 is correct - In India, the phase-out single use plastic by 2022.
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Rules Statement 1 is correct. India piloted a
govern human and industrial activity resolution on ''Addressing Single Use
close to the coastline, in order to Plastic Product Pollution'' which was
protect the fragile ecosystems near adopted by the Fourth United
the sea. The coastal regulation zones Nations Environment Assembly held
have been declared by the Ministry in 2019. The resolution recognizes

the need for the global community to Extended producer responsibility
act on the single use plastic products (EPR) is now applicable to both pre-
pollution. The adoption of this consumer and post-consumer plastic
resolution was a significant step. packaging waste. Provisions and
Statement 2 is incorrect. In August targets for collection, re-use (by
2021, the Ministry of Environment, brand owners), recycling (by PIBOs)
Forest and Climate and use of recycled plastic (by PIBOs)
Change,Government of India, notified have been laid out.
the Plastic Waste Management
Amendment Rules, 2021 prohibiting 66) With reference to biodiversity, consider the
identified single use plastic items, following statements:
which have low utility and high 1. The genetically related species
littering potential, by 2022. Hence, present in an area represents greater
only specific single use plastics species diversity than genetically
banned. The manufacture, import, unrelated ones.
stocking, distribution, sale and use of 2. The Genetic diversity between
identified single-use plastic, including species becomes greater with
polystyrene and expanded increasing distance in the relationship
polystyrene, commodities shall be of species.
prohibited with effect from the July 3. The elimination of any one species
1, 2022. from an ecosystem with higher
Examples of single use plastic diversity will have less effect on the
includes Plastic bottles, Plastic ecosystem balance.
packaging materials, Plastic shopping Which of the statements given above is/are
bags. etc., Examples of polystyrene correct?
include rigid trays and containers, a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
disposable eating utensils, and c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
foamed cups, plates, and bowls. Ans) b
Statement 3 is incorrect. In order to Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
stop littering due to light-weight Biological diversity is a measure of
plastic carry bags, the thickness of the relative diversity among
plastic carry bags has been increased organisms present in different
from fifty microns to seventy-five ecosystems. There are three levels of
microns with effect from September diversity- genetic, species and
30, 2021 and to one hundred and ecosystem diversity. These levels
twenty microns with effect from keep interacting with and influencing
December 31, 2022. Increased the others hence cannot be
thickness of plastic bags will also separated.
allow reuse. Statement 1 is incorrect. Taxonomic
Statement 4 is correct. The Ministry or phylogenetic diversity is the
of Environment has launched new genetic relationships between
rules called the Plastic Waste different groups of species. When
Management (Amendment) Rules, taxonomically or genetically
2022.According to the new rule, unrelated species are present in an

area, the area represents greater endangered, 14,647 are
species diversity as compared to an endangered,15,492 are vulnerable
area represented by taxonomically and 8,127 are near threatened in
related species. 2021.
Statement 2 is correct. Genetic Amur leopard and Hawksbill Turtle are not
diversity between species becomes extinct in world.
greater with increasing distance in Statement 1 is incorrect. One of the
the relationship of species. As more rarest cats on the planet, Amur
distantly related species will Leopard is listed under the critically
represent a higher range of genetic endangered category. Inhabitants of
diversity than closely related species. far east Russia, this leopard can be
Statement 3 is correct. An ecosystem sighted in the north-eastern
having higher diversity means the China,north-west Korea as well. Its
number of species and interactions population was found to have
between them which constitute the reduced to 90 as per 2019 statistical
food web is large. In such a situation, data.
the elimination of one species would Statement 2 is correct. Ivory Billed
have little effect on ecosystem Woodpecker is native to the
balance. In sharp contrast, the bottomland hardwood forests and
number of species in the food web of temperate coniferous forests of the
a simple ecosystem is small. So, loss southern United States and Cuba, but
of any one species has far more it has been officially announced to be
serious repercussions for the integrity extinct in 2021. They used their
of the ecosystem itself. enormous white bill to strip bark
from dead standing trees, adhering
67) Consider the following wild species: to the title ‘weaver’.
1. Amur Leopard Statement 3 is correct. Splendid
2. Ivory Billed Woodpecker Poison Frog was a tiny red animal,
3. Splendid Poison Frog from Panama, was highly involved in
4. Indian Cheetah the pet trade and regular capture.
5. Hawksbill Turtle This species was endangered for a
Which of the above wild species became decade and finally reported extinct in
extinct in world? 2021.One of the main drivers for the
a) 1,3 and 4 only decline was a disease called
b) 1, 4 and 5 only chytridiomycosis.
c) 2, 3 and 4 only Statement 4 is correct. The Indian
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Cheetah was declared extinct in India
Ans) c in 2019 due to desertification. The
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. numbers dropped down to 150 and
According to the International Union eventually the species died out. This
for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red intense desertification was caused
List data around 902 species are due to the excessive use of pesticides
officially extinct. In wild, 80 species and heavy industrialization in
are extinct 8,404 are critically agricultural areas.

Statement 5 is incorrect. Hawksbill wastelands, and along irrigation
turtle is a critically endangered sea canals, water bodies etc.
turtle inhabiting the tropical reefs of Statement 2 is incorrect. The
Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Ocean. International Bamboo and Rattan
The IUCN list reports that there has Organisation (INBAR) is an
been 80% decline in the Hawksbill intergovernmental development
turtle’s population in 100 years. organisation that promotes
environmentally sustainable
68) Consider the following statements: development using bamboo and
1. The National Bamboo Mission aims rattan. It is not established under
to increase the area under bamboo United Nations Convention to
plantation in forest lands of Combat Desertification (UNCCD). It is
Protected areas. It has 48 Member States. In addition
2. The International Bamboo and Rattan to its Secretariat headquarters in
Organisation (INBAR) is established China, INBAR has Regional Offices in
under the United Nations Convention Cameroon, Ecuador, Ethiopia, Ghana
to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). and India.
3. Bamboo grown on forested area was Statement 3 is correct. Bamboo
provided the status of tree under taxonomically a grass, grown on
Indian Forest Act, 1927 by forest as well non-forest land was
Government of India. legally defined as a tree under the
Which of the statements given above is/are Indian Forest Act, 1927. The
correct? government promulgated the Indian
a) 3 only b) 2 and 3 only Forest (Amendment) Ordinance,
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 2017 exempted bamboo grown in
Ans) a non-forest areas from definition of
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. tree and categorizing it as a grass.
Bamboos are woody or herbaceous
plants from the Bambusoideae 69) Consider the following statements with
subfamily which are found diversified reference to Global initiatives on Forest
in temperate and tropical Asia, Africa, conservation:
and South America. 1. The United Nations Forum on Forests
Statement 1 is incorrect. The National was launched by United Nation
Bamboo Mission aims to increase the Environment Programme.
area under bamboo plantation in 2. International Day of Forests (IDF) is
non-forest Government and private celebrated by the United Nations
lands to supplement farm income Forum on Forests and the Food and
and contribute towards resilience to Agriculture Organization.
climate change as well as availability 3. REDD+ is created by the UNFCCC for
of quality raw material requirement enhancement of forest carbon stocks
of industries. The bamboo in developing countries.
plantations will be promoted 4. More than 100 developing countries
predominantly in farmers’ fields, submitted a REDD+ forest reference
homesteads, community lands,arable

emission level for technical Conference of the Parties (COP) to
assessment to the UNFCCC. guide activities in the forest sector
Which of the above statements is/are that reduces emissions from
correct? deforestation and forest degradation.
a) 1 and 4 only b) 2 only It aims for sustainable management
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 3 and 4 only of forests and the conservation and
Ans) c enhancement of forest carbon stocks
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. in developing countries.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In October Statement 4 is incorrect. The REDD+
2000, the Economic and Social framework is commonly referred to
Council of the United Nations as the Warsaw Framework for REDD+
(ECOSOC), in its Resolution 2000/35 (WFR) adopted at COP 19 in 2013 and
established the United Nations provides the complete
Forum on Forests (UNFF), a methodological and financing
subsidiary body with the main guidance for the implementation of
objective to promote the REDD+ activities. It is a foundation for
management, conservation and Parties engaged in REDD+ to fulfill
sustainable development of all types the highest level of commitment to
of forests based on the Rio climate actions in the forest sector.
Declaration. As of January 2020, a total of 50
Statement 2 is correct. The United developing countries have submitted
Nations observes March 21 as the a REDD+ forest reference level or
International Day of Forests, forest reference emission level for
commemorating the green cover technical assessment to the UNFCCC.
around the world and reiterating its It covers more than 70% of the total
importance. forest area in developing countries.
The Day is celebrated by the United
Nations Forum on Forests and the 70) Consider the following pairs with reference
Food and Agriculture Organization of to medicinal plants and their uses/purposes:
the United Nations (FAO), in Plants Medicinal property/use
collaboration with governments and 1. Ashwagandha Immunity booster
the Collaborative Partnership on 2. Purslane Beneficial for heart
Forests. patients
The theme for 2022 is "Forests and 3. Agnimantha Beneficial in Urinary
sustainable production and tract infection
consumption." Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Themes of the International Day of matched?
Forests are aimed to fit into the UN a) 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
Decade on Ecosystem Restoration c) 1, 2 and 3 d) None of the above
(2021-2030), which calls for the Ans) c
protection and revival of ecosystems Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
around the world. Medicinal plants can be defined as the plants
Statement 3 is correct. REDD+ is a that possess therapeutic properties
framework created by the UNFCCC

or exert beneficial pharmacological decoction made from the whole plant
effect on the human or animal body. is useful in improving strength and
Medicinal plants such as Aloe, Tulsi, immunity following a bout of fever or
Neem, Turmeric and Ginger cure other ailments.
several common ailments. These are
considered as home remedies in 71) Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries
many parts of the country. belongs the North-Eastern states in India?
Pair 1 is correctly matched. 1. Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary
Ashwagandha, or Withaniasomnifera, 2. Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary
is an herb native to Asia and Africa. 3. Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary
Also called “Indian ginseng,” it's been 4. Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary
used in traditional Indian Ayurvedic 5. Bunning Wildlife Sanctuary
medicine for thousands of years to Choose the correct answer from the options
ease pain and inflammation, treat given below:
insomnia, and boost nutrition, along a) 1, 2 and 3 only
with other conditions. It is considered b) 1, 3 and 4 only
to be one of the best rejuvenating c) 1, 2 and 5 only
agents in Ayurveda that helps to d) 2, 4 and 5 only
maintain proper nourishment of the Ans) c
tissues. It possesses antioxidant, Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
mind-boosting and immune- North-Eastern part of India has rich
enhancing properties. biodiversity with numerous protected
Pair 2 is correctly matched. Purslane areas. Some of these are:
is a green, leafy vegetable that can be Statement 1 is correct - Trishna
eaten raw or cooked. It is known Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife
scientifically as Portulaca oleracea, Sanctuary in Tripura. It covers an area
and is also called pigweed, little of about 163.08 square kilometres
hogweed, fatweed and pusley. (62.97 sq mi). This sanctuary has a
Purslane has been used in folk number of perennial water rivulets,
medicine since ancient times and is water bodies, and grass land. In this
included in the World Health sanctuary, there are patches of virgin
Organization’s list of most widely forests which are rich in rare
used medicinal plants. The leaves of vegetation. Apart from it, there are
the plant are a rich source of omega- varieties of Birds, Deers, Hollock
3 fatty acids, which is important in Gibbon, Golden Langur, Capped
preventing heart attacks and Langur, Pheasant and many other
strengthening the immune system. animals and reptiles.
Pair 3 is correctly matched. Sage Statement 2 is correct - The
Glory Bower, Arni, or Agnimantha is Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary is
an essential medicinal plant that is located in Dhubri district of Assam.
also mentioned in texts since the The forests in the sanctuary are of
Vedic period. It is known to boost the dense semi-evergreen and moist
immune system, purify the blood and deciduous type, with patches of
cure urinary tract infection. The grasslands and scattered bushes, and

several water sources. The climate is originate from the catchment areas
temperate, with dry winters and hot within the Sanctuary and feed the
summers followed by heavy rains. Barak. Tropical Evergreen and Semi-
The diverse ecosystem has species evergreen Forests occur in the
like tiger, leopard, golden langur, Sanctuary.
leopard cat, gaur, crabeating
mongoose, Indian porcupine, 72) Arrange the following national parks in
pangolin, flying squirrel, and civet order of their notification with earliest
cat. coming first:
Statement 3 is incorrect - Kaundinya 1. DehingPatkai National Park
Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife 2. Jim Corbett National Park
sanctuary and an elephant reserve 3. Kanha National Park
situated in Andhra Pradesh, India. It 4. Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park
is the only sanctuary in Andhra Which of the following is correct
Pradesh with a population of Asian chronological order as asked above?
elephants, which migrated after 200 a) 4-1-3-2
years from neighbouring regions. The b) 2-3-1-4
habitat of Kaundinya sanctuary is c) 2-3-4-1
rugged with high hills and deep d) 4-1-2-3
valleys. The sanctuary has dry Ans) c
deciduous forests with thorny scrubs Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
interspersed with trees. These forests India has rich history of national
have small ponds, tanks and the parks being established even since
Kaindinya and Kaigal tributaries of pre-independence era. Some of the
Palar River. major national parks were
Statement 4 is incorrect - Coringa established in following years:
Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife Statement 1 – The Assam
sanctuary and estuary situated near government notified DehingPatkai as
Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh, India. It the 7th National Park of the state in
is the third largest stretch of 2021. It is located within the larger
mangrove forests in India with 24 DehingPatkai Elephant Reserve,
mangrove tree species and more which spreads across the coal- and
than 120 bird species. It is home to oil-rich districts of Upper Assam
the critically endangered white- (Dibrugarh and Tinsukia districts).
backed vulture and the long-billed The oldest refinery of Asia in Digboi
vulture. In a mangrove ecosystem the and ‘open cast’ coal mining at Lido
water bodies of the ocean/sea and are located near the sanctuary. The
the river meet at a certain point. DehingPatkai Wildlife Sanctuary is
Statement 5 is correct - Bunning also known as the Jeypore Rainforest.
Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Statement 2 – In August 1936, the
Tamei subdivision in Tamenglong first National Park of India i.e., Jim
district of Manipur, and is part of the Corbett National Park was
Barail Range. The Barak River flows established in Nainital, Uttarakhand.
near the Sanctuary. Many streams It is also the first national park of

Asia. Initially it was named Hailey Which of the statements given above is/are
National Park. Presently the area of correct?
the reserve is 1318 square Km. It is a) 1 only
famous for Asiatic Elephants and b) 1 and 2 only
Royal Bengal Tiger. c) 1 and 3 only
Statement 3 - The Kanha National d) 3 only
Park in Madhya Pradesh came into Ans) b
being in 1955 and forms the core of Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
the Kanha Tiger Reserve, created in Biosphere reserves are sites for
1974 under Project Tiger. The Park's testing interdisciplinary approaches
landmark achievement is the to understanding and managing
preservation of the rare hardground changes and interactions between
Swamp Deer (Barasingha), saving it social and ecological systems,
from near extinction. The lush sal and including conflict prevention and
bamboo forests, grassy meadows and management of biodiversity.
ravines of Kanha provided inspiration Biosphere reserves include
to Rudyard Kipling for his famous terrestrial, marine and coastal
novel "Jungle Book". ecosystems.
Statement 4 – Gulf of Mannar is the There are 18 Biosphere Reserves in
first marine Biosphere Reserve in India. India is a signatory to the
India. It was established in the year of landscape approach supported by
1986. The Gulf of Mannar Marine UNESCO Man and Biosphere (MAB)
National Park is a protected area of programme.
India consisting of 21 small islands Statement 1 is correct: Biosphere
(islets) and adjacent coral reefs in the reserves are nominated by national
Gulf of Mannar in the Indian Ocean. It governments and remain under the
lies 1 to 10 km away from the east sovereign jurisdiction of the states
coast of Tamil Nadu, India for 160 km where they are located. Biosphere
between Thoothukudi (Tuticorin) and Reserves are designated under the
Dhanushkodi. intergovernmental MAB Programme
by the Director-General of UNESCO
73) Consider the following statements: following the decisions of the MAB
1. Biosphere reserves are nominated by International Coordinating Council
member countries and remain under (MAB ICC). Their status is
the sovereign jurisdiction of the internationally recognized. Member
countries where they are located. States can submit sites through the
2. Biosphere reserves promote socio- designation process.
culturally sustainable economic and Statement 2 is correct: Protection is
human activities inside it. granted not only to the flora and
3. Biosphere reserves in India are fauna of the protected region, but
provided statutory protection under also to the human communities who
the Environment (Protection) Act, inhabit these regions, and their ways
1986. of life.

In the Transition Area zone of the 3) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
Biosphere Reserve, communities 4) The Air (Prevention and Control of
foster socio-culturally and Pollution) Act, 1981;
ecologically sustainable economic 5) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
and human activities. 6) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991;
Statement 3 is incorrect: Biosphere 7) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
Reserve (BR) is an international Statement 2 is correct: The Biological
designation by UNESCO for Diversity Act, 2002 provide for the
representative parts of natural and conservation of biological diversity,
cultural landscapes extending over sustainable use of its components,
large area of terrestrial or and fair and equitable sharing of the
coastal/marine ecosystems or a benefits arising out of the use of
combination thereof. It does not biological resources and knowledge
come under the purview of associated with it.
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 has
made it mandatory for every local
74) Consider the following statements: self-governing institution in rural and
1. The National Green Tribunal deals urban areas to constitute a
with civil cases under the Biological Biodiversity Management Committee
Diversity Act, 2002. (BMC) within their area of
2. Biodiversity Management jurisdiction.
Committees (BMC) should be Statement 3 is incorrect: The
constituted by every local self- Biodiversity Management Committee
government body in both rural and must prepare a Peoples’ Biodiversity
urban areas as per the Biological Register (PBR) in consultation with
Diversity Act, 2002. local people. It is not prepared by the
3. The Peoples’ Biodiversity Register National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).
(PBR) is prepared by the National A PBR comprehensively documents
Biodiversity Authority (NBA) annually. traditional knowledge of local
Which of the statements given above is/are biological resources. The BMC is the
correct? custodian of these resources, and any
a) 1 and 2 only industry that extracts biological
b) 2 and 3 only resources from these areas has to
c) 1 and 3 only share part of its revenue with the
d) 1, 2 and 3 local community.
Ans) a 75. With reference to Conventions and related

Exp) Option a is the correct answer. objectives,consider the following statements
Statement 1 is correct: NGT deals with civil Conventions
cases under the following laws Objective
1) The Water (Prevention and Control of 1. Washington Convention
Pollution) Act, 1974; Hazardous Wastes and Their
2) The Water (Prevention and Control of Disposal
Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;

2. London Convention 76) Which of the following statements rightly
Marine Pollution marks the distinction between Biological
3. Bonn Convention Oxygen Demand(BOD) and Chemical Oxygen
Migratory Species Demand (COD)?
4. Basel Convention 1. BOD is oxygen required to break down
Trade in Endangered Species biodegradable materials, whereas
How many of the above pairs is/are correct? COD is oxygen required to
a) 1 and 2 only breakdown only on-biodegradable
b) 1 and 3 only material in a water body.
c) 2 and 3 only 2. While BOD is higher in warm water as
d) 1 and 4 only compared to cold water, COD is
higher in cold water as comparedto
Answer: C warm water.
Explanation: 3. For a lake, COD is always higher than the
● CITES (Convention on International BOD.
Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Which of the statement/s given above is/are
Fauna and Flora, also known as the correct?
Washington Convention) is a a) 1 and 2 only
multilateral treaty to protect b) 2 only
endangered plants and animals. c) 3 only
● The Convention on the Prevention of d) 2 and 3 only
Marine Pollution by Dumping of Ans) c
Wastes and Other Matter 1972, Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
commonly called the “London Statement 1 is incorrect: Biochemical
oxygen demand (BOD) is the amount
Convention”.
of oxygen microorganismsrequired to
● The Convention on the Conservation break down biodegradable materials.
of Migratory Species of Wild Animals, In contrast, chemical oxygen demand
also known as the Convention on (COD) is theamount of oxygen
Migratory Species (CMS) or the Bonn required to break down both
Convention. biodegradable and non-
● The Basel Convention on the Control biodegradable materials in thewater
of Transboundary Movements of body.
Hazardous Wastes and Their Statement 2 is incorrect: Warm water
Disposal, usually known as the Basel increases both BOD and COD level as
Convention, is an international treaty increased watertemperatures will
that was designed to reduce the speed up bacterial decomposition
movements of hazardous waste and chemical reaction in water
between nations, and specifically to bodies. Also pollutedwaters increase
prevent transfer of hazardous waste the BOD and COD values, otherwise
from developed to less developed higher the BOD or COD level means
countries (LDCs). higher pollution.
● Therefore,option(c) is correct. Statement 3 is correct: Chemical
Oxygen Demand (COD) is always

greater than Biological ● Also, the producer should provide a
OxygenDemand (BOD) as BOD is the declaration of reductions made on
oxygen required by living organism to the hazardous substances
break down organic matter only. ● The equipment constituent details
Incontrast COD, apart from the and the declaration should be in sync
oxygen required to break down with the CPCB rules and regulations
organic matter, also includes updated now and then
oxygenrequired by chemical reaction ● Above details should be included in
to break down both biodegradable the product user information
and non-biodegradable materials. ● Exemptions
● The amendment exempts two
77. With reference to to the exemptions listed substances from the E-Waste
in Schedule II of E-waste (management) Management Rules. They are
Rules 2022,it adds consider the following cadmium and lead. The amendment
statements specifically says that the exemption is
1. Cadmium in Solar panels for cadmium and lead used in solar
2. Cadmium in Semiconductors cells and lead in medical devices.
3. Lead in medical devices ● Lead found in other devices does not
4. Lead in Cathode ray tube enjoy this exemption. So does the
5. Lead in Solar panels cadmium in devices other than solar
Which of the above given statements is/are cells or solar panels. Hence, option(2)
correct? and (4) are incorrect.
a) 1 and 3 only ● Therefore, option(c) is correct.
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1,3 and 5 only 78, With reference to limitations of Electric
d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 Vehicles(EV),consider the following
statements
Answer:C 1. Longer charging time.
Explanation: 2. Cheaper maintenance.
● The Union Ministry of Environment, 3. Higher cost of the vehicles.
Forest, and Climate Change released 4. Short distance travels.
the E-Waste Management Rules in 5. Reduced Noise
2022. It is expected to come into Which of the above statements is/are
effect in 2023. CPCB was appointed correct?
as the regulatory body to implement a) 1 and 3 only
the rules. The rules target companies b) 1, 3, and 4 only
in the consumer goods field. c) 2, 4, and 5 only
Recently the ministry amended some d) 2 and 5 only
of the rules.
● Amendments made: Answer: B
● Producers should provide Explanation:
information on equipment ● Electric Vehicles are regarded as a
constituents of the waste discarded better alternative to the conventional

vehicles as they are environment located between Krishna and
friendly. Godavari deltas in Eluru district. It is a
● The limitations of EVs. Such as: hot spot for migratory as well as
○ They require longer charging time. resident birds. Local vaddi
The government aims to set up at community is dependent on this lake
least one electric vehicle charging for fishing. Pair 1 is correct.
kiosk at around 69000 petrol pumps ● Ashtamudi lake is a natural
in order to ensure greater electric backwater in the Kollam district in
mobility for the people and the faster Kerala. River Kallada (forms Munroe
adoption of electric cars. Island) drains into it. The National
○ Greater pricing of the cars Waterways-3 passes through it. It is
○ Their ability to travel to shorter an extensive estuarine system, the
distances. second largest in Kerala State. The
● Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. site supports a number of mangrove
● Freedom from environmentally species. Pair 2 is incorrect.
damaging pollutants and operates ● Lonar lake is an endorheic (closed
with minimum noise. basin) crater lake formed by a
● very low maintenance costs because meteorite impact. It is high in salinity
they don't have as many moving and alkalinity due to the lack of an
parts as an internal combustion outflow. Recently, the colour of Lonar
vehicle. lake water had turned pink due to a
● Statements 2 and 5 are advantages, large presence of the salt-loving
so incorrect. “haloarchaea” microbes. Pair 3 is
● Therefore,option(b) is correct. correct.
● The Kabartaal Wetland in Bihar is an
79, With reference to Ramsar sites in India and important stopover along the Central
their location,consider the following Asian Flyway, with migratory
statements waterbirds using it to rest and refuel.
Ramsar Site Location Five critically endangered species
1. Kolleru lake Andhra Pradesh inhabit the site, including three
2. Ashtamudi Tamil Nadu vultures – the red-headed vulture,
3. Lonar lake Maharashtra white-rumped vulture and Indian
4. Kabartaal Uttar Pradesh vulture and two waterbirds, the
How many of the above pairs are correctly sociable lapwing and Baer’s pochard.
matched? Pair 4 is incorrect.
(a) One pair only ● Therefore,option(b) is correct.
(b) Two pairs only
(c) Three pairs only 80. With reference to India State of Forest
(d) All four pairs Report (ISFR) 2021,consider the following
statements
Answer: B 1. The state Andhra Pradesh has the
Explanation: highest increase in the forest cover
● Kolleru Lake is the largest shallow across the country as compared to
freshwater lake in Asia.Kolleru is ISFR 2019.

2. Panna tiger reserve in Madhya 81) Which of the following statements about
Pradesh has the highest forest cover Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) and
3. Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the Hypersonic Weapons are correct?
largest forest cover in the country 1. DEWs use directed energy in the
Which of the statements above is/are not form of laser, microwave, or particle
correct? beams to destroy targets.
(a) 1 only 2. DEW are much cheaper to produce
(b) 2 only when compared with traditional
(c) 1 and 3 only kinetic weapons.
(d) 2 and 3 only 3. Hypersonic weapons travel at speeds
greater than Mach 5.
Answer: B 4. Hypersonic cruise weapons have
Explanation: fixed trajectories and limited
● INDIA STATE OF FOREST REPORT manoeuvrability.
2021: Select the correct answer using the code
● India State of Forest Report (ISFR) given below:
2021 is the 17th biennial assessment a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 ,3 and 4 only
of India’s forests by the Forest Survey c) 1, 2 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a
of India, an organization under the
Explanation: Option a is the correct answer.
Ministry of Environment, Forest and
DEWs are a ranged weapon that
Climate Change (MoEFCC). The report
damages its target with highly
showed a continuing increase in
focused energy without a solid
forest cover across the country, it is a
projectile, including lasers,
biennial report.
microwaves, particle beams and
● Top three States with highest
sound beams. Hypersonic weapons
increase- Andhra Pradesh (647
are weapons capable of travelling at
sq.km.), Telangana (632 sq.km.), and
hypersonic speed, defined as
Odisha (537 sq.km.) shown highest
between five and 25 times the speed
increase in forest cover area.
of sound.
● Pakke tiger reserve in Arunachal
Statement 1 is correct: DEWs use
Pradesh has the highest forest cover,
directed energy in the form of laser,
at nearly 97%. Statement 2 is
microwave, or particle beams to
incorrect.
destroy targets. These weapons are
● Area-wise Rank (most area covered)
designed to damage or destroy
Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh,
targets by emitting highly focused
Chhattisgarh, Odisha. Statement 3 is
energy in the form of lasers,
correct.
microwaves, or particle beams.
● Percentage-wise Rank (Highest) of its
Statement 2 is incorrect: DEWs can
total geographical area State
be expensive to produce and
Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal
maintain compared with traditional
Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76%).
kinetic weapons as they require
● Therefore,option(b) is correct.
complex and advanced technology.

Statement 3 is correct: Hypersonic weapons client and server, which reduces
are weapons that can travel at latency and bandwidth usage. Thus,
speeds of Mach 5 to Mach 10,which Edgecomputing is a form of
is five to ten times the speed of decentralized, distributed computing
sound. These weapons can be used infrastructure. So, Statement 1 is not
to strike targets with high precision correct and Statement 2 is correct.
and at long ranges. From a security standpoint, data at
Statement 4 is incorrect: Hypersonic cruise the edge can be troublesome,
weapons are highly manoeuvrable especially when it’s being handled by
and able to change course during different devices that might not be as
flight. They are different from ballistic secure as centralized or cloud-based
missiles, which can also travel at systems. Edge computing has some
hypersonic speeds (of at least Mach virtual security risks. Remotely
5) but have set trajectories and accessing these devices could allow
limited manoeuvrability. hackers to steal data, sabotage
operations or gain access to
82) Consider the following statements with corporate systems. It cannot protect
reference to Edge computing : the user’s data from any malware
1. It is a type of centralized cloud attacks,So, Edge computing is
computing. considered less safe than cloud
2. It reduces bandwidth requirements computing. So, Statement 3 is not
at central locations and processes correct.
data locally. Edge computing can be called an
3. It is more safe from malicious attacks extension of cloud computing,
as compared to cloud computing. whereby it differs in the time taken
4. It has lower latency compared to to process the information. In the
cloud computing case of edge computing, the data is
How many statements given above is/are analyzed locally, closer to where it is
correct ? stored, in real-time, without latency,
(a) Only one statement as compared to cloud computing. So,
(b) Only two statements Statement 4 is correct.
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
Ans: b 83) Consider the following statements with
EXPLANATION: Edge computing is a reference to the Internet Protocol version 6
platform that enables data to be (IPv6) :
analyzed, processed, and transferred 1. There are 32 bits in IPv6 address
at the edge ofa network. The concept compared to 16 bits in IPv4 address.
is to analyze data locally, closer to 2. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a
where it is stored, in real-time part of IPv6 which provides end-to-
without latency,rather than send it end security.
far away to a centralized data center. 3. It provides an enabling platform for
This minimizes the need for long- the Internet of Things and 5G
distancecommunications between technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are IPsec originally defined two protocols
correct ? for securing IP packets:
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only Authentication Header (AH) and
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP).
Ans: c The former provides data integrity
EXPLANATION: and anti-replay services, and the
Internet Protocol version 6 is the latter encrypts and authenticates
most recent version of the Internet data.
Protocol. This communications IPSec operates at the network layer
protocol provides an identification to provide end-to-end encryption.
and location system for computers IPsec authenticates and encrypts
on networks and routes traffic data packets sent over both IPv4- and
acrossthe Internet. IPv6-based networks.So, Statement 2
IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6) is a is correct.
set of specifications from the Internet 5G IoT is the fifth-generation cellular
Engineering Task Force (IETF)that is technology that revolutionizes and
essentially an upgrade of IP version 4 enables new capabilities such
(IPv4), a category of IP addresses in asArtificial Intelligence (AI), Cloud
IPv4-based routing. Thebasics of IPv6 computing, and the Internet of
are similar to those of IPv4 devices Things (IoT).
can use IPv6 as the source and IPv6 enables address availability for
destination addresses topass packets vast device growth in new areas of
over a network, and tools like ping technology innovation, such as loT.
work for network testing as they do 5G wireless enables vast device
in IPv4, with some slight variations. growth and deployment of mobile
The main difference between IPv4 devices that depend on lower power,
and IPv6 is the address size of IP low latency, and increased
addresses. IPv4 is a 32-bit address, bandwidth/throughput in the loT.
whereas IPv6 is a 128-bit loTdevices are estimated to be 20
hexadecimal address. IPv6 provides a billion (bn) by 2020 and 60bn by
large address space and contains a 2024. Such systems will require more
simpleheader compared to IPv4. So, deterministic operations that are
Statement 1 is not correct. dependent on lower latencies
IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a (>10ms)
suite of protocols and algorithms for The Mobile Internet of Things is
securing data transmitted overthe emerging.
internet or any public network. Critical infrastructure resilience and
IPsec is used for protecting sensitive manufacturing are areas of impact.
data, such as financial transactions, IPv6 for IoT, Industrial Internet and
medical records and corporate Edge Computing.
communications, as it's transmitted IPv6 cybersecurity and management.
across the network. It's also used to So, Statement 3 is correct.
secure virtual private networks
(VPNs).

84) Consider the following statements about diseases. They can affect almostany
Auto-Immune Diseases, often seen in news: part of your body. Some of the
1. Auto-immune diseases are conditions commonly known auto-immune
in which one’s own immune system diseases are,Rheumatoid
mistakenly attacks the healthycells of Arthritis,Type 1 diabetes, Celiac
the body. disease, etc.
2. Rheumatoid Arthritis and Type 1 Statement 3 is incorrect: Auto-
diabetes are some of the examples of immune diseases in general cannot
autoimmune diseases. be cured completely. However,
3. Almost all auto-immune diseases can thecondition can be controlled in
be permanently cured, at the current many cases. The overactive immune
level of technology. response can be tamed down to
Which of the statements given above is/are bringdown the inflammation.
correct?
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only 85) Consider the following statements with
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 reference to the Electro-magnetic Aircraft
Ans) b launch system:
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. 1. Catapult-assisted take-off But
In higher vertebrates, the memory Arrested Recovery (CATOBAR) is one
based acquired immunity has evolved of the efficient methods of launching
based on the ability todifferentiate aircraft under short deck length.
foreign organisms (pathogens) from 2. The Nimitz class of the United States
the body cells. In case of the attack of America uses CATOBAR.
from foreign material, 3. Both INS Vikrant and INS
the immune system gets activated Vikramaditya are CATOBAR-equipped
and attacks the foreign material. carriers.
However, due to factors like Which of the statements given above is/are
geneticsand several other unknown correct ?
reasons body’s immune system can (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
attack itself as well. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Statement 1 is correct: Body’s Ans: a
immune system when mistakenly EXPLANATION: Electromagnetic Aircraft
attacks the own healthy cells, then Launch System (EMALS) uses a wave
thecondition is known as Auto- of electromagnetic force to launch
immune disease/disorder. The exact the aircraft off the flight deck.
cause of autoimmune isorders Towards the end of the launch run,
isunknown. One theory is that some the direction of the electromagnetic
microorganisms (such as bacteria or wave is reversed to return the shuttle
viruses) or drugs may triggerchanges back to starting position.
that confuse the immune system. An aircraft onboard a carrier needs
Genetics also may have a bigger role extra help to get airborne since the
to play in this. length of the runway on deck is
Statement 2 is correct: There are insufficient to achieve the speed
more than 80 types of autoimmune needed for takeoff. One of the ways

to provide this extra push is by the Reserve by International Dark Sky
use of catapults (CATOBAR). Reserve Association (IDA).
Catapult-assisted takeoff is an Which of the statements given above are
efficient method of launching aircraft correct?
under short deck length. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
Under this technique, the takeoff is c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
assisted by pulling the aircraft under Answer: d
the influence of a high-speed shuttle. Explanation: Option d is the correct answer.
The catapults are built into the A dark-sky preserve (DSP) is an area,
surface of the carrier’s flight deck, usually surrounding a park or
which is in turn propelled by using observatory that is kept free of
the vessel’s power system, which artificial light pollution. The purpose
may be nuclear reactors or steam of a dark sky preserve is generally to
boilers. So, Statement 1 is correct. promote astronomy.
Currently, three countries have Statement 1 is correct: A dark sky
operational CATOBAR configurations. reserve is an area where light
The Nimitz class of the United States pollution is monitored. Basically,
of America, Charles de Gaulle for the there are several restrictions around
French Navy and the Clemenceau the reserve where humans are not
class, which is in active service for the allowed to have any loud source of
Brazilian Navy (previously operated light. So, it allows better observation
by the French Navy). So, Statement 2 of skies at night for astronomy.
is correct. Statement 2 is correct: Recently, in a
India’s sole aircraft carrier INS first-of-its-kind initiative, the
Vikramaditya currently works on a Department of Science & Technology
Short Take-Off But Arrested Recovery (DST) has announced the setting up
or STOBAR mechanism with an of India’s first Dark Sky Reserve in
angular ski-jump. India’s second Hanle, Ladakh. Hanle,which is about
aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant, set to be 4,500 metres above sea level, hosts
commissioned later this year, will use telescopes and is regarded as one of
the CATOBAR system to launch the the world’s most optimal sites for
aircraft. So, Statement 3 is not astronomical observations.
correct. Statement 3 is correct: The
International Dark Sky Association
86) In the context of Dark Sky Reserves, recently (IDA) is a U.S.-based non-profit that
seen in news, consider the following designates places as International
statements. Dark Sky Places, Parks, Sanctuaries
1. It is an area where light pollution is and Reserves, depending on the
monitored, to allow better criteria they meet. Currently no
observation of sky at night. Indian site is certified by IDA as an
2. A Dark Sky Reserve is to be set up at International Dark Sky Reserve.
Hanle in Ladakh.
3. Currently, no Indian site has been
certified as International Dark Sky

87) Consider the following statements with top academic and National Research
reference to the National Mission on & Development Institutes. All these
Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems : hubs are workingon developing
1. The mission aims to improve the solutions for people-centric
cyber physical system infrastructure problems.
in the country by establishing These hubs will focus on generating
Technology Innovation Hubs. new knowledge through basic and
2. This mission targets academic and applied research in areas that are
Research and Development mandated to them. They will be the
institutions. source of fundamental knowledge/
3. Under the mission, first-of-its-kind technologies needed to prepare India
Internet of Things (IoT) device has for the next generation of
been developed to monitor ambient technologies .So, Statement 1 and 2
temperature during the are correct.
transportation of vaccines. Under this mission, AmbiTag, the
4. The Mission is jointly implemented by first-of-its-kind Internet of Things
GOI In collaboration with UNCTAD (IoT) device that monitors ambient
How many statements given above is/are temperature during the
correct ? transportation of vaccines, including
(a) Only one statement Covid-19, medicines, blood samples,
(b) Only two statements food, and dairy products, meat
(c)Only three statements products, and animal semen, has
(d) All four statements been developed by researchers at the
Ans: c IIT Ropar, Technology Innovation Hub
EXPLANATION: National Mission on - AWaDH and startup called
Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical ScratchNest. So, Statement 3 is
Systems (NMICPS) is a correct.
comprehensive Mission that would National Mission on Interdisciplinary
address technology development, Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) is
application development, human a Pan India Mission and covers entire
resource development &skill gamut of India that includes Central
enhancement, entrepreneurship, and Ministries, State Governments,
start-up development in CPS and Industry and Academia which is to be
associated technologies. It is to implemented by Department of
beimplemented by the Department Science &Technology. Thus, it is
of Science &Technology, which is implemented by Government ofIndia
under the Ministry of Science and and it doesnot have any collaboration
Technology. with United Nations Conference on
NM-ICPS, which fosters technological Trade and Development.So,
solutions in health, education, Statement 4 is not correct.
energy, environment, agriculture,
strategic cum security. Industry 4.0 is
implemented through 25 Technology 88) Consider the following statements with
Innovation Hubs (TIHs) established in reference to the ‘in-flight WiFi’ :

1. Only Satellite based WiFi systems can linked to ground stations that are
be used in in-flight WiFi services connected to operation centers run
2. Inflight WiFi cannot be operational if by service providers.
the aircraft is operating at more than Thus, In-flight WiFi has not only a
20,000 feet. satellite-based WiFi system but also
3. The central government has the Air to a Ground system. So,
prohibited airlines operating in India Statement 1 is not correct.
to provide in-flight WiFi services to In In-flight WiFi, the data is
passengers transmitted to the passenger's device
Which of the statements given above is/are through an onboard router, which, in
not correct ? turn, is connected to the aircraft's
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only antenna. When the aircraft reaches
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 an altitude of 3,000 meters, the
Ans: d onboard antenna will switch to
EXPLANATION: satellite-based services. But the WiFi
WiFi in airplanes lets us use our can be operational even if the
gadgets with an internet connection, aircraftis operating at 40,000 feet.
just like on the ground, but with the Even though airlines worldwide are
flight mode turned on. There are two rushing to provide inflight WiFi
systems of connectivity for inflight services, WiFi in airplanes is slower
WiFi, and more expensive than on the
Air-to-ground Satellite ground. Thus, Inflight WiFi can be
An air-to-ground system is a ground- operational even if the aircraft
based system that works similarly to operates at 40,000 feet. So,
mobile data networks on cell phones. Statement 2 is not correct.
Some towers project signals upwards, In 2020, the Government of India
unlike mobile data towers that permitted airlines operating in India
project downwards. to provide inflight WiFi services to
Antennae fitted beneath the passengers. The pilot “may permit
airplanes receive signals from these the access of Internet services by
towers and send them to an onboard passengers on board an aircraft in
server. The server has a modem that flight, through WiFi on board, when a
converts these signals, providing laptop, smartphone, tablet,
passengers with WiFi. These towers smartwatch, e-reader or a point of
are connected to operation centers saledevice is used in flight mode or
run by service providers. airplane mode,” said by the official
In Satellite based WiFi systems, notification of the government.
antennae are fitted on the top of The Telecom Commission gave its
airplanes. Antennae receive signals green signal to in-flight Internet
from satellites orbiting the earth. The connectivity and mobile
antennae must constantly adjust communications on aircraft in Indian
their position to receive signals as airspace in 2018. So, Statement 3 is
both the Satellite and the airplane not correct.
constantly move. These satellites are

89) With reference to the Large Hadron Collider particles as they travel through the
(LHC), consider the following statements: system.
1. The LHC is world’s largest and the Statement 3 is correct. The LHC
most powerful particle accelerator. consists of a 27-kilometre ring of
2. It is situated in the city of Stockholm. superconducting magnets with a
3. Inside the accelerator, two high- number of accelerating structures to
energy particle beams travel in boost the energy of the particles
opposite direction, at close to the along the way. Inside the accelerator,
speed of light before they are made two high-energy particle beams
to collide. travel at close to the speed of light
4. The LHC is a Joint collaboration of before they are made to collide. The
National Aeronautics and Space beams travel in opposite directions in
Administration (NASA) and European separate beam pipes – two tubes
Space Agency (ESA). kept at ultrahigh vacuum. .
Which of the above statements are correct? Statement 4 is incorrect. The LHC
a) 1, 2 and 3 only experiment is under control of CERN
b) 2 and 4 only (European Council for Nuclear
c) 1 and 3 only Research, and not a collaboration
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 between NASA and ESA
Answer: c 90) Consider the following pairs :

Explanation: Option c is the correct answer. Missiles Importance
Statement 1 is correct. The largest 1. Dhanush - Indian short-range, ship-
and most powerful particle launchedballistic missile
accelerator in the world is known as 2. Prahaar - It is a short-range, solid
the Large Hadron Collider (LHC). It propellant,road-mobile
became operational on September ballistic missile
10, 2008, and it continues to be the 3. Shaurya - French short-range anti-ship
most recent addition of the CERN cruisemissile
accelerator complex. The LHC, which 4. Rudram - India's first indigenous anti-
is operated by CERN (the European radiationMissile
Organisation for Nuclear Research), is How many pairs given above is/are correctly
one of the biggest science matched ?
experiments in the world. (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
Statement 2 is incorrect. The 27 km (c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs
long LHC is a circular pipe that is Ans: c
situated close to Geneva, EXPLANATION:
Switzerland, on the Franco-Swiss The Dhanush missile is an Indian short-range,
border. The LHC is made up of a 27- ship-launched ballistic missile (SLBM).
kilometre-long ring of It is the third variant of the Prithvi
superconducting magnets and other missile family, which includes the
accelerating components that serve Prithvi I, Prithvi II, and the Prithivi Air
to increase the energy of the Defence interceptor. Dhanush is the
naval version of the surface-to-

surface missile Prithvi, which can designedto detect, track and
carry nuclearwarheads. It can cover a neutralize the enemy's radio
distance of 250 km and carry a 500- frequency sources that form a part of
payload. It is liquid-fueled and its defense systems.These include
capable ofcarrying nuclear or radar, communication assets and
conventional payloads. So, Pair 1 is other radio frequency sources. These
correct. missiles depend ona satellite-based
Global Positioning System (GPS)
The Prahaar is a short-range, solid- navigation mechanism. So, Pair 4 is
fuel, road-mobile ballistic missile correct.
designed for tactical strikes against
close-range targets. Its range is 150 91) Consider the following statements about
km, and its payload capacity is Synthetic Biology:
around 200 kg. Prahar is a 1. Synthetic Biology is an area of science
contemporary weapon system which involves redesigning organisms
capable of carrying multiple types of for useful purposes.
warheads and neutralizing various 2. Synthetic Biology can be utilised for
targets. So, Pair 2 is correct. developing microorganism which
helps in Bioremediation of pollutants.
Shaurya missile is a land variant of 3. Synthetic Biology doesn't involve
Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile introduction of any foreign or new
(SLBM) K-15 with a strike range of gene to the target organism.
about 750 km and can carry Which of the statements given above is/are
warheads with a payload of up to one correct?
tonne. It is a medium-range a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
surfaceto-surface ballistic missile that c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
is less vulnerable to anti-ballistic Answer: a
missile defense systems due to its Explanation: Option a is the correct answer.
highmaneuverability. It can be stored Statement 1 is correct. Synthetic
in a composite canister, which makes biology is that field of science which
it easy to handle and transport, like involves redesigning organisms for
the BrahMos supersonic cruise useful purposes by engineering them
missile. Like the features of a ballistic to have new abilities. Researchers as
missile, Shaurya is powered bysolid well as companies working in
fuel but can guide itself up to the synthetic biology harnessing nature's
target like a cruise missile. So, Pair 3 power to address issues in
is not correct. agriculture, manufacturing, and
medicine.
Rudram (meaning "remover of Statement 2 is correct. Synthetic
sorrows") is India's first anti-radiation biology goals generally seek to
missile (ARM). It is an Air-to- redesign organisms so that they can
Surfacemissile developed by the create a substance, such as a
Defence Research and Development medicine or fuel, or acquire a new
Organisation (DRDO). Rudram is ability, such as the ability to sense

something in the environment. Here 92. With reference to Trade Related Intellectual
are a few examples of what scientists Property Rights (TRIPS), consider the
have produced with synthetic following statements:
biology: 1. It deals with 8 kinds of property
1) To remove pollutants from our rights.
water, soil, and air, microorganisms 2. TRIPS Agreement is the first
are used in bioremediation. international agreement concerning
2) Beta-carotene, a nutrient normally all types of intellectual property.
associated with carrots that prevents 3. Article 31 allows compulsory
vitamin A deficiency, is produced by licensing, but the government cannot
rice that has been modified. Every use a patent without the
year, between 250,000 and 500,000 authorization of its owner.
children lose their vision due to 4. Agreement is binding on all members
vitamin A deficiency, which also of the World Trade Organization only.
significantly increases the risk of Which of the statements given above is/are
dying from infectious infections. correct ?
3) A sustainable, eco-friendly (a) 1 and 2 only
substitute to the real roses that (b) 2 and 3 only
perfumers use to develop luxury (c) 3 and 4 only
scents is yeast that has been (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
engineered to produce rose oil. Ans: d
Statement 3 is incorrect. Synthetic EXPLANATION: The Trade-Related
biology and another approach called Aspects of Intellectual Property
"genome editing" both require Rights (TRIPS) are crucial for
changing an organism's genetic code, promoting trade in knowledge and
although certain people distinguish innovation, resolving intellectual
between the two approaches based property trade disputes, and ensuring
on how that alteration is done. In World Trade Organization (WTO)
synthetic biology, large segments of members’ freedom to pursue their
DNA are often stitched together and domestic goals. The agreement is a
inserted into the genome of an formal acknowledgment of the
organism. These synthesized DNA importance of intellectual property
segments may contain genes that are and trade relations. It has 8 types of
already present in other organisms, propertyrights such as,
or they may be completely new. In Copyright and related rights
genome editing, scientists generally Trademarks
use tools to make smaller changes to Geographical indications
the organism's DNA. Industrial designs
Genome editing tools can be utilized Patents
to delete or add small segments of Integrated circuit layout-designs
DNA in the genome. Protection of undisclosed information
Reverse definition is written in the Control of Anti Competitive practices
statement 3 hence it is incorrect. in Contractual Licenses
So, Statement 1 is correct.

The TRIPS Agreement protects
intellectual property in trade-related 93) With reference to the Cyber knife system,
regions to a large extent and is consider the following statements :
regarded as a comprehensive new 1. The Cyber Knife System is the first
framework for intellectual property and only fully robotic radiotherapy
standards protection. The TRIPs device.
Agreement also has the distinction of 2. It is an invasive treatment for both
being the first legal international cancerous and non-cancerous
agreement to address all areas of tumors.
intellectual property with some 3. It delivers precise doses of radiation
specific clauses. So, Statement 2 is with extreme accuracy.
correct. 4. It can significantly reduce the risk of
The Part II of this agreement covers side effects.
the requirements for the availability, Which of the statements given above is/are
scope, and application of intellectual correct ?
property rights (Article 9 to Article (a) 1 and 2 only
40). Article 31 of the agreement (b) 2,3 and 4 only
contains provisions that allow the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
government of a member nation to (d) All of the above
award a compulsory license for Ans: c
medicines without the patentee’s EXPLANATION:
approval, subject to specific Radiation therapy (also called
circumstances. Thus, Article 31 allows radiotherapy) is a cancer treatment
compulsory licensing, but the that uses high doses of radiation to
government can use a patent without killcancer cells and shrink tumors. At
the authorization of its owner. So, low doses, radiation is used in x-rays
Statement 3 is not correct. to see inside your body, as withx-rays
The TRIPS Agreement is Annex 1C of of your teeth or broken bones.
the WTO Agreement, which entered The CyberKnife System is the first and
into force on 1 January 1995. only fully robotic radiotherapy
The TRIPS Agreement is binding on device. CyberKnife uses
each Member of the WTO from the stereotacticbody radiation therapy
date the WTO Agreement (SRS SBRT), delivering precise doses
becomeseffective for it. However, the of radiation with extreme accuracy.
TRIPS Agreement gave original So,Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Members transitional periods, which Invasive treatment is a medical
dependon the level of their procedure that invades (enters) the
development, to bring themselves body, usually by cutting or
into compliance with its rules. puncturingthe skin or by inserting
The Council for TRIPS administers the instruments into the body.
TRIPS Agreement and is open to all The CyberKnife System is the most
WTO Members. The Council reports advanced form of radiosurgery - it is
to the WTO General Council. So, a painless, non-invasive
Statement 4 is correct. treatmentthat delivers high doses of

precisely targeted radiation to medium is that angle for whichthe
destroy cancerous and non- angle of refraction is 90°.For total
cancerous tumorswithin the body. internal reflection to take place, the
So, Statement 2 is not correct. following two conditions must be
Radiation therapy is a treatment satisfied,
option for many types of tumors The light must travel from an
throughout the body. Precise and optically denser to an optically rarer
accurate radiation delivery to the medium
tumor is key to killing cancerous cells. The angle of incidence in the denser
Accurate and precise delivery helps medium must be greater than the
minimize irradiation of the healthy critical angle for the two media Thus,
tissues surrounding tumors and Total Internal Reflection happens
potentially the risk of side effects. when a ray of light enters from a
CyberKnife System delivers precise denser medium to a rare medium. So,
doses of radiation with extreme Statement 1 is not correct.
accuracy. Thus, it can significantly When the light is reflected by a
reduce the risk of side effects. So, surface, some fraction of it normally
Statement 4 is correct. gets transmitted. Therefore, the
reflected ray is always less intense
94) Consider the following statements with than the incident ray, however,
reference to the concept of Total Internal smooth the reflecting surface may
Reflection : be.In total internal reflection, on the
1. It happens when a ray of light enters other hand, no transmission of light
from a rarer medium to a denser takes place as cent percent (100%) l
medium ight is reflected at a transparent
2. No transmission of light takes place in boundary. So, Statement 2 is correct.
total internal reflection A mirage is a naturally-occurring
3. Mirage is an example of total internal optical phenomenon in which light
reflection rays bend via refraction to produce a
Which of the statements given above is/are displaced image of distant objects or
correct ? the sky. Mirages happen when the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only ground is very hot, and the air is cool.
(c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only Example of Mirage: Some of us might
Ans: d have noticed that while moving in a
EXPLANATION: bus or a car during a hotsummer day,
If the angle of incidence is greater a distant patch of road appears to be
than the critical angle, the incident wet, especially on a highway. But, we
ray will be reflected back in the same do not find anyevidence of wetness
medium. Such a reflection is called when we reach that spot. This is also
Total Internal Reflection, and the due to mirage. So, Statement 3 is
incident ray is said to be correct.
totallyinternally reflected.
The critical angle of incidence (ic) for
a ray incident from a denser to rarer

95) Consider the following statements with materials not useful for the cell. The
reference to Prokaryotic Cells and Eukaryotic vacuoles present inprokaryotes are
cells: smaller compared to the ones found
1. Unlike Prokaryotic cells, the in eukaryotic cells due to the smaller
Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined cell size.
Nucleus.
2. Unlike Eukaryotic cells, Prokaryotic 96) Consider the following statements with
cells are characterized by the reference to the Voice over Internet
absence of Mitochondria. Protocol (VoIP) :
3. Vacuoles are present in both 1. It converts a person's voice into a
Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells. digital signal that travels over the
Which of the statements given above is/are Internet
correct? 2. It allows a person to make a call
a) 1 and 2 only directly from a computer
b) 1 only 3. It does not have the option to speak
c) 2 and 3 only to more than one person at a time
d) 1, 2 and 3 4. All VoIP services require an active
Ans) d Internet connection.
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. How many statements given above is/are
Statement 1 is correct: Prokaryotes correct ?
have a cell wall surrounding the cell (a) Only one statement
membrane except in mycoplasma. (b) Only two statements
The fluid matrix filling the cell is the (c) Only three statements
cytoplasm. There is no well-defined (d) All four statements
nucleus. In addition to welldefined Ans: c
nucleus, eukaryotic cells include EXPLANATION:
other membrane-bound structures Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is
called organelles. a technology that allows you to make
Statement 2 is correct: Mitochondria voice calls using an
is known as the powerhouses of the Internetconnection rather than an
cell. They are responsible forenergy analog (traditional) phone line.
production. Prokaryotes lack Here the Voice is converted into a
mitochondria and instead produce digital signal by VoIP services that
their ATP on their cell surface travel over the Internet. But if the
membrane. Prokaryotes do not have regular phone number is called, the
mitochondria. Mitochondria are only signal is converted to a regular
found in eukaryotic cells. Thisis also telephone signal i.e. an analog signal
true of other membrane-bound before it reaches the destination.
structures like the nucleus and the VoIP allows a person to make a call
Golgi apparatus. directly from a computer or a special
Statement 3 is correct: The vacuole is VoIP phone.
the membrane-bound space found in Some VoIP services allow you to call
the cytoplasm. It containswater, sap, multiple people at the same time,
excretory product and other while others may allow you tocall

anyone. They can have or do not A blockchain is a distributed database
have a phone number, which includes or ledger shared among the nodes of
local, long-distance, mobile, and a computer network that doesn't
international numbers. Thus, this require the approval of the central
service has an option to speak more authority. As a database, a blockchain
than one person at a time. stores information electronically in a
All VoIP needs a high-speed Internet digital format. Blockchains are best
connection which can be through a known for their crucial role in
cable modem or high-speed services cryptocurrency systems, such as
such as a local area network. So, Bitcoin, for maintaining a secure and
Statement 1, 2 & 4 are correct and decentralized record of transactions.
Statement 3 is not correct. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Property ownership records are
97) Consider the following statements : stored in an Exonum blockchain, with
1. Storing data about monetary ownership denoted by digital
transactions certificates. Data is prevented from
2. Cryptocurrencies without the unauthorized, fraudulent changes
approval of the central authority due to the nature of blockchain
3. Track property ownership technology. It is an entirely
4. Negotiating a contract agreement decentralized, secure digital system,
5. Facilitating a modern voting system increasing efficiency and trust. Thus,
6. Illegal drug trade theblockchain can track ownership
At the present level of technology, which of and authenticity, undeniably proving
the following activities can be successfully ownership. So, Statement 3 is
carried out by Blockchain Technology ? correct.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only A smart contract is a computer code
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only that can be built into the blockchain
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only to facilitate, verify, or negotiatea
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 contract agreement. Smart contracts
Ans: d operate under a set of conditions to
EXPLANATION: which users agree. When
Blockchain is a shared, immutable thoseconditions are met, the terms
ledger that facilitates the process of of the agreement are automatically
recording transactions and tracking carried out. So, Statement 4 is
assets in a business network. correct.
Blockchains can store information on Blockchain technology provides a
monetary transactions using platform for creating a highly secure,
cryptocurrencies, product tracking, decentralized technology that could
and other data. For example, food be used to record and report votes
products can be traced from and prevent many types of voter
whenthey are shipped out until they fraud in elections.
arrive at their destination. So, Voters can effectively submit their
Statement 1 is correct. votes without revealing their identity
or political preferences to the public.

Officials can count votes with Hydroponic farming has become a
absolute certainty, knowing that each foundation of sustainable agriculture
ID can be attributed to one vote, no since it is both efficient as well as
fakes can be created, and that environmentally safe. However,
tampering is impossible. So, following crops cannot be grown in
Statement 5 is correct. the hydroponic systems:
Drug and human traffickers Option1 is correct: Sweet potatoes
increasingly use Blockchain and potatoes need a lot of room to
Technology and virtual currencies to grow, and their roots must be
connect with buyers and hide allowed to spread out. Potatoes and
payments. Online marketplaces can sweet potatoes are starchy crops;
allow anonymity, connect buyers and thus, they will require more nutrition
sellers, and offer various payment as compared to other vegetables.
options, including virtual Since potatoes require components
currencies.The University of found in soil, such as
Technology Sydney report estimates nitrogen,potassium, and phosphorus,
that around 46% of illegal activity per a lack of soil is also a concern.
year isassociated with Bitcoin. The Therefore, sweet potatoes cannot be
report found that Bitcoin is the most grown in hydroponic system.
commonly used cryptocurrency Option 2 is correct: Corn cannot be
whichuses Blockchain Technology for grown in a hydroponic system. Corn
purchasing drugs on the darknet. So, has deep roots that require a lot of
Statement 6 is correct. sunlight to grow. Its roots can reach a
depth of 60 inches. Another issue to
98) Hydroponic farming is the technique of consider is that maize is generally
growing plants using a water-based nutrient produced in fields with full sunlight.
solution rather than soil. In this context, The LED, or Light Emitting Diode,
which among the following crops cannot be would not have the same effect in a
grown in a hydroponic system? hydroponic farming arrangement.
1. Sweet potatoes Option 3 is correct: Pumpkins and
2. Corn other gourds are usually cultivated on
3. Pumpkin the ground and need a lot of room to
4. Tomatoes spread out. Thus, they cannot be
5. Leaf lettuce grown in a hydroponic system. They
Select the correct answer using the codes are particularly challenging to
given below: cultivate in a hydroponic system due
a) 3 and 5 only to their huge size. Pumpkins also
b) 1, 2 and 3 only require pollination from bees,which
c) 2, 4 and 5 only might be difficult in a confined
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only environment.
Answer: b Option 4 and 5 are incorrect. Most
Explanation: Option b is the correct common crops grown hydroponically
answer. are tomatoes, leaf lettuce,peppers,
strawberries, watercress, celery etc.

99) Consider the following statements with light altogether due to degradation of
reference to the Light-Emitting Diodes the lumen. Most LEDs have an L70
(LEDs): rating, which denotes how many
1. Normally, LEDs emit light and heat in hours the bulb willlast before it hits
all directions 70% of its initial light offering, called
2. The light intensity of LEDs diminishes lumen maintenance. So, Statement 2
with time is correct.
3. Silicon and Germanium are the LEDs are p-n junction devices
commonly used semiconductor constructed of gallium arsenide
materials for LEDs (GaAs), gallium arsenide phosphide
Which of the statements given above is/are (GaAsP), or gallium phosphide (GaP).
correct ? Silicon and germanium are unsuitable
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only for LED manufacturing because those
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 junctions produce heat and no
Ans: a appreciable IR or visible light. The
EXPLANATION: junction in a LED is forward-biased.
LED stands for the light-emitting When electrons cross the junction
diode. LED lighting products produce from the n- to the p-type material,
light up to 90% more efficiently than the electron-hole recombination
incandescent light bulbs.LEDs are process produces some photons in
"directional" light sources, meaning the IR or visible in an
they emit light in only one direction electroluminescence process.
instead of incandescentand CFL Electroluminescence (EL) is an optical
bulbs, which release light and heat in and electrical phenomenon in which
all directions. This implies that LEDs a material emits light in response to
can use light andenergy more the passage of an electric current or a
efficiently in various applications. So, strong electric field. So, Statement 3
Statement 1 is not correct. is not correct
The capability of reducing the
intensity of output light is called 100) With reference to India’s Defence, consider
dimming. LEDs can be dimmed by the following statements :
controlling the forward current 1. Cheetah 2. Mi-17V-5
flowing through them.The light 3. MH 60 R 4. Rudra
intensity is governed by various 5. KA-31
factors, including the LED chip itself Which of the above is/are indigenous-made
(including the design,individual helicopters in India’s Defence ?
wafer, the materials, etc.), the (a) 1 and 4 only
current level, encapsulation and (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
other factors. Supplying morecurrent (c) 3 and 5 only
to an LED increases the light (d) 4 only
intensity, and reducing the current Ans: d
decreases its intensity.LED bulbs will EXPLANATION:
progressively dimmer throughout
their life until they stop producing

The Cheetah helicopter known as 2. The labour force includes those who
are employed and those who are
Alouette II is a light helicopter
looking for work but unable toget it.
originally manufactured by
3. The fall in Unemployment Rate
SudAviation and later Aerospatiale,
happens only when more jobs are
both of France.
created.
Mi-17V-5 is a military helicopter Which of the above statements is/are
which was manufactured by Kazan correct?
Helicopters, a subsidiary of a) 1 only b) 1, 2
stateownedhelicopter design and c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
manufacturing company called Solution: b)
Russian Helicopters. The Unemployment Rate (or UER) is
Lockheed Martin Corporation of the percentage of people in the
labour force who demanded work
the U.S.A. manufactures MH 60 R but didnot get it.
helicopters. Under normal circumstances, the
The Kamov Ka-31 (NATO reporting UER is a perfectly fine metric to track
name Helix) is a military helicopter unemployment but in India’s case,
originally developed for theSoviet andespecially over the past decade,
Navy and currently in service in UER is becoming ineffective in
Russia, China, and India in the naval, accurately assessing the true level
airborne early warningand control ofunemployment distress. That’s
role. So, statements 1,2,3 &5 are not because the labour force itself has
correct. been shrinking rapidly.
India, under Atmanirbhar Bharat The labour force includes those who
Abhiyaan, is continuously growing in are employed and those who are
its capability to indigenouslydesign, looking for work but unable to get it
develop and manufacture advanced (i.e.unemployed).
cutting-edge technologies and So, what has been happening over
systems in the Defence Sector.The the past decade is that the Labour
indigenously made helicopters of Force Participation Rate in India has
India are Prachand, Rudra, Dhruv, beenfalling. As such, often when it
Lancer and Light UtilityHelicopter, appears that UER has fallen, it is not
whereby all the helicopters are because more jobs have been
manufactured by Hindustan created butbecause fewer people
Aeronautics Limited (HAL). have demanded jobs (in other words,
So,Statement 4 is correct. the LFPR has fallen).Since millions do
not formally “demand” work, there is
101) Consider the following statements. an undercounting of unemployed
1. The Unemployment Rate is the people in India. This iswhy UER fails
percentage of people in the labour to adequately capture the
force who demanded work but unemployment distress in India.
didnot get it.

102) Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements is/are
e-kuber. correct?
1. E-kuber is the core banking solution a) 1, 2 b) 2 only
of the RBI that gives high degree of c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
access to commercial banks totheir Solution: a)
current account with the RBI. India has imposed anti-dumping duty
2. e-kuber is used to conduct exercises on five Chinese products, including
like auctioning of government certain aluminium goods and
securities. somechemicals, for five years to
Which of the above statements is/are guard local manufacturers from
correct? cheap imports from the neighbouring
a) 1 only b) 2 only country.
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 According to separate notifications of
Solution: c) the Central Board of Indirect Taxes
e-Kuber is the Core Banking Solution and Customs (CBIC), the duties
of Reserve Bank of India. E-Kuber havebeen imposed on certain
provides the provision of a single products.
currentaccount for each bank across These duties were imposed following
the country, with decentralised recommendations of the Commerce
access to this account from Ministry’s investigation arm,
anywhere-anytimeusing portal based theDirectorate General of Trade
services in a safe manner. Remedies (DGTR).
Auction of Government securities is The DGTR, in separate probes, has
done through e-kuber system. concluded that these products have
Sovereign Gold Bonds are available been exported at a price below
forsubscription at the branches of normalvalue in Indian markets, which
scheduled commercial banks and has resulted in dumping
designated post offices through RBI’s
e-kubersystem. 104) Which of the following are released by
Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour?
103) Consider the following statements. 1. CPI for Industrial Workers (IW)
1. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and 2. CPI for Urban Non-Manual
Customs (CBIC), imposes Employees (UNME)
antidumping duties in India. 3. CPI for Rural Labourers (RL)
2. A product is said to be dumped when 4. CPI for Agricultural Labourers (AL)
the product has been exported at a Select the correct answer code:
price below normal value inIndian a) 1, 3 b) 1, 2, 3
markets. c) 1, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
3. Antidumping duty is imposed based Solution: c)
on the recommendations of Union In India, there are four consumer
Finance Ministry’s investigationarm, price index numbers, which are
the Directorate General of Trade calculated, and these are as follows:
Remedies (DGTR). • CPI for Industrial Workers (IW)
• CPI for Agricultural Labourers (AL)

• CPI for Rural Labourers (RL) and 3. They help lower temperatures in
• CPI for Urban Non-Manual Employees urban heat islands, reduce air and
(UNME). noise pollution.
While the Ministry of Statistics and Which of the above statements is/are
Program Implementation collects CPI correct?
(UNME) data and compiles it, a) 1 only b) 1, 2
theremaining three are collected by c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Solution: c)
Labour Miyawaki model to increase the
green cover:
105) Reserve Bank of India plans to launch its Pioneered by Japanese botanist and
own central bank digital currency (CBDC) ecologist Akira Miyawaki, the
next fiscal. In this contextconsider the technique allows for growing dense
following statements regarding CBDC. forestscomprising native trees on
1. CBDC is a legal tender issued by a small patches of land. One of the
central bank in a digital form. ways this is done is by ensuring that
2. It is similar to a fiat currency issued in tree growth isfaster than traditional
paper and is interchangeable with afforestation methods
any other fiat currency.
3. CBDC will be backed by the 107) Kawal Tiger Reserve, recently seen in news
blockchain technology. is located in
Which of the above statements is/are a) Kerala b) Telangana
correct? c) Karnataka d) Tamil Nadu
a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 Solution: b)
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 The Kawal Tiger Reserve, located in
Solution: d) Telangana is going to host its first
 CBDC is a legal tender issued by a central ever ‘Bird Walk’.
bank in a digital form. It is similar to a fiat Kawal is home to a rich diversity in
currency issued in paper andis flora and fauna with more than 300
interchangeable with any other fiat species of birds, and over 600 tree
currency. The RBI is expected to launch specieswith different forest
the CBDC from the upcoming financial compositions such as pure teak,
year. This follows the government’s plans bamboo with teak, pure bamboo.
to launch the CBDC that will be backed by
blockchaintechnology. 108) The Department of Consumer Affairs is
entrusted with the implementation of
106) Consider the following statements regarding 1. Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 2016
Miyawaki technique. 2. Standards of Weights and Measures
1. Miyawaki technique allows for 3. Essential Commodities Act, 1955
growing dense forests comprising 4. Emblems and Names (Prevention of
native trees on small patches of land. Improper Use) Act, 1952
2. In Miyawaki technique the tree Select the correct answer code:
growth is slower compared to the a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3
traditional afforestation method. d) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Solution: d) Which of the above statements is/are
Department of Consumer Affairs is one of the correct?
two Departments under the Ministry a) 1, 2
of Consumer Affairs, Food &Public b) 2 only
Distribution. It was constituted as a c) 2, 3
separate Department in June 1997 as d) 1, 2, 3
it was considered necessary tohave a Solution: b)
separate Department to give a fillip The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana
to the nascent consumer movement Yojana (PMMVY), launched in 2017,
in the country. provides ₹5,000 for the birth of the
THE DEPARTMENT HAS BEEN ENTRUSTED firstchild to partially compensate a
WITH THE FOLLOWING WORK woman for loss of wages. It also aims
• Implementation of Consumer Protection to improve the nutritional well-being
Act, 2019. of themother and the child. The
• Implementation of Bureau of Indian amount is given in three instalments
Standards Act, 2016 upon meeting certain conditions. It is
• Implementation of Standards of Weights combinedwith another scheme,
and Measures - The Legal Metrology Janani Suraksha Yojana, under which
Act, 2009. nearly ₹1,000 is given for an
• Regulation of Packaged Commodities. institutional birth, so
• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 (10 of that a woman gets a total of
1955) (Supply, Prices and Distribution ₹6,000.Under the revamped PMMVY
of EssentialCommodities not dealt under Mission Shakti, the maternity
with specifically by any other benefit amounting to ₹6000 is also to
Department). beprovided for the second child, but
• Prevention of Black Marketing and only if the second is a girl child, to
Maintenance of Supply of Essential discourage pre-birth sex selection
Commodities Act, 1980(7 of 1980). andpromote the girl child.
• The Emblems and Names (Prevention of One of the objectives of the scheme
Improper Use) Act, 1952. is to also improve health seeking
behaviour of women
109) Consider the following statements regarding
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana 110) Consider the following statements regarding
(PMMVY). the recently launched Operation AAHT.
1. The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana 1. It is a nationwide operation to curb
Yojana (PMMVY), provides monetary human trafficking.
assistance for the birth ofthe first 2. As part of Operation AAHT, special
child to fully compensate a woman teams will be deployed on all long-
for loss of wages. distance trains/routes.
2. One of the objectives of the scheme 3. It was launched by the Union
is to also improve health seeking Ministry of Women & Child
behaviour of women. Development.
3. The scheme is the revamped version Which of the above statements is/are
of the Janani Suraksha Yojana. correct?

a) 1 only b) 1, 2 • It can augment or replace the diesel-electric
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 propulsion system of non-nuclear
Solution: b) vessels.
Railway Protection Force has • It is based on the combustion of stored
launched a nationwide operation to oxygen and ethanol to augment
curb human trafficking. As part of battery-powered
“OperationAAHT”, special teams will propulsion.Significance of AIP:
be deployed on all long-distance • AIP significantly improves stealth because it
trains/routes with focus on rescuing enables a submarine to generate
victims,particularly women and electricity for services andbattery
children, from the clutches of charging and propulsion while
traffickers.As part of “Operation completely submerged.
AAHT”, the infrastructure and • AIP systems also generate electricity,
intelligence network of the force powering a submarine to operate and
could be utilised to collect,collate and also generate oxygen, lightingand
analyse clues on victims, source, amenities for crew.
route, destination, popular trains • The Non-nuclear submarines running on
used by suspects, identity battery power or AIP can be virtually
ofcarriers/agents, kingpins etc and silent.
shared with other law-enforcing
agencies. 112) The “Wolbachia method” sometimes seen in
news is regarding the control of
111) Consider the following statements regarding a) Dengue b) Plague
Air-independent propulsion. c) Covid-19 d) Tuberculosis
1. It is a technology which allows a non- Solution: a)
nuclear submarine to operate by A study suggests that the “Wolbachia
using the atmospheric oxygen. method” could be used to
2. It is based on the combustion of significantly reduce the incidence of
oxygen and ethanol to augment denguefever, a mosquito-borne
battery-powered propulsion. disease, in populations where the
3. The Non-nuclear submarines running illness is endemic.
on Air-independent propulsion can Scientists have tested this method in
be virtually silent. a 27-month trial in Yogyakarta,
Which of the above statements is/are Indonesia.
correct? They found that using the Wolbachia
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 method reduced the occurrence of
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 dengue in the treated population
Solution: b) by77%.
What is Air-independent propulsion? How it works?
• It is a technology which allows a non- This method involves introducing
nuclear submarine to operate Wolbachia, a type of bacteria, into
without the need to populations of Aedes aegypti, the
accessatmospheric oxygen (by mosquitospecies responsible for
surfacing or using a snorkel). spreading dengue.

When the Wolbachia-infected c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
mosquitoes breed with their wild Solution: d)
counterparts, the percentage of The International Covenant on Civil
mosquitoescarrying the bacterium and Political Rights (ICCPR) is a
grows. multilateral treaty adopted by the
It is not fully understood why the UnitedNations General Assembly.
Wolbachia bacterium interferes with The covenant commits its parties to
the transmission of dengue. One respect the civil and political rights of
theory isthat the bacterium prevents individuals,including the right to life,
dengue viruses from replicating in freedom of religion, freedom of
mosquito cells. speech, freedom of assembly,
electoral rights and rightsto due
113) Faith for rights (F4R) movement, sometimes process and a fair trial.
seen in news is associated with • The ICCPR is part of the International Bill of
a) Oxfam International Human Rights, along with the
b) United Nations International Covenanton Economic,
c) World Economic Forum (WEF) Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR)
d) Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR) and the Universal Declaration of
Solution: b) HumanRights (UDHR).
Faith for Rights, a UN-led movement • The ICCPR is monitored by the United
which campaigns against incitement Nations Human Rights Committee.
to national, racial or religious
hatred,and exposes legislative 115) First India- Central Asia Summit was recently
patterns, judicial practices and hosted by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
government policies that undercut The Central Asia isimportant for the success
peaceful coexistence ofdifferent of
faiths. a) International North–South Transport
Corridor (INSTC)
114) Consider the following statements regarding b) Ashgabat agreement
International Covenant on Civil and Political c) Both a and b
Rights (ICCPR). d) Neither a nor b
1. International Covenant on Civil and Solution: c)
Political Rights (ICCPR) is a The International North–South
multilateral treaty adopted by the Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200-
United Nations General Assembly. km-long multi-mode network of ship,
2. The ICCPR is part of Universal rail,and road route for moving freight
Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). between India, Iran, Afghanistan,
3. The covenant commits its parties to Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia and
respect the civil and political rights of Europe.The Ashgabat agreement is a
individuals including rights to due multimodal transport agreement
process and a fair trial. between the governmentsof
Which of the above statements is/are Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan,
correct? Turkmenistan, Iran, India, Pakistan,
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 and Oman for creating an

international transportand transit 1. It has all the powers of a High court.
corridor facilitating transportation of 2. It can attend to cases of harassment
goods between Central Asia and the of women and order appropriate
Persian Gulf) punishments.
3. It can review the Constitutional and
116) Consider the following statements. Legal safeguards for women.
1. Refugees are persons who are 4. It facilitates redressal of grievances
outside their country of origin and and advise the Government on all
unable to return owing to the fear policy matters affecting women.
ofpersecution for reasons of religion Which of the above statements is/are
or nationality. correct?
2. India is not a signatory to the 1951 a) 1, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4
UN Convention relating to the Status c) 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
of Refugees nor does Indiahave a Solution: c)
refugee policy. The National Commission for Women was set
3. After Independence India has not up as statutory body in January 1992
allowed any refugees into the under the NationalCommission for
country. Women Act, 1990 to:
Which of the above statements is/are • review the Constitutional and Legal
correct? safeguards for women;
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 • recommend remedial legislative measures;
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 • facilitate redressal of grievances and advise
Solution: b) the Government on all policy matters
Under the 1951 UN Convention on affecting women.It is an advisory
the Status of Refugees and the Body not a court. It can attend to
subsequent 1967 Protocol, the word grievances but only recommend
refugeepertains to any person who is action, and not order punishments
outside their country of origin and
unable or unwilling to return owing 118) Consider the following statements regarding
to wellfounded fear of persecution the questions posed by members in the Lok
for reasons of race, religion, sabha during theQuestion Hour.
nationality, membership of a 1. Generally, the first hour of a sitting of
particular social group or Lok Sabha is devoted to the
political opinion.India has welcomed Questions and this hour is called
refugees in the past, and nearly theQuestion Hour.
300,000 people here are categorised 2. According to Rules of Procedure and
as refugees. But Indiais not a Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha,
signatory to the 1951 UN Convention Starred questions are to bereplied
or the 1967 Protocol. Nor does India orally in the House only by the
have a refugee policy or arefugee law Cabinet Ministers.
of its own. 3. In Starred questions, members can
also ask supplementary questions.
National Commission for Women (NCW). correct?

a) 1 only b) 1, 2 Ramanuja SahasrabdiSamaroham,
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 the1000th birth anniversary
Solution: c) celebrations of Sri Ramanujacharya.
Generally, the first hour of a sitting of Lok
Sabha is devoted to the Questions
and this hour is called the 120) Consider the following statements.
QuestionHour. 1. India’s share in the global production
Starred questions are to be replied orally in of millets is more than 50%.
the House by the Ministers 2. The top importers of millets from
concerned, and members can also India are USA, Russia and China.
asksupplementary questions. Though 3. In India, Agricultural and Processed
there is no stated rule that the Food Products Export Development
answers are to be provided only by Authority (APEDA) has been working
CabinetMinisters, the convention is towards facilitating shipments of
that starred questions are usually millets by Indian exporters and
answered by senior Ministers helping them make inroads into
newmarkets.
Statue of Equality. correct?
1. It is a statue of 8th Century Bhakti a) 1, 3 b) 3 only
Saint Shankaracharya, located in c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
Hyderabad. Solution: b)
2. It is the tallest sitting statue in the Currently, India is the fifth largest
world. exporter of millets in the world,
3. The Statue is made of 'panchaloha', a according to 2020 data, with
combination of five metals: gold, exportscontinuously increasing at
silver, copper, brass, and zinc. around 3% CAGR in the last five years
Which of the above statements is/are ending with 2020.
correct? Major exporter of millets are USA,
a) 1, 3 b) 3 only Russian Federation, Ukraine, India,
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 China, Netherlands, France, Poland
Solution: b) andArgentina.
216-foot statue of Saint The top three importers of millets
Ramanujacharya named ‘Statue of from India in 2020-21 were Nepal
Equality' was inaugurated by Prime (USD 6.09 million), UAE (USD 4.84
MinisterNarendra Modi, in million)and Saudi Arabia (USD 3.84
Hyderabad. million).
The Statue is made of 'panchaloha', a Agricultural and Processed Food
combination of five metals: gold, Products Export Development
silver, copper, brass, and zinc.It is the Authority (APEDA) has been
second tallest sitting statue in the aggressivelyworking towards
world. facilitating shipments of millets by
The inauguration of the Statue of Indian exporters and helping them
Equality is a part of the 12-day Sri make inroads into newmarkets.

India is the world leader in the Undertakings in its first report tabled
production of millets with share of in Parliament in January 2021
around 41% of total world production recommendedchanging the code
in2020 name for Gaya airport, assigned by
global trade body International Air
121) Consider the following statements. Transport Association(IATA).
1. Air traffic controllers (ATC) monitor The IATA assigns a two-character
the location of aircraft in their code name for airlines and a three-
assigned airspace by radar character code for airports for
andcommunicate with the pilots by easyidentification. These are also
radio. fundamental to the smooth running
2. Air traffic controller is the final of hundreds of electronic
authority for the safe operation of applications.
the aircraft and the pilot
cannotdeviate from the instructions 122) Consider the following statements.
given by ATC. 1. India currently considers solar waste
3. International Air Transport a part of electronic waste and does
Association (IATA) assigns code name not account for it separately.
for airlines and airports for 2. Recently the Ministry of New and
easyidentification. Renewable Energy formulated policy
Which of the above statements is/are on managing waste that resultsfrom
correct? used solar panels.
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 3. Generally the Solar panels have an
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 estimated life of 100 years.
Solution: c) Which of the above statements is/are
Air traffic control (ATC) is a service correct?
provided by ground-based air traffic a) 1, 2 b) 1 only
controllers who direct aircraft on c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
theground and through a given Solution: b)
section of controlled airspace, and While India ramps up its solar power
can provide advisory services to installation, it does not yet have a
aircraft in noncontrolled airspace. firm policy on managing waste
The primary purpose of ATC thatresults from used solar panels or
worldwide is to prevent collisions, from the manufacturing process.
organize and expedite the flow of air India currently considers solar waste
traffic, andprovide information and a part of electronic waste and does
other support for pilots. not account for it separately.
The pilot in command is the final There was no commercial raw
authority for the safe operation of material recovery facility for solar e-
the aircraft and may, in an waste operational in India, but a pilot
emergency, deviate from ATC facilityfor solar panel recycling and
instructions to the extent required to material recovery had been set up by
maintain safe operation of their a private company in
aircraft.The Committee on Public

Gummidipoondi,Chennai, Tamil Reserviors, these pond present in which of
Nadu. the following district
Solar panels have an estimated life of a) Nagar Kurnool b) jogulambagadwal
25 years, and given that India’s solar c)Wanaparthy d)Vikarabad
manufacturing industry took solution c
offaround 2010 most of the installed GANAPA SAMUDRA , BUDHARAM
systems were new and early in their ponds are present Wanaparthy
calendar life cycle and therefore district these are being developed
unlikelyto generate a large quantity into reservois to meet the needs of
of solar waste. the people n the wanaparthydisrtict
123) The Mekong is a trans-boundary river in In this question some statements followed
Southeast Asia. It passes through which of by some conclusions.
these countries? You have to take the given statements to be
1. Myanmar 2. Laos true even if they seem to be at variance
3. India 4. Vietnam from commonly known facts and then
Select the correct answer code: decide which of the given conclusions
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 4 logically follow from the given statements
c) 1, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 disregarding commonly known facts.
Solution: b)
From the Tibetan Plateau the river 126. Statements:
runs through China's Yunnan All bells are woods.
Province, Myanmar, Laos, Some woods are mould.
Thailand,Cambodia, and Vietnam. No mould is a fan.
Conclusion I: All woods are bells
124) The Red Sea is a strip of water and an inlet Conclusion II: No bell is a fan
of the Indian Ocean occupying the area a) only Conclusion II is true
separating the continent ofAfrica from Asia. b) neither Conclusion I nor ll is true
The countries bordering the Red Sea are c) only Conclusion I is true
1. Yemen 2. Djibouti d) both Conclusions I and II are true
3. Ethiopia 4. Egypt Answer: b
5. Saudi Arabia
Select the correct answer code: 127. Statements:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 3, 5 No Mat is a Table.
c) 2, 3, 4, 5 d) 1, 2, 4, 5 All Canal are Tables.
Solution: d) All Hills are Canal.
 The six countries that border the Red Sea Conclusion I: No Mat is a hill
are the following: Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Conclusion II: No canal is a Mat
Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, andDjibouti. a) only Conclusion I is true
b) either Conclusion I or II is true
125) The Telangana government has sanctioned c) Both Conclusion I nor II is true
around 100 cr to convert GANAPA d) only Conclusion II is true
SAMUDRA , BUDHARAM ponds into Answer :c

128. Statements: Some hoardings are fuels.
All Child are medals All fuels are trees.
Some medals are gold Some trees are hills.
Some gold is silver All hills are buses.
Conclusions: Conclusions:
I. Some Child are gold I. Atleast some buses are trees.
II. Some medals are silver II. Some trees are definitely hoardings.
III. No Child is gold III. Many hills are hoardings.
a) Only I is not follows IV. All buses are fuels.
b) only II is not follows (a) I and II follow
c) Only III is not follows (b) I, II and IV follow
d) either I or III follows (c) I, II and III follow
Answer: d (d) All of the above conclusions follow
Answer: a
129. Statements:
All leopards are wolfs 132. Statements:
All wolfs are sloths No candidate is a student.
All sloths are pigeon All students are teachers.
Conclusions: Conclusion I: All candidates being teachers is
I. Some leopards are Pigeon a possibility.
II. Some Sloths are wolfs Conclusion II: All teachers are students.
III. All wolfs are pigeon. a) Either Conclusion I or II is true
a) Only I is follows b) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true
b) Only II is follows c) Both Conclusions I and II are true
c) Only III is follows d) Only Conclusion I is true
d) All the above conclusions follow Answer: d
Answer: d
133. Statements:
130. Statements: Some parasites are stars.
Some mouse is boat All stars are galaxies.
All boat are ships. All galaxies are Octane.
All cows are mouse. Conclusions:
Conclusion: I: All Octane being parasites is a possibility.
I. Some ships are cows. II: All stars are Octane
II. Some boats are cows. a) only Conclusion I is true
III. Some ships are boats. b) Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II
IV. Some mouse is cow. are true
a) None follows c) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
b) Only III and IV follows d) either Conclusion I or II is true
c) Only either I or III follows Answer : b
d) Only either II or IV follows
Answer: b 134. Statements:
No idol is a picture.
131. Statements: All pictures are copies.

