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PRE-ASSESSMENT EXAMINATION
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only ONE answer for each item by
shading the space corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use No. 2 pencil only.

1. Forensic specialists have the duty to train investigators and crime searchers in the_________of evidence.
A. Recognition C. cataloguing
B. Analysis D. interpretation
2. Whatever is the search pattern or method used, the most important consideration should be, that it is
A. Geometric C. redundant
B. Trigometric D. systematic
3. In order to preserve the integrity of evidence collected or gathered from the crime scene, what must be observed?
A. Maintain the required chain of custody
B. Seal the evidence collected
C. Identify and tag the evidence
D. Photograph the evidence
4. The following questions are part of the cardinal points of criminal investigation, EXCEPT.
A. Where was the crime committed?
B. Why was the crime committed?
C. How did the offender commit the crime?
D. What is the offender's marital status?
5. The systematic process involved in the search, handling, transfer or transmittal and accountability of the evidence
recovered from the crime scene, the documentation involved up to its presentation in court, is.
A. crime scene preservation C. corpus delicti
B. chain of custody D. crime scene re-construction
6. What should be established first before or during the conduct of interview or interrogation?
A. Motive that impels the offender.
B. Rapport with the subject.
C. Guilt of the subject.
D. Intent in the commission of the crime.
7. In conducting interrogation of the suspect, what is the principal psychological factor that will help you to a successful
interrogation?
A. Interrogation laced with threats.
B. Public interrogation of the suspect.
C. Interrogation conducted in privacy.
D. Interrogation in the convenience of hotel setting.
8. You observed in the suspect the following: sweating, colour change, dry mouth, pulse and breathing. In your analysis,
what does this manifest?
A. It manifest sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt.
B. It can be an expression of embarrassment.
C. It can be considered as circumstantial evidence of guilt.
D. It manifest psychological symptoms of guilt.
9. Which is recommended to be performed when taking a statement from witnesses at the scene of an accident?
A. A different investigator should interview each witness separately and in private.
B. Each witness should be interviewed alone and in private.
C. All witnesses should be interviewed by the same officer.
D. Witnesses who agree about what took place should be interviewed as a group to avoid unnecessary duplication.
10. The questioning techniques that should NOT be adopted in conducting interrogation is
A. general to specific C. going upward
B. Chronological D. funnel interview
11. Before the police officer may be allowed to search the person's home, he/she is required to secure a.
A. good rate of experience C. good suspicion
B. search warrant D. good reason
12. Which of the following is NOT a matter that the suspect must be informed before the interrogation?
A. He has the absolute right to remain silent.
B. If he cannot afford an attorney one will appointed for him free of charge.
C. He has the right not to testify against him/herself. :
D. He has right to have an attorney present during questioning.
13. For the purpose of applying the law regarding custodial investigation, mere invitation is considered as
A. Detention C. habeas corpus
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 B. Arrest D. custody
14. What is the MOST essential requisites of admission and confession?
A. The offender fully understands his confession.
B. There suspect was not tortured.
C. No violence was used against the suspect.
D. It must be voluntarily and freely given.
15. Consider the following statements: (1).In the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the crime may
begin with deductive logic and later on inductive logic; and (2) A rational theory of crime is more than a learned guess,
but less than a certainty, but have very high order of probability. Which of the following is you answer?
A. 1 is not correct, but 2 is correct.
B. 1 and 2 are both not correct.
C. 1 is correct, but 2 is not correct.
D. 1 and 2 are both correct.
16. How would you classify the Scene of Crime Operation approach in organizing crime scene search?
A. Wilson C. Traditional
B. Contemporary D. Modern
17. Which tailing or shadowing method should be used when following a subject leading to hideout of the criminal?
A. Rough shadowing C. Loose tail or discreet
C. Leap frog tail D. Close tail
18. The police intelligence which primarily long-range in nature and no immediate value is ______ intelligence?
A. Department C. Strategic
B. Undercover D. Counter
19. You are an intelligence officer. You received an information concerning illegal gambling activities under your
jurisdiction. The information was given by a member of the community which reliability cannot be judged by the
information is probably true. Which is the correct rating of the information?
