20 đề
20 đề
20 đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition Mark
the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she _________ John why he ________ to class
the previous day.
A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone
C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone
Question 6: It was not until later _________ the man discovered that he had been cheated by
salesgirl.
A. when B. that C. before D. while
Question 7: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the
United Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 8: She's been promising to pay back the money for six months, but she is forgetfull
____ the promise she has made.
A. at B. with C. to D. of
Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.
A. would have B. would have had
C. had had D. should have
Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.
A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed
Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.
A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone
Question 12: When my boyfriend found a fly in his drink, he started to create a scene. Oh,
honey, please don't make a ______ with it.
A. fuss B. mess C. play D. scene
Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern
for the social prestige of these structures.
A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is
B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary
C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are
D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are
Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in
_______ 1920s.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite
well-known.
A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds
Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was
assigned the task of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 17: There are some similarities in table _________ of different cultures in the
world.
A. ways B. etiquette C. styles D. manners
Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed
scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Question 19: I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business
trip.
A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper
C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful
weather, the historic venue.
A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex
Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team
will be sent out to you immediately.
A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that
admission is almost a guarantee of a good job upon graduation.
A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge
Question 23: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one
heard anything.
A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of
work per week. Some employers consider between 32 and 40 hours of work per week to be
full-time, (24) ____ part-time jobs are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours.
Working on a part-time schedule has many perks and provides the optimal flexibility
needed by some individuals. For example, parents (25) ____ young children, students, and
people who have out-of-work (26) _______ often find that part-time work is their only option.
Others work in part-time jobs because they are unable to find full-time positions - and
working part-time is better for them than not working at all. In some situations, part-time
employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an hourly basis, but most employers
do not offer (27) ____ such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid holidays to their
parttime employees.
There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific
industries that are known to have many part-time positions available. You should (28) ____
the factors before deciding if a part-time or a full-time position will work better for your
specific situation.
Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but
Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among
Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response
Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights
Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 29: If there is one thing that all the world's various cultures have been in common, it
is marriage.
A B C D
Question 30: Sylvia Earle, an underwater explorer and marine biologist, who was born in the
USA in 1935. A B C D
Question 31: The Niagara Falls, one of the world’s most famous waterfalls, lay half in North
America and
A B C
half in Canada.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all
close relationships it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between
1775 and 1783 the US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British
again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any
other country, and their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World
War II, Britain and the US supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support,
Britain is usually the first country to come forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st
state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared
political interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two
countries are very similar. They share the same language and enjoy each other’s literature,
films and television. Many Americans have British ancestors, or relatives still living in
Britain. The US government and political system are based on Britain’s, and there are many
Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain, some people
are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power.
The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime
Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.
Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars
Question 33: The phrase “come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. be willing to help B. be able to help
C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors Question
35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship
between Britain and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries
Question 36: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ______.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interest D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Saving the planet is very much in vogue. It's also in Harper's Bazaar, Elle and
Mademoiselle. It's the message on fashion runways, in marketing strategies, in jewelry and
accessory designs, on shopping bags and totes, in advertisements and on price tags.
A naked fashion model wearing a hat of birch branches and lichen, as shown in Vogue
this month, may not be everyone's idea of environmental awareness. But the pervasiveness of
ecological themes in the images and marketing of fashion is undeniable. It is also somewhat
paradoxical. The fashion industry, whose driving philosophy involves encouraging
consumers to discard the old and embrace the new, is now trying to push itself to the forefront
of efforts to conserve and preserve.
The environmental theme in fashion began as wispy touches and graphic exhortations
in designer collections, not as some well-thought-out strategy of ''green'' marketing in which
the environmental advantages of a product become part of the sales approach. Tendrils of ivy
dangled from the ceiling at a Paris fashion show; a carpet of grass covered a runway in New
York; models marched along in T-shirts or carrying signs all bearing slogans like ''Clean Up or
Die,'' ''Save the Sphere,'' and ''Environmental Protection Agents.
The environmental spin on fashion has now moved into the mass market, where
''clothes with conscience'' make an extra tug at the buyer's self-image. Bonjour, a jeans and
sportswear company based in New York, has embarked on a program to ''change the
individual's outlook toward saving the environment'' through educational tags. This summer,
the first wave of what Bonjour executives said would be 50 million fashion items a year are
to arrive in stores carrying tags with environmental tips from how to save water to how to
reduce pollutants.
Whether these tributes to nature will benefit the environment or even raise
environmental awareness, with concomitant changes in individual behavior, is not clear.
There is some skepticism. Professor Ewen says the new environmental symbolism should
be viewed as part of an overall change in America's economy, from one built on industrial
production of hard goods to one based on ''pure representation”. “Going back to fashion, the
environment has become a commercial cliche separated from real concerns. What can be
attached to this year's fashion is merely the symbolism of environmental sanity.'' Question
37: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The green movement in the fashion world
B. The long-forgotten theme of the fashion industry.
C. Fashion and environment can never go hand in hand.
D. Going green is the new big thing.
Question 38: The word “paradoxical” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inconsistent B. conflicting C. confusing D. zealous
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why is the green effort of the fashion world so much
of an irony?
A. No one has ever imagined the harmonious future of fashion and environment.
B. Fast fashion’s main features are premeditated waste and disposability.
C. It is predicted that the green trend can only remain as a niche market.
D. The concept of ethical fashion was once rejected by the industry. Question 40: The word
“wispy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fine B. small C. silvery D. flamboyant
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is the main focus of the current green
fashion? A. Attracting wider consumers through the promotion of self-concept.
B. The combination of aesthetics and sustainability.
C. Realistic strategy to deliver a positive message for the environment.
D. Raising global awareness of the environmental conservation.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The initial manifestation of green fashion is relatively superficial.
B. Creating eco-conscious fashion does not take away anything from the beauty of the
garments.
C. Not many fashion brands pay attention to the prospect of the eco-friendly element.
D. The contradiction between green fashion’s approach and motto is unreal.
Question 43: The word “one” in paragraph 5 refers to _____.
A. economy B. change C. symbolism D. environment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 44: My father is the most handsome man I have ever known.
A. I have never known a more handsome man than my father.
B. My father is not as handsome as the men I have ever known.
C. I have ever known such a handsome man. It’s my father.
D. No man in the world is as handsome as my father.
Question 45: “Nowhere can I find a kind man like you”, she said to him.
A. She said that she could find a kind man like him anywhere.
B. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like you.
C. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like him.
D. She said to him that nowhere she could find a kind man like him. Question 46: It is a
pity he was late for the job interview.
A. I think he mustn't have been late for the job interview.
B. I hear he hasn't been late for the job interview.
C. I remember he wasn't late for the job interview.
D. I wish he hadn't been late for the job interview.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 47: - "May I speak to Dr. Thomas, please?" -
"____________________. "
A. I'm sorry, he's seeing a patient at the moment.
B. Yes, you may and he will connect you later.
C. That's fine, but I don't think he's working now.
D. No, you can't as he must be free in a few minutes.
Question 48: – Jack: “John, you look terrible! What’s wrong with you?”
- John: “_________”
A. Thanks for your question. B. I was so sick yesterday.
C. The weather will be better. D. You must be wrong, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: David loves Hannah. That’s why he bought tickets for her live show last week.
A. David loves Hannah so much that he bought tickets for her live show last week.
B. Although David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
C. David loves Hannah too much to buy tickets for her live show last week.
D. Much as David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
Question 50: You did not tell her the truth. It was wrong of you.
A. You must have told her the truth.
B. You should have told her the truth.
C. You may have told her the truth.
D. You could have told her the truth.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. My sister walks to the supermarket.
My sister goes……………………………………………………………………
Question 52. There are many flowers in our garden.
Our garden………………………………………………………………………
Question 53. Does your father cycle to work?
Does your father get……………………………………………………………
Question 54. The garden is behind Nam’s classroom.
Nam’s classroom…………………………………………………………………
Question 55. Tom drives to work every morning.
Tom travels………………………………………………………………………
Question 56. When did people hold the first Cannes Film Festival? (held)
When ___________________________________________________________
Question 57. More than 70 samba schools participated in the five-day carnival, (part)
More than 70 samba schools _________________________________________
Question 58. Omizutori is the oldest festival in Japan, (than)
No festival _______________________________________________________
Question 59. The music festival was held although the weather was bad yesterday, (spite)
The music festival ________________________________________________
Question 60. I can't wait to watch the samba parade in Rio Carnival. (forward)
I am ___________________________________________________________
-----THE END-----
Đề 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. confide B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
Question 2: A. landed B. planted C. naked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. particular B. electrify C. fashionable D. geneticist
Question 4: A. construct B. constant C. connect D. contain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Some English words have the same pronunciation _______ they are spelled
differently, for example, dear and deer.
A. unless B. even though C. even if D. since
Question 6: WHO's objective is ___________ by all people of the highest possible level of
health.
A. attainment B. approach C. advance D. acquisition
Question 7: In 1791, Pierre-Charles L' Enfant ________ plan for the new capital city at
Washington.
A. had submitted B. has submitted C. was submitting D. submitted
Question 8: He did not want __________ his fears and insecurity to anyone.
A. to expose B. to be exposed C. to have exposed D. exposing
Question 9: My brother and his friend, Duong and Son, aged 15 and 16, ___________ won
the first and the third prize in the contest "Nation’s Brain.” A. each B. respectively
C. one by one D. every
Question 10: "You _____________ be thirsty! You've just drunk a lot of water.”
A. mayn’t B. shouldn’t C. can't D. mustn't
Question 11: The man was innocent; it was a case of mistaken ______________ .
A. identically B. identified C. identity D. identification
Question 12: This book is an __________ of a series lectures given last year.
A. expense B. extension C. addition D. expansion
Question 13: Culture shock is a feeling of confusion and anxiety that someone experiences
________ with a very different culture, especially a different country.
A. as they leave a place and go to another B. while visiting or leaving a place
C. visiting or going to live in a place D. when they visit or go to live in a place
Question 14: The police officer said two of the victims were known gang members; the other
was an innocent __________ .
A. bystander B. stander by C. standing-by D. by-standing
Question 15: This clock is always slow; I put it ___________ ten minutes every morning.
A. back B. up C. forward D. ahead
Question 16: If Tom ____________ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a
better job years ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Question 17: I was told by my friends not to believe __________ girl’s tears.
A. the B. some C. a D. 0
Question 18: Now that the scandal is in the ______, the Minister will have to resign.
A. string B. offing C. swing D. spring
Question 19: A strong wind spread the flames, __________?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - "Hi. You must be new here." - “_____________“
A. Yes, this is my first day on the job. B. Yes, am you surprised?
C. No, I’m very old here. D. Are you new here, too?
Question 21: - "Excuse me. Where’s the parking lot?" - “ ___________ “
A. Why do you ask me? I don’t know. B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You missed the turn. It’s back that way. D. You are wrong. It's not here. .
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The architect was let down that his new city plan had been turned down.
A. disappointed B. satisfied C. emotional D. optimistic
Question 23: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer
games will do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Experts often forecast an upswing in an economy after a protracted slowdown.
A. a reform B. inflation C. an improvement D. a decline Question
25: When people are angry, they seldom act in a rational way.
A. impolite B. dissatisfied C. unreasonable D. inconsiderate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 26: Despite the fact that it has been a long debate, I hope that the dispute will be
settled
A B C
without resource to litigation.
D
Question 27: In some countries, octopuses and snails are considered being great delicacies to
eat.
A B C D
Question 28: Although Mark had been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know how to
prepare
A B
French foods in the traditional manner.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Each year thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of
English. For many, however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves
(29) ________ a strange school, staying in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and
living in an unfamiliar culture. One (30) _____________ these problems is the Homestay
method. With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language
requirements and interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the
student with information about (31) ______________activities that are available locally,
and takes them on trips. Students get “Between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and
are also expected to join in the family’s daily activities. The students speak English at all
times and therefore learn how to use the language in everyday (32) ______________.
Homestay programs usually last for up to four weeks. Although costs are higher than of
regular language schools, students can feel (33) ___________ that they will be receiving
top - class language teaching in a safe and pleasant environment.
Question 29: A. attending B. going C. studying D. learning
Question 30: A. requirement B. answer C. argument D. reaction
Question 31: A. what B. where C. how D. why
Question 32: A. positions B. chances C. situations D. occasions
Question 33: A. confidence B. confidential C. confidently D. confident
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Myriad occupational schools in the central coastal city of Da Nang have received just a
small number of applications over the past few years. “Last year we only had 142 new
students, but the number of new enrollees is 50 this school year,” Truong Van Hung, rector of
the Duc Tri Da Nang Vocational College, said, adding the school has set a target of recruiting
1,200 students for the 2014-2015 academic year. “Closing the school is just a matter of time,”
he said.
Similarly, the Viet A Vocational School in Hai Chau District in Da Nang has not
recruited any new enrollee for over one year given the absence of job opportunities for its
graduates. “We do not want to enroll because we cannot help students land jobs after they
graduate,” a leader of Viet A said. “We will only admit new students when we can have a
partnership with companies who can employ our students after they finish their studies.”
Elsewhere, vocational schools in the southern province of Dong Nai are ‘frozen’.
The Dong Nai Information Technology-Telecommunications Vocational School in the
academic year of 2013-2014 enrolled only 82 students compared with a target of 1,000; the
Nhon Trach Industrial Engineering Vocational School only had 200 out of its goal of 600
students for the school year; the 26-3 Vocational School received 150 students while they set a
target of 250; and the South-Eastern Electromechanical Vocational School only recruited 300
out of the 500 students they planned to admit.
The situation means that equipment for training programs at those schools has been
left unused and covered with rust. Local experts have commented that if the lack of students
persists, vocational schools are at high risk of being closed, sooner or later.
(Source: https://tuoitrenews.vn/)
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Vocational schools in Vietnam struggling to survive.
B. Several principals failing to manage local schools.
C. Students turning their back at tertiary education.
D. More and more teenagers choosing to work.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, what was the attitude of the headmaster of the Duc
Tri Da Nang Vocational College?
A. He regretted not making any effort.
B. He was upset at his own incompetence.
C. He lamented the tragic plight of his school.
D. He was pleased to be able to change schools.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. companies B. students C. studies D. jobs
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the reason for the vocational schools in the
southern province of Dong Nai being ‘frozen’?
A. Because their invested money cannot return.
B. Because they do not have enough students.
C. Because they cannot pay a debt from the land rent.
D. Because the government has suddenly changed the policy.
Question 38: The word “persists” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. withstands B. sustains C. insists D. continues
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The number of people accessing the State’s and community’s priority policies and
programmes is increasing, said Minister of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs Dao Ngoc
Dung. Vietnam has around 6.2 million people over the age of two with disabilities, making
up 7.06 per cent of the country’s population. Of those, 28 per cent are severely disabled, 58
per cent female, 28 per cent children and 10 per cent living in poverty. Most live in rural
areas and many are victims of Agent Orange.
Minister Dung said in the past, the State, the Party and Vietnamese people had paid
much care to people with disabilities. Vietnam ratified the United Nations Convention on the
Rights of People with Disabilities in 2014. In March this year, the country ratified the
International Labour Organisation’s Convention 159 about jobs for people with disabilities.
It strongly confirmed Vietnam’s commitment to ensuring the disabled would not be
discriminated against at work.
Last month, the Secretariat Committee issued Instruction 39 about the Party’s leading
work on affairs related to people with disabilities . The National Assembly later ratified the
amended Law on Labour with many adjustments relating to disabled people. Dung said that
every year, millions of disabled people receive an allowance from the State and all provinces
and cities had rehabilitation centres. Attending the event, Truong Thi Mai, head of the Party
Central Committee’s Commission for Mass Mobilisation, said besides the achievements,
Vietnam still sees many obstacles. Infrastructure is still limited in demand for people with
disabilities and many life below the poverty line depending heavily on their families.
Mai asked organisations to improve education to raise people’s awareness of the
meaning of supportive work to people with disabilities. This year, more than VNĐ17 trillion
(US$735.4 million) from the State budget was allocated to provinces and cities to
implement policies for people with disabilities, according to the Ministry of Labour,
Invalids and Social Affairs.
The Ministry of Planning and Investment on Thursday launched the programme
“White stick for Vietnamese visual impaired people”. Its aim is to present one million white
sticks to visually impaired people across the country. Training to use the device will also be
provided. Minister of Planning and Investment Nguyen Chi Dung said the ministry will listen
to disabled people’s demands and wishes and put them into its policies. Deputy chairwoman
of the National Assembly Tong Thi Phong said Vietnam has committed to developing
socioeconomy, taking care of social equality and improving social management ability.
(Source: https://vietnamnews.vn/)
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The plight of overflowing number of the handicapped.
B. The healthier the people, the stronger the nation.
C. Generous financial support for the visually impaired.
D. More disabled people access to supportive policies.
Question 40: The word “Invalids” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. Sufferers B. Valetudinarian
C. Convalescents D. Bedridden patients
Question 41: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. Commitment B. Disability C. Country D. Convention
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what was the view of Vietnam’s governing bodies
towards the disabled?
A. They displayed an entirely altruistic and selfless act.
B. They expressed a philanthropic and supportive attitude.
C. They aimlessly enacted laws in the interest of the people.
D. They tried their best but handled situations nonchalantly.
Question 43: The word “implement” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prepare B. follow C. clarify D. establish
Question 44: According to paragraph 5, what did the Ministry of Planning and Investment
have in mind when launching the project?
A. Encouraging the handicapped to be confident.
B. Fulfilling the responsibility as a part of the nation.
C. Ensuring no people in need would be left behind.
D. Improving the overall image of the government.
Question 45: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The matter concerning the disabled’s welfare has only gained recognition in recent years.
B. The handicapped are annually supported by the government financially and physically.
C. Sectors and localities have drafted policies for their sustainable development strategy.
D. Dao Ngoc Dung is the current Minister of Planning and Investment of Vietnam. Mark the
letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Our grandmother might have phoned while we were out.
A. Unfortunately we were out when our grandmother phoned.
B. We were sure our grandmother had phoned while we were out.
C. Possibly our grandmother phoned while we were out.
D. Our grandmother ought to have phoned while we were out.
Question 47: He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He brought a wet blanket to the party.
B. He was wet through when going home from the party.
C. He made people at the party wet through.
D. He spoiled other people’s pleasure at the party.
Question 48: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
B. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
C. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive of Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan. Mark the letter A,
B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy
A. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. What you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
Question 50: He thought he must have made a mistake somewhere. He went through his
calculations again.
A. Thinking he had made a mistake somewhere, he would go through his calculations
again.
B. Thinking he must have made a mistake somewhere, he went through his calculations
again.
C. He went through his calculations again before he went thought of making mistake
somewhere.
D. He thought to have made a mistake somewhere and had gone through his
calculations again.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. There are four people in her family.
Her family…………………………………………………………………………
Question 52. My house is behind the hotel.
The hotel………………………………………………………………………….
Question 53. Does your class have twenty - five students?
Are…………………………………………………………………………………
Question 54. He goes to work at seven fifteen.
He goes to work at a………………………………………………………………
Question 55. The drug store is to the right of the bakery.
The bakery………………………………………………………………………
Question 56. I think that collecting stamps is interesting.
I find ________________________________________
Question 57. He feels excited whenever he watches a football match.
He thinks ______________________________________
Question 58. Can you tell me the way to the central park, please?
Would you mind________________________________?
Question 59. Her dollhouse has seven rooms.