No copy is delicate. Some glass are doors.
Conclusions: Some doors are chariots.
I: All copies being idols is a possibility. Conclusions:
II: All delicates being idols is a possibility. I. Some doors are definitely mirrors.
a) both Conclusions I and II are true II. All glass are diaphrams.
b) only Conclusion II is true III. All doors being diaphrams is a possibility.
c) only Conclusion I is true IV. Only chariots are glass.
d) neither Conclusion I nor II is true (a) Only II and III follows
Answer: b (b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
135. Statements: (d) Only IV follows
Some pebbles are bricks. Answer: d
All plants are pebbles.
No rose is a plant.
Conclusions: 138. Statements:
I. No rose is a pebble. Some laptops are Chinese No laptop is costly
II. Atleast some bricks are plants. All Chinese are branded Some branded are
III. No brick is a plant. worst
IV. All bricks being rose is a possibility. Conclusions:
(a) Only I follows I. Some worst is not costly
(b) Only II follows II.Some branded are not costly
(c) IV and either II or III follow III.some laptops are branded
(d) Either II or III follow IV.Some laptops are not worst
Answer: c
a) Only I and II follow
b) only II and III follow
136. Statements: C) Only III and IV follow
No dracula are cats. d) only IV and I follow
All rats are dracula. Answer :b
All cats are tigers.
Conclusions: 139. Statements:
I. Some tigers are dracula. All leaflets are broad Some broads are
II. No rats are cats. beautiful
III. Some cats are rats. All beautiful are nice No beautiful is wild
IV. No rats are tigers. Conclusions: I.Some nice are broad
a) Only I follows II.some leaflets are beautiful
b) Only II follows III. Some leaflets are not wild
c) Only II or IV follows IV.Some nice is not wild
d) Only III and IV follow a) Only I follows
Answer: b b)Only I and III follow
c)Only I and IV follow
137. Statements: d)Only II and IV follow
All diaphrams are mirrors. Answer: d
All mirrors are glass.

the given statements disregarding
140. Statements: All bicycles are scooter commonly known facts]
Some scooters are cars
No car is aeroplane Some aeroplanes are 142. Statements: No plank is a castle.
trains All halls are plank.
Conclusions: Some movietheatres are halls
I.Some bicycles are cars All rooms are movietheatres.
II.Some scooters are not aeroplanes Conclusions:
III.No train is car a) Atleast some castles are halls.
IV.Some aeroplanes are not bicycles b) All planks being movietheatres is a
a) Only I follows possibility.
b) only II follows c) Atleast some planks are
c) Only III follows movietheatres.
d) Only II and IV follow d) All movietheatres can never be
Answer: d castles.
Answer: a
141. Statements:
Some oceans are rivers. 143. Statements:
Some rivers are Himalayas. Some salts are boots.
Some Himalayas are books. All boots are Knees.
Some books are pages. Some boots are ankles.
Conclusions: All ankles are toes.
I.All books being rivers is a possibility. Conclusions:
II. Atleast some pages are oceans. a) Atleast some toes are boots.
III. Some Himalayas are not oceans. b) No toe is a Knees.
IV. No pages is oceans. c)Atleast some salts are Knees.
(a) None follows d)All salts being toes is a possibility.
(b) Either II or IV follows
(c) Only II follows Answer: b
(d) Either II or IV and I follow
Answer : d A statement is given & then two conclusions
– 1 & 2 are given. You have to consider the
statement as true though it seems to be
In this question are given four statements different from the actual facts. Then give
followed by five conclusions, one of which your answer regarding the given statement
definitely does not logically follow (or is not that which of the conclusions/is/ are
a possibility of occurrence) from the given followed by it Properly.
statements. That conclusion is your answer.
[NOTE: You have to take the four given 144. Statement : Late night dinner is bad for
statements to be true even if they seem to health.
be at variance from commonly known facts Conclusions :
and then decide which of the given I. All healthy people have dinner early.
conclusions logically does not follow from II. Dinner should be avoided to lead healthy
life.

(a)Only conclusion I follows (b)Only conclusion II follows
(b)Only conclusion II follows; (c)either I or II follows
(c)either I or II follows (d)neither I nor II follows
(d)neither I nor II follows Answer: a
Answer: d
148. Statement:
145. Statement: Solving a problem is the greatest For their children to receive an outstanding
way to get out of it. education, parents are willing to pay any
Conclusions: price.
I. If you never encounter a challenge, your life Conclusions:
will be dull. I. These days, all parents are extremely
II. You should always have some remedies wealthy.
with you in case an issue arises. II. The ideal growth of their children
(a) Only conclusion I follows through quality education is
(b) Only conclusion II follows something that parents are fervently
(c) either I or II follows passionate about.
(d) neither I nor II follows (a) Only conclusion I follows
Answer: c (b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) either I or II follows
146. Statement: (d) neither I nor II follows
Each individual creates a universe for Answer: b
himself; there is neither good nor bad in this
world. In each of the questions given below a
Conclusions: statement is followed by two assumptions
I. Some people consider this world to numbered I and II. An assumption is
be rather good. something supposed or taken for granted.
II. For some people, the world is really You have to consider the statement and the
horrible. assumptions that follow and decide which of
(a) Only conclusion I follows the assumptions is implicit in the
(b) Only conclusion II follows; statements.
(c) either I or II follows
(d )neither I nor II follows 149. Statement:
Answer :c "The event will get underway at 2 PM.
Please take your seats no later than 3
147. Statement: o'clock.
Although having a good voice is a natural Assumptions:
talent, one must continually practice in I. The event won't start if an invitee
order to advance and succeed in the music isn't seated by 3 o'clock.
industry. II. Function will be started as per
Conclusions : schedule
I. Natural talents require care and nurturing. a) only assumption I is implicit
II. You can continue to practice even if your b) only assumption II is implicit
voice isn't very good. c) either assumption I is implicit or II is
(a)Only conclusion I follows implicit

d) neither I nor II is implicit
Answer: b
150. Statement:
After a year, the Institute's Board will
convene again.
Assumptions:
I. The Institute will continue to operate
after a year.
II. After a year, the Board will be
dissolved.
a) only assumption I is implicit
b) only assumption II is implicit
c) either assumption I is implicit or II is
implicit
d) neither I nor II is implicit
Answer : a

associated with volcanic activity, it
has been popularly dubbed the
Q.1) Consider the following statements with “Pacific Ring of Fire.”
reference to the distribution of the Statement 3 is incorrect: The Circum-Pacific
Earthquakes in The world: Belt accounts for more than two third
1. Earth's major earthquakes occur of all earthquakes. Alpine-Himalayan
mostly in regions coinciding with the belt is responsible for only 15-17 per
margins of tectonic plates. cent of the earthquakes in the world.
2. The seismic activity is uniform
throughout the Circum-Pacific Belt
where most of earthquakes occur. Q.2) Which is the difference between asteroids
3. Alpine-Himalayan belt is the region of and comets?
occurrence of more than half of the 1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids,
Earthquakes of the world. while comets are formed of frozen
Which of the above given statements is/are gases held together by rocky and
correct? metallic material.
a) 1 only 2. Asteroids are found mostly between
b) 2 only the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while
c) 2 and 3 only comets are found mostly between
d) 1 and 3 only Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. tail, while asteroids do not.
Statement 1 is correct: Earth’s major Which of the statements given above is/are
earthquakes occur mainly in belts correct?
coinciding with the margins of a) 1 and 2 only
tectonic plates. The most important b) 1 and 3 only
earthquake belt is the Circum-Pacific c) 3 only
Belt, which affects many populated d) 1, 2 and 3
coastal regions around the Pacific Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Ocean—for example, those of New Statement 1 and 3 are correct.
Zealand, New Guinea, Japan, the Asteroids are small, rocky objects that orbit
Aleutian Islands, Alaska, and the the Sun. Comets are frozen leftovers
western coasts of North and South from the formation of the solar
America. Statement 2 is incorrect: system composed of dust, rock and
The seismic activity is not uniform ices. They range from a few miles to
throughout the Circum-Pacific Belt, tens of miles wide, but as they orbit
and there are many branches at closer to the sun, they heat up and
various points. It is so because at spew gases and dust into a glowing
many places the Circum-Pacific Belt is head that can be larger than a planet.

This material forms a tail that Q.4) With reference to the evolution of Earth,
stretches millions of miles. consider the following statements:
Statement 2 is incorrect. The asteroid belt is 1. The primordial atmosphere consisted
located roughly between the orbits of majorly of hydrogen and helium
the planets Jupiter and Mars. Comets gases.
are not limited to any specific region; 2. The process of degassing allowed
they are spread all over the solar addition of water vapour, nitrogen
system. and carbon dioxide to the
atmosphere.
3. The oxygen was added into the
atmosphere through photosynthesis
3) Consider the following statements regarding only after the life developed on land.
the Porosity and Permeability in the rocks: Which of the statements given above are
1. Permeability is the ease of flow of a correct?
fluid through a porous solid. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
2. The surface water percolates well c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
when the rocks are permeable. Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
3. Extremely porous rock will Statement 1 is correct: The first stage is
necessarily have good permeability. marked by the loss of primordial
Which of the statements given above is/are atmosphere. The early atmosphere,
correct? with hydrogen and helium, is
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only supposed to have been stripped off
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 as a result of the solar winds. This
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. happened not only in case of the
Statement 1 is correct: The porosity of a rock earth, but also in all the terrestrial
is a measure of its ability to hold a planets, which were supposed to
fluid. it is the open space in a rock have lost their primordial
divided by the total rock volume. atmosphere through the impact of
Permeability is a measure of the ease solar winds.
of flow of a fluid through a porous Statement 2 is correct: In the second stage,
solid. gases and water vapour were
Statement 2 is correct: The surface water released from the interior solid earth.
percolates well when the rocks are The process through which the gases
permeable, thinly bedded and highly were outpoured from the interior is
jointed and cracked. After vertically called degassing. Continuous volcanic
going down to some depth, the water eruptions contributed water vapour
under the ground flows horizontally. and gases to the atmosphere. This led
Statement 3 is incorrect: A rock may be to addition of water vapour, nitrogen,
extremely porous, but if the pores carbon dioxide, methane, ammonia
are not connected, it will have no and very little of free oxygen to the
permeability. atmosphere
Statement 3 is incorrect: In the third stage,
the composition of the atmosphere

was modified by the living world 3. River Terraces
through the process of 4. Incised Meanders
photosynthesis. Around 2,500-3,000 5. Natural Levees
million years before the present, the Select the correct answer using the codes
process of photosynthesis got given below:
evolved. Life was confined to the a) 1, 2 and 3 only
oceans for a long time. Oceans began b) 1, 3 and 4 only
to have the contribution of oxygen c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
through the process of d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
photosynthesis. Eventually, oceans Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
were saturated with oxygen, and The Erosional Landforms due to
2,000 million years ago, oxygen Running Water are Valleys, Potholes
began to flood the atmosphere. and Plunge Pools, Incised or
Entrenched Meanders and River
Terraces.
Q.5) Which of the following is the correct Statement 1, 3 and 4 are correct:
description of continental margin? Potholes and Plunge Pools: Plunge
a) It refers to the region that starts at pools are nothing but large, deep
the bottom of continental shelf and potholes commonly found at the foot
then abruptly descend into a slope. of a waterfall. They are formed
b) It refers to the shallowest part of the because of the sheer impact of water
ocean having an average gradient of and rotation of boulders. Potholes
10 or even less. are more or less circular depressions
c) A transition zone that lies between over the rocky beds of hills streams.
continental shores and deep-sea
basins. 7) Which one of the following straits is nearest
d) Gently sloping areas of ocean basin to the International Date Line?
having smoothest and flattest regions a) Malacca Strait
of the world. b) Bering Strait
Option c is correct: c) Strait of Florida
Continental margin is the region that form d) Strait of Gibraltar
the transition between continental Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
shores and deep-sea basins. They Option b is correct. The Bering Strait
include continental shelf, continental is a strait between the Pacific and
slope, continental rise and deep Arctic oceans, separating the Chukchi
oceanic trenches. Peninsula of the Russian Far East
from the Seward Peninsula of Alaska.
The Bering Strait is nearest to
the International Date line. The
Q.6) Which of the following erosional landforms International Date Line runs between
are developed by running water? the Diomede Islands and St.
1. Plunge Pools Lawrence Islands located in the
2. Alluvial fans middle of the strait.

○ A pre-existing weak-low-pressure
area or low-level-cyclonic circulation;
8. Which of the following conditions should be ○ Upper divergence above the sea level
met for tropical cyclones to originate? system.
1. Large sea surface with temp lower ● Therefore,option(c) is correct.
than 27 degrees
2. Absence of Coriolis force 9. Match the following climatic regions of India
3. Small variations in vertical speed according to Koeppen’s Scheme
4. A pre-existing low-pressure area 1. Monsoon with short dry season
Choose the correct options a. Western Rajasthan
a) Only 1 and 3 2. Monsoon with dry summer
b) Only 1 and 4 b. Coromandel coast of TN
c) Only 3 and 4 3. Semi-arid steppe climate
d) All of the above c.West coast, south of Goa
4. Hot desert d. North westGujarat,
Answer: C some parts of Rajasthan
Explanation (a). 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
● Tropical cyclones are violent storms (b). 1-d. 2-c, 3-a, D-b
that originate over oceans in tropical (c). 1-c, 2- b, 3-d, 4-a
areas and move over to the coastal (d). 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
areas bringing about large scale
destruction caused by violent winds, Answer: C
very heavy rainfall and storm surges. Explanation
This is one of the most devastating ● Type of climate areas
natural calamities. They are known as ● Amw monsoon with short dry season
Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, west coast of India south of goa
Hurricanes in the Atlantic, Typhoons ● As – monsoon with dry summer
in the Western Pacific and South coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
China Sea, and Willy-willies in the ● Aw – tropical savannah most of the
Western Australia. Tropical cyclones peninsular plateaus, south of the
originate and intensify over warm tropic of cancer
tropical oceans. ● Bwhw – semi-arid steppe climate
● The conditions favourable for the north-western Gujarat, some parts of
formation and intensification of western Rajasthan and Punjab
tropical storms are: ● Bwhw – hot desert extreme western
○ Large sea surface with temperature Rajasthan
higher than 27° C; Statement 1 is ● Cwg – monsoon with dry winter
incorrect. ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan,
○ Presence of the Coriolis force; northern Madhya
Statement 2 is incorrect. Pradesh, Most of north-east India
○ Small variations in the vertical wind ● Dfc – cold humid winter with short
speed; summer Arunachal Pradesh

● E – polar type Jammu and Kashmir, equator. These latitudes are
Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand characterised by calm winds and little
precipitation. In this region of the
subtropics, winds diverge and either
10. With reference to Planetary Winds and their flow toward the poles (known as the
associated regions, consider the following prevailing westerlies) or toward the
statements: equator (known as the trade winds).
1. The Westerlies originate in the sub- These diverging winds are the result
tropical high-pressure belt and blow of an area of high pressure, which is
towards poles. characterised by calm winds, sunny
2. The Westerlies result in heavy skies, and little or no precipitation.
precipitation and strong winds at ● Statement 3 is correct. The westerlies
horse latitudes. of the southern hemisphere are
3. The Westerlies of the Southern stronger and persistent due to the
hemisphere are more robust and vast expanse of water, while those of
constant than the westerlies of the the northern hemisphere are
Northern hemisphere. irregular because of uneven relief of
Which of the statements given above are vast land-masses.
correct? ● Therefore,option(c) is correct.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only 11. With reference to Fog and Mist, consider the
d) 1, 2 and 3 following statements:
1. The visibility range in fog is more
Answer C than the visibility range in mist.
Explanation 2. Fog usually carries much more
● The planetary winds are permanent moisture as compared to the mist.
winds which blow throughout the 3. Mist tends to be much denser than
year from low latitude to the other in the fog.
response to the latitudinal Which of the statements given above are
differences in air pressure. The two incorrect?
most significant winds for climate a) 1 only
and human activities are the trade b) 2 and 3 only
winds and the westerly winds. c) 1 and 3 only
● Statement 1 is correct. The westerlies d) 1, 2 and 3
blow from 35-40 degree to 60-65
degree North and South latitude. Answer D
They originate in the northern parts Explanation
of subtropical high-pressure cells and ● When the temperature of an air mass
blow toward the poles. containing a large quantity of water
● Statement 2 is incorrect. The horse vapour falls suddenly, condensation
latitudes are regions located at about takes place within itself on fine dust
30 degrees north and south of the particles. Both fog and mist follow

the same process for condensation Answer A
and are tiny water droplets that hang Explanation
in the air on ground level. ● Albedo is the portion of solar energy
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Although reflected from the surface of the
both fog and mist cause poor Earth back into space. It is a
visibility but the visibility range in reflection coefficient and has a value
mist is more than in fog. Fog is when of less than one.
one can see less than 1,000 metres ● Option a is correct.When solar
away, and if the visibility is further radiation passes through the
than 1,000 metres, we call it mist. atmosphere, a certain amount of it is
Fogs are mini clouds in which scattered, reflected and absorbed.
condensation takes place around The reflected sum of radiation is
nuclei provided by the dust, smoke, called the albedo of the earth.
and the salt particles. ● Albedo is an important concept in
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Mist climatology, astronomy, and
contains more moisture than the fog. environmental management. It plays
In mist each nuclei contains a thicker a major role in the energy balance of
layer of moisture. Mists are seen in the earth’s surface, as it defines the
mountain ranges, where warm air rate of the absorbed portion of the
rising the slopes meet a cold surface. incident solar radiation
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Fog are ● Different surfaces have different
denser than the mist. Both fog and values.
mist follow the same process of
forming water condensation. ● Therefore,option(a) is correct.
However, the formation is less
coalescing meaning the merger of
tiny water droplets is less in mist. So, 13. Consider the following statements:
the mist is not as dense as fog. 1. The winds which blow between 30 N
● Therefore,option(d) is correct. and 60 S latitudes throughout the
year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause
12. Arrange the following surfaces in increasing winter rains in North-Western region
order of their albedo: of India are part of westerlies.
1. Fresh snow Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Sand correct?
3. Grass a) 1 only
4. Thin Cloud b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code c) Both 1 and 2
given below: d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 3-4-2-1
b) 3-2-4-1 Answer B
c) 2-3-4-1 Explanation
d) 2-3-1-4

● The Westerlies are prevailing winds Which of the statements given above is/are
from the west toward the east in the correct?
middle latitudes between 30°N and a) 1 only b) 2 only
60°N, and 30°S and 60° S. They c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
originate from the high-pressure
areas in the horse latitudes and tend Answer D
towards the poles and steer extra Explanation
tropical cyclones in this general ● Normally when the tropical eastern
manner. Westerlies in southern south Pacific Ocean experiences high
hemisphere are stronger and pressure, the tropical eastern Indian
persistent than in northern Ocean experiences low pressure. But
hemisphere. in certain years, there is a reversal in
● Statement 1 is incorrect. The the pressure conditions and the
Westerlies are prevailing winds from eastern Pacific has lower pressure in
the west toward the east in the comparison to the eastern Indian
middle latitudes between 30°N and Ocean. This periodic change in
60°N, and 30°S and 60° S. They pressure conditions is known as the
originate from the high-pressure Southern Oscillation (SO). The
areas in the horse latitudes and tend difference in pressure over Tahiti
towards the poles and steer extra (Pacific Ocean,18°S/149°W) and
tropical cyclones in this general Darwin in northern Australia (Indian
manner. Ocean, 12°30’S/131°E) is computed
● Statement 2 is correct. Western to predict the intensity of the
disturbances which originate over the monsoons.
Mediterranean Sea are steered ● Statement 1 is incorrect. ENSO is a
towards North western India by the periodic fluctuation in sea surface
Westerly Jet Stream causing winter temperatures and the air pressure of
rains. the overlying atmosphere across the
● Therefore,option(b) is correct. equatorial Pacific Ocean. ENSO has a
major influence on weather and
climate patterns such as heavy rains,
14. Consider the following statements with floods and drought. El Niño has a
reference to El Nino-Southern Oscillation warming influence on global
(ENSO): temperatures, while La Niña has the
1. ENSO is a periodic fluctuation in sea opposite effect.
surface temperatures and the air ● Statement 2 is incorrect. La Nina (not
pressure of the overlying atmosphere El Niño) events represent periods of
across the Atlantic Ocean. below-average sea surface
2. El Niño events represent periods of temperatures across the east-central
below-average sea surface Equatorial Pacific. It is indicated by
temperatures across the east-central sea-surface temperature decreased
Equatorial Pacific. by more than 0.9℉ for at least five
successive three-month seasons.

● Therefore,option(d) is correct. 1. Anti-cyclones are the regions of high
pressure around which air circulates.
2. Anti-cyclones always brought heavy
15. What are mango showers, blossom showers, rain, thus leading to flood like
norwesters? conditions.
(a). Local storms of hot water season 3. Anti-cyclones are more frequent
(b). Pre monsoon rain during the summer season.
(c). Irrigation for the cultivation of monsoon Select the correct answer using the code
(d). Winter cold winds given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
Answer: B b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation c) 1 only
● Mango showers, or mango rains or d) 1, 2 and 3
blossom showers, is a colloquial term
to describe the occurrence of pre- Answer A
monsoon rainfall. They occur mainly Explanation
during the march- May months, i.e., ● An anticyclone is a weather
before the arrival of monsoon into phenomenon defined as a large-scale
India. Therefore, they are also called circulation of winds around a central
as the April rains. region of high atmospheric pressure.
● The classic feature of these rains is ● Anticyclones are regions of relatively
the form of precipitation which is high pressure on horizontal surfaces
mainly convective. These rains around which air circulates clockwise
generally accompany thunderstorms. in the Northern Hemisphere and
They usually occur in the evenings. counterclockwise in the Southern
They result in the decreased Hemisphere. Statement 1 is correct.
temperatures in various parts of the ● Anticyclones are indicative of dry
country. Sometimes these rains are weather which mostly remains
disastrous for the farmers as many rainless. Anticyclones are largely
get killed due to thunderstorms. rainless. The sky is free of clouds
These pre-monsoon rains are called because of the fact that descending
mango showers in Karnataka as these air in the centre of anticyclone is
rains help the early ripening of warmed up at dry adiabatic rate due
mangoes. to subsidence. This is why
● They are called blossom showers in anticyclones are indicative of dry
Kerala as they help in the flowering of weather. This does not mean that
plantation crops like coffee and tea. anticyclones are always rainless.
They are also called Kalbaisakhi rains While passing over oceans
in West Bengal as they occur in the sometimes they pick up moisture and
Baisakhi month. yield light rains or drizzles with
moderate clouds. Statement 2 is
16. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect.
correct regarding the ‘anti-cyclones’?

● In summer, the clear settled value. The climate is ideal for
conditions associated with maximum comfort and mental
anticyclones allow the Sun's light to alertness.
warm the ground. This is why ● Therefore,Option a is correct.
anticyclones are more frequent in
summers. This can bring long sunny
days and warm temperatures. The 18. Consider the following statements with
weather is normally dry, although respect to the ice age:
occasionally, very hot temperatures 1. The temperate zones are restricted
can trigger localised to the lower equatorial latitudes
thunderstorms.Statement 3 is during ice ages.
correct. 2. There can be colder and warmer
● Therefore,option(a) is correct. periods during the overall ice-age
period.
Which of the statements given above is/are
17. In this type of climate, rainfall occurs correct?
throughout the year. They are the regions of a) 1 only
frontal cyclonic activity or Temperate b) 2 only
Cyclones. It is also called as Cool Temperate c) Both 1 and 2
Western Margin region. The climate is ideal d) Neither 1 nor 2
for maximum comfort and mental alertness.
Deciduous forest is the natural vegetation of Answer C
this area.
Which of the options given below best Explanation
describes the above climatic type? ● An ice age is a long period of
a) British Type Climate reduction in the temperature of
b) China Type Climate. Earth's surface and atmosphere,
c) Steppe Type Climate resulting in the presence or
d) Siberian Type Climate expansion of continental and polar
ice sheets and alpine glaciers.
Answer A ● Statement 1 is correct. Temperate
Explanation and tropical zones do become
● British Type Climate is also called as restricted to the lower equatorial
Cool Temperate Western Margin latitudes during ice ages. This is
Climate. They are under the influence because ice ages change the Earth's
of the Westerlies all-round the year. climatic belts. During the most recent
They are the regions of frontal glacial maximum (stadial, 23,000 to
cyclonic activity or Temperate 11,000 years ago), the average global
Cyclones. Rainfall occurs throughout temperature was about 8 degree
the year. The natural vegetation of Celsius, with polar regions
this climatic type is deciduous forest. experiencing average temperatures
The deciduous trees occur in pure of -2 degree Celsius.
stands and have greater lumbering

● Statement 2 is correct. Ice ages are Q.20) Consider the following statements with
not uniformly cold. There can be reference to the Tsunamis:
colder and warmer periods during 1. It can be caused by submarine
the overall ice-age period. Colder landslides due to movement of
periods lead to more extensive areas sediments along the floor of the sea.
of continental ice sheets, valley 2. The speed of the tsunami decreases
glaciers and sea ice, while warmer as tsunami moves from deep waters
periods lead to reduced areas of ice. to the shallow waters.
● Therefore,option(c) is correct. 3. The attraction of moon plays an
important role in the formation of
19. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Tsunamis.
Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone Which of the above given statements is/are
does not originate. What is the reason? correct?
a) Sea surface temperatures are low a) 3 only
b) Inter-tropical Convergence Zone b) 1 and 2 only
seldom occurs c) 2 and 3 only
c) Coriolis force is too weak d) 1, 2 and 3
d) Absence of land in those regions Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Answer B Statement 1 is correct: Submarine landslides
Explanation are a broad term for indicating the
● A cyclone is a large-scale air mass phenomena of failure of near-seabed
that rotates around a strong center sediments under the effect of gravity.
of low atmospheric pressure, During a submarine landslide, the
counterclockwise in the Northern equilibrium sealevel is altered by
Hemisphere and clockwise in the sediment moving along the floor of
Southern Hemisphere. the sea. Gravitational forces then
● Option b is correct. The South propagate a tsunami.
Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific are Statement 2 is correct: As a tsunami leaves
as void of cyclonic activity largely due deep waters of an ocean or sea and
to the ITCZ having a tendency to stay then propagates into the shallow
near or north of the equator. waters, it transforms. This is because
● For a tropical cyclone to occur in as the depth of the water decreases,
South Atlantic and South-Eastern the speed of the tsunami reduces.
Pacific regions, a broad convergence Statement 3 is incorrect: Though the
zone is needed to reach about 5 Tsunamis are also commonly referred
degrees of latitude away from the to as tidal waves because of their
equator in order for the Coriolis wavelengths, but the attractions of
Force to have sufficient intensity to the Moon and Sun play no role in
organize a full-fledged tropical their formation.
cyclone, and the Atlantic ITCZ almost
never shifts that far south.

21) With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature 1. Areas near the equator usually have high
(OMT), which of the following statements salinity because of the high rate of
is/are correct? evaporation.
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 2. The mid latitude regions have low salinity
26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in because of the large amount of
the south -western Indian Ocean rainfall.
during January–March. 3. Large influx of freshwater into oceans near
2. OMT collected during January – polar regions results in low salinity.
March can be used in assessing Select the correct answer using the code
whether the amount of rainfall in given below:
monsoon will be less or more than a a) 1 and 2 only
certain long -term mean. b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct using the code given c) 3 only
below: d) 1, 2 and 3
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
c) Both 1 and 2 Option 1 is incorrect: Equatorial regions have
d) Neither 1 nor 2 low salinity because they receive the
most rain on a consistent basis. As a
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. result, the fresh water falling into the
Statement 1 is incorrect. OMT is measured up ocean helps decrease the salinity of
to a depth of 26°C isotherm, is seen the surface water in that region
at depths varying from 50-100 Option 2 is incorrect: As one moves away
metres. During January-March, the from the equator towards poles,
mean 26°C isotherm depth in the rainfall decreases. Thus, the mid
South-western Indian Ocean is 59 latitude regions with less rain and
metres. more sunshine, evaporation
increases. Evaporation leads to loss
Statement 2 is correct. OMT collected during of fresh water from the ocean in the
January — March can be used in form of water vapour causing higher
assessing whether the amount of salinity. For example, the
rainfall in monsoon will be less or Mediterranean Sea records higher
more than a certain long-term mean. salinity due to high evaporation.
Using OMT data collected during Option 3 is correct: In the polar region, the
January-March 2018, it was able to influx of fresh water from melting ice
predict with greater probability the decreases the salinity of ocean water.
pattern of monsoon. For example, Baltic Sea records low
salinity due to the influx of river
22) With reference to the salinity in oceans, waters in large quantities.
which of the following statements is/are
correct? 23) Consider the following statements regarding
the Ocean Gyres:

1. They are the large systems of circular
ocean currents. 24) Consider the following statements:
2. They are most prominent at the Ocean topography Features
equator, as compared to higher 1. Mid oceanic ridges - Zone of intense
latitudes. volcanic activity
3. All the Ocean Gyres flow in clockwise 2. Sea mounts - Zone of low biological
direction. productivity
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Submarine canyons - Deep valleys in
correct? the continental shelves
a) 1 only 4. Guyots - Mountain in ocean with
b) 2 only pointed summits
c) 1 and 2 only How many pair is/are correctly matched?
d) 1 and 3 only a) only one pair
b) only two pairs
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. c) only three pairs
Statement 1 is correct: An ocean gyre is a d) All the four pairs
large system of circular ocean
currents formed by global wind Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
patterns and forces created by Pair 1 is correct: The Mid Ocean Ridges exist
Earth's rotation. Earth’s continents in the middle of the ocean basins,
and other landmasses (such as where the divergent plate boundaries
islands) can influence the creation of are located. These zones are
ocean gyres. tectonically active regions and they
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Coriolis force is are the most active volcanic regions
one of the important factors in on the earth.
causing ocean gyres. Earth’s rotation Pair 2 is incorrect: Seamounts are undersea
deflects, or changes the direction of mountains formed by volcanic
the ocean. The Coriolis effect is not activity. Seamounts often have a high
present at the Equator, and winds are level of biological productivity
the primary creators of currents. For because they provide habitats for
this reason, the currents in the many species of plants and animals.
equatorial region tend to flow in an Over 200 species of sea creatures
east-west pattern instead of circular have been observed at a single guyot
pattern. Thus, we cannot say that the in the New England Seamount.
Gyres are most prominent at the Pair 3 is correct: Submarine Canyons are deep
equator, as compared to higher valleys cutting across the continental
latitudes. shelves and slopes, often extending
Statement 3 is incorrect: Generally, in the from the mouths of large rivers. The
Northern Hemisphere the gyres Hudson Canyon is the best-known
rotate in clockwise direction, while in submarine canyon in the world.
the Southern Hemisphere the gyres Pair 4 is incorrect: Guyots It is a flat-topped
rotate in counter-clockwise direction. seamount whereas the seamounts is
a mountain with pointed summits,

rising from the seafloor that does not Statement 3 is correct: In the ocean, the
reach the surface of the ocean. depth and strength of the
thermocline vary from season to
season and year to year. While it is
25) With reference to the Thermocline, consider semi-permanent in the tropics, it
the following statements: varies in temperate regions e.g.,
1. It represents the topmost layer of the thermocline is deepest during the
ocean water in tropical regions. summer in temperate regions.
2. It is characterised by rapid decrease Statement 4 is correct: In the Arctic and
in temperature with increasing Antarctic circles, the surface water
depth. temperatures are close to 0° C.
3. The zone of thermocline is non- Thermocline is shallow to non-
permanent in temperate regions. existent in the polar regions, where
4. Thermocline can be absent in the the water column is cold from the
polar regions. surface to the bottom.
5. Most of the volume of seawater is Statement 5 is correct: About 90 per cent of
usually found below the Zone of the total volume of water is found
Thermocline. below the thermocline, in the deep
Which of the statements given above are ocean.
correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 26) Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to
c) 3 and 4 only which among the following?
d) 2 and 5 only 1. Gravitational force of the Sun
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. 3. Centrifugal force of the Earth
Statement 1 is incorrect: Following are the Select the correct answer using the code
temperature structure of the ocean. given below.
The first layer represents the top a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
layer of warm oceanic water with c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
temperatures ranging between 20°
and 25° C. The second layer Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
comprises thermocline and the third Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused
layer is very cold and extends up to by the combined effects of the
the deep ocean floor. gravitational forces exerted by the
Statement 2 is correct: The thermocline layer moon and the sun, and the rotation
is characterised by rapid decrease in of the earth.
temperature with increasing depth. Earth rotates around a fixed axis, creating a
Thermocline region begins around centrifugal force away from the axis.
100 - 400 metres below the sea Tides occur due to an imbalance between the
surface and extends several hundred various forces acting on the ocean
metres downward. water at a point in time. In general,
the tide-generating force is the

difference between these two forces; Statement 3 is correct: India is implementing
i.e., the gravitational attraction due a long–term programme on
to the mass of the moon and the exploration and utilization of
centrifugal force due to rotation of Polymetallic Nodules (Polymetallic
the earth. Nodules programme) through
Ministry of Earth Sciences
27) With reference to Polymetallic Nodules,
consider the following statements:
1. They are found in all the oceans of 28) Consider the following statements with
the world. respect to Kuroshio current:
2. Copper constitutes the largest 1. It begins off the coast of Japan and
component of polymetallic nodules. flows northwards.
3. The Indian Ministry of Earth Sciences 2. It is a part of North Pacific Ocean
is implementing a Polymetallic gyre.
Nodules programme. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
b) 1 only (c) Both1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Answer A Explanation
Explanation The Kuroshio Current begins off the east
Statement 1 is correct: Nodules have been coast of Philippines and Taiwan and
found in all the oceans and even in flows northeastward past Japan,
lakes. However, nodules of economic where it merges with the easterly
interest are more localised. Three drift of the North Pacific Current.
areas have been selected by Hence statement 1 is not correct.
industrial explorers: the centre of the An ocean gyre is a large system of circular
north central Pacific Ocean, the Peru ocean currents formed by global
Basin in the south-east Pacific Ocean wind patterns and forces created by
and the centre of the north Indian Earth‘s rotation. The movement of
Ocean. Statement 2 is incorrect: the world‘s major ocean gyres helps
Magnesium constitutes the largest drive the ocean conveyor belt. The
component followed by Iron. The ocean conveyor belt circulates ocean
components of Polymetallic nodules water around the entire planet. The
are Manganese (29%) Iron (6%) Kuroshio Current is the warm
Silicon (5%) and Aluminum (3%) and western boundary current of the
other metals such as Nickel, Copper, North Pacific's subtropical gyre.
Cobalt, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Sodium, Hence statement 2 is correct.
Calcium, Magnesium, Potassium,
Titanium and Barium.

29) Consider the following statements: Frictional force. So, Statement 2 is
1. Jet streams are special types of not correct.
geostrophic winds that are
predominantly westerly winds. 30. Which of the following are “Push Factors”
2. Geostrophic winds are caused by for migration?
Coriolis force, frictional force and 1. Poverty
pressure gradient forces. 2. Promise of a better life
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Lack of employment opportunities
not correct? 4. Better employment opportunities
(a) 1 only Choose the correct Options
(b) 2 only (a). Only 2 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b). Only 1 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c). Only 1 and 4
Answer A (d). All of the above
EXPLANATION: Answer: B
Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of Explanation
strong wind in the upper levels of the * Poverty and lack of employment
atmosphere. The winds blow from opportunities in rural areas work as
west to east in jet streams, but the ‘push’ factors which result in
flow often shifts to the north and migration to urban areas. Better
south. Jet streams flow west to east employment opportunities and
in both the hemispheres; hence, they promise of better life in urban areas
are called Westerlies or upper-level work as ‘pull’ factors for migration.
Westerlies. So, Statement 1 is Due to increased migration towards
correct. urban areas, the share of urban
Geostrophic winds are the horizontal wind in population has increased from
the upper atmosphere that moves 17.29% in 1951 to 27.78% in 2001.
parallel to isobars.These winds result
from a balance between pressure 31. Which of the following statements about
gradient force and Coriolis “Working Population Composition” is
force.Frictional force always acts INCORRECT
opposite to air motion and reduces (a). The population of India according to
wind speed. Its greatest effect is near their economic status is divided into
the earth's surface and rapidly two groups, namely; main workers
decreases with height. This slowing and marginal workers.
causes the wind to be not (b). A Main Worker is a person who
geostrophic and, thus, slows down works for at least 183 days in a year.
and reduces the Coriolis force, and (c). A marginal Worker is a person who
the pressure gradient force becomes works for less than 183 days in a year
more dominant. (d). The work participation rate is defined
Thus Geostrophic winds are caused only by as the percentage of total workers
the Coriolis force and the Pressure (main and marginal) to the total
Gradient force and not by the population.

Answer: A (a). Only 1 and 2
Explanation (b). Only 1 and 3
* The population of India according to (c). Only 1,2 and 4
their economic status is divided into (d). All of the above
three groups, namely; main workers,
marginal workers, and non-workers Answer: C
Main Worker is a person who works
for at least 183 days in a year. Explanation
A marginal Worker is a person who works for The GDI measures gender gaps in human
less than 183 days in a year development achievements by
The work participation rate is defined as the accounting for
percentage of total workers (main disparities between women and men in three
and marginal) to the total population. basic dimensions of human
According to National Sample Survey development –
Office (NSSO) conducted in 2011- 12, health, knowledge and living standards using
the total workforce is estimated at 41 the same component indicators as in
crore, out of which 33.69 crore were the
rural workers and 13.72 crore were HDI.
urban workers. This indicates an The GDI shows how much women are lagging
economic status in which there is a behind their male counterparts and
larger proportion of the dependent how
population, further indicating the much women need to catch up within each
possible existence of a large number dimension of human development.
of unemployed or underemployed It is useful for understanding the real gender
people. gap in human development
achievements
and is informative to design policy tools to
32. Consider the following statement about close the gap.
Gender Development Index(GDI). India is only marginally better than the South
1. The GDI measures gender gaps in Asian average on the Gender
human development achievements Development Index (0.829 vs 0.828).
by accounting for disparities between
women and men
2. The GDI shows how much women are 33. Consider the following statements with
lagging behind their male reference to the Spatial distribution of
counterparts and how much women World population:
need to catch up within each 1. Climate, soil and minerals affect the
dimension of human development. distribution of the world population.
3. It uses two basic dimensions of 2. About 90 per cent of the world
human development population lives in about 10 per cent
4. It uses the same component of its land area.
indicators as in the HDI.
Choose the correct options

3. The rate at which the population of 34. Consider the following statements regarding
countries doubles is almost the same the International Organization for Migration
in all the regions of the world. (IOM):
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. It is an Intergovernmental
correct? organization working as a part of the
a) 1 only United Nations System.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. It was established as a result of large-
c) 1 and 3 only scale displacement caused by the
d) 1 and 2 only dissolution of the Soviet Union.
3. World Migration Report is an
Answer D initiative of the International
Organization for Migration.
Explanation Which of the statements given above is/are
Statement 1 is correct: The Spatial correct?
distribution of the population is a) 1 and 2 only
affected by following factors: b) 3 only
Geographical factors- Availability of c) 1 and 3 only
water, Landforms, Climate, Soils. d) 1, 2 and 3
Economic Factors- Minerals, Urbanization,
Industrialization. Answer C
Social and Cultural Factors – Religious and Explanation
Cultural significance. Statement 1 is correct: International
Statement 2 is correct: The term population Organization for Migration (IOM) is
distribution refers to the way people the leading intergovernmental
are spaced over the earth’s surface. organization in the field of migration
Broadly, 90 per cent of the world and works closely with governmental,
population lives in about 10 per cent intergovernmental and non-
of its land area. The 10 most governmental partners. It is a part of
populous countries of the world the United Nations System.
contribute about 60 per cent of the Statement 2 is incorrect: IOM was born in
world’s population. Of these 10 1951 out of the chaos and
countries, 6 are located in Asia. displacement of Western Europe
Statement 3 is incorrect: There is a great following the Second World War. It
variation among regions in doubling was set up to facilitate the
their population. resettlement of European migrants
Developed countries take more time to uprooted by the Second World War.
double their population as compared The dissolution of the Soviet Union occurred
to developing countries. Most of the in 1991.
population growth is taking place in Statement 3 is correct: Since 2000, IOM has
the developing world, where been producing its flagship World
population is exploding. Migration Report every two years.

35. With reference to the distribution of lithium subsurface exploration by AMD, have
reserves around the world, consider the shown presence of Lithium resources
following statements: of 1,600 tonnes (inferred category) in
1. Australia is the world’s largest the pegmatites of Marlagalla –
producer of lithium. Allapatna area, Mandya district,
2. The lithium triangle spanning Bolivia, Karnataka. So, the statement is
Chile and Argentina have more than incorrect as lithium reserves have
half of the world’s total identified been found in India.
lithium reserves.
3. Currently there is no presence of 36. With reference to the National Waterways
Lithium reserves in India. of India, consider the following pairs
Which of the statement/s given above is/are National Waterways1 Route
correct? 1. National Waterway 1 Dhubri to Sadiya
a) 1 and 3 only 2. National Waterway 2 Haldia to Allahabad
b) 2 only 3. National Waterway 3
c) 1 and 2 only Kottapuram to Kollam
d) 2 and 3 only 4. National Waterway 4 Kakinada
toPuducherry
Answer C How many of the above given pairs are
Explanation correctly matched?
Lithium is a key component of the batteries a) Only one pair
used in electric cars. Lithium is also b) Only two pairs
called as white gold. c) Only three pairs
Statement 1 is correct: Australia is the d) All the four pairs
world’s largest lithium producer, Answer B
accounting for nearly half of global Explanation
production in 2020. The National Waterways Act, 2016 has
Statement 2 is correct: The South American declared 111 inland waterways as
Lithium triangle spanning Bolivia, ‘National Waterways’ (NWs) in the
Chile and Argentina have the largest country to promote shipping and
estimated resources. About 56 navigation on them. The total length
percent of the world's 89 million of NWs is 20,275 kms spread across
tonnes of identified lithium resources 24 States in the country.
are found in the South American Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: National
triangle, according to the US waterway 1 on the Ganga -
Geological Survey (USGS). Bhagirathi-Hooghly River system
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Atomic Minerals connects Haldia in West Bengal with
Directorate for Exploration and Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh. It
Research (AMDER) under stretches across a total distance of
Department Atomic Energy (DAE) has 1620 km.
undertaken lithium exploration in Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: National
Karnataka and Rajasthan. Preliminary waterway 2 lies on the river
surveys on surface and limited Brahmaputra having a length of 891

Km between Bangladesh Border near jurisdiction of the respective State
Dhubri and Sadiya in Assam. Government.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: National The twelve major seaports in India include
Waterway 3 also known as the West Kandla port in Gujarat, Kolkata port
Coast Canal is a 205 km stretch of (including Haldia) in West Bengal,
inland navigational route located in Paradeep in Odisha, Mumbai port
Kerala, India. It connects Kollam and and Jawaharlal Nehru Port in
Kottapuram. Maharashtra, Ennore, Chennai and
Pair 4 is correctly matched: National Tuticorin port in Tamil Nadu,
waterway 4 is declared on the Marmagao in Goa, Mangalore in
Krishna-Godavari River. It connects Karnataka, Visakhapatnam in Andhra
Puducherry with Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh and Kochi in Kerala.
Pradesh. It connects the Indian states Kandla port in Gujarat is the northernmost
of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil major port in India.
Nadu, and the union territory of Kolkata port in West Bengal is a major port
Puducherry. located immediately below the
Kandla port.
Paradip port in Odisha is a major port located
immediately below the Kolkata port,
Mumbai port and Jawaharlal Nehru Port in
Maharashtra are major ports located
37. With reference to the major ports in India, immediately below the Paradip port
consider the following: in the same order.
1. Paradip port
2. Mumbai port 38. Footloose Industries, is a type of recently
3. Kolkata port flourishing industry. It can be indicated from
4. Kandla port which of the following:
Arrange the above ports from north to south (a). Diamond
and select the correct answer using the code (b). Computer chips
given below? (c). Mobile manufacturing
a) 4-3-1-2 (d). All of the above
b) 3-4-1-2
c) 4-3-2-1 Answer: D
d) 3-4-2-1 Explanation
Answer A Footloose industry is a general term for an
Explanation industry that can be placed and
India has 13 major ports and 205 notified located at any location without effect
minor and intermediate ports. While from factors of production such as
the Major Ports are under the resources, land, labour, and capital.
administrative control of the Ministry These industries often have spatially
of Shipping, the non-major ports fixed costs, which means that the
(minor ports) are under the costs of the products do not change
despite where the product is

assembled. Diamonds, computer Four ways of looking at or approach the
chips, and mobile Manufacturing are problems of human development.
some examples of footloose Some of the important approaches
industries. These are generally non- are:
polluting Industries. Income Approach This approach links the
development to incomes as it
39. Transhumance refers to believes that
(a). Process of migration from plain areas income determines the level of freedom that
to mountains during summers and one enjoys.
vice versa in winters Welfare Approach Under this approach,
(b). Process of migration from mountain government is responsible for
areas to plain areas during summers providing basic
and vice versa in winters facilities like health, education and amenities
(c). Process of moving from one place to to people.
another like a nomad Basic Needs Approach In this approach,
(d). None of the above emphasis is on providing six basic
Answer: A needs i.e.
Explanation health, education, food, water supply, ”
Transhumance is the practice of pastoral sanitation and housing.
nomads when they circulate with Capability Approach This approach is
their herds from associated with Prof. Amartya Sen
lowland pastures to mountainous regions in a and aims to
learned pattern that is often passed build human capabilities in health, education
down through generations of family and-access to resources in order to
members. The tribes of Bakarwals, increase
Gaddis, Bhotiyas, Gujjars of Himalaya human development.
and Nomadic herders do
transhumance.
40. Which of the following are approaches to

human development 41. If you travel by road from Kohima to
1. Income approach Kottayam, what is the minimum number of
2. Expenditure approach States within India through which you can
3. Welfare approach travel, including the origin and the
4. Basic needs approach destination?
Choose the correct options (a) 6
(a). Only 1 and 2 (b) 7
(b). Only 1, 3 and 4 (c) 8
(c). Only 1 and 3 (d) 9
(d). All of the above Ans: b
Answer: B Explanation: Nagaland, Assam, West Bengal,
Explanation Odisha, AP, Tamil Nadu, Kerala

42. Which of the following rivers is not the Explanation: Damodar River is a river flowing
tributary of Yamuna? across the Indian states of West
(a) Chambal Bengal and Jharkhand. Rich in
(b) Betwa mineral resources, thevalley is home
(c) Ken to large-scale mining and industrial
(d) Gandak activity. The Brahmani is a major
Ans: d seasonal river in the Odisha state of
Eastern India. The Brahmani is
Explanation: The Kali Gandaki or Gandaki formed by the confluence of the
River is one of the major rivers of Sankh and South Koel rivers, and
Nepal and a left bank tributary of the flows through the districts of
Ganges in India. It is also called Sundargarh, Deogarh, Angul,
Krishna Gandaki in Nepal. Dhenkanal, Cuttack and Jajapur. The
Mahanadi is a major river in East
Central India. It drains an area of
43. Ganga is a result of the confluence of rivers around 141,600 square kilometres
––– . and has a total course of 858
(a) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Dev kilometres. The Tungabhadra River is
Prayag a river in India that starts and flows
(b) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Karan through the state of Karnataka during
Prayag most of its course, before flowing
(c) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at along the border between Karnataka
Gangotri and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Bhagirathi and Alakananda at Rudra
Prayag 45. Arrange the following tributaries of river
Ans: a Brahmaputra from West to East.
Explanation: Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers 1. Lohit
meet at DevPrayag and downstream 2. Dibang
flow as Ganges 3. Subansiri
4. Tista
Select the correct answer using the codes
44. Which one among the following is the given below
correct sequence of the rivers from north to (a) 4, 3, 2, 1
south? (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(a) Damodar-Brahmani-Mahanadi- (c) 3, 4, 2, 1
Tungabhadra (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
(b) Damodar-Mahanadi-Brahmani- Ans: b
Tungabhadra Explanation: The Teesta River is a 309 km
(c) Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Damodar- long river flowing through the Indian
Mahanadi state of Sikkim. The Subansiri River is
(d) Damodar-Brahmani-Tungabhadra- a tributary of the Brahmaputra River
Mahanadi in the Indian states of Assam and
Ans: a Arunachal Pradesh, and the Tibet

Autonomous Region of China. Lohit Explanation: Amaravati river is the longest
River is a river in Arunachal Pradesh tributary of Kaveri river.
in India. It is a tributary to the
Brahmaputra River. Dibang River is a 48. The Amarkantak Hills is the source of which
tributary river of the Brahmaputra of the following rivers?
that flows through the northeast 1. Narmada
Indian states of Arunachal Pradesh 2. Mahanadi
and Assam. 3. Tapti
4. Son
46. Arrange the following tributaries of river Select the correct answer using the code
Indus from North to given below:
South : (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Chenab (b) 2 only
2. Jhelum (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. Ravi (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Sutlej Ans: c
Select the correct answer using the code Explanation: River Narmada emerges from
given below : Amarkantak Hill of Maikal Range. The
(a) 4-3-1-2 mighty Narmada river as well the
(b) 2-3-1-4 Son, the Mahanadi, and Arnadoh
(c) 1-2-3-4 which is a major tributary of the
(d) 2-1-3-4 Godavari all arise in the Amarkantak
Ans: c plateau. Son river is largest of
Explanation: The Indus River originates near southern tributaries of Ganga that
the Mansarovar Lake in the Tibetan originates near Amarkantak in
plateau, on the northern slopes of Madhya Pradesh near the source of
the Kailash Mountain Range. Given Narmada River
below are the main tributaries of
the Indus River from north to south: 49. Damodar is a tributary of river
• Jhelum (a) Ganga
• Chenab (b) Hugli
• Ravi (c) Padma
• Sutlej (d) Suvarn Rekha
Ans: b
47. Which one of the following pairs of a river 50. Which one of the following is the highest
and its tributary is not correctly matched? waterfalls in India?
(a) Godavari : Wainganga (a) BarchiPani Falls
(b) Cauvery : Bhavani (b) Jog Falls
(c) Narmada : Amaravati (c) Meenmutty Falls
(d) Krishna : Bhima (d) Kunchikal Falls
Ans: c Ans: d

Explanation: The Kunchikal water falls in India Explanation: The Snow - covered Ghepan
has the most height. It has almost a Lake is located in Himachal Pradesh.
height of 455 meters.
54. The ‘Gurudongmar Lake’ named after Guru
Padmasambhava is one of the highest lakes
51. Which of the following is incorrectly in the world. It is situated in the Indian State
matched? of—
(Lakes) (Locations) (a) Meghalaya
I. Lonar –Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand
II. Nakki – Gujarat (c) Himachal Pradesh
III. Kolleru –Andhra Pradesh (d) Sikkim
IV. Loktak – Mizoram Ans: d
a) I & II only
b) III & IV only 55. Which one of the following is not a tributary
c) I,II & IV only of river Alaknanda?
d) I & IV only (a) Bhilangana
Ans: c (b) Pinder
Explanation:Lonar is in Maharashtra, Nakki in (c) Mandakini
Rajasthan, while Pulicat lake is (d) Nandakini
situated in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Ans: a
Nadu. Loktak is in Manipur. Explanation:Bhilangana is not a tributary of
Alaknanda. Bhilangana River is a
52. Which one of the following rivers does not Himalayan River in Uttarakhand,
originate in India? India which is a major tributary of the
(a) Sutlej Bhagirathi River.
(b) Ravi
(c) Chenab 56. Parts of Himachal Pradesh had evolved a
(d) Beas local system of canal irrigation over four
Ans: a hundred years ago. It is called—
Explanation: Sutlej originates from Rakhastat (a) Kulhs
lake in Tibet. Origin of Ravi is Bara (b) Baori
Bhangal (H.P), While that of Chenab (c) Jhalara
and Beas is Lahaul valley (H.P) and (d) Khadin
Himalaya region. Ans: a
Explanation:Kuhls are a traditional irrigation
53. The snow-covered Ghepan Lake is located system in Himachal Pradesh. They are
in— surface channels diverting water
(a) Uttarakhand from natural flowing streams (khuds).
(b) Himachal Pradesh A typical community kuhl services 6
(c) Sikkim to 30 farmers, irrgating an area of
(d) Jammu & Kashmir about 20 ha.
Ans: b

57. Rajarappa is situated on the confluence of It also has a large populaton of panthers,
which rivers? the second largest predators of the forest.
(a) Damodar — Behera (a) Ranthambore National Park
(b) Damodar — Sherbukhi (b) Bandavgarh National Park
(c) Damodar — Barakar (c) Bharatpur National Park
(d) Damodar — Konar (d) Kanha National Park
Ans: a Ans: a
Explanation: Rajrappa is a waterfall and a Explanation: Ranthambore National Park is a
pilgrimage Centre in Ramgarh, vast wildlife reserve near the town of
Jharkhand . It is situated on the Sawai Madhopur in Rajasthan,
confluence of Damodar – Behera northern India. It is a former royal
rivers. hunting ground and home to tigers,
leopards and marsh crocodiles.
58. Which one of the following pairs is
incorrect? 61. Consider the following sanctuaries of India:
(a) Dodi Tal — Uttarkashi 1. Periyar
(b) Devriya Tal — Tehri 2. Dachigam
(c) Beni Tal — Chamoli 3. Sariska
(d) Basuki Tal — Rudra prayag 4. Kanha
Ans: b Which one among the following is the
Explanation:Devriya Tal is a pristine lake correct sequence of locations of the above
located near chopta sanctuaries from south to north?
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
59. Which of the following pairs are correctly (b) 4, 1, 3, 2
matched? (c) 1, 4, 3, 2
Waterfalls River (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
I. Kapildhara Falls — Godavari Ans: c
II. Jog Falls — Sharavathi Explanation: Periyar (Kerala), Kanha (M.P.),
III. Shivasamudram Falls—Cauvery Sariska (Rajasthan), Dachigam (J.K.) is
Select the correct answer using the code the correct sequence from south to
given below: north.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III 62. Which one of the following is the correct
(c) I and III sequence of the given tiger reserves of India
(d) I, II and III from North to South?
Ans: b (a) Dudwa-Kanha-Indravti-Bandipur
Explanation: Kapildhara Falls are on (b) Kanha-Bandipu-Dudwa-Indravati
river Narmada. (c) Indravati-Kanha-Dudwa-Bandipur
(d) Dudwa-Kanha-Bandipur-Indravati
60. Which of the following National Park’s Ans: a
uniqueness lies in its man-made lakes and Explanation: The Dudhwa National Park is a
ancient reservoirs, which have merged into national park in the Terai ofUttar
the natural system as vital sources of water? Pradesh, India, and covers an area of

490.3 km², with abuffer zone of 190 was higher than the share of rural
km². It is part of the Dudhwa Tiger males.
Reserve.Kanha National Park, also Which of the statements given above is/are
known as Kanha Tiger Reserve, is correct?
avast expanse of grassland and forest a) 1 and 3 only
in the central Indian stateof Madhya b) 2 only
Pradesh. Tigers, jackals and wild pigs c) 2 and 3 only
can be spottedin Kanha d) 3 only
Meadows.Indravati Tiger Reserves is
a Tiger Reserve area in Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Chhattisgarh.Bandipur National Park,
an 874-sq.-km forested reserve in Statement 1 is incorrect: More than 63% of
thesouthern Indian state of the female internal migrants moved
Karnataka, is known for its from rural to rural, and only 18% of
smallpopulation of tigers. males moved. The female dominates
the rural-to-rural migration.
63. A Sandy and Saline area is the natural Statement 2 is incorrect: The rural-to-rural
habitat of Indian animal species. The animal migration was greater than the rural-
is threatened due to the destruction of its to-urban migration. 55% of the
habitat. Which one of the following could be population moved from rural-to-
that animal? rural, whereas, rural-to-urban
(a) Indian Wild Buffalo migration was 18.9%.
(b) Great Indian Bustard Statement 3 is correct: Migration is more
(c) Indian Wild Boar among rural males than urban males
(d) Indian Gazelle for all other reasons except
Ans: b employment and migration of
Explanation: Great Indian Bustard is found in earning members. That is, the share
Gujarat, Rajasthan and surrounding of urban males that migrated in
areas, facing stress due to habitat search of employment or for
destruction. employment was higher than the
share of rural males.
64) With reference to the ‘Migration in India
2020-21' report, recently released by the
Ministry of Statistics and Programme 65) Consider the following statements regarding
Implementation, consider the following urbanisation in India with reference to
statements: Census 2011:
1. The rural-to-rural migration in India is 1. The decadal growth rate of
dominated by the males. urbanization has increased
2. The rural-to-urban migration was continuously since 1950.
greater than the rural-to-rural 2. Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized
migration. State in India.
3. The share of urban males that
migrated in search of employment

3. None of the states or Union 1. As cotton is a weight losing material,
Territories in India has 100% urban the cotton industry favours its
population. location near cotton growing areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The production of cotton in India has
correct? been steadily increasing in the last
a) 1 and 3 only five years.
b) 3 only 3. Government of India has launched
c) 2 and 3 only PM MITRA scheme for the
d) 1 only development of integrated textile
regions and apparel parks.
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. Which of the statement/s given above is/are
correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect. Enlargement of a) 1 and 2 only
urban centers and emergence of new b) 1 and 3 only
towns have played asignificant role in c) 3 only
the growth of urban population and d) 2 and 3 only
urbanization in the country. But the
growth rate ourbanization has Option c is the correct answer.
slowed down from 1981 onwards. Explanation:
Decennial growth rate of The cotton textile industry is one of the
urbanization in 1981 was46.14%, in traditional industries of India. In
1991-36.47%, in 2001-31.13%, in 1854, the first modern cotton mill
2011-31.08. Thus, it has decreased. was established in Mumbai.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Among States, Goa Statement 1 is incorrect: Unlike Sugarcane
is the most urbanized State with 62.2 which loses its weight in the
percent urban population. manufacturing process, Cotton is a
Statement 3 is correct. Among all the States pure raw material which does not
and Union territories, the National lose weight in the manufacturing
Capital Territory of Delhiand the process. Hence the importance of
Union territory of Chandigarh are raw materials has given way to the
most urbanized with 97.5 percent market or other factors.
and 97.25 percent urbanpopulation Statement 2 is incorrect: India is having 1st
respectively, followed by Daman and place in the world with estimated
Diu (75.2 percent) and Puducherry production of 362.18 lakh bales (6.16
(68.3 percent). Thus, there is no state million Metric Tonnes during cotton
or Union Territory with 100% season 2021-22 i.e., 23% of world
urbanized population. cotton production of 1555 lakh bales
(26.44 million Metric Tonnes). India is
also the 2nd largest consumer of
66) With reference to the cotton and textile cotton in the world with estimated
industry in India, consider the following consumption of 338 lakh bales (5.75
statements: million Metric Tonnes i.e., 22% of
world cotton consumption of 1507

lakh bales (25.63 million Metric d) 1, 2, and 3
Tonnes). Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 3 is correct: Ministry of Textiles Statement 1 is correct: Technopolies is a
(MoT) has launched PM Mega society with a concentration of
Integrated Textile Regions and technology-based businesses. There
Apparel Parks (MITRAs) Scheme to is an emphasis on technology. They
strengthen the Indian textile industry are high-tech industries that are
by way of enabling scale of regionally concentrated,
operations, reduce logistics cost by selfsustained, and highly specialized.
housing entire value chain at one Silicon Valley near San Francisco and
location, attract investment, Silicon Forest near Seattle are
generate employment and augment examples of technopolies.
export potential. The scheme will Statement 2 is incorrect: Neatly spaced, low,
develop integrated large scale and modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab
modern industrial infrastructure buildings are the chief characteristics
facility for total value-chain of the of the technopolies. Technopolies do
textile industry for example, spinning, not have massive assembly
weaving, processing, garmenting, structures, factories, and storage
textile manufacturing, processing & areas as in traditional industries.
printing machinery industry. The PM Statement 3 is correct: In the technopolies,
MITRAscheme is Inspired by the 5F White-collar (Professional) workers
vision Farm to Fibre to Factory to make up a large share of the total
Fashion to Foreign. It aims to create workforce. These highly skilled
an integrated textiles value chain specialists greatly outnumber the
right from spinning, weaving, Blue-collar (actual production)
processing/dyeing and printing to workers.
garment manufacturing at 1 location.
68) Consider the following statements with
67) Consider the following statements regarding reference to the paper industry in India :
the Technopolies: 1. At present, Only hardwood trees and
1. It is a society with a concentration of bamboo are used to make pulp for its
technology-based businesses. paper industries
2. They have massive assembly 2. Bamboo alone constitutes about 80%
structures, factories, and storage of the raw material for the paper
areas. industry
3. White Collar workers generally Which of the statements given above is/are
outnumber Blue-collar workers in the correct ?
technopolies. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 1 and 3 only EXPLANATION: option d correct answer
c) 2 and 3 only

The Paper industry is essentially a raw populated. It consists of rapid transit,
material-based industry. The raw suburban rail, monorail, and tram
material for the paper industry is not systems. That the Urban Rapid transit
only hardwood trees and bamboo system is established to provide
but also softwood, bamboo, grasses, connectivity within the urban areas
bagasse, rags, and waste paper. So, (Intracity). Hence, Rapid transit does
Statement 1 is not correct. not connect the suburbs and the
In India bamboo and wood constitute 21% of cities. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
the raw material for the paper There is currently 15 operational rapid transit
industry. (popularly known as 'metro') systems
Bamboo is obtained from the states of in fifteen cities across India. It is
Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, present not only in a few state
Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, capitals of India but also in other
Maharashtra, North East India, cities such as Nagpur, Kanpur, Noida,
Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, etc. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Uttarakhand, and West Bengal. So, At present, India has 15 operational Rapid
Statement 2 is not correct. transit systems, whereas the South
Asian countries whereas the country
Pakistan has 4, Bangladesh has 1
under construction, and Srilanka,
69) Consider the following statements with Nepal’s rapid transit system is under
reference to the urban rapid transport proposal. So, Statement 3 is correct.
systems In India:
1. Urban rapid transit is usually 70. With respect to changes in Land-use
established to provide connectivity categories in India between 1951 and 2015,
between the suburban areas and the consider the following statements:
city. 1. Less than 30% of India’s geographical
2. At present, only state capitals in India area is under cultivation.
have an operational urban rapid 2. Area under non-agricultural use has
transport system. highest rate of increase compared to
3. India has more cities with an urban other categories.
rapid transit system than any other 3. Pastures and grazing lands have
South Asian Country. shown considerable decline over the
Which of the statements given above is/are said period.
correct? Which of the above-mentioned statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct?
(b) 2 only a) 1 only
(c) 3 only b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION: option c is correct d) 1, 2 and 3
Urban rail transit in India plays an important Answer c
role in intracity transportation in the Explanation Option c is correct.
major cities which are highly

Land use change is a process which
transforms the landscape by direct 71. Which of the following statements are
human-induced land use such as correct regarding the footloose industry in
settlements, commercial and India?
economic uses and forestry activities. 1. These industries are generally less
Statement 1 is incorrect: Around 51% of India polluting.
s geographical area is already under 2. Factors like resources or transport
cultivation as compared to 11% of have very little effect on costs of
the world average. The present these industries.
cropping intensity of 136% has 3. These are highly labor intensive
registered an increase of only 25% industries.
since independence. Further, rainfed 4. Cement manufacturing is a footloose
drylands constitute 65% of the total industry.
net sown area. 2/3rd of Area is under Select the correct answer using the code
Food Grains and 54% under Rice and given below:
Wheat. a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 2 is correct: The rate of increase is b) 1, 2 and 3 only
the highest in case of area under c) 2 and 4 only
non-agricultural uses. This is due to d) 1, 3 and 4 only
the changing structure of Indian Answer a
economy, which is increasingly Explanation Option a is correct.
depending on the contribution from Footloose industry is a general term for an
industrial and services sectors and industry that can be placed and
expansion of related infrastructural located at any location without effect
facilities. Also, an expansion of area from factors of production such as resources,
under both urban and rural land, labour, and capital. Following
settlements has added to the are some of the characteristics of the
increase. Thus, the area under non- industry.
agricultural uses is increasing at the Statement 1 is correct. Footloose industries
expense of wastelands and produce in relatively small quantities,
agricultural land. employing smaller workforces and
Statement 3 is correct: The four categories are considered to be more efficient
that have registered a decline are from an ecological point of view.
barren and wasteland, culturable These are generally not polluting
wasteland, area under pastures and industries.
tree crops and fallow lands. The Statement 2 is correct. These industries can
decline in land under pastures and be placed and located at any location
grazing lands can be explained by without effect from factors such as
pressure from agricultural land. resources or transport. These
Illegal encroachment due to industries often have spatially fixed
expansion of cultivation on common costs, which means that the costs of
pasture lands is largely responsible the products do not change despite
for this decline. where the product is assembled.

Statement 3 is incorrect.These industries thorium reserves make up 25 per
produce their products in small cent of the global reserves. India's
numbers and they do not require a thorium deposits,estimated at
large labour force. 360,000 tonnes, far outweigh its
Statement 4 is incorrect. Cement natural uranium deposits at 70,000
manufacturing is not a foot loose tonnes. It can easily be used as a fuel
industry as this is a raw material to cut down on the import of
specific industry. Footloose industries Uranium from different countries
can be located at a wide variety of Statement 2 is incorrect. Australia possesses
places, as these are not weight-losing around 30% of the world's known
nor raw-material-specific Diamonds, recoverable uranium
computer chips, and mobile reserves.Kazakhstan contains about
manufacturing are some examples of 13% of the world's recoverable
footloose industries. uranium, with 50 known deposits and
around 20 operating uranium mines.
72. Consider the following statements regarding Statement 3 is incorrect. Much like uranium,
Uranium and Thorium deposits in India: thorium is also a fertile substance,
1. World's largest thorium reserves are but not a fissile substance by itself. It
found in India. requires work to make it usable in a
2. Most of the world's uranium reserves nuclear reactor. The process through
are found in Kazakhstan. which Thorium can be made usable in
3. Both Uranium and Thorium are fissile the reactor is a three-stage process. It
substance and can be used directly in starts with using Pressurized Heavy
nuclear reactors. Water Reactors (PHWR) and light
Which of the statements given above is/are water reactors to convert natural
correct? uranium to plutonium. Next, the
a) 1 only neutrons from plutonium breed U-
b) 2 and 3 only 233 from Thorium. The final stage,
c) 1 and 3 only Advanced Heavy Water reactors burn
d) 1, 2 and 3 U-233 with Thorium, and about 66
per cent of power is generated from
Answer a Thorium fission.
Explanation Option a is correct.
Uranium and thorium are naturally occurring, 73) With reference to ‘precision farming’
radioactive heavy metals with consider the following statements:
unusual properties. The energy 1. It is an approach where inputs are
generated by the natural breakdown utilised in precise amounts to get
of radioactive elements is immense increased average yields compared to
and can be used in nuclear reactors. traditional cultivation techniques.
Statement 1 is correct. World's largest 2. One of the advantages of this type of
thorium reserves in the form of farming is that it can easily be applied
monazite are found in India on the on small farm holdings.
coast of Kerala. The country's

3. It makes optimum utilization of both food and fodder. Some of the
Information and Communication major millet varities are Jawar, Bajra,
Technologies in farm management. Ragi, Korra, Kodon,Kutki, Hraka,
Which of the statements given above is/are Bauti, Rajgira. In India, Jawar, Bajra
correct? and Ragi are grown on large areas,
a) 1 and 2 only but unfortunately area under these
b) 2 and 3 only crops has drastically reduced over the
c) 1 and 3 only years.
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer c 75. In the context of population pyramid,
Explanation Option c is correct consider the following statements:
Statement 1 is correct. Precision farming is an 1. It can be used to compare differences
approach where inputs are utilised in between male and female population
precise amounts to get increased of an area.
average yields when compared to 2. A stationary trend in the graph is
traditional cultivation techniques. represented by square or pillar shape
Statement 2 is incorrect. One of the rather than a pyramid.
challenges in precision farming is that 3. India’s population pyramid is bottom
it cannot easily be applied on small heavy.
farm holdings. Which of the statements given below are
Statement 3 is correct. It is an information correct?
and technology-based farm a) 1 and 3 only
management system that identifies, b) 2 and 3 only
analyses and manages variability in c) 1 and 2 only
fields by conducting crop production d) 1, 2 and 3
practices at the right place and time Answer D
and in the right way, for optimum Explanation Option d is correct.
profitability, sustainability and Statement 1 is correct. A population pyramid
protection of the land resource. is a way to visualize two variables:
age and sex. They are used by
demographers, who study
74) Korra, Kodon, Kutki, Hraka, Bauti, Rajgira are populations. A population pyramid is
related to which of the following: a graph that shows the distribution of
a) Variety of Millet crops ages across a population divided
b) folk dances of North East India down the center between male and
c) Water conservation technique in female members of the population.
south India A population pyramid can be used to
d) Tribal castes in central India compare differences between male
Answer a and female populations of an area.
Explanation Option a is correct Statement 2 is correct. The “stationary” trend
Option a is correct. Millets are short duration which is a population with low
warm weather crops. These are mortality and low fertility rates.
coarse grain crops and are used for These graphs have a square or

“pillar” shape rather than a pyramid deviation from gender parity in HDI
one. These population pyramids values. This means that grouping
represent a stable population that takes equally into consideration
will not change significantly barring gender gaps favoring males, as well
any sudden changes to fertility or as those favoring females.
mortality rates.
Statement 3 is correct. As shown in the below
figure, India’s population pyramid is 77) Consider the following statements regarding
bottom heavy. various land use categories. Which one of
the following is incorrect ?
76) The Gender Development Index (GDI) a) The physical extent of land on which
measures gender gaps by accounting for crops are sown and harvested is
disparities between women and men in known as net sown area.
which of the following basic dimensions? b) The land that is left uncultivated for
1. Health less than five years can be
2. Knowledge categorized as culturable wasteland.
3. Living standards c) Current fallow is the land which is left
4. Age without cultivation for one or less
Select the correct answer using the code than one agricultural year.
given below: d) Barren land cannot be brought under
a) 1 and 2 only cultivation except at an exorbitant
b) 1, 2 and 3 only cost.
c) 2, 3 and 4 only Answer B
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation Option b is incorrect.
Answer b Option a is correct. Net Area Sown: The
Explanation Option b is correct. physical extent of land on which
The GDI measures gender gaps in human crops are sown and harvested is
development achievements by known as net sown area.
accounting for disparities between Option b is incorrect. Fallow other than
women and men in three basic Current Fallow: This is also a
dimensions of human development— cultivable land which is left
health, knowledge and living uncultivated for more than a year but
standards using the same component less than five years. If the land is left
indicators as in the HDI. The GDI is uncultivated for more than five years,
the ratio of the HDIs calculated it would be categorized as culturable
separately for females and males wasteland.
using the same methodology as in Option c is correct. Current Fallow: This is the
the HDI. It is a direct measure of land which is left without cultivation
gender gap showing the female HDI for one or less than one agricultural
as a percentage of the male HDI. year. Fallowing is a cultural practice
The GDI is calculated for 167 countries. adopted for giving the land rest. The
Countries are grouped into five land recoups the lost fertility through
groups based on the absolute natural processes.

Option d is correct. Barren and Wastelands: Jharkhand are also dominating
The land which may be classified as a contributors.
wasteland such as barren hilly Statement 3 is correct: Dharwad and
terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. Cuddapah rock systems are the
normally cannot be brought under metallic mineral resources in India.
cultivation with the available Collectively these accounts for than
technology. According to the 90% of iron ore reserves in the
definition of land uses, barren land country.
includes all lands covered by
mountains,deserts, etc. which cannot 79. Consider the following statements with
be brought under cultivation except reference to Fast-moving consumer goods
at an exorbitant cost. As such, there (FMCG) sector in India:
is no comprehensive programme for 1. Household and personal care is the
development of barren land into major segment of FMCG in India.
fertile land. 2. The urban segment is the largest
contributor to the overall revenue
78. With respect to iron ore reserves in India generated by the FMCG sector in
which of the following statements is/are India.
correct? 3. 100% FDI is allowed in multi-brand
1. Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh retail for FMCG sector.
have no iron reserves. Which of the above statements is/are
2. Odisha is the largest producer of iron correct in the above context?
ore in India. a) 1 and 2 only
3. Cuddapah rock system is rich in iron b) 2 and 3 only
deposits. c) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code d) 1 and 3 only
given below: Answer a
a) 1 and 2 only Explanation Option a is correct.
b) 1 and 3 only Products that are classified under the FMCG
c) 2 and 3 only banner include food, beverages,
d) 1, 2 and 3 personal hygiene and household
Answer c cleaning utensils. The term “fast-
Explanation Option c is correct. moving” stems from the fact that
Statement 1 is incorrect: Garhwal in FMCG products usually have a short
Uttarakhand and Kangra valley in shelf life and are non-durable.
Himachal Pradesh have a reserve of Fast moving consumer goods (FMCG) are the
limonite iron ore. It has 40-60% iron 4th largest sector in the Indian
content and is yellowish in color. economy.
Statement 2 is correct: 50% iron ore is Statement 1 is correct. There are three main
produced by Odisha alone which segments in the sector – food and
makes it the largest producing state. beverages (19%), healthcare (31%)
Apart from it Goa, Chhattisgarh and and household & personal care
(remaining 50%).

Statement 2 is correct. The urban segment is Coal is one of the important minerals which is
the largest contributor (accounts for mainly used in the generation of
a revenue share of around 55%) to thermal power and smelting of ore.
the overall revenue generated by the Statement 1 is correct. Coal occurs in rock
FMCG sector in India. sequences mainly of two geological
However, in the last few years, the FMCG ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary
market has grown at a faster pace in deposits. Around 98 per cent of
rural India compared with urban India's total coal reserves are from
India. Semi-urban and rural segments Gondwana times. This coal was
are growing at a rapid pace and formed about 250 million years ago.
FMCG products account for 50% of Tertiary coal is of younger age. It was formed
the total rural spending. from 15 to 60 million years ago. Coal
Statement 3 is incorrect. Government gave has been of 4 types Peat, Lignite,
approval of 100% Foreign Direct Bituminous & Anthracite Coal. This
Investment (FDI) in the cash and division is based on carbon, ash and
carry segment and in single-brand moisture content.
retail along with 51% FDI (and not Statement 2 is correct About 80 per cent of
100%) in multi-brand retail for FMCG the coal deposits in India is of
sector. 100% FDI allowed in food bituminous type and is of non-coking
processing segment. grade.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Bituminous has a
80. Consider the following statements with low level of moisture content with 60
reference to Coal in India: to 80% of carbon content and has a
1. More than 90 percent of India's total high calorific value. Jharkhand, West
coal reserves are from Gondwana Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and
times. Madhya Pradesh have deposits of
2. More than three fourth of the coal Bituminous.
deposits in India is of bituminous Statement 4 is correct. Anthracite is generally
type. not found in the Gondwana coal
3. Bituminous has a high level of fields. In India, it is found only in
moisture content resulting in very Jammu and Kashmir and that too in
low calorific value. small quantity.
4. Anthracite coal is found in Jammu
and Kashmir in some quantity. 81) Among the following States, which one has
Which of the above statements is/are the most suitable climatic conditions for the
correct in the above context? cultivation of a large variety of orchids with
a) 1, 2 and 4 only minimum cost of production, and can
b) 2, 3 and 4 only develop an export-oriented industry in this
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 field?
d) 1 and 3 only a) Andhra Pradesh
Answer a b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation Option a is correct. d) Uttar Pradesh

Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra,
Answer B Andhra Pradesh, and Rajasthan. The
name comes from the word 'billu,'
Explanation Option b is correct. meaning "bow." The Bhils are
Orchid is a diverse and widespread family of recognised for being great archers
flowering plants, with blooms that with extensive knowledge of their
are often colourful and fragrant. surroundings. According to the 2011
The temperature range suitable for most of Indian census, Bhil is the most
those orchids is 65 to 85 0 F. For populous tribe, with a total
satisfactory growth of population of 4,618 068, accounting
orchids,atmospheric humidity should for 37.7% of all Scheduled Tribes.
not be less than 30 per cent at night Gonds are the second-largest tribe of India,
and 70 to 80 per cent during the mostly found in the Chhindwara
daytime. It requires cool and moist district of Madhya Pradesh, the
climate along with frost free Bastar district of Chhattisgarh and
conditions for proper flowering. parts of Maharashtra, Andhra
Hence, Arunachal Pradesh has the Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand,
most suitable climatic conditions for Karnataka, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh,
the cultivation of a large variety of West Bengal and Odisha. Their staple
orchids. food is two kinds of millet: Kodo and
Kutki. Rice is mostly consumed during
82) Consider the following statements with festival feasts. Gonds believe that
reference to tribes of India : Gods rule the earth, water and air.
1. Bhils constitute the largest tribe in So, Statement 1 is correct.
India in terms of population, followed Since the Independence, the population of
by the Gonds. the scheduled tribes in India is
2. The population of tribes in India has consistently increasing from one
been declining consistently, since census to mthe other. So, Statement
Independence. 2 is not correct.
3. Hatti's of Assam and Kuruvikkaran of Hatti community settled in the Trans-Giri
Odisha have been recently granted area of Sirmaur, Himachal Pradesh.
Scheduled Tribes status. Brijiya community in Chhattisgarh
Which of the statements given above is/are and Kuruvikkaran from Tamil Nadu,
correct ? Betta Kuruba from Karnataka, Gond
(a) 1 only from Uttar Pradesh. So, Statement 3
(b) 1 and 2 only is not correct.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 83) With reference to the lead and zinc, consider
EXPLANATION: the following statements:
The Bhils, or Bheel, are India's largest 1. The lead and zinc can never occur
tribe and the most populous tribal together in an ore.
communities, with people living in
Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka,

2. India lacks self-sufficiency in zinc There are six employees P, Q, R, S, T and U
production but has excess production working in a bank as Chairman, GM,
of lead. Manager, AM, SO and PO but not necessarily
3. In India, Rajasthan is endowed with in the same order. The post of chairman is
the largest amount of lead and zinc considered as the senior-most post and PO is
reserves. considered as a Junior most post. U is not in
Which of the statements given above is/are the position of PO. S is not in the position of
correct? SO. Three persons sit between P and U. The
a) 1 only number of people above P is the same as the
b) 1 and 2 only number of people below T. R is neither GM
c) 3 only or AM. P is senior to T. Q is not Junior to S.
d) 2 and 3 only
On which position does R work?
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. a. Manager
Statement 1 is incorrect: Both lead & zinc are b. PO
found to occur together in an ore c.SO
along with other metals, such as, d.Chairman
silver and cadmium. Hence the Answer: a
statement is incorrect.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In India, there is a 85. Read the information given below and
short supply of lead because of the answer the Question
high demand for lead in the country Eight people P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W
due to thriving electronic industries live on separate floors of an 8-floor building.
and electronic vehicles e.g., 74% of Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is
the lead produced by the world is numbered 2 and so on until the topmost
consumed by the Lead Acid Battery floor is numbered 8.
Sector. On the other hand, India has R lives on floor no.3.Only one person
self-sufficiency in respect of zinc. lives between R and U. Only one person lives
Hence the statement is incorrect. between R and V. T lives immediately above
Statement 3 is correct: Rajasthan is endowed Q. W lives immediately above U. W lives on
with the largest reserves of lead-zinc any of the floors below S. Only one person
ore accounting to 89.44%, followed lives between S and P. S lives above P.
by Andhra Pradesh (3.03%), Madhya Who is living in top floor?
Pradesh (1.98%), Bihar (1.52%) and a.T
Maharashtra (1.24%). Lead-Zinc ore b.Q
can also be found in Gujarat, c.U
Meghalaya, Odisha, Sikkim, Tamil d.P
Nadu, Uttarakhand and West Bengal. Answer: a
84. Read the information given below and

answer the Question (Directions 86-88) Read the information given below
and answer the Questions given below

Study the following information and 88. On which of the following days does T learn
answer the question: Seven Friends, namely a language?
P,Q,R,S,T,U and V learn seven different a. Friday
languages namely, Sanskrit, Hindi, Telugu, b. Monday
Marathi, konkani, English and Gujarati, not c.Tuesday
necessarily in the same order, starting from d. Sunday
Monday to Sunday (of the same week). U
learns a language on Wednesday. Only one Answer: c
person learns between U and the one who
learns konkani. Only three people learn 89. Calendar of the year 2023 will be repeated
between the one who learns konkani and Q. in the following year?
The one who learns Telugu learns a. 2029
immediately after Q. Only two people learn b. 2034
between the one who learns Telugu and V. P c. 2033
learns immediately before S. Only three d.2051
people learn between the one who learns Answer: b
Sanskrit and the one who learns English. U
does not learn Sanskrit. T learns before the
one who learns English. Only one person 90. Today is Friday, after 38 days it will be ____
learns between T and the one who learns a. Monday
Marathi. P does not learn Hindi. b. Tuesday
c. Wednesday
d. Friday
86. As per the given arrangement Q is related to
the one who learns Telugu in a certain way Answer: a
and U is related to the one who learns
Marati in the same way. To which of the 91. India Got Independence on 15 August 1947.
following is P related to in the same way? This important event in Indian History falls
a. The one who learns Konkani on____
b. The one who learns Gujarati a.Thursday
c. The one who learns Sanskrit b. Friday
d. The one who learns English c.Tuesday
Answer: c d.Wednesday
Answer:b
87. Which of the following is true about R?
a.Only two people learn between R and V. 92. On what dates of May 2023, Monday will
b. R learns a language on Saturday. fall?
c. R learns Hindi a.1,8,15,22
d. R learns a language immediately after U b.2,9,16,23
c.3,10,17,24
Answer: d d.4,11,18,25
Answer: a

93. What was the day of the week on 27th April Answer: a
1992?
a. Monday 98. At what time between 4 o’ clock and 5 o’
b.Tuesday clock the hour hand and minutes hand form
c.Wednesday right angle?
d.Thursday a.4 past 38 and 4 past 5
Answer: a
b.5 past 38 and 5 past 5
94. Find the angle between the hour hand and c.4 past 39 and 4 past 6
minute hand at 8.15? d.4 past 31 and 4 past 7
a.157.5° Answer: a
b.167.5°
c.180.3° 99. Find the missing character in the following
d.257.5° question
Answer: a 4 5 7
6 8 4
2 3 8
95. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes 56 98 ?
past 4, the hour hand has turned through?
a.125°
a.129
b.157.5°
b.130
c.167.5°
c.134
d.137.5°
d.145
Answer: a
Answer: a
96. At what time between 5 o’ clock and 6 o’
clock, the two hands of the clock are
together?
100. What will come in place of Question mark in
a.5 past 27
the following question
b.6 past 27
c.5 past 29 25 49 81
d.5 past 23 36 64 100
11 15 ?
Answer: a
a.20
97. At what between 8 o’ clock and 9 o’ clock
b.18
the two hands of the clock are opposite to
c.19
each other?
d.21
a.10 past 8 Answer: c
b.10 past 9
c.12 past 8
d.12 past 9

101. Find the missing character in the following Answer: a
question
2 5 7 -3 104. What will come in place of Question mark

8 3 11 5 (?) in the given number series?
9 5 14 4 19, 84, 259, 628, _____, 2404
11 6 17 ? a.1299
b.1444
a.4 c.1296
b.5 d. 784
c.-5 Answer : a
d.6
105. What will come in place of Question mark
Answer: b
(?) in the given number series?
2, 12, 30, __ , 90, 132
102. Find the missing character in the following a.58
question b.56
c.49
2 7 6
d.46
5 6 4
Answer: b
6 7 2
8 4
a. 3 106.. What will come in place of Question mark
(?) in the given number series?
b.5 8, 10, 22, 52, 108, ?
c.4 a.196
b.198
d.7 c.200
d.199
Answer :c
Answer: b
103. Find the missing character in the following 107.. What will come in place of Question mark
question (?) in the given number series?
2 14 21 28 12, 20.9, 29.1, 36.6, ?, 49.5
3 21 28 35 a.44.2
5 35 42 49 b.43.4
7 ? 56 ? c.40.8
d.41.6
a. 49 and 56 Answer: b
b.49 and 63
c.63 and 49 108.. What will come in place of Question mark
d.81 and 63 (?) in the given number series?

18, 23, 34, 53, ? 123 DNT/NT/SNTCommunities
a.83 institutions.
b.82 • To provide financial assistance for
c.85 construction of houses to members
d.86 of the DNT/NT/SNT Communities.
Answer: b
110) Recently the Government started the
109) Which of the following are the components MAARG portal, that aims to
of Scheme for Economic Empowerment of a) Promote bioenergy usage and create
DNTs (SEED) related toDe-notified, Nomadic an investor-friendly ecosystem based
and Semi- nomadic Tribes? on circular economy
1. To provide health insurance facilities. b) Reimburse the expense incurred by
2. To facilitate livelihoods initiatives at the new startup ventures
community level. c) Facilitate mentorship for start-ups
3. To provide financial assistance for across diverse sectors
construction of houses. d) Extend financial aid required for the
4. To provide coaching to enable them development expenses of Public
to appear in competitive Private Partnership (PPP) projectsin
examinations. the infrastructure sector.
Select the correct answer code: Solution: c)
a) 1, 2, 3 The Department for Promotion of Industry
b) 1, 3, 4 and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the
c) 2, 3, 4 Ministry of Commerce andIndustry,
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 has launched a call for startup
Solution: d) applications for registration on the
The Minister of Social Justice and MAARG portal, the
Empowerment launched the Scheme NationalMentorship Platform by
for Economic Empowerment of Startup India.
DNTs(SEED).The De-notified, MAARG portal - Mentorship, Advisory,
Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes Assistance, Resilience and Growth, is
are the most neglected, marginalized a one stop platform to
and economically andsocially facilitatementorship for startups
deprived communities. across diverse sectors, functions,
The Scheme has following four components: stages, geographies, and
• To provide coaching of good quality for backgrounds.
DNT/NT/SNT candidates to enable The objectivesof the MAARG portal are –
them to appear in •To provide sector focused guidance,
competitiveexaminations. handholding, and support to startups
• To provide health insurance to DNT/NT/SNT throughout their lifecycle
Communities. •To establish a formalized and structured
• To facilitate livelihoods initiative at platform that facilitates intelligent
community level to build and matchmaking between the mentors
strengthen small clusters of and their respective mentees

•To facilitate efficient and expert mentorship Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar to
for startups and build an outcome- smallpox.
oriented mechanism that The monkeypox virus is an orthopoxvirus,
allowstimely tracking of the mentor- which is a genus of viruses that also
mentee engagements includes the variola virus,
whichcauses smallpox, and the
111) Semi-automated offside technology, vaccinia virus, which was used in the
recently seen in news is mainly used in smallpox vaccine. Monkeypox causes
a) Cricket symptomssimilar to smallpox,
b) Chess although they are less severe.
c) Football Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that is, a disease
d) Tennis that is transmitted from infected
Solution: c) animals to humans.Human-to-human
FIFA has implemented what they call “semi- transmission is limited. Transmission,
automated offside technology” this when it occurs, can be through
World Cup. contact with bodilyfluids, lesions on
According to FIFA, “The new technology uses the skin or internal mucosal surfaces,
12 dedicated tracking cameras such as in the mouth or throat,
mounted underneath the roof of respiratory droplets
thestadium to track the ball and up to andcontaminated objects, the WHO
29 data points of each individual says
player, 50 times per second,
calculating theirexact position on the 113 Consider the following statements regarding
pitch. The 29 collected data points Microwaves.
include all limbs and extremities that 1. They fall between the infrared
are relevant formaking offside calls.” radiation and radio waves in the
electromagnetic spectrum.
112) Consider the following statements regarding 2. Glass and plastic materials reflect
Monkeypox. microwaves.
1. Monkeypox is a rare viral infection similar 3. Microwaves of certain frequencies
to smallpox. are absorbed by water.
2. Monkeypox is a zoonosis, that means, the Which of the above statements is/are
disease is transmitted from infected correct?
animals to humans. a) 1 only
3. Human-to-human transmission is limited. b) 1, 2
Which of the above statements is/are c) 1, 3
correct? d) 2, 3
a) 1, 3 Solution: c)
b) 1, 2 Microwaves are defined as electromagnetic
c) 2, 3 radiations with a frequency ranging
d) 1, 2, 3 between 300 MHz to 300 GHzwhile
Solution: d) the wavelength ranges from 1 mm to
around 30 cm.