A. F-2 C. D-4
C. F-5 D. D-3
20. Which statement is TRUE when an investigators looks for signs of death by LIVOR MORTIS?
A. The skin, no longer under muscular control, succumbs to gravity, and forming new shapes, among others.
B. The first sign is a greenish skin discoloration appearing on the right lower abdomen about the second or third day
after death.
C. All of the body muscles are affected.
D. The body gradually cools
21. A crime scene sketch should include all of the following EXCEPT
A. a scale of distance
B. date and location of the crime scene
C. type of search pattern
D. a north heading on the diagram
22. The place where the suspect either commits an illegal act or leaves physical evidence of such an act is
A. crime scene C. body of the crime
B. victim D. body of evidence
23. The measurement method that establishes a straight line from one fixed point to another, from which measurements
are taken at right angles is.
A. Triangulation C. baseline
B. compass point D. rectangular
24. The crime scene documentation supplements photographs in a simplest and most effective manner by way of actual
measurements, identification of important items and their respective locations in the crime scene is
A. rough sketch C. crime scene sketch
B. finish sketch D. crime mapping
25. The purpose of search of the crime scene is to determine the presence of physical evidence, which is not one of them?
A. Corpus delicti C. Tracing evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence D. Associative evidence
26. Which of the following is not considered as a search method of the crime scene?
A. Double strip search method
B. Diagonal or triangular search
C. Strip search method
D. Zone search method
27. When a witness describes to the investigator what he/she sees, smells, hears, tastes and touches, it is considered as
evidence.
A. Testimonial C. real
B. Parol D. documentary
28. Which of the following are the two methods of reasoning that assist critical thinking, and which are peculiar to the
investigative process?
A. Conclusion and analysis
B. Conductive and conducive
C. Assumption and presumption
D. Inductive and deductive
29. The measurement method that uses a protractor to measure the angle formed by two lines is
A. Baseline C. triangulation
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 B. Rectangular D. compass point
30. The investigation technique is effective but also risky since the operative conceals his true identity, adopts and assume
a role to obtain information is.
A. Undercover C. assignment
B. Acting D. replacement
31. With all the talent of an investigator, the value of physical evidence is greatly reduced by the it human failure to:
A. Appreciate C. understand
B. Find D. work and social study
32. Physical evidence can indeed show who committed the crime. Which of the following is the MOST important before it
is sent to the laboratory for analysis?
A. Collection C. Marking
B. Recognition D. Tagging

33. A physician who is trained to determine the cause of death of a person is a_.
A. Toxicologist C. philanthropist
B. Pathologist D. chemist
34. The examination of the qualitative and quantitative analysis of the unknown substance is the primary responsibility of:
A. Instrumentation C. criminalistics
B. forensic science D. crime laboratory
35. Whether or not the evidence is admissible is ultimately to be determined by the-
A. Investigator C. forensic scientist/criminalist
B. Court D. prosecutor
36. Consider the following as objectives of organized crime:
1. Political influence
2. Social control in global scope.
3. Religious imposition
4. Which of the foregoing is correct?
A. 1 and 2 is correct C. 1 and 3 is correct
B. 1,2,and 3 is correct D. 2 and 3 is correct
37. What is the illegal activity of a criminal organization that provides illegal goods or services?
A. Charity C. Entrepreneurship
B. Patrimonial D. parasitic
38. Which is NOT one of the traditional terrorist tactics?
A. Bombing and hijacking
B. Arson and Assault
C. Rape or any form of sexual assault
D. Kidnapping and taking hostages
39. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. Organized crime group uses violence, bribery and observe code of secrecy.