There ________________________________________
Question 60. They are interested in drinking tea after meals.
They like _______________________________________
-----THE END-----
Đề 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. compose B. support C. precise D. challenge
Question 2: A. interactive B. electronic C. ecology D. individual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. features B. inserts C. reveals D. destroys
Question 4: A. access B. championship C. laborer D. democratic Mark
the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: ______ committee is expected to reach ______ decision this evening.
A. A/a B. The/0 C. 0/a D. The/a
Question 6: There are signs _________ restaurants are becoming more popular with
families.
A. that B. which C. what D. whose
Question 7: Euthanasia, also mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release
an individual from an incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerably
Question 8: _________, she spent nearly an hour walking all around the neighborhood
looking for her car.
A. Unable to remember where she was parking B. Unable to remember where she
has parked
C. Forgetting where to park D. Not remembering where she had parked
Question 9: She is bored with her job which is only concerned _________ costs and fees.
A. about B. to C. with D. of
Question 10: But for my mother’s help for the last two years, I ________________.
A. would succeed B. would not have succeeded
C. would not succeed D. could have not succeeded
Question 11: _______________ having a well-paid job, Jake is not contented with his life.
A. Although B. Besides C. Despite D. Because
Question 12: Over a third of the population was estimated to have no __________ to the
health service.
A. relation B. connection C. access D. link
Question 13: Among all the changes resulting from the ___________ entry of women into
the workforce, the transformation that has occurred in the women themselves is not the least
important.
A. quantitative B. massive C. surplus D. formidable
Question 14: We talked to each other all night and resolved some of our problem. It's good
to have a proper ______________ sometimes.
A. head-to-head B. heart-to-head C. heart-to-heart D. head-to-heart
Question 15: The new airport was constructed in the _______ of fierce opposition.
A. face B. name C. teeth D. fangs
Question 16: The series became so popular that it was moved to the _______ time spot of 8
pm.
A. prime B. leading C. main D. major
Question 17: My mother ________ for a computer company, but she ___________ at home
today.
A. works – is working B. works – works
C. is working – works D. is working – is working
Question 18: My father told me that If we wanted to catch the 6.30 train, that would mean
_______ the house at 6.00.
A. to leave B. having left
C. leaving D. having to be leaving
Question 19: Corona Virus __________ from China is threatening the health of people all
over the world.
A. is thought to have originated B. is thought to have been originated
C. thought to have originated D. thought to have originated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response
to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Linh: "How often does your brother have to do a night shift?"
Mary: " ______________ "
A. Usually by car, but sometimes he cycles. B. Three times a week, but sometimes
twice.
C. He often starts work at 6, and sometimes at 7. D. Not much, only a couple of
hours every day.
Question 21: John: "___________"
Lucy: "Great. I have twenty students and they can speak English very well."
A. How is your class this term?
B. How many students in your class can speak English?
C. What are you going to do this term?
D. What is the problem with your English students?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: She said to me that she had just read an interesting book which had a new
approach Shakespeare. A B C D
Question 23: From bones found in the United States, we have learned that many animals
which existed no
A B C
longer in the world once made their homes there.
D
Question 24: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertisings and commercials trying to
persuade the
A B C
public to buy their products.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer
games will do him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Question 26: Young people often dispense with the traditional ceremonies of marriage.
They think weddings are money-consuming and nonsensical.
A. do away with B. pay no attention to
C. ignore D. put an end
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Many of us fret about ways in which modern technology distances us from
understanding and keeping our customs and traditions.
A. no worry about B. feel like
C. get involved in D. are unconcerned about
Question 28: Because of her conservative views, the professor never accepts anything not
related to traditional values and the status.
A. conservational B. progressive C. modern D. economic
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
An astronaut living in space begins a day in much the same way as he would on earth.
The astronaut is able to brush his teeth and use the toilet in space. It is, however, rather
challenging as the water droplets will (29)__________ around. The astronaut will also have to
make to do with sponge baths.
There is a special plan for the astronaut on (30)____________ a spaceship which
includes beverages and food items. The astronaut is allowed to have a maximum of three
main meals a day. The meal varies each day until the sixth day. On that day, the menu is
(31)_____________ and the astronaut eats the meals he had on the first day. The food (32)
________ is brought on a shuttle mission can be dehydrated, in natural form for fresh.
Sometimes, they are kept in thermostabilised cans or sealed pouches. It takes only thirty
minutes to cook a delicious meal for a crew of up to seven people on a space mission.
(33)_________, astronauts have to eat slowly and carefully or the food will float away.
Question 29: A. dive B. fall C. float D. fly
Question 30: A. board B. move C. air D. business
Question 31: A. repetition B. repeatedly C. repeating D. repeated
Question 32: A. what B. that C. whose D. 0
Question 33: A. However B. Moreover C. Instead D. In contrast
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Earthquakes are destructive events in nature. The damage depends on the size or
magnitude of the quake. There have never been so many people living in cities in quake
zones, and so the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and
the loss of life, property, and maybe an entire city.
We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will occur.
Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is now
showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of
Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a pattern—pressure builds in a zone and
must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate
that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made based on the
detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes
occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the
fault and set up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. When an earthquake
hit again, it was years off schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled
deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something.
Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places where the plates
widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may
be able to track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great
earthquake does happen in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists
think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer 3, Nancy Douglas et al., 2010)
Question 34: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. We can predict earthquakes using pre-slip theory.
B. There are now many theories about earthquakes.
C. Research is showing that we may be able to predict earthquakes.
D. Earthquakes are the most destructive natural disaster on earth.
Question 35: The underlined phrase “the worse the damage” in the passage means
___________.
A. The result of a great earthquake is a tsunami or fire that causes great damage.
B. Greater damage will occur from earthquakes in highly populated cities in danger zones.
C. Tsunamis and fire are caused by big earthquakes that we have not been able to predict.
D. Cities and other populous areas may suffer from worse earthquakes than other places.
Question 36: The underlined word “it” in the passage refers to _____________.
A. a fault B. a little C. an experiment D. a pattern Question 37: Which of the
following statements is NOT true? A. The San Andreas fault is two miles deep.
B. Scientists in the U.S. found slips in the fault in the 1980’s.
C. Earthquakes occur about every 22 years along the San Andreas Fault.
D. The slip at a fault can predict when the fault will break.
Question 38: Evidence for the pre-slip theory has been found by scientists in __________.
A. Japan and the United States B. Tokai and San Andreas
C. Parkfield and Kato D. California and Tokyo
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in
evolutionary history, enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out
onto the land, sometimes even to the most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater
with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to the reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water include scorpions,
snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and
various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land,
none of the other migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including
breathing and reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later
turned around, abandoned their hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water
again. Seals have only gone part way back. They show us what the intermediates might have
been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs. Whales (including the
small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the manatees, ceased to
be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their remote ancestors.
They don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never
developed anything equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went
back to the sea a very long time ago and, like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they
breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given back to the water than whales
or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor
which lived before most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys
quenstedti and Palaeochersis talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear
to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles and tortoise. You might wonder how we can
tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if only fragments are found.
Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs, with
fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like
dolphins, in the water. With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring
the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage? A.
The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 40: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects
__________.
A. were the ones living on the marine organisms.
B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds.
C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans.
D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land. Question 41:
As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least
completely?
A. Whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs
Question 42: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______________.
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 43: The word “incarnation” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by
__________.
A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection Question 44:
According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. Seals are able to
live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to
live on land.
D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
Question 45: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “Shall I post the letter for you?”
A. He asked me if I should post the letter for him. B. He offered to post the letter for
me.
C. He said I should post the letter myself. D. I wanted him to post the letter for
me.
Question 47: It is never too late to give up your prejudices.
A. It is high time you gave up your prejudices.
B. There is not enough time to give your prejudices.
C. There is no point giving up your prejudices.
D. It is too early for you to give up your prejudices
Question 48: As a conductor of heat and electricity, aluminum exceeds all metals except
silver, copper and gold.
A. With the exception of aluminum, silver, copper and gold are better than any other metal
as conductors of heat and electricity.
B. Aluminum is a better conductor of heat and electricity than silver, copper and gold.
C. Silver, copper and gold are better conductors of heat and electricity than aluminum. D.
Silver, copper and gold are exceeded only by aluminum as conductors of heat and
electricity.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: David was alone and lost in the woods. He did not panic.
A. David did not panic though he was alone and lost in the woods.
B. David wouldn't be panic if he had been alone and lost in the woods.
C. David was alone and lost in the woods so he did not panic.
D. David was alone and lost in the woods because he did not panic.
Question 50: The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis. He did not offer any
solutions.
A. The president either failed to explain the cause of the crisis or offered any solutions.
B. The president failed to explain the cause of crisis, nor did he offered any solutions.
C. The president neither explained the cause of the crisis nor offered any solutions.
D. The president didn’t either fail to explain the cause of crisis or offered no solutions too.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. My room is smaller than your room.
Your room…………………………………………………………………………
Question 52. No house in the street is older than this house.
This house…………………………………………………………………………
Question 53. Quang is 1.75 meters tall. Vinh is 1.65 meters tall.
Vinh is ……………………………………………………………………………
Question 54. Hang is the fattest girl in my class.
No girl……………………………………………………………………………..
Question 55. The Red River is 1,200 kilometers long. The Nile River is 6,437 kilometers
long.
The Nile River is much……………………………………………………………
Question 56. Due to his carelessness, Peter lost his phone.
Peter lost his phone _ due to his carelessness___________________.
Question 57. This is the first time I’ve ever seen a shooting star.
I've never_____________________.
Question 58. The team won the championship because they practiced hard.
Because of their _____________________.
Question 59. It’s a good idea to do exercise every day.
We should ___________________.
Question 60. Remember to wake me up at 7 tomorrow morning.
Don’t forget __________________________.
-----THE END-----
Đề 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hostile B. hotel C. hourglass D. honest
Question 2: A. chocolate B. difference C. identity D. vegetable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. meet B. free C. prefer D. repeat
Question 4: A. coughed B. ploughed C. laughed D. roughed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Would you care for __________________ cup of tea?
A. other B. more C. one other D. one more
Question 6: John, you know what I feel for you and I’ve told you enough times,
_______________?
A. don’t you B. don’t I C. doesn’t he D. haven’t I
Question 7: To become a good teacher, you have to have such a lot of ________ when you’re
dealing with kids.
A. patient B. patience C. patients D. impatience Question
8: I think our guests will ________________.
A. be here shortly B. shortly be here C. here be shortly D. here shortly be
Question 9: We have much to ____________ today, so please concentrate.
A. discuss B. discuss about C. discuss over D. discuss with Question
10: __________________ Tom’s opposition, we would have agreed to the contract.
A. But for B. If hadn’t it been for C. If it hadn’t had D. Hadn’t it been for
Question 11: _______________, the woman was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired though she is B. She being tired C. Despite being tired D. Though
was tired
Question 12: ___________ all the lights and other electric devices, the student left the
classroom.
A. Having been turned off B. Turning off
C. To have turned off D. Having turned off
Question 13: The entire staff was thrown off _______ when the news of the takeover was
announced.
A. stable B. balance C. composure D. disarray
Question 14: Micelle looked really sunburnt. She must have been _______________ in the
sun for long.
A. screening B. wading C. swimming D. bathing
Question 15: When his parents are away for wok, his oldest brother _________.
A. is in the same boat B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. knocks it off
Question 16: I made it quite clear that I had no ________________ of selling the portrait.
A. aim B. intention C. meaning D. purpose
Question 17: By the end of this year, they _____________ on that bridge for more than a
decade.
A. will work B. will be working C. will have worked D. have work
Question 18: Most educators today consider computer literacy _________ a necessary
addition to the basic scholastic requirements.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. be
Question 19: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: “What’s the best place to have lunch?”
-: “_________________.”
A. I’ll have a soup, please B. There’s a great restaurant at the street corner
C. I usually eat lunch at twelve there D. Twelve would be convenient for us
Question 21: “I’ve got an earache in this ear. I couldn’t sleep last night because it was so
painful.”
-: “___________”
A. Let me check your temperature…. Yes, it’s higher than normal.
B. Drink lots of water and come back if you don’t feel better.
C. Let me have a look …… ah …. Yes, it’s very red in there.
D. Well, you should take this medicine twice a day. It’s good for a sore throat. Mark the letter
A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The fire was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn
more about
A B C ancient
civilizations.
D
Question 23: Perhaps the most distinctive features of insects and undoubtedly one of the most
important
A B
reasons for their success is their quite well-developed sensory system.
C D
Question 24: Unless the money is returned, we shall shortly be contacting our
lawful department.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25:
He said he had never come across such a pleasing painting. A. run into B.
bump into C. cross his path D. hook up
Question 26: John was in the news during the latter part of the Watergate scandal.
A. former B. second C. eventual D. end
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The Beatles were a phenomenon – nobody had heard anything like them
before.
A. success B. wonder C. disastrous D. failure
Question 28: This task is not rocket science. Just focus on observing this reaction and you
can reach a conclusion on chemical properties of bronze.
A. difficult B. uncomplicated C. effortless D. trivial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
While many behaviors and practices associated with going green are designed to save
money, there are certain ways in which green living can actually be moderately to very
expensive. Much of the technology associated with green (29) ___________provides benefits
to the environment but often at a much higher cost than their traditional counterparts. For
instance, the use of solar panels can potentially save you money on your energy bills, but they
can (30) ______________ thousands of dollars to install. Energy-efficient appliances are
designed to use less electricity and water but they often come with a high price tag.
Going green can also potentially have a negative effect on the environment. (31)
______________, the development of alternative fuels is an innovation in the green
movement in an effort to reduce reliance on (32) ___________ natural resources. While these
fuels are intended to reduce the toxic emissions caused by the burning of traditional gasoline,
they may have unintentionally caused the opposite effect. One of these alternative fuels, E85,
actually gives (33) ___________ more ozone into the atmosphere than traditional fuel. While
ozone is a natural part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere, if it becomes concentrated in the
lower atmosphere, it can potentially increase air pollution in areas where smog is a concern,
which can in turn impact the health of those living in these areas. Question 29: A. living
B. lives C. live D. lively
Question 30: A. spend B. take C. cost D. charge
Question 31: A. Such as B. However C. In addition D. For example
Question 32: A. advanced B. alternative C. nonstop D. nonrenewable
Question 33: A. out B. away C. off D. in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
May 1 is marked as International Labour Day, also referred as May Day. The day
celebrates labourers and the working class. Labour Day is an annual public holiday in many
countries. It is also referred as International Workers’ Day or just Worker’s Day.
During industrialization in beginning of the 19th Century, the industrialists used to exploit the
labour class and made them work up to 15 hours a day. The workers in the U.S. rose against
this exploitation and demanded paid leaves, proper wages and breaks for the workforce. The
eight-hour day labour movement advocated eight hours for work, eight hours for recreation,
and eight hours for rest. The Labour Day annually celebrates the achievements of the workers.
The day has different story for different places. May 1 was chosen to be International
Workers’ Day to commemorate the 1886 Haymarket affair in Chicago. In that year, on May 1,
there was a general strike for the eight-hour workday. On May 4, the police acted to disperse a
public assembly in support of the strike when an unidentified person threw a bomb. The
police responded by firing on the workers. The event lead to several deaths. The incident is
remembered as the Haymarket affair, or the Haymarket massacre. The place in Haymarket
Square where the incident happened was designated a Chicago Landmark in 1992.
Labour Day or May Day has been a focal point of protests by various socialist and
communist groups and is an important holiday in communist countries like China, North
Korea, Cuba and the former Soviet Union countries. In India, the first Labour day or May Day
was celebrated in the year 1923. It was the Labour Kisan Party who had organised the May
Day celebrations in Chennai (then Madras).
Question 34: What is main topic of the passage?
A. The birth of the day dedicated to workers. B. Holidays that fall on Mondays.
C. Why and how Labour Day is celebrated. D. The rights of working class.
Question 35: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. workforce B. Labour Day C. public holiday D. working class
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, what is the origin of May Day being described?
Labour Day dates back to the late 1900s when the heavy industries were blooming.
B. Worker’s Day beginning was linked with the advent of class consciousness.
C. Labour Day has its origins in the labour union movement in the United States.
D. Worker’s Day concept has been brewing since the dawn of capitalism. Question 37:
According to paragraph 3, what is NOT correct about the incident of Haymarket?
A. Many people were killed when the police intervened by random gunfire.
B. The Haymarket tragedy inspired generations of rightist activists.
C. The Haymarket riot happened in the late 1800s in Chicago.
D. A bomb was thrown by an individual never positively identified. Question 38: The word
“focal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. permanent B. leading C. basic D. central
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
The World Health Organization on Wednesday declared the rapidly spreading
coronavirus outbreak a pandemic. Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus said that
“We expect to see the number of cases, the number of deaths, and the number of affected
countries climb even higher.”
WHO officials had said earlier they were hesitant to call the outbreak a pandemic in case it
led governments and individuals to give up the fight. On Wednesday, they stressed that
fundamental public health interventions can still limit the spread of the virus and drive down
cases even where it was transmitting widely, as the work of authorities and communities in
China, Singapore, and South Korea has shown.
The virus, which probably originated in bats but passed to people via an as yet
unrecognized intermediary animal species, is believed to have started infecting people in
Wuhan, China, in late November or early December. Since then the virus has raced around
the globe. South Korea, which has reported nearly 8,000 cases, also appears poised to bring
its outbreak under control with aggressive measures and widespread testing. But other
countries have struggled to follow the leads of China and South Korea — a reality that has
frustrated WHO officials who have exhorted the world to do everything possible to end
transmission of the virus. Tedros used the fact that 90% of the cumulative cases have been
reported in just four countries as evidence that the rest of the world still had time to prevent
an explosion of cases with action.
WHO officials also stressed that countries should be implementing a strategic
combination two types of measures. One involves trying to detect and stop known chains of
transmission by isolating cases and following and potentially quarantining their contacts. The
other involves community-level steps like social distancing and comes into play when the
virus is spreading more broadly and transmission chains can’t be tracked. Mike Ryan, the
head of the WHO’s emergency program, said that the public health interventions might not
have straightforward effect, but to slow the spread of the virus. People with severe cases can
require long periods of critical care and strain the resources of hospitals. He said he was
worried about “the case load, the demand on the health workers, the dangers that come with
fatigue, and potentially shortages of personal protective equipment.” Question 39: Which
best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Some contracted with coronavirus get very ill but most don’t.
B. What scientists still don’t know about coronavirus patients.
C. What governors are doing to tackle spreading coronavirus.
D. The WHO declares the coronavirus outbreak a pandemic.
A.
-----THE END-----
A.
Đề 5
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. defend B. deny C. repeat D. borrow
Question 2: A. quality B. cinema C. importance D. reference
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. health B. wealth C. breathe D. dealt
Question 4: A. plays B. travels C. seems D. thinks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Your brother is living in HCM city, ___________?
A. is he B. isn’t he C. isn’t she D. does he
Question 6: My neighbor offered ____________ us to the airport.
A. taking B. take C. to taking D. to take
Question 7: My mother says that we__________ the party in the garden if the weather is
good.
A. would have B. would have had C. will have D. will be having
Question 8: Who ___________ over the company when the manager retires?
A. took B. will take C. take D. was taking
Question 9: Everyone in the company knew that he had revealed the confidential information
,_____ nobody dared to report it.
A. so B. but C. and D. for
Question 10: It won’t be safe to use these stairs __________ .