They fall between the infrared radiation and d) 1, 2, 3
radio waves in the electromagnetic Solution: d)
spectrum. Important Connectivity Projects:
Properties of microwaves: • Kaladan Multimodal Project – links
• Metal surfaces reflect microwaves. India and Myanmar.
• Microwaves of certain frequencies are • Asian Trilateral Highway – connecting
absorbed by water. India and Thailand through Myanmar.
• Microwave transmission is affected by wave • Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal
effects such as refraction, reflection, (BBIN) Motor Vehicles Agreement –
interference, anddiffraction. for seamless flow of passenger
• Microwaves can pass through glass and andcargo traffic.
plastic
116) Consider the following statements.
114) Consider the following statements regarding 1. The Election Commission of India
the grouping of G33 Countries. draws its authority from the
1. G33 is a coalition of 33 developing Constitution of India.
countries. 2. The Constitution does not fix the size
2. India is a member of G33 coalition. of the Election Commission.
3. It deals with the resolution of the 3. Chief Election Commissioner and
WTO’s mandated issues in other Election Commissioners enjoy
agriculture. the same status and receivesalary
Which of the above statements is/are and perks as Speaker of the Lok
correct? Sabha.
a) 1, 2 b) 2 only Which of the above statements is/are
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3 correct?
Solution: c) a) 1 only b) 1, 2
India is a part of the G33, which is a group of c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
48 developing and least developed Solution: b)
countries. Appointment of Chief Election Commissioner,
The G-33 Joint Ministerial Statement Election Commissioners
reaffirms commitment for The CEC and ECs are appointed by the
expeditious resolution of the WTO’s President to a tenure of six years, or
mandatedissues in agriculture. up to the age of 65 years, whichever
isearlier. They enjoy the same status
115) The BIMSTEC countries are partner to which and receive salary and perks as
of the following Connectivity Projects? judges of the Supreme Court of India.
1. Kaladan Multimodal Project The Election Commission of India draws its
2. Asian Trilateral Highway authority from the Constitution itself.
3. BBIN Motor Vehicles Agreement Under Article 324, the powersof
Select the correct answer code: “superintendence, direction and
a) 1, 2 control of elections” is to be vested in
b) 1, 3 an Election Commission.Size of the
c) 2, 3 Election Commission

• The Constitution does not fix the size of the
Election Commission. Article 324(2) 118) Consider the following statements.
says that “the ElectionCommission 1. In India, the Ministry of Agriculture &
shall consist of the Chief Election Farmers Welfare has declared millets
Commissioner and such number of as “Nutri Cereals”.
other ElectionCommissioners, if any, 2. Generally Millets are high in proteins
as the President may from time to compared to carbohydrates and
time fix”. dietary fibre.
• From the beginning, the Election 3. The year 2022 was the International
Commission of India consisted of just Year of Millets, adopted by United
the Chief Nations General Assembly(UNGA).
ElectionCommissioner.However, on Which of the above statements is/are
October 16, 1989, the government correct?
appointed two more Election a) 1, 2
Commissioners, making theElection b) 1 only
Commission a multi-member body. c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 3
117) Consider the following statements. Solution: b)
1. The power under Article 161 is Millets are considered to be “powerhouses of
exercisable by the Governor in nutrition”. On April 10, 2018, the
relation to matters to which Agriculture Ministry declared millets
theexecutive power of the state as “Nutri Cereals”.
extends. The Story of Millets published by the
2. While the Governor is bound by the Karnataka State Department of
advice of the Council of Ministers, the Agriculture in association with ICAR-
binding nature of suchadvice will IndianInstitute of Millets Research,
depend on the constitutionality of Hyderabad, says, “Millets contain 7-
the same. 12% protein, 2-5% fat, 65-75%
Which of the above statements is/are carbohydratesand 15-20% dietary
incorrect? fibre.
a) 1 only On March 3, 2021, the United Nations
b) 2 only General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a
c) Both 1 and 2 resolution to declare 2023 as
d) Neither 1 nor 2 theInternational Year of Millets. The
Solution: d) proposal was moved by India, and
The power under Article 161 is exercisable in was supported by 72 countries.
relation to matters to which the
executive power of the stateextends.
While the Governor is bound by the 119) Consider the following statements.
advice of the Council of Ministers 1. Six Scorpene submarines are being
(Article 163), the binding natureof built under Project-75 by Mazagon
such advice will depend on the Dock Shipbuilders Limited(MDL)
constitutionality of the same.

under technology transfer from Naval couple of years to enhance their
Group of France. endurance.
2. All the Scorpene submarines have Air
Independent Propulsion (AIP) 120) The India Development Report, was recently
modules included in them. released by
3. INS Arihant Is India’s first indigenous a) NITI Ayog
nuclear ballistic missile submarine. b) Reserve Bank of India
Which of the above statement sis/are c) World Bank
correct? d) International Monetary Fund
a) 1, 2 Solution: c)
b) 1, 3 The World Bank in its latest India
c) 2, 3 Development Report titled
d) 1, 2, 3 ‘Navigating the Storm’ lifted its
Solution: b) growth forecast forIndia’s economy
1.The fifth Scorpène-class conventional this year to 6.9%, after having
submarine, Vagir, was delivered to downgraded it to 6.5% in October,
the Navy by Mazagon citing resilience in economicactivity
DockShipbuilders Limited (MDL) despite a deteriorating external
Mumbai on December 20. environment.
2.Six Scorpene submarines are being built
under Project-75 by MDL under 121) Yangtse region, recently seen in news is
technology transfer from Naval located in
Groupof France. The first submarine a) Sikkim
INS Kalvari was commissioned in b) Ladakh
December 2017, second c) Arunachal Pradesh
submarineINS Khanderi in September d) Himachal Pradesh
2019, third one INS Karanj in March Solution: c)
2021 and the fourth one INS Vela Yangtse in the Tawang sector of Arunachal
joined servicein November 2021. Pradesh has beenrepeatedly targeted
3.The Navy currently has 15 conventional and by Chinese PLA troops. Yangtse is one
one nuclear submarine in service. It of the 25contested areas along the
includes seven Russian Kilo 3488-km Line of Actual Control
classsubmarines, four German HDW between the twocountries, stretching
submarines, four Scorpene class from the Western Sector to Middle
submarines and the indigenous Sector to EasternSector.
nuclear ballisticmissile submarine INS
Arihant. 122) Keki Mistry committee, that was recently in
4.The Navy has drawn up plans to install Air news was related to
Independent Propulsion (AIP) a) Armed Forces Special Powers Act
modules on all Scorpene b) GM crops in India
submarinesas they go for their refit c) Review the share buyback regulations
beginning with INS Kalvari in the next d) Reforms in the criminal Justice System.
Solution: c)

Keki Mistry-headed committee was set up by economy. In India, the Ministry of
Sebi to review the share buyback Statistics and Programme
regulations. Implementationmeasures inflation.
• Inflation is primarily measured by two main
123) Consider the following statements. indices — WPI (Wholesale Price
1. In India, the Ministry of Statistics and Index) and CPI (Consumer
Programme Implementation PriceIndex), which measure
measures inflation. wholesale and retail-level price
2. RBI through its Monetary Policy changes, respectively
Committee (MPC) controls Money
supply in the market. 124) Consider the following statements.
3. Inflation is indicative of the increase 1. Central Depositories Services India
in the purchasing power of a unit of a Ltd is a Market Infrastructure
country’s currency. Institution that is deemed as a
Which of the above statements is/are crucialpart of the capital market
correct? structure.
a) 1 only 2. Central Depositories Services India
b) 1, 2 Ltd is the only state-owned share
c) 1, 3 depository in India.
d) 2, 3 3. Share depositories hold shares in an
Solution: b) electronic or dematerialised form and
Inflation: are an enabler for
• Inflation refers to the rise in the prices of securitiestransactions.
most goods and services of daily or Which of the above statements is/are
common use, such as food,clothing, correct?
housing, recreation, transport, a) 1, 2
consumer staples, etc. b) 1, 3
• Inflation measures the average price c) 2, 3
change in a basket of commodities d) 1, 2, 3
and services over time. Solution: b)
• The opposite and rare fall in the price index 1. CDSL, or Central Depositories
of this basket of items is called Services India Ltd, is a government-
‘deflation’. registered share depository,
• Inflation is indicative of the decrease in the alongside itsother state-owned
purchasing power of a unit of a counterpart National Securities
country’s currency. Depository Ltd (NSDL).
• RBI through its Monetary Policy Committee 2. Share depositories hold shares in an
(MPC) Controls Money supply in the electronic or dematerialised form and
market. are an enabler for
• Inflation is measured by a central securitiestransactions, playing a
government authority, which is in somewhat similar role to what banks
charge of adopting measures to play in handling cash and fixed
ensure the smooth running of the deposits.

3. While bankshelp customers keep protected forest, sanctuary and
their cash in electronic form, share national parks etc.
depositories help consumers store 3. CDSL was founded in 1999. It is a
shares in adematerialised form. Market Infrastructure Institution or
MII that is deemed as a crucial part of
thecapital market structure,
125) Consider the following statements regarding providing services to all market
Community Forest Resource (CFR) area. participants, including exchanges,
1. The community forest resource area clearing corporations,depository
is the common forest land that has participants, issuers and investors.
been traditionally protectedand
conserved for sustainable use by a
particular community. 126) The Climate Transparency Report 2022
2. The community forest resource area provides an overview of the key facts and
may include revenue forest, deemed figures on the state ofclimate performance
forest, sanctuary andnational parks. of which of the following grouping
3. Community forest resource area can a) Organisation for Economic Co-
also be used for pastoral purpose. operation and Development (OECD)
Which of the above statements is/are b) G7 countries
correct? c) Association of Southeast Asian
a) 1, 2 Nations (ASEAN)
b) 1, 3 d) G20 countries
c) 1 only Solution: d)
d) 1, 2, 3 The Climate Transparency Report provides a
Solution: d) concise overview of the key facts and
1. The community forest resource area figures on the state of
is the common forest land that has climateperformance of the G20 in a
been traditionally protected comparative stocktake. In 2022, the
andconserved for sustainable use by report especially highlights the link
a particular community. The betweenthe climate emergency and
community uses it to access energy crisis.
resources availablewithin the Developed by experts from 16 partner
traditional and customary boundary organisations from the majority of
of the village; and for seasonal use of the G20 countries, the report
landscape in case ofpastoralist informspolicy makers and stimulates
communities. national debates.
2. Each CFR area has a customary
boundary with identifiable landmarks 127) The Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary that
recognised by the community and was recently seen in news is located in
itsneighboring villages. It may include a) Andhra Pradesh
forest of any category – revenue b) Himachal Pradesh
forest, classified & unclassified c) Rajasthan
forest,deemed forest, reserve forest, d) Sikkim

Solution: C) motive to promote Mahatma
The famous Tal Chhapar blackbuck sanctuary Gandhi’s and former President of
in Rajasthan’s Churu district has South Africa Nelson Mandela’s
received a protective coveragainst a valuesof non-violence. It has
proposed move of the State constituted an international prize,
government to reduce the size of its the Gandhi Mandela Award.
eco-sensitive zone. The World The foundation instituted the award on the
WildlifeFund for Nature (WWF) has 150th birth anniversary of the Father
also taken up a major project for the of the Nation, MK Gandhi.
conservation of raptors in the Who gets the award and how are they
sanctuary, spreadin an area selected?
measuring 7.19 sq. km. The award is given to personalities who have
carried forward the legacies of
Gandhi and Mandela by
128) Consider the following statements. makingsignificant contributions in the
1. Gandhi Mandela Foundation is a non- fields of Peace, Social Welfare,
government trust formed with the Culture, Environment, Education,
motive to promote Healthcare,Sports and Innovation
MahatmaGandhi’s and Nelson
Mandela’s values of non-violence. 129) Recently from Telangana, which product has
2. The Gandhi Mandela Foundation received Geographical Indication (GI) Tag
instituted the Gandhi Mandela Award A)White Onions
on the 150th birth anniversaryof MK B)TandurRegrams
Gandhi. C)Telia Rumal
3. Gandhi Mandela Award is given to D)Pochampally Ikat
personalities who have made Answer B
significant contributions in the Explanation:
fieldsof Culture, Environment, The Geographical Indication (GI) Tag has been
Education, Healthcare, Sports and granted by the Government of India
Innovation. (GoI) to 9 new products from
Which of the above statements is/are different states, including the
correct? AttappadyAattukombuAvara, Alibag
a) 1, 2 White Onion, RaktseyKarpo Apricot,
b) 1, 3 TandurRedgram, and Gamosa of
c) 2, 3 Assam.
d) 1, 2, 3 Tandur Red Gram has now secured a place in
Solution: c) the patented items list after it was
The 14th Dalai Lama was conferred the granted the Geographical Indication
Gandhi Mandela Award 2022. (GI) status by the Geographical
What is the Gandhi Mandela Award? Indications Registry.
A government of India registered Trust, the The application was filed by SubajithSaha,
Gandhi Mandela Foundation is a non- Trademark Agent (TM No – 32530) on
profit organisation, formedwith the behalf of Prof Jayashankar Telangana

Agricultural University on 24 company to jointly build a strong
September 2020. Web 3.0 community in Telangana.
● • The MoU was signed by the
130. India’s 1st gold ATM comes up in Principal Secretary (IT, Industries and
A)Hyderabad Commerce) and director of emerging
B)Bangalore technologies wing Jayesh Ranjan and
C)Chennai Rama Devi Lanka from Coinbase Inc.
D)Mumbai ● Coinbase Inc. will work in
Answer A collaboration with the Telangana
Explanation Government on the upcoming Web
India’s 1st gold ATM comes up in Hyderabad. 3.0 Regulatory Sandbox, that helps in
Hyderabad (Telangana)-based supporting organisations working in
Goldsikka Pvt Ltd has set up India’s various Web 3.0 technologies to
1st Gold Automated teller machine address regulation issues.
(ATM) and started its operations in
the city at Raghupathi Chambers in 132) Which of the following company is investing
Begumpet, Hyderabad. for Setting up Lithium-ion Battery
Gold ATMs will be available for 24 hours. Gigafactory
Telangana women commission chairperson a) Amara Raja Batteries Limited (ARBL)
Sunitha Lakshmareddy inaugurated b) Bharat Heavy Electronics Limited
the gold ATM centre.Customers can c) Exide Industries
use a debit or credit card to buy gold d) None of the above
coins through the ATM. Answer A
Gold ATM supplies in denominations ranging Explanation
from a minimum of 0.5 gms to a ● Amara Raja Batteries Limited (ARBL)
maximum of 100 gms.The customers signed an MoU with the Telangana
will also get a certificate stating their government to set up a lithium-ion
purity and weight. battery gigafactory in Mahbubnagar
district, Telangana with an
131) Telangana inked pact with which of the investment of Rs 9,500 crore over the
following company to promote Web 3.0 next 10 years.
community ● • This gigafactory will be a state-of-
a) Coinbase the-art research and manufacturing
b) Amazon facility with an ultimate capacity of
c) Google up to 16 Giga Watt (GWh) and a
d) Microsoft battery pack assembly unit of up to 5
Answer A GWh.
Explanation ● ARBL will establish Amara Raja
● The Telangana Government has Advanced Cell Technologies as its
signed a Memorandum of subsidiary for working towards the
Understanding (MoU) with Coinbase project.
Inc., an American based trading

133) Which of the following weapon systems is b) 2 and 3 only
given to Hyderabad based Missile Systems c) 3 only
Quality Assurance Agency? d) 1 and 3 only
a) Akash Answer: B
b) Rudram-1 Explanation:
c) Shaurya In Telangana, the Satmala range is located in
d) Dhanush Adilabad. In Mahaboobnagar,
Answer A Nagarkurnool, we find the Balaghat
Explanation range. Some other important
● DRDO hands over AHSP of Akash mountain ranges in Telangana are the
Weapon System to Missile Systems Ananthagiri hills in Vikarabad,
Quality Assurance Agency On 3rd Kandikal in Peddapalli, Jayashankar
December 2022, the Defence and Rakhi Hills in Jagtial districts.
Research and Development The Rachakonda mountain range extends
Organisation (DRDO) handed over from Devarakonda mandal in
the Authority Holding Sealed Nalgonda district in a South-eastern
Particulars (AHSP) of the Akash direction.
Weapon System (Indian Army
Version) to Missile Systems Quality 136. Consider the following statements:
Assurance Agency (MSQAA) in 1. Telangana is a semi arid area.
Hyderabad, Telangana. 2. The weather in Telangana has no
influence of sea winds.
134. With reference to physiographic divisions in correct?
Telangana, Bheemgal Plain is considered an a) 1 only
intrinsic part of: b) 2 only
a) Godavari Basin c) Both 1 and 2
b) Telangana Plateau d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Krishna Piedmont
d) None of the above Answer : D
Answer: B Explanation:
Explanation: Bheemgal Plain is located in The climate of Telangana is similar to the
Nizamabad district on the Telangana monsoon climate of India. Telangana
Plateau. is a semi arid area and predominates
with hot and dry climate due to its
135. Which of the following forms part of interior location away from marine
Telangana region? influence. Telangana
1. Satpura hills
2. Satmala hills 137. With reference to Soils in Telangana,
3. Rachakonda hills consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. More than 50% of the geographical
given below: area is covered by black soils.
a) 1 and 2 only

2. The distribution of black soils is more 2. Kuntala waterfall : Adilabad
in the northern part than in the 3. Bogatha waterfall : Mulugu
southern part. Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Which of the statements given above is/are matched?
correct? a) 1 and 2 only
a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) 1, 2 and 3
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B Answer: B
Explanation: Explanation: Pakhal Lake is a man-made lake
Statement 1 is not correct: In telangana, in the Pakhal Wildlife Sanctuary in
approximately, a total of 60-65% of the Warangal district of Telangana.
the geographical area is covered by Kuntala Waterfall is a waterfall located on
red soils. Kadam river in Neradigonda mandal
Statement 2 is correct: The black soils are of Adilabad district.
distributed more in the northern part Bogatha Waterfall is a waterfall located on
of telangana State than the Southern the Cheekupally stream, Wazeedu
part. Mandal, Mulugu district, Telangana.
138. Which among the following about the 140. Which among the following is known as seed
Telangana plateau are correct? bowl of Telangana?
1. The average elevation of this plateau a) Bibinagar
is about 500 meters. b) Jangoan
2. It is mainly composed of Archaean c) Kazipet
gneisses. d) Ankapoor
Choose the correct option from the codes Answer: D
given below: Explanation: Ankapooris called as seed bowl
a) 1 only of Telangana, having about 30 seed
b) 2 only processing units, now the seed
c) Both 1 and 2 cultivation is spreading to nearby
d) Neither 1 nor 2 villages and the entire region is now
Answer: C houses the processing units of the
Explanation: Telangana plateau is mainly several major seed companies like
composed of Archaean gneisses. The poner, pro–Agro, Nuziveedu etc.
average elevation of this plateau is
about 500 meters. It is an example of
peneplain (A more or less level land 141. Which of the following areas form an
surface). integral part of Turmeric belt in Telangana?
1. Nizamabad
139. Consider the following pairs: 2. Jagtial
Eco tourism site : District 3. Nirmal
1. Pakhal Lake : Nizamabad

Choose the correct option from the codes 1. It is a tank restoration and
given below: rejuvenation program in the state of
a) 1 and 2 only Telangana.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. It is to enhance the development of
c) 1 and 3 only agriculture based income for small
d) 1, 2 and 3 and marginal farmers.
Answer: D correct?
Explanation: The centre part of Turmeric a) 1 only
growing Belt include Nizamabad, b) 2 only
Jagtial, Nirmal and Warangal districts. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
142. Uranium deposits occur in which of the Answer : C
following areas of Telangana? Explanation: Mission Kakatiya is a tank
a) Nizamabad restoration and rejuvenation
b) Nalgonda program in the state of Telangana.
c) Jogulamba Gadwal The objective of Mission Kakatiya is to
d) Mulugu enhance the development of
Answer: B agriculture based income for small
Explanation: and marginal farmers, by accelerating
Uranium deposit with estimated reserves of the development of minor irrigation
20000 tonnes occur in Lambapur, infrastructure, strengthening
Pulicherla, Kammapuram & community based irrigation
Yellapuram areas of Nalgonda management and adopting a
district. comprehensive programme for
restoration of tanks.
143. Which of the following is a site for 145. consider the following statements:
geothermal energy potential in the 1. In Telangana, Coal reserves are
Telangana State? distributed across Godavari and
a) Bugga Krishna river valleys.
b) Srirampur 2. Telangana is the only State in entire
c) Mandamarri Southern India with vast deposits of
d) GodavariKhani Coal.
Answer: A Which of the statements given above is/are
Explanation: Bugga, Bhadrachalam, correct?
Burgampad, Aswaraopet are the a) 1 only
areas conducive for generating b) 2 only
power using geothermal energy. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
144. With reference to Mission kakatiya, consider Answer : B
the following statements:

Explanation: In Telangana, Coal reserves are Explanation: Mulugu has the highest share of
distributed across Godavari river rural population at 96.10% followed
valley (NOT Krishna). by Narayanpet at 92.63%.
Telangana is the Only State in entire Southern
India with vast deposits of Coal. 149. The region of Telangana is drained by which
of the following rivers?
146. Which of the following is the major source of 1. Bhima
irrigation in Telangana? 2. Manair
a) Project Canals 3. Manjira
b) Tanks Choose the correct option from the codes
c) Tube wells and Dug wells given below:
d) other sources a) 1 and 2 only
Answer: C b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: c) 1 and 3 only
Tube wells constitute 55.4 % of all the d) 1, 2 and 3
irrigated area in Telangana. Project
canals constitute 10.28 % of the Answer: D
irrigated while 6.25 % consists of Explanation: Telangana is situated on the
Tanks and 2.27% from other sources. Deccan Plateau. The region is drained
by two major rivers, with about 79%
147. Which one of the following is not part of the of the Godavari River catchment area
Kaleshwaram project? and about 69% of the Krishna River
a) Mid manair reservoir catchment area, but most of the land
b) Singur reservoir is arid. Telangana is also drained by
c) Komaravelli mallanasagar several minor rivers such as the
d) Palair Reservoir Bhima, the Maner, the Manjira, the
Answer: D Musi, and the Tungabhadra.
Explanation: Palair reservoir is not part of the
Kaleshwaram project. 150. Which one of the following places of
Telangana is known for its art ‘silver
filigree’?
a) Nirmal
148. Which of the following districts has the b) Pochampally
highest share of rural population in c) Pembarti
telangana? d) Karimnagar
a) Karimnagar Answer: D
b) Narayanpet Explanation: Filigree is a delicate kind of work
c) Rajanna-siricilla that is done on metal. Gold and silver
d) Mulugu are used in shaping up beautiful
works of art. The Karimnagar city of
Answer: D Telangana serves as the second name
of Silver Filigree.

and expected
Q.1) With reference to the ‘Concept of obsolescence.Depreciation does not
Depreciation’, consider the following take into account unexpected or
statements: sudden destruction or disuse of
1. It is a measure to account for the reduction capital as canhappen with accidents,
in value of capital goods due to their natural calamities or other such
wear and tear. extraneous circumstances.
2. Unexpected/sudden destruction of goods Statement 3 is incorrect: Every asset
are not taken into account while (except human beings) goes for
calculating depreciation. depreciation in the process of
3. In India, the Ministry of Finance decides theiruses, which means they ‘wear
the rates of depreciation of assets. and tear’. The governments of the
Which of the statements given above is/are economies decide and announce the
correct? ratesby which assets depreciate. It is
a) 1 and 2 only done in India by the Ministry of
b) 2 and 3 only Commerce and Industry and a list
c) 1 and 3 only ispublished, which is used by
d) 3 only different sections of the economy to
Ans) a determine the real levels of
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. depreciationsin different assets. For
Statement 1 is correct: The monetary example, a residential house in India
value of an asset decreases over time has a rate of 1 per cent per annum
due to use, wear and tear depreciation,an electric fan has 10
orobsolescence. This decrease is per cent per annum, etc., which is
measured as depreciation. calculated in terms of the asset’s
Depreciation is an annual allowance price.
for wearand tear of a capital good. In
other words, it is the cost of the good Q.2) Which of the following items will not be
divided by number of years of its taken into consideration during the
usefullife. calculation of GrossDomestic Product by the
Statement 2 is correct: Depreciation Expenditure Method?
of fixed capital assets refers to 1. Net increase in Inventory of
normal wear and tear and businesses
foreseenobsolescence. Depreciation 2. Household expenditure on services
is also called consumption of fixed 3. Government expenditure on public
capital. Loss of fixed assets happen goods & services
onaccount of normal wear and tear, 4. Brokerage paid for the transfer of
normal rate of accidental damages shares

5. Transfer Payments made by the shares is considered while using the
Government expenditure method.
6. Import of agricultural commodities Option 5 is correct: Transfer
Select the correct answer using the Payments are one sided economic
code given below: transaction where a service or sum of
a) 2, 3 and 6 only money is provided without any
b) 1, 4 and 5 only service or monetary consideration in
c) 4 and 5 only return. For example, donations to
d) 5 only charities, international aid to poor
Ans) d war-torn countries, etc. Since these
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. transactions don’t create any new
Option 1 is incorrect: An increase in value of goods and services, they are
Inventory (goods/ raw materials not included in the GDP.
stocked for production/ sale later)is Option 6 is incorrect: All imports,
considered as a form of Capital whether of agricultural commodities
Formation, i.e.Investment by a firm. for food security purposes (like edible
Hence it will be included under the‘I’ oil imports) or luxury item imports
head of the equation. like gadgets, etc, are included under
Option 2 is incorrect: Expenditure on the head of ‘X’ in the equation and
various services by a household hence included in the calculation for
(example - paying plumbers GDP.
andelectricians, buying movie tickets,
booking cabs, etc) is one of the core Q.3) With reference to ‘GDP Deflator’, consider
economic activities in a nation. Itis the following statements:
included under the ‘C’ head of the 1. It is a more comprehensive measure
equation. of inflation as against wholesale price
Option 3 is incorrect: The expenses indices.
incurred by the government to 2. Unlike Consumer Price Index, GDP
provide public good and services deflator accounts for all goods and
likeroads (buying materials, hiring services, whether produced
labour, etc), free primary education domestically or outside.
(constructing school buildings, paying 3. In India, GDP deflator data is only
salaries to teachers, etc) all would be available on a quarterly basis along
included under the ‘G’ head of the with GDP estimates.
equation and hence included in Which of the statements given above is/are
calculation of GDP. correct?
Option 4 is incorrect: When a) 1 only
assets such as bonds and shares are b) 1 and 2 only
procured, it signifies a change in c) 1 and 3 only
ownership and does not affect the d) 2 and 3 only
value of goods and services; hence, Ans) c
the transactions are not involved in Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
expense calculation. However, the Statement 1 is correct: GDP Deflator
brokerage paid for the transfer of helps show the extent to which the

increase in gross domesticproduct Select the correct answer using the codes
has happened on account of higher given below:
prices rather than increase in output. a) 1 and 4 only
Since the deflator coversthe entire b) 2, 3 and 4 only
range of goods and services produced c) 1, 3 and 4 only
in the economy — as against the d) 2 and 4 only
limited commoditybaskets for the Ans) c
wholesale or consumer price indices Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
— it is seen as a more comprehensive Statement 1 is correct: PPP exchange rate
measure ofinflation. helps to determine trends in
Statement 2 is incorrect: The GDP exchange rates over the longterm.
deflator underestimates true Market exchange rates tend to move
inflation. The reason is that the towards the PPP exchange rate. PPP
GDPdeflator reflects the prices of all exchange rates stay relatively stable
goods and services produced when compared with financial world
domestically in the country, whereas market rates. Comparing GDP using
theCPI reflects the prices of all goods market ratescan mean more volatility
and services bought by domestic in comparisons, even when the
Consumer (whether they are individual countries' markets are
producedin India or not is stable.
immaterial) Statement 2 is incorrect: Purchasing
Statement 3 is correct: The GDP Power Parity does not consider
deflator reflects up-to-date differences in the quality of
expenditure patterns. GDP deflator goodsbetween countries. The same
isavailable only on a quarterly basis product, for example, can have a
along with GDP estimates, whereas different quality in different
CPI and WPI data are releasedevery countries. Thus,it is difficult for us to
month. determine identical baskets of goods
and services.Consumer tastes and
Q.4) Which of the following statements are the preferences also vary across
correct with reference to Purchasing Power countries. Often, manufacturers use
Parity (PPP)? a differentiationapproach rather than
1. Purchasing Power Parity exchange product standardization. They adapt
rates stay relatively stable when their offerings to local tastes in each
compared with market exchangerate. country.And purchasing power parity
2. It helps in determining the does not capture such a difference.
differences in the quality of goods Statement 3 is correct: Purchasing
and services between the countries. Power Parity accounts for non-traded
3. It takes into accounts the cost of non- goods. GDP measures a
traded goods and services like country’seconomic productivity as it
haircuts or massages. relates to the sale of tangible,
4. It allows comparison of living costs internationally traded goods.
and standards across different However, PPPaccounts for the cost of
countries in the world. non-traded goods and services—like

haircuts or massages—which also Statement 1 is incorrect: Economic
speaks to growth refers to an increase in the
real output of goods and servicesin
Statement 4 is correct: Purchasing Power the country. In other words, the
Parity provides real-world examples increase should be in terms of
of living costs andstandards. Every increase of output of goods and
year, The Economist releases a services,and not due to a mere
comparative list of what 55 increase in the market prices of
countriesaround the worldcharge for existing goods.Economic
a McDonald’s Big Mac called the Big development implies changes in
Mac Index. This example of PPP uses income, savings and investment
a recognizable goodas a point of along with progressivechanges in
comparison between the living costs socioeconomic structure of country
around the world, which is similar to (institutional and technological
the research of theICP. Laypeople can changes).Economic development is
look at the PPP of different goods in defined as a sustained improvement
different places, and get a sense of in material well-being of society.
how expensive or affordable their Economicdevelopment is a wider
current home economy is. concept than economic growth.
Statement 2 is correct:
Q.5) Consider the following statements with Economic Growth relates to a gradual
reference to Economic Growth and increase in one of the components of
Economic Development: Gross Domestic
1. Unlike Economic Growth, Economic Product:consumption, government
Development does not require spending, investment, net exports.
changes in income, savings Economic Development relates to
andinvestments in an economy. growth of human capital, decrease in
2. Increase in government spending can inequality figures, and
foster Economic Growth while structuralchanges that improve the
reduction in income inequality quality of life of the population.
mayindicate Economic Development. Statement 3 is incorrect:
3. Unlike Economic Growth, Economic Economic Growth is measured by
Development is measured by quantitative factors such as increase
quantitative factors such as in real GDP or per capita income.The
increasein real GDP. qualitative measures such as HDI
Which of the above given statements is/are (Human Development Index), gender-
correct? related index, Human povertyindex
a) 2 only (HPI), infant mortality, literacy rate
b) 2 and 3 only etc. are used to measure economic
c) 1 and 3 only development
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.

Q.6) With reference to the New Strategic Statement 2 is correct: Strategic
Disinvestment Policy of Central Public Sector disinvestment is defined as the sale
Enterprises(CPSEs), consider the following of substantial portion of
statements: Governmentshareholding in
1. The Department of Investment and identified CPSEs up to 50 per cent or
Public Asset Management is the more, along with transfer of
nodal department for the management control.
Strategicdisinvestment. Statement 3 is correct: The
2. Strategic disinvestment in CPSEs government has decided that bare
includes the transfer of management minimum presence of the public
control to a private entity. sectorenterprises would be there
3. The Banking sector is recognized as a which are considered strategic. And
strategic sector under this policy. remaining will be either privatized
Which of the statements given above is/are ormerged or subsidiarized with other
correct? CPSEs or closed. The 4 sectors that
a) 2 only come under it are Atomic
b) 3 only energy,Space and Defense; Transport
c) 1 and 2 only and Telecommunications; Power,
d) 1, 2 and 3 Petroleum, Coal and other minerals;
Ans) d and
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. Banking, Insurance and financial
services.
Statement 1 is correct: Strategic
disinvestment is transferring the Q.7) Consider the following statements:
ownership and control of a public 1. The Lorenz curve represents the wealth
sectorentity to some other entity distribution of the nation.
(mostly to a private sector entity). 2. The Gini Coefficient of India has increased
Unlike the simple disinvestment, in the past decade.
strategicsale implies some sort of 3. The Gini Coefficient can be represented
privatization. The Union Cabinet has graphically through the Lorenz curve.
approved a new process of Which of the above statements is/are
strategicdisinvestment with a view to correct?
expediting privatization of select a) 1 and 2 only
PSUs. Under the new policy, b) 2 and 3 only
theDepartment of Investment and c) 1 and 3 only
Public Asset Management (DIPAM) d) 1, 2 and 3
under the Ministry of Finance has Ans) d
been made the nodal department for Statement 1 is correct: The Lorenz curve is
the strategic stake sale.DIPAM and the graphical representation of
NITI Aayog will jointly identify PSUs wealth distributiondeveloped by
for strategic disinvestment. The American economist Max Lorenz in
decision has been taken with a view 1905. On the graph, a straight
to streamlining and speeding up the diagonal line representsperfect
process. equality of wealth distribution; the

Lorenz curve lies beneath it, showing Statement 1 is correct. Liquidity trap
the reality of wealthdistribution. is a situation when expansionary
Statement 2 is correct: The Gini monetary policy (increase inmoney
(inequality in income distribution) supply) does not increase the interest
coefficient points to an rate,
increasinginequality in India. The Statement 2 is correct. During a
coefficient increased to 35.7 per cent liquidity trap, consumers choose to
in 2011 and to 47.9 per cent in 2018. avoid bonds and keep their funds
Statement 3 is correct: The Gini index incash savings. It is because of the
is often represented graphically prevailing belief that interest rates
through the Lorenz curve, could soon rise, which would
whichshows income (or wealth) pushbond prices down. Because
distribution by plotting the bonds have an inverse relationship to
population percentile by income on interest rates, many consumers do
the horizontalaxis and cumulative notwant to hold an asset with a price
income on the vertical axis. The Gini that is expected to decline.
co-efficient is equal to the area below Statement 3 is correct. In case of
the line ofperfect equality minus the Liquidity trap, a monetary policy
area below the Lorenz curve, divided carried out through open
by the area below the line of perfect marketoperations has no effect on
equality. either the interest rate, or the level
of income. In a liquidity trap, the
Q.8) Consider the following statements with monetarypolicy is powerless to affect
reference to the Liquidity trap: the interest rate.
1. It is a situation when expansionary Statement 4 is correct. In a liquidity
monetary policy does not increase trap situation, the interest rates in an
the market interest rates. economy are at extremely lowlevels
2. Public would not want to purchase and savings rates are high.
bonds during a Liquidity trap
situation. Q.9) Consider the following statements:
3. Open market operations has no 1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of
effect on the market interest rates in India (RBI) is appointed by the Central
case of a Liquidity trap. Government.
4. Savings rates are high during Liquidity 2. Certain Provisions in the Constitution
trap. of India give the Central Government
Which of the statements given above is/are the right to Issue directionsto the RBI
correct? in public interest.
a) 1 and 2 only 3. The Governor of the RBI draws his
b) 4 only power from the RBI Act.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the above statements are correct?
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 a) 1 and 2 only
Ans) d b) 2 and 3 only
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) c household income exceeding Rs
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. 1Lakh.
Statement 1 is correct. Section 8(1)(a) Which of the statements given above is/are
of the Reserve Bank of India Act, correct?
1934, provides that there shall beone a) 1 and 2 only
Governor and not more than four b) 2 only
Deputy Governors to be appointed by c) 2 and 3 only
the central government onthe central d) 1 and 3 only
board of RBI. Ans) b
Statement 2 is incorrect. Section 7 of Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
the RBI Act provides that Central Statement 1 is incorrect. RBI
Government may from time totime regulates Non-Banking Financing
give such directions to the Bank as it Companies (NBFC)-MFIs, Banks, SFBs,
may, after consultation with the andNBFCs, except the Non-profit
Governor of the Bank, MFIs. Whereas, the Non-profit MFIs
considernecessary in the public are mostly registered as Societies
interest. Constitution of India does orTrusts, and are regulated by the
not provide any provision for respective Acts.
CentralGovernment the right to issue Statement 2 is correct. The overall
directions to the RBI in Public Gross Loan Portfolio (GLP) of MFIs,
interest. i.e., outstanding amount of
Statement 3 is correct. According to loansextended to microfinance
RBI Act, the Governor shall have borrowers is around 32%. Further,
powers of general NBFC-MFIs and Scheduled
superintendenceand direction of the Commercial Banks(SCBs) hold a major
affairs and the business of the RBI. chunk of the microfinance portfolio,
He/she may exercise all powers and with a combined share of 72 per cent
do all actsand things which may be as on March31, 2020
exercised or done by the RBI. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Microfinance loans mean collateral-
free loans to households. It can be
Q.10) With reference to the Micro-Finance given toa household having annual
Institutions in India (MFI), consider the household income not exceeding Rs.
following statements: 1,25,000 in rural areas and Rs
1. All the micro-finance institutions are 2,00,000 inurban/semi urban areas,
regulated by the Reserve Bank of respectively.
India.
2. Overall share of the MFIs in Q.11) The term ‘Digital Payment Index’ has been in
extending microfinance loans to news lately. In this context, consider the
borrowers is not more than 50% in followingstatements:
India. 1. This index has demonstrated
3. In urban areas, MFIs cannot extend significant adoption of digital
loans to households having annual payments in India in recent years.

2. It is compiled by the National the country over different time
Payments Corporation of India periods
(NPCI).
3. ‘Payment performance’ is the major
parameter in this index. Q.12) Consider the following statements in the
Which of the statements given above is/are context of cross border insolvency in India:
correct? 1. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
a) 1 only does not have any standard
b) 1 and 3 only instrument to restructure the firms
c) 3 only involving cross border jurisdictions.
d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The foreign creditors cannot make
Ans) b claims against a domestic company
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Statement 1 is correct: The Reserve Code.
Bank of India (RBI) has constructed a 3. At present, there is no international
composite Digital Payments framework to deal with issues
Index(DPI) to capture the extent of involving cross border insolvency.
digitization of payments across the Which of the statements given above is/are
country. This index has incorrect?
demonstratedsignificant growth a) 1 only
representing the rapid adoption and b) 2 and 3 only
deepening of digital payments across c) 3 only
the countryin recent years. d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 2 is incorrect: It has not Ans) b
been compiled by The National Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Payments Corporation of India Statement 1 is correct: At present,
(NPCI).It is issued by the Reserve Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,
Bank of India. It has been constructed 2016 (IBC) provides for the
with March 2018 as the base period, domesticlaws for the handling of an
i.e.,DPI score for March 2018 is set at insolvent enterprise. IBC at present
100. It is published on RBI’s website has no standard instrument to
on a semi-annual basis from restructurethe firms involving cross
March2021 onwards with a lag of 4 border jurisdictions. The absence of
months. The index for March 2022 standardized cross border
stands at 349.30 as against 304.06 for insolvencyframework creates
September 2021, which was complexities and raises various issues
announced on January 19, 2022. such as: The extent to which an
Statement 3 is correct: The ‘payment insolvencyadministrator may obtain
performance’ is the major parameter access to assets held in a foreign
in this index and carries themaximum country and the Recognition of the
weight. The RBI-DPI comprises 5 claims of local creditors in a foreign
broad parameters that enable administration.
measurement of deepening Statement 2 is incorrect: Presently,
andpenetration of digital payments in while foreign creditors can make

claims against a domesticcompany, Which of the statements given above is/are
the IBC currently does not allow for correct?
automatic recognition of any a) 1 only
insolvency proceedings inother b) 2 only
countries. Cross border insolvency is c) 1 and 2 only
regulated by Section 234 and 235 of d) 1, 2 and 3
IBC. IBC empowers theCentral Ans) a
Government to enter into bilateral Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
agreements with other countries to Statement 1 is correct: Ways and
resolve situations aboutcross-border Means Advances (WMA) Scheme was
insolvency. introduced in 1997. These
Statement 3 is incorrect: The United aretemporary loan facilities provided
Nations Commission on International by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to
Trade Law (UNCITRAL) onCross- the central and stategovernments to
Border Insolvency, 1997 has emerged meet mismatches in the receipts and
as the most widely accepted legal payments. The limits for WMA are
framework to deal withcross-border decided by thegovernment and RBI
insolvency issues. It provides a mutually and revised periodically.
legislative framework that can be Statement 2 is incorrect: There are
adopted by countries two types of WMAs —1. Normal
withmodifications to suit the Ways and Means Advances; and
domestic context of the enacting 2.Special Drawing Facilities against
jurisdiction. It allows foreign government securities/Special WMA
professionals and creditors direct The rate of interest applicable for
access to domestic courts and Normal WMA funding from RBI is the
enables them to participate in and repo rate The interest levied
commence domesticinsolvency forspecial WMAs could be lower than
proceedings against a debtor. It the repo rate due to the backing of
provides a framework for government securities.Special WMA
cooperation between or Special Drawing Facility is provided
insolvencyprofessionals and courts of against the collateral of the
countries. government securitiesheld by the
state. After the state has exhausted
Q.13) In context of the Ways and Means Advances the limit of SDF, it gets normal WMA.
(WMA), often seen in news, consider the The interest rate forSDF is generally
following statements: one percentage point less than the
1. It is a temporary loan facility repo rate.
provided by the Reserve Bank of India Statement 3 is incorrect: WMA
to State governments. funding is much cheaper than
2. The interest rate charged on such borrowings from markets as it is
loans is always equal to the Repo chargedat the repo rate. WMA can be
Rate. an alternative to other tools of
3. WMA funding is much costlier than borrowing like raising longer-tenure
borrowings from the market. fundsfrom the markets, issue of State

government securities or borrowing Statement 3 is incorrect: As per the
from financial institutions for revised RBI guidelines foreign banks
shorttermfunding. with less than 20 branches aswell as
the foreign banks in India with more
Q.14) With reference to Priority Sector Lending than 20 branches are required to
(PSL), consider the following statements: maintain 40 % of credit topriority
1. The guidelines for PSL in India are sector lending.
issued by the Reserve Bank of India. Statement 4 is correct. As per the RBI
2. Financing of certain types of start-ups circular released in 2016, there are
are included under priority sector eight broad categories of thePriority
lending. Sector Lending. They are: (1)
3. Foreign banks operating in India are Agriculture (2) Micro, Small and
exempted from priority sector Medium Enterprises (3) Export
lending. Credit4) Education (5) Housing (6)
4. Self Help Groups are considered as Social Infrastructure (7) Renewable
‘Weaker Section’ to avail Priority Energy
sector loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.15) Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio
a) 1 only may reduce the credit availability in
b) 2 and 3 only the economy.
c) 1 and 4 only 2. An increase in Repo Rates may result
d) 1, 2 and 4 only in an increase in the cost of
Ans) d borrowing.
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. 3. Lower Bank Rates can help to lower
Statement 1 is correct: RBI issues the cost of funds for borrowers.
guidelines for priority sector lending 4. An increase in the Statutory Liquidity
in India. It enlists the sectorrequired Ratio will tend to reduce money
to maintain40% quot for priority supply in economy.
sector. RBI first time issued guideline Which of the statements given above are
in 1968 for priority sectors which correct?
includedagriculture, small industries, a) 2 and 3 only
and exporters till 1985. b) 1 and 4 only
Statement 2 is correct: In 2020, RBI c) 1, 2 and 3 only
has increased the scope of priority d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
sector byincluding financing ofstart- Ans) d
ups with funding up to 50 crores and Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
loans to farmers for nstallation of Statement 1 is correct:Cash Reserve
solar plants and compressedbiogas Ratio (CRR): The average daily
plants. Revised PSL guidelines enable balance that a bank is required to
better credit penetration and maintain with the ReserveBank as a
increase the lending to smalland per cent of its net demand and time
marginal farmers and weaker section. liabilities (NDTL) as on the last Friday
of the second precedingfortnight that

the Reserve Bank may notify from percentage of deposits that
time to time.If the RBI decides to acommercial bank has to maintain in
increase the CRR, then bank have to the form of liquid cash, gold or other
keep higher cash. This will reduce the securities.As SLR is increased banks
credit inthe economy as the banks will have to keep more liquidity with
now have less money to lend, less themselves. So, the less amount of
lending means less borrowing and fundswill be available to the banks
investmentand hence reduction in for credit creation. The total money
income and aggregate demand. supply in the economy will
Statement 2 is correct:Repos or decrease,this will lead to less
Repurchase Agreements is an demand.
instrument which allows banks to
borrow money from the RBI Q.16) With reference to Marginal Cost of Funds
tomanage short term needs of based Lending Rate (MCLR), consider the
liquidity against the selling of followingstatements:
government securities with an 1. It is the maximum rate of interest
agreement torepurchase the same above which the banks cannot lend.
government securities at a 2. It replaced the earlier Base Rate
predetermined date and rate. The structure of determining lending
rate at which the RBI lends to the rates.
banks is called Repo Rate.An increase 3. It is determined internally by the
in repo rates means an increase in banks.
the cost of borrowing. This is because Which of the statements given above is/are
when the repo raterises, the correct?
borrowing cost for banking a) 2 only
institutions also rises, which is passed b) 2 and 3 only
on to account holders in the form of c) 1 and 3 only
higher loan and deposit interest d) 1, 2 and 3
rates. Ans) b
Statement 3 is correct: Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Bank Rate: The rate at which the Statement 1 is incorrect: MCLR refers
Reserve Bank is ready to buy or to the minimum limit below which
rediscount bills of exchange or banks or lender cannot lend.Because
othercommercial papers. of slower transmission of monetary
Managing the bank rate is a method policy under MCLR, in 2019 RBI
by which central banks affect switched to the externalbenchmark
economic activity. Lower bank rates linked lending rate (EBLR) system.
canhelp to expand the economy by Banks need to link their loan interest
lowering the cost of funds for rate to externalbenchmark such as:
borrowers, and higher bank rates 1) RBI repo rate
help toreign in the economy when 2) 91- day and 182 -day treasury bills.
inflation is higher than desired. 3) any other benchmarks by financial
Statement 4 is correct. Statutory benchmarks limited.
Liquidity Ratio or SLR is a minimum

Statement 2 is correct: Earlier, Base cooperative banks, which are
Rate determines the lending rate. But popularlyknown as Urban
base rate differed from bank tobank Cooperative Banks (UCBs).
hence fell short of its aim at better Statement 2 is incorrect: Till 1996,
assessment of transmission of these banks were allowed to lend
monetary policy. Hence in 2015banks money only for non-
shifted to new methodology of agriculturalpurposes. This distinction
calculating their lending rate which is does not hold today.
MCLR. Statement 3 is correct: According to
Statement 3 is correct: MCLR is a the RBI, all primary (urban) co-
tenor-linked internal benchmark, operative banks (UCBs) (scheduled
which means the rate is aswell as non-scheduled) are
determinedinternally by the bank required to maintain stipulated level
depending on the period left for the of cash reserve ratio (CRR) and
repayment of a loan. Under the MCLR statutory liquidity ratio (SLR).
regime,banks are free to offer all
categories of loans on fixed or Q.18) RBI has recently launched a new UPI
floating interest rates. payment solution named ‘UPI123Pay’.
Consider the followingstatements regarding
Q.17) With reference to Urban Co-operative Banks ‘UPI123Pay’.
(UCBs) in India, consider the following 1. UPI ‘123PAY’ is a three-step method
statements: to initiate and execute services for
1. These banks do not come under the users which will work
regulatory jurisdiction of the Reserve onSmartphones.
Bank of India. 2. It allows scanning and paying, which
2. They can lend money only for the enables to do transactions.
non-agricultural purposes. 3. It doesn’t need an internet
3. UCBs are required to maintain connection for transactions.
stipulated levels of Cash Reserve Which of the statements given above are
Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity not correct?
Ratio (SLR). (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 only EXPLANATION: option a is correct
c) 2 and 3 only UPI 123Pay (non-smartphone users)
d) 2 only will allow the users to make
Ans) b transactions via UPI via feature
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. phones.UPI (unified payments
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Urban interface) '123PAY' is a three-step
Banks Department of the Reserve method to initiate and execute users'
Bank of India is vested with servicesthat will work on simple
theresponsibility of regulating and phones (will enable individuals to
supervising primary (urban)

make direct payments to others Which of the statements given above is/are
without smartphones). correct?
The launch of UPI123PAY aims to (a) 1 and 2 only
help and improve the payments (b) 2 and 3 only
ecosystem for almost 40 crore (c) 1 and 3 only
usersof feature phones in India, and (d) 1, 2 and 3
it will bring non-smartphone users EXPLANATION: option c is correct
under the digital payment system.So, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages two
Statement 1 is not correct. reserve funds on behalf of State
UPI 123Pay will allow customers to Governments to meet
use feature phones for almost all theircontingent liabilities;
transactions except scan and pay.A Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF)
feature phone is a mobile phone with Guarantee Redemption Fund (GRF)
more features than a standard CSF is a reserve fund created to meet
cellphone but is not equivalentto a the repayment obligations of the
smartphone. Feature phones can Government. The interest
make and receive calls, send text accruedand accumulated in the Fund
messages and provide some of the is utilized towards the redemption of
advanced features found on a outstanding liabilities of
smartphone.So, Statement 2 is not theGovernment. The State
correct Governments constitute GRF to meet
The UPI123Pay service is a three-step their obligations arising from
method to initiate and execute guaranteesissued on behalf of State
services for users, which will level bodies. Collected Funds can be
workeven on phones which do not utilized only for payment of
have an option for internet guaranteesissued by the Government
connection. in respect of bonds issued/ other
So, Statement 3 is correct. borrowings by their State
levelundertakings/ other bodies.
Q.19) Consider the following statements with Whereas a Special Drawing Facility
reference to Reserve Funds of State (SDF) is being provided to State
Governments : Government by RBI against
1. Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF) is an thecollateral of their investment in
amortisation fund created to meet marketable securities issued by the
repayment obligationsof the State Government of India. In
Government. 2005,Bezbaruah Committee
2. Guarantee Redemption Fund (GRF) is recommended the usage of CSF and
being provided to State Governments GRF as collateral for SDF.So,
by RBI against thecollateral of their Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
investments in marketable securities.
3. CSF and GRF are reserve funds Q.20) With reference to the Indian economy,
maintained by State Governments consider the following statements:
with the Reserve Bank of India. 1. In recent times, India’s sovereign
external debt as a percentage of GDP

increased compared tosovereign percent), yen (5.4 percent), and the
internal debt. euro (2.9 percent). So, Statement 2 is
2. US dollar-denominated debt remains correct.
the largest component of India’s
external debt, followed bythe Indian 21) With reference to the Micro-Finance
rupee-denominated debt. Institutions in India (MFI), consider the
Which of the statements given above is/are following statements:
correct? 1. All the micro-finance institutions are
(a) 1 only regulated by the Reserve Bank of
(b) 2 only India.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Overall share of the MFIs in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 extending microfinance loans to
EXPLANATION: option bis correct borrowers is not more than 50% in
According to the Press release by RBI India.
- India’s External Debt as of the end 3. In urban areas, MFIs cannot extend
of March 2022, the external debt to loans to households having annual
GDP ratio declined to 19.9 percent in household income exceeding Rs
end-March 2022 from 21.2 percent in 1Lakh.
end-March 2021. Which of the statements given above is/are
Internal Debt comprises loans raised correct?
in the open market, compensation a) 1 and 2 only
and other bonds, etc. It alsoincludes b) 2 only
borrowings through treasury bills c) 2 and 3 only
including treasury bills issued to State d) 1 and 3 only
Governments,Commercial Banks, and Ans) b
other Investors, as well as non- Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
negotiable, non-interest-bearing Statement 1 is incorrect. RBI
rupeesecurities, issued to regulates Non-Banking Financing
International Financial Institutions. Companies (NBFC)-MFIs, Banks, SFBs,
From the diagram, we can infer that andNBFCs, except the Non-profit
for the past two years India’s MFIs. Whereas, the Non-profit MFIs
sovereign external debt as a are mostly registered as Societies
percentageof GDP decreased orTrusts, and are regulated by the
compared to sovereign internal debt, respective Acts.
and usually in India, the Internal debt Statement 2 is correct. The overall
of theGovernment will be more than Gross Loan Portfolio (GLP) of MFIs,
the external debt. So, Statement 1 is i.e., outstanding amount of
not correct. loansextended to microfinance
The US dollar denominated debt borrowers is around 32%. Further,
remained the largest component of NBFC-MFIs and Scheduled
India’s external debt, with a shareof Commercial Banks(SCBs) hold a major
53.2 percent by end-March 2022, chunk of the microfinance portfolio,
followed by debt denominated in the with a combined share of 72 per cent
Indian rupee (31.2 percent),SDR (6.6 as on March31, 2020.

Statement 3 is incorrect. to those states based on the
Microfinance loans mean collateral- recommendation of the finance
free loans to households. It can be commission. Forexample, recently
given toa household having annual the Union government released
household income not exceeding Rs. 86,201 crores to 14 states.
1,25,000 in rural areas and Rs Option 3 is correct: Finance
2,00,000 inurban/semi urban areas, commission has only advisory power
respectively. i.e., it can only recommend. The
ultimateauthority rests with the
22) The 15th Finance Commission has union government and the
recommended a total ‘Post Devolution Department of Expenditure (Ministry
Revenue Deficit Grant’ of Rs.86,201 crores of Finance) willrelease the approved
for the financial year 2022-23. Regarding this amount to the respective state
Post Devolution Revenue Deficit Grant, governments.
considerthe following statements:
1. The word “Post Devolution Revenue 23) Which of the following activities can have a
Deficit Grant” is mentioned in Article positive effect on fiscal consolidation in
275 of the Indian Constitution. India?
2. It is duty of the Union Government to 1. Implementation of the FRBM Act
release this grant to all states, 2. Ensuring debt sustainability
irrespective of their financialposition. 3. High tax expenditure
3. The Department of Expenditure, 4. Increasing off-budget borrowings
under the Ministry of Finance, 5. Introduction of Goods and Services Tax
releases such amount to the 6. Direct Benefit Transfer of government
respectivestate governments. subsidies
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
incorrect? given below:
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1, 2 and 6 only
b) 2 and 3 only b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
c) 1 only c) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Ans) a Ans) c
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Option 1 is incorrect: Although the Fiscal consolidation refers to the ways and
central government provides the Post means of narrowing the fiscal deficit.
Devolution Revenue DeficitGrants to Option 1 is correct. Fiscal
the States under Article 275 of the consolidation aims at reducing
Constitution, the word “Post government deficits and debt
devolution revenue deficit grant”is accumulation. TheFiscal
not mentioned in Article 275. Responsibility and Budget
Option 2 is incorrect: It is not Management (FRBM) Act gives the
mandatory for the central targets for fiscal consolidation
government to provide this grant to inIndia.
all states.Such grants will be released

Option 2 is correct. A country’s public but National InfrastructurePipeline
debt is considered sustainable if the includes only brownfield projects.
government is able to meet allits Select the correct answer using the code
current and future payment given below:
obligations. Timely payments help in a) 1 only
preventing extra payments in the b) 2 only
formof interests. Thus, ensuring c) 1 and 3 only
sustainability of debt will help in d) None of the above
fiscal consolidation path. Ans) d
Option 3 is incorrect. Tax expenditure Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
is revenue forgone due to tax Statement 1 is incorrect: The
concessions and exemptions. Hightax National monetisation plan (NMP)
expenditure affects tax revenues and includes selection of de-risked
hence leads to higher fiscal deficits. andbrownfield core assets. Further,
Option 4 is incorrect. Although Off- currently, only assets of central
budget liabilities are not incorporated government line ministries and
in the calculation of fiscal deficit,they CPSEsin infrastructure sectors have
are included in the calculation of been included. Process of
government debt. Thus, higher and coordination and collation of asset
increasing off-budgetborrowings will pipeline fromstates is currently
increase government debt. ongoing and the same is envisaged to
Option 5 is correct. GST has widened be included in due course.
the tax base. A wider tax base Statement 2 is incorrect: National
improves revenue collections. Infrastructure Pipeline will be funded
Thiswill help reduce revenue deficit jointly by the Centre, states andthe
and thus promote fiscal private sector in the proportion of
consolidation. 39:39:22 (39 % each by the centre
Option 6 is correct. Direct Benefit and states and 22% by the
Transfer of government subsidies will privatesector).
help plug subsidy leaks. Thiswill save Statement 3 is incorrect: NMP covers
money and thus will help in fiscal brownfield assets only. Whereas NIP
consolidation covers all projects(Greenfield or
Brownfield, under conceptualization
24) With regard to infrastructure-related or under implementation or under
schemes, which of the following statements Development) ofproject cost greater
is/are correct? than Rs. 100 crore per project.
1. National Monetisation Plan includes
the monetisation of both central and 25) In the context of the Indian economy,
state governments assets. consider the following statements:
2. National Infrastructure Pipeline is 1. The increase in the share of revenue
wholly funded by the Union deficit in the gross fiscal deficit
government. indicates that the quality of public
3. National Monetisation Plan includes expenditure is declining.
green field and brown field projects,

2. An increase in the fiscal deficit can the introduction of new or increasing
boost a sluggish economy. taxes.
3. Government may introduce new
taxes to deal with the revenue deficit. 26) With reference to the Off-budget
Which of the statement(s) given above is Borrowings, consider the following
/are correct? statements:
a) 1 and 3 only 1. These are the loans that public sector
b) 2 only undertakings take on behalf of the
c) 1, 2 and 3 Union Government.
d) 1 and 2 only 2. These constitute one of the largest
Ans) c items in the fiscal deficit of the
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. Government.
A fiscal deficit is the excess of the 3. Repayment of principal and interest
total government expenditure over of such borrowings is done from the
receipts from both tax and non- Central Government Budget.
taxsources excluding borrowings, Which of the statements given above is/are
during a fiscal year in both current correct?
and capital accounts.A revenue a) 1 only
deficit is the excess of estimated b) 1 and 3 only
government expenditure over c) 3 only
receipts during a fiscal year d) 1, 2 and 3
inrevenue account. Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct. The share of Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
the revenue deficit in the gross fiscal Statement 1 is correct and 2 is
deficit (RD-GFD) indicates incorrect: Off-budget borrowings are
theproportion of borrowed resources loans that are taken not by the
exhausted on revenueexpenditure Centredirectly, but by another public
rather than investment. It reflectsthe institution, like public sector
quality of expenditure – a higher RD- undertakings, which borrow on
GFD points to decline in quality since thedirections of the central
fiscal multipliers tend to be lower for government. These also include the
capital outlays than for current deferred payments of bills and loans
expenditure. by theCentre. These items constitute
Statement 2 is correct. An increase in off-budget borrowings because these
the fiscal deficit, can boost a sluggish loans and deferred payments are
economy by giving moremoney to notpart of fiscal deficit calculations.
people who can then buy and invest Off budget borrowings is not counted
more. in the calculation of fiscal deficit.This
Statement 3 is correct. When total helps keep the country’s fiscal deficit
revenue expenditure exceeds total within acceptable limits.
revenue receipts it leads to arevenue Statement 3 is correct: Off-budget
deficit. The Centre often resorts to Borrowings are those financial
borrowings and divestments to make liabilities that are raised by
up for this gap inrevenue, alongside publicsector undertakings for which

repayment of entire principal and tabular column need not to be
interest is done from the memorised)
CentralGovernment Budget.Such Statement 2 is correct: As far as
borrowings are made by state-owned currency composition of external
firms to fund government schemes debt is concerned, US
but are not part of theofficial budget dollardenominated debt remained
calculations.This means that though the largest component of India’s
the borrowing is not a part of the external debt, with a share of 53.2
consolidated fund of India, the percentat end-March 2022, followed
interest paymentfor such borrowings by the Indian rupee (31.2 per cent),
is made out of the consolidated SDR (6.6 per cent), yen (5.4 per cent),
fund.Extra Budgetary Resources andthe euro (2.9 percent).
(EBR) are taken into account while Statement 3 is incorrect. Public debt
calculating the Government Debt of India is not steadily rising in the
last decade. Outstanding debt isthe
27) With reference to India’s public debt profile, accumulation of borrowings over the
consider the following statements: years. Outstanding debt of the
1. The commercial borrowing is the government decreased from 66.7%of
largest component of India’s total GDP in 2004-05 to 48% of GDP in
external debt. 2018-19.
2. US dollar denominated debt is the Statement 4 is incorrect. Central
largest component of India’s external governments external debt is lower
debt. than the internal debt. However,the
3. India's public debt as a percent of external debt to GDP ratio increased
GDP has been continuously rising to 21.1 per cent at end-March 2021
during last decade. from 20.6 per cent at end-March
4. Central government's external debt is 2020. Over the years, the Union
higher than its internal debt. government has followed a
Which of the statements given above are considered strategy to reduce
correct? itsdependence on foreign loans in its
a) 1 and 2 only overall loan mix.
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only 28) Arrange the following taxes in decreasing
d) 2, 3 and 4 only order of their contributions towards the
Ans) a total tax revenueof the Union Government
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. in FY 2021-22:
Statement 1 is correct: The 1. Corporation Tax
commercial borrowing is the largest 2. Goods and Services Tax
component of India’s total external 3. Excise duties
debtfollowed by NRI deposits and 4. Custom duties
Short term credit. The share of long Select the correct answer using the code
term credit in India’s external given below:
sectordebt profile is higher than that a) 1-2-3-4
of short term credit.The below b) 1-2-4-3

c) 2-3-4-1 Ans) b
d) 2-1-3-4 Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Ans) d Fiscal slippage refers to the missing of fiscal
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. targets in the country's budget.
Option 2: Goods and services tax is an Statement 1 is correct: Fiscal Slippage
indirect tax levied on the supply of may lead to rising state government
goods and services. It is adestination- borrowings which could derailfiscal
based tax. It has subsumed almost all consolidation, fuel inflation, increase
the indirect taxes except a few state interest rates. The Government may
taxes. GSTcontribution to total gross force the central bank tochange its
tax revenue is 29% interest rate target, in order to keep
Option 1: Corporation tax is a direct inflation where it wants it
tax imposed on the net income or Statement 2 is correct: Fiscal Slippage
profit that enterprises make may lead to higher borrowings.
fromtheir businesses. Its contribution Higher borrowings from the
is around 25%. Centreand states have led to
Option 3: Excise duty is an indirect hardening in borrowing rates,
tax applied to goods manufactured threatening to crowd out corporate
domestically in the country, borrowers fromthe market.
whileCustoms is levied on those Statement 3 is incorrect: Fiscal
coming from outside of the country. Slippage may lead to higher
Its share in total gross tax revenue is borrowings. Higher borrowings from
15% theCentre and states have led to rise
Option 4: Customs duty is the indirect in borrowing rates. As the investor
tax imposed on goods when they are base for G-Sec and State
transported acrossinternational DevelopmentLoans (SDLs) are almost
borders. Otherwise, it is the tax that the same, the continuous and large
is levied on the import and export of supply of SDLs had resulted in
goods. Its share intotal gross tax hardening ofyields of the central
revenue is 6% government securities. Thus, it
increases yields of the central
29) In terms of economy, Fiscal Slippage may government securities.
result in which of the following situations?
1. Rise in government borrowings 30) Which of the following is not correct about
2. Crowding out of corporate borrowers the Capital Expenditure of the budget of the
from the market Government of India?
3. Decrease in yields of the government (a) While interest payments are not a
securities part of capital expenditure, the loans
Select the correct answer using the code given by the central government are
given below: a part of it.
a) 2 only (b) While capital expenditure is usually
b) 1 and 2 only associated with the creation of
c) 1 and 3 only assets, it may sometimes result in the
d) 1, 2 and 3 creation of liability also.

(c) The money spent on building operational efficiency. Along with the
infrastructures such as roads, Creation of assets, Loan repayment is
railways and airports is part of the also capital expenditure, as it reduces
capital expenditure. liability. Capital Expenditure always
(d) Capital expenditure is expected to leads to the Creation of Assets or
have a greater multiplier effect on reduction of liabilities, as it does not
the economy than revenue create any liability. So, Option (b) is
expenditure. not correct.
EXPLANATION:
Capital Expenditures of the 31) Consider the following statements:
Government result in the Creation of 1. Twin deficit syndrome is a term used
physical or financial assets or a to denote a situation when both
reduction in financial liabilities, current account deficit andfiscal
whereas Loans given by the Central deficit are high.
Government to state government are 2. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) based
called capital expenditures. exchange rates are calculated by
Capital payments consist of capital comparing the prices of thesame
expenditure on basket of goods and services in
the acquisition of assets like land, different countries.
buildings, machinery, and equipment, 3. Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER)
as also investments in shares, loans takes into account the impact of
and domestic inflation whilecalculating
Creation of assets like schools, the exchange rate between the
colleges, hospitals, roads, bridges, domestic currency and a basket of
dams, railway lines, airports and other majorcurrencies.
seaports Which of the statements given above is/are
The Central Government grants correct?
advance to state and union territory (a) 1 and 2 only
governments, (b) 2 and 3 only
government companies, corporations (c) 1 and 3 only
and other parties. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Revenue Expenditure is expenditure EXPLANATION: option d is correct answer
incurred for purposes other than the Twin deficit refers to the fiscal and
Creation of physical or financial current account deficit.Fiscal deficit
assets of the central Government. means higher expenditure over
Whereas Interest payment is income. The gap between
considered Revenue expenditure as it expenditure and income isbridged
does not create any asset. So, Option through borrowing from market. The
(a) and (c) is correct. term current account deficit is
Capital expenditure leads to the derived from currentaccount balance.
Creation of assets and allows the According to the OECD, the current
economy to generate revenue for account balance of payments is a
many years by adding or improving record of a
production facilities and boosting

country's international transactions currency against a weighted
with the rest of the world. The averageof several foreign currencies)
current account includes all divided by a price deflator or index of
thetransactions (other than those in costs.
financial items) that involve The weights are determined by
economic values and takes place comparing the relative trade balance
betweenresident and non-resident of a country's currency againstthat of
entities. each country in the index.
An increase in a nation's REER is an
Current Account Deficit (Trade indication that its exports are
deficit) and Fiscal Deficit often becoming more expensive and
reinforce each other, i.e., a high itsimports are becoming cheaper. It is
fiscaldeficit leads to higher CAD and losing its trade competitiveness.
vice versa. So, Statement 1 is correct. A nation's nominal effective
Purchasing power parity is defined as exchange rate (NEER), adjusted for
the number of units of a country’s inflation in the home country,
currency required to buy thesame equalsits real effective exchange rate
amount of goods and services in the (REER).Therefore REER takes into
domestic market as one dollar would account the impact of domestic
buy in the US.The technique of inflation while calculating exchange
purchasing power parity allows us to ratebetween two countries.
estimate what exchange between So, Statement 3 is correct.
two currenciesis needed to express
the accurate purchasing power of the 32) Consider the following statements with
tow currencies in the respective respect to Permanent Account Number
countries.Under PPP, we measure (PAN) and Goodsand Services Tax
the GDP of India by measuring how Identification (GSTIN):
much milk Rupee can purchase in 1. While PAN is a 10-digit alphanumeric
Indiaand One Dollar can purchase in number, GSTIN is a 15-digit
the US.In case, one dollar in the US alphanumeric number.
can purchase one liter of milk 2. Both the PAN and GSTIN are issued
whereas Rs 30 can purchase one liter by the Income Tax department.
of milkin India.$ 1 = Rs 30This is the 3. Every GSTIN holder is mandatorily
purchasing power parity exchange required to have a PAN.
rate we obtained.PPP method Which of the statements given above is/are
compares different countries' correct?
currencies through a "basket of (a) 1 only
goods" approach.Purchasing power (b) 1 and 3 only
parity (PPP) allows economists to (c) 2 and 3 only
compare economic productivity and (d) 1, 2 and 3
living standardsbetween countries. Answer: c
So, Statement 2 is correct. EXPLANATION:
REER is the real effective exchange PAN is a ten-digit unique alphanumeric
rate (a measure of the value of a number issued by the Income Tax

Department. GSTIN is aPAN-based printing, transporting, storing, and
15-digit unique number that is distributing currency. So, Statement 1
allotted to every taxpayer according is correct.
to his/her state by therespective The need for a sovereign digital
authority under the State currency arises from the anarchic
Government in charge for GST (State design of existing
Tax department). Cryptocurrencieswherein their
So, Statement 1 is correct & creation and maintenance are in the
Statement 2 is not correct. hands of the general public. By
Since GSTIN number itself is based on regulating digitalcurrency in India
once PAN number, from the above directly, the central bank can put
figure it can be inferred thatevery check on their malpractices. In that
GSTIN holder must have a PAN sense, CentralBank Digital Currency
card.So, Statement 3 is correct. (CBDC) or digital rupee in India
reduces the menace of counterfeit
33) RBI has recently mooted the idea of a notes and theirassociated use for
Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC). Which illicit activities. So, Statement 2 is
of thefollowing is/are the likely correct
benefits/implications of CBDC? CBDC, or digital fiat currency, also
1. Decreased cost of printing and known as National Digital Currency in
transporting physical currency India, is a digital form ofGovernment-
2. Decreased scope of counterfeiting backed ‘Fiat Currency’ which can be
currency transacted using blockchain backed
3. Decentralisation of CBDC by blockchain.Though the concept of
4. Decreased possibility of usage of CBDCs was directly inspired by
private backed cryptocurrencies Bitcoin, it is different from
Select the correct answer using the code decentralized virtualcurrencies and
given below: crypto assets which are not issued by
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only the state and lack the ‘legal tender’
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only status. But theCBDCs’S having a
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 centralized structure because they
(d) 1 and 3 only are controlled and regulated by the
Answer: a Central Bank.So, Statement 3 is not
EXPLANATION: correct.
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY One of the main reasons for the
According to the RBI, “Central Bank adoption of CBDC is that Central
Digital Currency (CBDC) is the legal banks seek to meet the public’s
tender issued by a central bankin a needfor digital currencies,
digital form. Though it is in digital manifested in the increasing use of
form, it can be exchanged with the private virtual currencies, thereby
fiat currency of the country.This avoiding thesocial and economic
money is a liability of the central consequences of private currencies
bank. One of the main benefits of like terror financing. So, Statement 4
CBDC is, it will reduce the costof iscorrect.

State’s own tax revenue which is 53%
forms the largest share in the total
34) With respect to the trends in State revenue receipt of the state. So,
governments’ finances in India in the last Statement 1 is correct.
few years, consider the following The Gross Tax Revenue includes the
statements: taxes imposed and collected by the
1. State’s own tax revenue forms the Centre, including surchargeand
largest share of the total revenue cess.The Constitution under Article
receipts of most States. 271, allows the Centre to levy cess
2. Increasing cesses and surcharges and surcharge which the Centre
reduce the Centre’s tax devolution to neednot share with state
States. governments. While cesses are
3. The revenue deficit grants to States is imposed for specific purposes,
released by the Central government surcharges are a taxon taxes, both
based on the recommendations of meant to be temporary in nature.In
the Finance Commission. the past few years, the share of
Which of the statements given above is/are cesses and surcharges in gross tax
correct? revenue has risen significantly.From
(a) 1 and 2 only 10.4% in FY12, their share climbed up
(b) 2 and 3 only to 20% by FY21.
(c) 1 and 3 only As the taxes collected through cess
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and surcharges were not to be shared
EXPLANATION:option d is correct answer with states, the increase intheir value
Devolution of union taxes means the increases the Gross tax revenue but
money received by states from the reduces the amount of taxes that are
central government as the to be devolved withthe state.
state’sshare in central taxes such as Thus, increasing the cess and
corporation tax, income tax, central surcharge collection would result in
GST, customs, and union excise. Itis reduced devolution of tax revenue
devolved to the states as per the tothe states. So, Statement 2 is
criteria recommended by the Finance correct.
Commission. As Delhi andJammu and The Post Devolution Revenue Deficit
Kashmir are union territories, they do Grants are provided to the States
not have any share in central under Article 275 of theConstitution.
taxes.Revenue receipts of states The grants are released to the States
comprise revenue from own sources by the Department of Expenditure,
(53%), and transfers from the Ministry ofFinance, as per the
Centre(47%). Own revenue consists recommendations of the successive
of tax revenue (45% of revenue Finance Commissions to meet the
receipts in 2021-22) and non-tax gap in RevenueAccounts of the States
revenue(8%), whereas central post-devolution.
transfers consist of state’s share in The eligibility of States to receive this
central taxes (20%) and grants-in-aid grant and the quantum of grant for
from theCentre (27%). Thus, the the period from 2020-21 to2025-26

was decided by the Fifteenth market prices) we needto add net
Commission based on the gap product taxes to GVA at basic prices.
between the assessment of Thus,
revenueand expenditure of the State GVA at factor costs + Net production
after taking into account the assessed taxes = GVA at basic prices
devolution during this period. GVA at basic prices + Net product
So,Statement 3 is correct. taxes = GVA at market prices
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
35) Consider the following statements: Methods to Control Inflation
1. Production taxes and production Monetary Measures
subsidies are independent of the - Credit Control
volume of production. - Demonetisation
2. GVA at basic prices is the sum total of - Issue of New Currency
GVA at factor cost and net product Fiscal Measures
taxes. - Reduction in Unnecessary
3. While production taxes are applicable Expenditure
at the point of production, product - Increase in Taxes
taxes are applicable atthe point of - Increase in Savings
consumption. - Avoiding Surplus Budgets
Which of the statements given above are - Postpone of Public Debt
correct? Production taxes are those imposed
(a) 1 and 2 only on producing some goods
(b) 2 and 3 only and are taxed at the Point of
(c) 1 and 3 only Production.Eg. – Registration
(d) 1, 2 and 3 fees, tax on Assets, etc.
EXPLANATION: option c is correct Product taxes are those imposed on
Production taxes or production the final product (applicable
subsidies are paid or received about at the Point of Consumption).
production and are independent Eg.– GST,Excise Duty, etc.
ofthe volume of actual production. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Some examples of production taxes
are land revenues, stamps 36. Which of the following forms a part of
andregistration fees, and taxes on theinternal debt of India?
professions. Product taxes and 1. Securities issued to
subsidies, on the other hand, are paid internationalfinancial institutions
orreceived per unit or product (not 2. Dated securities
based on volume), e.g., excise tax, 3. Market Stabilization Scheme bonds
service tax, export, and import 4. NRI deposits
duties,etc. So, Statement 1 is correct. Select the correct answer from the
The Central Statistical Organisation codegiven below.
releases Gross Value Added (GVA) at (a) 1 and 4 only
basic prices and that includesthe net (b) 3 and 4 only
production taxes but not net product (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
taxes. But to arrive at the GDP (at (d) 2 and 3 only

Option c is correct answer Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS)
Public Debt in India includes only Bonds: Governed by a MoU between
Internal and External Debt incurred the GoI and the RBI,MSS was created
by the Central Government.Internal to assist the RBI in managing its
Debt includes liabilities incurred by sterilization operations. GoI borrows
resident units in the Indian economy under thisscheme from the RBI, while
to other residentunits, while External proceeds from such borrowings are
Debt includes liabilities incurred by maintained in a separate cash
residents to non-residents. accountwith the latter and is used
The major instruments covered only for redemption of T-bills /dated
under Internal Debt are as follows: securities raised under thisscheme.
Dated Securities: Primarily fixed Hence option 3 is correct.
coupon securities of short, medium • Gross External Debt, is defined as
and long-term maturity whichhave a the outstanding amount of those
specified redemption date. These are actual current liabilities, that
the single most important requirepayment(s) of principal
component of financing thefiscal and/or interest by the debtor, in the
deficit of the Central Government future as per the terms laid out in the
(around 91 % in 2010-11) with an contractbetween the debtor and the
average maturity of around10 years. creditor and that are owed to non-
Hence option 2 is correct. residents by the residents of the
Treasury-Bills: Zero-coupon securities economy.
that are issued at a discount and In India, (Gross) External Debt is
redeemed in face value atmaturity. classified primarily into Long term
These are issued to address short and Short term:
term receipt-expenditure o Long-Term debt is further classified
mismatches under the into (a) Multilateral Debt (b) Bilateral
auctionprogram of the Government. Debt (c) ‘IMF’ signifyingSDR
These are primarily issued in three allocations to India by the IMF (c)
tenors, 91,182 and 364 days. Export Credit (d) (External)
o 14-Day Treasury Bills. Commercial Borrowings (e)
Securities issued to International NRIDeposits and (d) Rupee Debt.
Financial Institutions: Securities Hence option 4 is not correct.
issued to institutions viz. IMF,IBRD,
IDA, ADB, IFAD etc. for India’s 37. Which of the following can be the potential
contributions to these institutions traits of a Contractionary Fiscal Policy?
etc. Hence option 1 iscorrect. 1. Decrease in tax rates of vehicles in
Securities issued against ‘Small orderto increase the sale
Savings’: All deposits under small 2. Reduction in subsidies of LPG
savings schemes are credited tothe cylinders
National Small Savings Fund (NSSF). 3. Increase in government expenditure
The balance in the NSSF (net of oninfrastructure development
withdrawals) is invested inspecial Select the correct answer from the
Government securities. codegiven below.

(a) 2 only 1. These loans are not taken by the
(b) 1, 2 and 3 centredirectly, but by another public
(c) 1 and 3 only institution that borrows on the
(d) 3 only directions of thecentral government.
option (a) is the correct answer 2. These loans are included in the
Contractionary fiscal policy is when national fiscal deficit.
the government either cuts spending 3. These borrowings can be used to
or raises taxes. It gets itsname from fundboth capital and revenue
the way it contracts the economy. It expenditure.
reduces the amount of money Select the correct answer using the code
available for businesses givenbelow.
andconsumers to spend. (a) 1 and 3 only
This policy involves raising taxes or (b) 2 only
cutting government spending, so that (c) 3 only
(Government spending <Tax revenue) (d) 1, 2 and 3
it cuts upon the aggregate demand Ans: a
(thus, economic growth) and reduces Off-budget borrowings are loans that
theinflationary pressures in the are taken not by the Centre directly,
economy. but by another public institutionthat
The following can be potential traits borrows on the directions of the
of Contractionary Fiscal Policy as they central government. Such borrowings
aid in increasing the revenueof the are used to fulfil thelimits. Both the
government: centre and states are making such
o Decreased expenditure in borrowings. Hence statement 1 is
infrastructure development such as correct.
the building of schools, hospitals Off-budget borrowing figures did not
o Decrease in Subsidies and pensions include the loans that public sector
o Increased Tax rates (specially on sin undertakings were supposed totake
goods, so as to increase the revenue on their behalf or the deferred
available) payments of bills and loans by the
o Cutting incentives of employees to Centr -calculation. Hence statement 2
work, stagnation of wages is not correct.
All these traits and methods, involve The government can ask an
shrinking or contracting the implementing agency to raise the
economy, the money left in the required funds from the
hands ofthe consumer decreases, marketthrough loans or by issuing
leading to decrease in the Purchasing bonds. For example, food subsidy is
power, which theoretically leads to one of the major expenditures of
reducedinflation. theCentre. In the Budget
presentation for 2020-21, the
38. With reference to off-budget borrowings government paid only half the
bythe Indian government, which of the amount budgeted for thefood
following statements is/are correct? subsidy bill to the Food Corporation
of India. The shortfall was met

through a loan from the fiscal management, long-run
NationalSmall Savings Fund. This macroeconomic stability,
allowed the Centre to halve its food bettercoordination between fiscal
subsidy bill from Rs 1,51,000 crore to and monetary policy, and
Rs77,892 crore in 2020-21. transparency in the fiscal operation
Such borrowings are made by state- of theGovernment.
owned firms to fund government The FRBM act provided for certain
schemes but are not part of documents to be tabled in the
theofficial budget calculations. Other Parliament of India, along with the
public sector undertakings have also Budget.These are
been borrowed from thegovernment. Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement
For instance, public sector oil Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
marketing companies were asked to Macro-economic Framework
pay for subsidizedgas cylinders for Statement
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana Medium-term Expenditure
beneficiaries in th10.Public sector Framework Statement
banks are alsoused to fund off- The Medium-term Fiscal Policy
budget expenses. For example, loans Statement, presented to
from PSU banks were used to make Parliament sets out three-
up for the shortfallin the release of year rolling targets forspecific
fertilizer subsidies. Hence statement fiscal indicators in relation to
3 is correct. the gross domestic product
(GDP) at market prices :
o Revenue Deficit
39. With reference to the Fiscal o Fiscal Deficit
Responsibilityand Budget Management o Tax to GDP ratio
(FRBM) Act, 2003,which of the following o Total outstanding Debt
fiscal indicators haveto be projected in the o Primary Deficit
Medium Term FiscalPolicy statement? o Non-tax revenue
1. Revenue Deficit
2. Fiscal Deficit 40) A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country
3. Effective Revenue Deficit indicates which of the following?
4. Tax to GDP ratio 1. Slowing economic growth rate.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Less equitable distribution of national
givenbelow. income.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only given below.
(c) 3 and 4 only a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) 2 only
option (b) is the correct answer c) Both 1 and 2
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget d) Neither 1 nor 2
Management (FRBM) became an Act Ans) a
in 2003. The objective of the Actis to Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
ensure inter-generational equity in

 Option 1 is correct. Tax to GDP ratio but has its own executive leadership
compares the amount of taxes collected and staff that conduct its normal
by a government to theamount of business operations. It is a
income that country receives for its corporation whose shareholders are
products. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio member governments that provide
of a countryindicates a slowing economic paid-in capital and which have the
growth. When tax revenues grow at a right to vote on its matters.
slower rate than the GDP of a country,
the tax-to GDP ratio drops. 42. The SDR is an international reserve asset,
 Option 2 is incorrect. A decrease in tax to created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement its
GDP ratio of a country does not indicate a member countries’ official reserves.
less equitabledistribution of national Consider the following about Special
income. Tax to GDP ratio and income Drawing Rights (SDR).
inequality are not directly corelated with 1. SDRs cannot be exchanged for freely
eachother. usable currencies.
2. Value of a SDR is fixed on an annual
41. Consider the following with reference to the basis and revised on the discretion of
International Finance Corporation (IFC). IMF.
1. It was established as the private Which of the above is/are correct?
sector arm of the World Bank Group a) 1 only
to advance economic development b) 2 only
by investing in strictly not-for-profit c) Both 1 and 2
activities. d) None
2. The IFC is owned and governed Answer d)
exclusively by the G-7 in view of the Explanation: Statement 1: It was
significant financial contributions created as a supplementary
made by the member countries. international reserve asset. SDRs can
Which of the above is/are correct? be exchanged for freely usable
a) 1 only currencies. So, 1 is wrong.
b) 2 only The value of the SDR is currently
c) Both 1 and 2 based on a basket of four major
d) None currencies: the U.S. dollar, euro, the
Answer d) Japanese yen, and pound sterling.
Explanation: Statement 1: Its aim is The basket will be expanded to
to advance economic development include the Chinese renminbi (RMB)
by investing in strictly for-profit and as the fifth currency, effective
commercial projects that purport to October 1, 2016.
reduce poverty and promote Statement 2: Its value is determined
development. So,1 is wrong. daily based on the currency values of
It helps people achieve better living its constituent currencies.
standards by mobilizing financial The SDR is neither a currency, nor a
resources for private enterprise. claim on the IMF. Rather, it is a
Statement 2: The IFC is owned and potential claim on the freely usable
governed by its member countries, currencies of IMF members.