II. Organized crime group continues over time, monopolistic, organized and governed by rules and regulations.
III. Organized crime group is non-ideological fragmented and open membership.
A. Only 1 is correct C. I and II are correct
B. I and III are correct D. 1, II and III are correct
40. Money laundering involves the following stages EXCEPT
A. accumulating sudden and substantial increase in funds ("accumulation")
B. physical distribution of the cash ("placement")
C. acquiring wealth generated from transactions of the illicit funds ("integration")
D. carrying out complex financial transactions in order to camouflage the illegal source("layering")
41. The organized crime groups maintain their power and profit through
A. violence
B. Corruption
C. tolerance of law-abiding citizens
D. continuous association with criminal protectors
42. Which term is also being used for 'Code of Silence?
A. Omerta C. Kwenta
B. Sumentra D. Umentra
43. In terms of organizational structure, the similarity of organized crimes from military or the police forces is that they are.
A. Bureaucratic C. Autocratic
B. Democratic D. Patrimonial
44. Which refers to the so-called borderless crime?
A. International crimes. C. Transnational crimes.
B. Organized crime D. Terroristic crimes
45. What is the set of doctrines or beliefs that form the basis of political, economic and other systems?
A. Ideology C. Tradition.
B. Religion D. Culture
46. Which is a sort of midlevel manager who serves as a buffer between the lowest-level members and the upper-level
members of the crime family?
A. The Capos C. The Consigliere
B. Soldiers D. The underboss

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47. In terms of organizational structure, what is the similarity of organized crimes from military or the police?
A. Bureaucratic C. Democratic
B. Autocratic D. Patrimonial
48. An Asian organized crime that represent mystical symbol, an equilateral triangle representing the heaven, earth and
man is
A. Triad C. yakuza
B. tongs D. sputnik
49. The modern-day form of slavery is
A. human trafficking C. sex tourism
B. white slavery D. prostitution
50. Which of the following is not a core element of trafficking?
A. Entry of the victims in the country of destination
B. Threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power
C. Exploitation of the victim
D. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
51. The unlawful activities of the members of a highly organized, disciplined association engage in supplying illegal goods
and services is crime.
A. Economic C. organized
B. human trafficking D. sex tourism
52. Which does NOT describe BEST why a person takes drugs
A. Friends and peer pressure
B. High self-esteemed and ego
C. Personal, family and social problems
D. Accessibility of sources of illegal drugs
53. The withdrawal symptoms produced by a drug is manifested by
A. symptoms which are usually opposite to the effects of the drug itself
B. withdrawal symptoms that are usually severe and incapacitating
C. withdrawal symptoms which are psychological in nature
D. a person who is always seen with alcohol but never with heroin
54. The powerful stimulant in a form of a white powdery substance extracted from cocoa leaveis
A. Marijuana C. opium
B. Shabu D. cocaine
55. The facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is
A. drug laboratory C. clandestine laboratory
B. drug den D. laboratory equipment
56. The illegal drug also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance
is
A. opium poppy C. codeine
B. heroin D. morphine
57. The operation utilized by drug syndicates to conceal their activities is operation.
A. Disguised C. hide-out
B. Confidential D. clandestine
58. Ideally, which court should hear and try drug cases?
A. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
B. Sandiganbayan
C. Special Court designated by the SC
D. Special Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
59. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because they
A. are flagrantly immoral
B. are violently insane
C. ruin their life/health
D. feel no restraint in committing crimes
60. Which is NOT CORRECT regarding treatment and rehabilitation of drug dependents?
A. Charges can be filed against a drug dependent who is not rehabilitated under the voluntary submission program.
B. A drug dependent discharged as rehabilitated but does not quality for exemption from criminal liability shall be
placed on probation.
C. The Dangerous Drugs Board shall order the confinement of a drug dependent who refuses to apply under the
voluntary submission program.
D. Temporary release of drug dependent subject to after-care and follow-up treatment from DOH shall be for a period
of not exceeding 18 months.
61. Which is NOT a condition precedent before an arrested person may be required to undergo a laboratory examination
within 24?