A. before they repair them B. after they will repair them
C. when they repaired them D. until they have them repaired
Question 11: The topic is very interesting and I'd like to continue it but we're all __________
time.
A. on B. out of C. off D. up
Question 12: A lot of people have ignored the warning of air pollution __________ health
problems.
A. seriously causing B. is seriously causing C. seriously caused D. is
seriously caused
Question 13: We were banned from entering this area for _____________ reasons.
A. secure B. security C. securely D. securities
Question 14: Daddy, how can I ___________ so little money? Please send me some more
money.
A. get through B. get over C. get by on D. get by
Question 15: When the pregnant woman got on the bus, one of the young men stood up and
_______ room for her.
A. made B. put C. got D. did
Question 16: There's a shortage of cheap accommodation in this city of five million
__________.
A. citizens B. dwellers C. inhabitants D. residents
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Father's Day was created to complement Mother’s Day. Like Mother's Day
(29)________ honors mothers and motherhood, Father's Day celebrates fatherhood and
paternal bonds; it highlights the (30)___________ of fathers in society. Many countries
celebrate it on the third Sunday of June, but it is also celebrated widely on other days.
Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the woman behind the celebration of male parenting.
Her father, the Civil War veteran William Jackson Smart, was a single parent who (31)
________ his six children there. After hearing a sermon about Jarvis' Mother's Day in 1909,
she told her pastor that fathers should have a similar holiday honoring them. Although she
initially suggested June 5, her father's birthday, the pastors did not have enough time to
prepare their sermons, and the celebration was deferred to the third Sunday of June. The first
celebration was in Spokane, Washington at the YMCA (Young Men's Christian Association)
on June 19, 1910. Since then it has become a traditional day (32) ________ year.
In recognition of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a
party celebrating male parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (33)
_______, schools help children prepare handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the
celebration.
Question 29: A. which B. when C. who D. where
Question 30: A. conquest B. impact C. influence D. effect
Question 31: A. realized B. raised C. took D. made
Question 32: A. another B. other C. any D. every
Question 33: A. Besides B. In contrast C. However D. Then
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
As the pace of life continues to increase, we are fast losing the art of relaxation. Once
you are in the habit of rushing through life, being on the go from morning to night, it is hard
to slow down. But relaxation is essential for a healthy mind and body.
Stress is a natural part of every life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the
bad thing it is often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is vital to provide motivation
and give purpose to life. It is only when the stress gets out of control that it can lead to poor
performance and ill health.
The amount of stress a person can withstand depends very much on the individual.
Some people are not afraid of stress, and such characters are obviously prime material for
managerial responsibilities. Others lose heart at the first signs of unusual difficulties. When
exposed to stress in whatever form, we react both chemically and physically. In fact we make
choice between “fight” or “flight”, and in more primitive days the choice made the difference
between life or death. The crises we meet today are not likely to be so extreme, but however
little the stress, it involves the same response. It is when such a reaction lasts long, through
continued exposure to stress that health becomes endangered. Such serious conditions as high
blood pressure and heart disease have established links with stress. Since we cannot remove
stress from our lives (and it would be unwise to do so even if we could), we need to find
ways to deal with it.
Question 34: People are finding less and less time for relaxing themselves because
__________.
A. they do not know how to enjoy themselves
B. they do not believe that relaxation is important for health
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 6
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. admit B. reply C. cancel D. discuss
Question 2: A. information B. comparative C. economic D. independence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose
underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. control B. unfold C. record D. hold
Question 4: A. hopes B. changes C. cakes D. hates
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: You have to leave early, ___________?
A. haven’t you B. don’t you C. have you D. do you
Question 6: Barney stopped ____________ when doctors told him he had lung cancer.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. smoke D. to smoking
Question 7: We ____________ for three hours straight! Where’s the bus?
A. have been waiting B. had been waiting C. has been waiting D. has
waited
Question 8: ______________ some assistance with your essay, feel free to ring me up.
A. Were you to need B. Had you needed
C. Should you need D. Will you need
Question 9: Kate Bouman is ______ scientist whose algorithm allowed researchers to take
_______ first ever image of a black hole.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/the D. the/a
Question 10: Mathematics, ____ by many students as a difficult subject, is actually very
fascinating.
A. which are considered B. considered
C. considering D. to be considered
Question 11: My father’s company, which has its base _______ Ho Chi Minh city, plans to
set up an office in Quang Binh.
A. on B. in C. out D. up
Question 12: If you are caught cheating, half of your total score will be ______________.
A. reduced B. deducted C. deduced D. distracted
Question 13: Although his first book was a roaring success, his later ones never really
__________.
A. took in B. took on C. took up D. took off
Question 14: _______________, she was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Because the woman was tired B. When the woman was tired
C. Despite tired D. Tired though the woman was
Question 15: It is important that Mike ___________ a training course if he wants to
participate in scuba-diving.
A. make B. hold C. take D. has
Question 16: One of the _________ related to weddings is that the bride should wear
something blue.
A. superstition B. superstitious C. superstitiously D. superstitions
Question 17: The Hurricane laid ___________ to the entire village and left the villagers
homeless.
A. waste B. rubbish C. garbage D. trash
Question 18: Indonesia got off to a ____________ start with a goal in the first half, but
Vietnam still won the match in the end.
A. jumping B. flying C. leaping D. kicking
Question 19: We couldn’t find the hotel _________ we used google map.
A. so B. but C. and D. if
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tony and Steve are friends. They have just finished dinner in a restaurant.
- Tony: “The food is great. I’ll get the bill.”
- Steve: “ _________________”
A. Yes, speak to you soon. B. It’s nothing
C. No, it is on me. D. Don’t mention it.
Question 21: Stark goes to the bank for a money change.
- Stark: “Do you have a change for a 100-dollar note, please?”
- Bank clerk: “___________”
A. What kind of money do you want? B. How much money do you want?
C. How do you want your money? D. How many notes do you want? Mark
the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Jonas, along with his friend Joseph, are travelling to Portland next week .
A B C D
Question 23: In the 1980s, actress Sarah Bernhardt made an important attribution to the role
of Lady
A
Macbeth when she displayed an overt sensuality that has been stressed by her
twentiethcentury successors.
B C D
Question 24: How does the organization address the problems identified and found out the
best
A B C solution
to them.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: The enemy can attack us at any minute, so stay sharp or they will take us by
surprise!
A. intense B. alert C. rapid D. precise
Question 26: When I came across him in front of the office, he was conspicuous as usual
with a big yellow bow tie.
A. easily seen B. popular C. unnoticeable D. open
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Some research has shown that acupuncture might help with the alleviation of
headaches and migraines.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Question 28: If you want to be a successful gardener, of course you’ve got to have green
fingers.
A. make plants grow well B. bad at doing the gardening
C. lack skills in gardening D. don’t have a good head for gardening Read the
following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Like high schools, American colleges are sometimes criticized for discarding required
courses and offering too (29)____________ electives. In the mid-1980s, the Association of
American Colleges issued a report that called for teaching a body of common knowledge to
all college students. A similar report, “Involvement in Learning,” issued by the National
Institute of Education, concluded that the college curriculum had become “excessively
workrelated”. The report also (30) __________ that college education may no longer be
developing in students “the shared values and knowledge” that traditionally bind Americans
together.
These reports coincided with a trend away from the liberal arts. (31)____________,
students were choosing major fields designed to prepare them for specific jobs. In 1992, 51
percent of the bachelor’s degrees were conferred in the fields of business and management,
communications, computer and sciences, education, engineering, and health sciences.
This trend raises questions (32)___________ apply to the educational philosophy of
all industrialized countries. In an age of technological breakthroughs and highly specialized
disciplines, is there still a need for the generalist with a broad background and welldeveloped
abilities to reason and communicate? And if the answer to that question is yes, should society
take steps to encourage its colleges and universities to produce more such generalists? Like
their (33) ____________ in other countries, American educators continue to debate these
questions.
(Adapted from http://usa.usembassy.de/etexts/factover/ch6.htm)
Question 29: A. a lot of B. many C. lots of D. a great many
Question 30: A. threatened B. urged C. warned D. expected
Question 31: A. alternatively B. consequently C. additionally D. frequently
Question 32: A. which B. what C. who D. whose
Question 33: A. friends B. supporters C. counterparts D. opponents Read
the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Australia is suffering from one of its worst fire seasons in history, with more than two
dozen people killed, thousands of homes destroyed, and millions of acres burned so far.
Unfortunately, fires like this, exacerbated by the effects of climate change, will likely rage
again, but Australia’s government can take steps to minimize their destruction.
With warming temperatures, Australia will face longer fire seasons. To reduce future
damage, governments at all levels must act. Areas of focus should include enhancing early
warning systems and fire prediction capabilities; launching public awareness campaigns on
the dangers posed by climate-fueled bushfires and necessary prevention measures; conducting
more controlled burns; and developing more stringent building codes that address climate
risk.
At the state and local levels, communities need to professionalize their firefighting
capabilities. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local
leaders about the changing characteristics of bushfires. And, once this fire season subsides,
states should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting
redevelopment of particularly fire-prone areas.
(Adapted from https://www.cfr.org/) Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Australia’s measures to reduce the forest fires’ damage
B. The harmful effects of the Australia’s forest fires
C. The causes of forest fires in Australia
D. How Australia reconstructs the forests
Question 35: The word “rage” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
___________. A. stop B. spread C. change D. maintain
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT the solution taken by
the Australia’s government?
A. improving early warning systems and fire prediction capabilities
B. raising public awareness of the dangers of bushfires and essential prevention measures
C. limiting the number of controlled burns
D. developing more stringent building codes to address climate risk.
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________________.
A. local levels B. communities
C. firefighting capabilities D. local leaders
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 3, what should the states do to decrease the
effects of the fires after this fire season?
A. They should professionalize their firefighting capabilities.
B. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local leaders.
C. They should take steps to minimize their destruction.
D. They should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting
redevelopment of particularly fire-prone areas.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Children are not the face of this pandemic, but they risk being among its biggest
victims. While they have thankfully been largely spared from the direct health effects of
COVID-19 - at least to date – the crisis is having a profound effect on their wellbeing. All
children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected, in particular by the
socioeconomic impacts and, in some cases, by mitigation measures that may inadvertently do
more harm than good. This is a universal crisis and, for some children, the impact will be
lifelong. Moreover, the harmful effects of this pandemic will not be distributed equally. They
are expected to be most damaging for children in the poorest countries, and in the poorest
neighborhoods, and for those in already disadvantaged or vulnerable situations.
There are three main channels through which children are affected by this crisis:
infection with the virus itself; the immediate socioeconomic impacts of measures to stop
transmission of the virus and end the pandemic; and the potential longer-term effects of
delayed implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals.
All of this is affecting children in multiple ways. An estimated 42-66 million children
could fall into extreme poverty as a result of the crisis this year, adding to the estimated 386
million children already in extreme poverty in 2019. 188 countries have imposed countrywide
school closures, affecting more than 1.5 billion children and youth. The potential losses that
may accrue in learning for today’s young generation, and for the development of their human
capital, are hard to fathom. More than two-thirds of countries have introduced a national
distance learning platform, but among low-income countries the share is only 30 percent.
Before this crisis, almost one-third of the world’s young people were already digitally
excluded.
Lockdowns and shelter in place measures come with a heightened risk of children
witnessing or suffering violence and abuse. Children in conflict settings, as well as those
living in unsanitary and crowded conditions such as refugee and IDP settlements, are also
at considerable risk. Children’s reliance on online platforms for distance learning has also
increased their risk of exposure to inappropriate content and online predators.
(Adapted from https://unsdg.un.org/
Question 39: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. Protecting children from COVID-19
B. The impact of COVID-19 on children
C. What do children do in the COVID-19 pandemic?
D. Are children affected by COVID-19-controlling measures?
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ____________.
A. children B. measures C. harmful effects D. countries
Question 41: The word “channels” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ways B. programs C. factors D. steps
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected equally by the
pandemic.
B. The measures to stop the spread of the virus and control the pandemic are not
harmful to children.
C. The pandemic could put millions of children into extreme poverty this year. D.
Only one third developed countries have introduced distance learning in the pandemic.
Question 43: The word “fathom” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. solve B. prove C. recover D. understand
Question 44: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that in the
pandemic_______________.
A. children may be unsafe even in their houses.
B. children have more risks than adults.
C. the number of violent cases is increasing.
D. most children don’t want to learn online.
Question 45: According to the passage, the following are the impacts of the pandemic on
children, EXCEPT _____________.
A. falling into poverty B. exacerbating the learning crisis
C. risks for child safety D. threats to child survival and health
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection. Question 47: “I
was just getting into the shower when the phone rang." he said to me. A. He said to
me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
B. He told me he had just been getting into the shower when the phone had rung.
C. He said to me that he had just been getting into the shower when the phone rang.
D. He told to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
Question 48: Though my bag may be cheaper than Lucas’s, it is bigger and more attractive.
A. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not so big and attractive as mine.
B. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not bigger and attractive
than mine.
C. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not as big and attractive as
mine.
D. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not bigger or more attractive
than mine.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Collin is not very good at English. He failed the English exam last week.
A. Were Collin good at English, he wouldn’t have failed the English exam last week.
B. If Collin were better at English, he would pass the English exam last week.
C. Should Collin be good at English, he would not fail the English exam last week.
D. Had Collin been better at English, he would’ve passed the English exam last week.
Question 50: She decided to move to the city. She didn’t bring any money with her.
A. No money with her did she decide to move to the city.
B. Not money did she bring with her, she decided to move to the city.
C. Not a penny did she bring with her when she decided to move to the city.
D. Not a penny she brought with her did she decide to move to the city.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. Nam is tall. Hung is taller.
Hung ...............................................................................................
Question 52. Let's go camping in Suoi Mo.
Why .................................................................................................?
Question 53. How much is a bottle of cooking oil?
How much does...............................................................................?
Question 54. Nga usually walks to school.
Nga ................................................................................................
Question 55. Nobody in my class is fatter than Hoang.
Hoang is .....................................................................................
Question 56. Classical music is interesting. Folk music is interesting. (as…as)
__________________________________________________________________
Question 57. This picture is 800, 000 VND. That picture is 600, 000 VND. (price…
different)
__________________________________________________________________
Question 58. Mr. Brown speaks English. Mrs. Kent speaks English. (same language)
__________________________________________________________________
Question 59. John didn’t go to the concert show last night. Nam didn’t go to the concert
show last night. (either)
__________________________________________________________________
Question 60. Mr. Phong teaches history of arts. Mrs. Ha teaches history of music. (same
subject)
__________________________________________________________________
-----THE END-----
Đề 7
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mental B. dental C. canal D. nasal
Question 2: A. television B. informative C. employee D. responsible Mark
the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. book B. foot C. moon D. wood
Question 4: A. hatred B. naked C. hacked D. sacred
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: You are very unhappy with the service, _________?
A. aren’t you B. are you C. won’t you D. have you
Question 6: His parents suggested _____________ a break from studying.
A. having B. him to have C. he have D. that he had
Question 7: By the time my brother went to bed last night, he _____________ his homework
A. has already finished B. will have already finished
C. had already finished D. were already finishing
Question 8: Had they listened to their parents’ advice, they _____________ happier now.
A. would be B. am C. will be D. would have been
Question 9: It’s believed that __________ car is one of the main factors causing a lot of
damage to our environment.
A. a B. the C. an D. 0
Question 10: I am not a selfish man ___________ in the past of my girlfriend.
A. interested B. interesting C. who interests D. to interest
Question 11: My brother is a very industrious student who spent the past few months doing
research ________ the library.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: I would like to take this opportunity to _________ my gratitude for your
ongoing support.
A. extend B. expand C. enlarge D. broaden
Question 13: My petrol tank was empty so I pulled into a garage to ____________.
A. fill up B. top up C. speed up D. blow up
Question 14: Mary has applied for a lot of jobs recently, which suggests ___________ her
present job.
A. that she not be altogether satisfied with B. that she’s not altogether satisfied with
C. she doesn’t altogether satisfy D. that she not altogether satisfy
Question 15: On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she __________ into tears.
A. burst B. break C. run D. set
Question 16: She was very ____________, and brought me at least fifteen pairs of shoes to
try on.
A. obliged B. obliging C. obligated D. obligatory
Question 17: Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into___________.
A. influence B. impact C. effect D. affect
Question 18: Be honest! Don’t let success go to your ____________.
A. head B. hairs C. eyes D. mouth
Question 19: ____________ John’s being usually late for work, he was dismissed.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “What a gorgeous make-up style you have got, Jane!” -
“___________________.”
A. I am afraid not. B. You are telling a joke.
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don’t like your sayings
Question 21: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
- “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive. Mark
the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Not only the students but also the teacher feel that the school
should offer computer classes.
A B C D
Question 23: My friend decided to change his life by moving abroad and set up his new
company.
A B C D
Question 24: Look out! The frightening horse may injure you, so you’d better not play near
it.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: This national event not only helps enhance city’s reputation but also brings
happiness and fulfillment to local residents.
A. boost B. accumulate C. diversify D. tarnish
Question 26: Who knows how many different chemicals there are in our water, mixing and
forming all kinds of deadly compounds.
A. important B. ghostly C. avoidable D. fatal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: In some countries, employers have no legitimate rights to directly dismiss their
employees.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Question 28: During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincidence with a dramatic rise in
the popularity of television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out
of business.
A. like hot cakes B. like a streak of lightning
C. like you need a hole in the head D. like a cat on a hot tin roof
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
There have never been so (29)___________ people living in cities in quake zones
because the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss
of life, property, and maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not
exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In
Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake
Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(30)__________ —pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki
Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If
this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes
occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the
fault and set up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. (31)________ an
earthquake hit again, it was years of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists
drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found
something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places
(32)_______ the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may
be able to track earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great
earthquake does (33)_______ in Tokai, about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some
scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
Question 29: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 30: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 31: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 32: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 33: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about
threein-ten say they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in
urban or suburban areas to say they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t
necessarily interact with their neighbors more than their counterparts in other community
types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the
case in suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have
a neighbor they would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban
areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a
neighbor they would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that
they have lived in their community for less than one year, 34% say they would be
comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in
their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five
years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they
would be comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than
those in cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity.
Suburbanites are somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their
neighbors are the same social class as they are, while relatively few across community types
say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 34: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas
wouldn’t have enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 36: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 37: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________.
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 38: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and
suburban counterparts do.
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer
time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their
home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors. Read
the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 39 to 45.
While the debate regarding how much screen time is appropriate for children rages on
among educators, psychologists, and parents, it’s another emerging technology in the form of
artificial intelligence and machine learning that is beginning to alter education tools and
institutions and changing what the future might look like in education. It is expected that
artificial intelligence in U.S. education will grow by 47.5% from 2017-2021 according to the
Artificial Intelligence Market in the US Education Sector report. Even though most experts
believe the critical presence of teachers is irreplaceable, there will be many changes to a
teacher’s job and to educational best practices.
AI has already been applied to education primarily in some tools that help develop
skills and testing systems. As AI educational solutions continue to mature, the hope is that AI
can help fill needs gaps in learning and teaching and allow schools and teachers to do more
than ever before. AI can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks to allow
teachers the time and freedom to provide understanding and adaptability—uniquely human
capabilities where machines would struggle. By leveraging the best attributes of machines
and teachers, the vision for AI in education is one where they work together for the best
outcome for students. Since the students of today will need to work in a future where AI is the
reality, it’s important that our educational institutions expose students to and use the
technology.