● Targeted fiscal deficit to be below
43. Consider the following statements about 4.5% by 2025-26.Hence Statement 3
fiscal management. is incorrect.
1. The Union government will give 50
year interest free loans to states 44. Consider the following statements regarding
which are to be spent on capital Treasury Bills (T-Bills)
expenditure within 2023-24. 1. They provide long-term capital to the
2. Fiscal Deficit of 3.5% of GSDP is government.
allowed for states, in that 0.5% is 2. They satisfy the CRR and SLR
mandated to power sector reforms. requirements of the banking
3. Targeted fiscal deficit to be below institutions that invest in them.
4.5% by 2024-25. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the above statements are correct?
correct as per budget 2023-24? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3.
Solution: B
Answer B Started in 1986, they are instruments
Explanation: of money market used by the Central
● Finance minister in Budget for 2023- Government to fulfil its short-term
24, announced that the government liquidity requirement upto the period
proposes to continue 50-year of 364 days. Hence Statement 1 is
interest-free loans to state incorrect.
governments for one more year to The TBS other than providing short-
spur investment in infrastructure and term cushion to the government, also
to incentivize them for function as short-term investment
complementary policy actions, with a avenues for the banks and financial
significantly enhanced outlay of Rs institutions, besides functioning as
1.3 lakh crore.The entire 50-year loan requirements of the CRR and SLR of
to states has to be spent on capital the banking institutions.
expenditure front within 2023-24.
Most of this will be at the discretion 45. Consider the following statements about
of states, but a part will be Masala bonds.
conditional on states increasing their 1. Investors from outside of India who
actual capital expenditure. Hence would like to invest in Indian assets
Statement 1 is correct. can invest in Masala bonds.
● The Finance Minister stated that the 2. As Masala bonds are issued directly
States will be allowed a fiscal deficit in Indian rupees, the investor is free
of 3.5 per cent of GSDP of which 0.5 of any exchange rate risks.
per cent will be tied to power sector 3. The first Masala bond was issued in
reforms. Hence Statement 2 is 2018 for raising money for
correct. infrastructure projects in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes 3. In order to increase the production of
below. oilseeds, National Food Security
a) 1 and 2 only Mission: Oilseeds (NFSM- Oilseeds) is
b) 3 only implemented in all the districts of
c) 1 only India.
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
Solution: c) a) 1 and 2 only
They are bonds issued outside India b) 2 only
by an Indian entity or corporate. c) 3 only
These bonds are issued in Indian d) 1 and 3 only
currency rather than local currency.
Indian corporates usually issue Answer:C
Masala Bonds to raise funds from India is one of the major oilseeds
foreign investors. As it is pegged into growing country. The oilseed
Indian currency, if the rupee rates production in India has grown by
fall, investors bear the risk. The first almost 43 per cent from 2015-16 to
Masala bond 2020-21. The oil production in India
was issued in 2014 by IFC for the has however lagged behind its
infrastructure projects in India. consumption necessitating import of
How does Masala Bonds help bond edible oils.
issuer? Statement 1 is Incorrect: India is the
As Masala bonds are issued directly world’s second largest consumer and
in Indian rupees, the investor needs World’s largest importer of vegetable
to bear the exchange rate risks. oil. As urbanization increases, the
Rupee rate falls will not affect the dietary habits and traditional meal
issuer of Masala Bonds. In simpler patterns are expected to shift
words, as Masala Bonds are rupee- towards processed foods that have a
denominated bonds, the risk goes high content of vegetable oil.
directly to the investor. Vegetable oil consumption in India is,
India INX is the country’s first therefore, expected to remain high
international exchange, located at due to high population growth and
International Financial Services consequent urbanization.
Centre, GIFT City in Gujarat. ADB’s Statement 2 is Incorrect: In terms of
masala bonds are listed on both types of edible oil consumed in India,
Luxembourg exchange and India INX. palm oil represented 33% of the
total, while soyabean oil, rapeseed
46. Consider the following statements regarding and sunflower oil comprised 23%,
the current scenario of Edible oil in India: 15% and 8% respectively. Cottonseed
1. India is the world’s largest consumer oil and groundnut oil made up the
and importer of vegetable oil. remainder.
2. In terms of type of edible oil Statement 3 is Correct: The
consumed in India, Soyabean oil Government is promoting the
represented the highest share. production and productivity of

oilseeds through the centrally And their use for international
sponsored scheme of National Food transactions confers substantial
Security Mission: Oilseeds (NFSM- economic privileges to the host
Oilseeds) from 2018-19 onwards in all countries.
districts of India. ● The privileges/advantages include:
○ Immunity from BoP crises as the
47. Consider the following statements regarding country can pay for its external
'internationalization of rupee'? deficits with its own currency
1. It means use of rupee for ○ The dominance of its financial
transactions between non-residents institutions, markets and policies in
2. It means use of rupee transactions the global economy
between residents and non-residents ○ Increased bargaining power of
3. Military capability of a country plays domestic business adding weight to
role in internationalization of the economy and enhancing the
currency country’s global stature and respect
Select the correct answer using the code
○ Protection for its businesses from
given below:
currency risk
(a) 1 only
○ Seigniorage that accrues to it
(b) 2 only
○ Reduces the need for holding foreign
(c) 1 & 2 only
exchange reserves
(d) All of the above
○ Reducing dependence on foreign
currency which makes the country
Answer:D
less
● An international currency is one that
○ vulnerable to external shocks
is freely available to non-residents,
● All of the above privileges flow from
essentially to settle cross-border
its status as the preeminent reserve
transactions. It is a process that
currency. Clearly, very few countries
involves increasing use of the local
can enjoy such privileges at any given
(rupee) currency in cross-border
point of time in history. And the
transactions i.e., international
preconditions - size of the economy
markets.
and a dominant share of global GDP,
● In this process first current account
globally dominant businesses,
transactions are allowed and then
extraordinary military capabilities etc.
capital account transactions between
limit the prospects of owning an
resident Indians and non-Resident
international currency to any but the
Indians. The last step is use of rupee
largest few economies.
for transactions between non-
● The preconditions for owning an
residents.
international currency are - size of
● Internationalization of a currency is
the economy and a dominant share
an expression of external credibility
of global GDP, globally dominant
in the currency as well as in the
businesses, extraordinary military
economy.
capabilities etc. And these
● All truly international currencies
preconditions limit the prospects of
belong to large, advanced economies.

owning an international currency to Statement 3 and 4: The demand of a
only few largest economies. national currency depends on the
● Hence internationalization of rupee export-import preferences of the
cannot just be achieved by financial nation. If the residents demand more
regulation alone. foreign goods, imports are higher and
thus the domestic currency
depreciates because there is more
48. Currency rates in flexible or floating demand for foreign currency than
exchange rates of a Nation X fluctuates domestic currency.
depending on If a nation exports goods, the case is
1. Determination of exchange rates by just the opposite. In both the cases,
government of X from time to time currency rates would Fluctuate.
2. IMF Weekly exchange rate revisions
for Nation X 49. Consider the following statements about
3. Demand of goods exported by Nation Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bonds
X in Global market (FCEB).
4. Preference of the residents of Nation 1. It is a bond expressed in foreign
X for foreign goods and services currency, but the principal and the
Select the correct answer using the codes interest of which is payable in foreign
below. currency.
a) 2 and 3 only 2. Prior approval of the RBI is required
b) 3 only for the issue of FCEB.
c) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. The bonds cannot be subscribed by a
d) 3 and 4 only person resident outside India.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Answer d) below.
Explanation: Statement 1 and 2: a) 1 only
Exchange rates link national b) 2 and 3 only
currencies for purposes of c) 1 and 2 only
international trade. There are broadly d) 1 and 3 only
two kinds of exchange rates: fixed Answer c)
exchange rate and Explanation: Issue of foreign currency
floating exchange rate exchangeable bonds (FCEB) are
Fixed exchange rates – When regulated by Foreign Currency
exchange rates are fixed and Exchangeable Bond Scheme 2008
governments intervene to prevent issued by Ministry of Finance,
movements in them Department of
Flexible or floating exchange rates – Economic Affairs.
These rates fluctuate depending on What is FCEB?
demand and supply of A bond expressed in foreign currency.
currencies in foreign exchange The principal and the interest of which is
markets, in principle without payable in foreign currency.
interference by governments. Based The issuer of the bond is an Indian company.
on this S1 and S2 are wrong.

 The bonds are subscribed by a person  The real exchange rates are nothing but
resident outside India. the nominal exchange rates multiplied by
 The bonds are exchangeable into equity the price indices of the two countries.
shares of another company which is also  This means the market price level of
called the offered company. goods and services, given by indices of
 It may be noted that issuing company is inflation. So if the price level in the US is
to be the part of promoter group of higher than the price level in India, then
offered company and the offered the real exchange rate of the rupee
company is to be listed and be eligible to versus the dollar will be greater than the
receive foreign investment. nominal exchange rate.
 FCEB scheme affords a unique  Suppose the nominal exchange rate is Rs
opportunity for Indian promoters to 65 and US prices are greater than Indian
unlock value in group companies. FCEBs prices, a dollar will buy more in India than
are another arrow in the quiver of Indian what Rs 65 will buy in the US.
promoters to raise money overseas to
fund their new projects and acquisitions, 51. A ‘Hard Currency’ implies
both Indian and global, by leveraging a 1. One that is pegged to some external
part their shareholding in listed group account
entities. 2. One that cannot be used for
speculation or earn arbitrage
50. The real exchange rate tackles which of the 3. One that can be used only within
following major problems seen while using national borders
the nominal exchange rate index? Select the correct answer using the codes
1. It captures the difference in price below.
levels between nations not captured a) 1 only
by nominal index. b) 2 and 3 only
2. It takes into account the economic c) 3 only
size of nations to create a level d) None of the above
playing field between two competing Answer d)
economies, unlike the nominal index. Explanation: It is the international
Which of the above is/are correct? currency in which the highest faith is
a) 1 only shown and is needed by every
b) 2 only economy.
c) Both 1 and 2 The strongest currency of the world is
d) None one which has a high level of
Answer a) liquidity. Basically, it belongs to the
 Explanation: Nominal exchange rate is economy with the highest as well as
the price of one currency in terms of highly diversified exports that are
number of units of some other currency. compulsive imports for other
 To incorporate the purchasing power and countries.
competitiveness aspect and, therefore, This can be due to high level
make the measure more meaningful, real technology, defence products, life
exchange rates are used. saving medicines and petroleum

products) will also create high demand for its Individuals can also open, maintain
currency in the world and become the hard and hold foreign currency accounts
Currency. It is always scarce. Some of the with overseas banks for
best hard currencies of the world today are carrying out transactions.
the US dollar, the Euro(€), Japanese Yen (¥) Not permitted: However, the rules do
and the UK Sterling Pound (£). not allow remittances for trading on
the foreign
52. As per the Liberalised Remittance Scheme exchange markets, margin or margin
(LRS) and the rules issues therein, consider calls to overseas exchanges and
the following statements. counterparties and the
1. Under LRS, all resident individuals can purchase of Foreign Currency
freely remit a certain amount of Convertible Bonds issued by Indian
money overseas every financial year companies abroad. Sending
for a permissible set of current or money to certain countries and
capital account transactions. entities is also barred.
2. Individuals cannot open, maintain or
hold foreign currency accounts with 53. Which of these are included in the “Current
overseas banks for carrying out account” transactions of India with the
transactions. world?
3. Remittances cannot be sent for 1. Trade balance for goods
trading on the foreign exchange 2. Flow of remittances
markets. 3. Trade in invisibles
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Grants given by foreign governments
below. Select the correct answer using the code
a) 1 only below.
b) 1 and 3 only a) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only b) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer b) Answer d)
Explanation: Under LRS, all resident Explanation: The current account
individuals can freely remit $250,000 records exports and imports in goods
overseas every and services and transfer
financial year for a permissible set of Payments.
current or capital account Trade in services denoted as invisible
transactions. trade (because they are not seen to
Remittances are permitted for cross national
overseas education, travel, medical borders) includes both factor income
treatment and purchase of (payment for inputs-investment
shares and property, apart from income, that is, the
maintenance of relatives living interest, profits and dividends on our
abroad, gifting and donations. assets abroad minus the income
foreigners earn on

assets they own in India) and non- Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) means an
factor income (shipping, banking, institution established or
insurance, tourism, incorporated outside
software services, etc.). India which proposes to make investment in
Transfer payments are receipts which securities in India. They are
the residents of a country receive ‘for registered as FIIs in
free’, without accordance with the SEBI (FII) Regulations
having to make any present or future 1995. FIIs are allowed to subscribe to
payments in return. new securities or trade in already
They consist of remittances, gifts and issued securities.
grants. They could be official or
private. 55. The term “Beggar-thy-neighbour” often seen
in news is related to an international trading
54. Which of these Foreign Institutional policy that
Investors (FII) are allowed to invest in Indian a) Uses protectionism and aggressive
markets? monetary policy measures to
1. Merchant bankers increase the competitiveness of an
2. Mutual funds economy at the expense of others
3. Pension funds b) Utilizes prohibitive taxation measures
Select the correct answer using the codes to curb foreign investment in the
below. domestic economy
a) 1, 2 and 3 c) Relies on hoarding of forex reserves
b) 1 only to bankrupt other Central Banks
c) 2 and 3 only d) Targets the production facilities of
d) 2 only neighbours and reduces supply of
Answer a) critical raw material inputs
Explanation: Following foreign entities / Answer a)
funds are eligible to get registered as Beggar thy neighbour policy refers to a policy
FII: that aims at addressing one's own
Pension Funds domestic
Mutual Funds problems at the expense of others — trading
Investment Trusts partners in particular, largely through
Banks competitive devaluation of their currencies
Insurance Companies / Reinsurance Company by the central bank.
Foreign Central Banks Conventionally, countries often impose tariff
Foreign Governmental Agencies barriers and restrict imports to
Sovereign Wealth Funds protect their
International/ Multilateral organization/ domestic industries.
agency While the policy may help repair an economic
University Funds (Serving public interests) hardship in the nation, it will harm
Endowments (Serving public interests) the
Foundations (Serving public interests) country's trading partners, worsening its
Charitable Trusts / Charitable Societies economic status.
(Serving public interests)

The Reserve Bank of India has been warning Even if Nation A allows Nation B to be
against such a practice of competitive a MFN partner, it does not mean they
devaluation by central bank. will come under
Governor Raghuram Rajan underscored the free trade regime, or will merge to be
need to avoid beggar-thy-neighbour a common market. It just implies that
policies, now Nation A will
such as unconventional monetary policy or be treating Nation B in the same way
sustained exchange-rate intervention as it treats its other WTO partners.
that
primarily induces capital outflows and 57. In WTO terminology, subsidies in general are
competitive currency devaluations in identified by “boxes” which are given the
a recent colours of traffic lights. Consider the
Speech. following about it.
1. Most domestic support measures
considered to distort production and
56. If Nation A grants Nation B the status of trade fall into the amber box.
“Most favoured Nation (MFN)”, then 2. Green box subsidies are allowed even
1. Both nations will be bound to allow if they distort trade.
free movement of labour and capital 3. At present there are no limits on
between them. spending on blue box subsidies.
2. Nation A will be bound to reduce all Select the correct answer using the codes
tariffs to zero on goods imported below.
from Nation B. a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above is/are correct? b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only c) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Both 1 and 2 Answer c)
d) None Explanation: Statement 1: All domestic
Answer d) support measures considered to
Explanation: Under the WTO agreements, distort production and
countries cannot normally trade (with some exceptions) fall into
discriminate between the amber box, which is defined as all
their trading partners – a treatment domestic supports
which is known as “Most favoured except those in the blue and green
Nation (MFN)” status. boxes.
In general, MFN means that every These include measures to support
time a country lowers a trade barrier prices, or subsidies directly related to
or opens up a market, it production quantities.
has to do so for the same goods or These supports are subject to limits:
services from all its trading partners “de minimis” minimal supports are
— whether rich or poor, allowed (5% of
weak or strong. It is one of the core agricultural production for developed
principles of WTO. countries, 10% for developing
countries)

Statement 2: In order to qualify, period of 3-years, for e.g. treasury
green box subsidies must not distort bills (365 days), or repo rate based
trade, or at most cause borrowing from banks etc
minimal distortion. They have to be come within this market.
government-funded (not by charging Capital market engages in long-term
consumers higher lending and borrowing.
prices) and must not involve price Statement 2: Commercial banks,
support. regional rural banks etc. that give
Statement 3: Blue Box is the “amber short-term funds are also a
box with conditions” — conditions part of this market, and are well
designed to reduce regulated by RBI.
distortion. Any support that would
normally be in the amber box, is 59. With reference to Commercial Papers (CPs),
placed in the blue box if the consider the following statements.
support also requires farmers to limit 1. Commercial paper markets are
production. popular and preferred over most
At present there are no limits on other securities owing to its stability
spending on blue box subsidies. In even amidst major liquidity variations
the current negotiations, in the market.
some countries want to keep the 2. CPs can be issued for maturities
blue box as it is because they see it as between a minimum of one year and
a crucial means of a maximum of up to seven years from
moving away from distorting amber the date of issue helping in long-term
box subsidies without causing too fund raising.
much hardship. Which of the above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
58. With reference to money market, consider b) 2 only
the following statements. c) Both 1 and 2
1. It allows the borrowing and lending d) None
of funds in the short-term Answer: d)
2. Institutions operating in the money Explanation: A commercial Paper (CP)
market are outside of the ambit of is an unsecured loan raised by firms
regulation of RBI. in money markets
Which of the above is/are correct? through instruments issued in the
a) 1 only form of a promissory note. CPs can
b) 2 only be issued for maturities
c) Both 1 and 2 between a minimum of 7 days and a
d) None maximum of up to one year from the
date of issue.
Answer: a) Why are CPs popular?
Explanation: Statement 1: Money market is Because of surplus liquidity, short-
concerned with borrowing and term borrowing rates in money
lending upto a markets have significantly

declined post demonetisation and trading. In Forward trading, both
are much lower than the lowest buyer and seller agree to buy and sell
benchmark lending rates of the respectively at a future date at a pre
banks. agreed price, irrespective of the price
What are the advantages of issuing that prevails on the day of trade.
CPs? There are two types of forward trade.
Apart from being a cheaper source of One is Futures and another one is
funds, it helps meet funding Options. Though both
requirements relatively are forward trade methods, there is a
quickly for better-rated corporates. slight difference. In case of Futures,
Procedural requirements for securing both buyer and seller
bank facilities and have to execute the agreement.
charge creation on assets is not In case of Options, the buyer or seller
required. can withdraw from the agreement.
What are the key challenges with To have this option the
CPS? buyer or seller has to deposit some
As the CP is an unsecured loan, the amount as premium.
investor in commercial papers largely In the case when he fails to execute
prefers highly-rated the agreement, he has to forego the
corporates or public sector entities in premium amount. The
terms of credit rating. Lender choice available to seller not to
appetite is limited to better execute the agreement is called Put
rated companies. option. If it is available to
buyer it is called Call option.
60. Consider the following statements about
types of trading. 61. Which of the following are the pillars of
1. The execution of a futures agreement Gross National Happiness Index?
by the buyer and seller is compulsory 1. Good governance
and not optional. 2. Sustainable socio-economic development
2. An ‘options’ agreement is a buying 3. Cultural preservation
and selling of securities on the same 4. Environmental conservation
day with an option for the buyer not Select the correct answer using the code
to enforce the agreement. given below:
Which of the above is/are correct? A. 1, 2 and 3 only
a) 1 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 2 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only
c) Both 1 and 2 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) None Answer : D
Answer: a)
Explanation: These are the major Gross National Happiness Index
types of trading. The phrase ‘gross national happiness’
In Cash trading, the sale and was first coined by the 4th King
purchase of securities takes place in of Bhutan, King Jigme
the prevailing price on the day of

Singye Wangchuck, in 1972 when he resilience, good governance, community
declared, “Gross National vitality, ecological diversity and
Happiness is more important resilience, and living
than Gross Domestic Product.” The standards. The domains represent each
concept implies that sustainable of the components of wellbeing
development should take of the Bhutanese
a holistic approach towards notions of people, and the term wellbeing here
progress and give equal refers to fulfilling conditions of a
importance to non-economic "good life" as per the
aspects of wellbeing. values and principles laid down by the
Gross National Happiness is a term concept of Gross National
coined by His Majesty the Fourth Happiness.
King of Bhutan, Jigme
Singye Wangchuck in the 1970s. The 62, Consider the following statements with
concept implies that sustainable respect to the comparison between
development should Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer
take a holistic approach towards notions Price Index (CPI):
of progress and give equal 1. While WPI takes into account the
importance to non- change in price of goods only, the CPI
economic aspects of wellbeing. The takes into account the change in
Gross National Happiness Index price of both goods and services.
is a single number index 2. In WPI, more weightage is given to
developed from 33 indicators food items than in CPI.
categorized under nine domains. 3. While weights of items in the WPI are
The GNH Index is constructed based on production values, weights
based upon a robust multidimensional of items in CPI are based on average
methodology known as the household expenditure.
Alkire-Foster method. 4. Unlike CPI, RBI uses WPI for setting
The concept of GNH has often been repo rates and monetary policy.
explained by its four pillars: good Which of the statements given above is/are
governance, correct?
sustainable socio-economic a) 1 and 3 only
development, cultural b) 1, 2 and 4 only
preservation, and environmental c) 2 and 4 only
conservation. d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Lately the four pillars have been further Answer: a
classified into nine domains in Explanation: Option a is correct.
order to create The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures
widespread understanding of GNH and the average change in prices of goods
to reflect the holistic range of at the wholesale level while
GNH values. The nine Consumer Price Index (CPI) calculates
domains are: psychological wellbeing, the average change in prices of goods
health, education, time use, and services at the retail level.
cultural diversity and

Statement 1 is correct: Wholesale 3. Fire cracker manufacturing industries.
Price Index (WPI) takes into account Select the correct answer using the code
the change in price of goods only, given below.
while Consumer Price Index (CPI) (a) 1 only
takes into account the change in (b) 2 and 3 only
price of both goods and services. The (c) 1 and 3 only
base year for WPI is 2011-12 while (d) 1, 2 and 3
the base year for CPI is 2012.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In WPI, Answer: D
more weightage is given to Seasonal unemployment occurs when people
manufactured goods, while in CPI, are unemployed at certain times of
more weightage is given to food the year, because they work in
items and not vice-versa. The major industries where they are not needed
component in CPI (C) is food and all year round. Examples of industries
beverages with 45.86 weight where demand, production and
followed by miscellaneous with 28.32 employment are seasonal include
weight. The WPI comprises of three tourism and leisure, farming and
major groups: construction. Hence, statement 1 and
1) Manufactured Products statement 2 are correct.
(manufactured food products, sugar, Fire cracker manufacturing industries in India
textiles etc.) with 64.23 weight. work in full fledge prior to Diwali
2) Primary Articles (food articles, festive season and employ more
vegetables, milk, minerals etc.) with labours. However, during lean season
22.62 weight. they employ less workers resulting in
3) Fuel and Power (LPG, Petrol etc.) seasonal unemployment. Hence,
with 13.15 weight. statement 3 is correct.
Statement 3 is correct: Weights of
items in the WPI are indeed based on
production values, while weights of 64, The National Institutional Ranking
items in CPI are based on average Framework (NIRF) outlines a methodology
household expenditure taken from to rank institutions across the country. It
consumer expenditure surveys. includes which of the following parameters?
Statement 4 is incorrect: RBI no 1) Research and Professional Practices
longer uses WPI for policy purposes, 2) Global Expansion
including setting repo rates. The 3) Graduation Outcomes
central bank currently uses CPI or 4) Perception
retail inflation as a key measure of Select the correct answer using the codes
inflation to set the monetary and below.
credit policy. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
63. Seasonal unemployment can be seen in c) 2, 3 and 4 only
which of the following sectors in India? d) 1 2 and 4 only
1. Farming
2. Tourism and leisure Answer: b)

Justification: The parameters for All of the above given measures help in
ranking broadly cover “Teaching, arresting jobless growth. As small
Learning and Resources,” “Research scale industries are labour
and Professional Practices,” intensive,investing in small scale
“Graduation Outcomes,” “Outreach industries help in arresting jobless
and Inclusivity,” and “Perception”. growth.
The 2018 rankings include nine Skill India help to give market relevant skills,
different categories-overall, thus increase the employability of
universities, engineering, colleges, unemployed population. A sunrise
management, pharmacy, industry is one that is new or
medical,architecture, and law. Out of relatively new, is growing fast and is
which sections like medical, expected to become important in the
architecture and law have been future. Thus policy support to such
introduced this year. The industries attract a lot of
Indian Institute of Science in employment.
Bengaluru and Delhi’s Miranda House
are India’s best university and college 66. India initiated planning for national
this year. economic development with the
establishment of the Planning Commission.
65. The term ‘Jobless growth’ is often seen in With reference to the planning in the first
the news, which of the following measures three Five-year plans, consider the
can aid in resolving the issue? following.
1. Promotion of investments in small 1. The objectives of industrial planning
scale industries policy were to ensure a high growth
2. Implementation of Skill India rate amidst national self-reliance and
programme reduction of foreign dominance.
3. Policy support to sunrise industries. 2. State allocation of investment,
Select the correct answer using the code licensing and regulatory controls to
given below steer Indian industrial development
(a) 1 and 3 only were a part of the tools adopted in
(b) 2 and 3 only these plans.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 3. The strategy underlying the first
(d) 1 and 2 only three plans assumed that once the
growth process gets established, the
Answer: C institutional changes would ensure
In a jobless growth economy, unemployment that benefits of growth trickle down
remains stubbornly high even as the to the poor.
economy grows. This tends to Which of these is/are true?
happen when a relatively large a) 1 only
number of people have lost their b) 1 and 2 only
jobs, and the ensuing recovery is c) 1, 2 and 3
insufficient to absorb the d) 2 and 3 only
unemployed, under-employed, and
those first entering the work force. Answer: c)

Justification and Learning: Indian that benefits of growth trickle down
planning was inspired from soviet to the poor. But doubts were raised
planning which commenced shortly in the early seventies about the
after the Bolshevik revolution. effectiveness of the ‘trickle down’
The aim of the First Five Year Plan approach and its ability to banish
(1951-56) was to raise domestic poverty.
savings for growth and to help the
economy resurrect itself from 67. Starting Fifth Plan (1974-79) onwards a shift
colonial rule. The real break with the in policy and a course correction was called
past in planning came with the for to address the issues related to economic
Second Five Year Plan (Nehru- planning in India. Consider the following
Mahalanobis Plan). about it.
The industrialization strategy 1. There was an emphasis on growth
articulated by Professor Mahalanobis with redistribution.
placed emphasis on the development 2. Narsimhan Committee on the shift
of heavy industries and envisaged a from physical controls to fiscal
dominant role for the public sector in controls was setup during this period.
the economy. The entrepreneurial 3. A group of industries were delicensed
role of the state was evoked to without any investment limit during
develop the industrial sector. this and subsequent plans.
Commanding heights of the economy Which of the above is/are correct?
were entrusted to the public sector. a) 1 only
S1 and S2: The objectives of industrial b) 2 and 3 only
policy were: a high growth rate, c) 1 and 3 only
national self-reliance, reduction of d) 1, 2 and 3
foreign dominance, building up of
indigenous capacity, encouraging Answer: d)
small scale industry, bringing about The Fifth Plan (1974-79) corrected its
balanced regional development, course by initiating a program
prevention of concentration of emphasizing growth with
economic power, reduction of redistribution. To accelerate the
income inequalities and control of process of production and to align it
economy by the State. with contemporary realities, a mild
The planners and policy makers version of economic liberalization
suggested the need for using a wide was started in the mid 1980s. Three
variety of instruments like state important committees were set up in
allocation of investment, licensing the early 1980s. Narsimhan
and other regulatory controls to steer Committee on the shift from physical
Indian industrial development on a controls to fiscal controls, Sengupta
closed economy basis. Committee on the public sector and
S3: The strategy underlying the first the Hussain Committee on trade
three plans assumed that once the policy.
growth process gets established, the The result of such thinking was to
institutional changes would ensure reorient our economic policies. As a

result there was some progress in the The plan was based on Marxist socialism and
process of deregulation during the advocated the need of providing the
1980s. Two kinds of delicencing people with the ‘basic necessities of
activity took place. First, thirty two life’.Agricultural and industrial
groups of industries were delicensed sectors, both
without any investment limit. were equally highlighted by the plan. Many
Second, in 1988, all industries were economists have attributed the
exempted from licensing except for a socialist
specified negative list of twenty six leanings in Indian planning to this plan. The
industries. common minimum programmes of
Entry into the industrial sector was the United
made easier but exit still remained Front Government of the mid-nineties (20th
closed and sealed. Hence, the roots century) and that of the United
of the liberalization program were Progressive
started in the late 80’s when Rajiv Alliance of 2004 may also be thought to have
Gandhi was the Prime Minister of been inspired from the same plan.
India, but the reach and force of the ‘Economic
reform 3 program was rather limited. reforms with the human face’, the slogan
with which the economic reforms
68. Consider the following statements regarding started in the early
the People’s Plan 1990s also has the resonance of the People’s
1. The plan was formulated by Plan.
Jayaprakash Narayan.
2. The plan advocated the need of 69, Consider the following statements regarding
providing the people with the ‘basic Gandhian Plan
necessities of life’. 1. Sriman Narayan Agarwal formulated
3. Agricultural and industrial sectors, The Gandhian Plan in 1944.
both were equally highlighted by the 2. The plan laid more emphasis on
plan. agriculture.
Which of the statements given above are 3. The plan articulated a ‘decentralised
correct? economic structure’ for India with
A. 1 and 2 only ‘self-contained villages’.
B. 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
C. 1 and 3 only correct?
D. 1, 2 and 3 A. 1 and 2 only
answer : B B. 2 and 3 only
The people’s Plan C. 1 and 3 only
In 1945, yet another plan was formulated by D. 1, 2 and 3
the radical humanist leader M.N. Roy, Answer: D
Chairman of the Post-War Reconstruction The Gandhian Plan
Committee of Indian Trade Espousing the spirit of the Gandhian
Union.Hence, economic thinking, Sriman Narayan
statement 1 is incorrect. Agarwal

formulated The Gandhian Plan in 1944. The at core inflation by removing food
plan laid more emphasis on and fuel components from the
agriculture. headline inflation. As headline
Even if he referred to industrialisation, it was inflation exhibits volatility due to
to the level of promoting cottage and short run shocks, Central banks in
village-level industries, unlike the NPC and many countries stick to core inflation.
the Bombay Plan which supported a
leading role for the heavy and large 71, “Core Inflation” does NOT indicate a price
industries. The plan articulated a rise in which of these commodities?
‘decentralised 1. IT products
economic structure’ for India with ‘self- 2. Food products
contained villages’. 3. Hydrocarbon fuel
4. Consumer goods
70, Consider the following statements that are Which of the above is/are correct?
generally likely to be true of ‘Core Inflation’. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Core inflation refers to that b) 4 only
component of inflation that may c) 2 and 3 only
linger for a long period. d) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Unlike non-core inflation, core
inflation is not affected by temporary Answer: c)
shocks. S1 is included, because it is included in CPI. S4
3. Core inflation yields the same is generally included.
inflation results as headline inflation. Core inflation represents the long run trend
Select the correct answer using the codes in the price level. In measuring long
below. run inflation, transitory price changes
a) 1 and 2 only should be excluded.
b) 2 only One way of accomplishing this is by excluding
c) 1 and 3 only items frequently subject to volatile
d) 1, 2 and 3 prices, like food and energy.
Answer: a) • Therefore, a dynamic consumption basket
Core Inflation corresponds to the component is considered the basis to obtain core
of inflation that is likely to continue inflation.
for a long period. • Core inflation is calculated using the
Thus, core inflation captures the underlying Consumer Price Index (CPI) by
trend of inflation and is, therefore, excluding such commodities –
more stable. i.e.food and fuel.
Unlike the non-core component of inflation, • If temporary price shocks are taken into
core inflation is not affected by account, they may affect the
temporary shocks. In India, core estimated overall inflation numbers
inflation is generally measured by in such a way that they are different
excluding highly volatile components from actual inflation.
from the headline inflation.
By their very nature, food and fuel have been
highly volatile. Therefore, we arrive

72. Which of the following correctly explains of 39.1 per cent as compared to the
why the WPI and CPI inflation indicators combined weight of 24.4 per cent
yield different results in measuring (Food articles and Manufactured
inflation? Food products) in WPI basket.
1. CPI measures inflation down to the The CPI basket consists of services
retail consumer level unlike WPI like housing, education, medical care,
where prices used for compilation recreation etc. which are not part of
are collected at ex-factory level or WPI basket. A significant proportion
production stage. of WPI item basket represents
2. The CPI basket consists of services manufacturing inputs and
like housing, education, medical care, intermediate goods like minerals,
recreation etc. which are not part of basic metals, machinery etc. whose
WPI basket. prices are influenced by global
3. A significant proportion of WPI item factors but these are not directly
basket represents manufacturing consumed by the households and are
inputs and intermediate goods which not part of the CPI item basket.
are not part of the CPI item basket. Thus even significant price
Choose the correct answer using the codes movements in items included in WPI
below: basket need not necessarily translate
a) 1 only into movements in CPI in the short
b) 1 and 2 only run. The rise or fall in prices at
c) 2 and 3 only wholesale level spill over to the retail
d) 1, 2 and 3 level after a lag.
Answer: d) Similarly, the movement in prices of
Learning: WPI reflects the change in average non-tradable items included in the
prices for bulk sale of commodities at CPI basket widens the gap between
the first stage of transaction while WPI and CPI movements. The relative
CPI reflects the average change in price trends of tradable vis a vis non-
prices at retail level paid by the tradable is an important explanatory
consumer. factor for divergence in the two
The prices used for compilation of WPI are indices in the short term.
collected at ex-factory level for
manufactured products, at ex-mine 73. Socio-economic Caste Census (SECC), 2011, is
level for mineral products and mandi a study of socio economic status of both
level for agricultural products. In rural and urban households coordinated by
contrast, retail prices applicable to the Department of Rural Development. SECC
consumers and collected from used explicit ‘inclusion’ and ‘exclusion’
various markets are used to compile criteria to rank households in the census.
CPI. Which of these is/are such inclusion criteria?
The reasons for the divergence between the 1. Possession of a Kisan Credit Card
two indices can also be partly 2. Manual scavenger families
attributed to the difference in the 3. Primitive tribal groups
weight of food group in the two Select the correct answer using the codes
baskets. CPI Food group has a weight below.

a) 2 only iv. Household member government
b) 2 and 3 only employee.
c) 1, 2 and 3 v. Households with non-agricultural
d) 1 and 3 only enterprises registered with
government.
Answer: b) vi. Any member of household earning more
Background: SECC-2011 is a study of socio than Rs. 10,000 per month.
economic status of rural and urban vii. Paying income tax.
households and allows ranking of viii. Paying professional tax.
households based on predefined ix. 3 or more rooms with pucca walls and
parameters. SECC 2011 has three roof.
census components which were x. Owns a refrigerator.
conducted by three separate xi. Owns landline phone.
authorities but under the overall xii. Owns more than 2.5 acres of irrigated
coordination of the Department of land with 1 irrigation equipment.
Rural Development in the xiii. 5 acres or more of irrigated land for two
Government of India. or more crop season.
Census in Rural Areas has been conducted by xiv. Owning at least 7.5 acres of land or more
the Department of Rural with at least one irrigation
Development (DoRD). Census in equipment.
Urban areas is under the Automatically included (based on fulfilling
administrative jurisdiction of the any of the 5 parameters of inclusion -
Ministry of Housing and Urban i. Households without shelter.
Poverty Alleviation (MoHUPA). ii. Destitute, living on alms.
Caste Census is under the administrative iii. Manual scavenger families.
control of the Ministry of Home iv. Primitive tribal groups.
Affairs: Registrar General of India v. Legally released bonded labour.
(RGI) and Census Commissioner of
India. 74. Which of the following surveys is/are
The Ministry of Rural Development conducted by National Sample Survey Office
commenced the Socio-Economic (NSSO) once in five years.
Caste Census-2011 on 29th June, 1. Debt and Investment
2011 through a comprehensive door 2. Employment – Unemployment
to door enumeration across the 3. Manufacturing Enterprises
country. 4. Land and Livestock Holding
Justification: Total Excluded Households 5. Service Sector Enterprises
(based on fulfilling any of the 14 Select the correct answer using the code
parameters of exclusion - given below
i. Motorized 2/3/4 wheeler/fishing boat. (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
ii. Mechanized 3-4 wheeler agricultural (b) 1, 4 and 5 only
equipment. (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
iii. Kisan credit card with credit limit of over (d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Rs. 50,000/-. Answer: D

NSSO is one of the national organization transfer payments increases spending
which is responsible for conduct of capacity and lead to increase in
large scale sample surveys in diverse demand. Thus, it further increases
fields on all-India basis.It comes inflation. Hence, statement 2 is
under Ministry of Statistics and incorrect.
Programme Implementation. Increase in government stimulus packages
NSSO conducts the surveys (once in 5 years) increases spending capacity and lead
on to increase in demand. Thus, it
o Consumer Expenditure, further increases inflation. Hence,
o Employment – Unemployment, statement 3 is incorrect.
o Social Consumption (Health, Education
etc.), 76, With regards to inflation targeting in India,
o Manufacturing Enterprises, which of the following statements is/are
o Service Sector Enterprises correct?
It conducts survey of Land and Livestock 1. The RBI solely determines the
Holding and Debt and Investment inflation target, in terms of the
(once in 10 years). Consumer Price Index, once in every
five years.
75. Which of the following is/are the measures 2. RBI’s flexible inflation targeting
to control the inflation? places price stability as the primary
1. Increasing the GST rates on commodities objective of the monetary policy.
2. Increasing the transfer payments 3. If the RBI fails to meet the inflation
3. Increase in government stimulus packages target, then a new monetary policy
Select the correct answers using the code committee will be formed to address
given below. the issue.
(a) 1 only 4. The monetary policy committee
(b) 2 only determines the policy interest rates
(c) 2 and 3 only required to achieve the inflation
(d) 1, 2 and 3 target.
Answer: A Select the correct answer using the code
Inflation is the increase in the prices of goods given below:
and services over time. Inflation is a) 1, 3 and 4 only
generally controlled by the Central b) 2 only
Bank and/or the government. The c) 2 and 4 only
main policy used is monetary policy – d) 2, 3 and 4 only
set by Central Banks. Increasing in
the GST rates on commodities reduce answer: c
demand, leading to lower economic Explanation: Option c is the correct answer.
growth and lower inflation. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect. The RBI Act provides
statement 1 is correct. for the inflation target to be set by
Transfer payments are the receipts which the the Government of India, in
residents of a country get for ‘free’, consultation with the Reserve Bank,
without having to provide any goods once in every five years. Accordingly,
or services in return. Thus, increasing the Central Government has notified

4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) d) 2 and 3 only
inflation as the target until the fiscal Answer: d
year 2025-26 with the upper Explanation: Option d is the correct answer.
tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the Money multiplier is a term in monetary
lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent. economics that is a phenomenon of
Statement 2 is correct. India formally creating money in the economy in
adopted flexible inflation targeting the form of credit creation, which is
(FIT) in June 2016 to place price based on the fractional reserve
stability, defined in terms of a target banking system.
CPI inflation, as the primary objective Statement 1 is incorrect: Cash Reserve Ratio
of the monetary policy. In May 2016, (CRR) is the share of a bank’s total
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, deposit that is mandated by the
1934 was amended to provide a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to be
statutory basis for the maintained with the latter as
implementation of the flexible reserves in the form of liquid cash.
inflation targeting framework. There are two main objectives of the Cash
Statement 3 is incorrect. If RBI fails to meet Reserve Ratio:
the inflation target, then it will have 1) Cash Reserve Ratio ensures that a part of
to explain the reason for its failure to the bank’s deposit is with the Central
meet the target as well as give a Bank and is hence, secure.
timeframe within which it will 2) Another objective of CRR is to keep
achieve the inflation target. inflation under control. During high
Statement 4 is correct. The amended RBI Act, inflation in the economy, RBI raises
1934 provides for an empowered six- the CRR to reduce the amount of
member monetary policy committee money left with banks to sanction
(MPC) to be constituted by the loans. It squeezes the money flow in
Central Government by notification in the economy, reducing investments
the Official Gazette. The MPC and bringing down inflation. Thus, an
determines the policy interest rate increase in CRR will lead to a
required to achieve the inflation decrease in the multiplier effect.
target. Statement 2 is correct: An increase in banking
activity will lead to more money in
77, Which among the following will most likely the bank’s hands in the form of Time
lead to an increase in the money multiplier Deposits, Demand Deposits etc, thus
in the economy? increase in banking habits of the
1. Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio people will increase the money
2. Increase in the banking habit of the people multiplier.
3. Decrease in bank rate Statement 3 is correct: Decreased repo rate
4. Increase in the repo rate and bank rate results in availability of
Select the correct answer using the codes cheaper loans to banks. This results
given below: in an increased money multiplier.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Statement 4 is incorrect: The repo rate is the
b) 2, 3 and 4 only interest rate at which the Reserve
c) 1 and 4 only Bank of India (RBI) loans money to

commercial banks. An increased repo (a) 1 and 2 only
rate means that banks borrowing (b) 2 only
money from the central bank during (c) 2 and 3 only
this period will have to pay more (d) 1, 2 and 3
interest. This inhibits banks from Answer: D
borrowing money, reducing the Direct tax with increased tax slabs could be
amount of money in the market and used to tax the richer population and
helping to negate inflation. Increasing reduces the income inequality.
the Repo rate makes the cost of the Hence, statement 1 is correct.
funds high for commercial banks and Direct benefit transfer help to reduce
leads to high interest rates on loans inequality by reducing leakages and
which leads to reduction in the empowering the poor.
money supply in market. Thus, a high Hence,statement 2 is correct.
repo rate reduces the money Priority sector lending is tool to provide
multiplier effect. formal credit to the weaker section.
Increasing Priority sector lending will
78, Which of the following may lead to inflation help in reducing inequality. Hence,
in the short-term in the Indian economy? statement 3 is correct.
1. Large scale government spending
2. Printing more currency 80, With reference to Geographical Indications
3. Sudden depreciation of rupee (GI), consider the following statements.
4. High interest rates 1. A GI is primarily an agricultural,
Choose the correct answer using the codes natural or a manufactured product
below: (handicrafts and industrial goods)
a) 3 and 4 only originating from a definite
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 geographical territory.
c) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Once the GI protection is granted, no
d) 1, 2 and 4 only other producer can misuse the name
Answer: c) to market similar products.
Justification: High interest rates actually 3. GI is covered as element of
subdue the demand in the economy. intellectual property rights (IPRs)
It leads to lower inflation. Rupee under Paris Convention for
depreciation will directly feed into Protection of Industrial Property.
the prices of imported commodities, 4. GI is governed by WTO’s Agreement
especially oil and gold leading to on Trade-Related Aspects of
higher inflation. Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
5. The Controller-General of Patents,
79. Which of the following measures does/do Designs and Trademarks, appointed
reduce income inequalities? under the Trademarks Act, 1999, is
1. Increased tax slabs in income tax the Registrar of Geographical
2. Introduction of Direct Benefit Transfer Indications in India.
3. Increasing Priority Sector lending Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
given below a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

b) 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only 81) With reference to the circumstances in
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Indian agriculture, the concept of
Answer: d) "Conservation Agriculture" assumes
Explanation: significance. Which of the following fall
A GI is primarily an agricultural, natural or a under the Conservation Agriculture?
manufactured product (handicrafts 1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
and industrial goods) originating from 2. Adopting minimum tillage
a definite geographical territory. 3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
Significance of a GI tag: Typically, such a 4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
name conveys an assurance of quality 5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop
and distinctiveness, which is sequencing/crop rotations
essentially attributable to the place Select the correct answer using the code
of its origin. given below:
Security: Once the GI protection is granted, a) 1, 3 and 4
no other producer can misuse the b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
name to market similar products. It c) 2, 4 and 5
also provides comfort to customers d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
about the authenticity of that
product. Answer: c
Provisions in this regard: GI is covered as an Exp) Option c is correct.
element of intellectual property Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming
rights (IPRs) under Paris Convention system that can prevent losses of
for Protection of Industrial Property. arable land while regenerating
At international level, GI is governed by degraded lands.
WTO’s Agreement on Trade-Related It promotes maintenance of a permanent soil
Aspects of Intellectual Property cover, minimum soil disturbance
Rights (TRIPS). In India, Geographical (minimum tillage) and diversification
Indications of Goods (Registration of plant species.
and Protection Act), 1999 governs it.
Namma Kolhapuri chappal recently 82) With reference to the agricultural practice of
got a GI boost. apiculture, consider the following
The approval for GI tag was jointly received statements.
by Karnataka and Maharashtra 1. Harvesting honey is normally done
recently for making these chappals. every month throughout the year.
There is a perception that these artisans are 2. Bee-keeping practice is not bound by
from Maharashtra alone, but a large the locational factor.
number of them are from Karnataka, 3. Apis Indica is one of the most
and have been making these common bee species reared in India.
chappals for centuries. Which of the statements given above is/are
These leather chappals are hand-crafted and correct?
tanned using vegetable dyes. The art a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
of making them is passed down one c) 3 only d) 1 ,2 and 3
generation to another. Answer: c

Exp) Option c is correct. 1. The inland capture fish production
Apiculture is the process of beekeeping, today is at least ten times of that of
involving all aspects of the sector: the 1950 production levels.
knowledge of bees, bee 2. Brackish waters and estuaries are the
products,their uses and markets, largest source of inland fisheries due
trade and equipment fabrication to their larger combined area than
Honey and wax are the two other inland water bodies in India.
economically important products of Which of the above is/are correct?
bee keeping. a) 1 only
Statement 1 is incorrect. b) 2 only
Harvesting the honey is done by smoking the c) Both 1 and 2
bees off the parts which needs to be d) None
harvested and cut the combs
carefully. Solution: d)
Harvests are normally possible during and Justification: Statement 1: The inland capture
shortly after the two main flowering fish production has increased from
seasons, namely October/November 192,000
and February-June. tonnes in 1950 to 781,846 tonnes in 2007.
It takes four to six months for a new hive to Fisheries play a vital role in the
produce enough honey to harvest. economy of the
Many expert beekeepers recommend country with the practice contributing about
not to harvest any honey from a new 1.07 per cent to the GDP (Gross
hive until it has successfully made it Domestic
through one winter Statement 2 is Product). Fisheries in India makes up to 5.3
incorrect. Selection of suitable per cent to agriculture and allied
location for keeping the beehives is activities.
very important point to remembered Statement 2: Inland fisheries is also a vital
in bee-keeping. Bee-keeping can be part of fisheries in India. India’s
practiced in any area where there are freshwater
sufficient bee pastures of some wild resources consist of:
shrubs, fruit orchards and cultivated Rivers and canals (197,024 km).
crops. Reservoirs (3.15 million hectares).
Statement 3 is correct.Apis Indica is also Ponds and tanks (235 million hectares).
referred to as the Indian bee. It can Oxbow lakes and derelict waters (1.3 million
be easily domesticated and is most hectares).
commonly used for honey production Brackish waters (1.24 million hectares) and
in India. The annual yield of honey is estuaries (0.29 million hectares).
2 to 5 kg per colony.
84) Consider the following statements with
reference to various agricultural practices:
83. Inland fisheries is a vital part of fisheries in 1. Two or more varieties of seeds are
India. Consider the following with reference mixed before sowing in Inter-
to this. cropping.

2. Growing wheat and gram on the maize. The intercropped crop serves
same land at the same time is called as a cover crop for the soil to control
mixed farming. weed and reduce erosion.
3. Use of Global positioning system Statement 2 is incorrect. Mixed
(GPS) is a part of Precision farming. cropping (not mixed farming) is the
4. Monocultural cropping pollutes cultivation of two or more types of
groundwater supplies due to crops on a piece of land at the same
extensive use of fertilizers. time, thereby fully utilizing the land.
Which of the above options/statements Example is planting maize with
is/are correct? cassava or yam, or banana etc.
a) 1 and 2 only A time a crop is planted to enrich the
b) 3 and 4 only soil and the neighbouring plant, e.g.;
c) 1, 3 and 4 only planting legumes, beans or
d) 2, 3 and 4 only groundnut with cereal crops like corn
etc. The legumes add nutrient to the
Answer: b soil, thereby improving the soil
Exp) Option b is correct. nutrient.
Sustainable agriculture incorporates In mixed farming, crop production,
many environmentally safe agricultural allied activities, and
agricultural practices and offers animal rearing is practiced side by
innovative and economically viable side so that their mutual benefits
opportunities for the stakeholders. could be harnessed. E.g. in India
Cropping systems refer to the cattle dung is used as manure and in
different patterns of growing or times of low productivity, these cattle
cultivating different crops and the could be used for milk, meat, etc. It
methods employed in the production ensures regular income for farmers.
of different crop during the planting Statement 3 is correct. Precision
season. agriculture is a crop and livestock
Statement 1 is incorrect. Seeds are production management system that
sown in separate rows in uses a global positioning system
intercropping, in a specific sequence. (GPS) to monitor equipment field
In contrast, there is no such order position to collect information and
followed in the case of mixed apply inputs as required at each
cropping. The seeds are combined location. Precision farming is an
properly and mixed in the field in the approach to farm management that
case of mixed cropping. uses information technology (IT) to
Conversely, no such mixing is done in ensure that the crops and soil receive
intercropping, before sowing them. exactly what they need for optimum
Intercropping is a form of mixed health and productivity. It is an
cropping system whereby quick approach where inputs are utilised in
growing and early maturing crops are precise amounts to get increased
planted between slow growing and average yields,compared to
late maturing crops. Example is traditional cultivation techniques.
planting yam and water melon or The goal of Precision farming is to

ensure profitability,sustainability and Exp) Option b is correct.
protection of the environment. Oil palm is a native of West Africa
The approach includes accessing real- and popularly known as African oil
time data about the conditions of the palm or red oil palm. Malaysia,
crops, soil and ambient air, along Indonesia and Nigeria are the leading
with other relevant information such producers of oil palm. It is known to
as hyper-local weather predictions, be the highest edible oil yielding
labor costs and equipment perennial crop.
availability. Palm oil has good consumer
Statement 4 is correct. Monoculture acceptance as cooking medium
farming is a form of agriculture that is because of its price advantage. It has
based on growing only one type of a also a variety of uses, ranging from
crop at one time on a specific field. edible oil, cosmetics, pharmaceuticals
E.g. Paddy and wheat cultivation. to bio-fuel and bio-lubricant.
Excessive use of synthetic chemicals Statement 1 is incorrect. Agro-
in Monoculture farming leaves traces climatic conditions for oil palm
on plants intended for consumption cultivation in is well suited in India
and are also regularly overused. because:
Excessive use means that a large 1) Oil palm is a humid tropical crop
quantity of synthetic material is left and thrives best in the areas where
in the soil after harvest. As the temperature ranges from 20°C to
material is not organic it can cause 33°C.
great harm to the soil. Rather than 2) Generally, oil palms can be grown
being processed into organic matter on wide range of soils.
by microorganisms, it will enter soil The Committees constituted by
polluting groundwater supplies. Department of Agriculture,
Cooperation and Farmers Welfare
85) Which of the following are among the major (DAC&FW) have identified 19.33 lakh
constraints in oil palm cultivation in India? ha area suitable for oil palm
1. Agro-climatic conditions suitable for cultivation in 19 states of the country
oil palm cultivation in India is limited. including 2.18 lakh ha area in North
2. Oil palm has a long gestation period Eastern States.
and restricts income flow to farmers. Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
3. Small holdings of farmers with Constraints in Oil Palm cultivation are
limited resources. 1) Oil palm has a long gestation
4. Competition with other economically period and restricts income flow to
viable crops. farmers for at least
Select the correct answer using the code 2) 4-5 years.
given below. 3) Small holdings of farmers with
a) 1 and 3 only limited resources.
b) 2, 3 and 4 only 4) Competition with other
c) 2 and 3 only economically viable crops such as
d) 1, 2 and 4 rubber, arecanut, sugarcane, banana,
Answer: b coconut etc.

powers to their Boards to take
86. Government of India has accorded financial decisions.
‘Maharatna’ status to public sector Boards of these PSUs can make equity
undertaking’s (PSU’s) Hindustan Petroleum investments to undertake financial
Corporation Limited (HPCL) and Power Grid joint ventures (JV) and wholly owned
Corporation. What is the criteria for such an subsidiaries and undertake mergers
accord? and acquisitions (M&A) in India as
1. It can be given to only those Central well as abroad. This is however
Public Sector Enterprises which subjected to a ceiling of 15% of net
already have a Navratna status. worth of concerned CPSE, limited to
2. It must be listed on Indian stock Rs 5,000 crore in one project.
exchange with minimum prescribed The Boards can also structure and implement
public shareholding under SEBI schemes relating to personnel as well
regulations. as human resource management and
3. It should have an average annual training.
turnover of more than Rs. 5,000 Holding companies of a ‘Maharatna’ PSU are
crore, during the last 5 years. also empowered to float fresh equity,
Select the correct answer using the codes transfer assets, divest shareholding in
below. subsidiaries, but are subjected to
a) 2 and 3 only condition that the delegation will
b) 1, 2 and 3 only only be in respect of subsidiaries set
c) 1 and 2 only up by holding company.
d) 3 only
87. With reference to the Open Acreage
Solution: c) Licensing Policy (OALP), consider the
Justification: Criteria for grant of Maharatna following statements.
status: 1. The OALP is a part of the
Shall be given to CPSEs: Hydrocarbon Exploration and
Having Navratna status. Licensing Policy.
Listed on Indian stock exchange with 2. It provides uniform licences for
minimum prescribed public exploration and production of all
shareholding under SEBI regulations. forms of hydrocarbons.
Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 3. Competitive bidding for public owned
25,000 crore, during the last 3 years. oil blocks has been done away with
Average annual net worth of more than Rs. under OALP.
15,000 crore, during the last 3 years. Which of the above is/are correct?
Average annual net profit after tax of more a) 1 and 2 only
than Rs. 5,000 crore, during the last 3 b) 2 only
years. c) 3 only
Should have significant global d) 1, 2 and 3
presence/international operations. Solution: a)
Impact: The OALP, a critical part of the
This will impart greater operational and Hydrocarbon Exploration and
financial autonomy thus enhancing Licensing Policy, provides uniform

licences for exploration and
production of all forms of 88. Consider the following statements regarding
hydrocarbons, enabling contractors “National Pharmaceuticals Pricing
to explore conventional as well as Authority” (NPPA):
unconventional oil and gas resources. 1. It is under ministry of health and
Fields are offered under a revenue- family welfare
sharing model and throw up 2. It fixes/revises the prices of
marketing and pricing freedom for controlled drugs
crude oil and natural gas produced. 3. It implements the provisions of Drug
Under the OALP, once an explorer Price Control Order (DPCO)
selects areas after evaluating the Select the correct answer using the code
National Data Repository (NDR) and given below:
submits the EoI, it is to be put up for (a) 1 only
competitive bidding and the entity (b) 1 & 3 only
offering the maximum share of oil (c) 2 & 3 only
and gas to the government is (d) All of the above
awarded the block. Answer (c)
NDR has been created to provide Drug Price Control Orders (DPCOs)
explorers’ data on the country’s are issued by the Government, in
repositories, allowing them to choose exercise of the powers conferred
fields according to their capabilities. under section 3 of the Essential
Data received through the National Commodities Act 1955 to ensure that
Seismic Programme, an in-depth the medicines listed under National
study of 26 sedimentary basins, are List of Essential Medicines (NELM)
continuously being added to the are available at a reasonable price to
NDR. the general public. The National List
Learning: The Hydrocarbon of Essential Medicines (NELM),
Exploration and Licensing Policy prepared by Ministry of Health and
(HELP) replacing the erstwhile New Family Welfare, is a list of medicines
Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP) considered essential and high priority
was approved in March 2016 and the for India’s health needs. It is based on
Open Acreage Licensing Programme aspects like prevalence of disease in
(OALP) along with the National Data the population, safety and efficacy of
Repository (NDR) were launched in the medicine, and current
June 2017 as the key drivers to affordability.
accelerate the Exploration and National Pharmaceuticals Pricing
Production (E&P) activities in India. Authority (NPPA) is an independent
The main features of HELP are body of experts constituted by
Revenue Sharing Contract, single Government of India Resolution
Licence for exploration and in1997, is under department of
production of conventional as well as pharmaceuticals, ministry of
unconventional Hydrocarbon chemicals and fertilizers. NPPA is
resources, marketing & pricing responsible for fixing and revising the
freedom, etc. prices of pharmaceutical products

and availability of the medicines in The Zero Defect, Zero Effect (ZED)
the country as well as the scheme was launched in October
enforcement of DPCO. The 2016 to ensure that all the MSMEs
organization is also entrusted with are delivering top quality product and
the task of recovering amounts using clean technology. This means
overcharged by manufacturers for the public will now onwards be able
the controlled drugs from the to use clean technology products and
consumers. It also monitors the they will also set parameters that are
prices of decontrolled drugs in order specific to each industry. The main
to keep them at reasonable levels. purpose of the scheme is to match
For regulating the prices, the ceiling the global quality control standards.
prices are determined based on The ZED scheme is the cornerstone of
market-based pricing method, as the the Make in India project which aims
maximum mark-up that a retailer can to turn India into a manufacturing
charge over the reference price, hub and generate jobs and increase
which is the simple average of the incomes and boost the overall
prices of the all the brands with economy of the country.
market share of greater than or equal
to 1 per cent based on market data 90. Consider the following with reference to the
provided by IMS Health, a market Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce
research firm. and Industry (FICCI).
1. It is a pre-independent industry
89. Consider the following statements regarding association.
the "Zero Defect, Zero Effect (ZED)" scheme: 2. It is a not-for-profit organisation.
1. The scheme is for MSME sector 3. The Indian National Congress (INC)
2. It ensures producing high-quality initially boycotted the organization
manufacturing products due to its capitalist foundations.
3. It ensures minimal negative impact 4. It is presently headquartered in
on environment. Mumbai.
4. It is a cornerstone of the flagship Select the correct answer using the codes
Make in India Programme below.
Select the correct answer using the code a) 1 only
given below: b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 & 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 & 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 & 3 only Solution: b)
(d) All of the above Statement 1 and 3: Established in
1927, on the advice of Mahatma
Answer (d) Gandhi by GD Birla and Purushottam
Micro Small and Medium Enterprises Das Thakurdas, it is the largest, oldest
(MSMEs) sector is crucial for the and the apex business organisation in
economic progress of India, and it India.
must match global quality control Statement 2: It is a non-government,
standards. not-for-profit organisation. FICCI

draws its membership from the 1. Marine product exports from India
corporate sector, both private and faced an all-time high during 2021-
public, including SMEs and MNCs. 22.
Statement 4: It is headquartered in 2. The United States of America has
the national capital New Delhi and remained the top destination for
has presence in 12 states in India and seafood export from India inthe past
8 countries across the world. It is decade.
involved in sector specific business Which of the statements given above is/are
policy consensus building, and correct?
business promotion and networking. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
91. Consider the following about “Core (c) Both 1 and 2
Industries” in India. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Eight Core Industries comprise Ans: c
over 50% of the weight in the items EXPLANATION:
included in the Index of Industrial India is among the top 5 fish
Production (IIP). exporting countries in the world.
2. Among all core industries, coal sector About 17% of India's agricultural
has the highest weightage. exportsare fish and fish products.
Select the correct answer using the codes Despite the sector's difficult
below. circumstances, India's marine
a) 1 only product exportsreached an all-time
b) 2 only high of US$ 7,740 million in 2021-22.
c) Both 1 and 2 The Department of Commerce,
d) None of the above Government ofIndia, set a target of
US$ 7809 million for this sector for
Solution: d) 2021-22, and marine products
Justification: Statement 1: The Eight exports met99.12% of that objective.
Core Industries comprise 40.27 per In US dollar terms, the observed
cent of the weight of items included growth is 30% higher than in 2020-
in the Index of Industrial Production 21. Overthe last decade, seafood
(IIP). So, 1 is wrong. exports' Compound Annual Growth
Statement 2: Weightage: Petroleum Rate (CAGR)has been 8.23%.So,
Refinery production (weight: Statement 1 is correct.
28.04%), Electricity generation During 2021-2022, India exported
(19.85%), Steel production (17.92%), marine products to 121 countries.
Coal production (10.33%), Crude Oil The USA continues to be the
production (8.98%), Natural Gas topdestination for exports this fiscal
production (6.88%),Cement year. The USA has remained the top
production (5.37%), Fertilizers destination for seafood export forthe
production (2.63%). past 11 years. The target fixed for the
USA market during the fiscal year was
92.) Consider the following statements : US$ 3021 million, andthe
achievement is US$ 3315 million.

The USA, China and Japan are the top urea diversion for industrial reasons.
3 favourite destinations for Indian So, Statement 1 is correct.
marine exports. Exports tothese According to the Ministry of
three countries contributed 63% of Chemicals and Fertilizers scheme, all
our exports in US$ value terms.The fertiliser bags, irrespective of
top destinations followed byVietnam, theircontents or the company that
Thailand, Spain, Canada, Italy, UAE, manufactures them, will bear a
and Belgium. The top 5 countries consistent brand name named
contributed 70% ofexports, and the "Bharat." Thebrand name will be
top 10 countries contributed 82% of associated with the name of the
total marine exports in U$ value government system that provides
terms.So,Statement 2 is correct. subsidies to fertilisermanufacturers.
As a result, a urea bag will be labelled
93.) Consider the following statements with Bharat Urea, while a DAP (di-
reference to the ‘One Nation One Fertilizer’ ammonium phosphate) bag will
scheme : belabelled as Bharat DAP. Like any
1. It aims to reduce the crisscross other business, Fertiliser firms
movement of fertilizers to reduce advertise their products under
freight subsidies. theirbrands. As a mass-market
2. Under the scheme, it is voluntary for product category, Fertilisers feature
fertilizer companies to market their colourful brand names such as
goods under the brandname "Kisan"and "Paras" that are also
"Bharat". easily recognisable.This scheme is
3. India is the first country to launch the mandatory and applies to both public
commercial production of Nano Urea. & private sector companies.So,
Which of the statements given above is/are Statement 2 is not correct.
correct? India became world’s first country
(a) 1 and 3 only which started commercial production
(b) 2 and 3 only of Nano Urea. IFFCO Nano Ureais the
(c) 1 only only Nano fertilizer approved by the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Government of India and included in
EXPLANATION:option a is correct the Fertilizer Control Order(FCO).It is
The concept of 'One Nation, One developed and Patented by IFFCO.
Fertiliser' is to have a single brand Application of 1 bottle of Nano Urea
name for urea and other can effectively replaceat least 1 bag
fertilisersrather than many company of Urea. So, Statement 3 is correct.
brand names.The scheme aims to
reduce freight expenses by 94.) Consider the following statements with
minimisingcriss-cross movement of reference to the National Technical Textiles
fertilisers, loweringtransit time, Mission :
assuring fertiliser supply throughout 1. Its focusis to promote the usage of
the year regardless of brand technical textiles in various flagship
preferences, and preventing missions and programs,including
strategic sectors in India.

2. It is a flagship initiative of NITI Aayog. Promotion of innovation amongst
3. It has been approved with a four-year young engineering/ technology/
implementation period from FY 2020- science standards and graduates;
21 to 2023-24. along with the creation of innovation
Which of the statements given above is/are and incubation centres and
correct? promotion of "start-ups" and
(a) 1 and 2 only "ventures".
(b) 2 only So, Statement 1 is correct.
(c) 1 and 3 only The National Technical Textiles
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Mission is the initiative of the
Ans: c Ministry of Textiles and not by NITI
EXPLANATION: Aayog.So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Technical Textiles is an advanced National Technical Textiles Mission
technology-backed sunrise sector (NTTM) has been approved with a
which is steadily gaining ground in four-year implementation
India. Technical textiles are functional periodfrom FY 2020-21 to 2023-24,
fabrics that have applications across with a budget of Rs.1480 crores.
various industries including The mission aims to position India as
automobiles, civil engineering and a global leader in Technical Textiles
construction, agriculture, healthcare, by increasing the domesticmarket
industrial safety, personal protection size from USD 40 billion to USD 50
etc.The Cabinet Committee for billion by 2024 and by the year 2024
Economic Affairs (CCEA) approved with an average growthrate of 15-
The National Technical Textile 20% per annum. So, Statement 3 is
Mission in2020 to position the correct.
country as a global leader in technical
textiles and increase the usage of 95.) Consider the following statements with
technicaltextiles in the domestic reference to the Electronics System Design
market. The objectives of this mission and Manufacturing (ESDM) Industry in India:
are, 1. Currently, India is the largest
Improve the Penetration level of consumer of electronic products in
technical textiles in the country and the world.
upgrade the skill sets of the 2. National Policy on Electronics 2019
workforce. aims to facilitate a turnover of US$
Promote usage of technical textiles 400 billion in domestic manufacturing
in various flagship missions, by 2025.
programmes including strategic 3. A present, India is the second largest
sectors in India. mobile handsets manufacturer in the
Develop indigenous machinery and world.
process equipment for technical Which of the statements given above is/are
textiles to promote "Make in India" correct?
and enable competitiveness of the (a) 1 and 3 only
industry. (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:opton c is correct (c) 1 only
India is one of the largest consumers (d) 1 and 3 only
of electronic products in the Asia- Ans: b
Pacific region. The third largeststart- EXPLANATION: The Primary Agricultural
up hub coupled with strong research credit societies (PACS) are a village-
& development (R&D) ecosystem. level institution that works with
Soon it will be the fifth- ruralresidents directly. It encourages
largestconsumer of electronic farmers to save, receives their
products by only 2025 and thus deposits, makes loans to
currently, it is not the world’s suitableborrowers, and collects
largestconsumer ofelectronic repayments.
products. So, Statement 1 is not PACS generally provide the following
correct. facilities to their members:
The Indian government's National Input facilities in form of cash or
Policy on Electronics (NPE 2019) aims kind component.
to facilitate a turnover of US$400 Agriculture implements on hiring
billion in domestic manufacturing by basis.
2025. The addressable market for Storage facility
domestic Original PACS constitute India's lowest tier
EquipmentManufacturers is of the three-tier Short-term
projected to be >Rs. 10 lakh crore cooperative credit (STCC) in India.The
(US$ USD 131.99 billion) by 2025. So, other two tiers are State Cooperative
Statement 2is correct. Banks (SCB) and District Central
Currently, India is the second largest Cooperative Banks(DCCB). So,
mobile handsets manufacturer in the Statement 1 is not correct.
world with regards to thevolume The Primary Agricultural credit
produced, amounting to 30 crores societies (PACS) are outside the
(300 million) in FY21. So, Statement 3 purview of the Banking Regulation
is correct. Act of1949.
The Primary Agricultural Cooperative
96.) Consider the following statements with credit societies is regulated by
reference to the Primary Agriculture Credit National Bank for Agricultural
Societies (PACS) : andRural Development (NABARD)
1. PACS constitutes the highest tier of under Sec 35 (6) of the Banking
the three-tier short-term cooperative Regulation Act (As Applicable
credit in India. toCooperative Societies), and hence
2. PACS are outside the purview of the the Reserve Bank of India does not
Banking Regulation Act 1949. regulate it. So, Statement 2 iscorrect.
3. PACS cannot provide Long-term The rural co-operative credit system
agricultural loans. in India is primarily mandated to
Which of the statements given above is/are ensure flow of credit to
correct? theagriculture sector. It comprises
(a) 2 only short-term and long-term co-

operative credit structures. The The scheme covers post-harvest
short-termco-operative credit management projects like supply
structure operates with a three-tier chain services, including e-
system - Primary Agricultural Credit marketingplatforms, warehouses,
Societies(PACS) at the village level, silos, pack-houses, assaying units,
Central Cooperative Banks (CCBs) at sorting & grading units, cold chain,
the district level and State logisticsfacilities, primary processing
CooperativeBanks (StCBs) at the State centres, ripening chambers and other
level. PACS cannot provide Long-term viable projects for building
agricultural loans. It only provide communityfarming assets such as
shortterm agriculture loans. So, organic input production, bio
Statement 3 is correct. stimulant production units,
infrastructure for smartand precision
97.) Consider the following statements with agriculture, supply chain
reference to the National Agriculture Infra infrastructure for clusters of crops
Financing Facility including exports clusters
1. The scheme covers both pre-harvest etc.Advanced processing activities
and post-harvest management are not a part of the Scheme. So,
projects. Statement 2 is correct
2. Advanced processing activities are The Scheme will be operational from
not a part of the scheme. 2020-21 to 2032-33. However, the
3. The Scheme will be operational from loan disbursement period will
2020-21 to 2032-33. bebetween 2020-21 and 2025-26.
4. The scheme does not have a Interest subvention and credit
minimum or maximum loan cap. guarantee for the loan will be
How many statements given above is/are applicableonly for 7 years from the
correct? date of the first disbursement of the
(a) Only one statement loan. So, Statement 3 is correct.
(b) Only two statements The Scheme does not have a
(c) Only three statements minimum or maximum loan cap.
(d) All four statements However, an eligible beneficiary can
EXPLANATION:option c is correct obtainthe maximum benefit of a loan
The National Agriculture Infra of up to ₹ 2 crores per project.
Financing Facility scheme shall All loans under this financing
provide a medium - long-term debt facility will have an interest
financingfacility for investment in subvention of 3% per annum up to a
viable projects for post-harvest limit of₹ 2 crores. This subvention will
management Infrastructure and be available for a maximum period of
communityfarming assets through 7 years. In case of loans beyond₹ 2
interest subvention and financial crores, interest subvention will be
support. Thus, it does not cover pre- limited up to ₹ 2 crores.
harvestprojects. So, Statement 1 is The extent and percentage of
not correct. funding to private entrepreneurs out
of the total financing facility may

befixed by the National Monitoring India’strade competitiveness, create
Committee. So, Statement 4 is more jobs, improve India’s
correct. performance in global rankings and
pave the wayfor India to become a
98) Consider the following statements with logistics hub. This policy was
reference to the National Logistics Policy implemented to complement the PM
2022 : GatiShakti-National Master Plan
1. It aims to create a data-driven scheme. So, Statements 3 and 4 are
decision-support mechanism for an correct.
efficient logistics ecosystem.
2. It aims to reduce India's logistics cost 99) With reference to investment trusts in
to a level comparable to global India,consider the following statements:
benchmarks by 2030. 1. Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs)
3. It aims to make India among the top and Infrastructure Investment Trusts
25 countries by 2030 in the Logistics (InviTs) were launched in India by the
Performance Index. Reserve Bank of India.
4. It is formulated by the Ministry of 2. InviTs and REITs are similar to mutual
Commerce and Industry and is funds that pool money from
implemented in complement tothe investors, which helps in long-term
PM-Gati Shakti scheme. capital appreciation.
How many statements given above is/are 3. InvITs are more liquid compared to
correct? REITs.
(a) Only one statement Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two statements correct?
(c) Only three statements (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) All four statements (b) 2 only
EXPLANATION:option d is correct (c) 1 and 3 only
Recently, National Logistics Policy (d) 3 only
(NLP) was launched, which aims to EXPLANATION: option b is correct
lower the existing cost of logisticsin Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs)
India from the present 14% of GDP to and Infrastructure Investment Trusts
less than 10% on par with other (InvITs) were launched inIndia by the
developed country's Securities and Exchange Board of
globalbenchmarks by 2030 and to India (SEBI), not by the Reserve Bank
create a data-driven decision support of India. So,Statement 1 is not
mechanism for an efficient correct.
logisticsecosystem. So, Statements 1 Real Estate Investment Trusts or
and 2 are correct. REITs and Infrastructure Investment
This policy also targeted to improve Trusts or InvITs are similar tomutual
India’s ranking in Logistics funds that pool investors’ money and
Performance Index to be among the offer a regular income (dividends)
top 25countries by 2030. And it was which helps in long-termcapital
formulated by the Ministry of appreciation. So, Statement 2 is
Commerce and Industry will improve correct.

Real Estate Investment Trusts (b) Only two statements
(REITs) and Infrastructure Investment (c) Only three statements
Trusts (InvITs) are traded overthe (d) All four statements
stock exchange. Recently, SEBI, a EXPLANATION:option c is correct
market regulator, amended REITs and Plant Genetic Resources for Food and
InvITs regulations, as thetrading lot Agriculture (PGRFA) provides scale-
size of REITs has been reduced from free solutions to achieve foodand
around 200 units to 1 unit. nutritional security and climate-
Hence, it makes easy entry and resilient agriculture. Countries are
brings in more liquidity through mutually interdependent for
increased trading volumes, thePGRFA, leading to the need for a
allowingretail investors to access global system to facilitate access and
investment options easily. And profit sharing.So, Statement 1
smaller minimum trading quantities iscorrect.
(nominimum amount that is needed The International Treaty on Plant
to trade in the stock market) make Genetic Resources for Food and
REITs more liquid than InvITs. Agriculture was adopted by the
Infrastructure Investment Trusts Thirty-First Session of the Conference
(InvITs) is alarge trading lots (refers to of the Food and Agriculture
the number of shares boughtin one Organization of the United Nations
transaction), and the higher unit on 3November 2001.So, Statement 2
price of InvITs, makes them less is correct.
liquid. REITs are more liquidsince The ITPGRFA is a legally binding
they have a lower unit price than comprehensive agreement signed
InvITs.Therefore, InvITs are not more during the 31st session of the
liquid compared to REITs. So, UnitedNations Food and Agriculture
Statement 3 is not correct. Organization (FAO) in Rome in
November 2001, which took effect on
100) Consider the following statements with 29June 2004, and currently has 149
reference to the International Treaty on Contracting Parties, including
Plant GeneticResources for Food and India.Thusthe treaty is legally
Agriculture : binding,and India is Contracting
1. It provides solutions to achieve food Party.So, Statement 3 is not correct
and nutritional security as well as and Statement 4 is correct.
climate-resilient agriculture.
2. It was adopted by the Food and 101) Consider the following statements regarding
Agriculture Organization of the Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN)
United Nations in 2001. code.
3. It is not a legally binding treaty. 1. It is a multipurpose international
4. India is a Contracting Party to this product nomenclature developed by
agreement. the World Trade Organization (WTO).
How many statements given above is/are 2. It was developed with the vision of
correct? facilitating the classification of goods
(a) Only one statement

all over the World in a systematic guidance of the Board for Financial
manner. Supervision (BFS).
3. In India, HSN codes apply to Customs 2. It undertakes supervision of
and GST. Scheduled Commercial and Co-
Which of the above statements is/are operative Banks, Small Finance Banks
correct? and Payments Banks.
a) 1, 2 3. The Board is chaired by the Deputy
b) 2, 3 Governor of RBI.
c) 1, 3 Which of the above statements is/are
d) 1, 2, 3 correct?
Solution: b) a) 1 only
• HSN stands for Harmonised System of b) 1, 2
Nomenclature code. It is mandatory c) 2, 3
for both B2B and B2C tax invoices on d) 1, 3
the supplies of Goods and Services. Solution: b)
• This was introduced in 1988 by the The Reserve Bank of India performs
World Customs Organization (WCO). the supervisory function under the
This was introduced for a systematic guidance of the Board for Financial
classification of goods both national Supervision (BFS). The Board was
and international. This is a 6-digit constituted in November 1994 as a
code that classifies various products. committee of the Central Board of
India has been using HSN codes since Directors of the Reserve Bank of India
1986 to classify commodities for under the Reserve Bank of India
Customs and Central Excise. (Board for Financial Supervision)
• HSN codes apply to Customs and Regulations, 1994.
GST. The codes prescribed in the The primary objective of BFS is to
Customs tariff are used for the GST undertake consolidated supervision
purposes too. HSN is used all over the of the financial sector comprising
world. There are different HSN codes Scheduled Commercial and Co-
for various commodities. operative Banks, All India Financial
• HSN codes remove the need to Institutions, Local Area Banks, Small
upload details about the goods which Finance Banks, Payments Banks,
makes filing of GST returns Credit Information Companies, Non-
easier.HSN code is required for Banking Finance Companies and
anything from animal products, Primary Dealers.
mineral products, plastic articles to The Board is constituted by co-opting
footwear, arms and ammunition and four Directors from the Central Board
machinery. as Members and is chaired by the
Governor. The Deputy Governors of
102) Consider the following statements regarding the Reserve Bank are ex-officio
Board for Financial Supervision. members. One Deputy Governor,
1. The Reserve Bank of India performs traditionally, the Deputy Governor in
the supervisory function under the charge of supervision, is nominated
as the Vice-Chairman of the Board.

103) In India, Microcredit is delivered through Which of the above statements is/are
which of the following channels? correct?
1. Microfinance institutions (MFIs) a) 1, 3
registered as NBFCs b) 1, 2
2. Non-banking financial companies c) 2 only
(NBFCs) d) 2, 3
3. Scheduled commercial banks Solution: b)
including small finance banks (SFBs). Public Account of India accounts for
4. Cooperative banks flows for those transactions where
Select the correct answer code: the government is merely acting as a
a) 1, 2 banker. This fund was constituted
b) 1, 2, 3 under Article 266 (2) of the
c) 2, 3, 4 Constitution.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 Examples of those are provident
Solution: d) funds, small savings and so on. These
Microfinance is a form of financial funds do not belong to the
service which provides small loans government. They have to be paid
and other financial services to poor back at some time to their rightful
and low-income households. owners. Because of this nature of the
Microcredit is delivered through a fund, expenditures from it are not
variety of institutional channels viz., required to be approved by the
(i) scheduled commercial banks Parliament
(SCBs)(including small finance banks
(SFBs) and regional rural banks 105) Consider the following statements regarding
(RRBs)) lending both directly as w ell Currency Swap Agreement.
as through business correspondents 1. A currency swap is a transaction in
(BCs) and self-help groups (SHGs), (ii) which two parties exchange an
cooperative banks, (iii) non-banking equivalent amount of money with
financial companies (NBFCs), and (iv) each other but in different
microfinance institutions (MFIs) currencies.
registered as NBFCs as well as in 2. Currency swap agreements between
other forms. countries help in reducing its reliance
on the International Monetary Fund.
104) Consider the following statements regarding 3. Currency swap agreement will help a
Public Account of India. country tide over its foreign exchange
1. Public Account of India accounts for crisis.
those transactions where the Union Which of the above statements is/are
government acts as a banker. correct?
2. Expenditures from Public Account of a) 1, 2
India does not require the approval b) 1, 3
of the parliament. c) 2, 3
3. State provident funds and small d) 1, 2, 3
savings deposits are outside the Solution: d)
preview of Public Account of India.

A currency swap is a transaction in address proximate threats; and
which two parties exchange an increase public awareness of the
equivalent amount of money with species. The project is to be
each other but in different implemented from 2022 to 2027.
currencies. The parties are essentially According to the order, there are
loaning each other money and will multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr
repay the amounts at a specified date in Tamil Sangam literature dating
and exchange rate. The purpose back to 2,000 years. The late
could be to hedge exposure to Mesolithic (10,000-4,000 BC)
exchange-rate risk, to speculate on paintings highlight the significance of
the direction of a currency, or to the Tahr in folklore, culture and life.
reduce the cost of borrowing in a It was designated as the State animal
foreign currency. Currency swap in recognition of its ecological and
agreements between countries help cultural significance.
in reducing its reliance on the The animal is endemic to the
International Monetary Fund. Western Ghats. It is protected under
Schedule-I of the Wildlife (Protection)
106) Consider the following statements. Act of India, 1972.
1. The Tamil Nadu government recently It is an endangered species and the
launched Nilgiri Tahr conservation sole Caprinae species found in the
project, an initiative for the tropical mountains of southern India.
conservation of the Nilgiri Tahr. The animal inhabits meadows with
2. There are multiple references to the steep cliffs at elevations between 300
Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam metres and 2,600 metre above sea
literature. level. It is estimated that there are
3. Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered species, 3,122 Nilgiri Tahrs in the wild.
endemic to western ghats.
Which of the above statement sis/are 107) Consider the following statements.
correct? 1. Signatories to the Convention on
a) 1, 2 Biological Diversity (CBD) meet
b) 1, 3 annually to work on a global plan to
c) 2, 3 halt biodiversity loss and restore
d) 1, 2, 3 natural ecosystems.
Solution: d) 2. The 15th Conference of the Parties to
Tamil Nadu government launched the Convention on Biological
Nilgiri Tahr conservation project, an Diversity (CBD) delivered a new
initiative for the conservation of the agreement called the Global
Nilgiri Tahr, the State animal. Biodiversity Framework (GBF), which
Under the Nilgiri Tahr project, the contains goals and targets that need
government plans to develop a better to be achieved by 2030.
understanding of the Nilgiri Tahr 3. Convention on Biological Diversity
population through surveys and radio (CBD) was the outcome of the 1992
telemetry studies; reintroduce the Rio Earth Summit.
Tahrs to their historical habitat;

Which of the above statements is/are 2. It is constituted almost wholly of
correct? methane.
a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 3. One of the main drawbacks of LNG is
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 that it cannot be easily transported
Solution: c) around the world by ships.
A major international environmental Which of the above statements is/are
conference has just concluded in correct?
Montreal, Canada, promising to take a) 1, 2 b) 2 only
urgent action to protect and restore c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3
the world’s biodiversity. Solution: b)
Signatories to the Convention on LNG is natural gas reduced to a liquid state
Biological Diversity (CBD), a 1993 (liquefaction) through intense cooling
agreement, meet every two years — to around -161 degreesCelsius (-259
not annually like the climate Fahrenheit). This liquid gas is 600
meetings — to work on a global plan times smaller than the original
to halt biodiversity loss and restore volume and is half the weight of
natural ecosystems. The Montreal water.
meeting was the 15th edition of this The compressed fossil fuel, which is
conference, hence the name COP15 constituted almost wholly of
— or the 15thConference of the methane— a potent greenhouse gas
Parties to the CBD. —, can be transported around the
The Montreal Conference has world by ship. After arriving at its
delivered a new agreement called the destination, the cargo is regasified in
Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), a floating terminal and redistributed
which contains four goals and 23 through pipelines. But despite LNG’s
targets that need to be achieved by export potential, the high cost of
2030. The GBF is being compared to liquefaction and producing LNG has
the 2015 Paris Agreement on climate limited its market.
change that is guiding global climate The cooling, liquefying and transport
action. processes, as well as the post-
The UN Framework Convention on transport regasification procedures,
Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the also require a lot of energy. Because
CBD were both outcomes of the 1992 of LNG’s much more complex
Rio Earth Summit — as was the third production and transport process,
member of the family, the the risks of methane leakages along
Convention to Combat Desertification the production, transport and
(CCD), which deals specifically with regasification chain are simply much
the issue of land degradation. higher and therefore much more
emissionsintensive
Liquified natural gas (LNG). 109) Consider the following statements regarding
1. LNG is a natural gas reduced to a the benefits of Pulses on Environment.
liquid state (liquefaction) through 1. Pulses enhance soil fertility and reduce the
intense heating. consumption of major fertilisers

required for the cultivation of food Rare earth elements or rare earth
crops. metals are a set of 17 chemical
2. The roots of pulses and legumes elements in the periodic table — the
contain soil enriching bacteria 15 lanthanides, plus scandium and
collectively known as Rhizobium. yttrium, which tend to occur in the
3. Pulses perform biological fixation of same ore deposits as the lanthanides,
environmental nitrogen. and have similar chemical properties.
Which of the above statements is/are The 17 rare earths are cerium (Ce),
correct? dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er),
a) 1, 3 europium (Eu), gadolinium (Gd),
b) 1, 2 holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La),
c) 2, 3 lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd),
d) 1, 2, 3 praseodymium (Pr), promethium
Solution: d) (Pm), samarium (Sm), scandium (Sc),
 The roots of pulses and legumes contain terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium
soil enriching bacteria collectively known (Yb), and yttrium (Y).
as Rhizobium. Therefore pulses perform Despite their classification, most of
biological fixation of environmental these elements are not really “rare”.
nitrogen. They also increase organic One of the rare earths, promethium,
matter in the soil, improve quality and is radioactive. These elements are
maintain its biodiversity. Pulses enhance important in technologies of
fertility and reduce the consumption of consumer electronics, computers and
major fertilisers required for the networks, communications, clean
cultivation of food crops by millions of energy, advanced transportation,
tonnes globally. healthcare, environmental
mitigation, and nationa defence,
110) Consider the following statements regarding among others.
Rare earth elements. Scandium is used in televisions and
1. Rare earth elements are a set of 17 fluorescent lamps, and yttrium is
chemical elements in the periodic used in drugs to treat rheumatoid
table that have similar chemical arthritis and cancer. Rare earth
properties. elements are used in space shuttle
2. Rare earth elements are not components, jet engine turbines, and
radioactive in nature. drones. Cerium, the most abundant
3. They are used in space shuttle rare earth element, is essential to
components, jet engine turbines, and NASA’s Space Shuttle Programme
drones.
Which of the above statements is/are 111) Consider the following statements.
correct? 1. Glaciers are the largest source of
a) 1, 2 freshwater in the Himalayan
b) 1, 3 ecosystem.
c) 2, 3 2. A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is
d) 1, 2, 3 caused by the failure of a dam
Solution: b) containing a glacial lake.

3. There is considerable shrinking of 4. Rhodium
glacial lakes across the Himalayas, in 5. Ruthenium
recent decade. Select the correct answer code:
Which of the above statements is/are a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 3, 4, 5
correct? c) 1, 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
a) 1, 2 Solution: d)
b) 1, 3 The high concentration of iridium in
c) 2, 3 the geological section at Anjar, Kutch
d) 1, 2, 3 district, provides evidence for a
Solution: a) massive meteoritic impact that
Glaciers are the largest source of caused the extinction of dinosaurs
freshwater outside of the polar about 65 million years ago.
regions. Glaciers and snow melt in A national geological monument
the Himalayan ecosystem are the exhibiting a unique rock called
source of water for several rivers Nepheline Syenite in Ajmer district of
across the subcontinent, and are Rajasthan. Baula-Nausahi, a 3-km-
responsible for maintaining the long belt, 170 km north east of
perennial supply of water in the river Bhubaneswar, is the proven platinum
systems like the Indus, Ganges, and group of elements (PGE) deposit in
Brahmaputra to over a billion people. India. PGE comprises six greyish to
Some models predict that an increase silver white metals including
in global temperatures by 2°C from platinum, palladium, iridium,
1850 by 2070 would result in 45% of rhodium, osmium and ruthenium.
the medium and large glaciers (10 sq
km or more) disappearing 113) The term ‘Pineapple Express’, recently seen
completely. Nearly 70% smaller in news is related to
glaciers are likely to melt away. a) An Economic theory
Shrinking glaciers have led to the b) Atmospheric phenomenon
formation of a large number of glacial c) Historical Newspaper
lakes all across the Himalayas. Many d) Framing technique
of these high-altitude lakes are Solution: b)
potentially dangerous, because of Forecasters said the rain arriving in
their potential to cause flashfloods in California is being caused by a “true
the event of a breach. Pineapple Express” — a specific
A glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) is a example of a common atmospheric
type of outburst flood caused by phenomenon that resembles a
the failure of a dam containing a conveyor belt for moisture.
glacial lake. Recently California and other parts of
the West Coast have been hit with a
112) Which of the following mineral series of what meteorologists call
deposits/rocks are present in India? atmospheric rivers — long, narrow
1. Iridium regions in the atmosphere that
2. Nepheline Syenite transport most of the water vapor
3. Palladium outside the tropics.