A. The person is showing psychological drug addiction.
B. The person is manifestly showing symptoms of drug abuse.
C. There is a clear showing that the suspect was under the influence of drugs.
D. There person is showing physical signs of drug abuse.
62. The person who is discharge from confinement as a drug dependent and under the voluntary submission program is.
A. given a mitigating circumstance in his criminal liability
B. deserving of a suspended sentence for a period six years

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 C. exempt from serving his criminal liability
D. considered pardon of his criminal liability
63. Preliminary investigation of drug case shall be terminated within the period of days.
A. 15 C. 35
B. 20 D. 30
64. Which statement is TRUE of drug addiction?
A. Withdrawal symptoms are manifestation of cessation from drug use.
B. Psychological dependence does not mean drug addiction.
C. Tolerance on drugs involves a greater drug response.
D. Nicotine is an addictive drug.
65. What is the appropriate term in determining the drugs and crime relationship especially when drug use and crimes are
common aspects of deviant behaviour and lifestyle or increases exposure to situations that encourage crime?
A. Drug induced circumstances
B. Inter fractional circumstances
C. Drug related offenses
D. Drug defined offenses
66. The BEST example of a drug-related offense wherein the commission of the offense is motivated by the need to support
drug use is.
A. stealing to have money
B. illegal possession of shabu
C. violence against rival drug dealers
D. dealing or selling illegal drugs
67. Which is NOT considered as drug trafficking pursuant to the applicable provisions of R.A.9165?
A. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading,
B. Transportation, distribution, Importation, exportation and possession
C. Cultivation, culture and delivery,
D. Use, abstinence, consumption, addiction
68. This land includes public forest, permanent forest, and forest reservation.
A. National park C. Inalienable park
B. Alienable forest D. Forest land
69. The species and subspecies of flora and fauna which are NOT naturally occurring within the protected area of present
at historical time:
A. Invasive species C. Endemic species
B. Protected species D. Exotic species
70. Information and data of value to an investigation that is stored on, received or transmitted by an electronic device. This
evidence can be acquired when electronic devices are seized and secured for examination.
A. Electronic Evidence C. Digital Evidence
B. Forensic evidence D. Cyber evidence
71. Punishable acts under R.A 9003 or Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000:
I. Littering, throwing, dumping of waste matters in public places, such as roads, sidewalks, canals, esteros or
parks, and establishment, or causing or permitting the same
II. The open burning of solid waste
III. Causing or permitting the collection of non-segregated or unsorted waste
IV. Squatting in open dumps and landfills
A. 1 and 4 C. 1,2,3
B. 2,3,4 D. 1,2,3,4
72. The separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is referred to as _
A. Deconstruction C. disengagement
B. Final position. D. reconstruction
73. .In a large majority of the vehicular accidents, the most important defect in human element is attributed
A. Perceptual C. intellectual
B. Educational D. attitudinal
74. The traffic congestions or "build-up" happening in a narrow portion of the road is
A. bumper to bumper C. gridlock
B. traffic jam D. bottleneck
75. Select the signs intended to warn road users of the danger that lies ahead and its nature.
A. Control C. Warning
B. Regulatory D. Informative
76. What pillar of traffic management is LTO a part of?
A. Enforcement C. Education
B. Engineering D. Licensing
77. The combination of simultaneous and sequential factors without any one of which result could n have occurred is
A. Cause C. factor
B. Primary D. attribute
78. Inner lanes of four-lane two-way roads are designed for_
A. overtaking and fast moving vehicles
B. slow moving vehicles
C. fast moving vehicles

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 D. overtaking purposes
79. The friction mark on a pavement made by a tire which is both rotating a slipping is:
A. centrifugal force C. scuff mark
B. centrifugal skid D. skid mark
80. Pursuit operation is conducted when the driver is
A. unaware that he violated traffic law and falls to stop when signaled to do 5o
B. committed a serious traffic violation.
C. unaware that he violated the traffic law
D. sideswiped a pedestrian and killing the victim instantly
81. The systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical features associated with motor
collision is_
A. traffic collision
B. traffic engineering
C. hit and run investigation
D. traffic accident investigation
82. In traffic accident, the touching between traffic units involved in the collision is
A. perception of hazards C. deconstruction
B. initial contact D. first impact
83. Select the term used referring to the first action to be taken by a traffic unit to escape from a collision course or avoid
a hazard.