Artificial intelligence tools can help make global classrooms available to all including
those who speak different languages or who might have visual or hearing impairments.
Presentation Translator is a free plug-in for PowerPoint that creates subtitles in real time for
what the teacher is saying. This also opens up possibilities for students who might not be able
to attend school due to illness or who require learning at a different level or on a particular
subject that isn’t available in their own school. AI can help break down silos between
schools and between traditional grade levels.
(Adapted from https://www.forbes.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?
A. The roles of teachers in the time of technology
B. Is AI appropriate for students using in classrooms?
C. How AI is used in education
D. What AI tools are used in the classrooms
Question 40: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. AI B. education C. some tools D. testing systems
Question 41: The word “mature” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. improve B. replace C. change D. decrease
Question 42: According to paragraph 2, what can AI do to help teachers in the classrooms?
A. It can work to give the best outcome for students.
B. It can urge the students to get familiar to the technology before working in the future.
C. It can help teachers to control the class more effectively.
D. It can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks.
Question 43: The following are the benefits of Presentation Translator mentioned in
paragraph 3, EXCEPT ___________.
A. creating subtitles in real time for what is being said in the lessons
B. giving chance for the students to follow the lessons without attending school because of
sickness
C. allowing students to learn the particular subject unavailable at their own school
D. providing opportunities for students to learn different languages
Question 44: The phrase “break down” in the last paragraph most probably means
__________.
A. maintain B. stop C. develop D. implement
Question 45: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The blind and the deaf are able to join the class with the help of AI tools.
B. The use of AI in education in the United States will reach the peak in the near future.
C. Experts believe that teachers will lose their presence in classroom by AI.
D. Students can work together to have good results of the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Diana is the most intelligent woman I have ever met.
A. Diana is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met.
B. I have never met a more intelligent woman than Diana.
C. Diana is more intelligent than any women I ever met.
D. This is the first time I have met such an intelligent woman as Diana.
Question 47: “Why were you absent from the class yesterday?” The teacher said to Andrew.
A. The teacher wondered why Andrew has been absent from the class the day before.
B. The teacher told Andrew why had he been absent from the class the previous day.
C. The teacher wanted to know why Andrew was absent from the class the previous day.
D. The teacher asked Andrew why he had been absent from the class the day before.
Question 48: It’s almost impossible for us to get them to agree on anything.
A. We can’t have got them to agree on anything.
B. We can’t get them to agree on anything.
C. We mustn’t get them to agree on anything.
D. We needn’t have got them to agree on anything.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can choose your favorite university. Make sure that it is suitable for your
ability.
A. You can’t choose your favorite university if it is suitable for your ability.
B. You can’t choose your favorite university in case it is suitable for your ability.
C. You can choose your favorite university unless it is suitable for your ability.
D. You can choose your favorite university provided it is suitable for your ability.
Question 50: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 8
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. angry B. climate C. upset D. footprint
Question 2: A. vulnerable B. psychologist C. society D. responsible Mark
the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. breath B. health C. heart D. head
Question 4: A. motivated B. flooded C. wicked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: I am not a good husband, __________?
A. am I B. aren’t I C. are I D. isn’t I
Question 6: They claim that advertising encourages _________ three times higher than the
average consumption.
A. to purchase B. purchasing C. purchase D. to purchasing
Question 7: He has just said that my piano playing ___________ on since he last
_________me play.
A. had really come/ heard B. had really come/ had heard
C. has really come/ heard D. has really come/ had heard
Question 8: If I _________ rich, I ___________ the shoes we saw at the shopping mall
yesterday.
A. were/would buy B. had been/would have bought
C. were/would have bought D. had been/would buy
Question 9: He politely asked me to pass _______ salt and ________pepper.
A. a/the B. the/a C. the/0 D. 0/0
Question 10: Boys! Put away all the toys ___________ at the bottom of the wardrobe.
A. which lied B. lay C. lying D. that are lain
Question 11: I saw some boys swimming _________ the river this afternoon.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: The government decided to close the frontiers off with a view to ________ the
disease.
A. containing B. holding C. including D. comprising
Question 13: There was an accident on the highway, ___________ traffic.
A. putting off B. holding off on C. holding up D. holding over Question
14: He will drop you a line _____________.
A. providing he settled down in his new house B. as soon as he has settled down in
his new house
C. when he settled down in his new house D. till he settles down in his new house
Question 15: The teacher ___________ an example of Tom to the class for cheating in the
exam.
A. set B. followed C. made D. gave
Question 16: The doctor warned us not to let other family members share towels because the
infection is highly____________.
A. contagion B. contagious C. contagiously D. contagions
Question 17: Thanks to __________ provision, many women who wish to work are capable
of doing so.
A. childbearing B. childrearing C. childcare D. child-centred
Question 18: The poor mother was forced to have her baby adopted, __________herself.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because of
Question 19: He shouldn’t have hurt her feelings, ___________.
A. any way you slice it B. be that as it may
C. with the best will in the world D. never mind that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Two colleagues are talking with each other:
A: “Your day was just like mine.”
B: “_______________.”
A. So was I. B. It is sure.
C. Of course it was. We work together! D. We have to work for 30 years!
Question 21: A: “Sometimes I wish I was back to school.”
B: “__________________________.”
A. Me, too. School was fun. B. I thought school was hard.
C. Me, too. I couldn’t wait to graduate. D. Life is hard.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Playing cards is most commonly used for playing card games as well as for
fortune-telling.
A B C D
Question 23: Every morning, we make our bed, eating breakfast, feed the dog and
do exercise.
A B C D
Question 24: My boss is the person who is so bored a man that no one wants to work with
him.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Although Mr. Anderson is very rich, in fact he is a millionaire, he lives in a
small house in the suburbs.
A. resides B. relaxes C. experiments D. employs
Question 26: In twenty years’ time, the food supplies will be so scarce for some countries
that people will start immigrating in huge numbers.
A. in short supply B. in large number
C. abundant and nutritious D. nourishing but limited
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That’s why no one
heard anything.
A. silently B. slowly C. rapidly D. noisily
Question 28: The country’s infrastructure is in poor condition and needs to be upgraded.
A. improved B. repaired C. examined D. deteriorated
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Each family forms its own set of values and decides what is most important to them.
Discipline also varies among families. Families have different ways of dealing with different
issues. In some families, one or both parents make all the decisions with no
(29)________from the children, while other families may encourage input from all family
members before decisions are made. Perhaps you know of a family (30)_______ there is
equal decision making among family members.
There is no one family style for everyone. A family’s style develops based on each
family’s individual situation and the values they care about. (31)_______, your family may be
laid-back, while another family is very active and hurried. Many different ways of living
together can work. What makes a family strong is not just (32)__________ of people in it,
whether its members are related, or their pace of life; people caring for one another and
sharing their lives is what really matters.
Many families also share faiths such as religious activities with one another. As a
Scout, part of your duty is to do your best to make your family strong and help your family
thrive. By doing this, you are helping to lay the (33)__________ for a stronger community
and society.
Question 29: A. import B. export C. output D. input
Question 30: A. which B. that C. when D. where
Question 31: A. For instance B. Such as C. In other words D. Furthermore
Question 32: A. a number B. most C. the number D. amount
Question 33: A. base B. background C. ground D. groundwork
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 34 to 38.
When it comes to discussing AI and the future of work we exhale in relief when
someone says machines will have a hard time replacing us. This statement is backed by the
argument that most AI systems are ‘narrow’. AI systems only do one thing but do it really
well, for example, predicting what you want to watch on Netflix. If you ask the same system
to make you a cup of coffee or drive your car, you’re likely to be disappointed.
But what happens when the AI system can perform the most significant tasks that a
job entails? One interesting example we found came from the fashion industry, where a
company had implemented two AI systems to produce novel designs. Together, they did all
work and the human’s role was only to surveil the work.
Research published earlier this year coined the term ‘Shadow Learning’. As explained
in the Harvard Business Review article titled ‘Learning to work with intelligent machines’,
the researcher studied the challenges new surgeons faced when learning robotic surgery
skills. Previously, they learned how to perform surgery by working alongside expert surgeons,
but now they’re forced to watch over the surgeon’s shoulder as, thanks to robotics,
individuals can handle entire surgeries with one pair of hands. The term, however, does not
mean that you learn by shadowing someone. The phrase refers to students who gained
experience with robotic tools by taking it upon themselves to acquire new skills outside of the
curriculum.
If we look beyond the current discussion of AI and the future of work – which usually
revolves around the number of jobs that will be impacted by AI – we can focus on how to
create inspiring new ways to work with machines.
(Source:
https://www.ericsson.com/) Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. AI and the future of work. B. Finding the sweet spot of trust.
C. Overreliance on AI systems. D. Ensure that work remains meaningful.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, why should we not worry about AI snatching away
our jobs?
A. Because creating something new and unique is an ability exclusive to humans.
B. Because nothing can replace the caring and empathy that a live person can extend.
C. Because AI can take over certain tasks, but possibly not entire multidisciplinary roles.
D. Because AI cannot proactively find and start new tasks without some sort of prompt.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. designs B. systems C. tasks D. students
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem for surgical apprentices in the
time of AI universality?
A. Offer of exposure to new technologies would be used as recruiting strategy.
B. There would be fewer hands-on learning opportunities for the students.
C. Ability to work individually, however brilliantly, would not give a competitive edge.
D. The students could advance only by upstaging other people around them.
Question 38: The word “revolves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. spins B. worries C. muses D. pivots
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 45.
Stephen Cameron, Vietnam’s patient number 91, has recovered from COVID-19 and
is returning home today (July 12th). The symbol of Vietnam’s pandemic success, as referred to
by Reuters (the ABC news), will be accompanied by a team of doctors during the flight to
London.
The 43-year-old Scot, arriving in Vietnam in early March, was tested positive for
COVID-19 only three days after his first flight for Vietnam Airlines, following a visit to a bar
in Ho Chi Minh City that became a coronavirus outbreak. Cameron’s illness and the highly
publicized efforts of Vietnam’s doctors to save him became a symbol in Vietnam of the
country’s successful fight against the virus, as reported by Reuters.
The ABC news recognized Vietnam’s huge efforts to save the man, who had been
critically ill and spent 65 days on life support. Doctors said at one point they considered a
lung transplant as the man’s lungs were 90% damaged and non-functional. With the vast
majority of Vietnam’s COVID-19 patients already recovered, the news of a potential first
death prompted a national outpouring of support, with dozens of people coming forward as
potential lung donors.
However, like a miracle, after he woke from a coma at the end of May, there were
small signs of improvement – a thumbs-up sign for an attentive doctor, a trip on to the
balcony to catch some sunshine and a video of him holding a Motherwell football club scarf
aloft. Every little progress was closely followed by the media and attracted great attention.
“The patient’s recovery has been like a very long flight” – Dr. Tran Thanh Linh, the
deputy head of the ICU ward at Cho Ray Hospital, said during a meeting between hospital
officials, the British Consulate and Vietnam Airlines representatives just before Cameron’s
discharge – the Washing Post reported. “All of the health workers are overwhelmed with joy
to see him fully recovered and being discharged from the hospital today.”
The UK’s Daily Mail quoted Mr Cameron: “I’m overwhelmed by the generosity of
the Vietnamese people, the dedication and professionalism of the doctors and nurses working
at Cho Ray Hospital. I’m going home with a happy heart because I’m going home, but it is
sad that I’m leaving so many people here that I’m friends with”.
Vietnam has reported 370 coronavirus cases with no local transmitted infection for
nearly three months. All recent cases are people who were infected abroad and had been
under compulsory quarantine upon their arrival in Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://vietnamtimes.org.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Patient 91: “Miracle” Flight Heading Home
B. The COVID-19 British Pilot –A Great Man
C. The Progress of Vietnam’s Medicine in COVID-19
D. Patient 91: The Pride of Vietnamese Doctors
Question 40: The word “accompanied” in the first paragraph most probably means
________.
A. gone through with B. warmly welcomed C. out of control D. under the
care of
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. the 43-year-old Scot B. his first flight C. a bar D. Ho Chi Minh city
Question 42: The word “critically” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. extremely important B. seriously C. censoriously D. essentially
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the Patient
91?
A. This is the first Stephen Cameron’s flight to Vietnam as a pilot for Vietnam Airlines.
B. His lungs got over nine tenths of functions and need transplanting.
C. More than ten people all over the country volunteer to donate their lung for the British
pilot.
D. A lot of people closely followed his every little improvement after a coma. Question 44:
As mentioned in Cameron’s quotation on the UK’s Daily Mail, how does he feel when
leaving Vietnam for home?
A. devoted B. nostalgic C. heart-breaking D. providential Question
45: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. The plane getting patient 91 home became a symbol of Vietnam’s success in fighting
against COVID-19.
B. The pilot’s recovery made people in all over the world joyful.
C. The 43-year-old Scot feels quite lucky to be treated in Vietnam.
D. There are still new cases tested positive for COVID-19 in Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: Jane is less orderly than her
roommate.
A. Jane’s roommate is less orderly than she is. B. Jane is not as orderly as her
roommate.
C. Jane’s roommate is not as orderly as she is. D. Jane is more orderly than her
roommate.
Question 47: I’m sure this isn’t the type of house that Tom is looking for.
A. This can’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
B. This mustn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
C. This shouldn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
D. This can’t have been the type of house that Tom is looking for. Question 48: “I will fix
your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son. A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s
bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Covid-19 is highly contagious. Over eight million people have been infected
worldwide.
A. So contagious Covid-19 is that over eight million people have been infected
worldwide.
B. Such is the contagious disease that Covid-19 had infected over eight million people
worldwide.
C. Only when over eight million people have been infected worldwide is Covid-19 so
contagious.
D. Covid-19 is so contagious a disease that it has infected over eight million people
worldwide.
Question 50: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 9
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thinks B. seems C. plays D. sends
Question 2: A. blind B. kind C. right D. chilly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. usual B. pretty C. canal D. listen
Question 4: A. marriage B. supportive C. musical D. different
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Your father won’t let you go out with me anymore, _________?
A. is he B. will he C. can he D. won’t he
Question 6: Believe me! There will be ______ few problems with that car as it’s quite new.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 7: We spent our long holiday ___________ the sea last summer.
A. by B. in C. at D. on
Question 8: She denied ________ in the exam.
A. to cheat B. cheating C. being cheated D. having cheat
Question 9: If I _______ you earlier, you could be my husband now.
A. met B. meet C. had met D. have met
Question 10: There __________ many changes in my village since they built a new bridge.
A. has been B. are C. had been D. have been
Question 11: ___________ applying for hundreds of jobs, he is still out of work.
A. Although B. In spite of C. Because D. Because of
Question 12: He won’t get married _____________.
A. when he has a distinguished career B. as soon as he had had a distinguished
career
C. until he had a distinguished career D. till he has a distinguished career Question
13: The people ________ the virus must be isolated to prevent its spread.
A. who were caught B. catching C. caught D. catch
Question 14: According to some sources of ________information, his father will be elected
to be the headmaster next year.
A. reliant B. reliability C. rely D. reliable
Question 15: When he _________ from Jimmy as head of department last year, he had to
deal with many financial problems.
A. took on B. took over C. took up D. took in
Question 16: I ____________ the impression that he was lying to all of us.
A. made B. created C. got D. did
Question 17: According to the __________of this game, you mustn’t touch the ball with both
hands.
A. regulations B. laws C. rules D. norms
Question 18: Regardless of the law, there are practices that __________against women and
in favor of men
A. discriminate B. distinguish C. differentiate D. dissociate
Question 19: His mother had a _________ when his teacher said that he had played truant
many times.
A. bee B. cow C. buffalo D. deer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The impact of increased urbanization has been harmful to the environment and
has led to the growth of greenhouse gas emissions
A. detrimental B. beneficial C. advantageous D. favorable Question
21: The number of students in school A increased significantly in the last 5 years.
Likewise, that in school B experienced a substantial rise.
A. Adversely B. Conversely C. Comparably D. Similarly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Because trees can prevent land erosion, afforestation projects should be
launched steadily.
A. reforestation B. forestry C. forestation D. deforestation
Question 23: The reality is the economy is hitting the ceiling and the growth rate must slow.
A. is reaching the highest limit B. is becoming extremely angry
C. is reaching the smallest level D. is keeping calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: David and Anna are talking about joining a club.
- Anna: “How about this advertisement? Are you interested in acting?”
- David: “_________________.”
A. You’re joking. I hate standing in front of people. B. Yes, I’d love to. I like the
poster the most.
C. Oh no. I’m not a liar. I’m an honest person. D. Never mind. Let’s go to the cinema
tonight.
Question 25: Jack and Jill are going to school together.
- Jack: “________________”
- Jill: “Relax. It doesn’t start until quarter past seven. It’s only five past.” A. Where are
you going? B. I’m anxious about the exam.
C. We are going to be late. D. Sorry. I forgot your address.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
As the Covid-19 pandemic is becoming more complicated, resulting in a (26)
__________school break for all students in Vietnam, many schools turn to the e-learning
method as a sensible alternative. Vietnam Posts and Telecommunications Group (VNPT) is
providing educational institutes in (27) ______ areas with its E-Learning platform at no cost
until the end of the academic year 2019-2020. Teachers can access this platform to transform
their current lesson plans into the electronic version. They can also monitor students’ learning
process, check attendance, and have learners sit exams. (28)__________, parents can access
the website to check their children’s learning process as well. Additionally, VioEdu by FPT
Group is one prominent online learning product (29) _______ makes use of AI to offer
subscribers more than 500 exciting video lessons, along with a large quantity of exercises,
online tests. It aims at making the learning and evaluation process more convenient for both
teachers and students with features to assign tasks, mark them, and prepare a corresponding
academic report. One week after the product allows free (30)_________, students in all 63
provinces of Vietnam eagerly sign up for an account and nearly 8,000 school are now using it
to deliver lessons to their learners.
Question 26: A. lengthy B. prolonging C. durable D. extending
Question 27: A. most of B. lot of C. many of D. a good many
Question 28: A. In addition B. While C. In the meantime D. However
Question 29: A. whose B. which C. what D. where
Question 30: A. description B. subscription C. transcription D. prescription
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35
Marine ecotourism focuses specifically on activities that take place on the coast or in
the ocean. It includes activities like eco-friendly boating, dolphin and whale watching,
snorkeling, scuba diving and fishing, but in a sustainable way and with an emphasis on
education.
One of the most popular forms of marine ecotourism is whale watching. Whales are
worth more alive than dead these days, after decades — maybe even centuries — of whaling.
While commercial whaling is banned in most countries, Japan, Norway and Iceland have
continued the practice through finding loopholes or just rebelling against the international
law. A recent National Geographic article discussed the fact that the Japanese, for example,
are eating much less whale meat than in the past. They’re also spending a lot more time whale
watching.
Mexico is another example of this. The shark watching revenue in the Gulf of
California region represents more than half the value from shark fisheries in the country.
Ecotourism has become a much-needed source of employment in the Gulf of California (and
other coastal regions) because of warming ocean temperatures, extreme weather events that
are taking place more often than they have in the past, and declining fish stocks. In
Newfoundland, Canada’s main sealing province, over 1.3 million people participated in whale
watching. That contributed to nearly $20 million to the local economy and is seen as a
possible alternative to the sealing economy.
Ecotourism Australia says that “ecotourism has rocketed from an unknown entity to
global phenomenon in the last 30 years and nature-based tourism already makes up 75
percent of the international tourism market.” It’s an example of knowing better and doing
better, and can make a positive impact on conservation efforts on the coast and in the ocean.