Is ‘Pineapple Express’ a common The issue of the old pension scheme
phenomenon? (OPS) versus the new pension
These rivers in the sky occur often on scheme (NPS) has dominated news
the West Coast but can happen in since a long time now. Some state
other locations, including the eastern governments recently announced
United States, where they often their plan to implement the old
channel moisture from the pension scheme (OPS) by replacing
Caribbean. And they carry a lot of the National Pension Scheme (NPS).
moisture — enough water vapor to National Pension System (NPS) is a
equal or sometimes exceed the pension cum investment scheme
average flow of the Mississippi River launched by Government of India to
at the point where it flows into the provide old age security to Citizens of
Gulf of Mexico. When this moisture India. It brings an attractive long-
begins to interact with land, it can fall term saving avenue to effectively
as rain or snow. Often, as is the case plan your retirement through safe
lately in California,the precipitation is and regulated market-based return.
abundant because these atmospheric The Scheme is regulated by Pension
rivers provide a continuous flow of Fund Regulatory and Development
moisture. Authority (PFRDA). National Pension
Although atmospheric rivers come in System Trust (NPST) established by
different shapes and sizes, for one to PFRDA is the registered owner of all
be a “true Pineapple Express,” assets under NPS.
location matters. The tail end, where Any individual citizen of India (both
the moisture is pulled into the resident and Non-resident) in the age
atmosphere, must start near Hawaii. group of 18-70 years (as on the date
Then the river must stretch of submission of NPS application) can
continuously through the join NPS. Opening multiple NPS
atmosphere to the U.S. West Coast accounts for an individual is not
allowed under NPS
National Pension Scheme (NPS). 115) Consider the following statements regarding
1. The Scheme is regulated by Reserve Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award (PBSA).
Bank of India (RBI). 1. PSBA is conferred by the President of
2. Only Indian citizens are eligible under India as part of the Pravasi Bharatiya
NPS. Divas Convention.
3. The shift to NPS was undertaken due 2. Both Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and
to concerns over the coverage, organisations established and run by
sustainability, and scalability of the NRIs are conferred PBSA in
old pension framework. recognition of their outstanding
Which of the above statements is/are achievements both in India and
correct? abroad.
a) 1, 3 b) 2, 3 Which of the above statement sis/are
c) 3 only d) None of the above correct?
Solution: c) a) 1 only

b) 2 only Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital
c) Both 1 and 2 Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) aim
d) Neither 1 nor 2 to provide digital literacy in rural
Solution: c) India.MeitY and NASSCOM have
Pravasi Bharatiya Samman Award is jointly conceived a programme titled
the highest honour conferred on “FutureSkills PRIME (Programme for
overseas Indians during the Pravasi Reskilling/Up-skilling of IT Manpower
Bharatiya Divas Convention. for Employability)”. The Programme
The PSBA is conferred by the is envisaged to provide re-skilling/
President of India as part of the upskilling opportunities for B2C
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention beneficiaries in 10 emerging
on NonResident Indians (NRIs), technologies viz. Internet of Things,
Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) or Big Data Analytics, Artificial
organisations established and run by Intelligence, Robotic Process
NRIs or PIOs in recognition of their Automation, Additive Manufacturing/
outstanding achievements — both in 3D Printing, Cloud Computing, Social
India and abroad. & Mobile, Cyber Security, Augmented
A jury-cum-awards committee, with Reality/Virtual Reality, and
(the) Vice President as the chairman Blockchain. MeitY is the nodal
and External Affairs Minister as the ministry for E-Government
vicechair and other distinguished Development Index (EGDI) along with
members from various walks of life two-line Ministries/ Departments viz.
considered the nominations…and Department of Higher Education and
unanimously selected the awardees Department of School Education and
Literacy (DHE and DoSEL). The EGDI is
116) Consider the following statements. a composite measure of three
1. PMGDISHA aim to provide digital important dimensions of e-
literacy in rural India. government, namely: Online Service
2. FutureSkills PRIME is a jointly Index, Telecommunication
conceived programme by Ministry of Infrastructure Index and the Human
Electronics and Information Capital Index
Technology (MeitY) and NITI Aayog.
3. Ministry of Electronics and 117) Phytorid technology, that was recently in
Information Technology (MeitY) is news is related to
the nodal ministry for E-Government a) Producing nuclear fusion energy, or
Development Index (EGDI). imitating the way energy is produced
Which of the above statements is/are in the Sun.
correct? b) Facial recognition technology
a) 1, 2 c) Waste Water treatment plant
b) 1, 3 d) Temperature data logger for cold
c) 2, 3 chain management
d) 1, 2, 3 Solution: c)
Solution: b) The Municipal Corporation of Tirupati (MCT)
will be establishing India’s largest

liquid waste treatment plant. The Solution: c)
plant will adopt the phytorid What is environmental enteropathy?
technology for its operation. • In simple terms, environmental
Phytorid technology involves the enteropathy is a disorder of the
treatment of wastewater under a intestine which prevents the proper
sedimentation process to eliminate absorption of nutrients, rendering
solid matter after which, the water is them effectively useless.
made to flow in a serpentine motion • Since the disorder was intricately
into a sub-surface chamber connected to the poor environmental
containing multiple barricades. conditions its victims lived in, it came
Further, saplings are planted atop a to be called “environmental
porous medium containing gravel enteropathy”.
and stones which helps to eliminate • Diarrhoeal diseases, intestinal parasite
the organic matter. Later, the water infections and environmental
is made to flow through activated enteropathy together impact the
carbon filters to reduce the normal growth and cognitive
Biochemical Oxygen Demand to 5mg, development of children, leading to
which is lower than the national anaemia, stunting, and wasting.
standard of 10mg put in place by the
Union Ministry of Housing and Urban 119) Consider the following statements regarding
Affairs. FATF Grey List.
The Phytorid technology has been 1. Countries considered as safe haven
developed by CSIR’s National for supporting terror funding and
Environmental Engineering Research money laundering are put in the FATF
Institute (NEERI) grey list.
2. The inclusion into grey list serves as a
118) Consider the following statements regarding warning to the country that it may
Environmental enteropathy. enter the blacklist.
1. Environmental enteropathy is a 3. For such countries listed on grey list,
disorder of chronic lungs FATF tell other members to carry out
inflammation. due-diligence measures visa-vis the
2. The disorder is intricately connected listed country.
to the poor environmental Which of the above statements is/are
conditions. correct?
3. It impacts the normal growth and a) 1, 2
cognitive development of children, b) 1, 3
leading to anaemia, stunting, and c) 2, 3
wasting. d) 1, 2, 3
Which of the above statements is/are Solution: a)
correct? • Countries considered as safe haven
a) 1, 2 for supporting terror funding and
b) 1, 3 money laundering are put in the FATF
c) 2, 3 grey list.
d) 1, 2, 3

• While the words ‘grey’ and ‘black’ list the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok
do not exist in the official FATF Declaration) by the founding fathers
lexicon, they designate countries that of ASEAN, namely Indonesia,
need to work on complying with FATF Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and
directives and those who are non- Thailand.
compliant, respectively. Its chairmanship rotates annually,
• At the end of every plenary meeting, based on the alphabetical order of
FATF comes out with two lists of the English names of Member States.
countries. Members: Brunei, Cambodia,
• The grey countries are designated as Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar,
“jurisdictions under increased the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand,
monitoring”, working with the FATF and Vietnam.
to counter criminal financial
activities. For such countries, the 121) What are the benefits a country gets from
watchdog does not tell other the ‘developing country’ tag at the World
members to carry out due-diligence Trade Organization (WTO)?
measures vis-a-vis the listed country 1. It gets longer timeframes to
but does tell them to consider the implement the WTO agreements.
risks countries possess. 2. It allows other countries to offer
preferential treatment.
120) Consider the following statements regarding 3. It gets Zero duty and zero quota
Association of Southeast Asian Nations access for all exports to the
(ASEAN). developed countries.
1. ASEAN was established with the Select the correct answer code:
signing of Bangkok Declaration by the a) 1 only
founding members. b) 1, 2
2. Laos, Philippines, Brunei and c) 1, 3
Cambodia are the members of d) 1, 2, 3
ASEAN. Solution: b)
3. Its chairmanship rotates annually, What are the benefits of ‘developing country’
based on the consensus of Member tag?
States. Certain WTO agreements give developing
Which of the above statements is/are countries special rights through
correct? ‘special and differential treatment’
a) 1 only (S&DT) provisions, which can grant
b) 1, 2 developing countries longer
c) 1, 3 timeframes to implement the
d) 2, 3 agreements and even commitments
Solution: b) to raise trading opportunities for
It is a regional grouping that such countries.
promotes economic, political, and WTO pacts are often aimed at reduction in
security cooperation. government support to certain
It was established in August 1967 in industries over time and set more
Bangkok, Thailand with the signing of lenient target for developing nations

and grant them more time to achieve Answer) Option b is correct
these targets compared to developed • US government has announced to
ones. fund the conservation and
The classification also allows other restoration of 6 Paigah tombs built in
countries to offer preferential the 18th-19th centuries in
treatment. Least Developed Hyderabad.
Countries (LDCs) are often exempted • The project will be implemented by
from certain provisions of WTO pacts. the Aga Khan Trust for Culture.
A country classified as an LDC, • The tomb is a mausoleum belonging
receives zero duty, zero quota access to the nobility of the Paigah family,
for most of its exports to developed who served the Nizam of Hyderabad.
countries. • The construction of this mausoleum
was started by Nawab Tegjung
122) In which of the following district First KG to Bahadur in 1787.
PG campus inaugurated under Mana Ooru-
Mana Badi initiative 124) GeoSmart India 2022 Summit inaugurated in
A) Siddipet which of the following city
B) Rangareddy A) Bangalore
C) Rajanna sircilla B) New Delhi
D) Vikarbad C)Hyderabad
D)Chennai
Answer) option c is coreect answer Answer) option c is correct answer
• It was inaugurated at Gambhiraopet • Union Jal Shakti Minister Gajendra
of Rajanna Sircilla district of Singh Shekhawat on 15th Nov 2022
Telangana. inaugurated the GeoSmart India 2022
• Under KG to PG free education Summit, a three-day annual event on
initiative, apart from govt. schools, geospatial technologies, in
Kasturbai Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya, Hyderabad.
Model School, Govt. Junior College, • It is being co-hosted by the Indian
govt. Degree College and Post Society of Remote Sensing and the
Graduate College are being set up in Indian Society of Geomatics.
one campus. • About 2500 representatives from
• Campus at Gambhiraopet will be about 500 organisations working on
named after academician and social geospatial technology have attended
activist Prof Jayashankar. the summit.
123) Recently, US Government is agreed to fund 125) Consider the following statements regarding
conservation of which of the following sites Programme Of Action (POA) of the
in Hyderabad International Conference on Population and
A) Golconda tomb Development.
B)Paigha tombs 1. The Programme Of Action (POA) of
C)Kutubshaahi tombs the International Conference on
D)pahadi sharif darga Population and Development focuses
on meeting the needs of individual

women and men, rather than on c) 2, 3
achieving demographic targets. d) 1, 2, 3
2. It is against coercion in family Solution: d)
planning. The working of G20 is divided into
3. India is a signatory to the Programme two tracks:
of Action (POA). The finance track: It comprises all
Which of the above statements is/are meetings with G20 finance ministers
correct? and central bank governors and their
a) 1, 2 deputies. Meeting several times
b) 1, 3 throughout the year they focus on
c) 2, 3 monetary and fiscal issues, financial
d) 1, 2, 3 regulations, etc.
Solution: d) The Sherpa track: It focuses on
India is a signatory to the Programme broader issues such as political
Of Action (POA) of the International engagement, anti-corruption,
Conference on Population and development, energy, etc. Each G20
Development, 1994, which is country is represented by its Sherpa;
unequivocally against coercion in who plans, guides, implements, etc.
family planning. on behalf of the leader of their
The Programme of Action, adopted respective country.
by acclamation on 13 September The work of G20 members is
1994, emphasizes the integral supported by several international
linkagesbetween population and organizations (Permanent guest
development and focuses on meeting invitees). These organizations
the needs of individual wome n and include:
men, rather than on achieving • The Financial Stability Board (FSB). The FSB,
demographic targets. which was established by G20 leaders
following the onset of the global
126) Consider the following statements regarding financial crisis,
G20 group. • The International Labour Organization (ILO).
1. The working of G20 is divided into • The International Monetary Fund (IMF).
two tracks, i.e, the finance track and • The Organization for Economic Co-
the Sherpa track. operation and Development (OECD)
2. The Sherpa track focuses on broader • United Nations (UN)
issues such as political engagement, • World Bank
anti-corruption, development and • The World Trade Organization (WTO)
energy.
3. IMF and World Bank are the
permanent guest invitees for G20 127. In a row of 46 students Rohit is 16th from
summits. left and Surya is 13th from the right end.
Which of the above statements is/are How many students are there between
correct? them?
a) 1, 2 a.16
b) 1, 3 b.17

c.18 d.89
d.34 Answer:a
Answer: b
132. Mahesh finds that he is 13th from the right
128. In a row of 20 boys, when sachin was shifted in a line of boys and 5th from the left. How
by two places towards left, he became 8th many boys should be added to the line such
from the left end, what is his rank from right that there are 30 boys in the line?
before shifting? a.14
a.10 b.13
b.13 c.17
c.14 d.18
d.11 Answer:b
Answer: d
133. In a class of 90, where girls are twice that of
129. Dravid is 8 ranks ahead of Ganguly in the boys. Vinod ranked Nineteenth from top. If
class of 39 students. If Ganguly’s rank is 18th there are 11 girls ahead of Vinod how many
from the last then what is Dravid’s rank boys are after him in a rank?
from the start? a.20
a.26 b.22
b.18 c.23
c.14 d.34
d.13 Answer:b
Answer: c
134. .In a row of girls Sindhu is 14th from the left
130. In a row of men, Rinku is 31st from the right and Saina is 18th from the right. If in this
and Rana is 30th from the left. When they row Sindhu is 12th from the right then what
interchange their position, Rinku becomes is the position of Saina from the left?
36th from the right. What is the total a.7
number of men in the row? b.8
a.30 c.9
b.36 d.11
c.65 Answer :b
d.66
Answer: c 135. Question given below is followed by two
statements numbered I and II. You have to
131. In a class prudvi ranked 19th from top and decide whether the data provided in the
40th from the bottom among those who statements are sufficient to answer the
passed an examination. Eleven students did question. Read both the statements and give
not appear in the examination and five answer
students failed. What is the total number of Question: How many children does A have?
students in the class? Statement-I: C is the only daughter of A who
a.74 is husband of B
b.73 Statement-II: F is son D who is son of B
c.78 Which of the following is correct?

a. Statement-I alone is sufficient while have to decide whether the data provided in
Statement -II alone is not sufficient the statements are sufficient to answer the
b. Statement -II alone is sufficient while question. Read both the statements and give
Statement- I alone is not sufficient answer
c. Either Statement- I or Statement -II is Question: Seven persons – Rayudu Noor,
sufficient Zazai, Bairstow, Rony, Avesh and
d. Neither Statement -I nor Statement -II is Manpreeth, lives in a seven floored building
sufficient where bottom floor is numbered 1 and top
Answer: a floor is numbered 7, then Rony lives on
which floor?
Statement-I: Rayudu lives on fifth floor and
136. Question given below is followed by three Bairstow doesn't live on top floor. There is a
statements numbered I and II and III. You gap of two floors between Rayudu and
have to decide whether the data provided in Avesh, who lives immediately below Noor
the statements are sufficient to answer the Statement-II: Noor lives on third floor and
question. Read both the statements and give Zazai lives on top floor. There is a gap of two
answer floors between Rayudu and Avesh. Avesh
Question: Nine persons – Dany, Taylor, Alex, lives immediately above Manpreeth. Rayudu
Ryan, Blair, Storm, Rory, Jody and Erin, lives on odd numbered floor.
consists of a family such there are three Statement-III: Bairstow who lives on fourth
married couples in the family then how is floor, lives exactly between Manpreeth and
Rory related to Jody? Zazai. Zazai lives on top floor.
Statement-I: Jordan is the father of Alex, Which of the following is correct?
who is brother of Salt. Duke is son of Rose, a. Statement-I is Sufficient
who is married to Salt b. Statement-II Sufficient
Statement-II: Ellis is mother of Rose, who is c. Either statement I and II or II and III
married to Alex. Rose is daughter-in-law of together are sufficient.
Bairstow and Duke is son of Rory d. All statements I, II and III together are not
Statement-III: Tim is brother-in-law of Blair, sufficient.
who is married to Jordon. Rose married to Answer: c
Alex, who is brother of Salt
Which of the following is Correct? 138. Question given below is followed by two
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-III statements numbered I and II. You have to
are Sufficient decide whether the data provided in the
b. Both Statement-II and Statement-III statements are sufficient to answer the
are Sufficient question. Read both the statements and give
c. Either statement I and II or II and III answer
together are sufficient. Question: Five friends Aron, Benny, Chris,
d. All statements I, II and III together are Daniel and Eshwaran are sitting in a row
not sufficient. facing towards north. Who is sitting three
Answer: c places to the right of Daniel?
Statement-I: Aron is two places to the right
137. Question given below is followed by three of Benny and Beni is not adjacent to Chris or
statements numbered I and II and III. You Eshwaran. The number of persons to the left

of Eshwaran is same as the number of
persons to the right of Benny 140. Question given below is followed by two
Statement-II: Eshwaran is sitting to the right statements numbered I and II. You have to
of Chris and none of them is adjacent to decide whether the data provided in the
Daniel, who is not at the extreme end of the statements are sufficient to answer the
row. The number of persons to the left of question. Read both the statements and give
Eshwaran is same as the number of persons answer
to the right of Benny Question: Seven persons K, I, H, G, E, T and B
Which of the following is correct? attends the exams on seven different days
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-III of the week starting from Monday to
are Sufficient Sunday. Who among them attend the exam
b. Both Statement-II and Statement-III on Saturday?
are Sufficient Statement-I: K attends the exam on
c. Either statement I alone or Statement Wednesday. Only one person attends the
II alone is sufficient. exam between K and B. Only two persons
d. All statements I, II and III together are attend the exam between T and H
not sufficient Statement-II: H attends the exam on
Answer: c Thursday. Only two persons attend the
exams between H and T. G attends the exam
139. Question given below is followed by two immediately before T.
statements numbered I and II. You have to a. Statement-I is Sufficient
decide whether the data provided in the b. Statement-II Sufficient
statements are sufficient to answer the c. Either statement I or II is sufficient
question. Read both the statements and give d. Neither Statement- I nor Statement- II is
answer sufficient
Question: Six persons N, P, Q, R, S and T are Answer: b
sitting in a circular table and facing centre of
the table. Who among the following sits
opposite to B?
Statement-I: D sits second to the right of F. E
sits immediate left of A, who is not an
immediate neighbour of D and F.
Statement-II: E sits second to the left of C. D
sits fourth to the right of A, who is an
immediate neighbour of C. D is not an
immediate neighbour of C.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Statement-I is Sufficient
b. Statement-II Sufficient
c. Either statement I or II is sufficient
d. Both Statement- I, Statement- II taken
together are required to answer the
question
Answer: d

2. Chairperson and members of the State
1. With reference to ‘Co-operative Societies in Human Rights Commission are appointed by
India’, consider the following statements: the Governor on the recommendations of a
1. It is the duty of the State to promote committee. Who of the following are
co-operative societies under Article included in that committee:
43-B of Indian Constitution. 1. Chief Minister
2. As per the Constitution, the subject of 2. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Cooperative Societies falls under the 3. Law Minister of the state
Concurrent list. 4. Leader of the opposition
Which of the statements given above is/are 5. Chief Justice of High court or any
correct? other judge nominated by him
a) 1 only b) 2 only Select the correct answer from the code given
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
Ans) a (a) 1,2 and 4 only (b) 1,2,4 and 5 only
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. (c) 1,3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3,4 and 5.
 Statement 1 is correct: The Answer: A
97thConstitutional Amendment Act of Explanation
2011 gave a constitutional status and  The chairperson and members are
protection to co-operative societies. In appointed by the Governor on the
this context, it made the following three recommendations of a
changes in the constitution:  committee consisting of the chief minister
1) It made the right to form co-operative as its head, the speaker of the Legislative
societies a fundamental right (Article  Assembly, the state home minister and
19(1)(c). the leader of the opposition in the
2) It included a new Directive Principle of Legislative
State Policy on promotion of  Assembly. In the case of a state having a
cooperative societies (Article 43-B). Legislative Council, the chairman of the
3) It added a new Part IX-B in the  Council and the leader of the opposition in
Constitution which is entitled “The the Council would also be the members of
Cooperative Societies” (Articles 243- the
ZH to 243-ZT).  committee.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: “Cooperative  Option 1 is correct: Chief Minister of state
Societies” is a Subject of State List (not the is the head of the committee which
Concurrent List) in the 7th Schedule via appoints
entry 32 of the State List in the  members of SHRC.
Constitution of India.  Option 2 is correct: Speaker of the
Legislative Assembly is also included in
committee

 Option 3 is incorrect: It is Home minister to restore any unlawfully alienated
of a state and not Law Minister who is part land of a Scheduled Tribe”. Section
of the 4(m)(ii) of PESA endows the
 Committee Panchayats at the appropriate level
 Option 4 is correct: Leader of opposition in and4(m)(ii) of PESA endows the
state legislative assembly is also part of Panchayats at the appropriate level
committee and the Gram Sabha with the
 Option 5 is incorrect: There is no member ownership of minor forest produce.
of judiciary in the committee which
appoints members of SHRC 4. With reference to the process of social audit
 in India, consider the following statements:
3. In the areas covered under the Panchayat 1. The details of both the financial and
(Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, non-financial resources used for the
what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? development process by a public
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent agency are disclosed under the
alienation of land in the Scheduled purview of social audit.
Areas. 2. Social audits were given statutory
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor status for the first time under the
forest produce. Mahatma
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is Gandhi National Rural Employment
required for granting prospecting Guarantee Act, 2005.
licence or mining lease for any mineral Which of the statements given above is/are
in the Scheduled Areas. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only Option c is correct
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 • A Social Audit is defined as a process
Ans) b in which details of the resources, both
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. financial and nonfinancial used by the
 Statement 1 and 2 are correct and Public Agency for the development
Statement 3 is incorrect: According to the initiatives, are shared with the public
provisions of the PESA Act, 1996 the through a public platform. It is a
recommendations of the Gram Sabha or legally mandated process where
the Panchayats at the appropriate level potential and existing
shall be made mandatory prior to grant of beneficiariesevaluate the
prospecting licence or mining lease for implementation of a programme by
minor minerals (not any mineral) in comparing official records with
the Scheduled Areas. Section 4(m)(iii) of PESA ground realities. This aspect allows
requires the State to enact laws for the clientele to enforce transparency
the purpose of empowering Gram and accountability by scrutinizing the
Sabhas and Panchayats at the development activities which also
appropriate level “to prevent enables them to participate in the
alienation of land in the Scheduled development process. Hence
Areas and to take appropriate action statement 1 is correct.

• The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural  As per the provisions of the act,
Employment Guarantee Act commercial purpose does not include use
(MGNREGA) was the first law to by a person of goods bought and used by
mandate social audit as a statutory him exclusively for the purposes of
requirement. MGNREGA Audit of earning his livelihood by means of self-
Schemes Rules was passed by the employment.
Central Government, in consultation  The Central Authority i.e. the Central
with the Comptroller and Auditor Consumer Protection Authority may
General (C&AG) in 2011. Under inquire or cause an inquiry or investigation
MGNREGA scheme rules, apart from to be made into violations of Consumer
the ongoing process of social audit, it Rights, either suo-moto or on a complaint
has mandated to convene Social Audit received or on the directions from the
Forum once in every six months, Central Government. Hence statement 1
which will serve as an institutional is correct.
forum wherepeople can conduct  Every complaint filed with the commission
details public audit of all MGNREGA is accompanied by a fee. The fee for filing
works that have been carried out in a complaint varies for all three
there are a in the preceding six commissions at the District, State, and
months. Hence statement 2 is correct. National levels with the value of goods
and services paid as consideration. Hence
5. As per the provisions of the Consumer statement 3 is not correct.
Protection Act, 2019, consider the following
statements: 6. With reference to the ‘One Nation One
1. The Central Consumer Protection Ration Card’ programme, consider the
Authority under the act can suo-moto following statements:
inquire and investigate violations of 1. The families coming under the
consumer rights. category of below poverty line (BPL)
2. A person who avails services for any only are eligible under the
commercial purpose is not considered programme.
a consumer. 2. Assam is the first state to implement
3. Complaints with the national the programme.
commission are filed free of cost. 3. The programme is an endeavour of
Which of the statements given above is/are the Ministry of Labour and
correct? Employment to empower the migrant
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only labour population.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
Option B is correct. correct?
 A person who obtains goods for resale or (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 only
for any commercial purposes and who (c) 2 and 3 only (d) None
avails services for any commercial Option .D
purposes is not considered a 'consumer' • The implementation of nationwide
under the rules of the Act. Hence portability of ration cards through the
statement 2 is correct. ‘One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC)’
scheme, is an endeavour of the

Department of Food & Public Distribution, • The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-
under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Chief. NALSA is housed at the Supreme
Food and Public Distribution to empower Court of India, New Delhi
about 81 crore beneficiaries.This plan has • National Legal Services Authority is the
been launched under the National Food apex body constituted to lay down policies
Security Act (NFSA), 2013, which aims to and principles for making legal services
ensure that anyone can take their share of available under the provisions of the Act
food grains from any district of any state and to frame the most effective and
of the country. Hence statement 3 is not economical schemes for legal services. It
correct. also disburses funds and grants to State
 Through the OROC program, all eligible Legal Services Authorities and NGOs for
ration card holders/beneficiaries covered implementing legal aid schemes and
under NFSA can access their entitlements programs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
from anywhere in the country and not just • Section 12 of the Legal Services
the BPL category. Hence statement 1 is Authorities Act, 1987 prescribes the
not correct. criteria for giving legal services to eligible
• Recently, Assam has become the 36th persons., they are:-.
state/UT to implement ONORC. With this,  Member of Scheduled Caste or Scheduled
the ONORC programme has been Tribe
successfully implemented in all states and  victim of human trafficking or a beggar
Union Territories, making food security  woman or child; or if the individual suffers
portable throughout the country. Hence from any disability. A woman is entitled to
statement 2 is not correct free legal aid irrespective of her income or
financial status while a child is eligible for
7. Consider the following statements with free legal aid till the age of majority i.e. 18
respect to National Legal Services Authority years. Hence statement 2 is correct.
(NALSA):
1. It disburses funds to State Legal 8. With reference to the National e-Governance
Services Authorities to implement Plan (NeGP), consider the following
legal aid programs. statements:
2. It provides women to free legal aid 1. The National e-Governance Plan
irrespective of their income or (NeGP) was launched under the
financial status. Digital India Mission in 2015 by the
Which of the statements given above is/are Ministry of Information and
correct? Broadcasting.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 2. State data centers and common
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 service centers form the core
Option C is correct infrastructure components of the
• The National Legal Services Authority National e- Governance Plan.
(NALSA) has been constituted under the Which of the statements given above is/are
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to correct?
provide free Legal Services to the weaker (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
sections of society and to organize Lok (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Adalats for amicable settlement of Option B is correct
disputes.

• National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) was • Sevottam is a “Service Delivery Excellence
formulated in 2006 by the Department of Model” which provides an assessment-
Administrative Reforms & Public improvement framework to bring about
Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of excellence in public service delivery. The
Electronics & Information Technology term “Sevottam” is formed by joining two
(ME&IT), and Ministry of Personnel, Public Hindi words “seva” and “uttam” meaning
Grievances & Pensions. Hence statement “service” and “excellence” respectively.
1 is not correct. • It’s first component, the citizen’s charter
• The Government has accorded approval publicly declares the information on
to the vision, approach, strategy, key citizens’ entitlementsthereby making
components, implementation them better informed and hence
methodology, and management structure empowering them to demand better
for NeGP. However, the approval of NeGP services. Hence option 2 is correct.
does not constitute financial approval(s) • The second component of the model,
for all the Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) “Public Grievance Redress” requires a
and components under it. good grievance redressal system
• The major core infrastructure operating in a manner that leaves the
components of the National e- citizen more satisfied with how the
Governance Plan are State Data Centres organisation responds to
(SDCs), State Wide Area Networks complaints/grievances, irrespective of the
(S.W.A.N), Common Services Centres final decision. Hence option 4 is correct.
(CSCs) and middleware gateways i.e. • The third component of the model,
National e-Governance Service Delivery “Service Delivery Capability” postulates
Gateway (NSDG), State e-Governance that an organisation can have an excellent
Servic e Delivery Gateway (SSDG), and performance in service delivery only if it is
Mobile e-Governance Service Delivery efficiently managing the key ingredients
Gateway (MSDG). Hence statement 2 is for good service delivery and building its
correct. own capacity to continuously improve
upon service delivery. Hence option 1 is
9. Sevottam is a ‘service delivery excellence correct.
model’ which provides an assessment • Information and Communication
improvement framework to bring about Technology (ICT), can be a facilitator to
excellence in public service delivery. Which of sevottam model, however it is not a
the following is/are components of the mandatory condition for excellent service
sevottam model? delivery. Hence option 3 is not correct.
1. Service Delivery Capability
2. The citizens’ charter 10. Nagpur Resolution, 2019 sometimes seen in
3. Mandatory use of ICT the news, is related to:
4. Public grievance redressal (a) citizen centric governance.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) management of e-waste.
given below. (c) curbing the menace of tuberculosis.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only (d) regional connectivity through airways.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Option Ais correct
Option C is correct • Nagpur Resolution- A Holistic Approach
for Empowering Citizens’ was adopted

during the session on ‘Improving Public 12. Consider the following statements about the
Service Delivery – Role of Governments’ in National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
Nagpur, Maharashtra. (NCSK):
1. It is a statutory body.
11. Consider the following statements regarding 2. It was established under the
the Competition Commission of India (CCI): Prohibition of Employment as Manual
1. It is a statutory body responsible for Scavengers and Their Rehabilitation
enforcing the Companies Act, 2013. Act, 2013.
2. Only a person who is qualified to be 3. It is the nodal agency for
ajudge of a High Court can be implementation of the Central Sector
appointed as its Chairperson. Self Employment Scheme for
3. It was established to replace the Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers.
Competition Appellate Tribunal. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) None Option D is correct
Option D is correct • The National Commission for Safai
• The Competition Commission of India Karamcharis (NCSK) was
(CCI) is a statutory body of the constituted on 12th August, 1994
Government of India responsible for as a statutory body by an Act of
enforcing the Competition Act, 2002. Parliament viz. ‘National
Hence statement 1 is not correct. Commission for Safai Karamcharis
• Under Section 8(2) of the Competition Act, Act, 1993’, for a period of three
2002, the Chairperson and every other years i.e. up to 31st March, 1997.
Member shall be a person of ability, As per sub-section (4) of Section 1
integrity and standing and who, has been, of the Act, it was to cease to exist
or is qualified to be a judge of a High after 31.3.1997. However, validity
Court, or, has special knowledge of, and of the Act was extended up to
professional experience of not less than March, 2002, and then up to
fifteen years in international trade, February, 2004 vide Amendment
economics, business, commerce, law, Acts passed in 1997 and 2001
finance, accountancy, management, respectively. Hence statement 2 is
industry, public affairs, administration or not correct.
in any other matter which, in the opinion
of the Central Government, may be useful  With the lapsing of the “The National
to the Commission. Hence statement 2 is Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act,
not correct. 1993” w.e.f. 29.2.2004, the Commission is
• Under Section 410 of the Companies Act, acting as a Non-Statutory body of the
2013 and Section 53A(1) of the Ministry of Social Justice and
Competition Act, 2002, the government Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is not
replaced the Competition Appellate correct.
Tribunal (COMPAT) with the National
Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)  National Safai Karamcharis Finance &
in 2017. Hence statement 3 is not correct. Development Corporation (NSKFDC):

 A wholly owned Govt. of India access to information under the control of
Undertaking under the Ministry of Social public authorities, in order to promote
Justice & Empowerment wasset up on transparency and accountability in the
24th January 1997 as a Company “Not for working of every public authority, the
Profit” under Section 25 of the Companies constitution of a Central Information
Act, 1956. NSKFDC is in operation since Commission and state Information
October, 1997, as an Apex Corporation for Commissions and for matters connected
the all round socio-economic upliftment therewith or incidental thereto.
of the Safai Karamcharis, Scavengers and  Only the citizens of India have the right to seek
their dependents throughout India, information under the provisions of the Right
through various loan and non-loan based to Information Act 2005. Hence statement 1 is
schemes. correct.
 Apart from operating various loan and  According to the Act, every government
non-loan based schemes for the organization is needed to appoint one
upliftment of the target group, NSKFDC is employee as a public information officer (PIO).
playing a vital role in elimination of  Once a department gets an RTI request, it is
manual scavenging - the worst surviving the responsibility of the PIO to furnish the
symbol of untouchability. information to the applicant within 30 days.
 NSKFDC has been designated as the Nodal Failing to do so means a monetary fine can be
Agency for implementation of the Central imposed on the PIO.
Sector Self Employment Scheme for  However, sometimes government records are
Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers misplaced or missing. Or the agency one has
(SRMS) under the aegis of the Ministry of written to needs to co-ordinate with another
Social Justice & Empowerment. Hence department to provide the information. In
statement 3 is not correct. such situations, the information may take
more than 30 days to arrive. In such a case, the
13. With reference to the Right to Information PIO concerned needs to send a written
Act (RTI), 2005, consider the following intimation to the applicant about the possible
statements: delay and the reason.
1. Only the citizens of India have the  If he/she fails to do so, a penalty can be levied
right to seek information under the on the PIO and the matter can be taken up
provisions of the Right to Information with appellate authorities. Hence statement 2
Act 2005. is not correct.
2. If the public information officer (PIO)
fails to provide the information, no 14. With reference to Good Governance
appeal can be made against him/her Index,consider the following statements:
under the law. 1. It is launched by NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. It is prepared on a bi-annual basis.
correct? 3. It evaluates the performance of 20 sectors.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is/arecorrect?
Option A is correct (a) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
 Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted to (c) 1 only (d) 2 and 3 only
provide for setting out the practical regime of Option A is correct
right toinformation for citizens to secure

• Good Governance Index is a comprehensive • Police reforms has been on the agenda of
and implementable framework to assess the Governments almost since independence.
State of Governance across the States and UTs Various committees and commissions set
which enables the ranking of States/Districts. by the government to recommend
The objective of GGI is to create a tool which suggestions on police reforms have been
can be used uniformly across the States to as follows:
assess the impact of various interventions • The National Police Commission (1978-82)
taken up by the Central and State • Ribero Committee (1998). Hence option 1
Governments including UTs. is correct.
• Following the recommendation of the GoS on • The Padmanabhaiah Committee on
Governance, the Department of restructuring of Police (2000). Hence
Administration Reforms and Public Grievances option 4 is correct.
(DARPG), the Government of India launched • The Malimath Committee on reforms in
the Good Governance Index (GGI) Framework Criminal Justice System (2002-03). It
and published the ranking for the States and recommended for the enactment of a new
Union Territories (UTs) for 2019 on the Police Act, setting up a central Law
occasion of Good Governance Day, i.e., 25 enforcement agency to take care of
December 2019. Hence statement 1 is not federal crimes, and separation of the
correct. investigation wing from the law and order
• The GGI 2019 encompassed 10 Governance wing in the police stations Hence option 2
Sectors and 50 Governance Indicators. For GGI is correct.
2020-21, the same 10 Governance Sectors • The Punchhi Commission was constituted
were retained while indicators have been by the Government of India in 2007 as a
revised to 58As observed from the table, all Commission on Centre-State relations.
ten sectors are evaluated on a different Hence option 3 is not correct.
number of indicators as a part of the Good
Governance Index. Hence statement 3 is not 16. With reference to online dispute
correct. resolution(ODR) in India, consider the
• The Good Governance Index is envisaged as a following
bi-annual exercise. Hence statement 2 is statements:
correct. 1. SAMADHAN portal was launched to
address disputes due to delayed
15. Which of the following committees/ payments in MSMEs.
commissions are related to the police 2. Chhattisgarh became the first state to
reforms? conduct Virtual Lok Adalat for
1. The Ribeiro Committee conciliation services.
2. Malimath Committee 3. RBI recognizes the ODR system for
3. Punchhi Commission resolving customer disputes and
4. Padmanabhaiah Committee grievances pertaining to digital
Select the correct answer using the code payments.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Option D is correct (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Option D is correct

• Online dispute resolution (ODR) is the Which of the pairs given above is/are
resolution of disputes, particularly small- correctly matched?
and medium-value cases, using digital (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
technology and techniques of ADR, such (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
as arbitration, conciliation and mediation. Option B is correct
It refers to the process of using technology • In theyear 2016, the Income Tax
for dispute avoidance, containment and Department changed this grueling
resolution outside the traditional court process. In place of this, the In come Tax
system. Department comes up with a paperless
 As a dispute resolution avenue it can be process to address all the grievances of
provided both as an extension of the public Income Taxpayers at a single place. The
court system and outside of it. Various ODR name of the system is e-Nivaran. It is a
services available in India are as follows: joint initiative by the Finance Ministry and
 SAMADHAN portal was launched by the the Income Tax Department. The system is
Ministry of Micro Small and Medium a merger of both offline and online
Enterprises to address disputes due to delayed complaints and becomes one central
payments. Hence statement 1 is correct. complaint resolution system. Hence pair 1
 e- Lok Adalat is a virtual form of Lok Adalat is correctly matched.
under Article 39A of the Constitution.
Chhattisgarh became the first state in July • The Centralized Public Grievance Redress
2020 to conduct Virtual Lok Adalat for and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an
conciliation services. Hence statement 2 is online platform available to the citizens
correct. 24x7 to lodge their grievances to the
 RBI released an ODR policy for digital public authorities on any subject related
payments, wherein it had announced the to service delivery. It is a single portal
introduction of Online Dispute Resolution connected to all the
(ODR) system for resolving customer disputes Ministries/Departments of Government
and grievances pertaining to digital payments, of
using a system-driven and rule-based • India and States. Every Ministry and states
mechanism with zero or minimal manual have role-based access to this system.
intervention. Hence statement 3 is correct. GRAMS also provides an appealing facility
to the citizens if they are not satisfied with
17. Consider the following pairs: the resolution by the Grievance Officer.
Portal/Service Purpose After the closure of the grievance, if the
1. e-Nivaran : To ensure faster and easier complainant is not satisfied with the
tax related complaints resolution, he/she can provide feedback.
2. PRAGATI : An integrated platform If the rating is ‘Poor’ the option to file an
through which thePrime appeal is enabled. Hence pair 3 is correctly
Minister oversees the matched.
implementation of various • PRAGATI is a unique integrated and
government scheme and interactive platform through which the
projects Hon’ble Prime Minister oversees the
3. CPGRAMS : Single portal connecting all implementation of various government
ministries for 24x7 grievanc schemes, grievances, state and central
redressal related projects & programmes by directly

interacting with all stakeholders through 2005 to 2009, the designing and
Videoconferencing on a single platform. maintenance of the portal, and the
PRAGATI is aimed for a culture of Pro- creation and uploading of the content,
Active Governance through online video were being done through outsourced
conferencing & meetings and Timely agencies. On behalf of DARPG, OneWorld
Implementation of projects and schemes. relaunched the portal and managed it till
It is also a robust system for bringing e- 2013. Since then, DARPG has been
transparency and e-accountability with maintaining the portal on its own. Hence
real-time presence and exchange among statement 2 is not correct.
the key
• stakeholders. Hence pair 2 is correctly 19. In the context of Indian Polity, Consider the
matched. following statements:
1. NITI Aayog acts as the quintessential
18. With reference to the Governance platform for the Government of India
Knowledge Centre (GKC), consider the and promotes Competitive
following statements: Federalism.
1. It is a repository of practical solutions 2. NITI Aayog promotes research and
to day-to-day challenges to assist civil innovation, provides strategic policy
servants. vision for the government, and deals
2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog in with contingent issues.
collaboration with IIT Delhi. 3. The Governing Council is the premier
Which of the statements given above is/are body tasked with evolving a shared
correct? vision of national priorities and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only strategies.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. NITI Aayog is to design strategic and
Option A is correct long-term policies and monitor their
• The Governance Knowledge Centre (GKC) progress and efficacy.
Portal aims to assist civil servants to seek Which of the statements given above is/are
practical and implementable solutions to correct?
the day-to-day challenges they face. It (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only
serves as a platform for collaborative (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
knowledge exchange for the Answer: D
improvement of governance. It also offers Explanation
a widespread and reputed lot of Statement 1 is correct: NITI Aayog was formed
governance knowledge that civil society via a resolution of the Union Cabinet
can utilize to understand the nuances of on 1 January 2015. It is the premier
civil service practices and reforms. Hence policy think tank of the Government
statement 1 is correct. of India, providing directional and
• The Department of Administrative policy inputs. It provides relevant
Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG), strategic and technical advice to the
Government of India as part of its Centre, States, and Union Territories.
mandate to document and disseminate NITI Aayog acts as the quintessential
good-governance initiatives launched a platform for the Government of India
Web Portal, namely, Governance to bring States to act together in
Knowledge Centre (GKC) in 2005. From

national interest and thereby foster 2. NITI Aayog had limited expertise and
cooperative federalism. the planning commission drew
Statement 2 is correct: NITI Aayog is membership from a wider expertise.
developing itself as a state-of-the-art 3. NITI Aayog focuses upon the ‘Bottom-
resource centre with the necessary Up’ approach of Planning and
knowledge and skills that will enable it planning commission followed by a
to act with speed, promote research ‘Top-Down’ Approach.
and innovation, provide strategic Select the correct answer using the code
policy vision for the government, and given below.
deal with contingent issues. (a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
 Statement 3 is correct: The Governing (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Council of NITI Aayog, comprising Chief Answer: C
Ministers of all the States and Union Explanation
Territories with legislatures. It is the  NITI Aayog The NITI Aayog abbreviation
premier body tasked with evolving a for National Institution for Transforming
shared vision of national priorities. The India) serves as the apex public policy
Governing Council, which embodies the think tank of the Government of India.
objectives of cooperative federalism,  The nodal agency tasked with catalyzing
presents a platform to discuss inter- economic development, and fostering
sectoral, inter-departmental and federal  Cooperative federalism through the
issues to accelerate the implementation involvement of State Governments of
of the national development agenda. India in the economic policy-making
 Statement 4 is correct: NITI Aayog plays an process using a bottom-up approach.
integrative role—with the active  It draws membership from a wider
involvement of States and civil society. expertise.
One of the main objectives of NITI Aayog  And serves in the spirit of Cooperative
is to design strategic and long-term policy Federalism as states are equal partners. It
and programme frameworks and does
initiatives and monitor their progress and  not possess a mandate to impose policies
efficacy. In 2021–22, NITI Aayog took the and does not have powers to allocate
lead in setting up sectoral targets and funds, which are vested in the Finance
fostering an environment of innovation Minister.
and cooperation by bringing together  Planning commission:
technology, enterprise, and efficient  The Planning Commission was directly
management at the core of policy responsible to India's Prime Minister. It
formulation and Implementation. was founded on March 15, 1950, under
the chairmanship of Prime Minister
20. Which of the following differences Jawaharlal
betweenNITI Aayog and planning  Nehru. The Planning Commission was
commission? established by the Central/Union
1. NITI Aayog serves as an advisory Think Government and was not established by
Tank and planning commission serves the Constitution or statute.
as an extra-constitutional body.  Planning Commission was an extra-
constitutional and non-statutory body

formed by the resolution of the 22. With reference to the President, consider the
Government of India in March 1950. following statements:
 It was an advisory body to the 1. He decides on disqualification of
Government of India on an array of issues Members of Parliament in
of economic development. consultation with the Speaker.
 It has limited expertise and follows a ‘Top- 2. He can seek advice from the Supreme
Down’ approach. Imposed policies on Court and such advice is binding on
states and tied allocation of funds with the President.
projects it approved. It had powers to 3. The President of India does not
allocate funds to ministries and state possess veto power with respect to
governments. the Constitution Amendment Bill.
21. Which of the following Veto Power is correct?
exercised by the President of India? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
1. Absolute Veto 2. Qualified Veto (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
3. Suspensive Veto 4. Pocket Veto Ans: D
Select the correct answer from the code given Exp:
below:  Statement 1 is Incorrect: He decides on
(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 2,3 and 4 only questions as to disqualifications of
(c) 1,3 and 4 only (d) All of the above members of the Parliament, in
Answer: C consultation with the Election
 The veto power enjoyed by the executive Commission not Speaker.
in modern states can be classified into the  Statement 2 is Incorrect: The President
following four types: can seek advice from the Supreme Court
 Absolute veto: withholding of assent to on any question of law or fact. However,
the bill passed by the legislature. the advice tendered by the Supreme Court
 Qualified veto: which can be overridden is not binding on the President.
by the legislature with a higher majority.  Statement 3 is Correct: The President has
 Suspensive veto: which can be overridden no veto power in respect of a
by the legislature with an ordinary Constitutional Amendment bill. The 24th
majority. Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971
 Pocket veto: that is, taking no action on made it obligatory for the President to
the bill passed by the legislature. give his assent to a constitutional
 Of the above four, the President of India is amendment bill.
vested with three—absolute veto,
suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is 23. With reference to the President of
no qualified veto in the case of Indian India,consider the following statements.
President; it is possessed by the American 1. The resolution for impeachment
President. The Constitution does not charges of the president should be
prescribe any time-limit within which he signed by one- third member of the
has to take the decision with respect to a house in which charges have been
bill presented to him for his assent. framed.
2. The Constitution defines the meaning
of ground for the impeachment of the
President.

Which of the statements given above is/are Answer:C
correct?  Statement 1 is correct: When the vacancy
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only is going to be created by the expiration of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the term of sitting President, an election
Ans: D to fill the vacancy must be completed
Exp: before expiration of the term. In case of
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The resolution any delay in the election, the outgoing
for the impeachment of the President is President continues to hold the office until
moved after 14 days' notice but it should his successor assumes the office.
be signed by not less than one-fourth  Statement 2 is correct: In order to prevent
members of the House. After the 'interregnum', owing to any possible delay
impeachment resolution is passed by a in conducting the election of a new
majority of two-third of the total President by any reason, it is provided that
membership of that House, it is sent to the outgoing President must continue to
another House, which should investigate hold office,notwithstanding that his term
the charge. has expired, until his successor enters
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The president of upon his office.
India can be removed from office by a  Statement 3 is incorrect: The Vice-
process of impeachment for 'violation of President cannot act as the President after
the Constitution'. However, the the expiration of the term of the sitting
Constitution does not define the meaning President, as the outgoing President
of the phrase 'violation of the continues to hold office until his successor
Constitution'. Other than this he can also enters upon his office after a fresh
vacate his office by resignation in writing election.
under his hand addressed to the Vice-
President. 25. The electoral college of Vice-President is
different from the electoral college of
24. Consider the following statement about the President in the following ways.
vacancy in the president office after 1. It consists of both elected and
expiration of the term of the sitting nominated members of the
President: Parliament of India.
1. An election to fill the vacancy must be 2. It includes the elected members of the
completed before the expiration of state legislative assemblies.
the term of the sitting President. 3. It also includes the elected members
2. President must continue to hold the of the legislative assemblies of the
office until his successor enters upon Union Territories of Delhi and
his office. Puducherry.
3. The Vice President acts as the Which of the statements given above is/are
President after the expiration of the correct?
term of sitting the President until the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
new President is elected. (c) 1,2, and 3 only (d) None of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans: B
correct? Exp:
(a) 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3  Statement 1 is correct: The electoral
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only college of Vice-President consists of both

elected and nominated members of the Vice-President are enquired into and by
parliament (in case of President, only the Supreme Court whose decision is
elected members). exclusive and final.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It does not  Statement 2 is incorrect: Election of the
include the members of state legislative Vice president cannot be challenged on
assemblies. the ground of any vacancy in the Electoral
 The President is the head of the State and College which elected the Vice-President.
his power extends both to the Also if the election of the Vice-President is
administration by centre as well as states. declared void by the Supreme Court, acts
Consequently, it is necessary that in his done by him prior to the date of such
election, not only members of Parliament decision of the Supreme Court shall not be
should play their part, but the members of invalidated.
the state legislatures should have a voice.  Statement 3 is correct and statement 4
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The electoral incorrect: Although Indian Vice-President
college of Vice-President does not consist is modeled on the lines of American Vice-
of Union President, there is a difference. The
 Territory of Delhi and Puducherry (in case American Vice-President succeeds to the
of President, elected members of presidency when it falls vacant, and
legislative assemblies of State and Union remains President for the unexpired term
Territory of Delhi and Puducherry are of his predecessor. The Indian Vice-
included). President, on the other hand, does not
assume the office of the President when it
26. Consider the following statements. falls vacant for the unexpired term. He
1. Any of the doubts and disputes merelyserves as an acting President until
relating to the election of Vice- the new President is elected
President is decided by the Supreme
Court whose decision is final. 27. With reference to the Prime
2. Election of the Vice president can be Minister,consider the following statement.
challenged on the ground of any 1. The Constitution of India does not
vacancy in the Electoral College. contain any specific procedure for the
3. The Vice-President of India is modeled selection and appointment of the
on the lines of the Vice-President of Prime Minister.
America but with some difference. 2. The term of the office of the Prime
4. The Vice-President of India does not Minister is fixed for 5 years.
assume the office of the President 3. He/She can bring about the collapse
when it falls vacant for the unexpired of the council of ministers by resigning
term like Vice-President of America. from office.
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. He/She does not have the power to
correct? recommend the dissolution of the Lok
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Sabha to the President.
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are
Answer:B Correct?
 Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 71 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a), all the disputes and doubts in (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only
connection with election of President or Answer:D

• Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution 4. The pardoning power is exercised by
does not contain any specific procedure the President on the advice of the
for the council of ministers.
• selection and appointment of the Prime Which of the statements given above is/are
Minister. Article 75 says only that the correct?
Prime (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
• Minister shall be appointed by the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,3 and 4 only
President but does not describe any Answer:C
procedure. Statement 1 is correct: Article 72 of the
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of Constitution empowers the President
Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds to grant pardons, the objective of
office during conferring this power to the President
• the pleasure of the President. However, it is to keep the door open for correcting
does not mean that the President can any judicial errors in the operation of
dismiss the law.
• Prime Minister at any time. If The Prime ● Statement 2 is incorrect: The pardoning
Minister enjoys the majority support in power of the President is not similar
the Lok Sabha, he/she cannot be to the pardoning power of the
dismissed by the President. Governor, as the President can
• Statement 3 is correct: The Prime Minister pardon even a death sentence and
as the head of the Union council of also any punishment or sentence by a
ministers, court-martial but, the Governor
• hence he/she can bring about the collapse cannot do so, the pardoning power of
of the council of ministers by resigning the Governor cannot extend beyond
from the punishment or sentence prescribe
• Office. to a person against a state law.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The Prime ● Statement 3 is correct: Through pardoning
Minister as the leader of the Lower House, the President also affords relief from a
in this capacity sentence, which the President regards
• he/she can recommend the dissolution of as unduly harsh.
the Lok Sabha to the President at any ● Statement 4 is incorrect: President exercises
time. pardoning power on the advice of the
Union Cabinet.
28. With reference to the pardoning power of the
President, consider the following statements: 29. Consider the following statements
1. The objective of the pardoning power 1. The Ministers hold office during the
of the President is to correct any pleasure of President
judicial error in the operation of the 2. The advice tendered by Ministers to
law. the President can be inquired into any
2. The pardoning power of the President court
is similar to the pardoning power of 3. The salaries, allowances of ministers
the Governor. shall be determined by the President
3. It is also used to afford relief from a Which of the statement/s given above is/are
sentence, which the President regards correct?
as unduly harsh. (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Vice-
Answer:A President,like the president, is elected not
Statement 1 is correct: The Prime directly by the people but by the method
minister is appointed by the President of indirect election. He is elected by the
and others ministers are appointed by members of an electoral college consisting
the president on the advice of the PM. of the members of both Houses of
The ministers hold office during the Parliament. The electoral college consists
pleasure of the president and they are of both elected and nominated members
collectively responsible to the Lok of the Parliament and It does not include
sabha. the members of the state legislative
Statement 2 is incorrect In Article 74 assemblies
constitution mentions that council of • Statement 2 is incorrect: All doubts and
ministers to aid and advise the disputes in connection with election of the
president. The advice tendered by the Vice- President are inquired into and
ministers to the president shall not be decided by the Supreme Court whose
inquired into any court. decision is final.
Statement 3 is incorrect The salaries • The election of a person as Vice-President
and allowances of ministers are cannot be challenged on the ground that
determined by the Parliament (and the electoral college was incomplete
not by the President) from time to • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Vice-
time and they receive the salaries and President holds office for a term of five
allowances that are payable to a years from the date on which he enters
member of Parliament. upon his office.He can be removed by a
resolution passed by a majority of all the
30. Consider the following statements with then members of the Rajya Sabha and
respect to Vice-President : agreed to by the Lok Sabha. This means
1. He is elected by the members of an that this resolution should be passed in
electoral college consisting of the the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority
members of both Houses of and in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority
Parliament and members of the state
legislative assemblies. 31. Consider the following statement:
2. All doubts and disputes in connection 1. The emolument of the Governor is
with election of the Vice- President decided by Parliament.
Are inquired into and decided by the 2. The Constitution does not mention
High Court any tenure for office of Governor.
3. He can be removed by a resolution 3. The Grounds of removal of the
passed by a majority of all the then Governor is clearly mentioned in the
members of the Lok Sabha and agreed Constitution.
to by the Rajya Sabha . Which of the above statements is /are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
incorrect? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only Answer:A
Answer:D Statement 1 is correct:

• The Governor shall be entitled without suspend, remit or commute a death
payment of rent to the use of his official sentence.
residences and shall be also entitled to • Statement 2 is correct:
such emoluments, allowances and • The Governor enjoys Constitutional
privileges as may be determined by the discretion in:
law of parliament. When the same person • Reservation of bill when for Presidential
is appointed as Governor of two or more consideration
States, the emoluments and allowances • Recommendation of Presidents rule in a
payable to the Governor shall be allocated State While exercising function as
among the States in such proportion as administrator of Union Territory
determined by the president. • Some Situational Discretion are as follows:
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Under Article 156 • Appointment of Chief Minister when no
it is given that the governor is appointed party has clear majority Dismissal of
by the President of India for a term of five Council of Minister when they cannot
years and holds office at the President's prove confidence in house
pleasure. • Statement 3 is incorrect: The manner of
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The President appointment of Governor has been
has the power to remove a Governor at inspired by the Canadian Constitution
any time without giving him or her any where the Governor is appointed by the
reason and without granting an Centre (not directly elected).
opportunity to be heard. • To maintain the parliamentary form of
• The governor holds office as long as the Government at state level the model of
President desires and there is no clear the USA (direct election) was dropped and
ground of his removal mentioned in the Canadian model was accepted.
Constitution.
33. Consider the following statements:
32. Consider the following statements: 1. Discretionary Powers exercised by the
1. Governor cannot remit a death Governor cannot be questioned by
sentence. the Court.
2. Governor enjoys constitutional as well 2. The Governor can return a money bill
as situational discretionary Power. for the reconsideration of the State
3. Indian Constitution adopted American legislature.
model where the governor of the Which of the statements given above is/are
state is appointed by the centre. correct?
Which of the above statements is /are (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Ans: D
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2 only Exp:
Ans: A • Statement 1 is Incorrect: The
Exp: Discretionary powers exercised by the
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The Governor Governor is not beyond Judicial review.
cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if The Supreme Court,speaking through a
state law prescribes a death sentence, the five-judge Bench in Nabam Rebia and
power to grant pardon is with the Bamang Felix v. Deputy Speaker (2016)
President. However the governor can ruled that the discretionary power of the

Governor is extremely limited and entirely long as he enjoys the majority support in
amenable to judicial review. the legislative assembly
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: As the money bill • Statement 3 is incorrect: The salary and
is introduced with the Governor’s allowances of the Chief Minister are
permission, he cannot return the money determined by the state legislature.
bill for the reconsideration of the State
Legislature. He can either give his assent, 35. What are the qualifications laid down by the
withhold his assent or reserve the bill for Constitution for appointment of the
consideration of the president. governor?
1. He should not belong to the state to
34. With reference to the Chief Minister of the which he is going to be appointed as
states which of the following statements the governor.
is/are correct? 2. He should not hold any office of profit
1. The Constitution of India does not under the Union government or any
require that a person must prove his state government or any local
majority in the legislative assembly authority or any public authority.
before he is appointed as the Chief 3. He should be a citizen of India.
Minister. 4. He should have completed the age of
2. He shall be appointed by the governor 35 years.
and hold office during the pleasure of Which of the statements given above is/are
the governor. correct?
3. The salary and allowances of the chief 1. 1 and 4 only 2. 2, 3 and 4 only
minister are determined by the 3. 3 and 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
parliament. Answer:C
Select the correct answer using the codes • Statement 1 is incorrect: He should be an
given below: outsider, that is, he should not belong to
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only the state where he is appointed, so that he
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3. is free from the local politics. It is a
Answer:A developed convention over the years and
• Statement 1 is correct: - The Constitution not the qualification specified in the
does not require that a person must prove Constitution.
his majority in the legislative assembly • Statement 2 is incorrect: This qualification
before he is appointed as the Chief is not mentioned in the Constitution for
Minister. The governor may first appoint the governor but it is mentioned in the
him as the Chief Minister and then ask him Constitution for the qualification of the
to prove his majority in the legislative President.
assembly within a reasonable period. • Statement 3 is correct: A person who
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 164 only wants to be the governor of a state needs
says that the Chief Minister shall be to be a citizen of India.
appointed by the governor. He holds • Statement 4 is correct: In order to be
office during the pleasure of the governor. appointed as a governor of the state, the
However, this does not mean that the person needs to complete the age of 35
governor can dismiss him at any time. He years.
cannot be dismissed by the governor as

36. Which of the following rights are included court upheld the right to life for
under article 21 of the constitution ? craniopagus or conjoined twins, and
1. Right to choose one’s gender identity denied the Parents of conjoined twins
2. Right to emergency medical Saba and Farah the permission to go for a
treatment without any condition. surgery to separate them. Recently Both
3. Right of a mentally challenged women of them voted independently for the first
to bear a child time in the Bihar elections.
4. Rights of craniopagus twins
Select the correct answer using the code 37. What special powers are given to the
given below: Governor in case of tribal areas under the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1,2 and 3 only sixth schedule?
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4 1. The Governor can organize and
Answer:D reorganize the autonomous districts.
• Option 1 is Correct: In National Legal 2. In case of different tribes in an
Services Authority v Union of India and autonomous district, the governor can
others, the Court found that the right to divide the district into several
self-identify one's gender, including as autonomous regions.
“third gender”, was an important part of 3. He/She can declare an area to be a
the right to a life with dignity and scheduled area.
therefore falls within the scope of the 4. The Governor is empowered to
right to life under the Indian Constitution appoint a commission to examine and
(Article 21). report on any matter relating to the
• Option 2 is correct: The supreme court, in administration of the autonomous
Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samiti vs districts or regions.
State of West Bengal, held that denial of Which of the statements given above is /are
emergency medical care is in violation of correct?
Article 21 of the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
• Constitution of India. Hence it is the (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
fundamental right of the citizens to be Answer: B
provided with emergency medical care • Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is
without any condition. empowered to organize and reorganize
• Option 3 is correct: In Suchita Srivastava & the autonomous districts. Thus, he can
Anr vs Chandigarh Administration, the increase or decrease their areas or change
supreme court has made it clear by the their names or define their boundaries
Supreme Court that the language of the and so on.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, • Statement 2 is correct: The Governor is
1971 (the MTP Act) clearly respects the empowered to divide the autonomous
personal autonomy of mentally retarded district into several autonomous regions,
persons who are above the age of majority if different tribes are present in the
and that a persons who are found to be in autonomous district.
a condition of borderline, mild or • Statement 3 is incorrect: The power to
moderate mental retardation are capable declare an area to be scheduled area lies
of being good Parents. with the President and not the Governor.
• Option 4 is correct: In Aarushi Dhasmana • Statement 4 is correct: The Governor is
vs Union Of India & Ors, the supreme empowered to appoint a commission to

examine and report on any matter relating Legislature and not with the Council of
to the administration of the autonomous Ministers.
districts or regions. He may also dissolve a
district or regional council on 39. Consider the following statements
recommendation of the commission. 1. The office of the governor and the
manner of his appointment has been
38. What powers of the Chief Minister are in taken from Canadian constitution
relation to the Council of ministers? 2. He is entitled to such emoluments,
1. He allocates and reshuffles the allowances and privileges as may be
portfolio among the ministers. determined by Parliament.
2. He brings about the collapse of the 3. When the same person is appointed
council of ministers by resigning from as the governor of two or more states,
office. the emoluments and allowances
3. He communicates to the governor of payable to him are shared by the
the state all the decisions of the states in equal proportion
council of the ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are
4. He announces the government incorrect?
policies on the floor of the house. (a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only
correct? Answer:C
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only • Statement 1 is incorrect: The office of
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 governor of the Indian Constitution has
Answer:A been taken from Government of India Act,
• Statement 1 is correct: As the head of the 1935.The manner of appointment of
state council of ministers the Chief governor was debated in constituent
Minister can allocate the portfolios among assembly. The Draft Constitution provided
the ministers. for the direct election of the governor on
• Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Minister the basis of universal adult suffrage. But
can bring about the collapse of the council the Constituent Assembly opted for the
of ministers by resigning from office. Since present system of appointment of
the Chief Minister is the head of the governor to avoid conflicts between chief
council of the ministers, his resignation or Minister and Governor. Thus the Canadian
death automatically dissolves the council model, where the governor of a
of ministers. state(province) is appointed by the Centre
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is in relation to (Governor-General) is adopted,
the Governor he/she communicates to • Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution
the governor of the state all the decisions lays down that the governor is entitled to
of the council of the ministers relating to such emoluments, allowances and
the administration of the affairs of the privileges as may be determined by
state and proposals or legislation Parliament from time to time.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: As the leader of • Statement 3 is incorrect: When the same
the house, the Chief Minister can person is appointed as the governor of
announce the government policies on the two or more states, the emoluments and
floor of the house. This power of the Chief allowances payable to him are shared by
Minister is in relation with the State

the states in such proportion as 41. Which of the following statements is/are
determined by the president. correct in reference to the Constitutional
position of the Governor?
40. The Governor has constitutional discretion in 1. After the 42nd Constitutional
which of the Following cases? Amendment (1976), ministerial advice
1. Seeking information from the chief has been made binding on the
minister with regard to the Governor.
administrative and legislative matters 2. The executive power of the state shall
of the state be vested in the governor and shall be
2. Approving any ordinary bill that falls exercised by him either directly or
under the concurrent list 3. through officers subordinate to him.
Recommendation for the imposition Select the correct answer using codes
of the President’s Rule in the state given below:
4. Exercising his functions as the (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
administrator of an adjoining union (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2
territory in case of additional charge Answer:B
Select the correct answer using the codes • Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitutional
below. position of the governor differs from that
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only of the president in the following two
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only respects:
Answer:C • After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
The governor has constitutional discretion in (1976), ministerial advice has been made
the following cases: binding on the President, but no such
• Statement 1 is correct: Seeking provision has been made with respect to
information from the chief minister with the governor.
regard to the administrative and • While the Constitution envisages the
legislative matters of the state and possibility of the governor acting at times
Reservation of a bill for the consideration in his discretion, no such possibility has
of the President. been envisaged for the President.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: There is such • Statement 2 is Correct: As per Article 154,
provision in the constitution. the executive power of the state shall be
• Statement 3 is correct: Recommendation vested in the governor and shall be
for the imposition of the President’s Rule exercised by him either directly or through
in the State. officers subordinate to him in accordance
• Statement 4 is correct: While exercising with this Constitution.
his functions as the administrator of an • ● According to Ar cle 163 of the Indian
adjoining union territory (in case of Constitution, there shall be a council of
additional charge).And also for ministers with the chief minister as the
Determining the amount payable by the head to aid and advise the governor in the
Government of Assam, Meghalaya,Tripura exercise of his functions, except in so far
and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal as he is required to exercise his functions
District Council as royalty accruing from in his discretion.
licenses for mineral exploration.

42. With reference to the National Commission Select the correct answer using the codes
on SC which of the following statements given below:
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It consists of a chairperson, a vice- (c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) None of the above
chairperson and two other members Answer: A
2. They are appointed by the President • Statement 1 is correct: The Commission is
on the recommendation of a three- vested with the power to regulate its own
member committee headed by the procedure.
Prime Minister. • Statement 2 is correct: The Commission,
3. Their conditions of service and tenure while investigating any matter or inquiring
of office are determined by the into any complaint, has all the powers of a
Parliament. civil court trying a suit and in particular in
Select the correct answer using the codes respect of the matters like summoning
given below: and enforcing the attendance of any
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only person, requiring the discovery and
(c) 1,2 and 3 only (d) None of the above production of any document,receiving
Answer: D evidence on affidavits, any other matter
Explanation which President may determine.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The National • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Central
Commission for SC consists of a government and the state governments
chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three are required to consult the Commission on
other members. all major policy matters affecting the SC,
• Statement 2 is incorrect: They are Anglo- Indian community (ST community
appointed by the President by warrant does not under this commission).
under his hand and seal (there is no
committee and recommendations). 44. With reference to the functions of the
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Their conditions National Commission on ST which of the
of service and tenure of office are following statements is/are correct?
determined by the President. 1. It investigates and monitors all
matters relating to the constitutional
43. With reference to the National Commission and other legal safeguards for the
on SC which of the following statements Scheduled Tribes and to evaluate their
is/are correct? working.
1. The Commission is vested with the 2. Measures to be taken over conferring
power to regulate its own procedure. ownership rights in respect of major
2. The Commission, while investigating forest produce to STs living in forest
any matter or inquiring into any areas.
complaint, has all the powers of a civil 3. Commission takes measures to stop
court, while trying a suit. alienation of tribal people from land
3. The Central government and the state and to effectively rehabilitate such
governments are required to consult people in whose case alienation has
the Commission on all major policy already taken place.
matters affecting the SC, ST, Anglo- 4. Commission also takes measures to
Indian community. make sure full implementation of the

Provisions of Panchayats (Extension to 3. The Commission can summon and
the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. enforce the attendance of any person
Select the correct answer using the codes from any part of India and examine
given below: him on oath.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements are correct?
(c) 1,3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Answer: C (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation Answer: D
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It takes measures • Statement 1 is correct: The Commission
over conferring ownership rights in shall meet at least once in two months.
respect of minor forest produce to STs The notice for a meeting shall normally be
living in forest areas issued two weeks in advance.
• Statement 1, 3 and 4 is correct Some of • Statement 2 is correct: The quorum for
the functions of the NCST commission are: meetings of the Commission consists of at
• It investigates and monitor all matters least three members including the
relating to the constitutional and other chairperson and/or vice-chairperson.
legal safeguards for the STs and to • Statement 3 is correct: The Commission,
evaluate their working; while investigating any matter or inquiring
• It can inquire into specific complaints with into any complaint, has all powers of a civil
respect to the deprivation of rights and court trying a suit and summon and
safeguards of the STs. enforce the attendance of any person
• It participates and advises on the planning from any part of India and examine him on
process of socio- economic development oath.
of the STs and to evaluate the progress of
their development under the Union or a 46. Consider the following statements about the
state. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
• It takes measures to safeguard rights of (NCST):
the tribal communities over mineral 1. Separate NCST was constituted by 89
resources, water resources etc., as per th Constitutional Amendment Act.
law. 2. It consists of a chairperson, a vice-
• It also takes measures to ensure full chairperson and 4 other members.
implementation of the Provisions of 3. It takes measures for full
Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled implementation of the provisions of
Areas) Act, 1996. Panchayats (Extension to the
Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996.
45. Consider the following statements about the Which of the above statement(s) is/are
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes correct?
(NCST): (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
1. The Commission needs to meet at (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
least once in two months. Answer:B
2. The quorum for meetings of the  Statement 1 is correct: 89 th
Commission consists of at least three Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
members including the chairperson bifurcated the existing combined National
and/or vice-chairperson. Commission for SCs and STs and
constituted a separate National

Commission for Scheduled Tribes. It to be scheduled castes in relation to that
further amended Article 338 and inserted State or Union territory”.
a new Article 338A in the Constitution. • Statement 3 is incorrect: As per Article
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Commission 341(2)The Parliament (not president), by
consists of a chairperson, a vice- law may include or exclude any caste, race
chairperson and three other members. or tribe or groups within castes, races or
 Statement 3 is correct: It takes measures tribes from the list of scheduled caste
for full implementation of the provisions specified in Notification.
of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled
Areas) Act, 1996. This function was 48. Consider the following statements about the
specified by the President in 2005. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(NCST):
47. Consider the following provisions about 1. The Commission takes measures to
scheduled castes under the Constitution: reduce and eliminate the practice of
1. The Union and State governments shifting cultivation by tribals.
need to consult the National 2. The Commission may hold more than
Commission for Scheduled Castes on one sitting simultaneously in different
all major policy matters affecting the parts of the country.
scheduled castes. 3. Any matter on which there is no
2. The President can specify the provision in the rules of procedure,
scheduled castes with respect to any the decision of the President shall be
State. sought.
3. The President, by law may include or Which of the above statements are correct?
exclude any caste, race or tribe from (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
the list of scheduled caste specified in (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
notification. Answer:A
Which of the above statement(s) is/are • Statement 1 is correct: The Commission
correct? has to take measures to reduce and
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only ultimately eliminate the practice of
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 shifting cultivation by tribal that lead to
Answer: B their continuous disempowerment and
 Statement 1 is correct: Article 338 (9) of degradation of land and the environment.
the Constitution provides that “the Union • Statement 2 is correct: The Commission
and State Government shall consult the may hold more than one sitting
Commission on all major policy matters simultaneously in different parts of the
affecting the scheduled castes”. country with different Members
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 341(1) functioning separately.
provides that “The President may with • Statement 3 is incorrect: If a question
respect to any State or Union territory, arises regarding any such matter for which
and where it is a State, after consultation no provision exists in the rules of
with the Governor thereof, by public procedure, the decision of the
notification, specify the castes, races or Chairperson shall be sought.
tribes or parts of or groups within castes, • The Chairperson may, if he deems fit,
races or tribes which shall be for the direct that the matter may be considered
purposes of this Constitution be deemed at a meeting of the Commission.

49. With reference to the National Commission 2. According to 2011 census, Scheduled
for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following Tribe account for about 8.6% of
statements: country's population.
1. It is a five member body with a 3. Ministry of social justice and
Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and Empowerment coordinates all
three other Members activities related to schedule caste
2. The Commission is vested with and scheduled tribe.
powers of a civil court. Which of the above statement(s) is/are
3. The Union Minister of Tribal Affairs correct?
serves as an Ex-officio Vice- (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
Chairperson of the Commission. (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above Answer:B
is/are correct? • Statement 1 is Incorrect : To identify and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only distinguish these communities, the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Chanda Committee in the year 1960 had
Answer:A laid down 5 standards to include any
• Statement 1 is correct: The National community/caste in the tribal group
Commission for Scheduled Tribes, shall • Statement 2 is Correct : According to the
consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson 2011 Census, the Scheduled Tribes
and three other Members and the account for 104 million representing 8.6%
conditions of service and tenure of office of the country’s population
of the Chairperson, Vice- Chairperson and • Statement 3 is Incorrect : Ministry of social
other members so appointed shall be such justice and empowerment coordinate all
as the President may determine. activities related to schedule caste while
• Statement 2 is correct: The Commission is ministry of Tribal affairs coordinates all
vested with powers of a civil court having activities related to schedule tribe
authority to: Summon and enforce
attendance of any person and examine on 51. Consider the following statements:
oath; Discovery & production of any 1. Both Parliament and State legislatures
documents, Receive evidence on can enact a law under Article 16(3) to
affidavits; Requisition any public record or permit domicile based preferential
copy thereof from any court or office; treatment.
Issue Commissions for examination of 2. Nagraj case (2006) judgement of the
witnesses and documents; and Any Supreme court called for the
matter which President, by rule, may quantifiable data on the
determine. backwardness of the SC/ST.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Which of the statements given above is/are
Minister of Tribal Affairs does not serve as incorrect?
an Ex-officio Vice-Chairperson of the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Commission. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:A
50. Consider the following statements • Statement 1 is incorrect: A law seeking
1. In 1960, Lokur committee laid down preferential treatment on domicile
standards to put any community or related grounds cannot be enacted by the
caste in tribal group. state government. As per Article 16(3),

such laws can be enacted only by the • Statement 2 is incorrect: It takes into
Parliament. Hence, laws seeking to account the definitions of tribal
provide local reservations can be declared Communities adopted in the 1931 Census.
as unconstitutional on the above grounds. These facts are the basis for the provision
• Statement 2 is correct: Nagraj case (2006) in Article 342(1) which mandates to
was important as the Supreme Court specify the tribes or tribal communities or
allowed reservation to be extended to the part of or groups within tribes or tribal
SCs and STs in case of promotions. communities as Scheduled Tribe in
However, it was subjected to the below relation to that State or Union Territory as
mentioned three conditions: Presence of the case may be. Thus the list of Scheduled
quantifiable data on the backwardness of Tribes is State/UT specific and a
SCs and STs is available;there is community declared as a Scheduled Tribe
inadequate representation; and there is in a State need not be so in another State.
no adverse impact on the overall The Presidential notifications under
efficiency of the administration. Clause 1 of Article 342 of the Constitution
are issued as the Constitution Orders.
52. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Scheduled Tribe : 53. With reference to scheduled Tribes in India
1. The Constitution provides the criteria consider the following statements.
for specification of a community as a 1. The Constitution defines the criteria
Scheduled Tribe. for recognition of Scheduled Tribes
2. If a tribe is declared as Scheduled through the 89th Constitutional
Tribes in any State/UT, the tribe is amendment Act of 2003.
recognised as a scheduled tribe in the 2. The largest number of tribal
whole country. communities are found in Punjab
Which of the statements given above is/are State.
correct? Which of the above statements is / are not
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Answer:D (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
• Statement 1 is incorrect: While the Answer:C
Constitution is silent about the criteria for • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution
specification of a community as a does not define the criteria for recognition
Scheduled Tribe. The words and the of Scheduled Tribes and hence the
phrase 'tribes or tribal communities or definition contained in 1931 Census was
part of or groups within tribes or tribal used in the initial years after
communities" in Article 342 have to be independence. However,Article 366(25)
understood in terms of their historical of the Constitution only provides process
background of backwardness. to define Scheduled Tribes: “Scheduled
Primitiveness, geographical isolation, Tribes means such tribes or tribal
shyness and social, educational & communities or parts of or groups within
economic backwardness due to these such tribes or tribal communities as are
reasons are the traits that distinguish deemed under Article 342 to be
Scheduled Tribe communities of our Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this
country from other communities. Constitution.”

• Statement 2 is incorrect:The largest • Article 338 provides for a National
number of tribal communities (62) are Commission for the Scheduled Castes and
found in Odisha. Scheduled Tribes with duties to
investigate and monitor all matters
54. Which of the following is/are Constitutional relating to safeguards provided for them,
Safeguards for Scheduled Tribes? to inquire into specific complaints and to
1. Article 46 2. Article 338 participate and advise on the planning
3. Article 17 4. Article 15(4) process of their socio-economic
Select the correct answer using the code development etc.
given below. • Article 330 and Article 332 of the
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 4 only Constitution respectively provide for
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 reservation of seats in favour of the
Answer:D Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
• Constitutional mechanism for upliftment Tribes in the House of the People and in
of SC The deep concern of the framers of the legislative assemblies of the States.
the Constitution for the uplift of the • Under Part IX relating to the Panchayats
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and Part IXA of the Constitution relating to
and Other Backward Classes is reflected in the Municipalities, reservation for
the elaborate constitutional mechanism Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
set-up for their uplift. local bodies has been envisaged and
• Article 17 abolishes Untouchability. provided.
• Article 46 requires the State ‘to promote
with special care the educational and 55. With reference to the Special officer for
economic interests of the weaker sections linguistic minorities, which of the following
of the people,and, in particular, of the statements is/are incorrect?
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled 1. It was incorporated into the
Tribes, and to protect them from social constitution under the
injustice and all forms of exploitation. recommendations of the
• Article 335 provides that the claims of the administrative reforms commission.
members of the Scheduled Castes and the 2. At the Central level, the Commissioner
Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into falls under the department of official
consideration,consistently with the language under, Ministry of Home
maintenance of efficiency of Affairs.
administration, in the making of 3. The Ministry of Home Affairs launched
appointments to services and posts in a 10-point programme to lend fresh
connection with the affairs of the Union or impetus to governmental efforts
of a State. towards the preservation of the
• Article 15(4) refers to the special language and culture of linguistic
provisions for their advancement. minorities.
• Article 16(4A) speaks of “reservation in Select the answer using the codes given
matters of promotion to any class or below:
classes of posts in the services under the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
State in favour of SCs/STs, which are not (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3.
adequately represented in the services Answer: D
under the State’. Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Originally, the • States Reorganisation Commission (1953–
Constitution of India did not make any 55) made a recommendation in this
provision with respect to the Special regard.
Officer for Linguistic Minorities but later, • Statement 2 is Correct : The Seventh
on the recommendation of the States Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956
Reorganisation Commission (1953–55) a inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of
new Article 350- B in Part XVII of the the Constitution
Constitution was added. • Statement 3 is Correct : The Constitution
• Statement 2 is incorrect: At the Central does not specify the qualifications, tenure,
level, the Commissioner falls under the salaries and allowances, service
Ministry of Minority Affairs but not under conditions and procedure for removal of
ministry of home affairs. the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
• Statement 3 is incorrect: It is the
Commissioner that launched a 10-point 57. With reference to Horticulture and Allied
programme to lend fresh impetus to Sectors, Consider the following statements
Governmental efforts towards the 1. India is largest producer of Milk
preservation of the language and culture 2. India is largest producer of fruits and
of linguistic minorities, but not the vegetables
ministry. 3. India is second largest producer of fish
4. India is the second largest producer of
56. Consider the following statements with silk
reference to Special Officer for linguistic How many of the above given statements
minorities is/are correct?
1. Original constitution didn't Make any a) One statement only
provision with regard to special officer b) Two statements only
for linguistic minorities c) Three statements only
2. 7th Constitutional amendment gave d) All four statements
way for it through insertion of Article Answer:C
350-B Explanation:
3. Constitution has not specified any of • India is the largest producer of milk in the
tenure, salary, allowance, service world with annual output of around 200
conditions and removal procedure for MT. The per capita milk availability has
the special officer for linguistic reached a level of 406 grams per day
minorities which is more than the world average of
Which of the above statement/s is/are 305 grams.
correct: • India is the second largest producer of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only fruits and vegetables in the world.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 • India ranks first rank in the production of
Answer: D Banana, Mango, Lime & Lemon, Papaya
Explanation and Okra.
• Statement 1 is Correct : Originally, the • India is the second largest producer of fish
Constitution of India did not make any and second largest aquaculture nation. Of
provision with respect to the Special this, the Inland fisheries contributed 68%
Officer for Linguistic Minorities. and the remaining 32% was contributed
by Marine Fisheries.

• India is the second largest producer of silk • A reform in the price adjustment
in the world after China. China and India technique to address geographical and
together account for about 98 per cent of temporal price adjustment difficulties
the global raw silk production. • When calculating poverty, private health
and education expenditures are taken into
58. With respect to Committees related to account.
Poverty Estimates,consider the following • The Mixed Reference Period was
statements employed instead of the Universal
1. Rangarajan Commission included non- Reference Period used by previous
food consumption items in committees. Statement 2 is incorrect.
measurement. • Lakdawala Committee: Lakdawala chairs
2. Tendulkar Committee is based on an expert group on 'Estimation of
calorie consumption Proportion and Number of Poor' (former
3. Lakdawala Committee shifted away Deputy Chairman Planning Commission)
from calorie consumption based gave following recommendations:
Which of the above given statements is/are • The Poverty Line strategy, which is based
correct? on calorie consumption, can be sustained
a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only (fixed consumption basket)
c) 1 only d) 2 and 3 only • The CPI-IW in urban areas and the CPI-AL
Answer:C in rural areas should be used to create
Explanation: state-specific poverty lines, which should
• The income or consumption levels are a be updated using the CPI-IW in urban
typical measure used to estimate poverty areas and the CPI-AL in rural regions.
in India, and if the income or consumption • Statement 3 is incorrect.
goes below a certain minimal level, the
household is said to be below the poverty 59. With reference to PARTICULARLY
line (BPL). VULNERABLE TRIBAL GROUPS(PVTG),
• C. Rangarajan Committee consider the following statements
recommendations are: 1. Odisha has the highest number of
• Non-food consumption items were also PVTGs
included for the first time by this 2. The PVTG of Sahariyas has the highest
committee. It also separated the population
consumption basket for rural and urban 3. The categorization of PVTG is done by
areas. the Ministry of Tribal Affairs
• It suggested that by picking up for e.g. the 4. No PVTG are found in states of Punjab
bottom quintile of population or using and Haryana.
media consumption expenditure, a better Which of the above given statements is/are
estimate of poverty can be arrived at. correct?
Statement 1 is correct. a) 1 and 3 only b) 3 only
• Tendulkar Committee recommendations c) 2 and 4 only d) 1,2 and 4 only
are: Answer:D
• A shift away from poverty estimate based Explanation:
on calorie consumption • As per Census 2011, there are a total of 75
• India's poverty line basket (PLB) is the PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes,
same in rural and urban areas.

spread over 17 states and one Union Government of India in April 2018 as a
Territory (UT). part of the biodegradable waste
• The categorization is done by the Ministry management component under the
of Home Affairs and not by the Ministry of Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin.
Tribal affairs.Statement 3 is incorrect.  The scheme intends to positively impact
• Total Population of PVTG Communities: 17 village cleanliness and generate wealth
lakhs. Highest PVTG population present in and energy from cattle and organic waste.
MP followed by Jharkhand and then Tamil The main focus areas of GOBAR-Dhan are
Nadu. Statement 1 is correct. to keep villages clean, increase the income
• Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs of rural households and generate energy
in India while no PVTGs are found in the and organic manure from cattle waste.
states of Punjab and Haryana. Statements  “A 5 percent CBG mandate will be
1 and 4 are correct. introduced for all organisations marketing
• The PVTG of Sahariyas has the highest natural and biogas,” the finance minister
population of 4,50,217. Statement 2 is said in a budget speech. Statement 2 is
correct. correct.
• PVTGs of Sentinelese and Andamanese  Therefore, option(c) is correct.
have a very small population of 39 and 43,
respectively. 61) Consider the following statements regarding
• Therefore,option(d) is correct. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act,
1971.
60. With reference to Union budget 2023-24, 1. The Medical Termination of
consider the following statements Pregnancy Act, 1971 has not been
1. 500 new ‘waste to wealth’ plants amended since inception.
under GOBARdhan (Galvanizing 2. The MTP Act recognises abortion as a
Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan) choice of the women.
scheme. 3. It makes ‘medical termination of
2. 5 per cent compressed biogas pregnancy’ legal in India under
mandate to be introduced for all specific conditions.
organisations marketing natural and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
biogas. a) 1, 2 b) 3 only
Which of the above given statements is/are c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3
correct? Answer: b)
a) 1 only b) 2 only The MTP Act, first enacted in 1971 and then
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 amended in 2021, certainly makes
Answer C ‘medical termination of pregnancy’
Explanation legal in India under specific
 The Union Finance Minister announced conditions. However, this Act is
500 new ‘waste to wealth’ plants for framed from a legal standpoint to
promoting a circular economy with a total primarily protect medical
investment of Rs 10,000 crore under the practitioners because under the
GOBAR-Dhan scheme. Indian Penal Code, “induced
Statement 1 is correct. miscarriage” is a criminal offence.
 Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources This premise points to a lack of choice and
(GOBAR)-Dhan was launched by the bodily autonomy of women and rests

the decision of abortion solely on the security check areas, aircraft
doctor’s opinion. The MTP Act also boarding, etc.
only mentions ‘pregnant woman’, Facial recognition technology is beneficial as it
thus failing to recognise that makes flying more convenient and
transgender persons and others who reduces congestion at airports.
do not identify as women can become How is DigiYatra being implemented?
pregnant. The project is being implemented by the
The MTP Act does not recognise abortion as a DigiYatra Foundation — a joint-
choice, they need the approval of venture company whose shareholders
medical professionals even in the first are the Airports Authority of India
few weeks of the pregnancy. (26% stake) and Bengaluru Airport,
Delhi Airport, Hyderabad Airport,
62) Consider the following statements. Mumbai Airport and Cochin
1. DigiYatra envisages that travellers International Airport. These five
pass through various checkpoints at shareholders equally hold the
the airport through paperless and remaining 74% of the shares.
contactless processing.
2. DigiYatra works on facial recognition 63) Consider the following statements regarding
technology. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram Yojna
3. DigiYatra Foundation is a joint- (PMAAGY).
venture company, where Airports 1. Pradhan Mantri Adi Adarsh Gram
Authority of India is a majority Yojna (PMAAGY) is the modified
shareholder. version of Special Central Assistance
Which of the above statements is/are correct? to Tribal Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS).
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 2. It aims at providing basic
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 infrastructure in villages with
Answer: b) significant tribal population in
The government has introduced paperless convergence with funds available
entry at select airports to make air under different schemes in Central
travel hassle-free. Under this Scheduled Tribe Component.
initiative, airports will use a facial 3. It is implemented by the Union
recognition software called ‘DigiYatra’ Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
for entry. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
DigiYatra envisages that travellers pass a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3
through various checkpoints at the c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
airport through paperless and Answer: d)
contactless processing, using facial Government has modified the earlier scheme
features to establish their identity, of ‘Special Central Assistance to Tribal
which would be linked to the boarding Sub-Scheme (SCA to TSS) with
pass. With this technology, the entry nomenclature ‘Pradhan Mantri Adi
of passengers would be automatically Adarsh Gram Yojna (PMAAGY)’, for
processed based on the facial implementation during 2021-22 to
recognition system at all checkpoints 2025-26, which aims at mitigating
– including entry into the airport, gaps and providing basic
infrastructure in villages with

significant tribal population in marginalized and economically and
convergence with funds available socially deprived communities.
under different schemes in Central The Scheme has following four components:
Scheduled Tribe Component. • To provide coaching of good quality for
It is envisaged to cover 36,428 villages having DNT/NT/SNT candidates to enable
at least 50% ST population and 500 them to appear in competitive
STs across States / UTs with examinations.
notified STs during the period. The main • To provide health insurance to DNT/NT/SNT
objective of this scheme is to achieve Communities.
integrated socio-economic • To facilitate livelihoods initiative at
development of selected villages community level to build and
through convergence approach. It strengthen small clusters of
includes the following components. DNT/NT/SNT Communities
• Preparing Village Development Plan based institutions.
on the needs, potential, and • To provide financial assistance for
aspirations; construction of houses to members of
• Maximizing the coverage of individual / the DNT/NT/SNT Communitie
family benefit schemes of the Central
/ State Governments;
• Improving the infrastructure in vital sectors 65) Consider the following statements.
like health, education, connectivity 1. A process patent ensures that the
and livelihood; rights to the final product is protected
and anyone other than the patent
64) Which of the following are the components holder is restrained from
of Scheme for Economic Empowerment of manufacturing it.
DNTs (SEED) related to De-notified, Nomadic 2. At present, India has product patents
and Semi- nomadic Tribes? regime across the pharma, chemicals,
1. To provide health insurance facilities. and biotech sectors.
2. To facilitate livelihoods initiatives at 3. India became a party to the Trade
community level. Related Aspects of Intellectual
3. To provide financial assistance for Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement
construction of houses. following its membership to the
4. To provide coaching to enable them to World Trade Organisation (WTO) in
appear in competitive examinations. 1995.
Select the correct answer code: Which of the above statements is/are
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 4 correct?
c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3
Answer: d) c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
The Minister of Social Justice and Answer: c)
Empowerment launched the Scheme A patent represents a powerful intellectual
for Economic Empowerment of DNTs property right, and is an exclusive
(SEED). monopoly granted by a government
The De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic to an inventor for a limited, pre-
Tribes are the most neglected, specified time. Patents can be either
process patents or product patents.