A. State of no escape C. Point of possible perception
B. Point of no escape D. State of no escape
84. The investigator of hit-and-run cases should prove that the.
A. suspect was driving the vehicle
B. suspect is either intoxicated with drugs or unlicensed
C. suspect is wanted for another crime
D. victim is killed in the accident
85. Which describes the separation of traffic units involve in vehicular accident?
A. Final position. C. Disengagement.
B. Mental reconstruction. D. Physical reconstruction
86. Which of the following should be BEST observed when requesting a driver's license and/or vehicle registration
certificate?
A. Never accept anything other than the document asked.
B. Place your body directly in front of the door or window of the motor vehicle.
C. Insert your head of arms in the car windows.
D. Get the driver's license or certificate of registration when about to end the interview.
87. Which is NOT included as a basic step in report writing?
A. Gather the fact C. Record the fact
B. Organize the fact D. Execute the report
88. What kind of affidavit that the affiant has a good intention and good purpose of something:
A. Affidavit of honesty C. Affidavit of status
B. Affidavit of loyalty D. Affidavit of good faith
89. Fire is an example of what type of chemical reaction?
A. None of these C. Acid-base
B. Precipitation D. Oxidation-reduction
90. Because of the metallic nature of this flammable material, this fre can be best extinguished by using dry powder ABC
chemical, baking soda or sand. This is a_ fire.
A. Class“B” C. Class"A"
B. Class “C” D. Class “D”
91. The phenomena by which a combustible material produces heat because of internal chemical reaction is:
A. ignition temperature C. fusion
B. spontaneous combustion D. combustio
92. At a major fire in a factory, a number of compressed gas cylinders containing carbon dioxide (CO2) are threatened by
the flames. Which is CORRECT to say about this situation?
A. The cylinders may explode and injure the firefighters.
B. Since CO2 is a non-flammable gas, there is no hazard and no problem.
C. If the safety valves let go, the CO2 will intensify the fire.
D. The gas is toxic and will make fighting the fire very hazardous.
93. While responding to fire, fire officers do not talk with the firefighter driving the apparatus. The primary reason for this is
to.
A. allow the officer to prepare mentally to fight the fire
B. allow the officer to watch how the firefighter handles the apparatus
C. ensure that the chain of command is maintained
D. ensure that the driver is able to concentrate and safely get the apparatus to the fire
94. At a large fire in a factory, a firefighter discovers a number of compressed gas cylinders that are severely exposed by
the fire. Which is the MOST critical hazard in this situation?
A. The cylinders may explode.
B. The flammable compressed gas may be released and intensify the fire.
C. The valuable gas and cylinders may be damaged.
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 D. The toxic fumes from the compressed gas may be released.
95. Firefighters should not use water on live electrical equipment because.
A. there is a danger of conducting electricity and endangering the firefighter
B. it will cause short circuits and damage the equipment
C. this expensive, sophisticated equipment may be ruined
D. it is ineffective on electrical equipment
96. What is this mechanical device strategically located in an installation or in a street where a fire hose will be connected?
A. Fire escape C. Stand pipe
B. Fire hydrant D. Fire extinguisher
97. The burning of a building used as offices-of the government or any of its agencies was burned it is classified as
A. none of these C. other cases of arson
B. destructive arson D. malicious arson
98. What is this motive of the fire setter in retaliation to real or perceived injustice?
A. Revenge C. Adventure
B. Vandalism D. Pyromania
99. Which is NOT a description of materials or compounds that are easily set on fire?
A. Combustible C. Flammable
B. Corrosive D. Inflammable
100. The fire suppression activity that is meant to mitigate or reduce the impact of fires by means of research and
development, production and testing of mitigating systems is fire.
A. law enforcement C. education
B. control D. safety