(Source: https://www.renewableenergymagazine.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title of the passage? A. Whaling and sealing –
gruesome tradition.
B. Ecotourism collapse threatens the wildlife.
C. Helping the environment through ecotourism.
D. From personal gratification to public satisfaction.
Question 32: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
A. Marine ecotourism B. Eco-friendly boating
C. Sustainable way D. Tourism market
Question 33: According to the passage, marine ecotourism has achieved its goal of
_________
A. helping people value the ecosystem and changing behaviors for a better cause.
B. reminding people of their history of creating havoc in and around the oceans.
C. stopping overtourism by selecting the travelers based on environmental criteria.
D. providing tourists with an adventurous experience of visiting fascinating places.
Question 34: The word “rocketed” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. plunged B. risen C. soared D. passed
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about the situation of marine ecotourism?
A. Japanese marine ecotourism cannot fix what has been broken.
B. Marine ecotourism has already succeeded in making things better.
C. Many travelers still prefer the traditional tourism to ecotourism.
D. Marine tourism is the only one that has not emerged from obscurity.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
Whether you’re put off by student loans, you need a break from education, or you’re
keen on starting work straight after school – going to university isn’t the right choice for
everyone. And you might be surprised at the career prospects available to those without a
degree. If you’re considering not going to university, here are a few options of what you
could do next.
If you’ve just finished school and you don’t have any work experience, traineeships
and internships are a great way to prepare yourself for your future career. Traineeships
usually last from six weeks to six months, and are offered exclusively to 16-23 year olds. Not
only do they provide essential work preparation training, they’re also the perfect opportunity
to gain the practical skills and experience needed to move onto an apprenticeship or job.
While internships are similar to traineeships, they are available to people of all ages – and
usually focus more on providing practical work experience, rather than guided training and
work preparation.
School leaver programmes are becoming a popular choice for A-level students who
aren’t interested in university, but still want the learning and training that’s involved with
further education. These programmes are designed to give school leavers the chance to earn a
qualification whilst working part-time or full-time (and earning a wage). The exact structure
of a school leaver programmes will largely depend on the company you work for. School
leaver programmes could last anything from three to seven years, and are most common in
industries like accountancy, finance, retail, engineering, and IT. .
If you’re keen to start work straight away, an entry-level job could be well within your reach.
And you may be surprised at what kinds of jobs are available. Whether you want to start a
career in education, you’re interested in breaking into the marketing industry, or you’re
passionate about IT – you don’t always need extensive experience or qualifications to start a
career in your preferred sector. And with many employers providing on-the-job training for
new recruits, you’ll be able to learn a range of key skills to help you progress within the
industry.
(Adapted from https://www.reed.co.uk/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Different Paths after School B. University is Still the Best Choice
C. The Benefits of Not Going to University D. How to choose the Correct Job
Question 37: The word “prospects” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
__________.
A. benefits B. chances C. incomes D. disadvantages
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT provided by
traineeships?
A. work preparation B. practical skills C. work experience D. degrees
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. traineeships B. internships C. practical skills D. people of all ages
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what benefit do people receive from school leaver
programmes?
A. They are able to learn the knowledge about their job while working to get their salary.
B. They can receive the training directly from the company they work for.
C. They are capable of doing many different kinds of jobs at the same time.
D. They can learn about the most common industries when being a student at school.
Question 41: The phrase “breaking into” in the last paragraph most probably means
____________.
A. running B. stopping C. taking part in D. keeping on Question 42:
According to the passage, which statement is TRUE? A. Internships bring more
benefits to people than traineeships.
B. School leavers may have to spend from three to seven years on training before being
employed.
C. New employees may make a progress in their job thanks to the training when being
recruited.
D. You have to prepare quite carefully before running the business by yourself. Mark
the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Due to his obesity, my father is advised to avoid eating fatty foods,
having more vegetables
A B C and drink water.
D
Question 44: My school where I used to study is a very permissible school because
students are allowed
A B C
to do whatever they want.
D
Question 45: In the pool near my flat is little silvery fish darting around.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t work too much” said David’s sister.
A. David’s sister required him not to work too much.
B David’s sister advised him not to work too much.
C David’s sister promised not to force him to work too much.
D David’s sister ordered him not to work too much.
Question 47: You are not allowed to wear casual clothes to school.
A. You needn’t wear casual clothes to school.
B. You mustn’t wear casual clothes to school.
C. You can’t wear casual clothes to school.
D. You shouldn’t wear casual clothes to school.
Question 48: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey.
A. They were so exhausted that they could continue the journey.
B. Such were their exhaustion that they could hardly continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. So exhausted were they that they could hardly continue the journey.
Question 50: It was raining. That’s the only reason I didn’t take the children to the beach.
A. If it hadn’t been raining, I would take the children to the beach.
B. But for it raining, I would have taken the children to the beach.
C. It was raining; otherwise I would have taken the children to the beach.
D. Hadn’t it been for the rain, I would have taken the children to the beach.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51.There are forty students in my class.
My class has...........................................................................................
Question 52. The flower garden is in front of the house.
The house..............................................................................................
Question 53. We usually ride to school.
We usually go.......................................................................................
Question 54. The school is big.
It is ...................................................................................................
Question 55.Apple juice is her favorite drink.
She ……………………………………………....
Question 56. People invented the wheel thousands of years ago.
__________________________________________________________________
Question 57. Are they building a statue of Chu Van An?
__________________________________________________________________
Question 58. Do four busy streets surround the Temple of Literature?
__________________________________________________________________
Question 59. They will not provide pencils at the test, so please bring your own.
__________________________________________________________________
Question 60. Mr. Binh hasn’t taught us since the last semester.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 10
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. agree B. import C. prepare D. demand
Question 2: A. urbanize B. develop C. variety D. proposal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. play B. train C. nation D. urban
Question 4: A. looked B. booked C. naked D. cooked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Just think, in ___________three months, you will be 18. Why are you always
behaving like a child?
A. other B. others C. the other D. another
Question 6: Her father bought her _________ when he went on holiday in Singapore last
week.
A. a beautiful wooden yellow scarf B. a scarf wooden beautiful yellow
C. a yellow beautiful scarf wooden D. a beautiful yellow wooden scarf
Question 7: I _________ them yesterday to check when they____________, but I couldn’t
contact them.
A. was ringing/arrived B. rang/were arriving C. rang/arrived D. rang/had
arrived
Question 8: “It’s ____________ to know that you all are safe and sound”, said he.
A. comfort B. comfortable C. comforting D. comfortably
Question 9: Taking his behaviors into consideration, I guess you and he have been friends
for a long time, so he is familiar ___________ you. A. to B. with C. for
D. towards
Question 10: If you __________him in his office, please tell him to call me back.
A. see B. saw C. had seen D. have seen
Question 11: The man _______________ is my best friend’s father.
A. who I lent the money from B. whom I lent to the money
C. I lent the money D. whose money I lent
Question 12: You don’t think that she is suitable for this position, ________?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. do you D. don’t you
Question 13: ___________ she was late for the interview, she didn’t get the job.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of
Question 14: I asked for his help but he refused _____________ me a hand.
A. to giving B. to give C. giving D. give
Question 15: The investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services
___________ promise for the economic development of this city.
A. make B. keep C. break D. hold
Question 16: I can’t believe_____________. Are you telling me a lie?
A. what I am hearing B. that I am hearing
C. what I am hearing from D. that I am hearing from
Question 17: We regret to inform you that the trip was cancelled through ___________ of
interest.
A. shortage B. scarcity C. deficiency D. lack
Question 18: The weather forecast has reported that the snowstorm is ________ to reach the
coast the next morning.
A. expected B. predicted C. anticipated D. foretold
Question 19: They spent a lot of money on doing a _____________ to find out what our
customers think of their local bus service.
A. research B. experiment C. campaign D. survey
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 20: I’m sorry but the manager and accountant have been on business since last
Monday and he
A B C
won’t return until tomorrow.
D
Question 21: He finds it annoyed at the way she is trying to take over the whole meeting.
A B C D
Question 22: This school has become heavily reliable on government support, so it can’t
have autonomy
A B C
in determining its curriculum.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Before the 1950s, urbanization mainly occurred in more economically
developed countries (MEDCs).
A. happened B. take place C. concentrated D. expanded
Question 24: Too many urban residents grapple with extreme poverty, exclusion,
vulnerability and marginalization.
A. struggle for B. struggle against C. dealt with D. struggle to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I really like him, but I’m confused. He seems to blow hot and cold - one
minute he likes me, and the next, he’s ignoring me!
A. changeable B. ambivalent C. loyal D. constant
Question 26: Your dress is really beautiful, Cindy! You look very awesome in it.
A. terrible B. terrific C. enjoyable D. pleasant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A group of researchers and experts in America and Australia listed 12 countries
affecting (27)_________ to the ocean by the year 2018 and Southeast Asia area has up to 5
representatives: Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. China ranks the
first with (28) _________ 8.8 million plastic wastes, and Vietnam ranks the fourth with 1.8
million. It is really alarming that the developing countries are main causes of environmental
pollution in 10 recent years. A terrible fact probably occurring by 2050 is that the ocean (29)
________much more wastes than sea creatures if the plastic wastes situation is still
continuing, according to the United Nations report. (30)________, the unexpected fact is that
it takes only 5 seconds to produce a plastic bag, 1 second to throw, but up to 500 or even 1000
years to decompose.
A reason for water pollution in Vietnam is that many companies and enterprises
cannot manage rubbish and then pour wastes into rivers and streams, (31)________ the
government cannot control at all.
Question 27: A. deeply B. considerately C. significantly D. largely
Question 28: A. mostly B. almost C. most D. most of
Question 29: A. consists B. comprises C. includes D. contains
Question 30: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Whereas
Question 31: A. where B. that C. which D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 32 to 38
Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive
skills, and emotional skills.
Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family’s responsibility for teaching these
skills. Even if your child is in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these
skills is much more effective than in the few hours your child is under someone else’s care.
Your child will learn how to sit up, walk, run, climb, hold a spoon and so on. These seem
quite natural to us as adults, but they are skills that have to be fine-tuned at a very young age,
and they also reinforce your child’s independence which is essential for their development.
Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child
development. If you do not speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never
learn. One infamous example of this occurring is with Genie, a child who was locked in a
dark room with extremely little human contact until she was rescued at age 13. She was never
able to develop language fluency because it was never taught to her. So, teaching your
children language skills from a young age is also essential to child development.
Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional skills
are important throughout your child’s entire life as they teach them when to have sympathy
and compassion for others as well as teach them how to deal with the highs and lows that
come with life. If your child does not have proper emotional skills, they will not be able to
deal with bad outcomes. If they lack emotional skills, it could lead to destructive choices
when they are older.
To help develop your child’s emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when
they are babies is a good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is
very important. In a family, because there are multiple people, the family can be very helpful
in developing a child’s skills with the multiple perspectives. To bring this more to
foundational building blocks, while your child is very young, something very helpful for
family members to do is to teach children basic emotions. When a child is feeling a certain
way, naming emotions and describing them are important ways for your child to understand
how they are feeling. Once this foundation is set, children can learn how to respond to their
feelings and move forward.
Question 32: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development
B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development
C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time?
D. Family’s Roles in Child’s Skill Development
Question 33: The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
______________.
A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage
Question 34: The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that _____________.
A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills.
B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl.
C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child.
D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily.
Question 35: The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness
C. love and hatred D. successes and failures
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Parents have the greater influence on their child’s motor skills than others do.
B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to adults.
C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature.
D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies.
Question 37: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members
Question 38: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model.
B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family.
C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society.
D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions. Mark
the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 39: - Mike: “How lovely the present is!”
- Jane: “____________”
A. It’s lucky you love it. B. I think so.
C. Yes, it’s lovely. D. No. I don’t like it.
Question 40: - Sue: “Historic events are always hard to remember. Do you think so?”
- Harry: “_______”
A. I think it’s good. B. I am not intelligent.
C. I don’t think it will happen. D. I can’t agree with you more.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 41: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realized how much her family
meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realized how much her family meant to her did she leave home to
start an independent life.
B. To realize how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an
independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realized how much
her family meant to her.
D. Only after Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realize how much
her family meant to her.
Question 42: Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights. More people are flying
for weekend trips to scenic cities.
A. If many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people will be flying for
weekend trips to scenic cities.
B. Although many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are
flying for weekend trips to scenic cities.
C. As many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are flying for
weekend trips to scenic cities.
D. Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, or more people are flying for
weekend trips to scenic cities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It’s impossible for you to meet the boss right now because he is out.
A. You can’t have met the boss right now because he is out.
B. You can’t be met the boss right now because he is out.
C. The boss can’t be met right now because he is out.
D. Meeting the boss right now is possible unless he is out.
Question 44: My boss asked me: “Why are you late? Did you miss the bus?”
A. My boss asked me why I was late and if did I miss the bus.
B. My boss asked me why was I late and did I miss the bus.
C. My boss asked me why you were late and if you missed the bus.
D. My boss asked me why I was late and whether I had missed the bus. Question 45: Mary is
more intelligent than her brother.
A. Mary isn’t as intelligent as her brother.
B. Mary’s brother is more intelligent than she is.
C. Mary’s brother isn’t as intelligent as she is.
D. Mary is less intelligent than her brother.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
The sound of music has changed as society has changed over the years, thus the
change in the sound of music is really a reflection of our cultural evolution. In the beginning
humans made music that closely mimicked the sounds they heard around them in nature in
terms of tones and repetitions.
In Indigenous cultures, music played a role in ceremonies and traditions. Traditional
instruments were played, and lyrics were often strongly linked to nature. The sounds of music
reflected this close association that indigenous cultures had with the land and its wildlife.
Over time, modern society has lost this connection. This is reflected in the changing sound of
the music and in the changing lyrics of songs that are sung. With time, more musical
instruments were developed and played together, which resulted in more sophisticated and
complex sounds being produced. The beats, rhythms, tempo and lyrics of songs all changed
along with the change in cultures.
Although some indigenous cultures such as many of the African tribes, Native
American tribes, South American ethnic people, and Australian aborigines still retain the
playing of their indigenous music, there have been influences from the western world
incorporated into some of the music. Features of the sound of music have changed over the
decades. The sound has definitely gotten louder. The pace and rhythm in many cases have
become faster, possibly reflecting the fast pace of the modern world that we live in today.
However the feature of music bounciness (how spiky and energetic the music feels) has
become less today when compared with the music of the1980s. Techno and reggae music are
typical examples of what is known as bouncy music.
The sound of music has become more complex over history mainly due to the
increased migration of people and their exposure to new elements. Today much of music has
sounds with elements from more than one region. The increasing tendency for music artists to
collaborate today is another reason we see more complexity and diversity in how music
sounds. https://sonicspace.org/ Question 46: Which of the following could serve as the best
title for the passage? A. Why People Changed the Sound of Music?
B. Music: Now and Then
C. The Role of Music in Indigenous Cultures
D. Nature and Music
Question 47: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. musical instruments
B. developing and playing many musical instruments together
C. the changing sound of the music
D. the changing lyrics of songs
Question 48: The word “retain” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by __________.
A. preserve B. reduce C. exchange D. combine
Question 49: According to the passage, the following features of music have increased
over years, EXCEPT __________.
A. the sound volume B. the pace and rhythm
C. the connection to nature D. the sound’s complexity and diversity Question
50: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Western music has more influence on indigenous music than others.
B. The fast pace of life has caused the loss of connection to nature.
C. Almost every feature of music sounds changed when the cultures altered.
D. Modern music sounds contain different regional elements due to the collaboration of
music artists.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51.How many oranges do you want?
How many oranges would ……………………………?
Question 52.How much is a bowl of noodles?
How much does ………………………….................................................?
Question 53.There are many students in our class.
Our class ……………………………..........................................................
Question 54.Why don’t we sing an English song?
What about …………………………………………………………?
Question 55.My sister cycles to the supermarket.
My sister goes ………………………………………………………
Question 56. The mother made her daughter go to bed in time.
The little girl _____________________________________________________________.
Question 57. Lucy can’t go to school today because she is ill.
If Lucy _________________________________________________________________.
Question 58. My sister started to learn English when she was four years old.
My sister has ____________________________________________________________.
Question 59. The car was so expensive that my father didn’t buy it.
The car was too _____________________________________________________.
Question 60. My father is the most capable man in the world.
No other __________________________________________________________.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 11
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mistake B. village C. client D. picture
Question 2: A. finds B. stays C. brings D. smarts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. network B. interest C. decide D. mountain
Question 4: A. condition B. generate C. encourage D. remember
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Winning an incredible prize from the state lottery was a turning point in my life,
which I have never imagined before.
A. unbelievable B. unpopular C. unacceptable D. unclear
Question 6: I really wanted to get my homework done early today, but my favorite TV show
proved to be a serious distraction.
A. attention B. interruption C. depression D. combination
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: It’s pretty tough to find a job when you don’t have any previous experience.
A. difficult B. normal C. simple D. common
Question 8: The future of the project is up in the air as the management has failed to finalize
the budget.
A. undecided B. certain C. distant D. particular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 9: Marry and John are talking about drinking water at night.
- Marry: “I don’t think we should drink too much water at night “
- John: “___________. This can interrupt your sleep cycle and negatively impact heart
health.”
A. You can say it again B. I have no idea
C. I’m afraid that I can’t agree with you D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 10: Linda is talking to Brown after knowing the results. Linda passed her test with
flying colours.
- Brown: “Sincere congratulations on your hard-earned success.”
- Linda: “________________”
A. Not at all. B. Thank you.
C. Make yourself at home. D. There’s no doubt about it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Question 11: Although the child was scolded by his parents at home, he did not display any
__________ change at school.
A. noticeable B. notify C. notice D. notification
Question 12: I couldn’t have a nice conversation with him because his girlfriend kept on
_____________ when we were talking to each other.
A. turning up B. taking off C. breaking up D. cutting in Question
13: Nobody understood what was going on, ____________?
A. didn’t they B. did them C. did they D. do them
Question 14: Because the little boy would not stop playing with matches, it was
___________ that he would burn himself.
A. inevitable B. incompatible C. intractable D. incomparable
Question 15: ____________ my mother knew of my hatred for green beans, she still made
me eat them when I was a child.
A. Because B. Therefore C. Although D. Because of
Question 16: He has lost weight since he _____________ eating chocolate bars.
A. was stopping B. stopped C. would stop D. will stop
Question 17: He received a pat on the _________ from his boss from the new project that he
had done.
A. back B. hand C. hair D. mind
Question 18: It is hard to _____________ the difference between the two versions of this
phone.
A. make B. hold C. tell D. keep
Question 19: If a doctor does not abide _______________ the laws of his profession, he may
lose the right to practice medicine.
A. at B. to C. on D. by
Question 20: We’ll give a reward to anyone _____________ the police with information
about the missing child.
A. to provide B. providing C. provided D. provides
Question 21: When I researched into the singer Rihanna’s hometown of Saint Michael
Parish, I learned that her _____________ was Barbadian.
A. citizenship B. partnership C. nationality D. ethnicity
Question 22: Between his son and his daughter, his daughter is ______________ better
athlete.
A. the B. an C. D. a
Question 23: The dolphin injured itself while struggling ____________ out of the
fisherman’s net.
A. to get B. getting C. to getting D. get Question
24: ______wants to marry too early.