A product patent ensures that the rights to the by a rural household. Unemployment
final product is protected, and anyone allowances is paid to beneficiaries
other than the patent holder can be who could not be employed within 15
restrained from manufacturing it days from the date of they have
during a specified period, even if they demanded for work.
were to use a different process. All other demands for work, where the
A process patent enables any person other beneficiary has already completed
than the patent holder to 100 days in the current financial year
manufacture the patented product by or the beneficiary who demanded
modifying certain processes in the work died before 15 days of the date
manufacturing exercise. of the demand of work are not eligible
India moved from product patenting to for unemployment
process patenting in the 1970s, which allowances.Women are guaranteed
enabled India to become a significant one third of the jobs made available
producer of generic drugs at global under the MGNREGA
scale. But due to obligations arising
out of the TRIPS Agreement, India had
to amend the Patents Act in 2005, and 67) Recently the Government started the
switch to a product patents regime MAARG portal, that aims to
across the pharma, chemicals, and a) Promote bioenergy usage and create
biotech sectors. an investor-friendly ecosystem based
on circular economy
66) Consider the following statements regarding b) Reimburse the expense incurred by
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural the new startup ventures
Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA). c) Facilitate mentorship for start-ups
1. The MGNREGA is a supply-led across diverse sectors
scheme, guaranteeing at least 100 d) Extend financial aid required for the
days of unskilled work to any rural development expenses of Public
household that wants it. Private Partnership (PPP) projects in
2. Women are guaranteed one third of the infrastructure sector.
the jobs made available under the Answer: c)
MGNREGA.
3. If work is not provided within 15 days, The Department for Promotion of Industry
applicants are entitled to an and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the
unemployment allowance. Ministry of Commerce and Industry,
Which of the above statements is/are correct? has launched a call for startup
a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 applications for registration on the
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 MAARG portal, the National
Answer: c) Mentorship Platform by Startup India.
The MGNREGA is a demand driven scheme, MAARG portal - Mentorship, Advisory,
guaranteeing 100 days of unskilled Assistance, Resilience and Growth, is a
work to any rural household that one stop platform to facilitate
wants it. mentorship for startups across diverse
At least 100 days of wage employment is sectors, functions, stages,
guaranteed against the demand made geographies, and backgrounds.

The objectives of the MAARG portal are – 2002. The Court also upheld the
•To provide sector focused guidance, "twin-conditions" for bail in Section
handholding, and support to startups 45 of the PMLA Act.
throughout their lifecycle The Enforcement Directorate under the PMLA
•To establish a formalized and structured Act is not considered “police” and
platform that facilitates intelligent hence does not follow provisions of
matchmaking between the mentors the CrPC for search, seizure, arrest,
and their respective mentees attachment of properties.
•To facilitate efficient and expert mentorship The Supreme Court rejected the argument
for startups and build an outcome- that the ED should be obligated to
oriented mechanism that allows follow the CrPC while conducting
timely tracking of the mentor-mentee Investigations
engagements
68) Consider the following statements regarding CPGRAMS.
Prevention of Money Laundering Act. 1. CPGRAMS is an online platform
1. The offence under this law is mainly available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge
the laundering of money made their grievances to the public
through crimes such as terrorism, authorities on any subject related to
drug-trafficking and corruption. public service delivery.
2. The cases booked under the 2. It is the initative of Department of
Prevention of Money Laundering Act Administrative Reforms and Public
are non-bailable. Grievances (DARPG).
3. The Enforcement Directorate under 3. It does not provide any appeal facility
the PMLA Act is considered as “police” to the citizens if they are not satisfied
and hence follow the provisions of with the resolution. Which of the
Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) for above statements is/are correct?
search, seizure, arrest, attachment of a) 1 only b) 1, 2
properties. c) 1, 3 d) 2, 3
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Answer: b)
a) 1 only b) 2, 3 Centralised Public Grievance Redress and
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an
Answer: a) online platform available to the
citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances
The offence under this law is mainly the to the public authorities on any
laundering of money made through a subject related to service delivery. It is
crime. It has a three-part schedule of a single portal connected to all the
offences (or ‘predicate offences’) Ministries/Departments of
listing the various crimes such as Government of India and States.
terrorism, drug-trafficking, corruption The status of the grievance filed in CPGRAMS
and cheating that give rise to tainted can be tracked with the unique
money. registration ID provided at the time of
The Supreme Court recently upheld the registration of the complainant.
constitutional validity of the CPGRAMS also provides appeal facility
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, to the citizens if they are not satisfied

with the resolution by the Grievance receipts from six airports leased on
Officer. PPP mode and private investment
The Department of Administrative Reforms from port terminals bid out on PPP
and Public Grievances (DARPG) mode.
informed the parliamentary panel The sectors identified under
that in 2016, all Ministries, the NMP include roads, ports,
organisations and departments were airports, railways, warehousing, gas &
requested to regularly examine the product pipelines, power generation
grievances column of newspapers to and transmission, mining, telecom,
pick up the cases coming under their stadium and urban real estate.
purview and take expeditious action
to redress them in a time bound 71) Consider the following statements regarding
manner Public Distribution System (PDS).
1. The concept of a buffer stock was first
70) The government had in 2021 announced introduced during the Second Five
National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) to Year Plan.
monetise public assets through 2. The Central Government takes the
1. NHAI’s Infrastructure Investment responsibility for procurement,
Trust (InvIT) storage, transportation and bulk
2. Annual accruals from mineral and coal allocation of foodgrains, at subsidised
blocks prices.
3. Receipts from airports leased on PPP 3. The responsibility of distribution to
mode consumers including target groups
Select the correct answer code: through a network of fair price shops
a) 1, 2` b) 1, 3 (FPSs) rests with the State
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Governments.
Answer: d) Which of the above statements is/are correct?
The government had last year announced a ₹6 a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3
lakh-crore National Monetisation c) 2 only d) 1, 3
Pipeline (NMP) to unlock value in Answer: b)
infrastructure assets across sectors, PDS is operated under the joint responsibility
ranging from power to road and of the Central and State
railways in four years till 2025. Governments. The Central
In a written reply to the Lok Sabha, Minister of Government takes the responsibility
State for Finance said about ₹97,000 for procurement, storage,
crore worth of public assets were transportation and bulk allocation of
monetised in the last fiscal (2021-22). foodgrains, at subsidised prices. The
The key transactions include highway toll- responsibility of distribution to
operate-transfer (TOT)-based PPP consumers including target groups
concessions, NHAI’s Infrastructure through a network of various fair price
Investment Trust (InvIT), PowerGrid shops (FPSs) rests with the State
InvIT, annual accruals from mineral Governments. The buffer stock
and coal blocks auctioned in FY21-22, provides the basic and most flexible
private investment in the instrument for moderating short-term
redevelopment of railway colonies, effects of supply or production

shortfalls. The concept of a buffer 2. In the hills, clouds don’t easily
stock was first introduced during the dissipate and can get trapped over a
4th Five Year Plan (1969- 74) and a certain area, bringing torrential
buffer stock of 5 million tonnes of showers and even a cloud burst.
foodgrains was envisaged. The buffer 3. Convergence of the winds flowing
stock figures are normally reviewed from opposite directions can lead to
after every 5 years. formation of cumulonimbus clouds
over the hilly region.
Which of the above statement sis/are correct?
72) The amended National Biofuel Policy-2018 a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3
focuses on which of the following? c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
1. Introduction of more feedstock for Answer: d)
production of biofuels.  Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is the
2. Production of biofuels under the parent ministry of the India
‘Make in India’ programme in Special Meteorological Department (IMD). July
Economic Zones. has seen the monsoon revive over many
3. Ban of export of biofuels. parts of the country, including Jammu and
Select the correct answer code: Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and
a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 Uttarakhand. Moisture laden easterly
c) 2, 3 winds have been travelling from lower
d) 1, 2, 3 levels, reaching up to western Himalayas.
Answer: a) These winds have been colliding with the
The 2018 policy was amended to introduce westerly winds flowing across the upper
several changes. The most important levels.
amendment has been advancing the  Convergence of the winds flowing from
20% blending date by five years from opposite directions led to formation of
Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) 2030 to cumulonimbus clouds over the Kashmir
2025-26. Introduction of more region.
feedstock for production of biofuels;  In the hills, clouds don’t easily dissipate
production of biofuels under the and can get trapped over a certain area,
‘Make in India’ programme in Special bringing torrential showers and even a
Economic Zones, Export Oriented Units; and cloud burst. Monsoons in previous years
permission to allow export of biofuels too have seen similar short torrents that
in specific cases are some other have caused immense damage
changes. Apart from addition of new
members to the NBCC, the Committee 74) Consider the following statements regarding
has now been given the permission to Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP).
change the policy which it earlier 1. WEP is the initiative of Ministry of
lacked. Women and Child Development.
2. It will provide an ecosystem for
73) Consider the following statements. budding & existing women
1. Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) is entrepreneurs across the country
the parent ministry of the India along with hands-on support in
Meteorological Department (IMD). setting-up and scaling up businesses.

3. It will provide services such as free 2. The right to be informed is a consumer
credit ratings, mentorship, funding right under the Consumer Protection
support to women entrepreneurs, Act, 2019
apprenticeship and corporate 3. Every e-commerce entity is required
partnerships. to provide information regarding
Which of the above statements is/are correct? country of origin of a product.
a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3
Answer: c) c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
 NITI Aayog has launched a Women Answer: d)
Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP) for  The Union government recently said that
providing an ecosystem for budding & it plans to develop a framework to curb
existing women entrepreneurs across the fake reviews of products on ecommerce
country. SIDBI has partnered with NITI websites after studying the “best practices
Aayog to assist in this initiative. available globally”. Due to fake and
 As an enabling platform, WEP is built on misleading reviews, the right to be
three pillars- Iccha Shakti, Gyaan Shakti & informed, which is a consumer right under
Karma Shakti the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is
 Iccha Shakti represents motivating violated.”
aspiring entrepreneurs to start their  In India, fake reviews pose a threat to the
business consumer rights under the Consumer
 Gyaan Shakti represents providing Protection Act, 2019. The Act states that
knowledge and ecosystem support to the consumers have a right to be
women entrepreneurs to help them foster “informed about the quality, quantity,
entrepreneurship potency, purity, standard and price of
 Karma Shakti represents providing hands- goods, products or services”.
on support to entrepreneurs in setting-up  The Consumer Protection Act,2019 comes
and scaling up businesses in to force from today i.e. 20th July 2020.
 In addition to providing services such as  Under this act every e-commerce entity is
free credit ratings, mentorship, funding required to provide information relating
support to women entrepreneurs, to return, refund, exchange, warranty and
apprenticeship and corporate guarantee, delivery and shipment, modes
partnerships; WEP will encourage of payment, grievance redressal
entrepreneurs to share their mechanism, payment methods, security
entrepreneurial journeys, stories & of payment methods, charge-back
experiences to nurture mutual learning options, etc. including country of origin
which are necessary for enabling the
consumer to make an informed decision
75) Consider the following statements regarding at the pre-purchase stage on its platform.
Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
1. In India, fake reviews of products on e- 76) Consider the following statements.
commerce websites pose a threat to 1. Unique Identification Authority of
the consumer rights underthe India (UIDAI) is the statutory body
Consumer Protection Act, 2019. mandated to collect Aadhaar data.

2. To prevent misuse of biometric data, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
one can lock it from the UIDAI a) 1, 2 b) 2 only
website, so that they can no longer be c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3
used for authentication. Answer: b)
3. The Virtual Identity (VID) is a The Union government has
temporary 12-digit random number made capturing of attendance
that can be used in lieu of Aadhaar through its app, National Mobile
number whenever authentication is Monitoring System, compulsory at
necessary. worksites where 20 or more workers
Which of the above statements is/are correct? under the Mahatma Gandhi National
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
c) 1, 3 d) 2, 3 (MGNREGS) are employed.
Answer: b) The Ministry of Rural
 The UIDAI, the statutory body mandated Development had started the exercise
to collect Aadhaar data. on a pilot basis on May 21, 2021.
 Locking biometrics: If you are worried Initially, theutilisation of application
about misuse of your Aadhaar biometric was to be voluntary but from May 16,
data, you can also lock it from the UIDAI 2022 it has been made mandatory.
website. When you lock your biometrics The Ministry’s directive claims that
(fingerprint, iris, and face), they can no the app, which requires two time-
longer be used for authentication. stamped and geotagged photographs
 Use VID: The Virtual Identity, or VID, is a of the workers in a day, encourages
system of “Limited KYC” (Know Your transparency and increases citizen
Customer). This hides the Aadhaarnumber oversight. The biggest setback after
from the authenticating agency, while still the move has been for women
confirming the identity of the user. This is employees, especially the supervisors
a 16-digit number, but temporary in or “work mates”. In a majority of
nature. So, unlike the permanent 12-digit cases, the employees’ families are
Aadhaar number, the VID is valid only for averse to giving phones to women,
some time especially smartphones. Hence, many
women have dropped out
National Mobile Monitoring Software 78) Consider the following statements regarding
(NMMS) App. Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
1. NMMS App was launched to make (NDPS) Act.
real time attendance of workers at all 1. In India the law allows for possession
MGNREGA worksitesmandatory. of a small amount of illicit drugs.
2. To encourage transparency and 2. The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
increase citizen oversight, the app Substances (NDPS) Act adopts a
requires time-stamped and geotagged reformative approach towards drugs
photographs of the workers in a day. addicts.
3. Since the launch of the NMMS app, 3. The Department of Revenue, Ministry
there has been drastic increase in the of Finance is the NDPS Act’s nodal
working of women employees for administrative authority.
MGNREGA work. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 b) 2 only India, for establishing an inter-
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3 sectoral coordination mechanism at
Answer: c) the central and State-levels.
 In India, drug consumption or 3. One Health is a collaborative,
possession is a criminal offence. The multisectoral approach with the goal
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic of achieving optimal health outcomes
Substances (NDPS) Act of 1985 is the by recognizing the interconnection
main legislation dealing with drugs between people, animals, plants, and
and their trafficking. their shared environment.
 Currently, the NDPS Act only adopts a Which of the above statements is/are correct?
reformative approach towards a) 1 only b) 1, 2
addicts. It gives addicts immunity c) 1, 3 d) 2, 3
from prosecution and imprisonment Answer: c)
(if found guilty) if they volunteer to
undergo treatment and rehabilitation.  Karnataka will be one of two States
 However, there is no provision for where the ‘One Health’ programme
relief or exemption for, say, first-time will be piloted, the other State being
users or recreational users. Section 27 Uttarakhand.
of the NDPS Act prescribes  Set to be launched on June 28, the
imprisonment of up to a year or a fine pilot will be used to develop a national
of up to Rs 20,000, or both, for One Health Framework, a key
 consumption of any narcotic drug or objective of the One Health Support
psychotropic substance. It makes no Unit (OHSU) initiated by the
distinction between addicts, first-time Department of Animal Husbandry and
users and recreational users. Dairying (DAHD),
 The Union Ministry of Social Justice Government of India.
and Empowerment had  The framework is aimed at improving
recommended a more humane national and State-level resource
approach, avoiding prison, for drug allocation and policy ecosystem on
users and addicts. This was suggested early prediction, detection, and
after the Department of Revenue – diagnosis of zoonotic diseases
the NDPS Act’s nodal administrative through increased quality, availability,
authority. and utility of data evidence.
 At the global level, four organisations
79) Consider the following statements regarding — World Health Organization, Food
One Health Framework. and Agriculture Organization, World
1. The One Health Framework is aimed Organisation for Animal Health, and
at improving national and State-level the United Nations Environment
resource allocation and policy Programme — have joined together
ecosystem on early prediction, to work
detection, and diagnosis of zoonotic  out strategies as far as the inter-
diseases. relatedness and the way to move
2. The Department of Animal Husbandry forward for One Health are
and Dairying (DAHD) has launched concerned. As a concept, it is assumed
One Health programme throughout that any health matters are all

interrelated with each other and we against women, in its publication
cannot treat human, animal or wildlife "Crime in India" since 1953.
health in isolation.  NCRB also compiles and publishes
One Health is a collaborative, multisectoral, National Crime Statistics, i.e., Crime in
and transdisciplinary approach — India, Accidental Deaths & Suicides,
working at the local, regional, and Prison Statistics. These
national, and global levels — with the publications serve as a principal
goal of achieving optimal health reference point for policymakers,
outcomes recognizing the police, criminologists, researchers and
interconnection between people, media in India and abroad. So,
animals, plants, and their shared Statement 1 is correct.
environment.  The National Crime Records Bureau
(NCRB) categorizes different forms of
crimes against women and reports on
80) Consider the following statements regarding their incidence and disposition. The
the report published by The National Crime Crimes against women increased in
Records Bureau (NCRB) : 2022, with the total number of cases
1. NCRB compiles and publishes data on registered under the major crimes
crimes in its report named ‘Crime in against women being 659. According
India’. to the NCRB report 'Crime in India,'
2. The number of cases registered under the number of cases registered under
the Protection of Women from the Protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act has seen a Domestic Violence Act increased in
decrease in 2021 compared to 2020. 2021 compared to 2020. So,
3. Madhya Pradesh and Kerala have Statement 2 is not correct.
registered the highest number of * The National Crime Records Bureau
cases under the Protection of Women (NCRB) has published data on the total
from Domestic Violence Act in the number of crimes against women
period from 2018-20 during 2020, 371503, out of which the
Which of the statements given above is/are number of cases registered under the
not correct ? Protection of Women from Domestic
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only Violence Act, 2005 (PWDVA) during
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only the year 2020 is 496. The below table
Answer:option b is correct shows the State-wise Number of
 The National Crime Records Bureau Cases Registered under The
(NCRB) was established as a Protection of Women from Domestic
repository of information on crime Violence Act during 2018-2020. So,
and criminals to assist the Statement 3 is correct.
investigators in linking crime to the
perpetrators (a person who carries 81) Under the Hindu Succession Act 1956, the
out a harmful, illegal, or immoral act). Right to family properties is applicable to
 The National Crime Records Bureau women belonging to which of the following
(NCRB) compiles and publishes the categories ?
statistics on crimes, including crimes 1. Hinduism 2. Buddhism
3. Jainism 4. Schedule tribes

5. Muslim 82. Consider the following statements regarding
Select the correct answer using the codes the KCR Nutrition Kits
given below : i) The Government of Telangana
(a) 1 and 3 only launched the flagship program “KCR
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only Nutrition Kits” on December 21, 2022,
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only ii) The government of Telangana
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 launched “KCR Nutrition Kits” only in
high anemia prevalent districts.
Answer: Option (b) is correct. iii) Nutrition kits will be given four times
Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 to every pregnant woman.
states: “Any property possessed by a Which of the statements given above is
female Hindu, whether acquired correct?
before or after the commencement of A) Only I and ii
this Act, shall be held by her as full B) Only ii and iii
owner thereof and not as a limited C) Only i
owner. However, it was not until the D) All the above
2005 Amendment that daughters Ans: A
were allowed equal receipt of The Government launched the flagship
property as sons. program “KCR Nutrition Kits” on
3⁄4 The Hindu Succession Act 1956 deals with December 21, 2022, in high anemia-
succession and inheritance of prevalent districts such as Adilabad,
property, applicable to any person, BhadradriKothagudem,
who is a Hindu by religion in any of its JayashankarBhupalpally,
forms or developments, including a JogulambaGadwal, Kamareddy,
Vira Shaiva, a Lingayat or a follower of KumuramBheemAsifabad, Mulugu,
the Brahmo, Prarthana or Arya Samaj, Nagar Kurnool, and Vikarabad, aimed
3⁄4 The Hindu Succession Act 1956 applies to at reducing anemia and improving
any person who is a Buddhist, Jaina or hemoglobin levels in pregnant
Sikh by religion and to any other women. Nutrition kits will be given
person who is not a Muslim, Christian, twice to every pregnant woman: once
Parsi or Jew by religion unless it is on their 2nd ANC visit and the second
proved that any such person would time during the 3rd ANC visit. Each kit
not have been governed by the Hindu contains one kg of nutritional mix
law or by any custom or usage as part powder, one kg of dates, three bottles
of that law in respect of any of the of iron syrup, 500 grams of ghee, and
matters dealt with herein if this Act a cup.
had not been passed.
As per Section 2(2) of the Hindu Succession 83. Consider the following statements regarding
Act, the statute, which guarantees the Aarogya Lakshmi
equal shares for male and female i) The Government of Telangana has
heirs, does not apply to Scheduled enhanced the rates by providing an
Tribe members. So, Option (b) is additional allocation of Rs. 24 per
correct. beneficiary per day.

ii) The State Government has increased ii) In its report, NITI Aayog highlights the
the number of days the beneficiaries KCR Kit Scheme’s nutritional
receive milk and eggs from 25 to 30. enrichment, transparent quality-
iii) The Aarogya Lakshmi program is assured tech-enabled procurement
currently implemented in all the ICDS and supply chain of commodities,
projects. robust monitoring, etc. as good
Which of the statements given above is practices.
correct? Which of the statements given above is
A) Only I and ii correct?
B) Only I and iii A) Only i
C) Only ii and iii B) Only ii
D) All the above C) Both
Ans: C D) None
 The program provides pregnant Ans: A
women and breastfeeding mothers  Telangana Government was
with supplementary nutrition and commended by NITI Aayog for the
support through spot feeding, provision of Supplementary Nutrition
administration of micronutrients, through Anganwadis in its report,
growth monitoring, and “Take Home Ration: Good Practices
counselingservices. The program is across States/UTs”, in 2022. In its
currently implemented in all the ICDS report, NITI Aayog highlights the
projects, covering 35,700 AWCs in the Arogya Lakshmi Scheme’s nutritional
State. The funding for this scheme as enrichment, transparent quality-
per Government of India norms is a assured tech-enabled procurement
50:50 split between the Central and and supply chain of commodities,
State Governments. However, in the robust monitoring, etc. as good
interest of women’s health and practices.
welfare, the Government of
Telangana has enhanced the rates by 85. Assertion (A): The Under-5 Mortality Rate
providing an additional allocation of (U5MR) is defined as the number of deaths of
Rs. 14 per beneficiary per day. In children aged 5 or below per 1,00,000
addition, the State Government has children.
increased the number of days the Reason (R): The Under-5 Mortality Rate in
beneficiaries receive milk and eggs Telangana was improved from 27.7 in 2015-
from 25 to 30, dal, green leafy 16 to 26.4 in 2019-20.
vegetables for 25 days, and 200 ml Select the answer using the codes given below
milk and one egg for 30 days each A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
month. proper explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
84. Consider the following statements regarding proper explanation of A
the Take Home Ration: Good Practices across C) Only A is true
States/UTs D) Only R is true
i) “Take Home Ration: Good Practices Ans: D
across States/UTs”, in 2022 report  Telangana has witnessed substantial
was released by NITI Aayog. reductions in all indicators of child

mortality The Under-5 Mortality Rate Ans: B
(U5MR) is defined as the number of  The 1st Pay Revision Commission
deaths of children aged 5 or below per under the Chairmanship of Sri C.R.
1000 children - has improved from Biswal, IAS (Retd.), and two other
27.7 in 2015-16 to 26.4 in 2019-20. members. The commission submitted
its report to the Chief Secretary on
86. Consider the following statements regarding 31.12.2020. Key recommendations
the Infant Mortality Rate include 7.5% fitment for all employee
i) The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) of categories and a minimum pay of Rs.
Telangana declined significantly from 19,000, higher than the basic pay (Rs.
2014 to 2020. 18,000) for Union Government
ii) The Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) of employees. Based on the
Telangana was above the national recommendations of the 1st PRC and
IMR as per the sample Registration considering the welfare of employees,
System. the Hon’ble Chief Minister announced
Which of the statements given above is a revision of pay scales on the floor of
incorrect? the Legislative Assembly on
A) Only i 23.03.2021 and awarded 30 percent
B) Only ii fitment against the PRC
C) Both recommended fitment of 7.5%.
D) None
Ans: B 88. Consider the following statements regarding
 Telangana’s Infant Mortality Rate the IT Special Economic Zones in the
(IMR) has declined significantly from Telangana
35 (in 2014) to 21 in 2020 as per i) The Government of Telangana plans
Sample Registration System and to develop 100 IT Special Economic
remains below the national IMR of 28. Zones (IT-SEZ) across the state with
ii) The main aim of the IT Special
87. Consider the following statements regarding Economic Zones policy is an emphasis
Revised Pay Scales, 2020 in Telangana on developing clusters in Tier II and
i) The State government announced a Tier III.
revision of pay scales and awarded 30 Which of the statements given above is
percent fitment. incorrect?
ii) All employee categories and the A) Only i
minimum pay of Rs. 19,000, higher B) Only ii
than the basic pay of all the state C) Both
government employees and just D) None
lower than Union Government Ans: A
employees. The Government also plans to develop 53 IT
Which of the statements given above are Special Economic Zones (IT-SEZ)
incorrect? across the state with an emphasis on
A) Only i developing clusters in Tier-II and Tier-
B) Only ii III towns including Warangal,
C) Both Karimnagar, Mahbubnagar, Siddipet,
D) None Nalgonda, and Nizamabad. The IT

towers in Warangal, Karimnagar, and
Khammam is already operational
whereas those in Mahbubnagar, 90. Consider the following statements regarding
Nizamabad, and Siddipet are the ‘Mana Ooru-Mana Badi/Mana Basti-
under construction. Mana Badi
i) The State government of Telangana
89. Consider the following statements regarding launched its flagship initiative ‘Mana
the Balamrutham scheme of Telangana Ooru-Mana Badi/Mana Basti-Mana
i) The recommended quantity is 500 Badi’ in January 2021.
gms which is to be given to children ii) The main objective of the scheme is to
two times every day. upgrade the infrastructure facilities
ii) Balamrutham is distributed in packets only in rural Government schools in
of 2.5 Kg per child per month. the state.
iii) It is distributed on the first day of Which of the statements given above is
every month on Nutrition Health Day- correct?
1. A) Only i
How many statements given above are B) Only ii
correct? C) Both
A) Only one statement D) None
B) Only two statements Ans: D
C) All the three statements  The Government launched its flagship
D) None of the above initiative ‘Mana Ooru-Mana
Ans: B Badi/Mana Basti-Mana Badi’ in
 For children under the age of three January 2022 to upgrade the
and over 7 months, calorie-dense infrastructure facilities across 12
weaning food is provided by the components in 26,065 Government
Government called Balamrutham, schools in 3 phases, over a period of 3
containing wheat, chana dal, milk years, with an approved budget of
powder, oil, and sugar with the Rs.7,289.54 crore. In the initial phase
fortification of iron, calcium, vitamins, for the year 2021- 22, a budget of Rs.
and other recommended dietary 3,497.62 crore has been allotted for
allowance that children require per 9,123 (35%) schools covering
day. The recommended quantity is 14,71,684 students.
100 gms which is to be given to
children 3-5 times every day. 91. Consider the following statements regarding
Balamrutham is distributed in packets the Dharani web-portal
of 2.5 Kg per child per month. It is i) Dharani web portal offers a one-stop
distributed on the first day of every solution for agricultural land
month on Nutrition Health Day-1 transactions in the state.
along with the Balamrutham packet, ii) The portal offers 100 percent advance
16 eggs are provided to children in the slot bookings and instantaneous
age group of 7 months to 3 years, and mutation and registration and brings
30 eggs for children in the age group registrations to the doorsteps of the
of 3 years to 6 years of age, per citizens.
month.

Which of the statements given above is districts to cover approximately
correct? 38,323 SC–identified households.
A) Only i
B) Only ii
C) Both 93. Consider the following statements regarding
D) None the Two-BHK Housing Programme
Ans: C i) The State government of Telangana
Dharani web portal is a service sector announced a 2-BHK housing program
innovation for agricultural land in October 2014.
transactions in the state that offers a ii) A total of 2,92,057 homes were
one-stop solution for agricultural land approved under this initiative
transactions. The portal offers 100% between 2016 and 2022.
advance slot bookings and Which of the statements given above is
instantaneous mutation and correct?
registration and brings registrations to A) Only i
the doorsteps of the citizens.The B) Only ii
stamp duty fee is calculated by the C) Both
system without human intervention D) None
which ensures that there is no Ans: B
discretion to any official. 8,52,874  The Government announced a 2-BHK
transactions had been completed housing program in October 2015, to
through the portal as of October 2021. provide cheap and quality housing to
those in need. A total of 2,92,057
92. Consider the following statements regarding homes were approved under this
the Dalit Bandhu scheme initiative between 2016 and 2022. Of
i) The Dalit Bandhu scheme was these, the construction of 1,36,039
launched on August 4, 2021. houses was completed by December
ii) The Dalit Bandhu scheme was 2022, while the construction of the
launched in the Siddipet Assembly in remaining houses is in various stages
the Karimnagar district. of completion. Around Rs. 11,635.14
Which of the statements given above is crore has been spent on the scheme
correct? since its inception to December 2022.
A) Only i
B) Only ii 94. Consider the following statements regarding
C) Both Electronics Policy
D) None i) The Government of Telangana
Ans: A launched the Electronics Policy in
The scheme was launched on August 2021.
4, 2021, in the village of Vasalamarri, ii) The main objective of the policy is to
in the Alair Assembly Constituency promote Telangana as the ideal
(AC) of the Yadadri-Bhuvanagiri destination for the electronics
district. A provision of Rs. 4,441 industry through the creation of a
croreshave been prepared for the sustainable ecosystem
year 2021-22, of which Rs. 4150 iii) To bolster the manufacturing of
croreshas been distributed to the hardware critical for the growth of

data centers, the benefits offered 150 unemployed women have
under the Electronics Policy 2016 shall benefited.
be applicable.
Which of the statements given above is 96. Telangana State Road Transport Corporation
correct? introduced how many electric vehicles under
A) Only I and ii the Faster Adoption of Hybrid and Electric
B) Only ii and iii Vehicles (FAME) scheme to mitigate air
C) Only ii pollution and make Hyderabad a ‘green city’?
D) All the above A) 35 vehicles
Ans: B B) 77 vehicles
The Government of Telangana has launched C) 55 vehicles
the Electronics Policy 2016 to D) 40 vehicles
promote Telangana as the ideal Ans: D
destination for the electronics  TSRTC introduced 40 electric vehicles
industry through the creation of a under the Faster Adoption of Hybrid
sustainable ecosystem. To bolster the and Electric Vehicles (FAME) scheme
manufacturing of hardware critical for to mitigate air pollution and make
the growth of data centers, the Hyderabad a ‘green city’.
benefits offered under the Electronics
Policy 2016 shall be applicable. 97. Consider the following statements regarding
the SHE Teams
95. Consider the following statements regarding i) SHE Teams is a division of Telangana
the Mobile Retail Fish Outlets scheme Police and it was established in 2016.
i) The Mobile Retail Fish Outlets scheme ii) At present, 331 SHE teams are
was launched in GHMC limits in 2021. working in the state.
ii) The Mobile Retail Fish Outlets scheme iii) The main aim of the SHE Teams is to
was launched for unemployed women deal with offenses against women like
in around the GHMC area. eve-teasing, stalking, and harassment
iii) The Mobile retail Fish Outlets scheme only in public.
provides fresh fish and fish curries at Which of the statements given above is
the doorstep. correct?
Which of the statements given above is A) Only I and iii
correct? B) Only I and ii
A) Only I and ii C) Only ii
B) Only iii D) All the above
C) Only ii and iii Ans: C
D) All the above  SHE Teams is a division of Telangana
Ans: C Police established in 2014 which aims
 A new welfare scheme for to deal with offenses against women
unemployed women has been like eve-teasing, stalking, and
launched in GHMC limits in 2020 harassment in public or at workplaces,
called “Mobile Retail Fish Outlets” educational institutions, residential
which provides fresh fish and fish areas, or social media. At present, 331
curries at the doorstep through which SHE teams are working in the state.
Between October 2014-22, a total of

42,788 complaints were received C) Only i
under the initiative, leading to the D) All the above
arrest of over 26,106 perpetrators. Ans: A
The Aasara “Pension scheme has been
98. Consider the following statements launched as a net strategy for the
i) The state government in partnership welfare and social safety of the
with MeitY, Govt. of India is Government in November 2014 to
establishing the National Centre for safeguard several sections of society,
Additive Manufacturing in Warangal. including the elderly and infirm,
ii) The National Centre for Additive disabled individuals, widows, people
Manufacturing was responsible for with HIV/AIDS, Filaria patients (Grade-
enabling access to infrastructure and II and III), incapacitated weavers,
shall procure Additive Manufacturing toddy tappers, poor Beedi workers,
machines across materials viz. Metal, and single women and also Dialysis
polymer, and carbon fiber. patients are being provided pension.
Which of the statements given above is About Rs. 7,565 crore was disbursed
correct? to 44.43 lakh pensioners in 2022-23
A) Only I B) Only ii (up to January 2023). the minimum
C) Both D) None age limit for old-age pensioners has
Ans: B been revised from 65 years to 57
 The state government in partnership years, by this newly 8.96 lakh pensions
with MeitY, Govt. of India is have been sanctioned in the year
establishing the National Centre for 2022-23 (till January 2023). the
Additive Manufacturing (NCAM) in pension amount has been increased
Hyderabad. The center shall be from Rs. 1,500/- to Rs. 3,016/- per
responsible for enabling access to month for disabled persons and all
infrastructure and shall procure other categories of pensioners from
Additive Manufacturing machines Rs. 1,000/- to Rs. 2,016/- per month.
across materials viz. Metal, polymer, Telangana is the only state in the
and carbon fiber. country that is giving pensions to
dialysis patients and filaria patients.
99. Consider the following statements regarding
the Aasara Pension scheme 100. Consider the following statements regarding
i) “Aasara “Pension scheme was the Telangana AI Framework
launched in November 2014. i) Telangana AI Mission was established
ii) The minimum age limit for old-age in partnership with NASSCOM to
pensioners was revised recently from undertake activities under the state’s
65 years to 60 years. AI Framework.
iii) Telangana is the only state in the ii) All initiatives such as High-
country that is giving pensions to Performance AI Computing Facilities
dialysis patients and filaria patients. shall also be made available to
Which of the statements given above is downstream Space-Tech companies.
correct? Which of the statements given above are
A) Only I and iii incorrect?
B) Only I and ii A) Only i

B) Only ii 102) Which of the following factors can aid in the
C) Both moderation of current account deficit (CAD)
D) None in India?
Ans: D 1. Rising workers remittances to India
Telangana AI Mission (T-AIM) is a Telangana 2. Rising services exports from India
government body established in 3. Abatement of selling pressure by
partnership with NASSCOM to foreign investors in Indian market
undertake activities under the state’s 4. Fall in commodity prices
AI Framework. Various innovative Select the correct answer code:
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 4
applications in the downstream
c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
segment employ the use of AI to build
Solution: d)
solutions that deliver socio-economic
India’s exports and imports declined by
impact and are thus also aligned with
6.59% and 3.63% respectively in
the state’s AI Framework.
January 2023, there are indications
thatthe current account deficit
101. Consider the following statements regarding (CAD) – the difference between
the Empowerment of Transgender in exports and imports of goods and
Telangana services – willmoderate despite the
i) The State government of Telangana global slowdown triggered by the
Constituted a State Welfare Board for rising inflation and interest rates.
Transgender Persons. The moderation in CAD, expected to be
ii) The State government of Telangana aided by the fall in commodity
sanctioned an amount of Rs.5 crores prices, rising workers remittances
for improving the socio-economic andservices exports, and
status of transgenders in the state. abatement of selling pressure by
Which of the statements given above is foreign investors, is set to boost
sentiment on the investment front,
correct?
as it will also bring the pressure off
A) Only I B) Only ii
the currency.
C) Both D) None
Ans: A
103) Consider the following statements.
The Government has constituteda State
1. A V-shaped recovery is
Welfare Board for Transgender characterised by quick and
Persons to advise the State effective recovery in measures of
Government on the formulation of economicperformance after an
policies, programs, legislation, and acute decline in the economy.
projects concerning transgender 2. A K-shaped recovery occurs when,
persons and sanctioned an amount of following a recession, different
Rs.200 lakh for improving the socio- parts of the economy recover
economic status of transgenders by atdifferent rates, times, or
providing Skill Development Training, magnitudes.
Economic Rehabilitation Scheme, Which of the above statements is/are
Establishment of Home and Help Desk incorrect?
for Transgenders and issued 245 a) 1 only b) 2 only
Cards for the availing various c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Government schemes Solution: d)

A V-shaped recovery is characterised by Select the correct answer code:
quick and effective recovery in a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 4
measures of economic c) 2, 3, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
performanceafter an acute decline Solution: d)
in the economy.A K-shaped  “Movements in the FCA occur
recovery occurs when, following a mainly on account of purchases
recession, different parts of the and sales of foreign exchange by
economy recover at differentrates, the RBI, incomearising out of the
times, or magnitudes. deployment of the foreign
exchange reserves, external aid
104) MSCI indexes, recently seen in news is receipts of the CentralGovernment
related to and the effects of revaluation of the
a) Multidimensional Poverty assets,”
b) Food and Nutrition Security
c) Stock Market 106) Which of the following are regarded as
d) WPI and CPI Inflation freebies provided by Governments?
Solution: c) 1. Farm loan waivers
 MSCI indices are tracked by 2. Free public transportation
investors globally, who allocate 3. Waiver of pending utility bills
funds based on weightage given to 4. Free electricity and water
countries andstocks. Select the correct answer code:
 MSCI, or Morgan Stanley Capital a) 1, 2 b) 1, 2, 3
International, is owned by the c) 1, 2, 4 d) 1, 2, 3, 4
multinational investment Solution: d)
management andfinancial services Any public policy intervention that doesn’t
company Morgan Stanley.It is a support medium-term to long-term
leading provider of critical decision production and productivity maybe
support tools, including stock termed as a freebie.
indexes, and services for the global Free electricity, free water, free public
investment community. It has over transportation, waiver of pending
160,000 indexes in its portfolio. utility bills and farm loan waivers
 MSCI Indexes facilitate the areoften regarded as freebiesThey
construction and monitoring of potentially undermine credit
portfolios in a cohesive and culture, distort prices through
complete manner,avoiding cross-subsidisation eroding
benchmark misfit. incentives for privateinvestment,
and disincentive work at the current
105) Movements in the foreign currency assets wage rate leading to a drop in
(FCA) in India occur mainly on account of labour force participation
1. Purchase and sale of foreign
exchange by the RBI 107) Consider the following statements regarding
2. Effects of revaluation of the assets transfer pricing.
3. External aid receipts of the Central 1. Transfer pricing is an accounting
Government practice that represents the price
4. Income arising out of the that one division in a
deployment of the foreign companycharges another division
exchange reserves for goods and services provided.

2. Transfer pricing is used by market forces. The profit of 200
companies to reduce the overall rupees is,thereby, shifted to the
tax burden of the parent company. country of B. The goods is
3. The transfer pricing practice does transferred on a price (transfer
not extend to cross-border price) which is arbitrary ordictated
transactions. (200 hundred rupees), but not on
Which of the above statements is/are the market price (400 rupees).”
correct? The effect of transfer pricing is that the
a) 1 only b) 1, 2 parent company — or a specific
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 subsidiary — tendsto
Solution: b) produceinsufficient taxable income
Transfer pricing is an accounting practice or excessive loss on a transaction.
that represents the price that one Profits accruing to the parent can be
division in a company increased by setting high transfer
chargesanother division for goods prices to siphon profits from
and services provided. subsidiariesdomiciled in high-tax
Transfer pricing allows for the countries, and low transfer prices
establishment of prices for the to move profits to subsidiaries
goods and services exchanged located in low-taxJurisdiction
between subsidiaries, affiliates, or
commonly controlled companies 108) Consider the following statements regarding
that are part of the same larger Kelp forests.
enterprise. 1. Kelp forests are underwater areas
Transfer pricing can lead to tax savings for which provide food and shelter for
corporations. The transfer pricing fish, invertebrates and
practice extends to cross- marinemammal species.
bordertransactions as well as 2. They offer crucial services such as
domestic ones. carbon sequestration and erosion
Companies use transfer pricing to reduce control.
the overall tax burden of the parent 3. Bryozoa are highly beneficial for
company. increasing the productivity of kelp
How does transfer pricing work? forests.
The I-T Department gives the following Which of the above statements is/are
example: “Suppose a company A correct?
purchases goods for 100 rupees a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3
and sellsit to its associated c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
company B in another country for Solution: a)
200 rupees, who in turn sells in the  Kelps cover 25 per cent of the
open market for 400rupees. world’s coastlines and provide food
“Had A sold it (the good) direct, it would and shelter for fish, invertebrates
have made a profit of 300 rupees. and marinemammal species. They
But by routing it through B, it also offer crucial services such as
(A)restricted it (profit) to 100 carbon sequestration and erosion
rupees, permitting B to appropriate control, according toscientists.
the balance. But kelps are increasingly threatened by
“The transaction between A and B is climate change, eutrophication and
arranged and not governed by

shoreline development, among dissolved oxygen in a stream or
otherhuman-induced stressors. lake can tell us a lot about itswater
One such threat is from bryozoa, moss quality.
animals that grow as mats on Oxygen concentrations are much higher in
kelps. They drive the seaweed to air, which is about 21% oxygen,
sink intothe seafloor and than in water, which is a tiny
disintegrate. fractionof 1 percent oxygen.
The outbreak can be linked to high Dissolved oxygen levels decrease with
temperatures. For example, in increasing temperature and
2015, researchers observed an atmospheric oxygen content is far
expansiveoutbreak of bryozoa. higherthan dissolved oxygen
These observations coincided with levels.
‘the blob’, a marine heat wave that Ice and snow reduce the amount of
emerged across thenortheast sunlight reaching aquatic plants,
Pacific Ocean, according to a thereby reducing
report. photosynthesisand oxygen
Dense kelp beds in warmer and less wave- production.
exposed sites are more susceptible
to bryozoan outbreaks. 110) Consider the following statements regarding
Seaweeds are farmed as they have Whale strandings.
industrial applications. They can be 1. Whale stranding is a phenomenon
harvested to extract biostimulants in which whales are stuck on land,
forplant growth. They also can help usually on a beach.
in long-term carbon sequestration 2. Stranding events involve only
and regeneration of ocean single animals and there are no
habitats. instances of mass strandings
consisting ofdifferent marine
109) Consider the following statements regarding animals at a time.
dissolved oxygen in an aquatic ecosystem 3. The topography of a region and
1. Its concentration in fresh water is increasing noise pollution in the
usually more than the oceans can lead to Whale
concentration of oxygen in air. strandings.
2. It increases with increase in Which of the above statements is/are
temperature of a water-body. correct?
3. Snow cover of ice on water a) 1 only b) 1, 2
reduces dissolved oxygen c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
concentration. Solution: c)
Which of the above statements is/are Earlier in February, 14 pilot whales were
correct? stranded near the shore of
a) 1, 3 b) 3 only Kalpitiya, a town located on Sri
c) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3 Lanka’s westcoast.
Solution: b) Apart from Sri Lanka, Australia’s Tasmania
Dissolved oxygen (DO) is a measure of has also seen mass beaching of
how much oxygen is dissolved in whales. Last year in September,
the water - the amount of morethan 230 pilot whales were
oxygenavailable to living aquatic stranded on the west coast of the
organisms. The amount of region.Whale stranding is a

phenomenon in which whales are not included as a part of the
stuck on land, usually on a beach. product's market price. These
Other aquatic animalslike dolphins include environmentalpollution,
and porpoises are also known to strains on public healthcare from
beach. Most of the stranding the sale of tobacco products, and
events involve single animals any other side effects that have
butsometimes, mass strandings, anexternal, negative impact
consisting of hundreds of marine
animals at a time, can happen. 112) Consider the following statements regarding
The reasons for mass strandings are stellar occultation.
several, including the topography 1. A stellar occultation occurs when,
of the region, illness, human as seen from Earth, a bright star
activities andincreasing noise passes behind a planet.
pollution in the oceans. 2. The phenomenon, which rarely
Among the major hotspots for the occurs, is used to analyse a
beaching of aquatic animals are planet’s atmosphere and
Tasmania, New Zealand‘s Golden determine if it hasa ring around it.
Bay andMassachusetts’s Cape Which of the above statements is/are
Cod in the United States. Pirotta correct?
explained that these areas witness a) 1 only b) 2 only
several instances ofstranding c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
possibly because the deep water Solution: c)
here quickly becomes shallow due A stellar occultation occurs when, as seen
to tidal variations. from Earth, a bright star passes
behind a planet. This
111) Carbon taxes are a type of Pigovian tax allowsastronomers or anybody on
because Earth to observe the sharp
a) they adversely affect the lower silhouette of the planet for a brief
strata of society period of time. Thephenomenon,
b) they follow progressive taxation which rarely occurs, is used by
principles researchers to analyse a planet’s
c) they address negative externalities atmosphere and determine if ithas
d) None of the above a ring around it — in 1977,
Solution: c) scientists discovered the Uranian
 Carbon tax is a form of pollution ring system with the help of stellar
tax. It levies a fee on the occultation.
production, distribution or use of
fossil fuels based onhow much 113) Consider the following statements regarding
carbon their combustion emits. Godavari River.
From an economic perspective, carbon 1. Godavari is the largest River in
taxes are a type of Pigovian tax. A peninsular India.
Pigovian tax is a tax assessed 2. The Godavari River rises from
againstprivate individuals or Trimbakeshwar and drains into
businesses for engaging in Arabian Sea.
activities that create adverse side 3. Purna, Indravati, Musi and Majira
effects for society. Adverse are the tributaries of the Godavari
sideeffects are those costs that are River.

Which of the above statements is/are and provide reference stations that
correct? are vital to cartographers to
a) 1, 2 b) 1 only prepare higher resolution maps.
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
Solution: b) In December 2022, the Centre officially
The Godavari is the largest Peninsular released the National Geospatial
river in India. Policy of India that allows any
The major tributaries of the river can be privateagency to make high
classified as the left bank resolution maps. Before this, the
tributaries which include Survey of India made various
the Purna, Pranhita, Indravati, and Sabari categories of maps that,while
River and the right bank tributaries available for nominal charges,
include Pravara, Manjira,and were relatively hard to access.
Manair. Moreover, maps made for
It drains into the Bay of Bengal. Its “civilianpurposes” were coarser
drainage basin is also the largest than the “defence series maps” that
among the peninsular rivers.The were more detailed but only
Musi river is one of the major accessible to theDefence Ministry.
tributaries of Krishna River.
114) Consider the following statements. Mission Vatsalya Scheme.
1. Survey of India functions under 1. Mission Vatsalya Scheme is a
Union Ministry of Home Affairs. roadmap to achieve development
2. Survey of India is the National and child protection priorities
Survey and Mapping Organization alignedwith the Sustainable
of India, that makes high Development Goals (SDGs).
resolutionmaps for civilian 2. It lays emphasis on child rights and
purposes and defence purposes. awareness along with
3. The National Geospatial Policy of strengthening of the juvenile justice
India allows private agencies to care andprotection.
make high resolution maps. 3. The Scheme is implemented as a
Which of the above statements is/are Centrally Sponsored Scheme by
correct? the Ministry of Social Justice
a) 2 only b) 1, 2 andEmpowerment in partnership
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 with State Governments and UT
Solution: c) Administrations.
Survey of India, The National Mapping Which of the above statements is/are
Agency of the country under the correct?
Department of Science & a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3
Technology.The Survey of India c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
(SoI), India’s 250-year-old map Solution: a)
maker, while no longer having a Mission Vatsalya Scheme is a roadmap to
monopoly on making achieve development and child
highresolution maps, will remain protection priorities aligned with
the arbiter of maps that deal with theSustainable Development
State borders and national Goals (SDGs). It lays emphasis on
boundaries. They willalso maintain child rights, advocacy and

awareness along almost all organs of the human
withstrengthening of the juvenile body.
justice care and protection system Which of the above statements is/are
with the motto to 'leave no child correct?
behind'. a) 1, 3 b) 1, 2
The Scheme is implemented as a Centrally c) 2, 3 d) 2, 3
Sponsored Scheme by the Ministry Solution: b)
of Women Child Development Classification based on Stem Cells
inpartnership with State formation at different times of
Governments and UT human lives
Administrations to support the There are 3 types under this classification
States and UTs in • Embryonic stem cells
universalizingaccess and • Adult stem cells
improving quality of services • Induced pluripotent stem cells or iPSC’s
across the country.Mission What are Embryonic Stem cells?
Vatsalya scheme supports the These are the Stem cells that exist during
children through Non-Institutional the earliest stage of development.
Care under Private Aided These are pluripotent stem
Sponsorshipwherein interested cells,meaning they can divide into
sponsors (individuals/ institutions/ more stem cells or can become any
company/ banks/ industrial units/ type of cell in the body. What are
trusts etc.) can provideassistance Adult Stem Cells?
to children in difficult • These are the cells that can multiply
circumstances. when there is a need to repair adult
The District Magistrates take measures to organs and tissues.
encourage individualsor Public/ • These cells are present in almost all
Private Sector Organisations to organs of the human body.
sponsor a child or a group of • They are multipotent i.e. they can give
children or an Institution. rise to a limited number of mature
Sucharrangements are subject to cell types, usually corresponding to
stipulations as per the Juvenile the tissues in which they reside. A
Justice (Care and Protection of most well-known example is the
Children) Act, 2015,and Rules blood-forming (hematopoietic)
thereof. stem cells from bone marrow that
give rise to different blood cells in
116) Consider the following statements regarding our body.
Stem Cells.
1. Embryonic Stem cells have the 117) CAR T-cell therapy, recently seen in news, can
potential to become almost any cell be helpful to fight which of the following
type and are found during the diseases?
earlystages of development. a) Any new variant of Covid-19
2. Adult Stem Cells can multiply when b) Hepatitis-B
there is a need to repair adult c) Tuberculosis
organs and tissues. d) Cancer
3. Induced pluripotent stem cells Solution: d)
(iPSC’s) are naturally present in Chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell
therapy is a way to get immune

cells called T cells (a type of white noimplications for the latter.
bloodcell) to fight cancer by AUKUS is not a North Atlantic
changing them in the lab so they Treaty Organization (NATO) for the
can find and destroy cancer cells. Indo-PacificRather, it is focussed
CAR T-cell therapy isalso sometimes on technology and it’s very specific
talked about as a type of cell-based about developing strategically
gene therapy, because it involves important capabilities tomaintain
altering the genes inside Tcells to stability, a diplomatic source said.
help them attack the cancer. On the other hand, the Quad is a
This type of treatment can be very helpful broader collaboration at the
in treating some types of cancer, political level
even when other treatments are
nolonger working. 119) The Supreme Court of India’s judgement in
Prakash Singh vs Union of India case, is
118) Consider the following statements. related to
1. The primary focus of the AUKUS a) Land Reforms
arrangement between Australia, b) Labour Reforms
the U.S. and the U.K. are c) Police Reforms
submarinetechnology d) Right to Education
development. Solution: c)
2. AUKUS is officially considered as a Appointments of DGPs are now made on
NATO for the Indo-Pacific region. the basis of the Supreme Court
Which of the above statements is/are judgment on police reforms in
correct? PrakashSingh vs Union of India 17
a) 1 only b) 2 only years ago. According to the SC’s
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 guidelines on the appointment of
Solution: a) police chiefs, theDGP is to be
The primary focus of the AUKUS selected by the state government
arrangement between Australia, from among the three senior most
the U.S. and the U.K. is officers who have beenempanelled
submarinetechnology for promotion to that rank by the
development. UPSC “on the basis of their length
The three AUKUS partners announced of service, very good record and
their implementation plan to equip range of experience for heading
Australia with SSN class nuclear the police force”.The DGP should
attacksubmarines. have a fixed tenure of two years in
Under this, Australia will receive at least the post, irrespective of the date of
three second-hand SSNs from the retirement. A DGP can be removed
U.S. in the 2030s as aninterim only in exceptional circumstance
measure, while Canberra would
receive five new SSNs to be 120) Consider the following statements regarding
designed and developed by the 9th schedule of the Indian constitution.
U.K. fromthe early 2040s to the late 1. The Ninth Schedule was added to
2050s. the Constitution by the First
On the possible conversation between the Amendment in 1951.
AUKUS and the Quad, diplomatic 2. The Supreme court in I R Coelho
sources said the former has case upheld the authority of

judiciary to review any such laws anyfundamental right and if yes
thatdamage the basic structure whether the violation also damages
even if they have been put in 9th or destroys the basic structure. If
Schedule after the the answer toboth the questions is
KesavanandaBhartaiJudgment. in the affirmative, then only a law
3. The Supreme Court laid down dual placed in the Ninth Schedule can
test to examine the validity of a law be declaredunconstitutional.
placed in the Ninth Schedule,i.e;
Whether it violates any 121) Consider the following statements regarding
fundamental right and if yes Privilege motion.
whether the violation also damages 1. Parliamentary privileges are
or destroysthe basic structure. certain rights and immunities
Which of the above statements is/are enjoyed by members of
correct? Parliament,individually and
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 collectively, so that they can
c) 1, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 effectively discharge their
Solution: d) functions.
The Ninth Schedule was added to the 2. A notice is moved in the form of a
Constitution by the First motion by any member of either
Amendment in 1951. House against those being
In IR Coelho versus State of Tamil Nadu, heldguilty of breach of privilege.
various laws placed in the Ninth 3. The leader of the house is the first
Schedule were challenged on level of scrutiny of a privilege
theground that any law violating motion.
fundamental rights should be Which of the above statements is/are
struck down as “unconstitutional” correct?
and that thecourt’s power of judicial a) 2, 3
review cannot be taken away. A b) 2 only
nine-judge constitution bench c) 1, 2
delivered its verdict onthe issue in d) 1, 2, 3
January 2007. Solution: c)
What did the SC constitution bench say? Parliamentary privileges are certain rights
The SC upheld the Parliament’s power to and immunities enjoyed by
place a particular law in the Ninth members of Parliament,
Schedule. But it said laws placed individually andcollectively, so that
inthe Ninth Schedule are open to they can “effectively discharge their
judicial scrutiny and that such laws functions”. When any of these
do not enjoy a blanket rights and immunities
protection.Laws placed in the Ninth are disregarded, the offence is called a
Schedule after the breach of privilege and is
KesavanandaBhartai Judgment on punishable under law of
April 24, 1973, when itpropounded Parliament.A notice is moved in the
the “basic structure” doctrine, were form of a motion by any member of
open to challenge.It laid down dual either House against those being
test to examine the validity of a law held guilty ofbreach of privilege.
placed in the Ninth Schedule. Each House also claims the right to
Whether it violates punish as contempt actions which,

while not breach of anyspecific Hyderabad and led to the
privilege, are offences against its incorporation of the princely state
authority and dignity. of Hyderabad into the Indian Union.
The Speaker/RS chairperson is the first
level of scrutiny of a privilege 124) Consider the following statements regarding
motion. The Speaker/Chair can Dayanand Saraswati.
decide onthe privilege motion 1. He opposed the supreme authority
himself or herself or refer it to the of the vedas.
privileges committee of Parliament. 2. He established the Arya Samaj as
a leading reform movement.
122) Which of the following schedules of the 3. His various beliefs included
Constitution have a bearing on the rejection of idolatry and the
governance of tribals in India? ritualistic traditions of Hinduism.
1. Fifth schedule Which of the above statements is/are
2. Sixth Schedule correct?
3. Seventh Schedule a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3
4. Tenth Schedule c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3
Select the correct answer code: Solution: c)
a) 1, 4 b) 2, 3 Dayanand Saraswati (1824-1883) was
c) 1, 2 d) 1, 2, 3 one of the most influential figures of
Solution: d) 19th-century India. A believer in
5th and 6th schedule directly concern thesupreme authority of the vedas,
themselves with tribal governance he established the Arya Samaj in
as all the special provisions 1875, leading a reform movement
madeunder the constitution fall withinorthodox Hinduism. Among
under it. For e.g. constituting a his various beliefs included a
tribal advisory council; giving tribals rejection of idolatry and the overly
control over landand forests etc. ritualistic traditionsof Hinduism,
7th schedule is concerned with the division support for women’s education,
of legislative power between denunciation of child marriage and
Centre and States. It concerns an opposition to untouchability.
withforests; welfare; mining and His magnum opus, Satyarth Prakash
minerals which have a direct (1875), emphasised the “return to
bearing on the tribal community in Vedic principles” that Dayanand
India.10th schedule is about anti- Saraswatibelieved “had been lost”
defection. over time.
123) The code name for police action that 125) Consider the following statements regarding
integrated Hyderabad into the Indian Union Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR).
is known as 1. The Indian Council for Cultural
a) Operation Black Thunder Relations (ICCR), is an
b) Operation Blue Star autonomous organisation of the
c) Operation Polo Government ofIndia, involved in
d) Operation Vijay cultural exchange with other
Solution: c) countries and their people.
Operation Polo: Indian armed forces 2. It can issue binding orders to
ended the rule of the Nizam of promote Indian culture, like making

it mandatory to play Indian music left shoulderlike the Veena, or
atairports and railway stations. holding it parallel to the ground like
3. It was founded by Jawaharlal the Sarod, or like the Sitar, which is
Nehru. held at an angle of 50-60 degrees
Which of the above statements is/are to the ground.
correct? The Sursingar (along with the Rudra
a) 1 only b) 1, 3 Veena and the Surbahar) usually
c) 1, 2 d) 2, 3 accompaniesDhrupad, the genre
Solution: a) of Hindustani vocal music which
The Indian Council for Cultural Relations has a low, deep, and thoughtful
(ICCR), is an autonomous pitch.
organisation of the Government of
India,involved in India's global Directions (127-131) Study the information carefully
cultural relations, through cultural and answer the questions given below
exchange with other countries and Following are the conditions for admission to
their people. Itwas founded on 9 Gurukul Degree college. A student should
April 1950 by Maulana Abul Kalam 1. be of minimum 18 years of age as on
Azad, the first Education Minister of 01.08.2023
independent India. 2. have secured at least 45 % marks in
intermediate
126) Consider the following statements regarding 3. have secured at least 70 % marks in
the musical instrument Sursingar Gurukul CET
1. Sursingar is a stringed musical 4. be ready to pay Rs. 250 web
instrument similar to sarod.
counselling fees at the time of
2. The instrument is mainly made of
admission
leather.
3. The Sursingar usually
A student who fulfil all conditions except:
accompanies Dhrupad, the genre
of Hindustani vocal music.
Which of the above statements is/are (a) at (2) above, but has secured
correct? minimum of 80 % marks in entrance
a) 1, 2 b) 1, 3 exam, case to bereferred to president
c) 2, 3 d) 1, 2, 3 Admission.
Solution: b) (b) at (4) above, but can pay at least Rs.
Sursingar, a stringed musical instrument 500 at the time of admission, case to
that is similar to the sarod, but bereferred to Dean of the college.
which is older and produces Based on the above conditions and
deepernotes. The instrument is information provided in each of the
made of wood and has a gourd question below, decide the course of
attached to a hollow wooden action in each case. No further
handle with a metalfingerboard. information is available. You are not
The strings of the instrument, usually four to assume anything.
in number and made of brass or
 Mark answer (1) if the student is to be
bronze, are plucked witha metal
admitted.
pick.TheSursingar can be played
either holding it vertically in front of
the musician and supported by his

 Mark answer (2) if the case is to be respectively. He can pay Rs. 300 at the time
referred to President, Admission, or to of admission.
the Dean ofthe College. 1. Mark answer (1) if the student is to be
 Mark answer (3) if the data are not admitted.
adequate to take the decision 2. Mark answer (2) if the case is to be
 Mark answer (4) if the student is not referred to President, Admission, or to
be admitted. the Dean ofthe College.
3. Mark answer (3) if the data are not
127. Shekhar has secured 58 per cent and 85 adequate to take the decision
percent marks in Intermediate and in the 4. Mark answer (4) if the student is not
entrance test respectively. He was born on be admitted.
11th January 1995. He can pay Rs.300 web Answer: 4
counselling fees at the time of admission
1. Mark answer (1) if the student is to be 130. Anjali can pay Rs. 300/- at the time of
admitted. admission and has secured 60 percent and 90
2. Mark answer (2) if the case is to be percent marks in graduation and in the
referred to President, Admission, or to entrance test respectively. She was born on
the Dean ofthe College. 9th March 1999.
3. Mark answer (3) if the data are not 1. Mark answer (1) if the student is to be
adequate to take the decision admitted.
4. Mark answer (4) if the student is not 2. Mark answer (2) if the case is to be
be admitted. referred to President, Admission, or to
the Dean ofthe College.
Answer: 2 3. Mark answer (3) if the data are not
adequate to take the decision
128. Shalini has secured 75 percent and 80 percent 4. Mark answer (4) if the student is not
marks in the Intermediate and in the Gurukul be admitted.
CET respectively. She can pay Rs. 300 at the Answer: 3
time of admission and was born on 25th July,
1998 131. Ajay was born on 2nd June, 2001. He can pay
1. Mark answer (1) if the student is to be Rs. 400 web counselling fees at the time of
admitted. admission. He has secured 40 percent and 85
2. Mark answer (2) if the case is to be percent marks in Intermediate and in the
referred to President, Admission, or to Gurukul CET respectively.
the Dean ofthe College. 1. Mark answer (1) if the student is to be
3. Mark answer (3) if the data are not admitted.
adequate to take the decision 2. Mark answer (2) if the case is to be
4. Mark answer (4) if the student is not referred to President, Admission, or to
be admitted. the Dean ofthe College.
Answer: 1 3. Mark answer (3) if the data are not
adequate to take the decision
129. Amar was born on 17th January 2006. He has 4. Mark answer (4) if the student is not
secured 65 percent and 75 percent marks in be admitted.
intermediate and in the Gurukul CET Answer: 2

Directions (132-136) Study the following information ready to give security deposit of Rs. 10,000.
carefully and answer the questions given He has obtained 75 % marks in Written
below: Following are the conditions for short Examination
listing candidates for the post of Customer 1. Selected for interview
Relations Officers (CRO) for Regan Ltd., The 2. Not to be selected
candidates to be called for interview must 3. Data inadequate
4. Refer to the Chief Manager or the AGM
1. be a graduate in science, i.e., B.Sc., Answer: 1
with minimum 60 % marks.
2. have at least 2 years experience in 133. Rahul is the son of a marketing executive.
selling / marketing. Rohan has obtained many prizes in inter –
3. have participated in debating or university debates and drama events. He has
drama or sports at the Inter- worked as marketing executive for 4 years
University level onwards. after completing his B.Sc and MBA with 72%
4. have secured minimum 70 % marks in and 70% marks respectively. He is ready to
the written examination give security deposit of Rs. 10,000. He has
5. be ready to deposit Rs. 10,000 as obtained 65 % marks in Written Examination.
security deposit However, in case of a 1. Selected for interview
candidatewho fulfils all these criteria 2. Not to be selected
except 3. Data inadequate
a) at (4) above, but has secured 4. Refer to the Chief Manager or the AGM
minimum 70 % at BSc may be referred Answer: 2
to the Chief Manager, Customer
Relations
134. Sony has 6 years experience in marketing
b) at (1) above, but has passed M.Sc. i.e., cosmetic products. She has done her B.Sc,
post-graduation in science, with M.Sc and MBA with 65% , 56% , and 62%
minimum 60% marks, may be marks respectively. She is ready to pay the
referred to AGM security deposit. She is good at debating and
Based on these criteria and has won many prizes in intercollege
information provided below, decide /university events. She is interested in social
the course of action in each case. You work
are not to assume anything. If the data 1. Selected for interview
provided is not adequate to decide 2. Not to be selected
the given course of action, your 3. Data inadequate
answer will be ‘data inadequate’. All 4. Refer to the Chief Manager or the AGM
the candidates given below fulfil the Answer :3
criterion for age. Mark answer
135. Kiranmani is a successful sportsperson having
132. Raghav is the son of a marketing executive. won several prizes in sports and debating at
Raghav has obtained many prizes in inter – intercollegiate level onwards. At B.Sc., M.Sc.
university debates and drama events. He has and Written Examination, she has obtained
worked as marketing executive for 3 years 62%, 65%, and 75% marks respectively. She
after completing his B.Sc and MBA with has 5 years experience in sales. She is ready
62% and 70% marks respectively. He is to pay Rs.10,000 security deposit

1. Selected for interview Reasoning (R): Alcohol has a lower freezing
2. Not to be selected point than mercury.
3. Data inadequate 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
4. Refer to the Chief Manager or the AGM correct explanation of A.
Answer: 4 2 ) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Answer: correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false.
136. Rohit is a science graduate having done 4) A is false but R is true. Answer : 1
postgraduate diploma in Journalism. He is
having 4 years experience of marketing 139. In the question given below, there are two
consumer products. He is ready to deposit statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
Rs.10,000 as security deposit. He had been Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
participating in dramas at intercollege lelevel codes provided below:
and has won many prizes. He has secured Assertion (A): During a harsh winter, water
58% and 65% marks respectively, at written pipes frequently rupture in cold regions.
tests and B.Sc. respectively. Reasoning (R): When water freezes, it
1. Selected for interview expands.
2. Not to be selected 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
3. Data inadequate correct explanation of A.
4. Refer to the Chief Manager or the AGM 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Answer: 2 correct explanation of A.
137. In the question given below, there are two 4) A is false but R is true. Answer: 1
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the 140. In the question given below, there are two
codes provided below: statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
Assertion (A): Indian President is the head of Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
the state. codes provided below:
Reasoning (R): Indian Parliament consists of Assertion (A): An electrical bulb makes a
the President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha ‘bang’ when it is broken.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the Reasoning (R): The air inside the bulb rushes
correct explanation of A. out immediately on breaking.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false. 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
4) A is false but R is true. correct explanation of A.
Answer: 2 3) A is true but R is false.
4) A is false but R is true.
138. In the question given below, there are two Answer : 1
Reason (R). 141. In the question given below, there are two
Assertion (A): To measure a temperature of - statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
60°C, a thermometer uses alcohol rather than Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
mercury. codes provided below:

Assertion (A): On mountains we experience
colder than on lowlands. 144. In the question given below, there are two
Reasoning (R): As you ascend in height, the statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
temperature drops. Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
1) Both A and R are true and R is the codes provided below:
correct explanation of A. Assertion (A): In the summer, telephone
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the cables sag more.
correct explanation of A. Reasoning (R): Summer heat is the main
3) A is true but R is false. reason for their expansion
4) A is false but R is true. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
Answer : 1 correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
142. In the question given below, there are two correct explanation of A.
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and 3) A is true but R is false.
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the 4) A is false but R is true.
codes provided below: Answer: 1
Assertion (A): You shouldn't keep cut fruits
and veggies out in the open for too long. 145. In the question given below, there are two
Reasoning (R): They lose all of their statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
nutritional content. Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
1) Both A and R are true and R is the codes provided below:
correct explanation of A. Assertion (A): Democracy is practiced in
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the India.
correct explanation of A. Reasoning (R): India has its own constitution.
3) A is true but R is false. 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
Answer: 1 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
143. In the question given below, there are two 3) A is true but R is false.
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and 4) A is false but R is true.
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the Answer: 2
codes provided below:
Assertion (A): Physicians use plaster of paris 146. In the question given below, there are two
to set broken bones. statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
Reasoning (R): When plaster of paris and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
water are combined and put around the codes provided below:
broken limbs, the mixture becomes hard Assertion (A): In the summer, water stored in
mass. earthen pots is cooled.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the Reasoning (R): Cooling results from
correct explanation of A. evaporation.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false. 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Answer : 1 3) A is true but R is false.

4) A is false but R is true. Reasoning (R): His goal was to become an
Answer: 1 ascetic and be free from all ties
1) Both A and R are true and R is the
147. In the question given below, there are two correct explanation of A.
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the correct explanation of A.
codes provided below: 3) A is true but R is false.
Assertion (A): The regular and periodic rise 4) A is false but R is true.
and fall of the sea level is indicated by tides. Answer : 4
Reasoning (R): The gravitational attraction of
the sun and moon produces tides.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the 150. In the question given below, there are two
correct explanation of A. statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
correct explanation of A. codes provided below:
3) A is true but R is false. Assertion (A): Iron rails are spaced apart by a
4) A is false but R is true. little gap.
Answer: 1 Reasoning (R): Summertime causes iron to
expand.
148. In the question given below, there are two 1) Both A and R are true and R is the
statements labeled as Assertion (A) and correct explanation of A.
Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
codes provided below: correct explanation of A.
Assertion (A): India's judiciary and executive Answer : 1
branches are separate institutions.
Reasoning (R): The judiciary benefits the
government and aids in the execution
of its policies.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Answer :3
149. In the question given below, there are two

Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the
codes provided below:
Assertion (A): After getting married, Buddha
left his home

II. It also provided for nomination of
non-official members of the
1. Which of the following is/are incorrect with provincial Legislative Council by the
viceroy on the recommendation of
respect to Pitt’s India Act of 1784?
district boards, Municipalities,
I. It provided for establishment of
Universities, trade associations,
Board of Control to manage the zamindars and chambers .
Commercial affairs of the company
III. Indian Councils Act,1862 is known as
and Court of Directors to manage the
Act for the Good Governance of India
political affairs of the company. IV. Indian Councils Act, 1892 gave the
II. The president of the Court of
power to Indian members in the
Directors is answerable to the British legislative council to discuss the
Parliament. budget but not the right to vote.
III. The Governor General’s Council’s A. I, II and IV B. II and IV
strength was reduced to three. C. III and IV D. IV only
IV. The company’s territories in India
were for the first time called British
possessions in India.
respect to Minto-Morley Reforms
A. I and II B. III and IV
C. I,II,III and IV D. I,III and IV I. It allowed the central legislative
council to have non-official majority.
2. Consider the following statements with II. It enlarged the deliberative functions
of the legislative councils at both the
respect to Charter Act of 1833.
levels I.e., Central and provincial.
I. It ended the monopoly on all items III. Satyendranath Tagore became the
except Tea and Opium.
first Indian to join the Viceroy’s
II. The Act for the first time Executive Council.
recommended for appointment of
IV. It introduced the system of
Indians in the civil services.
communal representation for
III. The Governor General of India was Muslims only.
given exclusive Legislative powers for Which of the above is/are correct?
the entire British India. A. I, II,III and IV B. I, II and III
IV. It ended the activities of East India C. II and IV D. I and III
Company as a commercial body and
5. Which one of the following committees was
made it purely administrative body.
not related to education?
Which of the above are correct?
A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV A. W W Hunter Committee
C. I,II and IV D. I,III and IV B. Thomas Raleigh Committee
C. Aitchinson Committee
D. Saddler Committee
3. Which of the following statements is/are 6. Indian Constituent Assembly was
correct? constituted in November 1946 under the
I. Indian Councils Act, 1892 provided scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission
for nomination of official members of Plan. Which of the following are the features
the Central Legislative Council by the of the scheme
viceroy on the recommendation of I. The total strength of constituent
the provincial legislative councils. Assembly was 389 with 296 allotted

to the British India and 93 to the II. State Emergency/President’s Rule on
princely states. ground of failure of Constitutional
II. Each province and princely state machinery in the states only (Art 356)
were to be allotted seats in III. Financial Emergency on the ground of
proportion to their respective threat to the financial stability or
population. credit of India. (Art 360)
III. Seats allocated to each British IV. Emergency would convert the federal
province were to be decided among structure to unitary without the
three principal communities Muslims, formal amendment to the
Christians and General, in proportion constitution.
to their population. Which of the above are correct?
IV. The representatives of each A. I and II B. II and III
community were to be elected by C. III and IV D. I,II,III and IV
members of that community in the
provincial legislative assembly 11. Which of the following languages were
A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV originally included in the Eighth schedule
C. I, II and IV D. I,II,III and IV
when the Constitution came into force in
7. Which of the following are correctly 1950
I. Kashmiri II. Nepali
matched with respect to Constituent
III. Sanskrit IV. Manipuri
Assembly?
V. Maithili
I. Dr. Sachidanand Sinha-Oldest member A. I and III only B. II and III only
II. Dr. Rajendra Prasad - President C. III and IV only D. I and IV
III H C Mukherjee - Vice-President
IV. Sir B N Rau - Advisor to Assembly
12. Preamble reveals the few ingredients of
A. I, II and III B. I,III and IV
C. II, III and IV D. I,II,III and IV Constitution. Which of the following are
correct
8. Who among the following was not the I. Source of Authority of the
member of Cabinet Mission that arrived in Constitution
II. Nature of the Indian State
India on March 24, 1946
III. Objectives of the Constitution
A. Sir Stafford Cripps B. Seargent Hartog
IV. Date of Enforcement of the
C. A V Alexander D. Pethick Lawrance
Constitution
9. Consider the following statements on Indian
A. I,II and III B. II,III and IV
Constitution C. I,II and IV D. I,II,III and IV
I. Cooperative Federalism - Granville Austin
II. Quasi Federal - K C Wheare 13. Which of the following were the
III. Bargaining Federalism - Ivor Jennings
committee/commissions appointed for
IV. Federation with Centralising tendency
- Morris Jones reorganization of states
Which of the above are correctly matched? I. Dhar Commission(1948)
A. I and II B. II and III II. JVP Committee (1949)
C. III and IV D. I,II,III and IV III. Fazl Ali Commission (1953)
10. Consider the following statements with IV. Ram Nandan Committee (1993)
A. I,II and III B. II,III and IV
respect to Emergency provisions in Indian
C. I,III and IV D.I,II,III and IV
Constitution
14. Identify the correct chronological order of
I. National emergency to be announced
formation of various states
only on the ground of war or External
Aggression (Art 352)

a. Maharastra, Manipur, Nagaland and
Himachal Pradesh 19. Which of the following was/were described
b. Maharastra, Nagaland, Manipur and as the very soul of the Constitution
Himachal Pradesh
A. Fundamental Rights
c. Maharastra, Manipur, Himachal
B. Article 32
Pradesh and Nagaland
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Maharastra, Nagaland, Himachal
D. Preamble of the Constitution
Pradesh and Manipur
20. Consider the following statements.
15. Which of the following statements are
I. Article 19 deals with Freedom of
correct with respect to Sikkim
Movement inside and outside (right
I. Sikkim was a princely state ruled by to move out of and to come back into
Chogyal the Country).
II. Sikkim became the protectorate of II. Article 20 stipulates that no person
India in 1947 shall be prosecuted and punished for
III. Monarchy was abolished in Sikkim the same offence morethan once.
following a referendum III. Article 21 declares that no person
IV. Sikkim became the 22nd state of shall be deprived of his life or
India in 1975 personal liberty except according to
A. I,II and III B. II,III and IV due process of Law.
C. I,III and IV D.I,II,III and IV IV. Article 22 grants protection to
persons who are arrested or
16. Consider the following statements detained.
I. Chhattisgarh was created from Which of the following are correct?
Madhya Pradesh A. I,II and III B. II,III and IV
II. Uttarakhand was created from Uttar C. I,II and IV D. I,III and IV
Pradesh
III. Jharkhand was created from Uttar 21) In case of which of the following types of
Pradesh
bills, the Governor has to obligatorily
Which of the above are correct?
A. I and II B. II and III reserve them for theconsideration of
C. I and III D. I,II and III President, after they have been passed by
17. Which of the following are incorrect the State Legislature?
I. Article 48A - Organisation of animal 1. If the bill endangers the position of
husbandry and Agriculture the state High Court.
II. Article 50 - Separation of Executive 2. If the bill is dealing with compulsory
from Legislature acquisition of property.
III. Article 51 - Protection of Monuments 3. If the bill is against the provisions of
and objects of International Directive Principles of State Policy.
importance 4. If the bill is against the larger interest
IV. Article 44 - Uniform Civil Code for the of the country
citizens Select the correct answer using the code
A. I,II and III B. I,II and IV given below:
C. I,III and IV D. I and III a) 1 only b) 1 and 4 only
18. Which of the following writs can be sought c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
by any interested person and not necessarily
by the aggrieved person 22) With reference to pardoning powers of
A. Mandamus B. Prohibition President of India, consider the following
C. Certiorari D. Quo-Warranto pairs:

Power Explanation inquired into in any court. The
1. Remission A warding a lessersentence Supreme Court has clarified the
due to physicaldisability. implications of Art. 74(2) in
2. Respite Reducing the period S.R.Bommai v. Union of India. No
ofsentence without court is concerned with what advice
changing its character. was tendered by the Minister to
3. Reprieve Staying the execution of a thePresident. The court is only
sentence for a temporary concerned with the validity of the
period. order and not with what happened in
How many of the pairs above are correctly the inner councils of the President
matched? and the Minister. An order cannot be
a) None of the pairs challenged on the ground that it isnot
b) Only one pair in accordance with the advice
c) Only two pairs tendered by the Minister
d) All the three pairs
Q.4) Consider the following statements:
23. With reference to the advice tendered by 1. According to the Constitution of India, a
Council of Ministers to the President, person who is eligible to vote can be
made a minister in a
consider the following
State for six months even if he/she is not a
1. The 44th Constitutional Amendment member of the Legislature of that
Act authorised the President to
State.
return a matter once
2. A person convicted of a criminal offence
forreconsideration of Council of and sentenced to imprisonment for
Ministers.
five years is permanently disqualified
2. The advice tendered by Council of from contesting an election.
Ministers to the President can be Which of the statements given above is/are
inquired in Supreme Courtonly. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only
correct? b) 2 only
a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The 42nd Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Every
Constitutional Amendment Act of citizen who is 18 years old on the
1976 (enacted by the Indira qualifying date(January 1 ofyear in
GandhiGovernment) made the case) unless disqualified, is eligible to
President bound by the advice of the be enrolled as a voter. Whereas an
council of ministers headed by the individual should be atleast 25 years
primeminister. Later, the 44th of age or more to be a member of the
Constitutional Amendment Act of Legislative Assembly or a minister of
1978 (enacted by the Janata Party the state. Thus,not every person who
Governmentheaded by Morarji Desai) is eligible to vote can be made a
authorised the President to require minister in a State unless he is of the
the council of ministers to reconsider age as specified.To be able to
suchadvice either generally or become a minister, a person should
otherwise. be a member of the state Legislature,
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 74(2) however, as an exception, an
states that the advice tendered by individual who is not an MLA can be
Ministers to the President shallnot be considered as the CM if he gets

himself elected to the State bodies set up by Prime
Legislature within six months from Ministeraccording to the
the date of his appointment. As per requirements of the situation. It can
Section 8 of the Representation of be temporary or permanent in nature
People Act 1951, a person convicted that targets toreduce enormous
of any offence and sentenced to workload of cabinet and facilitates in-
imprisonment for not less than two depth examination of policy issues.
years (not five years) shall be Option c is incorrect. Shadow Cabinet
disqualified from the date of such is a British political institution where
conviction and shall continue to be a group of members fromthe
disqualified for a further period of six opposition party holds the
years (not permanently disqualified) responsibility to scrutinize the
since his release. policies and actions of the ruling
government. It strengthens
democracy and would help each
Q.5) Which of the following statements party to develop capable leaders who
correctly defines the term ‘Kitchen couldconduct an informed debate. It
Cabinet’? works under the Leader of the
a) It is the informal decision-making Opposition and will have expert
body with Prime Minister as its head partyworkers or neutral members
and may include his friends, assisting them.
family and ministers as its members. Option d is incorrect. The Council of
b) It is an extra-constitutional Ministers is a wider constitutional
Parliamentary body to facilitate in body that is collectively
depth examination of policy issues. responsible to lower house of the
c) It is a group of members from Parliament. Its functions are
opposition party that scrutinises the determined by Cabinet Ministers for
policies and actions of the ruling implementing government policies or
government. businesses
d) It is formal body that is collectively
responsible to the Lower House of
the Parliament for transact of Q.6) With reference to the Prime Minister
government functions. in Indian Polity, consider the
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. following statements:
Option a is correct. The ‘Kitchen 1. He advises the President regarding the
Cabinet’ also called as ‘Inner Cabinet’ summoning and proroguing of
is the is the highest informal sessions of Parliament.
decision-making body consisting of 2. He has a duty to keep the President
the Prime Minister as its head and informed of the affairs related to
some 15 to 20 most important Union administration.
ministers. It may be composed of not 3. He acts as the Supreme Commander of the
only cabinet ministers but also armed forces.
outsiders like friends and family Which of the statements given above is/are
members of the prime minister. It correct?
advises the prime minister on a) 1 only
important political b) 1 and 2 only
andadministrativeissues and assists c) 2 and 3 only
him in making crucial decisions. d) 1, 2 and 3
Option b is incorrect. Cabinet Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Committees are extra constitutional

Statement 1 is correct: Among the the constitution (i.e., they are not
various areas of his responsibilities, mentioned in it). They are an
are the responsibilities of the instrument of the Executive’s
PMtowards the Parliament. He is the innovation in order to lighten the
one who advises the President as to administrative workload and better
the dates on which the tackle some emergency situations
Parliamentshould be summoned, and requiring more attention and
when its sessions should be coordination of the Executive. this
prorogued. Hence this statement is statement is correct.
correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is the
Statement 2 is correct: The Department-related Parliamentary
Constitution (Article 78) envisages Standing Committees which
the PM as the channel/ conduit consider the Demands for Grants of
whichrelays all the communication the related Ministries/Departments.
regarding various aspects of The Cabinet Committees can
administration, the bureaucracy as be of two types - Standing
well as thedecisions of the Council of (permanent, like Economic Affairs
Ministers to the President. Hence this Committee, Appointments
statement is correct. Committee, etc) or ad hoc
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is the (temporary). On the other hand, the
President, as the head of the GoM is a strictly ad hoc body only. It
Executive (not the PM), who is the is created to look into a certain
supremecommander of all the 3 critical issue requiring greater focus,
wings of Indian armed forces. Hence attention and coordination, and is
this statement is incorrect. disbanded after the issue has been
managed (for ex GoM for
Q.7) With reference to the comparison Commonwealth Games, 2010 hosted
between the Cabinet Committees by India). this statement is incorrect.
and the Group of Ministers Statement 3 is incorrect: Both Cabinet
(GoM) in the Indian Polity, consider the Committees, as well as GoM can have
following statements: ministers as its members who are of
1. Neither of the two bodies are mentioned in the Cabinet rank, as well as any other
the constitution. rank, if they have a role to play, or
2. Both are ad hoc bodies created to consider are related in some way with the
only the Demands for Grants of the issue being resolved by these. this
Ministries. statement is incorrect.
3. While Cabinet Committees consist of only
ministers of Cabinet rank, ministers Q.8) With reference to Cabinet
of any rank can be a partof GoM. Committees in Indian polity,
Which of the statements given above is/ are consider the following statements:
correct? 1. All the Cabinet Committees are chaired by
a) 1 only the Prime Minister.
b) 1 and 3 only 2. Currently, there are twenty-four Cabinet
c) 1 and 2 only Committees functioning in India.
d) 2 and 3 only 3. No Cabinet Committee can take any
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. binding decisions on any
Statement 1 is correct: Both Cabinet ministries/departments without the
Committees and GoM are extra- approval of full Cabinet.
constitutional bodies. This means Which of the statements given above is/are
that they don’t owe their existence to correct?

a) 1 only 4. The 44th Amendment Act provides some
b) 2 and 3 only conditions for its extension beyond
c) 1 and 3 only one year.
d) None Which of the statements given above
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. are correct?
Statement 1 is incorrect: Most (not a) 1 and 2 only
all) of the Cabinet Committees are b) 2 and 3 only
chaired by the Prime Minister.this c) 1, 3 and 4 only
statement is incorrect. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Especially those cabinet committees Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
of which PM is a part, he/she is the Statement 1 is correct: The
chairman by default. However, other President’s Rule can be proclaimed
important Ministers like those of under Article 356 on two grounds–
Finance or Home are also chairman one mentioned in Article 356 itself
of some important Cabinet and another in Article 365:
Committees, for example the cabinet 1) Article 356 empowers the
committee on Parliamentary Affairs is President to issue a proclamation, if
chaired by the Home Minister. he is satisfied that a situation has
Statement 2 is incorrect: As of 2022, arisenin which the government of a
there are eight Cabinet committees state cannot be carried on in
Statement 3 is incorrect: Cabinet accordance with the provisions of
committee is a group of ministers theConstitution.
which can take collective decisions 2) Article 365 says that whenever a
that are binding across various state fails to comply with or to give
ministries/departments. Cabinet effect to any direction from
Committees do make theCentre, it will be lawful for the
recommendations for the Cabinet to President to hold that a situation has
act upon, however, some of the arisen in which the government of
Cabinet committees are also thestate cannot be carried on in
empowered to take decisions on accordance with the provisions of the
their own. The decisions of Cabinet Constitution.
Committee on Political Affairs or the Statement 2 is correct: A
Cabinet Committee on Economic proclamation imposing President’s
Affairs is quite final and does not Rule must be approved by both the
need the approval of the full Cabinet. Houses of Parliament within two
months from the date of its issue
Q.9) With reference to the imposition of Statement 3 is correct: Every
President’s Rule in a state, consider resolution approving the
the following statements: proclamation of President’s Rule or
1. It can be imposed if a state fails to its continuation can be passed by
comply with the directions given to it either House of Parliament only by a
by the Union government. simple majority, that is, a majority of
2. It must be approved by the the members of that House present
Parliament within two months from and voting.
the date of its proclamation. Statement 4 is correct: The 44th
3. A resolution approving the Amendment Act of 1978 provided
proclamation of President’s Rule that, beyond one year, the
requires only a simple majority. President’s Rule can be extended by
six months at a time only when the
following two conditions are fulfilled:

1) a proclamation of National Emergency Statement 2 is incorrect: The
should be in operation in the whole President’s ordinance-making
of India, or in the whole or any part authority is coextensive with
of the state; and Parliament’s legislative authority.
2) the Election Commission must certify that This means that he/she can issue
the general elections to the ordinances on subjects that the
legislative assembly of the Parliament can legislate on.
concerned state cannot be held on account of Statement 3 is incorrect: An
difficulties. ordinance issued by the both the
President and Governor becomes
Q.10) With reference to the ordinance ineffective six weeks after the
making power of Governor and reassembly of Parliament/state
President, consider the following legislature. It may be terminated
statements: earlier than the six week period if
1. Contrary to the President, the both Houses of Parliament pass
Governor can issue an ordinance only resolutions opposing it (or legislative
when both Houses of a bicameral assembly passes a resolution
state legislature are not in session. opposing it and the legislative council
2. Unlike the President, the Governor agrees).
cannot make ordinance on the Statement 4 is incorrect: The
subjects listed in the Concurrent List. ordinance-making authority of both
3. An ordinance issued by both of President and Governor is not
them becomes ineffective only after discretionary. This means that they
six months of reassembly of can only issue or withdraw an
Parliament/state legislature. ordinance with the advice of the
4. Unlike President, the power of respective Council of Ministers.
Governor to issue ordinances is a
discretionary power. Q.11) Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above are 1. As per the Constitution of India, the
incorrect? decision of the President of India is
a) 1, 2 and 3 only final on whether a particular matter
b) 2 and 4 only falls under Governor’s discretion or
c) 1, 2 and 4 only not.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. The Governor of a state is an ex-officio
Exp) Option d is the correct answer. member of Governing Council of NITI
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President may Aayog.
issue an ordinance only when both Which of the statements given above is/are
Houses of Parliament arenot in correct?
session, or when one of the two a) 1 only
Houses is not in session. b) 2 only
The Governor can only promulgate an c) Both 1 and 2
ordinance when the legislative d) Neither 1 nor 2
assembly is not in session (in thecase Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
of a unicameral legislature) or when Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article
both Houses of the state legislature 163 in the Indian Constitution, if any
are not in session (in the caseof a question arises
bicameral legislature) or when either whether any matter falls under the
of the two Houses of the state Governor’s discretion (power) or not
legislature is not in session as per the Constitution of India then
the decision of Governor is final not

the President. And the validity of
anything done by the Governor as Q.13) Which of the following provisions are
per it cannot be questioned on the enshrined in the Indian Constitution to
ground that he should or should not ensure independence and impartiality of the
have acted as per freedom or power.
office of Lok Sabha Speaker?
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Chief
minister (and not the Governor) of 1. S/he can be removed by a resolution
the state is member of NITI Aayog passed by the Lok Sabha by an
which is headed by the Prime effective majority.
Minister. 2. S/he has not been given any voting
power in the Lok Sabha, except on his
removal motion.
Q.12) With reference to ‘Zero Hour’, consider the
3. After being appointed as Speaker,
following statements:
he/she resigns from his/her party to
1. In India, the proceedings of every remain politically neutral.
parliamentary sitting generally start 4. The salaries and allowances of the
with Zero Hour. Speaker are charged on the
2. It allows the Members of the Parliament to Consolidated Fund of India.
raise important matters without any Select the correct answer from the code
prior notice. given below:
3. It is nowhere mentioned in the Rules of a) 1 and 2 only
Procedure of the Parliament. b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are c) 1 and 4 only
correct? d) 3 and 4 only
a) 3 only Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
b) 2 only Statement 1 is correct: The Speaker is
c) 2 and 3 only provided with a security of tenure.
d) 1, 2 and 3 He can be removed only by a
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first by an effective majority (i.e., a
hour of every parliamentary sitting is majority of all the then members of
slotted for Question hour. During this the House).This motion of removal
time, the members ask questions and can be considered and discussed only
the ministers usually give answers. when it has the support of at least
Zero hour is the time gap between 50members.
the question hour and the agenda. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Speaker
The zero hour starts immediately cannot vote on a bill in the Lok Sabha
after the question hour and lasts until in the first instance. He can exercise a
the agenda for the day is taken up. casting vote in the event of a tie. This
Statement 2 is correct: Zero Hour is makes the position of Speaker
an informal device available to the impartial.
members of the Parliament to raise Statement 3 is incorrect: In Britain,
matters without any prior notice. the Speaker is strictly a non-party
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the man. There is a convention that the
question hour, the zero hour is not Speaker has to resign from his party
mentioned in the Rules of and remain politically neutral. This
Procedure. It is an Indian innovation healthy convention is not fully
in the field of parliamentary established in India where the
procedures and has been in existence Speaker does not resign from the
since 1962. membership of his party on his
election to the exalted office.