A. Neither the man nor the woman B. Whether the man or the woman
C. Both the man and the woman D. Not only the man but also the women Question
25: You ___________ take this course if you know English grammar well.
A. don’t need take B. won’t need to take C. needn’t to take D. won’t need
take
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs to correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: We usually walk to work but sometimes takes a cab when it is raining.
A B C D
Question 27: This book contains stories which are moving, enjoyable, and surprise.
A B C D
Question 28: No matter how hard he has tried to learn English, he is rubbishy at it.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 29: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 30: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Question 31: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
Question 33: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word
or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
There have never been so (34)___________ people living in cities in quake zones
because the worse the damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss
of life, property, and maybe an entire city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not
exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently, quakes seemed to occur at random. In
Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted. At the Earthquake
Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(35)__________ - pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki
Kato, adds that laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If
this is true, predictions can be made based on the detection of slips. Research in the U.S. may
support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about every 22 years on the
San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up equipment to
record activity to look for warning signs. (36)________ an earthquake hit again, it was years
of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they
reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something. Data from two quakes
reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’ - places (37)_____ the plates widened—before
the fault line broke and the quakes occurred. We are learning more about these destructive
events every day. In the future we may be able to track earthquakes and design an
earlywarning system. So if the next great earthquake does (38)_______ in Tokai, about 100
miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance
warning.
Question 34: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 35: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 36: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 37: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 38: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
What is the difference between friendship and love? This question has always been in
the minds of people for centuries. Though a definite answer cannot be given for this question,
one can come across some differences between the two.
When love can be termed as a sacrifice, friendship can be termed as a trust. Love is a
feeling that is uncontrollable, and a feeling which one has for another individual. On the other
hand, friendship is quite different from love in this aspect.
Love is a feeling between two individuals, and most of the time when they say “She/
he is my one and only” and in this case only two individuals are involved. But there are times
people may fall in love with more than one individual, but it is considered morally wrong
when you already have a partner or a boy/girlfriend. On the contrary, friendship involves
more individuals without any guilty feelings involved. One can have many friends, but most
of the time an individual can only have one person to love. You can love your family and
that’s another topic for discussion.
In love, there is great attachment for the other. Most of the time an individual gets
strong feeling of hurt if his loved one is in pain or hurt. This attachment may not be strong in
friendship. Regarding the emotions, individuals in love will experience a faster heartbeat
when they meet their loved one. This is not so when friends meet. There is no way that one
will lie awake and think of his friends for a whole night, but lovers will have sleepless nights,
and dream about their lovers. The lovers even sleep and wake up with the thoughts of his or
her lover.
Another difference that can be seen is that in love, some physical element is also
involved between individuals. On the other hand, there is no such physical element involved
in friendship.
(Adapted from http://www.differencebetween.net/)
Question 39: Which can be the title of the passage?
A. Love or Friendship
B. Distinction between Love and Friendship
C. Should We Love Our Friends?
D. The Connection between Love and Friendship
Question 40: According to the passage, what is TRUE about friendship?
A. People often sacrifice for their friends.
B. The feeling of friendship is uncontrollable.
C. People can have more than one friend at the same time.
D. Not all people trust their friends.
Question 41: The word “guilty” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ashamed B. criminal C. regretful D. unacceptable
Question 42: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to ____________.
A. a faster heartbeat B. the emotions
C. their loved one D. strong feeling of hurt
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about love and friendship mentioned in the
passage?
A. People always have a greater attachment for the one they love.
B. Lovers often involve physical element which doesn’t happen in friendship.
C. People are blameworthy if they have many loved ones simultaneously.
D. People may have a sleepless night to think of their friends.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
There has always been a problem with teachers being from a different generation to
their pupils, particularly older educators. But the dominance of digital technology has spread
that generation gap even wider, as young people become conversant with mobile digital
devices, games and social media that didn’t exist when their teachers were growing up.
Teachers now face pupils using devices and online systems that they don’t use themselves,
and don’t really understand either. The generation gap is more prevalent than ever, but
teachers can bridge that gap if they receive the right guidance with appropriate technology.
Some schools and teachers have particular trouble grasping the role of social media
and mobile devices in teenage life. They consider Facebook a threat and warn parents against
it at parent-teacher evenings, without realizing that preventing teenagers from using social
media like this, or messaging apps such as Snapchat and Instagram, is nearly impossible.
Online social media and network gaming are now such an integral part of teenage behavior
that any attempt to prize the mobile devices out of the hands of young people is likely to
widen the generation gap rather than narrow it.
The generation gap in education isn’t just between pupils and teachers – it exists
within the staffroom, too. A teaching career can span more than 40 years, and those towards
the end of their working life will not have grown up with digital technology, whereas teaching
staff in their 20s and 30s could well be “digital natives”.
Keeping up with the latest online trend is like a dog chasing its tail; every time you
think you’ve caught up, kids move on. However, it’s not beneficial to get fixated on how
young people are using social networks that are, in the case of Snapchat, hard for the older
generation to understand. The key factor to consider is that today’s school students now take
for granted that a lot of their communication with their peers will be online, and
predominantly using smartphones and other mobile devices. Young people expect their
educational experience to be similarly interactive, and partially delivered via these kinds of
devices.
(Adapted from https://www.alphr.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. How to Bridge the Generation Gap Between Teachers and Students
B. The Technology Problems of Older Teachers C. What Causes
Difficulties for Teachers Nowadays?
D. The Generation Gap in Education
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _____________.
A. teachers B. pupils C. devices D. online systems
Question 46: The word “bridge” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. form B. connect C. reduce D. build
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some teachers and schools don’t want their children to use social networks.
B. It’s unlikely to stop students from using social media.
C. Separating teenagers from the mobile devices can help to narrow the generation gap.
D. Social media and network gaming become an important part of the behavior of
teenagers.
Question 48: The generation gap exists even in the staffroom mostly because
______________.
A. the teaching career span is too long to adapt new technology.
B. the older teachers are not as familiar with digital technology as the younger.
C. many young teachers prefer using digital devices to operating others.
D. the older teachers are less unaffected by the development of technology than the younger.
Question 49: The phrase “a dog chasing its tail” in the last paragraph most probably means
_________.
A. keeping on doing something futile B. moving around a circle
C. doing harm to yourself D. getting tired of your behavior
Question 50: According to the last paragraph, what is the main factor to consider in the
generation gap between teachers and students?
A. It’s hard for the older generation to understand the social networks used by the young.
B. Students get accustomed to communicating with their friends online by smartphones and
mobile devices.
C. Teachers should use these social networks to provide education.
D. Students are competing with the latest online trend with their peers.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. The country is great.
It’s ……………………………………………………………….
Question 52. The girls are beautiful.
They’re …………………………………………………..
Question 53. The Amazon River is longer than the Mekong River.
The Mekong River………………………………………………….
Question 54. Minh is shorter than Nam.
Nam is ……………………………………………………..
Question 55. Miss White is younger than Mrs Green.
Mrs Green is …………………………………………………………
Question 56. People believe that many more people will die of skin cancer in the next 10
years.
Many more people _______________________________________________________.
Question 57. I’m interested in the information about history.
I find ____________________________________________________________.
Question 58. The comedy was so terrible that we didn’t want to see it again.
It _____________________________________________________________________.
Question 59. “Whom will you go to see Avengers: Endgame with next week, Julie?”, Jack
said.
Jack asked ________________________________________________________.
Question 60. My written English is better than my spoken English.
I am _____________________________________________________________.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 12
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cleaned B. opened C. learned D. leaned
Question 2: A. purpose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. conserve B. concern C. confirm D. conquer
Question 4: A. horizon B. additive C. interview D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: It was ___________ most beautiful morning, so we decided to make for Sam
Son beach.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 6: Although travelling by air is quite expensive, its beauty consists _______ its
speed and ease.
A. in B. of C. for D. at
Question 7: The dogs and their ____________ owners stood waiting to see who would be
crowned winner of the pet show.
A. respected B. respectable C. respectful D. respective
Question 8: Ask a friend to recommend a doctor or, ____________that, ask for a list in your
local library.
A. except B. failing C. for all of D. according to
Question 9: We can’t rely on Peter because he always looks for any excuse he can
__________ work.
A. to blow off B. put off C. set back D. call off
Question 10: His latest movie has won high praise from the critics but I don’t think it’s
_______ good.
A. much B. such C. too D. that
Question 11: The reason is ________, he estimated how much the population of London
would increase in the next 100 years.
A. why when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
B. that Bazalgette designed the tunnels
C. what Bazalgette designed the tunnels
D. that when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
Question 12: Nobody thought that he could achieve success, _______________?
A. could he B. didn’t they C. did they D. couldn’t he
Question 13: I didn’t even have time to complete all homework assignments, ____________
hang out with my friends.
A. now that B. in case C. instead of D. let alone
Question 14: If I _____________ younger, I ________ in the contest held last week.
A. were/would participate B. had been/would have participated
C. were/would have participated D. had been /would participate
Question 15: The woman wasn’t sure where she __________the rare illness since no one else
in her family had the disease.
A. contracted B. distracted C. extracted D. attracted
Question 16: Apart from entertaining, art may be used as a _____________for propaganda.
A. means B. vehicle C. method D. way
Question 17: Because I can’t handle all my customer orders by telephone, I need to hire an
engineer to ____________ an app for order processing.
A. deduce B. define C. devise D. deduct
Question 18: If you feel like you are catching a cold, try to nip it in the ___________ so that
it does not cause you to miss work.
A. bush B. bulk C. bud D. bunch
Question 19: Harry went for a picnic with her friends after she ____________ her work.
A. has finished B. would have finished C. had finished D. will finish
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs to correction on each of the following questions.
Question 20: My father was given a delicious Spanish white wine by a friend of him who
had just returned from Spain. A B C D
Question 21: Over a half of all accidents happens in the home because people aren’t aware of
potential dangers. A B C D
Question 22: I find it difficult to understand the full importance of this statement, so I ask my
brother for his help. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: I need an assistant - I’m very busy with work.
A. am up to my eyes B. am up to my ears C. have my hands full D. am up
to my neck
Question 24: Although I have received the money from the bank, I am still dubious about
the currency because of the unusual color of the bills.
A. doubtful B. conscious C. suspicious D. accurate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When the captain realized his efforts to steer his ship were futile, he
commanded his officers to release the lifeboats.
A. pointless B. priceless C. worthwhile D. trustworthy
Question 26: I don’t think we should kick the can down the road and let our next
generation solve the global warming problem.
A.
determine to solve a problem B. delay dealing with a problem
C. avoid dealing with a problem D. try in vain to address a problem
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 27: Leon and Drake are talking about drinking water.
- Leon: “As far as I know, drinking warm water is really good for our health”
- Drake “ ________________ because warm water helps to get rid of harmful toxins from your
body and also works to prevent skin issues like acne.”
A. You must say that again B. I’d say the exact opposite.
C. I have to side with you on this one D. That’s not always true.
Question 28: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
– “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 29: Stella said
to me: “My company was established in 2000”. A. Stella told to me that her company
was established in 2000.
B. Stella told me that her company had been established in 2000.
C. Stella said me that her company was established in 2000.
D. Stella said her company was established in 2000.
Question 30: I’m pretty sure the burglar got in through the kitchen window.
A. The burglar must be got in through the kitchen window.
B. The burglar should have got in through the kitchen window.
C. The burglar must have got in through the kitchen window.
D. The burglar could have got in through the kitchen window.
Question 31: As students get closer to their exams, they become more nervous.
A. The closer students get to their exams, the more nervous they become.
B. The closer students get to their exams, they become more nervous.
C. The students get closer to their exams, the nervous they become more.
D. The students get to their exams closer, the nervous they become more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources
of information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of
information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
C. Not only some websites are really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable sources
of information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him
because she couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal to his girlfriend’s trust, she would have
broken up with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have
broken up with him.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Famously being one of Vietnam’s seven UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the Imperial
City of Hue has long been a (34)____________attraction for tourists visiting a hidden charm of
Vietnam. The Imperial City of Hue was actually a walled fortress and palace belonged to the
ancient city of Hue (35)__________ was a capital city of the Nguyen Dynasty for 140 years
date back from 1805 until 1945.
The Imperial City of Hue has a circumference of 10 kilometers with the height of 6.6
meters and 21 meters thick with forts being meanderingly arranged, accompanied by cannons,
artilleries and ammunitions. (36)________the fortress was built solely by soil, only to be
replaced by bricks afterward. Surrounding the city is the complicated canal system served not
only as a protection but also as a waterway with nearly seven kilometers.
There are total of ten main majestic gates (37) _______to the Imperial City of Hue,
which can be divided into two main parts excluding houses and mansions: The Citadel and The
Forbidden City. The former served to protect the important palaces inside while the
(38)_________was where the emperor and the royal family stayed as well as the court’s
workplace. All the typically traditional Eastern architectures including majestic palaces, tombs
and museums stand accordantly together to make an utmost amusing attraction right in the
heart of Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://www.vietnamonline.com/)
Question 34: A. must-have B. must-read C. must-see D. must-do
Question 35: A. what B. where C. that D. who
Question 36: A. At first B. At least C. At most D. At that
Question 37: A. lead B. leading C. led D. having led
Question 38: A. later B. late C. lately D. latter
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about threein-
ten say they know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban or
suburban areas to say they know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily
interact with their neighbors more than their counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the
case in suburban and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have a
neighbor they would trust with a key to their home, compared with about half in urban areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a
neighbor they would trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that
they have lived in their community for less than one year, 34% say they would be comfortable
with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those who have lived in their
community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five years say
the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they would be
comfortable with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than
those in cities and suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity.
Suburbanites are somewhat more likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their
neighbors are the same social class as they are, while relatively few across community types
say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 39: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural areas
A.
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas
wouldn’t have enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 41: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 42: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________. A.
experience their race or ethnicity at the same time A.
experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 43: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and
suburban
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their
home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors. Read
the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions from 44 to 50.
The name is a bit of a mouthful, but cultural appropriation happens when a dominant
culture takes things from another culture that is experiencing oppression. Cultural exchange is
different from cultural appropriation. Things like tea, gunpowder and pasta have been shared
between different cultures throughout history. These ‘borrowings’ aren’t the same as cultural
appropriation, because they don’t involve power. When dominant groups take from an
oppressed group, we’re dealing with appropriation, not cultural exchange. Cultural
appropriation is also very different from assimilation. ‘Assimilation’ describes what happens
when minority cultures are forced to adopt features from a dominant culture in order to fit in.
When we look at a culture that’s experiencing oppression, it’s often a result of
colonization, where a dominant group has claimed ownership of the land and its people.
When the dominant group continues to steal aspects of the non-dominant culture, it continues
the economic oppression and disadvantage of that culture. In Australia, there are cases where
white Australian businesses have stolen Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander artworks for use
on T-shirts and souvenirs. This allows the dominant culture to make money from the
nondominant culture, without benefiting the original artists.
Cultural appropriation also has a nasty habit of giving the dominant group credit for
aspects of a culture that they have taken, reinforcing the power imbalance between the two
groups. For example, Kylie Jenner was credited with starting an ‘edgy’ new hair trend, while
black actress Zendaya faced criticism for wearing her hair the same way. What’s interesting
about this, is that Zendaya’s natural hair was seen as a negative. But Kylie Jenner, a person
with no ties to black culture, was given credit for taking something that wasn’t hers.
Cultural appropriation creates stereotypes. The Native American chief, the Japanese
geisha or the Arab sheikh can be examples of stereotypes that pop up during Halloween. When
people from dominant cultures ‘dress up’ like this, it reduces something of cultural
significance to a costume just so that the dominant group can have ‘a bit of fun’. It also keeps
these kinds of stereotypes going.
There are times when it’s encouraged to try something from a different culture. Being
invited to an Indian wedding where the hosts are cool with you wearing traditional clothing is
not cultural appropriation.
(Source: https://au.reachout.com/) Question 44: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Cross-cultural exchange. B. Cultural exploitation.
C. Cultural appreciation. D. Cultural appropriation.
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what can be suggested about cultural exchange,
cultural appropriation and assimilation?
A. Cultural exchange and assimilation are the subcategories of cultural appropriation.
B. Cultural exchange happens when different cultures come together on an equal footing.
C. The three practices involve dominant cultures taking some features from minority ones.
D. Cultural assimilation is practiced to ensure survival and to avoid discrimination.
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. group B. ownership C. land D. oppression
Question 47: The word “ties” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. strings B. friendships C. ropes D. connections
Question 48: According to the passage, which is NOT true about cultural appropriation?
A. It does not give people credit for their own culture.
B. It continues the oppression of the non-dominant culture.
C. It is the savior of a cultural product that has faded away.
D. It adds to stereotypes faced by non-dominant cultures.
Question 49: Which statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Cultural appreciation is the forceful adoption of certain elements from another culture.
B. Being invited to take part by people from that culture is not cultural appropriation.
C. A non-dominant culture is the most visible and accepted culture within a society.
D. Oppression is just one-on-one behavior and not a form of structural discrimination.
Question 50: The word “cool” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. okay B. keen C. fresh D. quiet
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. There is a lot of rain in Viet Nam.
Viet Nam ……………………………………………………………..
Question 52. My room is smaller than your room.
Your room …………………………………………………………..
Question 53. No house on the street is older than this house.
This house ……………………………………………………
Question 54. Hang is the fattest girl in my class.
No girl …………………………………………………….
Question 55.The Red River is 1,200 kilometers long.The Nile River is 6,437 kilometers long
The Nile River is much ……………………………………………….
Question 56. Sports and games are very important in children's lives.
Sports and games play___________________________________________
Question 57. My father thinks Brazill has a football team better than any other football teams
in the world.
My father thinks Brazil has _______________________________________
Question 58. New York is more exciting than any other cities in the world.
New York is __________________________________________________
Question 59. Nha Trang attracts lots of tourists. It has clean and beautiful beaches.
A.
Because ________________________________________________________
Question 60. We will cycle to school every day. We will keep fitter.
If ….......................................................................................................
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 13
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. loves B. likes C. hates D. makes
Question 2: A. device B. derive C. delete D. decent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from
the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. oceanic B. physician C. determine D. objective
Question 4: A. comment B. commerce C. commit D. common
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: She died of liver cancer on _________ Tuesday after _________18-month battle
against it.
A. a – an B. no article – a C. a – a D. no article - no article
Question 6: We hope the problem can be ___________ by getting the two sides together to
discuss it.
A. cleared out B. cleared up C. cleared off D. cleared away
Question 7: I have to complete all homework assignments, _______________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t I C. do I D. have I
Question 8: There are many doubts about the quality of the school. ______________, some
families are enrolling their children to it.
A. As yet B. Even so C. Even as D. As if
Question 9: As a teacher, I am always eager to find ways to ________ a love of learning in my
students.
A. institute B. inscribe C. instill D. inspect
Question 10: When his father passed away, he received an _________ amount of money from
his estate.
appreciative B. appreciation C. appreciate D. appreciable
Question 11: If the plane tickets _____________ a little cheaper, my parents ____________
coming to visit me last month.
A. were/would consider B. had been/would consider
C. were/would have considered D. had been/would have considered Question
12: Her story ____________ really moved me a lot.
A. of what had happened throughout her life B. of which had happened throughout her
life
C. what had happened throughout her life D. had happened throughout her life
Question 13: The working conditions in their factories ________ dramatically during the last
few months.
A. improved B. have improved C. was improved D. have been improved
Question 14: Teachers at this school are encouraged to ___________ themselves of the full
range of educational facilities.