Statement 4 is correct: The salaries and Statement 3 is incorrect: The anti-defection
allowances of the Speaker are fixed law punishes individual Members of
by Parliament, and they are charged Parliament (MPs) for leaving one
on the Consolidated Fund of India party for another. It is intended to
regulate the defecting MPs. It does
not regulate or control executive in
Q.14) What are the ways through which Parliament any manner.
controls the executive? Statement 4 is correct: Through Half-an-Hour
1. Not passing Motion of Thanks Discussion, Parliament can discuss a
2. Passing of cut motion matter of sufficient public
3. Anti-defection law importance, which has been
4. Half-an-hour discussion subjected to a lot of debate and the
5. Removal of Deputy-speaker of Lok Sabha answer to which needs elucidation on
Select the correct answer using the code a matter of fact.
given below: Statement 5 is incorrect: Deputy Speaker is
a) 1 and 3 only not the part of the executive and
b) 1, 2 and 4 only hence, his/her removal does not
c) 2, 3 and 4 only impact Parliaments control over
d) 1, 3 and 5 only executive.
Statement 1 is correct: The first session after
each general election and the first
session of every fiscal year is Q.15) With reference to Rajya Sabha, consider the
addressed by the President. In this following statements:
address, the President outlines the 1. Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament
policies and programmes of the to create new All-India Services.
government in the preceding year 2. A resolution for the removal of the Vice-
and ensuing year. This address of the President can be introduced only in
President, is discussed in both the the Rajya Sabha.
Houses of Parliament on a motion Which of the statements given above is/are
called the ‘Motion of Thanks’. At the correct?
end of the discussion, the motion is a) 1 only
put to vote. This motion must be b) 2 only
passed in the House. Otherwise, it c) Both 1 and 2
amounts to the defeat of the d) Neither 1 nor 2
government. This inaugural speech of Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
the President is an occasion available Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 312 of
to the members of Parliament to Indian Constitution, Rajya Sabha can
raise discussions and debates to authorise the Parliamentto create
examine and criticise the government new All-India Services common to
and administration for its lapses and both the Centre and the states.
failures. Statement 2 is correct: Rajya Sabha alone can
Statement 2 is correct: The ministers are initiate a move for the removal of the
collectively responsible to the vice-president. In other words, a
Parliament in general and to the Lok resolution for the removal of the
Sabha in particular. The Lok Sabha vice-president can be introduced only
can also express lack of confidence in in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok
the government by passing a Cut Sabha (Article 67).
Motion.

Q.16) In India, which of the following reviews the and not by State Legislative
independent regulators in sectors like Assemblies.
telecommunications, insurance, electricity, Which of the statements given above is/are
etc.? correct?
1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the a) 1 only
Parliament. b) 2 only
2. Parliamentary Department Related c) Both 1 and 2
Standing Committee d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Finance Commission Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Statement 1 is correct: The Delimitation
Commission Commission in India is a high-power
5. NITI Aayog body whose orders have the force of
Select the correct answer using the code law and cannot be called in question
given below. before any court. These orders come
a) 1 and 2 only into force on a date to be specified by
b) 1, 3 and 4 only the President of India in this behalf.
c) 3, 4 and 5 only Statement 2 is incorrect: The copies of its
d) 2 and 5 only orders are laid before the Lok Sabha
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. and the State Legislative Assembly
Independent regularity authorities are concerned, but no modifications are
agencies of modern democratic permissible therein by them.
governments. They are parts of the
executive wing with a certain degree Q.18) With reference to the position of Legislative
of statutory or constitutional Council of a State and the Rajya Sabha under
autonomy, reporting directly to the the Indian Constitution, consider the
legislature. Like the general following Statements:
executive, they are accountable to 1. Like the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative
the legislature and subject to judicial Councils cannot reject or amend a
review. Money Bill.
Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament 2. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative
and Parliamentary Department Council does not participate in the
Related Standing Committee review election of the President of India.
the independent regulators in sectors 3. The Legislative Council does not have any
like telecommunications, insurance exclusive or special powers as
electricity, etc. Finance Commission enjoyed by the Rajya Sabha.
and NITI Aayog are advisory bodies Which of the Statements given above are
and do not review the independent correct?
regulators in sectors like a) 1 and 2 only
telecommunications. Financial Sector b) 2 and 3 only
Legislative Reforms Commission c) 1 and 3 only
(FSLRC) also had no role in reviewing d) 1, 2 and 3
independent regulators. Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct:
Q.17) With reference to ‘Delimitation Commission’ Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money
in India, consider the following statements: Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok
1. The orders of the Commission cannot be Sabha within 14 days, either with
called in question before any court. recommendations or without
2. Modifications to orders of the Commission recommendations
can only be done by the Lok Sabha Statement 2 is correct: The Council does not
participate in the election of the

President of India and Ministers to the Parliament. Through
representatives of the state in the Committees, Parliament exercises its
Rajya Sabha. The council has no control and influence over
effective say in the ratification of a administration and keeps vigilance
constitutional amendment bill. In this over the executive.
respect also, the will of the assembly Statement 4 is correct: The Committees aid
prevails over that of the council. and assist the Legislature in
Statement 3 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has discharging its duties and
been given four exclusive or special regulating its functions effectively,
powers that are not enjoyed by the expeditiously and efficiently. They
Legislative Council of a State: 1. It can assist the Parliament in thoroughly
authorise the Parliament to make a and systematically scrutinizing the
law on a subject enumerated in the bills and matters which could not be
State List (Article 249). discussed on the floor at length.
Q.19) With reference to Indian Parliament, Consider Q. 20) If the President wants to seek legal opinion
the following statements about Department on a matter of public importance from the
Related Standing Committees (DRSCs): Supreme Court, then:
1. They are constitutional bodies mentioned (a) Supreme Court can assume to itself the
in Part V of the Constitution of India. power of legislation.
2. The term of office of each standing (b) President has to accept the advice given
committee is coterminous with the by the court.
life of Lok Sabha. (c) Supreme Court may refuse to tender its
3. They secure accountability of the Council opinion.
of Ministers towards the Parliament. (d) President has to first get the approval of
4. They assist the Parliament in scrutinizing the Parliament for the same.
the bills referred to it.
Which of the statements given above is/are option (c) is the correct answer.
correct? The Constitution (Article 143) authorises the
a) 2, 3 and 4 only President to seek the opinion of the
b) 3 only Supreme Court in
c) 3 and 4 only the two categories of matters:
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 On any question of law or fact of public
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. importance which has arisen or which
Statement 1 is incorrect: They are not is likely to arise.
constitutional bodies. On the In this case the Supreme Court may tender or
recommendation of the Rules may refuse to tender its opinion to
Committee of the Lok Sabha, 17 DRSCs were the President.
set up in the Parliament in 1993. In On any dispute arising out of any pre-
2004, seven more such committees constitution treaty, agreement,
were set up, thus increasing their covenant, engagement, sanad or
number from 17 to 24. Out of the 24 other similar instruments. In this case, the
Departmental Standing Committees, Supreme Court ‘must’ tender its
8 work under the Rajya Sabha and 16 opinion to the President.
under the Lok Sabha. However, in both the cases, the opinion
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of office of expressed by the Supreme Court is
each standing committee is one year only advisory and not a
from the date of its constitution. judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not
Statement 3 is correct: They secure more binding on the President; he may
accountability of the Council of follow or may not follow the

opinion. However, it facilitates the 2. Online campaigning does not include
government to have an authoritative reaching out to voters with phone
legal opinion on a matter to be calls, videos.
decided by it. 3. Rules of pre-certification of political
advertisements are applicable on
1. Consider the following statements with reference social media platforms.
to Subordinate Courts in India: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. They have uniform organizational structure correct?
and jurisdiction throughout India. (a) 1 only
2. Sessions court has power to impose (b) 2 and 3 only
sentence up to life imprisonment but (c) 1 and 3 only
not capital punishment. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans: c
correct? Election campaigns are the means by
(a) 1 only which candidates and political parties
(b) 2 only prepare and present their ideasand
(c) Both 1 and 2 positions on issues to the voters.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Online campaign not only includes
Ans: d promoting political and
electoralcampaign material on social
The organizational structure, media platforms such as Twitter,
jurisdiction and nomenclature of the Facebook and Instagram, it
subordinate judiciary are laid down alsoincludes reaching out to voters
by the states. Hence, they differ with audio message, phone calls,
slightly from state to state. videos and LED screen-mountedvans
statement 1 is not correct. from small town to remote villages.
District Judge is the highest judicial Hence statement 2 is not correct.
authority in the district. He posses Social media regulations by EC in
original and appellate India Candidates need to submit
jurisdiction in both civil and criminal authentic social media account
matters. When he hears criminal details at the time of nomination.
cases, he is called as the Hence statement 1 is correct.
sessionjudge. As a session judge he Rules of pre-certification of political
can impose any sentence including advertisements are applicable on
life imprisonment and capital social media platforms.
punishment. However, a capital Hence statement 3 is correct.
punishment passed by him is subject Provisions of Model Code of Conduct
to confirmation by High Court, are applicable on content posted.
whether there is appeal or not. Inclusion of Social media expenditure
statement 2 is not correct. in final expenditure statement on
advertisement.
2. With reference to the role of online election Social Media Cell set up by ECI for
monitoring.
campaigning in India, consider the following
Due to the ongoing pandemic and
statements: associated health risks, recently EC
1.Candidates contesting elections need to put temporal restrictions on physical
submit authentic social media rallies for upcoming state elections
account details at time of while allowing virtual campaigns
nomination. through social media platforms.

3. Which of the following statements is not correct Act further to amend the Supreme
with respect to the strength of the judges in Court (Number of Judges) Act,1956.
the supreme court? BE it enacted byParliament in the
Seventieth Year of the Republic of
(a) Strength of Supreme Court judges can be
India as follows:—
increased by way of parliamentary
This Act may be called the Supreme
legislation.
Court (Number of Judges)
(b) There have been no fixed criteria for fixing
Amendment Act, 2019.
the strength of judges of the
In section 2 of the Supreme Court
Supreme Court.
(Number of Judges) Act, 1956, for the
(c) Amendment of Article 124 of the Indian
word "thirty", the word "thirty-three"
Constitution is required to increase
shall be substituted. Hence option (c)
the
is not correct.
strength of the Supreme Court.
(d) The original constitution provided for
4.Consider the following statements with respect to
Chief Justice of India along with a
maximum of seven other judges. the procedure laid down
under the Judges Enquiry Act (1968) for the
Ans: c removal of supreme court judges:
1. Presiding officers of respective houses may
Parliament, which has the power to admit the motion of removal or
increase the number of judges, has refuse to admit it.
gradually done so by amending the 2. The President constitutes a three-member
Supreme Court (Number of Judges) committee to investigate the
Act — from 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, complaint against a judge.
14 in 1960, 18 in 1978, 26 in1986, 31 3. Motion for removal is required to be
in 2009, and 34 in 2019. adopted by each House of Parliament
As per the Article 124(1) of the by
Constitution of India, the strength of an absolute majority.
the Supreme Court is fixed by the law Which of the statements given above is/are
made by the Parliament. Hence correct?
option (a) is correct. (a) 1 and 2 only
Article 124(2) states that every judge (b) 1 only
of the Supreme Court shall be (c) 1 and 3 only
appointed by the President by (d) 2 and 3 only
warrant under his hand and seal after Ans: b
consultation with such number of the The removal address must be supported by a
judges of Supreme Court and of the special majority of each House of
High Courts (in states). Parliament (ie, a majority of the total
The Parliament is competent to membership of that House and a
increase the number of judges if it majority of not less than two-thirds
deems necessary. of the members of that House
Though there has been no criteria for present and voting). The grounds of
fixing the judge strength of the removal are two–proved
Supreme Court, in view of the misbehaviour or incapacity. Hence
number of cases pending disposal, an statement 3 is not correct.
increase in the judge strength was The Judges Enquiry Act (1968)
considered by Government. Hence regulates the procedure relating to
option (b) is correct. the removal of a judge of the
THE SUPREME COURT (NUMBER OF Supreme Court by the process of
JUDGES) AMENDMENT ACT, 2019An impeachment:A removal motion

signed by 100 members (in the case Statement 2 is incorrect: Cases which
of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the are in pre litigation stages (not yet
case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to opened in a court of law), as well as
the Speaker/ Chairman.The those that are already pending in a
Speaker/Chairman may admit the court of law, both, can be brought to
motion or refuse to admit it. the LokAdalats. Hence this statement
statement 1 is correct. is incorrect.
If it is admitted, then the Speaker/ Statement 3 is correct: In order to
Chairman is to constitute a three- make the LokAdalats effective and
member committee to investigate not just an additional step in the
into the charges. Hence statement 2 judicial process, the Act provided that
is not correct. the decision of the LokAdalats is final
The committee should consist of (a) (no appeal) and binding on the
the chief justice or a judge of the parties (i.e the parties have to follow
Supreme Court, (b) a chief justice of a the decision and instructions of the
high court, and (c) a distinguished Lok Adalat).
jurist. However, it must be noted that this
does not mean that the parties don’t
have any other remedy in this matter
Q.5) With reference to the LokAdalats in India, if they are dissatisfied with the
consider the following statements: decision. They can file litigation in
1. Only judicial officers can serve as the any court of law,
chairman or members of a Lok Statement 4 is correct: The Legal
Adalat. Services Authorities Act, 1987 was
2. Cases which are pending in courts of law amended in 2002 to provide for
cannot be taken up in LokAdalats. establishment of Permanent
3. Their decisions are final and binding and no LokAdalats (Section 22-B). These have
appeal against their decision lies with been established to specifically
any court. dealwith cases related to public
4. The jurisdiction of Permanent LokAdalats utility services, like electricity, water
include cases related to public utility supply, municipal garbage disposal
services. system, etc. Hence this statement is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
correct?
a) 3 and 4 only Q.6) With reference to the differences
b) 2 and 3 only between Cognizable offences and
c) 1 and 3 only non-Cognizable offences, consider
d) 1 and 4 only the following statements:
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. 1. Unlike Non-cognizable offences,
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the Cognizable offences are those in
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987; which the police can arrest an
every Lok Adalat organised for an accused without a warrant.
area shall consist of such number of 2. All Cognizable offences are bailable
serving or retired judicial officers and whereas all non-Cognizable offences
other persons of the area as may be are non-bailable.
specified by the agency organizing 3. Generally, Non-cognizable offences
such Lok Adalat. Generally, a Lok are less serious in nature as
Adalat consists of a judicial officer as compared to Cognizable offences.
the chairman and a lawyer (advocate) Which of the statements given above
and a social worker as members. is/are correct?

a) 1 only Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
b) 2 and 3 only Judicial Review is the power of the Courts to
c) 1 and 3 only determine the constitutionality of the
d) 1, 2 and 3 Legislative acts and executive orders.
Exp) Option c is the correct answer. Judicial review is the power of the
Statement 1 is correct. Cognizable judiciary to examine the
offences are those in which the police constitutionality of legislative
can investigate and arrest the enactments and executive orders of
offender without a warrant. both the Central and State
Examples of these are murder, rape, governments. On examination, if they
theft, rioting, robbery, and sedition. are found to be violative of the
In non-cognizable offenses, the police Constitution (ultra vires), they can be
do not have the power to arrest a declared as illegal, unconstitutional
person for a crime without a warrant. and invalid (null and void) by the
Examples of non-cognizable offences judiciary.
are assault, cheating, forgery,
defamation, public nuisance, etc. Q.8) Which of the following provisions have been
Statement 2 is incorrect. The provided by the Constitution to ensure the
Cognizable offences are both bailable independence of Supreme Court in India?
and non-bailable. Whereas Non-
1. The salaries and allowances of the judges
Cognizable offences are bailable.
are not subjected to the vote of the
Bailable offence means that bail can
Parliament.
be taken as a right without any
2. Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of
prohibition. Whereas non-bailable
the judges under any condition.
offences are offences the judge
3. The judiciary has the power to penalize
critically examines the facts and
those who are found guilty of
other relevant factors to decide
Contempt of Court.
whether to grant bail or not.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of
Statement 3 is correct. Non-
the Supreme Court are made by the
cognizable offences are less serious
Chief Justice of India.
or grave in nature. Non-serious
Select the correct answer using the code
crimes such as assault, cheating,
given below:
forgery, defamation, public nuisance,
a) 1 and 3 only
etc. are non-cognizable offences.
b) 3 and 4 only
Cognizable offences are generally
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
serious crimes.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Q.7) In India, Judicial Review implies
Statement 1 is correct: The judiciary is not
a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce financially dependent on either the
upon the constitutionality of laws executive or legislature. The
and executive orders. Constitution provides that the
b) The power of the Judiciary to question the salaries and allowances of the judges
wisdom of the laws enacted by the are not subjected to the approval of
Legislatures. the legislature. The salaries,
c) The power of the Judiciary to review all the allowances and pensions of the
legislative enactments before they judges and the staff as well as all the
are assented to by the President. administrative expenses of the
d) The power of the Judiciary to review its Supreme Court are charged on the
own judgements given earlier in Consolidated Fund of India. Thus,
similar or different cases.

they are non-votable by the a) 1 and 2 only
Parliament. b) 2 only
Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament c) 2 and 3 only
cannot discuss the conduct of the d) 1 and 3 only
judges except when the proceeding Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
to remove a judge is being carried Statement 1 is incorrect. Election
out. This gives the judiciary Commission of India is planning to
independence to adjudicate without introduce ‘Remote Voting’ in remote
fear of being criticized. The areas. Remote Voting will be a voting
Constitution prohibits any discussion machine which has no linkage with
in Parliament or in a State Legislature the Internet. It will mostly be an
with respect to the conduct of the EVM. Election Commission would find
judges of the Supreme Court in the areas with around 1000-1500 remote
discharge of their duties, except voters and will make arrangements
when an impeachment motion is and set up a booth.
under consideration of the Statement 2 is correct. Remote
Parliament. voting refers to a mechanism that
Statement 3 is correct: The actions allows electors to vote from locations
and decisions of the judges are other than polling stations assigned
immune from personal criticisms. The to their registered constituencies.
judiciary has the power to penalise There are lakhs of voters who are
those who are found guilty of unable to exercise their voting rights
contempt of court. This authority of on account of geographical barriers
the court is seen as an effective due to different reasons, remote
protection to the judges from unfair voting aims to bridge that gap.
criticism. The Supreme Court can Statement 3 is incorrect. The Election
punish any person for its contempt. Commission has planned to start
Statement 4 is correct: To maintain mapping the population of migrant
the independence of the judiciary, workers across the country to
the Chief Justice of India has been prepare a roadmap for the
given powers to appoint officers and introduction of remote voting. It has
servants of the Supreme Court not yet made it mandatory for any
without any interference from the section of the society
executive. He can also prescribe their
conditions of service Q.10) Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the
Q.9) With reference to Remote Voting, consider Supreme Court of Indian cannot be
the following statements: rejected by the Speaker of the Lok
1. Election Commission of India has Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act,
introduced ‘Remote Voting’ which is 1968.
based on Aadhar linked internet 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives
connected devices. details of what constitutes ‘incapacity
2. It will allow electors to vote from locations and proved misbehaviour’ of the
other than assigned polling stations. Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. It has been made mandatory for all the 3. The process of impeachment of the Judges
senior citizens and physically of the Supreme Court of India is given
handicapped persons from 2022 by in the Judges (Inquiry)Act, 1968.
election Commission of India. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a
Which of the statements given above is/are Judge is taken up for voting, the law
correct? requires the motion to be backed by

each House of the Parliament and Q.11) With reference to the Advisory Jurisdiction
supported by a majority of total of the Supreme Court, consider the
membership of that House and by following statements:
not less than two-thirds of total
1. Whenever the President seek the advice of
members of that House present and
Supreme Court in any matter, the
voting.
Court is obligated to give an opinion.
2. The opinion expressed by the Supreme
is/are correct?
Court under its Advisory Jurisdiction
a) 1 and 2 only
is always considered as a judicial
b) 3 only
pronouncement.
c) 3 and 4 only
3. The President can ask for the Court’s
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
opinion on any question of law but
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
not on a question of fact.
Statement 1 is incorrect. According to
provisions of Judges (Inquiry) Act,
correct?
1968, the motion to impeach a judge
a) 1 and 3 only
of the Supreme Court of India can be
b) 2 only
rejected by the Speaker of the Lok
c) 1 and 2 only
Sabha.
d) None of the above
Statement 2 is incorrect. The
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Constitution of India does not define
Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
or give details of what constitutes
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution
‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’
(Article 143) authorises the President
of the Judges of the Supreme Court
to seek the opinion of the Supreme
of India.
Court in the two categories of
Statement 3 is correct. The Judges
matters:
Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the
1) On any question of law or fact of public
procedure relating to the removal ofa
importance which has arisen or which
judge of the Supreme Court by the
is likely to arise.
process of impeachment. It states
2) On any dispute arising out of any pre-
that a removal motion signed by100
constitution treaty, agreement,
members (in the case of Lok Sabha)
covenant, engagement, sanad or
or 50 members (in the case of Rajya
other similar instruments.
Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/
In the first case, the Supreme Court may
Chairman.
tender or may refuse to tender its
Statement 4 is correct. If the motion
opinion to the President. But,in the
for the impeachment of a Judge is
second case, the Supreme Court
taken up for voting, the law requires
‘must’ tender its opinion to the
the motion to be backed by each
President.
House of the Parliament and
Statement 2 is incorrect: In both the cases,
supported by a majority of total
the opinion expressed by the
membership of that House and by
Supreme Court is only advisory and
not less than two-thirds of total
not a judicial pronouncement. Hence,
members of that House present and
it is not binding on the president; he
voting.
may follow or may not follow the
opinion
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Constitution
(Article 143) authorises the President
to seek the opinion of the Supreme

Court in the two categories of 2. A corporate company is free to donate any
matters: amount of money to any political
1) On any question of law or fact of public party.
importance which has arisen or which 3. The political parties cannot receive funds
is likely to arise. from the foreign companies.
2) On any dispute arising out of any pre- Which of the above-given statements is/are
constitution treaty, agreement, correct?
covenant, engagement, sanad or a) 1 only
other similar instruments. b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
Q.12) With reference to immunities provided to d) 2 and 3 only
Ministers and Judicial officers against the Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
lawsuits, consider the following statements: Statement 1 is incorrect: In the 2017 budget,
the limit for anonymous cash
1. The Constitution of India grants immunity
donations by any individual toa
from civil proceedings to the
political party has been lowered from
Ministers for their personal acts.
₹20,000 to ₹2,000 (not 2 Lakh). This
2. The acts done by the Judicial officers in
means that now the political parties
discharge of his/her official duties
cannot receive more than ₹2,000 as
can only be questioned incivil courts.
cash donations. However, they are
not required to inform the Election
correctly matched?
Commission of India of the details of
a) 1 only
persons who donate under ₹2,000.
b) 2 only
They must keep records of persons
c) Both 1 and 2
making above ₹2,000 donations.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 2 is correct: In 2017 budget, the
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
limit on corporate contributions from
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ministers do not
7.5 per cent of the net profit of a
enjoy any immunity for their personal
company's past three financial years
acts and can be sued for crimes as
has been removed. This means that
well as torts (civil offences) in
now a company can donate any
ordinary courts like that for the
amount of money to any political
common citizens.
party. Further, the obligation of the
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Judicial Officers’
company to report such donations in
Protection Act, of 1850 states that No
its profit and loss account has also
Judge, Magistrate, Justice of the
been lifted.
Peace, Collector, or other person
Statement 3 is incorrect: In 2018 budget, the
acting judicially shall be liable to be
receiving of foreign funds by the
sued in any Civil Court for any act
political parties has been allowed.
done or ordered to be done by him in
the discharge of his judicial duty.
Q.14) Which among the following is the lowest in
Q.13) Consider the following statements with hierarchy in terms of handling matters of
reference to provisions of funding of civil nature and that which function below
elections in India: the sub-ordinate Courts in non-metropolitan
1. The anonymous donations made by areas ?
individuals in cash to the political (a) Munsif Court
parties should not be more than (b) Magistrate Court
2Lakh Rupees. (c) Sessions Court
(d) Small causes Court

EXPLANATION: Q.16) While many states in India have their
At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the own High Courts, few states share a
court of Munsiff and on the criminal jurisdiction of a common high court .
side is the court of Judicial Which among the following states
magistrate. The Munsiff possesses have a common high court at
limited Jurisdiction and decides civil Guwahati ?
cases of small pecuniary stake. The 1. Assam
district judge is the highest judicial 2. Arunachal Pradesh
authority in the district, and when he 3. Manipur
hears 4. Meghalaya
criminal cases, he is called sessions judge. 5. Mizoram
Small causes courts are generally 6. Nagaland
found in cities and metro areas. 7. Tripura
option (a) is correct. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
Q.15) With reference to the appointment of (a) 1, 3, 5 and 7 only
‘ad hoc Judges’ in Supreme Court, (b) 2, 5, 6 and 7 only
which of the following statements is (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
not correct ? (d) 1, 2, 5 and 6
(a) The President of India can appoint a judge EXPLANATION:
of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of The Gawhati High Court occupied the unique
the Supreme Court for a temporary position of being a common High
period Court of seven States of North East
(b) He is appointed when there is lack of India till 23.03.2013, the date of the
quorum of the Judges of the Supreme functioning of separate High Courts
Court to hold any session of the Court in Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura.
(c) He can be appointed only after Currently, it has the largest
consultation with the chief justice of jurisdiction in terms of states, with its
the High Court concerned area covering the states of Assam,
(d) He should be Judge of a High Court duly Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and
qualified for appointment as a Judge Mizoram. So, Option (d) is correct.
of the Supreme Court
EXPLANATION: Q.17) In case any dispute, generally, a party
According to Article 127 of the Constitution produces his own evidence tested by cross
of India, if at any time there is a lack examination by the other side and the judge
of quorum of judges of the Supreme
sits like an umpire and decides the case only
Court to hold any session of the
Court, the Chief Justice of India, with on the basis of such material as may be
the previous consent of the President produced before him by both parties. But
and after consultation with the Chief this procedure underwent a change with the
Justice of the High Court, can appoint advent of
a High Court judge duly qualified for (a) Tribunalisation of justice
appointment as a judge of the (b)Public interest litigation
Supreme Court as an ‘ad hoc Judge’. (c) Adversarial legal systems
The President of India only gives his (d) Inquisitorial legal systems
consent to the appointment and does EXPLANATION:
not directly appoint a High Court Under the PIL, any public-spirited citizen or a
Judge as an ad hoc judge of the social organisation can move the
Supreme Court. So, option (a) is not court for the enforcementof the
correct. rights of any person or group of

persons who, because of their Select the correct answer using the code
poverty or ignorance or socially given below :
oreconomically disadvantaged (a) 1 only
position, are themselves unable to (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
approach the court for the remedies. (c) 2 and 3 only
option (b) is correct. (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: d
Q.18) The Indian constitution has provisions for
establishment of tribunals in the country. In An Indian Citizen can contest an election
this context, which of the following from any Constituency in the country
except the Autonomous Districts of
statement regarding tribunal is not correct?
Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim. As
(a) There was no provision regarding
per Section 33(7) of the
tribunals during the commencement Representation of People Act,1951, A
of constitution
person cannot contest from more
(b) The provisions regarding tribunal was
than two constituencies at a general
added by constitution 42nd election of Lok Sabha(House of
amendment act, 1976
People) / Vidhan Sabha (Legislative
(c) The constitution empowers the President Assembly). So, Statement 1 is not
to provide for the establishment of correct.
tribunals Any Indian citizen (who resides in the
(d) The State Administrative Tribunals are country) can vote in any state
established by the union government election. But this doesn't mean that
EXPLANATION: one can vote in multiple elections.
The original Constitution did not Election commission officers check all
contain provisions with respect to documents before adding names to
tribunals. Therefore, there was no the voters' list, so if a resident of
provision regarding tribunals during Delhi moves to Chennai and wants to
the commencement of the vote in Chennai, then they will have
Constitution Hence, the Constitution to get their name removed from
does not empower the President to Delhi's electoral roll and then get
provide for the establishment of
their name added to Chennai’s
tribunals. The Administrative
electoral role. Thus, Only a voter who
Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the is registered in the constituency can
Central government(union
vote in the constituency. So,
government) to establish the State
Administrative Tribunals (SATs) at the Canvassing is an activity which tries to
specific request of the concerned persuade people to vote for a
state governments. Option (c) is particular person or party in an
correct. election. Section 130 of the
Representation of the People Act,
Q.19) In the context of General Elections in India, 1951 prohibits canvassing in or near
which of the following rights are available to polling stations on the day of the
a Citizen of India ? polling. The right to canvass
1. Right to contest from anywhere in India anywhere in India is a right available
2. Right to vote anywhere in India to the citizens of India except on the
3. Right to canvas anywhere in India Day of the poll, Canvassing for votes
4. Right to form a political party anywhere in within a distance of one hundred
India meters of polling stations is

prohibited under the RPA Act, 1951. Separate electorate system,
Statement 3 is correct. representatives are elected from a
The Indian Constitution elaborately deals particular community, and the voters
with cooperative societies. The right who vote for the contestants are also
to form cooperative societies is a from the same community.
fundamental right under Article 19 Statement 1 is correct.
(1)(c), but the right to form political The constituent Assembly adopts Reserved
parties is not a Fundamental Right. Constituency in India rather than a
But it is considered as a political right Separate electorate. In this system,
which is available to Indian all voters in a constituency are
Citizens. So, Statement 4 is correct. eligible to vote, but the candidates
must belong to only a particular
Q.20) Consider the following with reference to community or social section for
reservations in elections : which the seat is reserved.
1. In a separate electorate system, both the Delimitation Committee
constituency and the electorate are periodically revises the quota of
reserved only for a particular section constituencies to be reserved
of the populace. depending on the proportion of SC or
2. In a reservation system, all people of the in the country. In Lok Sabha, out of
reserved constituency have the right 543 elected, 84 are reserved for
to vote, but not all people have the Scheduled Castes, and 47 are
right to contest from that reserved reserved for Scheduled Tribes (as on
constituency. 26 January 2019).Unlike Separate
3. At present, only the Union territory of Electorate, In Reserved
Jammu and Kashmir follows the constituencies, all the registered
system of separate electorates in voters in that constituency can vote
India. for that reserved person(who is from
Which of the statements given above is/are the particular community). Statement
correct ? 2 is correct.
(a) 1 only Even though Jammu and Kashmir have nearly
(b) 1 and 2 only 65% of the total population as
(c) 2 and 3 only Muslim, J&K does not have a
(d) 1, 2 and 3 separate electorate system. In India,
Ans: b only joint electorates with reserved
EXPLANATION: constituencies are in practice. A
India has a parliamentary system of separate Electorate system is not
government in which elections need practised in India. Statement 3 is not
to be conducted periodically. correct.
Electorates in India are of Joint
electorates are a type of election in Q.1) Which of the following amendments are not
which all sections of the people in the considered as an Amendment of the
constituency select the candidates. In Constitution Under Article 368 ?
contrast, in the Separate Electorate, 1. Lists in the Seventh schedule
only Selected communities or 2. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
Individuals select their Supreme Court
representatives separately. The 3. Amendments to the Procedure of
British introduced this system in India Amendment of the constitution
to remove the fear of the minorities 4. Representation of states in Parliament
that they would not get Select the correct answer using the code
representation in state affairs. In the given below :

(a) 1 and 4 Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below:
(c) 2 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 only
Ans: a (c) 3 only
EXPLANATION: (d) 2 and 3 only
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution Ans: c
deals with the powers of Parliament EXPLANATION:
to amend the Constitution and its Article 100 of the Constitution states
procedure. that if at any time during a meeting
Any of the Lists in the Seventh of a House there is no quorum, it
Schedule. shall be the duty of the chairman,
The representation of States in Speaker, or person acting as such,
Parliament. either to adjourn the House or
The above provisions are related to to suspend the meeting until there is
the federal structure of the polity of a quorum. A quorum in Parliament
the Constitution, which can be can be amended by a simple majority
amended by a special majority of the of the two Houses of Parliament and
Parliament and with the consent of does not require the consent of a
half of the state legislatures majority of the states. So, Statement
by a simple majority. So, Statements 1 is not correct.
1 and 4 are not correct. The salary and allowances of High
Article 139 of the Constitution states Court Judges are determined by the
that the Conferment on the Supreme Parliament by law. Eg: The High Court
Court of powers to issue certain writs Judges (Salaries and Conditions of
in this provisions in the Constitution Service) Act, 1954 and the Supreme
can be amended by a simple majority Court Judges (Salaries and Conditions
of the two of Service) Act, 1958, determine the
Houses of Parliament outside the Salaries of judges of the High court
scope of Article 368; hence it is not and Supreme court, respectively. The
considered as an amendment of the High Court and Supreme Court
Constitution under Article 368. So, Judges (Salaries and Conditions Of
Statement 2 is correct. Service) Amendment Act, 2021was
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution enacted recently by the Parliament
provides the procedure of amending the above two acts and
Amendment. The Power of received the President’s assent.
Parliament to amend the Therefore, salaries of both Supreme
Constitution and its procedure court and High court judges do not
provisions (Article 368 itself) can be come under the purview of the
amended by a Special Majority of Constitutional Amendment, and so, it
Parliament and the Consent of States. does not require the consent of a
So, Statement 3 is not correct. majority of the states. So,
Q.2) Which of the following amendments to the The provisions related to the federal
Constitution of India requires the consent of structure of the constitution can be
a majority of the states? amended by a special majority of the
Parliament and also with the consent
1. Amendment to the quorum of Rajya Sabha
of half of the state legislatures by a
2. Amendment to the salaries of High Court
simple majority. There
Judges
3. Representation of states in Parliament

is no time limit within which the states should Both Houses of Parliament must
give their consent to the bill. approve Financial Emergency within
The following provisions can be amended in two months. After the proclamation
this way: of a Financial Emergency, the
1. Election of the President and its manner. following Provisions are issued by the
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union President. The Union Government
and the states. may give directions to any of the
3. Supreme Court and high courts. States regarding financial matters.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between The President may ask the State
the Union and the states. government to reduce the salaries
5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule. and allowances of all or any class of
6. Representation of states in Parliament. persons in government service.The
7. Power of Parliament to amend the President may also give directions for
Constitution and its procedure reducing salaries and allowances of
(Article 368 itself). the Central Government employees,
So, Statement 3 is correct. including the Judges of the Supreme
Court and the High Courts.The
Q.3) When Financial emergency is in operation President may ask the States to
the president may issue directions to reserve all the money bills for the
observe such canons of financial propriety. consideration of the Parliament after
the State Legislature has passed
Which among the following directions could
them. When a financial emergency is
be issued by the President? in operation,the President may ask
1. Reduction of salaries and allowances of all the states to reserve only the money
class of persons serving in connection bill.
with the affairs of a State So, Option (b) is correct.
2. Reserve any bill for the consideration of
the President after they are passed Q.4) Among the many committees that were
by the Legislature of a State
constituted to review of the functioning of
3. Reduction of salaries and allowances of all
local government institutions, few
class of persons serving in connection
with the affairs of the Union recommended constitutional recognition for
4. Reduction of salaries and allowances of the the local government bodies. Which among
Judges of the Supreme Court and the the committee was latest which led to the
High Courts constitutionalising of the local bodies?
Select the correct answer using the codes (a) GVK Rao Committee
given below : (b) LM Singhvi Committee
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Thungon Committee
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) 3 and 4 only Ans: c
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 EXPLANATION:
Ans: b G.V.K. Rao Committee recommends
EXPLANATION: strengthening and revitalizing the
The Financial Emergency can be proclaimed Panchayati Raj system and reducing
under Article 360, which provides the District Collector's developmental
that if the President is satisfied that role, which assigned a major role to
the financial stability or credit of the Panchayati Raj
India or any of its part is in danger, he in development administration.The
may declare a bureaucratization of development
state of Financial Emergency. administration against

democratisation weakened the 2/3 majority of members present and
PanchayatiRaj institutions, resulting voting, or else the proclamation
in what is aptly called grass without ceases to operate.
roots. Option (a) is not correct. Emergency due to the breakdown of
In 1986, the Rajiv Gandhi government constitutional machinery in a State
appointed an L.M. Singhvi Committee under Article 356:
to prepare a concept The proclamation of Emergency due
paper on 'Revitalisation of Panchayati to the breakdown of constitutional
Raj Institutions for Democracy and machinery in a State under Article
Development' under the 356 must also be placed before both
chairmanship of L.M. Singhvi. So, the Houses of Parliament for
Option (b) is not correct. approval. And the Period of Approval
The term Panchayati Raj in India by Parliament must be within two
signifies the system of rural local self- months; otherwise, the proclamation
government. In 1988, a sub- ceases to operate.
committee of the Consultative If the Parliament approves, the
Committee of Parliament was emergency proclamation remains
constituted under P.K.Thungon to valid for six months and can be
examine the political and extended for another six months but
administrative structure in the not beyond one year. However, an
district for district planning.The Emergency in a state can be
Panchayati Raj bodies should be extended beyond one year if
constitutionally recognized with A (a) a National Emergency is already in
three-tier system of panchayats at operation; or if
the village, block and district levels. (b) the Election Commission certifies
Therefore, P.K. Thungon Committee that the election to the State
led to the constitutionalising of the Assembly cannot be held.
local bodies. So, Option (c) is correct. Financial Emergency by Article 360.
The Financial Emergency must be
Q.5) Consider the following pairs : approved by both Houses of
Emergency Period of Approval by parliament Parliament within two months.
1. Article 352 - within 2 months Financial Emergency can operate as
2. Article 356 - within 1 month long as the situation demands and
3. Article 360 - within 2 months may be revoked by a subsequent
How many pairs given above is/are correctly proclamation. So, Option (a) is
matched ? correct
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs Q.6) In which one of the following areas does the
(c) All three pairs State Government not have control over its
(d) None of the pairs local bodies ?
Ans: a (a) Citizens’ grievances
EXPLANATION: (b) Financial matters
National Emergency under Article 352. (c) Legislation
The proclamation of national Emergency has (d) Personnel matters
to be approved by both the Houses of Ans: a
Parliament by an absolute majority of EXPLANATION:
the Houses The Emergency Local Governments have been entrusted with
proclamation must be approved by a large number of functions ranging
both the Houses of Parliament within from basic civic functions to a large
one month from its issue date with number of other significant functions,

including those of developmental improvement, implementation of
nature. Land reforms, land consolidation and
Local bodies are local self-governing soil conservation, Rural Development
institutions and constitute the third- (Rural housing, Rural electrification,
tier of governance systems in India including distribution of electricity),
and attend to the day-to-day needs Primary and Secondary education,
of a community, including public Social forestry, Minor irrigation,
grievances such as issues Water management and watershed
of roads, street lighting, water supply development, Animal husbandry,
and sanitation, solid waste Dairying and poultry, Fisheries etc.
management, public health and so So, Option (a) is correct.
on. Thus, the matters concerning
citizens' grievances, It is not the state Q.8) Even though there are many constitutional
government; rather, local bodies mandates with respect to the panchayati raj
like Gram Sabha and Municipalities institutions, the constitution has left few
have the upper hand over it. So,
matters to the discretion of the state
Option (a) is correct.
government. In which of the following
Q.7) There are several fresh provisions in the matters the state government has such a
Panchayati Raj Act 1993 that deviated from discretionary power to decide ?
the past. 1.The subjects in eleventh schedule that
Which one of the following is not one such would be transferred to the local
provisions ? bodies
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the 2. The dissolution of the village panchayats
area of agriculture, rural 3. Determining the powers and functions of
development, primary education and the gram sabha
social forestry among other 4. Establishment of state finance commission
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all 5. Establishment of state election commission
posts at the time they are due Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) A statutory representation for women in given below:
the panchayats, up to a third of the (a) 1 and 2 only
strength (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat (c)1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only
members, so as to ensure their
punctuality and accountability Ans: c
EXPLANATION:
Ans: a
The state government has
EXPLANATION:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act discretionary powers in the
devolution of powers and
added a new Part-IX to the
responsibilities upon panchayats to
Constitution of India. This part is
entitled 'The Panchayats' and consists prepare plans for economic
of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 development and social justice and to
O. The Act has also transfer some or all
added a new Eleventh Schedule to the of the 29 functions listed in the
Constitution. This schedule contains eleventh schedule to the local bodies.
29 functional items of the So, Statement 1 is correct.
panchayats. Some of the important Dissolution of village panchayats:
items are Agriculture, including The state government has the
Agricultural extension, Land discretionary power to dissolve the
village panchayats.

So, Statement 2 is correct. Select the correct answer using the codes
Article 40 of the Indian Constitution given below :
says that “The State shall take steps (a) 1 and 2 only
to organize village panchayats and (b) 2 and 3 only
endow them with such powers and (c) 1 and 3 only
authority as necessary to enable (d) 1, 2 and 3
them to function as units of self- Ans: a
government.” EXPLANATION:
Article 243G of the Indian The Panchayats Extension to the
Constitution states that the Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act of 1996
Legislature of a State may, by law, extends the provisions of Panchayats
endow the Panchayats with such to the Fifth Schedule Areas. These
powers and authority as may be areas have a preponderance of tribal
necessary to enable them to function populations.
as institutions of self-government, According to the act, one of the
and such law may contain provisions important power given to the Gram
for the devolution of powers and Sabha is the Right to plan and
responsibilities upon Panchayats at manage minor water bodies in the
the appropriate level, subject to such Scheduled Areas, not all water
conditions as may be specified bodies. So, Statement 1 is
therein, with respect to-The correct.
preparation of plans for economic With respect to the permission for
development and social justice The the exploitation of minerals in the
implementation of schemes for scheduled areas, Recommendations
economic development and social prior to the grant of a prospecting
justice as may be entrusted to them, license or mining lease for only minor
including those in relation to the minerals and for the grant of
matters listed in the Eleventh concession for the exploitation of
Schedule. Thus determining the minor minerals by auction in the
powers and functions of the gram Scheduled Areas were put forth. So,
sabha is the complete discretion of Statement 2 is correct.
the state Also, regarding the acquisition of land
government. So, Statement 3 is in scheduled areas, the PESA act
correct. provides such power to the Gram
Sabha for the right to be consulted
before making the acquisition of land
Q.9) The Panchayats (extension to the Scheduled in the Scheduled Areas for
Areas) Act, 1996 gives certain legal powers development projects and before re-
to the Gram Sabha. Which among them settling or rehabilitating persons
affected by such projects in the
is/not a power conferred on it ?
Scheduled Areas. So, Statement 3 is
1 Right to plan and manage all water not correct.
bodies in the Scheduled Areas
2. Recommendations for grant of Q.10) The 74thamendment have some
concession for the exploitation of all provisions that are voluntary and
minerals by auction in the Scheduled few are which are not binding, but
Areas are expected to be observed by the
3. Right to be consulted before making States. Which among the following
acquisition of land in the Scheduled falls under the category ?
Areas for development projects

1. Giving voting rights to members of the (b) It provides adequate protection for
Union and State Legislatures in honest and upright public servants.
Municipal bodies (c) It provides legal assistance to public
2. Giving financial powers in relation to taxes, servants against whom complaint is
fees, etc to Municipal bodies filed.
3. Making the municipal bodies autonomous (d) Government aided institutions are not
by devolution of powers to them under the jurisdiction of Lokpal.
Select the correct answer using the codes Ans: b
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only The selection of the Chairperson and the
(b) 2 and 3 only members of Lokpal shall be through a
(c) 1 and 3 only Selection Committee consisting of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the Prime Minister, the Speaker of
Ans: d the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the
EXPLANATION: Opposition in the LokSabha, the Chief
The Members of the Council of States Justice of India or a sitting Supreme
and the members of the Legislative Court Judge nominated by the Chief
Council of the State are registered as Justice of India and an eminent jurist
electors within the municipal area. to be nominated by the President of
So, Statement 1 is correct. India on the basis of
Article 243X of the Indian recommendations of the first four
Constitution gives financial powers to members of the selection committee.
a Municipality, such as taxes,duties, The Lokpal will have the power of
tolls and fees levied and collected by superintendence and direction over
the State Government for such any investigating agency, including
purposes and subject to such the CBI, for cases referred to them by
conditions and limits to municipal the Lokpal.
bodies are a voluntary provision of It provides adequate protection for honest
the act. So, Statement 2is correct. and upright public servants. Hence
The preparation of plans for option (b) is correct.
economic development and social
justice. Q.12) With reference to the various important
The performance of functions and provisions of the Indian constitution,
the implementation of schemes as consider the following pairs:
may be entrusted to them,
Article No Subject Matter
including those in relation to the
1. Article 352 Imposition of National
matters listed in the Twelfth
Emergency
Schedule.
2. Article 356 Duty of Union to protect States
Thus, this article making the
against external aggression & internal
municipal bodies autonomous by
disturbance
devolution of powers to them is a
3. Article 360 Failure of Constitutional
voluntary provision of the act. So,
machinery in states
Statement 3 is correct.
4. Article 365 Effect of failure to comply with
directions given by the Union to
11. With reference to the Lokpal and
states
LokayuktaAct, 2013, which of the following How many pairs given above are correctly
statements is not correct? matched?
(a) Lokpal can suo-moto proceed against any a) Only one pair
public servant. b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs

d) All four pairs 3. To deal with the border issues with
Exp) Option b is the correct answer. neighbouring countries in North-
Pair 1 is correct: Article 352 declares Western India.
what is meant by a National 4. To protect the cultural and economic
Emergency. According to it, the interests of the tribal people of the
President can declare National states
Emergency when the security of India Select the correct answer using the codes
or a part of it is threatened by a)war, given below:
or b) external aggression or c) armed a) 1, 3 and 4 only
rebellion. b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Pair 2 is incorrect: Article 356 c) 1, 2 and 4 only
declares the effect of the failure of d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
constitutional machinery in a Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
state,i.e., President’s Rule/ State Articles 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the
emergency. It is Article 355, which constitution contain special
deals with the duty of the Union to provisions for twelve states viz.,
protect states against external Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam,
aggression & internal disturbance Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
and ensuring that government in Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh,
each state is carried on according to Goa and Karnataka. Originally, the
the provisions of the constitution constitution did not make any special
(i.e., properly working constitutional provisions for these states. They have
machinery in the state). been incorporated by the various
Pair 3 is incorrect: Article 360 deals subsequent amendments made in
with the definition of situations in the context of reorganization of the
which a Financial Emergency maybe states or conferment of statehood on
announced in entire India or a part the Union Territories
thereof.
Pair 4 is correct: Article 365 is a Q.14) The Government enacted, the
provision which supports Article 356 Panchayat Extension to Scheduled
in declaring the President’s Rule in a Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.
state of the country. This Article says Which one of the following is not
that the states are bound to follow identified as its objective?
the directions given by the Union a) To provided self-governance
Executive. In case the state wilfully b) To recognize traditional rights
ignores these directions, it will be c) To create autonomous regions in tribal
said to mean a breakdown of areas
constitutional machinery in that state d) To free tribal people from exploitation
and will make it liable to be declared Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
under President’s Rule/State The PESA Act was enacted to extend the
Emergency. provisions of 73rd and 74th
Amendment Acts to the Fifth
Q.13) What was the intention behind inclusion of Schedule areas. Thus, it was meant to
Articles 371 to 371-J in the Constitution of provide institutions of local self-
India? governance in the Scheduled Areas
1. To meet the aspirations of the people of and to recognize the traditional rights
backward regions of the states of the tribals. The provisions of this
2. To deal with the disturbed law and order Act address some of the most
condition in some parts of the states complex problems of exploitation
and marginalization of the tribals.

The act did not have any provisions of Local self-government can be best
creating any autonomous regions explained as an exercise in
democratic decentralization.
Q.15) The PESA Act, 1996 extends the provisions of Democratic decentralization helps to
Part IX of the Constitution relating to the further democratize local self-
Panchayats to which of the following groups government to enable it to enjoy
more authority, shoulder greater
of states?
responsibility, take more initiative
a) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and experience greater autonomy in
and Gujarat the management of the affairs of the
b) Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
local area.
and Nagaland
c) Himachal Pradesh, Kerala, Meghalaya and
Q.17) With reference to the Metropolitan Planning
Assam
Committee (MPC), consider the following
d) Tamil Nādu, Rajasthan, Bihar and Nagaland
statements:
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. 1. The Constitution makes it mandatory for
The provisions of Part IX of the States to set up MPCs in
constitution relating to the Metropolitan areas.
Panchayats were not applicable to 2. It consists of members from both urban as
the Fifth Schedule areas. However, well as rural local bodies.
the Parliament is allowed to extend 3. The Governor can make provision with
these provisions to such areas, respect to the functions of MPC in
subject to such exceptions and relation to planning and coordination
modifications as it may specify. for the metropolitan area.
Under this provision, the Parliament Which of the statements given above is/ are
has enacted the“Provisions of the correct?
Panchayats (Extension to the a) 1 and 2 only
Scheduled Areas) Act”, 1996, b) 2 only
popularly known as the PESAAct or c) 1 and 3 only
the Extension Act. At present, ten d) 1, 2 and 3
states have Fifth Schedule Areas. Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
These are: Andhra
Pradesh,Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution
Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, makes it mandatory for States to set
Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, up MPCs in areas with population of
Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan. 10 lakh and above. MPC is required
All the ten states have enacted to prepare a draft development plan.
requisite compliance legislations by Statement 2 is correct: Although this is a
amending the respective Panchayati body related to urban local
Raj Acts. governance, and is under Part IX
A,elected members from both urban
Q.16) Local self-government can be best explained local bodies and rural local bodies
as an exercise in (only chairpersons of Panchayats in
that metropolitan area) form a part
a) Federalism
of this committee. Hence this
b) Democratic decentralization
statement is correct.This has been
c) Administrative delegation
done to provide due representation
d) Direct democracy
to the interests and needs of the
people residing in peri-urban and
rural areas adjoining massive

metropolitan areas, who are often Statement 3 is incorrect: Giving
affected by the activities in the representation to members of the
metropolitan area (traffic, Law & Parliament (both the Houses) and the
order, environmental issues, etc). state legislature (both the Houses) in
Statement 3 is incorrect: The the panchayats at different levels
constitution mentions that the main falling within their
function of this committee is to constituencies are the voluntary
create draft development plans for provisions under 73rd Constitutional
the metropolitan areas by combining Amendment Act.
municipal and panchayat
development plans. Q.19) With reference to ‘Evolution of Urban bodies
in India’, consider the following statements:
Q.18) Which of the following are the mandatory 1. The Calcutta Municipal Corporation was
provisions under the 73rd Constitutional the first municipal corporation to be
Amendment Act,1992? set up in India.
1. Constitution of a State Finance Commission 2. Lord Ripon’s Resolution of Local Self-
after every five years. Government introduced a two-tier
2. Indirect elections to the post of system of local governance at
chairperson of panchayats at the municipality level.
district levels 3. Under the Government of India Act of
3. Giving representation to members of the 1919, local self-government became
Parliament in the panchayats a reserved subject under the direct
Select the correct answer using the codes charge of Governor.
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
a) 1 and 2 only correct?
b) 1 only a) 1 only
c) 2 only b) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only c) 2 and 3 only
Exp) Option a is the correct answer. d) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
compulsory (obligatory or Statement 1 is incorrect: The first
mandatory) provisions of the 73rd municipal corporation in India was
Constitutional Amendment Act established in Madras in 1687 as
(1992) or the Part IX of the aresult of a Charter Act passed by
Constitution are: James II, the British monarch at the
1) Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or time.
group of villages. Statement 2 is correct: In 1882, Lord
2) Establishment of panchayats at the village, Ripon’s Resolution of Local Self-
intermediate and district levels. Government created the outline and
3) Direct elections to all seats in panchayats structure of municipal governance in
at the village, intermediate and India. It introduced a two-tier system
district levels. of governance atmunicipal level to
4) Indirect elections to the post of increase governance efficiency
chairperson of panchayats at the through decentralisation of functions.
intermediate and district levels. According to Lord Ripon’s Resolution
5) 21 years to be the minimum age for of Local Bodies in 1882, district
contesting elections to panchayats. boards and local boards were
Constitution of a State Finance Commission formed. Such boards in rural areas
after every five years to review the were known as ‘taluk’ or ‘tehsil’.
financial position of the Panchayat.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the local self-government or village
dyarchical scheme introduced in the administration." So, Reason (R) is
provinces by Government of India Act individually true.
of 1919, local self-government The state governments are the sole
became a transferred subject under authority to make laws on the
the charge of responsible movement subjects listed in the state list. The
subject' village administration' falls in
Q.20) Assertion (A):The power to legislate on Entry 5 of List II of the Seventh
Panchayati raj institutions rests solely with Schedule to the Constitution. So
the State Legislatures the power to legislate on Panchayati
raj institutions rests solely with the
Reason (R) :The subject ‘village
State Legislatures. Thus, Assertion
administration’ falls in Entry 5 of List
and Reason are correct and Reason
II of Seventh Schedule to the
(R) is the correct explanation of
Constitution
Assertion (A). So, Option (a) is
Codes:
correct.
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true and
‘R’ is the correct explanation of’ A’
1. Which of the following are the functions of
(b) Both’ A’ and ‘R’ are individually true but’
R’ is not the correct explanation of’ A’ the NHRC?
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true I. To intervene in any proceeding
Ans: b involving allegation of violation of
EXPLANATION: human rights pending before a court.
The State Legislature may endow the II. To visit jails and detention places to
Panchayats with such powers and study the living conditions of inmates
authority as may be necessary to and make recommendation thereon.
enable them to function as III. To review the factors including acts
institutions of self-government. Such of terrorism that inhibit the
a scheme may contain provisions for enjoyment of human rights and
the devolution of powers and responsibilities recommend remedial measures.
upon Panchayats at the appropriate IV. To encourage the efforts of
level with respect to nongovernmental organisations
(a) The preparation of plans for economic (NGOs) working in the field of human
development and social justice rights.
(b) The implementation of schemes for
economic development and social A. I,II & III B. II,III and IV
justice as may be entrusted to them, C. I,III & IV D. I,II,III & IV
including those in relation to the 29 Ans: d
matters listed in the Eleventh
Schedule. So, Assertion (A) is Explanation: All are Correct
individually true.
Entry 5 of List II (State List) of the Seventh 2. Which of the following is/are
Schedule to the Constitution reads as incorrect with respect to working of
follows: NHRC?
"Local government, that is to say, the
constitution and powers of municipal I. It is vested with the power to
corporations, improvement trusts, regulate it’s own procedure.
districts boards, mining settlement II. It has all the powers of a civil court
authorities and other local and its proceedings have a Judicial
authorities for the purpose of Character.

III. The commission has its own d. Uttar Pradesh State Human Rights
investigation staff for investigating Commission
into complaints of human rights Ans: a
violations.
IV. The commission is empowered to Explanation:The functions relating to human
inquire into any matter even after rights in case of union territory of
the expiry of one year from the date Delhi are to be dealt with by the
on which the act alleged to have National Human Rights Commission
been committed.
5. Who can confer upon the State Human
A. I & II B. III and IV C. III only Rights Commissions the functions relating to
D. IV only the human rights being discharged by the
Ans: d
union territories?
Explanation:The commission is not
empowered to inquire into any
a. The President
matter after the expiry of one year
from the date on which the act b. The Governor of the concerned State
c. The Central Government
constituting violation of human rights
is alleged to have been committed. In d. The Concerned State Governement.
other words, it can look into a matter Ans: c
within one year of its occurrence
Explanation:The central government may
3. State Human Rights Commission can inquire confer upon the State Human Rights
Commissions the functions relating to
into the violation of Human Rights only in
human rights being discharged by the
respect of the following subjects mentioned union territories, except the union
in territory of Delhi.
I. State List 6. Consider the following statements with

II. Concurrent List respect to State Human Rights Commission
III. Union List
I. It is a multi member body consisting
A. I & II B. I onlyC. II only of a Chairman and 02 other members
D. I,II & III II. The Chairperson should be retired
Ans: a Chief Justice of a High Court only
III. The Chairperson and members are
Explanation: human rights only in respect of appointed by the Governor
subjects mentioned in the State List IV. The Chairperson and members are
(List-II) and the Concurrent List (List- removed only by the Governor
III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Which of the above are incorrect?
Constitution.
A. I,II & III B. II,III and IV C. I
4. The functions relating to the Human & III D. II & IV
Rights in the Union Territory of Delhi Ans: d
would be dealt by
Explanation: The State Human Rights
a. National Human Rights Commission Commission is a multi-member body
b. Delhi Human Rights Commission consisting of a chairperson and two
c. National Capital Territory members. The chairperson should be
Commission for Human Rights a retired Chief Justice or a Judge of a

High Court.Although the chairperson B. State Government only with the
and members of a State Human Concurrence of the Governor
Rights Commission are appointed by C. Central Government only with the
the governor, they can be removed Concurrence of the Chief Justice of
only by the President (and not by the India
governor). D. State Government only with the
Concurrence of the Chief Justice of
the concerned state High Court.
7. Consider the following statements Ans: d
I. The Chairperson and members of Explanation: The Human Rights courts can be
State Human Rights Commission are set up by the state government only
eligible for re-appointment. with the concurrence of the Chief
Justice of the High Court of that
II. The Chairperson and members of state.
State Human Rights Commission are
not eligible for any other 10. Chief Information Commissioner and other
employment under state or central members of the Central Information
government after their tenure Commission are appointed by the President
on the recommendations of the committee.
Which of the above statements are correct?
The consists of the following members:
A. I & II B. I only C. II only I. Prime Minister
D. None II. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
Ans: a III. Home Minister
IV. Union Cabinet Minister nominated by
Explanation: Both are true Prime Minister
8. The Protection of Human Rights Act,1993 A. I,II & III B. I & II only C. I,II &
provided for establishment of which of the IV D. I,II,III & IV
Ans: c
following
Explanation: They are appointed by the
I. National Human Rights Commission President on the recommendation of
II. State Human Rights Commission a committee consisting of the Prime
III. Human Rights Court at district level Minister as Chairperson, the Leader
only of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a
Union Cabinet Minister nominated by
A. I & II B. II & III C. I the Prime Minister.
& III D. I,II & III
Ans: d 11. Which of the following are matched
correctly
Explanation: All are correct
9. Human Rights Courts at district level can be I. Central Information Commission –

Ministry of Personnel
established by
II. National Human Rights Commission –
Ministry of Home Affairs
A. Central Government only with the III. Delimitation Commission of India –
Concurrence of the President Ministry of Law and Justice

IV. National Commission for Backward
Classes – Ministry of Minorities I. Central Vigilance Commissioner
A. I,II & III B. I & II only C. I,II & II. The Vigilance Commissioners
IV D. I,II,III & IV III. The Secretary of the Home Ministry
Ans: a IV. The Secretary of the Department of
Personnel.
Explanation: National Commission for
Backward Classes is under the A. I,II & III B. II,III & IV C.
administrative control of Ministry of I,III & IV D. I,II,III & IV
Social Justice and Empowerment Ans: d
Explanation: All are Correct
12. Central Information Commission submits its 15. Which of the following statements is/are
annual report to the incorrect with respect to CBI?
A. The President
B. The Central Government I. CBI undertakes investigation of
C. The Parliament corruption related cases, economic
D. The Lok Sabha offences but not the cases of
Ans: b conventional crimes.
II. The CBI acts as the “National Central
Explanation: The Commission submits an Bureau” of Interpol in India.
annual report to the Central III. The CBI Academy is located at Noida,
Government on the implementation Uttar Pradesh.
of the provisions of this Act. The IV. The CBI is required to obtain the prior
Central Government places this approval of the Central Government
report before each House of before conducting any inquiry or
Parliament. investigation into an offence
committed by officers of the rank of
13. Which of the following is/are neither a joint secretary and above in the
Constitutional body nor a statutory body? Central Government and its
authorities.
I. Central Information Commission A. I,II & III B. II,III & IV C. I,III & IV
II. Central Vigilance Commission D. I,II,III & IV
III. Central Bureau of Investigation Ans: c
IV. National Investigation Agency
A. I & II only B. II & III only C. III only D. Explanation: CBI undertakes investigation of
IV only corruption related cases, economic
Ans: c offences and also the cases of
conventional crimes.The CBI
Explanation: Central Bureau of Investigation Academy is located at Ghaziabad,
is formed through executive Uttar Pradesh.The CBI is not required
resolution and it draws its powers to obtain the prior approval of the
from Delhi SPecial Police Central Government before
Establishment Act. conducting any inquiry or
investigation into an offence
14. The Central Government shall appoint committed by officers of the rank of
joint secretary and above in the
officers of the rank of SP and above in the
Central Government and its
CBI on the recommendation of a committee authorities.
consisting of the following members:

16. Consider the following statements with Ans: b
regard to Lokpal and Lok Ayuktas Act, 2013
in India Explanation: The NDMA consists of a
chairperson and other members, not
exceeding nine.
I. It seeks to establish Lokpal at the
Central level and Lokayukta in each
18. Which of the following are under the
state.
II. The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the administrative control of Union Ministry of
council of Ministers, Members of Home Affairs?
Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D
officers and officials of the Central I. Zonal Councils
Government. II. Central Bureau of Investigation
III. It has exempted Prime Minister. III. Inter-State Council
IV. Lokpal can Suo motu proceed against IV. National Investigation Agency
any public servant.
A. I,II & III B. II,III & IV C.
Which of the above statements are incorrect? I,III & IV D. I,II,III & IV
Ans: c
A. I & II B. III & IV C. I & IV
D. II & III Explanation: CBI is under the administrative
Ans: b control of Ministry of Personnel.
Explanation: The jurisdiction of Lokpal
includes the Prime Minister, 19. National Disaster Management Authority is
Ministers, Members of Parliament under the Administrative Control of
and Groups A, B, C and D officers and a. Ministry of Home Affairs
officials of the Central Government. b. Ministry of Personnel
Lokpal cannot suo motu proceed c. Ministry of Social Justice
against any public servant. d. Ministry of Environment & Forests
Ans: a
respect to National Disaster Management Explanation: NDMA falls under the
Authority administrative control of Ministry of
I. The NDMA consists of a chairperson Home Affairs.
and other members, not exceeding
Ten. 20. Which of the following are the functions of
II. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio National Disaster Management Authority?
chairperson of the NDMA.
III. The other members are nominated I. To lay down policies on disaster
by the chairperson of the NDMA. The management.
chairperson of the NDMA designates II. To approve the National Plan.
one of the members as the vice- III. To approve plans prepared by the
chairperson of the NDMA. Ministries or Departments of the
IV. The vice-chairperson has the status Government of India in accordance
of a Cabinet Minister while the other with the National Plan.
members have the status of a IV. To lay down guidelines to be followed
Minister of State. by the State Disaster Management
Which of the above statements are correct? Authorities (SDMAs) in drawing up
A. I,II & III B. II,III & IV C. I,III the State Plan.
& IV D. I,II,III & IV

A. I,II & III B. II,III & IV C. I,III & IV d.South East
D. I,II,III & IV Ans: b
Ans: d
Explanation: All are Correct 5. A person is facing South. He turned to his right
through 225 degrees and then turned 135
degrees to his left. In which direction is he
1. A person starts from his house, travels a distance
facing now?
of 24 m westwards, then travels a distance
a. North
of 20 m northwards, then a distance of 20 m b. West
eastwards, then a distance of 20 m c. North East
southwards, what is his distance from his d. North West
house presently? Ans: b
a. 2 m
b.4 m 6. A is the Father B. B is the sister of C. C is the
c.5 m husband of D. E is the spouse of B. What is E
d.6.5 m to C?
ans: b a. Brother-in-law
b. Sister-in-law
2. A walks 20m towards East and then 20m to c. Brother
his right. Then every time turning to d. Sister
his left, he walks 10, 30m and 30m Ans: a
respectively. How far is he now from Directions (7-8) Study the following
his starting point? information and answer the given
a.10 m question
b.20 m I is the father of S. O is the brother of I. K is
c.30 m the mother of U. U is the brother of
d.15 m S. S is mother of Q. K is the daughter-
ans: a in-law of V
7.How V related to O
3. Starting from a point, a person walked 24 m a. Brother
North, turned right and walked, 20 m again b. Sister
turned right and walked 24 m then turned c. Father
left and walked 10m. How far is he now and d. Can not be determined
in which direction from starting point? ans: d
8.How I related to Q
a. 15 m East
b.30 m East a. Uncle
c.30 West b. Grand Father
d.30 South c. Brother
Ans: b d. Sister
4. A person escaped from jail and proceeded south 8 Ans: b
9. Read the information carefully and answer the
km, on hearing a loud sound from point P.
given question:
On reaching the place, he heard another
A @ B means A is the wife of B
sound and proceed left to reach another
A + B means A is the mother of B
place R, 8 km away. In which direction, he A $ B means A is the sister of B
has to move to reach Jail again? A % B means A is the brother of B
a. North East A & B means A is the husband of
b. North West
c. South West

What should come in place of the question 13. If in a certain language, CHENNAI is coded as
mark, to establish that A is the DIFOOBJ, how is DELHI coded in that
grandmother of E in the expression? language?
A + B & C + D? E
a. EFMIJ
a. Either % or $
b. FEIMJ
b. Either + or $
c. IFEJM
c. Only +
d. JIMFE
d. None
Ans: a
Ans: a
14. If LUDO is written as KTCD in a certain code, how
10. Read the information carefully and answer the would PUBG be written in that code?
a. FATO
given question:
b. OATF
A @ B means A is the wife of B
c. OTAF
A + B means A is the mother of B
d. ATFO
A $ B means A is the sister of B
ans: c
A % B means A is the brother of A
15. In a certain code, CIVILS is written as, then how
A & B means A is the husband of B
Which among the following options is true if would DESIRE be written in the same code?
the expression ‘L $ M + N % R + S’ is a. CDRHQD
definitely true? b. RDCDQH
a. S is sister of M c. DRDCHQ
b. S brother M d. DDRQHC
c. L is the maternal aunt of S Ans: a
d. L is the maternal aunt of R 16. In a certain code, if TENDS is written as *5%24
ans: d and DOMES is written as 2$@54, then how
11. Study the following information carefully and is TONED coded in the same language?
answer the questions given below. a.*$%52
P $ Q - Means ‘ P is the son of Q’ b.$*%e5
P & Q - Means ‘ P is the mother of Q’ c.%25$*
P € Q - Means ‘ P is the sister of of Q’ d.25%#2
P % Q - Means ‘P is the brother of Q’ Ans: a
P &! Q - Means ‘ P is the father of Q’ Directions (17-20). Study the information to
P ! Q - Means ‘A is the daughter of Q’ answer the given question: In a
Which of the following IS the correct certain code.
conclusion drawn from the ‘Evolution in big cities’ is written as ‘ka oa qa
expression ‘M € N ! O % Q &! R? lo’
a. R is the son of Q ‘cities in the Nation’ is written as ‘he ka Ti
b. M , N and R are cousins oa’.
c. N is aunt of R ‘the big and mighty’ is written as ‘ei qa gu he’
d. O is brother of R ‘mighty firns in town’ is written as ‘ka ,iz,jy,
Ans: b gu’
12. If in a certain code, RUDE is written as SWGI and [Explanation : in= ka
WOOD is written as XQRH, then how will Cities=oa,big=qa,
Evolution=lo, the=he
GLUE be written in that code
Nation= Ti, Mighty=gu, ]
a. HNXI
17.What does the code ‘Ti’ stand for in the given
b. NHIX
c. IXNH code language?
d. NHXI a. Nation
Ans: a b. Mighty

c. Big PEN, PENCIL , SKETCH are used for writing ]
d. Evolution 23. Select the jumbled word which is different from
ans: a other three alternatives?
18. What is the code for ‘Town ‘in the given code a. OOMN
language? b. THRAE
a. Either iz or jy c. EVUNS
b. oa d. MSAR
c. lo Ans: a
d. Either he or Ti [Explanation : OOMN= MOON
Ans: a THRAE= EARTH
19. What does the code ‘qa’ stand for in the given EVUNS= VENUS
code language? MSAR= MARS
a. Big Except Moon , all other are Planets]
b. Cities 24. Select the jumbled word which is different from
c. Mighty other three alternatives?
d. Nation a. EKARAL
Ans: a b. OAG
20.Which of the following represents “Best Cities” in c. SHIDOA
the code language? d. NAYRAHA
a. oa.qa Ans: d
b. he,lo [Explanation : EKARAL = KERALA
c. in,oa OAG= GOA
d. sz,oa SHIDOA= ODISHA
Ans: d NAYRAHA= HARYANA
21. Select the jumbled word which is Except Haryana all other states have Coast]
different from other three 25. Select the jumbled word which is different from
alternatives? other three alternatives?
a. TACAF a. ARNI
b. AND b. QIRA
c. DCS c. RATQA
d. PUCS d. RUKETY
Ans: d Ans: d
[Explanation : TACAF = AFCAT [Explanation : ARNI = IRAN
AND= NDA QIRA= IRAQ
DCS= CDS RATQA= QATAR
PUCS= UPSC RUKETY= TURKEY
AFCAT, NDA and CDS are conducted Except TURKEY all other countries are Gulf
exclusively for Armed Forces ] Nations]
22. Select the jumbled word which is different from
other three alternatives?
a. EPN 1, Amarjeet Sinha Committee is related
b. LICENP a) MGNREGA Review Committee
c. KETSCH b) Education Policy Review Committee
d. KOOB c) Corporate Governance
Ans: d d) MSME Related
[Explanation : EPN= PEN
LICENP= PENCIL Answer A
KETSCH= SKETCH
KOOB= BOOK Explanation

● Context: Recently, the Government 1) Peking University, Beijing, China has
formed a committee headed by topped the QS Asia University
Amarjeet Sinha to look into Mahatma Rankings 2023 followed by National
Gandhi National Rural Employment University of Singapore (NUS).
Guarantee Act 2005’s efficacy. 2) IIT Madras , IIT Delhi, and IISc
● Amarjeet Sinha Committee is a Bangalore have topped among the
MNREGA Review Committee. Indian universities.
● Therefore,option(a) is correct Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
2, With reference to Rice variety named PR23, a) 1 only
consider the following statements b) 2 only
1. It is been developed by Russia c) Both 1 and 2
2. It can yield eight consecutive harvests d) Neither 1 nor 2
across four years.
Which of the above statements is/are Answer- A
correct?
a) 1 only Explanation:
b) 2 only ● 19 Indian Universities are featured
c) Both 1 and 2 among the top 200 on the 15th
d) Neither 1 nor 2 edition of QS Asia University Rankings
2023 released by Quacquarelli
Answer B Symonds(QS), the International
ranking Agency, on 8th November
Explanation: 2022.
● Context: CHINA develops perennial ● Peking University, Beijing, China,
rice varieties. Hence Statement 1 is which was ranked 2nd in the 2022
incorrect. ranking, has topped the QS Asia
● Rice variety named PR23 does not University Rankings 2023, featuring
need to be planted every year and 760 Asian Universities followed by
can yield eight consecutive harvests National University of Singapore
across four years. Hence Statement 2 (NUS) which has ranked first for 4
is correct. consecutive years and is now ranked
● Key benefits of perennial rice 2nd. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
varieties ● Indian Institute of Technology –
○ Reduce cost of inputs as it requires Bombay (40th rank) , IIT Delhi (46th
less labor, seeds and chemical inputs rank), and Indian Institute of
(saved 58% in labor and 49% in other Science(IISc) Bangalore(52nd) have
input costs). topped among the Indian
○ Remarkable environmental benefits universities. Hence Statement 2 is
such as soils accumulating close to a incorrect.
ton of organic carbon (per hectare ● Chandigarh University has become
per year) along with increase in water the youngest university in Asia to
availability to plant. feature in the top 200 universities in
○ Counter the impact of climate change the QS Asia Universities of Asia.
on food security and rural incomes. ● Therefore option(a) is correct.
● Therefore option(b) is correct.
4. Which one of the following statements best
3. With reference to the QS Asia University describes the term ‘MeFSAT’?
Rankings 2023 released by Quacquarelli (a) It is an alternative to FASTag technology
Symonds(QS)? used for toll collection.

(b) It is a database that compiles information ○ India is the largest
on medicinal fungi. exporter.(Hence,Statement 2 is
(c) It is the smallest artificial satellite incorrect)
launched by NASA. ○ It is a kharif crop.
(d) It is a drug used for the treatment of ○ Needs high temperature (21 to 37º C
Alzheimer's disease. throughout the life period of crop),
high humidity, prolonged sunshine
Answer and an assured supply of water.
Explanation ○ Soils with good water retention
● Context: A research study has used capacity with high amounts of clay
fungi species for identifying novel and organic matter are ideal.
drugs. ○ Therefore option(a) is correct.
● An analytical study of medicinal fungi
carried out by researchers from the 6, With reference to the estimates from United
Institute of Nations Population Fund (UNFPA),consider
● Mathematical Sciences, Chennai the following statements
(IMSc), shows that some chemicals
1. It reached 7 billion to 8 billion just
they secrete may find use as novel
since 2010.
drugs. The researchers analyzed the
2. By 2050, India would become the
structure of 1,830 secondary
most populous country surpassing
metabolites of medicinal fungi.
China.
● They used MeFSAT (Medicinal Fungi
3. Global life expectancy soared from 34
Secondary Metabolites And
years in 1913 to 72 years in 2022
Therapeutics)
Which of the above given statements is/are
database, which compiles information on 184
correct?
medicinal fungi, including
a) 1 and 2 only
mushrooms.
b) 3 only
● Therefore, option (b) is the correct
c) 1 and 3 only
answer.
d) 1,2 and 3
5, With reference to Rice cultivation in India,
Answer D
consider the following statements ● Context: The world’s population,
1. India is world’s second largest rice recently, reached 8 billion according
producer, after China to estimates from the United Nations
2. India is the second largest exporter Population Fund (UNPFA).
rice after Vietnam ● While the human population reached
Which of the above given statements is/are the first one billion in hundreds of
correct? thousands of years, it reached from 7
a) 1 only billion to 8 billion just since 2010.
b) 2 only Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
c) Both 1 and 2 ● By 2050, India would become the
d) Neither 1 nor 2 most populous country surpassing
China. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Answer A ● Global life expectancy soared from 34
years in 1913 to 72 years in 2022 and
Explanation is expected to continue on that long-
● Rice cultivation in India: term trajectory. Hence, Statement 3
○ India is world’s second largest rice is correct.
producer, after ● Therefore,option(d) is correct
China.(Hence,Statement 1 is correct)

7, The “PROGRESS ON THE SUSTAINABLE languages or dialects are spoken in
DEVELOPMENT GOALS: THE GENDER India as mother tongues.
SNAPSHOT 2022” is released by ● Therefore,option(b) is correct
a) World Economic Forum
9, Indian Biological Data Center (IBDC) was
b) World Bank
c) UN Women and the UN Department inaugurated at
of Economic and Social Affairs a) Faridabad, Haryana
d) International Labour Organization b) Hyderabad, Telangana
c) Bangalore, Karnataka
Answer C d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
Explanation Answer A
● Context: Report is published by UN
Women and the UN Department of Explanation
Economic and Social Affairs. ● Recently, the Indian Biological Data
● Key findings of the report: Center (IBDC) was inaugurated at
○ World is not on track to achieve Faridabad, Haryana.
gender equality by 2030. ● IBDC is the first national repository
○ 380 million women and girls live in for life science data in India.
extreme poverty. ● It is envisaged to emerge as a major
○ Nearly 1 in 3 women face food data repository for all life science
insecurity. data emerging from India.
○ Unsafe abortion is a leading but ● Also, as per the Biotech-PRIDE
preventable cause of maternal guidelines, released last year, IBDC is
mortality. mandated to archive all life science
○ In India, a quarter of rural data generated from publicly-funded
households’ women and girls devote research in India.
more than 50 minutes per day to ● It is being established at Regional
collecting water. Centre of Biotechnology (RCB),
● Therefore,option(c) is correct Faridabad in collaboration with
National Informatics Centre (NIC).
8, Recently in news, The Survey “Mother ● Therefore,option(a) is correct
Tongue Survey of India” is released by
a) Ministry of Education
10. Which one of the following statements is
b) Ministry of Home affairs
c) NITI Aayog correct with respect to the Air-independent
d) None of the above Propulsion (AIP) system?
(a) It is a technology developed by ISRO
Answer B to launch multiple satellites in a
single rocket.
Explanation (b) It is a geo-engineering technique to
● The Ministry of Home Affairs recently clean the polluted air in real-time.
completed MTSI. (c) It allows a non-nuclear submarine to
● MTSI surveys the mother tongues, operate without access to
which are returned consistently atmospheric oxygen.
across two and more Census decades (d) It is a method used to reduce fire
and analyzes their linguistic features. incidents related to electric vehicles.
● As per analysis of 2011 linguistic
census data, more than 19,500 Answer C

Explanation
● Air-independent Propulsion (AIP), or Answer- A
air-independent power, is marine
propulsion Explanation:
technology that allows a non-nuclear ● The government of Tamil Nadu has
submarine to operate without access notified the 193.215 hectares of area
to spread across Arittapatti(Melur taluk)
atmospheric oxygen (by surfacing or using a and Meenakshipuram(Madurai taluk)
snorkel). AIP can augment or replace in Madurai district, Tamil Nadu as
the “Arittapatti Biodiversity Heritage
diesel-electric propulsion system of non- Site”. It is Tamil Nadu’s first and
nuclear vessels. India’s 35th Biodiversity Heritage
● The indigenous AIP propulsion Site. The notification was issued
system developed by the Defence under the Section 37 of the Biological
Research and Diversity Act, 2002.
Development Organisation is a modular ● Therefore,option(a) is correct
system that can be easily configured
for any 13. Which Skyroot Aerospace company has
conventional submarine platform. Currently, recently launched India’s first privately built
the system is configured for P75 rocket – ‘Vikram-S’ (VKS) is a startup based
submarines which got the safety, interface in?
acceptance and permission from the a) Hyderabad, Telangana
Submarine designer M/s NG France. b) Bangalore, Karnataka
● Therefore,option(c) is correct c) Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh
d) Chennai, Tamil Nadu
11. The 'Thalweg Doctrine' which was in news
recently is related to which of the following? Answer- A
a) Peaceful coexistence
b) Border disputes Explanation:
c) Water boundary disputes ● The Indian Space Research
d) Humanitarian assistance. Organisation (ISRO) launched India’s
first privately built rocket – ‘Vikram-S’
Answer C (VKS), a suborbital launch vehicle,
from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre
Explanation in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
● According to this doctrine, the ● Skyroot Aerospace, a startup based in
boundary between two states divided Hyderabad (Telangana), developed
by a flowing body of water may be the Vikram-S rocket and the
drawn along the thalweg, which is Prarambh mission with assistance
the line of the greatest depth of the from ISRO and the Indian National
channel. Hence,option(c) is correct. Space Promotion and Authorization
Center (IN-SPACe).
12. Which state government has recently ● The rocket “Vikram-S,” the first in the
notified its 1st Biodiversity Heritage Site, Vikram series, is named after Vikram
“Arittapatti Biodiversity Heritage Site”? Sarabhai, widely regarded as the
pioneer of India’s space program.
a) Tamil Nadu
● It is being developed under the
b) Karnataka
mission “Mission Prarambh” (the
c) Kerala
beginning), which represents a new
d) Telangana
beginning.

● Therefore,option(a) is correct Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra
Pradesh (AP).
14, With respect to the “2022 UNESCO Asia- ● This is the 56th flight of PSLV, and the
Pacific Awards for Cultural Heritage 24th Flight of the PSLV-XL version
Conservation” Under the Award of with 6 PSOM-XLs.
● Satellites carried by PSLV-C54 rocket:
Distinction category, which of the following
○ It carried 9 satellites viz. India’s Earth
site got award in Telangana Observation Satellite -06 (EOS-06),
a) Charminar also known as Oceansat-3, and the 8
b) Purani Haveli nanosatellites viz. ISRO Nano
c) Stepwells of Golkonda Satellite-2 for Bhutan (INS-2B), Anand
d) Salar Jung Museum Satellite, 4 Astrocast satellites, and 2
Thybolt satellites. Hence Statement 1
Answer: C is incorrect.
○ INS-2B:Weighing 18.28 kgs, India-
Explanation Bhutan SAT will provide high-
● The “2022 UNESCO Asia-Pacific resolution images to Bhutan for the
Awards for Cultural Heritage management of its natural resources.
Conservation” (Heritage Awards) It is a collaborative mission between
were awarded to 13 award-winning India and Bhutan. Hence Statement 2
projects from 6 different countries is correct.
across the Asia-Pacific region. The 6 ● Therefore,option(b) is correct
nations are Afghanistan, China, India,
Iran, Nepal and Thailand.
16. Name the mascots of the Paris 2024 Olympic
● Stepwells of Golconda, Hyderabad
and Paralympic Games that were unveiled in
(Telangana), India won the Award of
Distinction category. November 2022.
● Therefore,option(c) is correct a) Magique
b) Hodori
15. The Indian Space Research Organization c) Waldi
d) The Phryges
(ISRO) recently launched PSLV-C54,consider
the following statements Answer- D
1. It carried ten satellites, including
India's Earth Observation Satellite -06 Explanation:
(EOS-06) ● Tony Estanguet, President of the
2. It carried satellite INS-2B of Bhutan. Paris 2024 Organising Committee for
Which of the above statement is/are correct the Olympic and Paralympic Games
1) 1 only unveiled the mascots for Paris 2024
2) 2 only Olympic and Paralympic Games, “The
3) Both 1 and 2 Phryges”(pronounced fri-jee-uhs), in
4) Neither 1 nor 2 Paris, France.
○ The mascot is designed by the
Answer- B creative agency W and the Paris 2024
design teams and Made in Asia by
Explanation: French SMEs Gipsy Toys and Doudou
● The Indian Space Research et Compagnie.
Organization (ISRO) successfully ○ Olympic Phryge and Paralympic
launched the Polar Satellite Launch Phryge complement each other and
Vehicle (PSLV)-C54 rocket from First make each other better with a motto
Launch Pad (FLP) Satish Dhawan of “Alone we go faster, but together

we go further”. The mascot of Paris d) Neither 1 nor 2
2024 is a non-gender-specific mascot.
● Therefore,option(d) is correct. Answer C
17, Which one of the following statements best Explanation

describes the term “Click Chemistry”? ● AWARe was launched by Egypt’s
(a) Development of enzymes used for COP27 Presidency, in partnership
antibody drugs with fewer side with the World Meteorological
effects Organization (WMO).
(b) Usage of simple reactions for a quick Hence,Statement 1 is correct.
and efficient bond of molecules ● It is an initiative that will champion
(c) Conversion of plastics to polymer inclusive cooperation to address
building blocks water related challenges and
(d) Devising computer models to solutions across climate change
stimulate chemical processes adaptation.
● AWARe aims at contributing to a
Answer B successful outcome at the 2023 UN
Conference on Water.
Explanation Hence,Statement 2 is correct.
● The 2022 Nobel Prize in chemistry ● Therefore,option(c) is correct.
was awarded to Carolyn R Bertozzi,
Morten Meldal and K Barry Sharpless 19, Tokhü Emong is a village festival celebrated
for the development of Click in which state
Chemistry and biorthogonal a) Nagaland
chemistry. b) Arunachal Pradesh
● Barry Sharpless coined the concept of c) Meghalaya
Click Chemistry around 2000. It was a d) Sikkim
form of simple and reliable chemistry
where reactions are quick without Answer A
unwanted by-products. It is a
minimalistic form of chemistry in Explanation
which molecular building blocks can ● Tokhü Emong festival Tokhü Emong is
quickly and efficiently snap together. a village festival celebrated by the
● Therefore,option(b) is correct Lotha Nagas in Nagaland, India. It is
celebrated in the first week of
18. With reference to AWARe (Action on Water November every year + The nine-day
Adaptation or Resilience),consider the Fall festival celebrates the end of the
following statements harvest season. Hence Answer(a) is
correct.
1) launched by Egypt’s COP27
Presidency, in partnership with the
20, Recently in news,Senna Spectabilis is
World Meteorological Organization.
2) aims at contributing to a successful a) Invasive Plant Species
outcome at the 2023 UN Conference b) Medicinal Plant
on Water. c) Bamboo Variety
Which of the above statements is/are d) Banana Variety
correct?
Answer A
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Explanation
c) Both 1 and 2

● Senna Spectabilis is a plant species of earthquakes. Hence Statement 1 is
the legume family (Fabaceae) in the incorrect
subfamily Caesalpinioideae native to ● The Ring of Fire is home to about 75
South and Central America. They are percent of the world’s volcanoes and
also known as Golden wonder tree, about 90 percent of its earthquakes.
American cassia, Popcorn tree, Cassia Hence Statement 2 is correct
excelsa, Golden shower tree or
Archibald's cassia . 22. Black sea is the border of which of the following
● They are often grown as an European countries?
ornamental in front yards, parks, 1. Turkey
gardens, buildings etc. due to their 2. Bulgaria
bright yellow flowers that bloom 3. Romania
during the summer months.Senna 4. Ukraine
Spectabilis, along with Lantana 5. Georgia
camara, is among ﬁve major invasive Which of the pairs given above are correctly
weeds that had taken over vast Matched?
swathes of the Nilgiris, with wattle a) 1,2,3 and 4 only
being the other major invasive b) 1,3 and 4 only
species. Hence Answer(a) is correct. c) 1,2, 4 and 5 only
d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 only
21. Mount Sinabung is:
1) a dormant volcano in the Atlantic Answer D
Ocean.
2) a part of Ring of Fire. Explanation
Which of the above is/are correct? ● Black Sea
(a) 1 only ○ Why in the news: Recently, Russia
(b) 2 only resumed participation in Black Sea
(c) Both 1 and 2 ○ Grain deal.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 ○ The Black Sea lies in the Atlantic
Ocean between Europe and Asia and
Answer: B is surrounded by Turkey, Bulgaria,
Romania, Ukraine, Russia and
Explanation: Georgia.
● Why in the news: Alert level for
North Sumatra's Mount Sinabung has 23, Recently in news, FUJIWHARA EFFECT is
been lowered due to decrease in related to
volcanic activity. a) EarthQuakes
● Location of Mount Sinabung: North b) Volcanoes
Sumatra, Indonesia. The volcano has c) Mountains
become active once again. The d) Cyclones
volcano became active in 2010,
erupting after nearly 400 years of Answer D
inactivity.
● Background: Indonesia is home to Explanation
many active volcanoes, due to its ● Recently two cyclones, namely
position on the “Ring of Fire”, or the Hinnamnor and Gardo interacted
Circum-Pacific Belt, which is an area showcasing the Fujiwhara Effect.
along the Pacific Ocean characterized ● Fujiwhara effect is any interaction
by active volcanoes and frequent between tropical storms with the
following features:

○ Storms are formed around the same nations are Afghanistan, China, India,
time in the same ocean region. Iran, Nepal and Thailand.
○ Their centers or eyes are at a ● Domakonda Fort, Telangana, India
distance of less than 1,400 km. and Byculla Station, Mumbai, India
○ Intensity that could vary between a won the Award of Merit category.
depression (wind speed under 63 km ● Therefore,option(a) is correct
per hour) and a super typhoon (wind
speed over 209 km per hour).
● Therefore,option(d) is correct
24. Name the organization that has recently

received the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
Disarmament, and Development of 2021.
a) Katha
b) Teach For India
c) Smile Foundation
d) Pratham
Answer D
Explanation:
● Pratham,
a Non-Governmental Organisation
(NGO) functioning in the field of
education, received the Indira Gandhi
Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and
Development of 2021 at Jawahar
Bhawan in New Delhi, Delhi.
● Therefore,option(d) is correct
25. With respect to the “2022 UNESCO Asia-

Pacific Awards for Cultural Heritage
Conservation”, Which site in India won the
Award of Merit category?
a) Domakonda Fort, Telangana
b) Chatrapati Shivaji Mahraj Vastu
Sangrahalaya, Mumbai
c) Stepwells of Golkonda
d) Ahmedabad's Bhadra Fort.
Answer A
Explanation:
● The “2022 UNESCO Asia-Pacific
Awards for Cultural Heritage
Conservation” (Heritage Awards)
were awarded to 13 award-winning
projects from 6 different countries
across the Asia-Pacific region.The 6

1. Consider the following statements i) It is also known as ‘a city of

regarding paleolithic age granaries.
i) Tools relating to early Paleolithic ii) It was the First Indus Valley Site
age and Middle Paleolithic ages to be discovered.
have been found in the Deccan iii) Stone image of Male person
plateau. above the waist was also found.
ii) the lower Paleolithic age covers The description of the above is about
the greater part of the ice age. which of the following sites of Indus
Which of the statements given above valley civilization?
are correct? A) Mohenjodaro
A) Only I B) Only ii B) Harappa
C) Both D) None C) Kalibangan
Ans: B D) Dholavira
The Paleolithic age in India is divided Ans: B
into three phases in accordance with Harappa:
the type of stone tools used by the i). It was situated on the left bank of river
people and also according to the nature Ravi in Montgomery District in West
of climate change. Tools relating to
Punjab (present day Pakistan) and was
early Paleolithic age and Middle
Paleolithic ages have been found in the excavated by Dayaram Sahani. It was
Deccan plateau. The lower Paleolithic the First Indus Valley Site to be
age or early old stone age covers the discovered and thus the entire
greater part of the ice age. civilization is also named as Harappan
Civilization.
2. Considerthe following statements
regardingKashmiri Neolithic culture ii) It is also known as ‘a city of granaries’
i) Dwelling Pits as 12 granaries were found in two rows
ii) Wide range of Ceramics (each had six).
iii) Variety of Stone and Bone tools iii) Stone image of Male person above the
iv) Presence of Microliths waist was also found.
Which of the above are Characteristics
of the Kashmiri Neolithic culture ? 4. Consider the following statements
A) Only i, ii and iii B) Only i and iii regarding Indus valley civilization site
C) Only I D) All the above Kalibangan
Ans: A i) It was an important site for
In the North West, Kashmir Neolithic bangles industry
culture was distinguished by its ii) Fire altars suggesting worship of
dwelling pits, wide range of Ceramics, Agni (Fire Cult/ Fire Worship)
the variety of stone and bone tools and have been found here.
the complete absence of Microliths. Its iii) Kalibangan culture is also called
most important site is Burzahom which Sothi culture.
means place of birth. Which of the statements given above
are correct?
3. Consider the following statements A) Only ii B) Only i and ii
regarding Indus valley civilization C) Only ii and iii D) All the above
Ans: D

Kalibangan C) Videha D) Durhi
It witnessed both stages of culture Ans: A
(Proto Harappan & Harappan). It was an Bhaga was a Compulsory Tax during
important site for the bangles industry. Rigvedic times. Bali was a Voluntary
offering. However the Tax system was
Fire altars suggesting worship of Agni
not regularised as Bhaga was not
(Fire Cult/ Fire Worship) have been specified & no officer was mentioned
found here. No evidence of worship of for collecting the tax.
Mother Goddess could be traced here.
Kalibangan culture is also called Sothi 8. Gauthama Buddha delivered his first
culture sermon on Dharmachakra pravartana
at?
5. Which of the following cities of the A) Kapilavastu B) Bodhgaya
Indus valley civilization developed in C) Sarnath D) Rajgirh
circular shape under three different Ans: C
stages? Gauthama Buddha had 5 disciples to
A) Rakhigarhi B) Harappa whom he delivered his first sermon at
C) Surkotada D) Dholavira Sarnath in a deer park on
Ans: D Dharmachakra pravartana (how the
Dholavira wheel of dharma moves).
i) It is also located in Gujarat. It was
excavated by Dr Bist and Jagapath 9. Consider the following statements
Joshi. regarding Gauthama Buddha
ii) The city developed in circular shape i) He doesn't believe in the
under three different stages. transmigration of the soul.
ii) He was against both caste evils
and the caste system.
6. Consider the following statements
i) Himavanth is the mountain peak
are correct?
in the Himalayas that is
mentioned in Rig Veda.
C) Both D) None
ii) Mujawanth, a mountain peak in
Ans: D
the Himalayas, was considered
the source of ‘Soma’. Ideas of Buddha:
Which of the statements given above He believed in the transmigration of the
are correct? soul (Life after death). However, he did
A) Only I B) Only ii not believe in the existence of souls. He
C) Both D) None was Anatmavadi. He believed in Karma
Ans: B Siddhanta (For every action, there is an
Mujawanth is the mountain peak in the opposite reaction) called
Pratityasamutpada. He was against
Himalayas that is mentioned in Rig
caste evils but not caste system. In
Veda and was considered the source of Buddhism the caste hierarchy was
‘Soma’ (their favourite drink). Rig Veda Kshatriya, Brahmin, Vaishya and
regarded India or Bharatvarsha & Shudra.
Jambudwip. They had no knowledge of
Sea. 10. Consider the following
Architecture. Importance
i) Stupa. A place of worship
7. Which of the following was the
Compulsory tax during Rigvedic times? ii) Chaitya. the resting place of monks
A) Bhaga B) Bali iii) Vihara. Learning centre in the Buddhism

Which of the pairs given above are to death) at Chandragiri at
matched properly? Shravanabelagola (Karnataka).
A) Only i and ii B) Only i Kharavela, the greatest ruler of the
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above
Chedi dynasty that ruled Kalinga,
Ans: B
convened a Jain Council at Kumaragiri
Stupa is a place of worship which is
in 161 B.C. for uniting Swetambars and
constructed on relics. It is a
Digambars but his attempt failed. He
representation of life being ephemeral,
constituted a new order of Jains monks
symbolized by half-dome. Chaityas are
called Yapanacharyas for preaching and
the prayer halls. Vihara is the resting
promoting Jainism. Konda Kundana
place of Buddhist monks.
Acharya founded a sub sect called
11. 'Nirgranthas' in Jainism were? SaraswatiGacham and wrote Prabhat
A) The people who are very well Treya. The Rashtrakutas were the last
versed in puranas great patrons of Jainism.
B) These are the People who assist Amoghavarsha, the greatest of
others to be liberated from
Rashtrakutas.
bonds.
C) People liberated from bonds.
D) None of the above 13. Consider the following statements
Ans: C regarding Chandragupta Maurya
i) He was the first king to envisage
Jainism emerged during Rig Vedic
the ideas of Welfare State and
times, starting with Tirthankars. There Paternal Kingship.
were a total of 24 Tirthankars, the last ii) He also was the first to take the
one being Mahavira. Their sacred titles Devanampriya and
literary tradition is called Anusruti. First Priyadarshi.
Tirthankar was called Rishabh. 23rd Which of the statements given above
are correct?
Tirthankara was Parsvanatha (Prince of
Kasi) or Parsvanath. He founded the C) Both D) None
four principles of Jainism: Jains or Ans: C
Nirgranthas were the ‘People liberated He was the founder of the Maurya
from bonds. dynasty and the Greeks called him
Sandrakottes. He conquered Saurashtra
12. Consider the following Kings of the
and appointed Pushyagupta as the
ancient India
i) Chandragupta Maurya Governor. Pushyagupta constructed the
ii) Kharavela of the Chedi dynasty famous Sudarshana Lake. It was
iii) Amoghavarsha of the Rashtrakutas attested by Rudradaman’s (Greatest of
Which of the rulers given above the Sakas) Junagarh inscription. He was
patronized Jainism? the first king to envisage the ideas of
A) Only I B) Only i and iii Welfare State and Paternal Kingship
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above
(treating his subjects as children). He
Ans: D
also was the first to take the titles
Expansion of Jainism
Devanampriya (beloved of Gods) and
Chandragupta Maurya was converted
Priyadarshi (one who loves to be
to Jainism by Bhadrabahu and he
admired).
performed Sallekhana Vrata
(annihilation of soul or starving oneself

14. A sculpture-portrait of Ashoka with his The IndoGreeks were the first to issue
queens was mentioned by Ranyo gold coins in large numbers. The
Ashoka at? Junagadh inscription issued by
A) Kanaganahalli B) Sanchi Rudradhaman was the first inscription
C) Erragudi D) Pataliputra in Sanskrit.
Ans: A
A sculpture-portrait of Ashoka with his 17. Consider the following statements
queens at the Kanaganahalli ASI site in regarding satavahana dynasty
Kalaburagi district. A sculpture-portrait i) Satakarni I was the first king in
of Emperor Ashoka — the only available South India to perform the
image of the Mauryan emperor, which Ashvamedha sacrifice.
is considered the most important thing ii) Satakarni1 defeated Kharavela of
found in the excavation — is in a small Kalinga and acquired his
open shed with no protective walls. kingdom.
15. Consider the following regarding are correct?
Important Guilds A) Only I B) Only ii
Name of the guild. Profession C) Both D) None
i) Sarthabahu. Guild of mobile merchants Ans: A
ii) Nigama. Settled merchant guilds of a town Satakarni I was the real founder of the
iii) Puga. Guilds of money lenders dynasty. He was also the first king in
Which of the pairs given above are South India to perform the
matched properly? Ashvamedha sacrifice. He was defeated
A) Only ii B) Only i and ii by Kharavela of Kalinga. The Nanaghat
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above inscription issued by his wife, Naganika
Ans: D talks about his greatness.
Srenis were the guilds of craftsmen and
merchants. Guilds of merchants were 18. 'Gadhasapta Sathi' was a famous poem
written by Hala in ?
headed by Sresti. Each of these guilds
A) Sanskrit
was guided by a set of regulations and B) Ardhamagadhi (Desi)
norms called Srenidharma. Sarthabahu C) Paisachi
is a Guild of mobile merchants Nigama D) Prakriti
is a Settled merchant guilds of a town. Ans: D
Puga is a Guilds of money lenders. Hala was the scholarly king who wrote
the famous Gadhasapta Sathi (700
16. Consider the following statements stories) in Prakrit language.
i) Junagadh inscription issued by
Samudragupta was the first 19. Which of the following Ashokan
inscription in Sanskrit. inscriptions are in the Kharosthi script?
ii) The IndoGreeks were the first to i) Girnar ii) Dhauli
issue gold coins in large numbers. iii) Shahbazgarhi iv) Mansehra
Which of the statements given above Select the answer from the codes given
are correct? below
A) Only I B) Only ii A) Only i, ii and iii B) Only iii
C) Both D) None C) Only iii and iv D) All the above
Ans: B Ans: C
IndoGreeks They were also called Ashokan inscriptions describe the
Bactrian Greeks. Menander was the history of Ashoka properly. The
greatest of the dynasty. He was inscriptions can be divided into three
converted to Buddhism by Nagasena. classes.

Rock cut inscriptions 22. Consider the following statements
Column inscriptions regarding economy during ancient
Cave inscriptions India
i) the terms Nishka and Satamana
Most of the inscriptions of Ashoka are
in the Vedic texts referred to the
written in Prakrit language and Brahmi names of coins.
script. Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra are ii) Coins made of metal appear first
in Kharosthi script. in the age of Gauthama Buddha.
20. Consider the following statements are correct?
i) the last Mauryan ruler was A) Only I B) Only ii
assassinated by his commander- C) Both D) None
in-chief Pushyamitra Shunga. Ans: C
ii) the last Shunga ruler was The coin or metal money bearing the
deposed by the Gauthami Putra stamp of an authority was invented in
Satakarni
the 7th century BC in Lydia Asia minor.
The terms Nishka and Satamana in the
are correct?
A) Only I B) Only ii Vedic texts are taken to be names of
C) Both D) None coins. Coins made of metal appeared
Ans: A first in the age of Gauthama Buddha.
PushyaMitra Shunga assassinated the The earliest were made largely of silver
last Mauryan king Brihadratha in though few copper coins also existed.
184B.C. the last king of Shunga dynasty,
Devabhuthi was killed by a conspiracy 23. Consider the following statements
of his Minister Vasudeva Kanva. i) Both Panini and the Pali texts
speak of the non monarchical
21. Assertion (A): 'Mrichhakatika or the States.
little clay cart' was written by Kalidas ii) according to Panini, the janapada
Reason(R): 'Mrichhakatika tells about or the territorial states were
the changes in the society during the generally headed by the sangha
Gupta period. or multi rulers.
Select the answer from the codes given Which of the statements given above
below are incorrect?
A) Both A and R are true, and R is A) Only I B) Only ii
proper explanation of A C) Both D) None
B) Both A and R are true, and R is Ans: B
not proper explanation of A
Both Panini and the Pali texts speak of
C) Only A is true
the non monarchical States. According
D) Only R is true
to Panini, the janapada or the territorial
Ans: D
states were generally headed by the
'Mrichhakatika or the little clay ekaraja or one king. He specifies
cart' was written by Sudraka, it nineteen one-king janapadas.
deals with the love story of a rich
merchant with the daughter of a 24. Consider the following States of
courtesan. 'Mrichhakatika tells ancient India
about the changes in the society i) Shakyas ii) Lichchavis
during the Gupta period. iii) Malavas iv) Kshudrakas
Which of the kingdoms given above
belonged to the Republican System of
government ?

A) Only i and ii B) Only i, ii and iii B) Mobile merchant class during
C) Only i, ii and iv D) All the above Sangam period
Ans: D C) Special cloth
The Republican System of government D) Tax imposed on weaving class in
existed either in the Indus basin or in the Sangam period
the foothills of the Himalayas in eastern Ans: C
UP and Bihar. Both Panini and the Pali Mathura was a great centre for the
texts speak of the non monarchical manufacture of a special type of cloth
States. In the republics real power lay in which was called 'Shataka'.
the hands of tribal oligarchies.
Examples of republics are Shakyas,
28. Consider the following products
Lichhvis, Malavas and Kshudrakas. Etc
i) Spices ii) Amphorae Jar
iii) Muslin iv) Pearls
25. Consider the following economic
Romans mainly imported from India
activities during Mauryan period
which of the products given above?
i) Mining ii) Sale of liquor
A) Only i, ii and iii
iii) Weights and Measures
B) Only i and iv
iv) Weaving
C) Only i, iii and iv
The state under Mauryan period
D) All the above
enjoyed the monopoly in which of the
Ans: C
above activities?
A) Only i, ii and iv B) Only i and ii The Romans mainly imported spices for
C) Only i, iii and iv which South India was famous, and also
D) All the above Muslin, pearls, jewels and precious
Ans: B stones from Central and South India.
The State enjoyed monopoly in Mining, Iron goods, especially cutlery, formed
Sale of liquor and Manufacture of arms. an important item of export to the
So this naturally brought vast resources Roman Empire.
to the royal exchequer. Chandragupta
Maurya established a well organized
29. Samudragupta followed a policy?
administrative system.
A) Sangraha and Anugraha
B) Sangraha and virochana
26. Which of the following inscriptions of
C) Sangraha, Vimochana and
the Ashoka speaks about the success
Anugraha
of Dhamma policy?
D) Sangraha, Sangrama and
A) Kandahar inscription
Vimochana
B) Allahabad inscription
Ans: C
C) Bodh Gaya inscription
D) Yerragudi inscription Samudragupta followed the policy of
Ans: A Sangraha (Total annexation),
The Kandahar inscription speaks Vimochana (Liberation of some
of the success of Dhamma policy territories) and Anugraha (Restoral).
of Ashoka with the hunters and
fisherman who gave up killing 30. Which of the following Guptan Kings
Animals and possibly took to a took the title "Sakari"?
settled Agricultural life. A) Samudragupta
B) Chandragupta Maurya
27. 'Shataka' was mentioned in ancient C) Kumaragupta
Indian history, associated with? D) Chandragupta Vikramaditya II
A) Ruling class of the Sangam period Ans: D

Chandragupta Vikramaditya II their capital city at Binnal. Nagabhata I
was the son of Samudragupta. He was the founder of the dynasty. Mihir
killed his brother Ramagupta and Bhoj was the greatest ruler of the
married his sister-in- law,
dynasty. Sheikh Suleiman, an Arab
Druvadevi and then came to
power. It is considered a golden merchant traveller, visited the court of
age in Indian history as Bhoja.
remarkable development was
made in all spheres of art, 33. Consider the following statements
architecture and literature during regarding Rajaraja Chola
this time. After he had killed the i) He was the first to issue Tamil
Saka rulers, Bhasana and inscriptions with detailed
Rudrasimha, he took the title dynastic history.
'Sakari'. ii) He constructed the famous
Brihadeswara or Rajarajeshwara
31. Consider the following statements temple at Tanjore, the biggest
i) Druva constructed the famous temple in India.
Kailashnath temple at Ellora. iii) He was also known as
ii) Druva was the first great king of Panditachola.
the dynasty and he was the first Which of the statements given above
to conquer Kannauj by defeating are correct?
Pratiharas and Palas. A) Only i and ii B) Only ii and iii
Which of the statements given above C) Only ii D) All the above
are correct? Ans: A
A) Only I B) Only ii Rajaraja Chola was the greatest of the
C) Both D) None Chola rulers He defeated Pandyas,
Ans: B Cheras, Banas, Kadambas and Western
Rashtrakutas ruled Maharashtra and Gangas. Vimaladitya of the Eastern
Karnataka. Their first capital city was Chalukyas became the son-in-law of
Ellichpur (Ellora) and the second capital Rajaraja Chola. He attacked Ceylon,
city was Manyakatak (Malkhed). destroyed the capital city
Dantidurga, the founder of the dynasty, Anuradhapura and annexed Northern
constructed the famous Dasavatar Ceylon. Rajaraja Chola held titles such
temple at Ellora. Krishna-I constructed as Chola martanda, Shivapadasekhara,
the famous Kailashnath temple at Mummadicholadeva and Madurai
Ellora. Druva was the first great king of Konda. Rajendra Chola was also known
the dynasty and he was the first to as Panditachola.
conquer Kannauj by defeating
Pratiharas and Palas. 34. Assertion (A): The Sanskritisation
process began with Cholas.
32. Sheikh Suleiman was an Arab Reason(R): The Devadasi system was
merchant and traveller, visited the also started during the Chola period.
court of? Select the answer from the codes given
A) Muhammad Ghori below
B) Alauddin Khilji A) Both A and R are true, and R is
C) Mihir Bhoj D) Dharmapala proper explanation of A
Ans: C B) Both A and R are true, and R is
The Pratihars are also called the Gurjar not proper explanation of A
Pratihar dynasty. They ruled M.P. with C) Only A is true

D) Only R is true D) Only R is true
Ans: B Ans: A
The Sanskritisation process began with Kalhana’s Rajatarangini is the first
Cholas. Attempts were made by the systematically written historical text in
lower castes to imitate upper caste Indian history. It deals with the five
customs, language and traditions to dynasties that ruled Kashmir.
enhance their social status thus leading
to upward mobility. This theory was 37. Consider the following statements
first put forth by M.N. Srinivas, the regarding Jizya tax
i) Jizya was a religious tax on all
renowned sociolo change in Modern
non-muslims in the Islamic state
India . The Devadasi system was also that was levied for the first time
started during the Chola period. in Sind.
ii) Only children and Brahmins were
exempted from paying Jizya tax.
35. Match the following regarding guilds Which of the statements given above
under Chola dynasty are incorrect?
Name of guild. Profession A) Only I B) Only ii
i) Manigrama. Guild of weavers C) Both D) None
ii) Telekai. Guild of oil merchants Ans: B
iii) Veedhi. Mobile merchants Jizya, a religious tax on all non-muslims
Which of the pairs given above are
in the Islamic state was levied for the
matched properly?
first time in Sind. However, Women,
A) Only i and ii B) Only ii and iii
C) Only I D) All the above children, slaves and Brahmins were
Ans: A exempted from paying this tax.
They had prosperous trade with Persia
on the West Coast and China on the 38. Consider the following statements
i) Al-Beruni visited India along with
East Coast. The prominent guilds under
Mohammed Ghazni .
Chola are Manigramam (the guild of ii) Al-Beruni wrote the most
guilds weavers), Nanadasi (the mobile authoritative source on early
merchants) and Telekai (the guild of oil medieval India called Kitab-ul-
merchants) Veedhi was the settlement hind.
of weavers. The gold coin Varaha was in Which of the statements given above
large circulation. are correct?
A) Only I
B) Only ii
36. Assertion (A): Kalhana’s Rajatarangini is
C) Both
the first systematically written historical
D) None
text in Indian history.
Ans: C
Reason(R): Kalhana’s Rajatarangini
deals with the only five dynasties that Al Beruni, visited India along with him.
ruled Kashmir. Alberuni stayed at Varanasi and learnt
Select the answer from the codes given Sanskrit for 10 years. He wrote the
below most authoritative source on early
A) Both A and R are true, and R is medieval India called Kitab Ul Hind.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is 39. Consider the following statements
not proper explanation of A regarding Balban
C) Only A is true i) Balban assumed the grand title of
Zil-e-ilahi

ii) He introduced the rituals Sijdah Ans: B
and paibos Firuz Shah Tughlaq constructed four
iii) He introduced the famous Navroz major irrigation systems or canals
festival in India between river Yamuna and river Sutlej
Which of the statements given above and collected an irrigation tax called
are correct? Haqi Shirb (1/10th of the produce). He
A) Only i and ii B) Only ii and iii constructed the city Jaunpur in memory
C) Only ii D) All the above of his cousin Jauna on the banks of river
Ans: D Gomti and also the other cities
The actual name of the Balban was Ferozepur, Firozabad, Fatehpur and
Ulugh Khan. He assumed the title Zil-e- Fatehabad. He also revived the Iqta
ilahi. He introduced the rituals of Sijdah system and introduced hereditary
(greeting lying on the ground) and succession in the army. He wrote his
paibos (Kissing the feet of the king). He autobiography called Futuhat-i-Firoz
introduced the Navroz festival in India. Shahi.
40. Ibn-Batuta was a traveller from 43. All of the following states of the
Morocco visited the court of? confederacy participated in the Battle
A) Alauddin Khilji of Talikota Or Rakasi tangadi which
B) Muhammad Ghori ended the glory of Vijayanagara
C) Balban dynasty, except?
D) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq A) Ahmad Nagar B) Bijapur
Ans: D C) Bidar D) Berar
In 1341, Ibn-Batuta, a traveller from Ans: D
Morocco visited the court of Mohammad Battle of Talikota Or Rakasi It ended the
Bin Tughlaq. He was made the Qazi of Delhi. gloryTangadi (1565) of Vijayanagar
He wrote Kitab-i-Rihla. Empire. It was a battle between the
forces of Vijayanagar commanded by
41. The first sultan of Delhi who received Aliya Rama Raya and the Bahmani
the investiture of Khalifa is? confederacy commanded by Hussain
A) Alauddin Khilji B) Iltutmish Shah of Ahmad Nagar. The main cause
C) Muhammad ghori D) Balban of the war was Aliya’s foreign policy of
Ans: B Divide and Rule. Except for Berar, all
Iltutmish was the first sultan of Delhi the other four states of the confederacy
participated. Sadashiv Raya was the
who received the investiture of
king of Hampi during the war.
Khalifa,hw got the title 'sultan I azam'
from the Khalifa. 44. Assertion (A): The ‘ Nayaka’ system was
the system of civil servants in the
42. Consider the following statements Vijayanagara dynasty.
regarding Firuz Shah Tughlaq Reason(R): The Nayakas discharged civil
i) Futuhat-i-Firoz Shahi was a and military functions on behalf of the
biography of Firuz Shah Tughlaq emperor and in return were given lands
written by Ziauddin Barani. called Amarams.
ii) He revived the Iqta system and Select the answer from the codes given
introduced hereditary succession below
in the army. A) Both A and R are true, and R is
Which of the statements given above not proper explanation of A
are correct? B) Both A and R are true, and R is
A) Only I B) Only ii proper explanation of A
C) Both D) None C) Only A is true

D) Only R is true i) Madalasa Charitra
Ans: B ii) Ushaparinayam
The ‘ Nayaka’ system was the system of iii) StayaVadhuParinayam
civil servants. The Nayakas discharged iv) Jambavatiparinayam
v) Sakalakathasaram
civil and military functions on behalf of
Select the answer from the codes given
the emperor and in return were given below
lands called Amarams . The system was A) Only i, ii, iv and v
not hereditary, purely based on merit. B) Only ii, iii, iv and v
C) Only ii, iv and v
45. 'Athavana' was very frequently in the D) All the above
works of the Vijayanagara period. Ans: D
Associated with? The literary assembly of
A) Military department. Krishnadevaraya was called
B) A police officer who was in Bhuvanavijayam. He was a great scholar
charge of internal security. in Sanskrit and wrote the popular texts
C) The revenue department called Madalasa Charitra,
D) None of the above Ushaparinayam, StayaVadhuParinayam,
Ans: C Jambavatiparinayam and
Athavana was the revenue department Sakalakathasaram (the essence of all
which was headed by Mahakaranikam ( stories).
Finance Minister).
46. Consider the following regarding regarding Mughal dynasty
Vijayanagara dynasty i) The Mughals lost Delhi in the
Terms. Meaning Battle of Bilgram for the first
i) Panchamavaru. Most backward time.
people ii) Humayun defeated Sikandar
ii) kaikollas. Guild of weavers Shah of the Suri dynasty in the
iii) Bhatkal. Port in the west coast Battle of Sirhind and got back
Which of the pairs given above are Delhi.
matched properly? Which of the statements given above
A) Only i and ii B) Only ii and iii are incorrect?
C) Only iii D) All the above A) Only I B) Only ii
Ans: B C) Both D) None
The popular guilds were Panchamavaru Ans: D
(association of five craftsmen) and Humayun defeated Sher Shah Suri in
Kaikollas (guild of weavers). Bhatkal on the Battle of Chunar in 1539. Sher Shah
the West Coast and Masola or defeated Humayun for the first time in
Machilipatnam on the East Coast (A.P.)
the Battle of Chausa in 1540 and for the
were the two important ports. Horses
second time in the Battle of Bilgram
were imported from Persia.
Amuktamalyada , a text written (1540). The Mughals lost Delhi in the
Motupalli by Krishnadevaraya talks Battle of Bilgram for the first time. In
about horse trade. , popular port under 1542, Humayun took shelter in the
Kakatiyas also played an important role court of Rana Prasad of Amarkot.
in the external trade. Humayun defeated Sikandar Shah of
the Suri dynasty in the Battle of Sirhind
47. Krishnadevaraya was a great scholar in
Sanskrit, he wrote which of the in 1555 and got back Delhi.
following texts?

49. A common feature of the all Bhakti ii) Muinuddin chishti maintained
saints was that they? that devotional music was one
A) Rejected the authority of the way to come closer to God.
Vedas Which of the statements given above
B) Rejected the authority of the are correct?
Priestly class A) Only I B) Only ii
C) Composed their verses in the C) Both D) None
local language of their followers. Ans: C
D) None of the above Muinuddin chishti also known as Garib
Ans: C Nawaz was an imam, Islamic scholar
Bhakti saints contributed to the and philosopher. He introduced and
advancement of Hindi, Kannada,
established the chishti order of Sufism
Punjabi, Bengali and other languages.
The saints of the Bhakti movement in the Indian subcontinent. Muinuddin
used to give their verses in regional and chishti maintained that devotional
local languages. music was one way to come closer to
God.
50. Consider the following
Saint. Salvation 53. Consider the following statements
i) Shankaracharya. Advaita regarding Aurangzeb
ii) Ramanuja. Vishishtadvaita i) He abolished only vocal but not
iii) Madhvacharya. Dvaitvad instrumental music.
Which of the pairs given above are ii) He banned the celebration of
matched properly? Diwali and Persian Navroz
A) Only i and ii B) Only ii and iii festivals.
C) Only ii D) All the above Which of the statements given above
Ans: D are incorrect?
All the options given above are A) Only I B) Only ii
matched properly. C) Both D) None
Ans: A
51. Consider the following statements After coming to power, Aurangzeb
i) Bijak is a composition of the brought about many changes. He
teachings of the Dadu Dayal
abolished the (inscribing Quranic verses
ii) Philosophy of the Pushti Marg
was propounded by on coins). Aurangzeb abolished both
Vallabhacharya. vocal and instrumental music. He
Which of the statements given above removed court astrologers and
are correct? historians; he also banned the
A) Only I B) Only ii celebration of Diwali and Persian
C) Both D) None Navroz festivals.
Ans: B
Bijak is the best known compilation of 54. Assertion (A): The Mansabdari system
the composition of Kabir. Pushti Marg is was introduced by Akbar.
a Vaishnava sect of Hinduism, founded Reason(R): Mansabdars discharged
by vallabhacharya. He propounded civil, military and judicial functions on
Shuddha Advaita. behalf of the State/Emperor.
Select the answer from the codes given
52. Consider the following statements below
regarding Sufism A) Both A and R are true, and R is
i) Muinuddin chishti also known as proper explanation of A
Garib Nawaz

B) Both A and R are true, and R is ii) Generally the Nagara style of
not proper explanation of A temples were built with water
C) Only A is true tanks inside the Complex.
D) Only R is true Which of the statements given above
Ans: D are incorrect?
The Mansabdari system was the unique A) Only I B) Only ii
administrative system under the C) Both D) None
Ans: B
Mughals. Though introduced by Babur,
Generally, temples were built without
it was perfected by Akbar. The
water tanks inside the Complex and
Mansabdars were the civil servants
boundary walls or Gateways outside.
selected on merit. They discharged civil,
Generally, temples were built by using
military and judicial functions on behalf
stones, without any metal or mortar.
of the State/Emperor and were given
However, the Bhitari temple was built
lands called Jagirs.
entirely in bricks. the Guptas were the
first to construct temples in North India
55. Consider the following statements in early Nagara style. It all started with
regarding Sher Shah square sanctum and pillared portico.
i) He introduced a new revenue Gradual progression started from flat
system called ‘Zabt System. roofed temples in the initial stages to
ii) He introduced the most standard
the sculptured Shikaras in later stages.
Silver rupee called Rupiya.
iii) He founded the Sur dynasty in
Delhi after defeating Humayun in 57. The temple itself appears to be the
work of a sculptor and not of builder,
The battle of Kanauj or Bilgram.
Which of the statements given above as such called Sculptors architecture, is
a main characteristic feature of?
are correct?
A) Nagara style of architecture
A) Only ii B) Only i and ii
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above B) Dravida style of architecture
C) Hoysala school of architecture
Ans: D
D) KHAJURAHO School of
Sher Shah His actual name was Farid.
architecture
He was the Jagirdar of Sasaram, Ans: C
Khawaspur and Tanda and was given HOYSALA style is developed in
the title Sher Shah by Bahar Khan Karnataka with its main centers Belur,
Lohani who was the ruler of Bihar. He Halebid and Sringeri. Its Characteristics
founded the Sur dynasty in Delhi after features are:
defeating Humayun in The battle of 1) the temple itself appears to be the
Kanauj or Bilgram. He introduced a new work of a sculptor and not of builder, as
revenue system called ‘Zabt System’ such called Sculptors architecture.
basis of Raja Todar Mal system of 2) The ground plan is star -shaped or
revenue collection. He introduced the polygonal within which the entire
most standard Silver rupee called temple accommodates. The star shaped
Rupiya. plan provided more wall space for
sculptures than a rectangular plan.
i) the Guptas were the first to
construct temples in North India
in early Nagara style.

i) A new technique called Petra of depicting Radha and Krishna. The
Dura was introduced for the first paintings were of large size. Bani-Thani,
time under Shahjahan. a famous painting, comes under this
ii) The tomb of Itimad Ud-Daulah
school.
was the basis for Taj Mahal.
are correct? 61. The Blue water policy was associated
with?
A) Albuquerque B) Dupleix
C) Both D) None
C) De Almeida D) None of the
Ans: B
above
A new technique called Petra Dura
Ans: C
(inlaid mosaic work) was introduced for
The blue water policy is attributed to
the first time under Jahangir and was
Francis decline Almeida, according to it,
used in Itamad Daula’s tomb for the
the Portuguese should be the sole trade
first time. The tomb of Itamadud--
power in the Arabian sea and Indian
udDaula was also the basis for Taj
Ocean.
Mahal.
59. Which of the following Mughal i) Warren Hastings was the first
Emperors founded a separate artistic governor General of India
studio called Tasvir Khana, where ii) William Bentinck was the first
painters were employed and governor General of India
developed their own styles? Which of the statements given above
A) Shahjahan are incorrect?
B) Akbar A) Only I B) Only ii
C) Jahangir C) Both D) None
D) None of the above Ans: A
Ans: B
Under Regulating Act 1773, Warren
The real founder of the Mughal school
Hastings was appointed as the first
of painting was Akbar. He founded a
governor General of Bengal.
separate artistic studio called Tasvir
Khana were painters were employed 63. Consider the following statements
and developed their own styles. For regarding English East India company
Akbar “Painting is the means to realize i) They founded their first
the God” settlement/factory at
Machilipatnam.
ii)Francis Day obtained permission
from the Mughal emperor to
settle at Chennapatnam.
60. 'Bani-Thani' is a famous painting which
comes under which of the following
are correct?
schools of painting?
A) Basohli School B) Kangra School
C) Both D) None
C) Pahari school D) Kishangarh School
Ans: A
Ans: D
They founded their first
Kishangarh School flourished under
settlement/factory at Machilipatnam in
Raja Sawant Singh, the theme was
1611 A.D. with the permission of Md.
Radha & Krishna. The renowned painter
Quli Qutub Shah of Golconda through a
was Nihal Chand who mastered the art
Golden Farmana. In 1639 A.D., Francis

Day obtained permission from The Raja Munro fixed the state demand on the
of Chandragiri, to settle at basis of 50 percent of the estimated
Chennapatnam (Chennai). produce of the field.
64. Consider the following statements 66. Consider the following statements
i) The Battle of Wandiwash or i) The Sati system was abolished by
Vandavasi fought during the Lord Wellesley
Second Carnatic War. ii) The regulation of XV11 of Bengal
ii) The Third Carnatic War once and code (1827) banned the practice
for all ended the fortunes of the of Sati system
French in India. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
are incorrect? A) Only I B) Only ii
A) Only I B) Only ii C) Both D) None
C) Both D) None Ans: A
Ans: A Regulation of 17 of Bengal code 1829
The Third Carnatic War (1756 – 1763) was a legal act promulgated by the East
was started with the Seven Years’ War India Company rule of British by the
between England and France in Europe. then governor General William
Bussey, the French Commander, was Bentinck banned the practice of Sati
defeated by Colonel Forde in the Battle system.
of Chandurthi (1757). The French lost
Hyderabad. The most important battle 67. Consider the following statements
was the Battle of Wandiwash or i) Dastaks were passed or licenses
Vandavasi fought on Jan 22, 1760. The issued by the President of the
Calcutta Council to the English
entire French navy under Count de Lally
merchants claiming exemption
was devastated by Colonel Eyre Coote from customs duties.
of the English. The war, once and for all, ii) the misuse of ‘Dastaks led to the
ended the fortunes of the French in Battle of Buxar
India. The war finally ended with the Which of the statements given above
Paris Treaty in 1764. are correct?
65. Consider the following governor C) Both D) None
Generals Ans: C
i) Lord Cornwallis The main cause for differences
ii) Thomas Munro between Nawab of Bengal and English
iii) Alexander Reed East Indian Company was the misuse of
Which of the above are associated with ‘Dastaks’, which were passed or
the Ryotwari system in India during
licenses issued by the President of the
British rule?
Calcutta Council to the English
A) Only ii B) Only I and ii
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above merchants claiming exemption from
Ans,: C customs duties.
In the Ryotwari system every registered
holder of land is recognized as a 68. Consider the following princely states
of British rule in India
proprietor of land and is responsible for
i) Jhansi ii) Sambalpur
direct payment of land revenue to the iii) Satara
state. Captain Reed assisted by Thomas

Which of the states given above are Which of the statements given above
annexed on the principle of Doctrine of are incorrect?
Lapse? A) Only I B) Only ii
A) Only I B) Only I and iii C) Both D) None
C) Only I and ii D) All the above Ans: B
Ans: D Tipu died at Srirangapatna while
All the given above states were fighting against the English in the fourth
annexed by Dalhousie on the principle Anglo-Mysore war. He was the first
of Doctrine of Lapse.
Indian to send delegations to the
69. Assertion (A): Robert Clive introduced Islamic countries. As a secular ruler, he
Dual Government in Bengal. respected the Jagat guru of Sringeri and
Reason(R): Warren Hastings suspended made liberal donations to the Rangana
the Dual Government and took over the tha Temple at Srirangapatna.
administration.
Select the answer from the codes given 71. The Ilbert Bill controversy was
below associated with?
A) Both A and R are true, and R is A) Removal of disqualifications
proper explanation of A imposed on the Indian
B) Both A and R are true, and R is magistrates about the trail of the
not proper explanation of A Europeans
C) Only A is true B) Imposition of certain restrictions
D) Only R is true to carry out by the Indians when
Ans: A they assigned foreign tour
In Sept 1765, Robert Clive introduced C) Increased duty on imported
Dual Government in Bengal. Under the cotton clothes
system, powers were divided into D) It aims to ban child marriages
illegal in India
Diwani (revenue) and Nizamat (general
Ans: A
administration). A Deputy Subedar was
The Illbert Bill was introduced by Lord
appointed who was answerable to the
Ripon that proposed an amendment to
Company when he discharged the
existing laws in the country to allow
Diwani functions and to the Nawab
Indian judges and magistrates to try
when he dealt with Nizamat. Md. Raza
British offenders in criminal cases at the
Khan was the first Deputy Subedar
district level.
under the new system. In 1772, Warren
Hastings suspended the Dual
72. Which of the following constitute
Government and took over the Home charges in the period of colonial
administration. Nizam.udDaula was rule in India?
granted a pension of 6 lac rupees per i) Funds used to support the Indian
annum. office in London
ii) Funds used to pay salaries and
70. Consider the following statements pensions of British personnel
regarding Tipu Sultan engaged in India
i) He was the first Indian to send Select the answer from the codes given
delegations to the Islamic below
countries. A) Only I B) Only ii
ii) Tipu died at Srirangapatna while C) Both D) None
fighting against the English in the Ans: C
third Anglo-Mysore war.

Home charges referred to the bidder in the auction was given the
expenditure incurred in England by the revenue collection rights. In the total
secretary of the state on behalf of the revenue collected, 10/11 was the share
Indian government.
of the company, called Peshcush.
73. Consider the following Indian freedom
fighters
i) W. C. Bannerji 76. Consider the following statements
regarding English East India company
ii) Dadabhai Naoroji
policies
iii) N. Krishna kanth Sharma
Which of the above Indian freedom i) The 1813 Charter Act introduced
fighters established 'London India Free Trade Policy.
Society'? ii) It ended the monopoly of the
A) Only I B) Only i and iii East India Company on all items
C) Only i and ii D) All the above of trade in India.
Ans: C Which of the statements given above
are correct?
Dadabhai naoroji with w.c.banerjee
established London India society in
C) Both D) None
1865, the main purpose of which was to
Ans: A
expose Indian plight.
The 1813 Charter Act introduced Free
74. Which of the following is the Trade Policy. It ended the monopoly of
immediate cause of India's first war of the East India Company on all items of
independence? trade except Tea and Opium.
A) Subsidiary alliance
B) Suspicion about british 77. Match the following regarding tribal
interference in religion revolts
C) Economic Exploitation of India by Tribal revolt. Region
British i) Kols. Assam
D) None of the above ii) Naikdas. Panchmahal
Ans: D hills
Newly launched Enfield rifle was the iii) Santhal Rebellion. Rajmahal hills
immediate cause of the Revolt. Which of the pairs given above are
matched properly?
75. Consider the following statements A) Only i and ii B) Only iii
regarding permanent settlement C) Only ii and iii D) All the above
i) The permanent settlement or Ans: C
Zamindari System was Naikdas – Panchmahal hills, Gujarat:
introduced by Lord Cornwallis. 1858 – 1868, revolted under the
ii) The highest bidder in the auction leadership of Roop Sing and Jaria
was given the revenue collection Bhagath against the British policy of
rights under the permanent
expansionism and interference. They
settlement.
Which of the statements given above declared the formation of the 2nd
are incorrect? independent tribal kingdom with Roop
A) Only I B) Only ii Singh as the Head of the State and Jaria
C) Both D) None as the Head of the Religion.
Ans: D Kols – ChotaNagpur: Revolted in 1832,
The permanent settlement or under the leadership of Buddho
Zamindari System was introduced by Bhagath against British Policy of
Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The highest expansionism. Santhal Rebellion -- It

took place in the Rajmahal hills in Bihar Ans: B
from 1854 to 1856. It opposed British Atmiya Sabha was founded by Raja Ram
land revenue policy, under the Mohan Roy in Kolkata in 1815. It was
leadership of Siddhu and Kanhu. the first reform organisation. Its main
theme was to promote Studies on
78. Consider the following statements Indian Philosophy (Upanishads).
regarding 1857 revolt
i) The administration of the East 80. Consider the following statements
India company ended. regarding Prarthana Samaj
ii) The office of the Governor i) Imparting education to women
General became the office of and the downtrodden.
Viceroy. ii) Eradication of Caste rigidities.
iii) An agency of 15 members called iii) To establish widow homes.
Indian Council was created in Which of the above are the main
London to monitor the objectives of the Prarthana Samaj?
functioning of Viceroy and his A) Only i and ii B) Only ii and iii
staff. C) Only i and iii D) All the above
Which of the above were results of the Ans: C
Revolt?
Prarthana Samaj It was founded in 1867
C) Only ii D) All the above in Bombay by Atmaram Pandurang as a
Ans: D branch of Brahmo Samaj in Bombay
Lord Canning held the Allahabad Durbar Presidency at the instance of Keshab
and read out the Queen’s proclamation Chandra Sen. Justice M.G.Ranade
which promised no further conquests in joined the Samaj in 1870 and was called
India, no further interference in the the “Architect of the Samaj”. Its
internal affairs of the Indians and that 1. social programmes included Imparting
Indians would be promoted in decision education to women and the
making. The administration of the downtrodden.
company ended. Its two agencies, 2. To find widow homes.
Directors and Board of Control, were 81. Consider the following statements
abolished. The office of the Governor i) Mirat Ul Akhbar, a Persian weekly,
General also became the office of was published by Raja Rammohan
Viceroy (He was Governor-- General Roy.
when he administered British India. ii) Bengal Gazette was the first
newspaper in India.
79. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above
regarding socio religious reform are incorrect?
movement A) Only I
i) Atmiya Sabha was founded by B) Only ii
Siva Narayana Agnihotri in C) Both
Kolkata in 1815. D) None
ii) Atmiya Sabha's main theme was Ans: D
to promote Studies on Indian Bengal Gazette was an English
Philosophy (Upanishads). newspaper published from Kolkata,
India. It was the first newspaper in
are correct?
A) Only I B) Only ii India. Raja Rammohan Roy in 1822
C) Both D) None started Persian weekly mirat ul Akhbar.

Chennai. Madam Annie Besant became
82. Which of the following native language the President of the Society in 1904 and
newspapers overnight converted to l edthe Home Rule Movement
English newspapers to avoid the native
demanding self–- governance for India
language press act?
A) Mirat Ul Akhbar
B) Ghadar 85. Consider the following Indian freedom
fighters
C) Bengal Gazette
i) Firoz Shah Mehta
D) Amrit Bazar Patrika
ii) Rajendra Mitra
Ans: D
iii) Radhakanta Deb
Shishir Kumar founded the Amrita
iv) Debendranath Tagore
Bazar Patrika in 1868 in Kolkata. In 1878 Which of the above are founding
it was converted to English to avoid an members of the British Indian
English draconian press act. association?
A) Only I, ii and iii B) Only ii, iii and iv
83. Consider the following statements C) Only iii and iv D) All the above
i) the first political organization Ans: B
established in India was British The British Indian association was
India society established in 1851 in Calcutta. The
ii) The Indian association was founding members are Rajendra Mitra,
founded by the surendranath
Radhakanth Deb, Debendranath Tagore
banerjee
Which of the statements given above and Harish Chandra Mukherjee.
are incorrect?
C) Both D) None 86. Consider the following statements
Ans: A regarding partition of Bengal
i) the new province constituted
The first political organization
after the separating west Bengal
established in India was known as the
was called east Bengal and Assam
zamindari association or landholders ii) The western last of Bengal
society in Calcutta. included the remaining part of
Bengal and complete Bihar and
84. Consider the following statements Orissa
i) Theosophical Society was Which of the statements given above
founded in Adyar in Chennai. are incorrect?
ii) The main purpose of the society A) Only I B) Only ii
was to promote studies on occult C )Both D) None
sciences. Ans: D
Which of the statements given above Governor General Lord Curzon decided
are incorrect? to rearrange the provincial boundaries
in the year 1905. He divided Bengal into
C) Both D) None
Ans: A two parts.
87. The Justice Party was founded by
It was founded in 1875 in New Y ork by
which of the following?
Madame H.P.Blavatsky and
i) Ramaswamy Naicker
Col.O.H.Olcott. The main purpose of the ii) Petty Tyagaroy Chetty
society was to promote studies on iii) C.M.Nair
Theosophy (occult sciences). In 1878, iv) T.N.Mudaliar
the centre was shifted to Adyar in

Select the answer from the codes given and usage of common civic amenities
below for the depressed classes.
A) Only i, iii and iv
B) Only ii, iii and iv 90. Consider the following statements
C) Only i, ii and iii D) All the above i) the first labour
Ans: B organisation/union was Bombay
In 1916, the South India People’s Mill Hands Association, founded
Association, a social organisation which by N.M.Lokhande.
later got transformed into a political ii) Lala Lajpat Rai founded the All
party called the Justice Party was India Trade Union Congress
(AITUC).
founded by Petty Tyagaroy Chetty,
C.M.Nair and T.N.Mudaliar. are correct?
88. Consider the following statements A) Only I B) Only ii
i) The movement Sriman Narayana C) Both D) None
Dharma Paripalana Yogam was Ans: A
started by the Narayan Guru in A full-fledged labour class emerged in
Tamil Nadu. modern India for the first time in the
ii) Sriman Narayana Dharma railway industry. However, the first
Paripalana Yogam was started labour organisation/union was Bombay
with the slogan ‘One God, One Mill Hands Association, founded by
Religion and One Mankind’.
N.M.Lokhande. In 1920, N.M.Joshi
are correct? founded the AITUC. It held its first
A) Only I B) Only ii session in Bombay in 1920, presided
C) Both D) None over by Lala Lajpat Rai. In 1928, the
Ans: B AITUC was divided for the first time.
In Kerala, Narayan Guru championed
the cause of the untouchable Ezhava 91. The Royal Commission was constituted
community and demanded temple by the British government in 1929.
entry. He started the movement associated with?
A) Women education during British
S.N.D.P.Y (Sriman Narayana Dharma
rule in India
Paripalana Yogam) with the slogan ‘One B) Indian Labour reforms
God, One Religion and One Mankind’. C) Non cooperation movement
D) To review Montagu Chelmsford
89. Which of the following organised the
reforms
famous Mahar Satyagraha demanding
Ans: B
temple entry and usage of common
civic amenities for the depressed In 1929, the Royal Commission on
classes? Indian Labour was appointed under the
A) Mahatma Gandhi chairmanship of J.M.Whitley (Whitley
B) N.M.Lokhande Committee). In 1935.
C) Dr B. R. Ambedkar
D) V.M.Shinde
Ans: C 92. Consider the following famous works
Dr B. R. Ambedkar founded the All India i) Veda Bhashya’
Depressed Class Association Federation ii) ‘Veda Bhashya Bhumika
and organised the famous Mahar iii) Satyartha Prakash
Satyagraha demanding temple entry Which of the above were famous works
of Dayanand Saraswati?

a) Only iii b) Only i and iii first time in Madras session in 1887,
c) Only ii and iii d) All the above presided over by Badruddin Tyabji (the
Ans: D first Muslim president of INC). The
Swami Dayananda Saraswati's actual word ‘Self Governance’ was mentioned
name was Mul Shankar. He was born at for the first time.
Tankara in Gujarat and became the
disciple of Swami Virajananda. He
founded the journals, ‘Veda Bhashya’ 95. 'New Lamps for the Old' journal was
and ‘Veda Bhasya Bhumika’ and wrote founded by?
the famous Satyartha Prakash. A) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
B) Ashwini Kumar Dutta
C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D) Aurobindo Ghosh
i) Hitakarini Samajam was
Ans: D
established by Raghupati
Venkataratnam Naidu. Aurobindo Ghosh was the founder of
ii) The main objective of Hitakarini extremist thought. His pamphlet ‘New
Samajam is to Encourage women Lamps for the Old’ served as the basis
education and widow of Extremism. He wrote a series of
remarriages. articles in Bangadarshan, the journal of
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, criticising
are correct?
a) Only I b) Only ii the moderate method of struggle as
c) Both d) None ‘political mendicancy’. He portrayed
Ans: B India as ‘Mother’ and appealed to the
Kandukuri Veeresalingam: He was emotional aspects of Indian
called ‘Vidyasagar of the South’, he nationalism.
founded The Rajahmundry Reform
Association and Hitakarini Samajam to 96. Consider the following statements
i) The extremists thought derived
encourage women education and
its support from the teachings of
widow remarriages.
Vivekananda and Dayanand
Saraswati.
94. Assertion (A): The relation between the ii) The extremist slogan ‘Swaraj’ was
moderates and the British became first introduced by Arya Samaj.
strained for the first time in the INC Which of the statements given above
Madras session. are correct?
Reason(R): The word ‘Self Governance’ A) Only I B) Only ii
was mentioned for the first time in the C) Both D) None
INC Madras session. Ans: C
Select the answer from the codes given Lala Lajpat Rai was known as ‘Punjab
below
Kesari’ and he wrote ‘Unhappy India’.
A) Both A and R are true, and R is
proper explanation of A Bipin Chandra Pal, the founder of the
B) Both A and R are true, and R is journals ‘New India’ and ‘Bengali
not proper explanation of A opinion’ was the other extremist in the
C) Only A is true Congress. The extremists derived its
D) Only R is true support from the teachings of
Ans: A Vivekananda and Dayanand Saraswati.
The relation between the moderates
and the British became strained for the

The extremist slogan ‘Swaraj’ was first 99. The Indian member of the Viceroy’s
introduced by Arya Samaj. Executive Council who among the
following resigned in protest against
97. Consider the following statements the Rowlatt Acts or Black Acts?
i) Madame Anne Besant suggested A) Vallabhbhai Patel
the idea of “Home Rule” for the B) Motilal Nehru
first time in the INC Bombay C) Justice Sadanand Pillai
session. D) Justice Shankaran Nair
ii) The INC Bombay session was Ans: D
presided over by Madame Anne In 1918, a Sedition Committee was
Besant. constituted under Justice Rowlatt called
the Rowlatt Committee to suggest ways
are incorrect?
A) Only I B) Only ii and means of handling the problem of
C) Both D) None terrorism. The committee
Ans: B recommended Two Acts, popularly
Madame Anne Besant suggested the called “Black Acts” as they severely
idea of “Home Rule” for the first time in undermined civil liberties. Justice
the 1915 Bombay session, presided Shankaran Nair, the Indian member of
over by Lord S.P.Sinha. the Committee and the member of the
Viceroy’s Executive Council resigned in
98. Consider the following statements protest against the Acts.
i) The expelled extremists were
welcomed to join back Congress 100. Consider the following statements
at the lucknow session of INC. regarding Non – Cooperation
ii) Lucknow Pact was signed by Movement
Congress moderate leaders and i) Gandhi drafted the programme
extremists leaders at the with the slogans ‘Swadeshi’,
Lucknow session. ‘Satyagraha’, ‘Total boycott’ and'
iii) the Lucknow Session in 1916 was No Tax Campaigns'.
presided over by A.C.Majumdar. ii) Charkhas became the symbol of
Which of the statements given above the Non – Cooperation
are correct? movement.
A) Only i and ii Which of the statements given above
B) Only ii and iii are incorrect?
C) Only i and iii A) Only I B) Only ii
D) All the above C) Both D) None
Ans: C Ans: D
In the Lucknow Session in 1916, Gandhi drafted the programme of the
presided over by A.C.Majumdar, the
movement with the slogans ‘Swadeshi’,
expelled extremists were welcomed to
‘Satyagraha’, ‘Total boycott’ and No Tax
join back Congress. At the instance of
Madame Anne Besant, Lucknow Pact Campaigns (Passive resistance).
was also signed by Congress and Charkhas became the symbol of the
Muslim League, extending mutual movement.
support against the British. The 101. Consider the following statements
Congress was represented by Rajendra regarding Indian National movement
Prasad and Jinnah represented the i) The Chauri – Chaura incident
Muslim League. took place during the Non-
Cooperation Movement.

ii) The Chauri – Chaura incident the Princely States. In 1927, P.M.
took place during the Civil Stanley Baldwin constituted the Simon
Disobedience Movement. Commission under the Chairmanship of
Sir John Simon with 7 members who
are correct?
A) Only I B) Only ii were all English, to study the
C) Both D) None implementation of 1919 reforms.
Ans: A
On February 5, 1922, the Chauri – 104. Consider the following statements
Chaura incident took place in regarding recommendations of the
Nehru Committee
Gorakhpur district of UP. 22 police
i) Dominion status on lines of self-
constables were burnt alive. Following governing dominions as the form
this act of violence on the part of the of government desired by
Indians, on Feb 11, Gandhi called off Indians.
the movement. ii) Continuation of Dyarchy.
iii) Rejection of Separate
102. Consider the following National leaders Electorates.
i) C.R.Das Which of the statements given above
ii) Motilal Nehru are correct?
iii) Vittalbhai Patel A) Only i and ii B) Only ii and iii
Which of the above mentioned C) Only i and iii D) All the above
freedom fighters advocated the Ans: C
‘Council Entry’ programme?
The recommendations of the committee
A) Only i and ii B) Only i and iii
were:
C) Only I D) All the above
Ans: D 1. Dominion status on lines of self-
The followers of C.R.Das, Motilal Nehru governing dominions as the form
and Vittalbhai Patel were called of government desired by
changers. They advocated a ‘Council Indians.
Entry’ programme. 2. A Federal Government at the
centre with British India and the
103. Consider the following
Princely States.
Committee. Associated with
i) Alexander Muddiman. review the Dyarchy 3. Abolition of Dyarchy.
ii) Harcourt Butler. Girls Education 4. Elected governments in provinces
iii) Simon Commission. 1919 reforms with complete autonomy.
Which of the pairs given above are 5. Rejection of Separate
matched properly? Electorates.
A) Only i and iii B) Only i and ii 6. Linguistic provinces.
C) Only iii D) All the above
105. Match the following
Ans: A
Salt march. Organised by
In 1924, the Alexander Muddiman i) Mypadu Satyagraha. B. Gopal Reddy
Committee was appointed to review ii) Wadala Satyagraha. Sarojini Naidu
the Dyarchy which had been introduced iii) Darshana Satyagraha. Vittalbhai Patel
under the Reforms in 1919. 2. In 1927, Which of the pairs given above are
the Harcourt Butler committee was matched properly?
formed to study and promote the
C) Only I D) All the above
relationship between British India and
Ans: D

In the Madras Presidency, Rajaji Ans: D
organised the Salt Marches from Trichy In August 1932, Prime minister Ramsay
to Tindivanam. B. Gopal Reddy MacDonald announced the Communal
organised the famous Mypadu Salt Award providing separate communal
Satyagraha. In the Bombay Presidency, electorates to the depressed classes.
Sarojini Naidu and Vittalbhai Patel led Gandhi protested against the Award
the salt marches at Wadala and with his fast unto death. In September
Darshana. 1932, Poona Pact was signed between
Caste Hindus and the depressed.
regarding Gandhi -Irwin Pact 108. Consider the following freedom
i) Irwin agreed to release all the fighters
political prisoners. i) Acharya Narendra Dev
ii) to restore the property of the ii) Jai Prakash Narayan
prisoners imprisoned. iii) Achyuta Patwardhan
iii) Salt law was revoked. iv) Aruna Asaf Ali
Lord Irwin agreed to which of the v) Minoo Masani
conditions put forward by Gandhi in the Congress Socialist Party was
accordance with the pact? founded by which of the above?
A) Only I B) Only ii and iii A) Only i, ii, iii and iv
C) Only i and ii D) All the above B) Only i, ii, iv and v
Ans: B C) Only i and ii
The Gandhi Irwin Pact was signed. Irwin D) All the above
agreed to release all the political Ans: D
prisoners except those found guilty of In the 1934 Bombay session, the
violence (Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Congress Socialist Party was founded by
Sukhdev) and to restore the property of Acharya Narendra Dev, Jai Prakash
the prisoners imprisoned. Salt law was Narayan, Achyuta Patwardhan, Aruna
revoked. Gandhi on his part agreed to Asaf Ali and Minoo Masani. However,
take part in the second RTC and the Congress Socialist Party continued
suspended the movement. to remain within the Congress Party. Its
main purpose was to transform
107 Consider the following statements Congress gradually into attaining
regarding Communal Award Socialism.
i) Prime minister Ramsay
MacDonald announced the 109. Consider the following statements
Communal Award regarding Quit India Movement
ii) MacDonald provides separate i) Gandhi himself drafted the Quit
communal electorates to the India Resolution.
depressed classes. ii) the slogan ‘Do or Die’ was
iii) Poona Pact was signed between associated with the Quit India
Caste Hindus and the depressed movement.
classes. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
are correct? A) Only I B) Only ii
A) Only i and ii C) Both D) None
B) Only ii and iii Ans: D
C) Only I
D) All the above

The CWC met in Bombay on August 6, and Dr.B.R.Ambedkar was made the
1942. Gandhi himself drafted the Quit Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
India Resolution with the slogan ‘Do or
112. The nation celebrates Shaheed Diwas
Die’. The last struggle in the movement
to remember the sacrifice of which of
was a leaderless one. the following freedom fighters of
India?
110. Consider the following statements i) Bhagat Singh ii) Rajguru
regarding Cabinet Mission Plan iii) Prafulla Chaki iv) Khudiram Bose
i) Provinces with complete Select the answer from the codes given
autonomy below
ii) A Centre with complete A) Only i, ii and iii B) Only i and ii
autonomy C) Only i, ii and iv D) All the above
iii) The Cabinet Mission outrightly Ans: B
rejected the idea of “Pakistan”.
Shaheed Diwas: This day is observed across
Which of the above are the
the country on March 23 as Shaheed Diwas
recommendations of the Cabinet
Mission Plan? (Martyr's Day) to remember the sacrifice of
A) Only i and iii B) Only i and ii great freedom fighters of India - Bhagat Singh,
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above Rajguru and Sukhdev.
Ans: A
The Cabinet Mission consisted of Sir 113. Consider the following statements
A.V.Alexander who was the Chairman i) Jatin Das conducted his fast unto
and other members being Pathick death in the Lahore Jail
demanding better living
Lawrence and Sir Stafford Cripps. Its
conditions for the prisoners.
recommendations were – ii) Darsi Chenchaiah was a sole
1. A Union Government of India. member of the Ghadar Party
2. A Centre with limited subjects of from the South and was involved
power: Defence, Currency and in the Ongole Conspiracy Case.
Communications. Which of the statements given above
3. Provinces with complete are incorrect?
autonomy.
C) Both D) None
The Cabinet Mission outrightly rejected Ans: D
the idea of “Pakistan”, as it argued that Bharata Matha Sangam was the
the creation of a small province of popular revolutionary organisation
Pakistan would result in tremendous founded by Subramanya Sivam and
dislocation of resources and hence not Neelakantha Brahmachari in 1908. The
viable. Sangam was involved in the Tirunelveli
Conspiracy Case. The District Collector
111. The first meeting of the Constituent
Aash was assassinated. Darsi
Assembly held on?
A) 1st January 1946 Chenchaiah, the sole member of the
B) 9th August 1946 Ghadar Party from the South, was
C) 9th December 1946 involved in the Ongole Conspiracy Case.
D) 13th December 1946 Jatin Das conducted his fast unto death
Ans: C for 63 days in the Lahore Jail
On 9th December 1946, the Constituent demanding better living conditions for
Assembly met for the first time, elected
the prisoners.
Babu Rajendra Prasad as the President

Reason(R): The Charter Act,1833 for
the first time recommended the
114. Match the following regarding appointment of Indians into the Civil
revolutionary journals Services.
Journal. Editor Select the answer from the codes given
i) Yugantar. V. D. Savarkar below
ii) Kranti. S.S.Mirzakar A) Both A and R are true, and R is
iii)Sandhya. Brahmobandhab proper explanation of A
Upadhyay B) Both A and R are true, and R is
Which of the pairs given above are not proper explanation of A
matched properly? C) Only A is true
A) Only i and ii B) Only i D) Only R is true
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above Ans: B
Ans: C Charter Act,1833 Completely ended the
Barindra Kumar Gosh and monopoly on all the items of the trade
Bhupendranath Dutta founded the including Tea and Opium (Complete
journal ‘Yugantar’. Sandhy was founded Free Trade Policy). Centralisation of
by Brahmobandhab Upadhyay. Kirti was Legislation started. The laws made by
founded by Santokh Singh. Langal and the Governor General in Council in
Ganabani were founded by Dharani Calcutta were applicable to Bombay
Goswami and Gopu Chakraborty Kranti and Madras Presidencies also. The Act
was founded by S.S.Mirzakar and for the first time recommended the
Joglekar.. Bhagat Singh wore a appointment of Indians into the Civil
pamphlet titled ‘Why I am an atheist’. Services.
115. Consider the following statements 117. Consider the following subjects
regarding Charter Act,1813 i) Education ii) Jails
i) Started Free Trade Policy, ending iii) Public Health iv) Sanitation
the monopoly on all items except Which of the above were transferred
Tea, Coffee and Opium. subjects under the dyarchy scheme of
ii) The Act made training Montagu Chelmsford reforms?
compulsory for all Civil Servants A) Only i, ii and iii B) Only i and iii
before joining the Service. C) Only i, iii and iv D) All the above
Which of the statements given above Ans: C
are incorrect? The transferred subjects like Education,
Public Health, Sanitation, Municipal
C) Both D) None
Ans: A Administration, Irrigation and Industries
were to be administered by the
Started Free Trade Policy, ending the
monopoly on all items except Tea and Governor and his Council of Ministers.
Opium. The Act made training
compulsory for all Civil Servants before
regarding Montague – Chelmsford
joining the Service. It provided Rs 1 Lac Reforms
for promoting education in British India. i) Bicameral Legislatures were
introduced at the provincial level.
ii) The office of the Indian High
116. Assertion (A): Centralisation of Commission was created for the
Legislation started with Charter first time in London.
Act,1833.

Which of the statements given above Woods Despatch’, popularly known as
are correct? the ‘Magna Carta of the English
A) Only I B) Only ii Education’ and also ‘Intellectual Charter
C) Both D) None
of India’. It provided for women
Ans: B
education, primary education and
Bicameral Legislatures (Council of
vocational courses. It rejected the
States i.e. the Upper House and Central
‘Downward Infiltration Theory’ of
Legislative Assembly i.e Lower House)
Macaulay.
were introduced at the central level.
The office of the Indian High
Commission was created for the first regarding Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala
time in London to promote cultural, Yojana (PMUY)
trade and commercial links between i) The Ministry of Petroleum and
England and India. Natural Gas has decided to
celebrate 1st May 2022 as
119. Consider the following statements Ujjwala Diwas.
regarding Government of India act ii) The Ministry of Petroleum and
1935 Natural Gas will organise more
i) Dyarchy was abolished. than 5000 LPG panchayats on the
ii) Division of power took place for occasion of Ujjwala diwas.
the first time dividing the powers Which of the statements given above
into Central, Provincial and are correct?
Concurrent lists. A) Only I B) Only ii
iii) Bicameral Legislatures were C) Both D) None
abolished. Ans: A
Which of the statements given above The scheme was launched by Hon’ble
are correct? Prime Minister on 1st May 2016 at
A) Only I B) Only i and ii Ballia, Uttar Pradesh. To celebrate the
C) Only ii and iii D) All the above achievements of Pradhan Mantri
Ans: B Ujjwala Yojana, Ministry of Petroleum
Bicameral Legislatures were introduced in 6 and Natural Gas (MoPNG) has decided
to celebrate 1st May 2022 as Ujjwala
provinces of Madras, Bombay, Bihar, UP,
Diwas. Oil marketing companies will
Assam and Bengal. Elected / Responsible organise more than 5000 LPG
Governments at the provinces were given all panchayats on the occasion of Ujjwala
the subjects of power under the Provincial diwas on 1st may 2022
List. Dyarchy was abolished
120. Consider the following statements i) eSanjeevani is a doctor to
i) Wood's Despatch was popularly patients telemedicine system.
known as the ‘Magna Carta of ii) eSanjeevani implemented under
English Education. the Ayushman Bharat Health and
ii) Wood's Despatch advocated the Wellness Centre (AB-HWCs)
‘Downward Infiltration Theory’ of programme.
Macaulay. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above are correct?
are correct? A) Only I B) Only ii
A) Only I B) Only ii C) Both D) None
C) Both D) None Ans: B
Ans: A

eSanjeevani is a doctor to doctor Welfare as a part of ongoing
telemedicine system, being celebration of Azadi Ka Amrit
implemented under the Ayushman Mahotsav.
Bharat Health and Wellness Centre
(AB-HWCs) programme. regarding
AB-HWCs are envisaged to be the i) As part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit
platform for delivery of an expanded Mahotsav’ – to celebrate 75
range of primary health care services years of India's Independence,
closer to the communities. ‘Bijli Utsav’ was organised.
ii) ‘Bijli Utsav’ was organised by the
123. Assertion (A):eSanjeevaniOPD was Rural Electrification Corporation
launched amid the Covid-19 pandemic. Limited.
Reason(R): eSanjeevaniOPD is a Which of the statements given above
patient-to-doctor telemedicine service are incorrect?
to enable people to get outpatient A) Only I B) Only ii
services in the confines of their homes. C) Both D) None
Select the answer from the codes given Ans: D
below As part of ‘Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav’ –
A) Both A and R are true, and R is to celebrate 75 years of India's
proper explanation of A Independence, Rural Electrification
B) Both A and R are true, and R is Corporation Limited, a public
not proper explanation of A
infrastructure finance company under
C) Only A is true
the Ministry of Power organized a ‘Bijli
D) Only R is true
Ans: A Utsav’ in the states of Manipur, Odisha
eSanjeevaniOPD was launched amid the and Chattisgarh. The date of the event
Covid-19 pandemic to enable patient- was specifically chosen as 28th April
to-doctor tele-consultations. 2022 since it marks the four years
eSanjeevaniOPD is a patient-to-doctor anniversary of successfully providing
telemedicine service to enable people access to electricity infrastructure to all
to get outpatient services in the villages under the Deen Dayal
confines of their homes. Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana
(DDUGJY).
124. "Kisan Bhagidari Prathmikta Hamari" 126. Consider the following statements
campaign was organised by which of i) the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram
the following? Jyoti Yojana was launched on
A) Niti Aayog 28th April 2018.
B) Ministry of Rural Development ii) Ministry of Power is the Nodal
C) Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Agency for implementation of
Husbandry and Dairying. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram
D) Ministry of Panchayat Raj Jyoti Yojana.
Ans: C Which of the statements given above
Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry are incorrect?
and Dairying has organized the week- A) Only I B) Only ii
long "Kisan Bhagidari Prathmikta C) Both D) None
Hamari" campaign from 25th to 30th Ans: B
April 2022 in association with the The Government of India has launched
Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ the scheme “Deendayal Upadhyaya

Gram Jyoti Yojana” for rural Poshan Pakhwada 2022 was focused
electrification. The erstwhile Rajiv around which of the above broader
Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana areas?
(RGGVY) scheme for village
C) Both D) None
electrification and providing electricity
Ans: C
distribution infrastructure in the rural Poshan Pakhwada 2022 was focused
areas has been subsumed in the around two broader areas viz. height
DDUGJY scheme. Rural Electrification and weight measurement of
Corporation is the Nodal Agency for ‘beneficiary children up to 6 years of
implementation of DDUGJY. age’ and activities concentrated around
Gender Sensitive Water Management,
127. Assertion (A): PM SVANidhi was Anaemia and Traditional food for
announced as a part of the Economic healthy mother and child esp. in Tribal
Stimulus-II under the Atmanirbhar Areas.
Bharat Abhiyan.
Reason(R): The main aim of the PM 129. The theme for the Raisina Dialogue
SVANidhi is to provide affordable 2022 Edition is?
working capital loans to street vendors. A) "Terra Nova: Impassioned,
Select the answer from the codes given Impatient, and Imperilled”
below B) Terra Nova: Global Family, Global
A) Both A and R are true, and R is welfare.
proper explanation of A C) Terra Nova: Compassion, Global
B) Both A and R are true, and R is Family and Universal
not proper explanation of A Brotherhood.
C) Only A is true D) Terra Nova: Fight Against all
D) Only R is true forms of discrepancies
Ans: A Ans: A
Prime Minister Street Vendors The 7th Edition of the Raisina Dialogue
AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) was will be inaugurated on 25 April. The
announced as a part of the Economic Dialogue will be held in an in-person
Stimulus-II under the Atmanirbhar format over three days, 25-27 April
Bharat Abhiyan. It has been 2022. The Raisina Dialogue is India’s
implemented since 1st June 2020, for flagship conference on geopolitics and
providing affordable working capital geoeconomics, held annually since
loans to street vendors to resume their 2016. It is organized by the Ministry of
livelihoods that have been adversely External Affairs in collaboration with
affected due to Covid-19 lockdowns, the Observer Research Foundation
with a sanctioned budget of Rs. 700 (ORF). The theme for the 2022 Edition
crore. is "Terra Nova: Impassioned, Impatient,
and Imperilled”.
regarding Poshan Pakhwada 2022 130. Consider the following statements
i) Height and weight measurement i) PM Cares for Children Scheme
of ‘beneficiary children up to 6 was launched by the Prime
years of age’. Minister of India on 29th May
ii) Activities concentrated around 2021.
Gender Sensitive Water
Management.

ii) the National Commission for C) Indian Council of Agricultural
Protection of Child Rights has Research (ICAR)
been anchoring the Scheme. D) Niti Aayog
Which of the statements given above Ans: D
are incorrect? NITI Aayog, as a part of Azadi ka Amrit
A) Only I B) Only ii Mahotsav celebrations, organized a
C) Both D) None
National Level Workshop on
Ans: B
“Innovative Agriculture” in Vigyan
The PM Cares for Children Scheme was
Bhawan, New Delhi on 25th April, 2022.
launched by the Prime Minister of India
on 29th May 2021 to provide
133. India’s 1st carbon-neutral panchayat
comprehensive support for children is?
who have lost both their parents or A) Jangamgudem, Andhra Pradesh
legal guardians or Adoptive Parents or B) Palli, Jammu and Kashmir
Surviving Parents to the COVID-19 C) Peringammala, Kerala
pandemic. This Scheme enables the D) Siddipet, Telangana
Ans: B
well-being of such children through
Palli, according to the Prime Minister,
health insurance, empowers them
has shown the country the way by
through education, and equips them for becoming carbon neutral. Palli
self-sufficient existence with financial residents have assisted with the
support. The Ministry of Women and project. They’ve also fed those who are
Child Development has been anchoring working on the project
the Scheme.
131. The current Chairperson of National i) Bio-NEST was launched by
Commission for Protection of Child Biotechnology Industry Research
Rights (NCPCR) is? Assistance Council (BIRAC).
A) Rekha Sharma ii) BioNEST bio incubators are
B) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai mandated to provide incubation
C) Akhila Srivastava space to entrepreneurs and
D) Priyank Kanoongo Startups along with shared access
Ans: D to high end infrastructure.
iii) Biotechnology Industry Research
Shri Priyank Kanoongo, Chairperson,
Assistance Council (BIRAC) was a
National Commission for Protection of separate department under the
Child Rights (NCPCR) highlighted that Ministry of Science and
the objective of this conclave is to Technology.
sensitize and bring-in the roles being Which of the statements given above
played by all the stakeholder are correct?
Departments. A) Only i and ii B) Only iii
C) Only i and iii D) All the above
Ans: A
132. The National Workshop on “Innovative A non-for-profit Public Sector
Agriculture” was recently organised in Enterprise, Biotechnology Industry
New Delhi by? Research Assistance Council (BIRAC),
A) Ministry of Agriculture and has been set up by the Department of
Farmers Welfare Biotechnology (DBT). Recently, Union
B) Ministry of Rural Development Minister Dr Jitendra Singh inaugurated

CSIR-IIIM’s BioNEST-Bioincubator in i) Global AYUSH Investment and
Jammu. Bio-NEST was launched by Innovation summit was
Biotechnology Industry Research inaugurated on 20th April, 2022.
ii) Global AYUSH Investment and
Assistance Council (BIRAC) to foster the
Innovation summit was
biotech innovation ecosystem in the inaugurated in Dharamshala,
country. Himachal Pradesh.
135. Consider the following statements are correct?
regarding Amrit Sarovar A) Only I B) Only ii
i) Prime Minister has launched a C) Both D) None
new initiative named Mission Ans: A
Amrit Sarovar on 24th April 2022. The three day Global AYUSH
ii) The Mission is aimed at Investment and Innovation summit was
developing and rejuvenating all inaugurated on 20th April, 2022 by
water bodies in each district of Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi in
the country. Gandhinagar in Gujarat. The three-day
Which of the statements given above summit witnessed 5 plenary sessions, 8
are incorrect? roundtables, 6 workshops, and 2
A) Only I B) Only ii symposiums, with the presence of
C) Both D) None around 90 eminent speakers and 100
exhibitors. The Summit aimed to help
uncover investment potential, and give
Ans: B a fillip to innovation, research &
The Prime Minister launched a new development, start-up ecosystem, and
initiative named Mission Amrit Sarovar the wellness industry and help bring
on 24th April 2022. The Mission is together industry leaders, academicians
and scholars together and act as a
aimed at developing and rejuvenating
platform for future collaborations
75 water bodies in each district of the
country as a part of celebration of Azadi 138. Consider the following statements
ka Amrit Mahotsav. regarding Guru Tegh Bahadur
i) Guru Tegh Bahadur was the ninth
136. India's first-ever ‘Amrit Sarovar’ was Sikh Guru.
inaugurated in? ii) Guru Tegh Bahadur was executed
A) Karimnagar, Telangana in Delhi under the orders of the
B) Gandhi Nagar, Gujarat Mughal Emperor Jahangir.
C) Rampur, Uttar Pradesh Which of the statements given above
D) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh are correct?
Ans: C A) Only I B) Only ii
Uttar Pradesh has now become home C) Both D) None
Ans: A
to the country’s first-ever ‘Amrit
PM to participate in the celebrations of
Sarovar’ which was inaugurated in
400th Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Tegh
Rampur district. The inauguration was
Bahadur Ji at Red Fort on 21 April. Guru
done by the union minister Mukhtar Tegh Bahadur was the ninth Sikh Guru,
Abbas Naqvi and state’s Jal Shakti often venerated as the ‘Protector of
Minister Swatantra Dev Singh. Humanity’ (Srishti-di-Chadar) by the
Sikhs. During one such mission, he
137. Consider the following statements founded the town of Chak-Nanki in

Punjab, which later became a part of = 53 × 200
Punjab’s Anandpur Sahib. = 10600
In the year 1675, Guru Tegh Bahadur SOURCE: SSC CGL 2017 PRELIMS
was executed in Delhi under the orders
of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. 142. If A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 5 : 7 and C : D = 8
: 9 then A : D is equal to
139. Consider the following statements a. 3 : 7
i) The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan b. 7 : 3
Package was launched on 30th c. 21 : 10
March, 2020. d. 10 : 21
ii) The ‘Pradhan Mantri Garib
Kalyan Package (PMGKP) was an ANSWER: D
insurance scheme for patients EXPLANATION:
who were affected with COVID- A : D = (A/B)x(B/C)x(C/D)
19. =(3/4)x(5/7)x(8/9)
= 10/21
are correct?
A) Only I B) Only ii = 10 : 21
C) Both D) None SOURCE:SSC CGL PRELIMS 2002
Ans: A 143. A sum of money lent at simple interest
The ‘Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan amounts to 880 in 2 years and to 920
Package (PMGKP), insurance scheme in 3 years. The sum of money (in
for Health Care Workers Fighting rupees) is
COVID-19’ has been extended for a a. 700
further period of 180 days from 19th b. 760
April, 2022. The PMGKP was launched c. 784
on 30th March, 2020 to provide
d. 800
comprehensive personal accident cover
of Rs. 50 Lakh to 22.12 lakh health care ANSWER: D
providers. EXPLANATION:
If the principal be x and rate of
140. World Heritage day is celebrated
interest be r% per annum,
annually across the globe, on?
A) 1st June B) 10th May then SI after 1 year = 920 – 880 = 40
C) 18th April D) 9th August SI after 2 years = 80
Ans: C 880 = x + 80
World Heritage day is celebrated on the x = (880 – 80) = 800
18th of April annually across the globe. SOURCE: CISF ASI EXAM 2010
141. (53 × 87 + 159 × 21 + 106 × 25) is equal 144. The missing term in the sequence 0, 3,
to
8, 15, 24, ..,.., 48 is
a. 16000
a. 35
b. 1060
b. 30
c. 10600 c. 36
d. 60100
d. 39
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION:
EXPLANATION:
=(53 × 87 +159 ×21 + 106 × 25)
= 53 (87 +3 ×21 + 2 × 25)
= 53 (87 + 63 + 50)

The code for “tomato” is “pic”.
The code for “is” is “hor”.
The code for “tasty” is “bir”.
Hence, “tomato is tasty” can be coded
SOURCE: CPO SI EXAM 2003
as pic horbir.
145. The bar graph given below shows the

147. A man pointing to a photo says "The
spending of family income on various
lady in the photograph is my nephew’s
items and savings during 1993.
maternal grandmother". How is the
Observe the graph and answer the
lady in the photograph related to the
following question:
man’s sister who has no other sister?
a. Cousin
b. Sister-in-law
c. Mother
d. Mother-in-law
ANSWER: C
EXPLANTION
Since the man is referring to his
nephew, the nephew’s parent has to
be a sibling to the man. Now the last
If the total income of the family during 1993 part says that the man’s sister has no
was 100000, the savings of the family in 1993 other sister and hence the brother-
was sister relationship is established
a. 1,750 between the man and his nephew’s
b. 20,000 mother. Now the lady in the picture is
c. 12,500 the grandmother of the nephew and
d. 50,000 hence she is the mother of the man’s
ANSWER: C sister.
EXPLANATION:
Savings = 12.5% of 100000 148. A man walked 30 m towards the
=(12.5x100000)/100 North. Then he turned right and
walked 45 m. Then he turns right and
= 12500
walks 45 m. Then he turns left and
SOURCE: SSC CGL PRELIMS walks 5 m. Finally, he turns left and
walks 15 m. In which direction and
146. If in a certain code, 'bir le nac' means how many meters is he from the
'green and tasty'; 'picnachor' means starting position?
'tomato is green' and 'cocbirhor' a. 15m West
means 'food is tasty'. b. 50m East
Which of the following means 'tomato c. 50m West
is tasty' in that code? d. 55m East
a. Bir le hor
b. Pic hornac ANSWER: B
c. Pic horbir EXPLANATION:
d. None of these From the conditions given in the
question above, we can make the
ANSWER: C following diagram, As we can see
EXPLANATION:

from the diagram, the man is 50m Hence, the total number of persons is
East from the starting point. 993.
150. A and B together can do a piece of

work in 10 days. A alone can do it in 30
days. The time in which B alone can do
it is
a. 10 days
b. 12 days
c. 15 days
d. 20 days
ANSWER: C
149. In a row of certain persons, Pradip is
EXPLANATION:
sitting 463 from the left end and 531
from the right end. Find out the total (A + B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/10
number of persons in that row? A’s 1 day’s work = 1/30
a. 963 B’s 1 day’s work = (1/10) - (1/30)
b. 942 =(3-1)/30
c. 993 =2/30
d. Can’t be determined =1/15
ANSWER: C Hence, B, alone can complete the
EXPLANATION: work in 15 days.
The total number of persons is = SOURCE: CPO SI EXAM 2004
Position of Pradip from the right ends Hence, 2026 is the correct answer.
+ Position of Pradip from the left ends
–1
463 + 531 – 1 = 993

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movement has clearly defined its aims

2. The Naxalbari peasant movement 4. Consider the following famous

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