A. accord B. avert C. avail D. apply
Question 15: My husband seemed indifferent _______ the food on his plate and ate it without
comment.
A. for B. at C. to D. from
Question 16: Supporters at the event ___________ students from a local school, as well as
their parents.
A. being included B. having included C. included D. including
Question 17: Mutual understanding is very important because it allows all parties ________ to
learn about one another.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. involve
Question 18: My aunt has a parking ________ which allows her to park on the street outside
her house.
A. allowance B. permission C. permit D. acceptance
Question 19: She doesn’t have time for idle talk, so you should cut to the ____ and tell her
what you want.
A. point B. chase C. race D. side
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: It
gave my brother a kick to see his own play on television.
A. thrust B. threat C. thrill D. thread
Question 21: We had a quarrel about money, but we decided to clear the air by sitting
together and discussing things frankly. A. make a terrible mess at trivial things
B. explain everything that someone had understood
C. remove all dirty and untidy things
D. get rid of all doubts and negative feelings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Rapid economic growth is the most concrete evidence of the overall success of
South-South cooperation in Asia.
A. abnormal B. discrete C. conscious D. abstract
Question 23: My boss is convinced that we will find a satisfactory solution to the problem.
A. irrational B. reasonable C. affordable D. irrelevant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Brian and Robert are discussing the topic of nutrition.
- Brian: “People should eat five daily portions of fruit and vegetables, as far as I’m
concerned.”
- Robert “ ________________ since fruit and vegetables are packed with essential
vitamins, minerals, and fiber”
A. I shouldn’t agree with you more B. That’s just what I am thinking.
C. I’m not so sure about that. D. I must take issue with you on that.
Question 25: Maria is thanking Daniel for giving her a lift home.
Maria: “Thanks for taking me to my house.”
Daniel: “You’re welcome. ________________ now that I have a car.”
A. It’s very kind of you to say so B. There’s a first time for everything
C. There’s no doubt about it D. It’s the least I could do
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
to correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Succeeding in getting a steady job, you need to take advantage of opportunities
and follow your dreams. A B C D
A.
Question 27: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people’s
attitudes to
A B C
the disabled are quite good.
D
Question 28: I know beyond a shade of a doubt that she will decide to stand as a candidate in
the local
A B C
election. D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet. Question 31: Her essay is
more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers. Mark
the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My father has many new clothes. However, he always wears his old coat.
A. However old his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
B. As old as his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
C. However many new clothes he has, my father always wears his old coat.
D. Many clothes as he has worn, my father always wears his old coat.
Question 33: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost
all matches with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with an
unacceptable result.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
How can solar cells become (34)__________ enough to be commercially viable?
There are, of course, a huge range of ongoing efforts to address this problem. Among the most recent
approaches to this problem comes from a team of physicists and engineers at MIT (35)_____ is using
computer modeling and advanced chip-manufacturing techniques.
In December of 2008, researchers from the Research Laboratory of Electronics, and the departments
of materials science and engineering and physics applied an antireflection coating to the front of
ultrathin silicon films, plus a novel combination of multi-layered reflective coatings and a tightly
spaced array of lines to the backs of the films. The result is photovoltaic cells with as much as 50
(36)______ more electrical output.
The carefully designed layers deposited on the back of the cell cause light to (37) _________ around
longer inside the silicon layer, giving it more time to deposit its energy and produce an electric current.
The work has attracted interest from industry for (38) _______ranging from generating remote off-
grid electricity to dedicated clean power.
(Source: https://engineering.mit.edu/)
Question 34: A. cost-efficient B. cost-benefit C. cost-conscious D. cost-free
Question 35: A. whom B. whose C. that D. what
Question 36: A. percentage B. percent C. proportion D. rate
Question 37: A. burst B. reflect C. bounce D. pour
Question 38: A. applications B. appliances C. applicants D. applicability Read the
following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
Contrary to the perception that small talk is inconsequential, researchers have found that chit-chat
actually has many profound benefits. “As we broke down daily interaction, we realized our most
meaningful interactions are not when we’re talking about actual work. It’s when we’re greeting
administrative staff, or the friendly gabbing before a meeting,” said Jessica R. Methot of Rutgers
University and University of Exeter.
To measure the impact of small talk on employee well-being, the researchers surveyed 151 full-time
employees working at traditional 9 to 5 jobs outside the home. After controlling for participants’
baseline engagement for small talk, the researchers queried about levels of small talk throughout the
day, and asked respondents to rate their emotions, work productivity, and overall engagement.
“It didn’t matter if you were an introvert whose average amount of small talk was lower than what it
is for an extrovert, small talk enhanced employees’ daily positive social emotions and contributed to
employees feeling connected,” Methot said. Methot was quick to explain what small talk is not. It is
not long-winded ranting about an ineffective supervisor. It is not a sensitive discussion about
someone’s personal life. “It is surface level. It is ‘Weather looks great this weekend, any plans?’
Surface level is what gives it its benefits.”
Because small talk builds trust and connections, it also can lead to creative ideas and foster
inclusiveness. “Culturally, there are differences in the content and cadence of small talk, which can
create a barrier for new employees to engage with colleagues. In this age of greater awareness about
diversity and inclusion, small talk can be an asset to a company. It can be a road to more inclusion by
helping socialize and embed employees into the organizational culture.” Methot said.
(Source: https://journals.aom.org/) Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Office chit-chat. B. Sober socializing. C. Workplace guide. D. Gossipmongers.
Question 40: The word “inconsequential” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. infinitesimal B. intangible C. insignificant D. irrelevant
Question 41: Which benefit of small talk in the workplace is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Small talk boosts employees’ ability to multitask.
B. Small talk contributes to employees’ positive emotions.
C. Small talk inspires new thoughts and ideas.
D. Small talk fosters good workplace citizenship.
Question 42: Which of the following sentences is NOT an example of small talk?
A. “Can you believe all of this rain we’ve been having?”
A.
B. “It looks like Steve is getting the promotion I wanted.”
C. “Did you hear about that fire on Fourth Street?” D. “You look like you could really use a
cup of coffee.”
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. trust B. connection C. talk D. idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 44 to 50.
In a paper published in Science Advances, an international team of researchers have examined traits
of marine megafauna species to better understand the potential ecological consequences of their
extinction under different future scenarios.
Defined as the largest animals in the oceans, with a body mass that exceeds 45kg, examples include
sharks, whales, seals and sea turtles. These species serve key roles in ecosystems, including the
consumption of large amounts of biomass, transporting nutrients across habitats, connecting ocean
ecosystems, and physically modifying habitats. Traits, such as how large they are, what they eat, and
how far they move, determine species’ ecological functions. As a result, measuring the diversity of
traits allows scientists to quantify the contributions of marine megafauna to ecosystems and assess the
potential consequences of their extinction.
The team of researchers – led by Swansea University’s Dr Catalina Pimiento – first compiled a
species-level trait dataset for all known marine megafauna to understand the extent of ecological
functions they perform in marine systems. Then, after simulating future extinction scenarios and
quantifying the potential impact of species loss on functional diversity, they introduced a new index
(FUSE) to inform conservation priorities.
The results showed a diverse range of functional traits held by marine megafauna, as well as how the
current extinction crisis might affect their functional diversity. If current trajectories are maintained, in
the next 100 years we could lose, on average, 18% of marine megafauna species, which will translate
in the loss of 11% of the extent of ecological functions. Nevertheless, if all currently threatened
species were to go extinct, we could lose 40% of species and 48% of the extent of ecological
functions. Sharks are predicted to be the most affected, with losses of functional richness far beyond
those expected under random extinctions.
(Adapted from https://www.sciencedaily.com/) Question 44: Which of the following best serve as the
title of the passage?
A. How marine megafauna species’ extinction affects the ecology
B. The consequences of trait examination of marine megafauna species C. What should be
examined in the research in marine megafauna species?
D. The causes of marine megafauna species’ extinction
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the main roles of the largest animals in the
oceans, EXCEPT _______________.
A. consuming large amounts of biomass B. transporting nutrients across habitats
C. associating ocean ecosystems D. mentally modifying habitats Question 46: The word
“determine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. affect B. establish C. describe D. cover
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____________.
A. researchers B. ecological functions
C. marine systems D. future extinction scenarios
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what proportion of ecological functions could we lose if all
currently threatened species became extinct?
A. nearly one fifth B. more than one tenth C. two fifths D. nearly a half
Question 49: The word “translate” in paragraph 4 most probably means ___________.
A. interpret B. increase C. cause D. require
Question 50: As mentioned in the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The animals weighing about 45kg are classified as the largest ones in the ocean.
B. Measuring the extinction of marine megafauna allows scientists to know the consequences to
ecosystems.
C. The species guessed to be the most affected by random extinction are sharks.
D. The researchers now have known all the extent of ecological functions of marine megafauna.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. The bookstore is to the left of his house.
His house …………………………………………………………….
Question 52. The building is tall.
It’s .....……………………………………………………………….
Question 53. Tom drives to work every morning.
Tom travels …………………………………………………..
Question 54. How much meat do you want?
How much meat would ……………………………….
Question 55. This box has twenty packets of tea.
There …………………………………………………………..
Question 56. We will use recycled products. We will save money.
If ....................................................................................................
Question 57.She is interested in reading books..
She likes ………………............................
Question 58.We live near the school, but he doesn’t.
He lives ..................................................................................................................
Question 59.They will probably have robots to do their housework in the future.
They might................................................................................................................
Question 60.The West Lake is the largest one in Ha Noi.
No lake …………………...........................................
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 14
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laughs B. ploughs C. mouths D. clothes
Question 2: A. creative B. threaten C. breadwinner D. heavy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the
other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. industry B. register C. optimist D. courageous
Question 4: A. complain B. borrow C. listen D. injure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: The campaign is trying to get ___________ message across that parental education plays
an important role in ___________ development of a child.
A. no article-the B. a - no article C. the-the D. a-the
Question 6: My parents could hardly afford a house in the city, so we had to settle ____________ the
second best in my hometown.
A. down B. into C. for D. in
Question 7: She thought somebody had broken into her house last night, ____________?
A. hadn’t they B. had they C. didn’t she D. did she
A.
Question 8: She expects _________ compensation for all direct expenses _________ out of the
accident.
A. to be received-arising B. to receive-arising C. to be received- arisen D. to
receive-arisen
Question 9: His laziness caused the company to perform badly last quarter. ___________, his
attitude toward the boss has put his job in jeopardy.
A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. In addition to
Question 10: Governments need to provide a viable _________ to car travel in order to reduce
pollution in the country.
A. alternation B. alternative C. alternate D. alternating
Question 11: She’d rather you ____________ anyone that she’d lost her job as a hotel manager.
A. won’t tell B. wouldn’t have told C. didn’t tell D. don’t tell
Question 12: We have just launched our annual campaign to improve the ____ of women’s health
issues.
A. credential B. profile C. portrait D. background
Question 13: He won’t return home ____________________ given to him this morning. A.
until he had finished all the assignments B. until he has finished all the assignments
C. till he finishes all the assignments D. as soon as he has finished all the assignments
Question 14: Jack has an amazingly _____________ memory and can easily recall the capitals of
three hundred different countries in the world.
A. attentive B. reactive C. tentative D. retentive
Question 15: Providing a vaccine against the pandemic virus is a __________ issue.
A. scorching B. sweltering C. sizzling D. burning
Question 16: Research needs _____________ the impact of play on the rest of the child’s life.
A. to study B. to studying C. studying D. to be studied
Question 17: He talked about his incredible experience of being _____ space, looking down on the
Earth.
A. on B. above C. in D. at
Question 18: Students _____________ cheating in any exam will be disqualified from all their
exams.
A. who found B. founded C. found D. having founded
Question 19: It __________ my mind that it’s my friend’s birthday tomorrow and I haven’t got her a
present yet.
A. bore B. kept C. crossed D. bent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: If you have a food allergy, you should avoid any of the ingredients that can trigger an
attack.
A. set up B. set apart C. set back D. set off
Question 21: She gave up her job as a secretary last year and teaching is her bread and butter right
now.
A. likelihood B. livelihood C. selfhood D. manhood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: There are specific areas within the festival where children under ten years old are not
allowed.
A. peculiar B. ambiguous C. particular D. delicate
Question 23: By setting up a camera system to monitor his property, the homeowner hoped he
would catch trespassers or thieves.
A. supervise B. revise C. overlook D. oversee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Fred and Jerry are discussing the time they arrive at the airport.
- Fred: “We should arrive at the airport two hours before flight within the country.”
- Jerry: “______________. Traffic congestion is getting worse.”
A. I don’t think that’s a good idea
B. You took the words right out of my mouth
C. Mind your own business
D. I see your point, but I can’t completely agree with your solution
Question 25: Jack is asking Justine about the destination for his summer vacation.
- Jack: “Have you picked your next summer destination? Italy?”
- Justine: “ ______________. I’m going to Thailand.”
A. It’s up to you B. It’s on me
C. Not even close D. Not a moment too soon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Recent research in the field has concentrated on academic support rather than
integrated into
A B C
the wider social world of the university.
D
Question 27: She’s one of the most consistent student in her class, despite the many disadvantages
she
A B C D
has experienced in her life.
Question 28: Although she has fought a long battle against cancer, she always tries to keep a positive
A B C lookout on life.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: How long have you been living in Viet Nam?”, said Fiona to me. A. Fiona told me
that I had been living in Viet Nam for a long time.
B Fiona asked me how long had I been living in Viet Nam.
C Fiona asked me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
D Fiona told me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
Question 30: I’m annoyed that Charles forgot to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
A. Charles didn’t have to forget to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
B. Charles must have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
C. Charles should have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
D. Charles might have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
Question 31: As more people come to the relief camp, our work will probably get more difficult.
A. The more people come to the relief camp, the more difficult our work will probably get.
B. More and more people come to the relief camp, more and more difficult our work will probably
get.
C. The more people come to the relief camp, the difficult our work will probably get more.
D. Our work will probably get less difficult if there are more people come to the relief camp.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away. A. As was the
explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
A.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away. Question 33: The
process of global warming continues at its present rate. The polar bears will ultimately disappear.
A. But for the process of global warming continues at its present rate, the polar bears will
ultimately disappear.
B. Should the process of global warming continue at its present rate, the polar bears will ultimately
disappear.
C. Were not the process of global warming to continue at its present rate, the polar bears wouldn’t
ultimately disappear.
D. As long as the process of global warming didn’t continue at its present rate, the polar bears
wouldn’t ultimately disappear.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Financial independence is one of the many markers used to designate the crossover from childhood
into young adulthood, and it’s a (34)_________ most Americans (64%) think young adults should
reach by the time they are 22 years old, according to a new Pew Research Center study. But that’s not
the reality for most young adults who’ve achieved this age.
The share of young adults who could be considered “financially independent” from their parents by
their early 20s – an assessment based on their annual income – has gone down somewhat in recent
decades. Looking more broadly at young adults aged 18 to 29, the share who are financially
independent has been (35)__________stable in recent decades. Overall, young men are more likely
than young women to be financially independent, but this gender gap has diminished significantly.
The new survey findings underscore the extent to which many young adults are financially reliant on
their parents. (36) ________ young adults who have received financial help from their parents say at
least some of it was for recurring expenses. Six-in-ten say the money went toward household expenses
such as groceries or bills, and significant shares used it to pay their tuition, rent, or mortgage. Beyond
financial independence, the pace with (37)_________ young adults are reaching other markers of
adulthood has slowed significantly over the past several decades. Today’s young adults are staying in
school longer and are marrying and establishing their own households later than previous generations.
(38)_________, a growing share is living in their parents’ homes well into their 20s and even early
30s. Some of these changes are linked to economic challenges, while others may represent a
realignment of goals and priorities.
(Source: https://www.pewsocialtrends.org)
Question 34: A. springboard B. milepost C. breadwinner D. milestones Question
35: A. comparatively B. approximately C. considerably D. significantly
Question 36: A. Almost B. Mostly C. Most D. Most of
Question 37: A. where B. that C. which D. who
Question 38: A. In addition B. In contrast C. In short D. Instead
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 39 to 43.
Two-thirds of people in the world will be living in cities by 2050 and the boom will be concentrated
in India, China and Nigeria, according to United Nations estimates released on Wednesday. The
world’s rural population will peak in a few years then decline by 2050, according to the report by the
UN’s population division.
Tokyo is currently the world’s largest city with 37 million people, followed by Delhi with 29 million,
Shanghai with 26 million, and Mexico City and São Paulo, each with around 22 million inhabitants.
Cairo, Mumbai, Beijing and Dhaka all have close to 20 million inhabitants. However, Delhi will
overtake Tokyo in top spot by around 2028, the report said. At about the same time, India is expected
to surpass China as the country with the world’s largest total population.
Around 55% of the world population lives in urban areas today, increasing to 68% by 2050. India,
China and Nigeria will account for more than a third of that expansion. There will also be more
megacities. In 1990, there were just 10 megacities, classed as places with populations of 10 million or
more. There are now 33 megacities and by 2030, 43 megacities are projected, mostly in developing
countries.
However, a few cities in Japan and South Korea – for example, Nagasaki and Busan – have
experienced population decline since 2000. Several cities in Eastern Europe, such as in Poland,
Romania, Russia and Ukraine, have lost population since the turn of the century. However,
urbanization could be seen as positive, said John Wilmoth, director of the population division. “The
increasing concentration of people in cities provides a way of more economically providing services,”
he said. “We find that urban populations have better access to health care and education.” The
concentration of population may also help to minimize our environmental impact on the planet, he
said, and help cities design policies and practices to prepare for the influx.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/) Question 39: What topic does the passage mainly
discuss?
A. The population of cities in the future
B. The new increasing trend of rural population
C. The cities with the largest number of population
D. The future of populations in developing countries
Question 40: The word “overtake” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overdue B. outstrip C. keep up with D. come along
Question 41: The phrase “that expansion” in paragraph 3 refers to the increase of __________.
A. urban population B. world population C. urban areas D. rural areas Question
42 : According to the passage, some cities of the following countries have seen the downward trend in
population, EXCEPT __________.
A. Japan B. South Korea C. Russia D. India
Question 43: According to John Wilmoth, more people living in urban areas may reduce
__________.
A. the quality of health care and education
B. the people’s influence on the Earth’s environment
C. the results of cities’ policies and practices
D. the population of the whole country
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 44 to 50.
The earliest recorded festivities in honor of a new year’s arrival date back some 4,000 years to
ancient Babylon. For the Babylonians, the first new moon following the vernal equinox heralded the
start of a new year. Throughout antiquity, civilizations around the world developed increasingly
sophisticated calendars. In Egypt, for instance, the year began with the annual flooding of the Nile,
which coincided with the rising of the star Sirius. The first day of the Chinese new year, meanwhile,
occurred with the second new moon after the winter solstice.
The early Roman calendar consisted of 10 months and 304 days. Over the centuries, the calendar fell
out of sync with the sun, and in 46 B.C. the emperor Julius Caesar decided to solve the problem by
consulting with the most prominent astronomers and mathematicians of his time. He introduced the
Julian calendar, which closely resembles the more modern one that most countries around the world
use today.
In many countries, New Year’s celebrations begin on the evening of December 31—New Year’s Eve
—and continue into the early hours of January 1. In Spain and several other Spanish-speaking
countries, people bolt down a dozen grapes-symbolizing their hopes for the months ahead-right before
midnight. In many parts of the world, traditional New Year’s dishes feature legumes, which are
thought to resemble coins and herald future financial success; examples include lentils in Italy and
black-eyed peas in the southern United States. Because pigs represent progress and prosperity in some
cultures, pork appears on the New Year’s Eve table in Cuba, Austria, Hungary, Portugal and other
countries. Ring-shaped cakes and pastries, a sign that the year has come full circle, round out the feast
A.
in the Netherlands, Mexico, Greece and elsewhere. In Sweden and Norway, meanwhile, rice pudding
with an almond hidden inside is served on New Year’s Eve; it is said that whoever finds the nut can
expect 12 months of good fortune.
Other customs that are common worldwide include watching fireworks and singing songs to welcome
the new year, including the ever-popular “Auld Lang Syne” in many English-speaking countries. The
practice of making resolutions for the new year is thought to have first caught on among the ancient
Babylonians, who made promises in order to earn the favor of the gods and start the year off on the
right foot.
(Source: https://www.history.com/) Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. How January 1st becomes special. B. Best destinations to celebrate New Year.
C. New Year’s gatherings. D. New Year’s celebrations.
Question 45: The word “occurred” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. happened B. befell C. take place D. surfaced
Question 46: The word “one” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. astronomer B. calendar C. sun D. emperor
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, revelers often enjoy specific meals and snacks during New
Year because ________.
A. they are thought to bestow good luck for the coming year.
B. each represents the history and evolution of each country.
C. people want to enjoy their favorite foods in this special holiday.
D. they are on discount, thus cheaper, at this time of the year.
Question 48: The word “favor” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance B. permission C. partiality D. goodwill
Question 49: According to the passage, which is NOT mentioned as a common tradition during New
Year?
A. Watching fireworks displays. B. Eating special New Year’s foods.
C. Dropping a giant ball from the sky. D. Making resolutions for the next year. Question
50: Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Civilizations over the world have celebrated the start of a year for at least 4 millennia.
B. The New Year’s Day served an important political purpose for the ancient Babylonians.
C. Nations across the world typically pinned the first day of a year to an astronomical event.
D. To realign the Roman calendar with the sun, Julius Caesar introduced his Julian calendar.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. What is the price of the two notebooks?
How ……………………………………………………………
Question 52. Phong has a sister, Nhung.
Phong is ..……………………………………………………
Question 53. He goes to work at seven fifteen.
He goes to work at …………………………………………………….
Question 54. Does your school have over eight hundred students?
Are ……………………………………………………………………..
Question 55. That motorbike belongs to Mr.Trung.
That is………………………………………………………..
Question 56.They have lived here for fifteen years.
They began ……………….................................................
Question 57. She has long black hair.
Her hair . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ..
Question 58. It’s always cold in the winter.
It’s never . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
Question 59. Let’s visit Ha Long Bay first.
Why don’t we . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ?
Question 60. Hoa likes lemon-juice..
Lemon-juice . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 15
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. pleased B. laughed C. brushed D. liked
Question 2: A. divorce B. reliant C. promise D. idiot
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the
other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. deceive B. debate C. decade D. dessert
Question 4: A. recommend B. necessary C. represent D. university
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: My sister is working in _________ call center and getting paid by ________ hour.
A. a-no article B. the-an C. the-no article D. a-the
Question 6: I had told her that I would help her repair her light, but she __________ asking me about
it all the time.
A. kept on B. carried on C. kept at D. stuck to
Question 7: Neither of your parents speaks a foreign language, ___________?
A. do they B. don’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 8: When I saw the book on the bookshelf, I knew it was exactly what I __________ for.
A. have been looking B. was looking C. had been looking D. looked
Question 9: Strict regulations regarding the number of hours workers must work _________
improvements in efficiency at the factory
A. in lieu of B. in the interests of C. in regard to D. in harmony with
Question 10: Researchers are conducting a ___________ study of health problems of people living
in urban and rural areas.
A. comparability B. comparison C. comparable D. comparative
Question 11: The city’s housing authority is in discussion with Marry, ____________ land most of
the village is built.
A. in which B. on whose C. in whose D. on where
Question 12: Maria will have to experience a nine-month ___________of physiotherapy after she
broke her leg in an accident.
A. stage B. chapter C. course D. episode
Question 13: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, the worker __________ in a critical condition in
hospital last night.
A. won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. hadn’t been D. wouldn’t have been
Question 14: Governments have already taken drastic measures to ____________ minerals and
natural resources for our next generations.
A. handle B. remain C. husband D. shoulder
Question 15: In an interview, smart presentation and high level of fluency can ___________ the
balance in your favour.
A. keep B. bear C. strike D. tip
A.
Question 16: I couldn’t watch my favorite channel due to the noise made from the next room, so I
paused for a moment and then continued ___________.
A. to watch B. having watched C. watching D. to watching
Question 17: My family used to live and work _________ a farm, so I have quite a good knowledge
of farming.
A. on B. above C. in D. for
Question 18: The issue ________ at the conference was an extremely complicated one. A.
discussing B. to be discussed C. discussed D. having discussed Question 19: I have to
gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a copy of her CV on the
____________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Parents can entice their children to eat by promising them a reward after they have
finished eating.
A. incite B. discourage C. persuade D. satisfy
Question 21: The retailer said that their profits would be lower than those in the previous year, due
largely to an increase in clothing promotions.
A. brochures B. advancements C. encouragements D. advertisements Mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Recent economic conditions have intensified the pressure on industry to raise prices.
A. heightened B. exaggerated C. varied D. diminished
Question 23: She used to smoke two packets of cigarettes a day, but then she deciced to stop
smoking and quit cold turkey.
A. suddenly and completely B. abruptly and thoroughly
C. calmly and regretfully D. gradually and partially
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Harry and Meghan are discussing ways of learning English.
- Harry: “I think that if I learn enough vocabulary, I won’t have any trouble using English.” -
Meghan: “________. Not only should we focus on vocabulary, we should focus on grammar as well.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. It is not as simple as it seems
C. I don’t think so either D. There’s no doubt about that Question 25: Tung is asking
Tram about her favorite drink.
- Tung: “Do you want green tea or milk tea?”
- Tram: “______________.”
A. It’s up to me B. I really hate green tea
C. Oh, either. It doesn’t matter D. Mind your own business
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Locating in a tranquil setting, this hotel is ideally situated for the beach and nearby
fishing
A B C D village of Fuenigirolia.
Question 27: The advantages of travelling by public transport is that it’s convenient and cheap.
A B C D
Question 28: While it was not formally announced, there was an intimacy from the public that he
would
A B C win the election.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: “You’d better spent the weekend revising for your exam.”, said my mother to me.
A. My mother scolded me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
B. My mother advised me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
C. My mother suggested me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
D. My mother obliged me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
Question 30: In most developed countries, it is not necessary for people to boil water before they
drink it.
A. In most developed countries, people ought to boil water before they drink it.
B. In most developed countries, people don’t need to boil water before they drink it.
C. In most developed countries, people should have boiled water before they drink it.
D. In most developed countries, people mustn’t boil water before they drink it.
Question 31: It is more expensive to produce recycled glass than to manufacture new glass. A.
Manufacturing new glass is more expensive than producing recycled glass.
B. Producing recycled glass is less expensive than manufacturing new glass.
C. Manufacturing new glass is as expensive as producing recycled glass.
D. Manufacturing new glass is less expensive than producing recycled glass. Mark the letter A, B,
C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 32: The weather conditions became so dangerous. People were evacuated to safer parts of
the city.
A. So dangerous were the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of
the city.
B. Such dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of
the city.
C. So dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of
the city.
D. The weather conditions became such dangerous that people were evacuated to safer parts of the
city.
Question 33: She is the winner of the beauty pageant. That is the only reason people pay attention to
her.
A. Were she the winner of the beauty pageant, people would pay attention to her.
B. Should she be the winner of the beauty pageant, people will pay attention to her.
C. If it hadn’t been for the fact that she was the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t
have paid attention to her
D. If it weren’t for the fact that she is the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t pay
attention to her.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
URBANIZATION
Especially for those coming from rural areas, urban areas can create an overall better quality of life in
several ways. When urban areas become (34)_________ cities and towns, they become a society of
culture that can facilitate financial and educational growth.
With industrialization comes the creation of jobs. Usually making a shift from an agricultural
economy, industrialization paves the way for modern industries and will need more people to perform
various jobs. Rural jobs such as farming and mining may be
(35)_________, while urban employment opportunities - such as healthcare, business, and education
- will need a considerable amount of people with a variety of skills to fill many jobs.
A.
Modern technology provides for better city infrastructure. With modernization, cities can adapt to
cultural needs and provide support systems for future development.
(36)_________, modernization can make for a more sustainable city layout, with better
housing/businesses, market centers, and public transit systems. For example, in advanced cities,
mobile technology can assist large businesses in advanced mobility hubs for vehicles, (37)_________
significantly reduces the amount of traffic in growing cities.
The very presence of the Internet and IoT technology can expand communication to nearly any
corner of the globe, and has the capability to efficiently run (38)_________ and lighting for a whole
city. These are just a few illustrations of how technology and modernization can provide efficient
solutions to many facets of life, facilitating a better standard of living.
(Source: https://www.flashparking.com)
Question 34: A. bustling B. secluded C. adventurous D. shallow Question 35:
A. labor-intensity B. labor-intensively C. laborintension D. labor-intensive
Question 36: A. Subsequently B. Additionally C. Previously D. Differently
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. which
Question 38: A. utilities B. practicalities C. benefits D. possibilities
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 39 to 43
Flirting is a fundamental fixture in the sexual behavior repertoire, a time-honored way of signaling
interest and attraction. It is a kind of silent language spoken by men and women around the world. The
ways people communicate interest are so deeply rooted in human nature that the signals are
automatically understood by all: from ways of glancing to movements such as licking one’s lips, to
meet nature’s most basic command—find a good mate and multiply.
Flirting is not a trivial activity; it requires many skills: intellect, body language, creativity, empathy.
At its best, flirting can be high art, whether the flirter is vying for a soul mate, manipulating a potential
customer, or just being playful.
The process of flirting allows the signaling of interest to another in small increments, which is
especially appealing to a partner. Flirting is driven by emotions and instinct rather than logical
thought. Yet the gestures and movements used in flirting also provide reliable clues to a person’s
biological and psychological health.
Flirting has many parallels in the animal world, seen in the behavioral displays many animals engage
in to signal not only their availability but their suitability. For example, penguins search for small
pebbles to deliver to their partner of interest. Seahorses lock their tails together for a romantic swim.
Bower birds use leaves, grass, and twigs to construct elaborate nests.
Across the animal kingdom, such actions are closely tied to seasonal reproductive readiness and
signal reproductive fitness by one creature to another. Among humans, the repertoire of flirting
behaviors can be deployed at will and the exact meaning of any gesture is usually a matter of
interpretation.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/) Question 39: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Flirting B. Charisma C. Nonverbal cues D. Romantic feelings
Question 40: The word “vying” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. seeking B. challenging C. competing D. clashing
Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. nests’ B. pebbles’ C. penguins’ D. seahorses’
Question 42: According to the passage, what can be suggested about the flirting of animals? A.
Animal courtship varies tremendously between species.
B. Birds prefer subtle movements to lavish displays.
C. Aquatic animals do not flirt due to their breeding habits.
D. Animals cannot feel the excitement of flirting like humans.
Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. The behavior
of flirting is not restricted to humans.
B. Humans generally flirt with thinly veiled innuendoes.
C. All humans are equipped with the language of flirtation.
D. There is profound information transmitted in flirting.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 44 to 50.
Education technology (EdTech) is one of the few industries experiencing a sharp upward demand,
reinforcing its potential for profitability and the role it can play in societal wellbeing.
The global spreading of the coronavirus (COVID-19) has required drastic regulations in an effort to
contain it. One of the first compulsory measures taken by affected countries has been the closure of all
schools. The sudden adjustments of educational processes and altered dynamics between all involved
parties - schools, teachers, students and parents – are challenging familiar routines and threatening
crucial public objectives. Accordingly, the World Bank has commissioned its EdTech expertise team to
support policymakers worldwide in facilitating the continuation of basic education by adapting to
modern technologies.
EdTech’s practical value has hence rapidly improved from its pre-pandemic standing. Previously
considered an option for quality education and a supplement to traditional schooling systems, it is now
essential for preserving a progressing society.
Institutions previously working with digitalized education platforms have already benefitted during
the COVID-19 crisis from their contemporary approach. These schools smoothly mastered the sudden
transition to homeschooling, easing the adjustment process for students and parents. Their early
investment in equipment and software and in coaching of educational staff has allowed them to
continue their operations with minimal interruption.
Investors have long identified the windows of opportunity offered by technology in the classrooms.
However, its recent unprecedented expansion highlights even more its sustainable profitability. “So far
only 2 to 3% of the 5 trillion USD spent globally on education is digital. This, combined with
EdTech’s sudden vital role during COVID-19 and the significant differences seen up to now in its
geographical investments, intensify the previously unseized global growth opportunities”, says Dr.
Kirill Pyshkin, Fund Manager at Credit Suisse Asset Management.
(Adapted https://www.credit-suisse.com/) Question 44: What does the article mainly discuss?
A. The upward trend in demand of education technology.
B. The development of education technology in the pandemic.
C. The measures to develop education technology.
D. The benefits and role of education technology.
Question 45: The word “contain” in paragraph 2 most probably means _____________.
A. control B. overcome C. defeat D. treat
Question 46: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following are affected by the sudden adjustments of
educational processes, EXCEPT __________.
A. teachers B. students C. parents D. policymakers
Question 47: What does the word “their” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. platforms’ B. institutions’ C. the COVID-19 crisis’s D. schools’
Question 48: The word “coaching” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________. A.
hiring B. inviting C. training D. employing
Question 49: According to paragraph 4, what have those schools done to minimize education
interruption?
A. Early preparing for teaching facilities and human resources.
B. Smoothly transferring to teaching online.
C. Previously working with digitalized education platforms.
D. Rapidly improving from its pre-pandemic standing.
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? A. Investors are
uninterested in technology in the classrooms.
B. Education technology is a more and more profitable sector to invest.
C. People invest less money in education technology during COVID – 19.
A.
D. Students and parents need much time to adjust their learning at home.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. There are four people in her family.
Her family…………………………………………………………..……
Question 52. My house is behind the hotel.
The hotel ……………………………………………………….…………
Question 53. Does your class have twenty - five students?
Are …………………………………….…?
Question 54. He goes to work at seven fifteen.
He goes to work at a …………………………………..........…………
Question 55. My brother is driving to work now.
My brother goes ………………………………………........…………
Question 56. They intend to make this beach a clean and beautiful place again.
They plan……………………………………………………………………..
Question 57. The students started to collect old clothes for their charity programme last week.
The students have...…………………………………………………………..
Question 58. If I don't leave now, I'll miss my train.
Unless I leave …………………………………………………………………..
Question 59. Students at our school do a lot of outdoor activities.
Students at our school take………………………………………………………
Question 60. Phuc is the most intelligent student in the class.
No student ………………………………………………………………………
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 16
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. handed B. naked C. looked D. flooded
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the
other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. paddle B. cautious C. preface D. extend
Question 4: A. relevant B. survival C. potential D. tuition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Question 6: Our rule is that all the volunteers must ________ and must have a clean criminal record.
A. employ B. be employed
C. have employed D. have been employed
Question 7: What I lack __________ my life is an attentive boyfriend who always stands by me
through thick and thin.
A. for B. in C. of D. with
Question 8: You are advised to avoid __________ to the confidential information of the company if
you don’t want to have trouble.
A. access B. accessing C. to access D. to accessing
Question 9: __________ that 5,00 famous doctors from around the world were invited to attend.
A. It was at the conference B. It was the conference
C. It was in the conference D. It was on the conference
Question 10: To everyone’s surprise, __________ lion is a member of the cat family.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 11: I got caught in the traffic, __________ I would have been here sooner.
A. however B. although C. anyway D. otherwise
Question 12: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive C. expensive new
golden German D. golden German new expensive Question 13: By the time John read her letter,
she __________ the city.
A. will have left B. had left
C. will have been left D. had been leaving
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: Mary looks sad because she's just __________ with her boyfriend.
A. broken up B. broken out C. broken off D. broken into
Question 16: Tom really made a ______ when he was young. He bought a new car and a new house.
A. bomb B. money C. will D. bundles
Question 17: There has been a(n) __________ of interest in networking websites in many parts of
the world in the last ten years.
A. outbreak B. breakthrough C. explosion D. advent
Question 18: Laura's suggestion was turned down because it lacked convincing experimental
______.
A. help B. assistance C. aid D. support
Question 19: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had said, but I
didn't __________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Going to a highly prestigious university is a mixed blessing because I’ll have to study
far harder and can be under much pressure. A. something that is neither good nor bad
B. something that produces unexpected results
C. something that has both the pros and cons
D. something either negative or positive in nature
Question 21: It is the fifth largest supermarket chain in Vietnam where rigorous standards in the
food industry are applied.
A. thorough B. careful C. adverse D. strict
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The strict regulations governing the sale of weapons will come into force next week
and everyone must comply with them.
A. wear on B. wear away C. wear off D. wear out
Question 23: The fact that our team scored up to twenty points in the competition was a fair
achievement.
A. unjust B. poor C. partial D. unequal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Chi is enjoying her moment in the USA and she is talking to Tram on the phone.
- Chi: “Life is really simple, but we insist on making it complicated.”
- Tram: “__________. We all have many problems, pressures and tragedies to deal with.”
A. There’s no doubt about that B. I couldn’t agree with you more
A.
C. You can say that again D. I'm afraid, I can't agree with you
Question 25: - Minh: "It's true that she's going to leave the company." - Huong:
“__________.”
A. Not to my knowledge B. Not to my mind
C. I not think so D. Not by my knowledge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: We need to conduct a feasible study to check whether this alternative method can be
A B
suitable for development.
C D
Question 27: Laura decided to play safe and allow an extra ten minutes to leave the scene of the
accident. A B C D
Question 28: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people's attitudes
A B C
towards the disabled are quite good.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before. Question 30:
Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Question 31: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way. A. My
father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of
information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of information.
C. Not only are some websites really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable sources of
information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him because
she couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up
with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal of his girlfriend’s trust, she would have broken up
with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up
with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken
up with him.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
A hundred million tourists from China travel to all corners of the world every year. In 2013
alone, Chinese travellers spent over 100 billion dollars abroad. A booming economy and a growing
Chinese middle class allow more people to travel than ever before. Western countries have been
preparing for the mass influx of Chinese tourists for some time. They are also making it easier for
Chinese travellers to feel at home when on holiday.
France, (34) __________, has started hiring police officers from China to protect tourists in
Paris and other cities. Other countries, including the United States and Great Britain, are not ( 35)
__________ visas for Chinese travellers anymore. Chinese credit cards are becoming more and more
accepted in Europe and elsewhere. Hotels, airports and shopping malls around the world have been
hiring Mandarin speakers.
Shopping is the main reason for Chinese citizens to travel abroad. China is becoming the biggest
market for luxury goods. Louis Viton bags and Rolex watches are only two items ( 36) __________
Chinese are fond of, and they will do anything and go anywhere to get them. Luxury items are bought
as status symbols. Many Chinese buy them abroad because there are high taxes on (37) __________
goods inside China.
However, Chinese citizens also go to other countries for sports and leisure ( 38)__________.
Canada, for example, wants to help Chinese tourists during the winter months by hiring Chinese skiing
instructors. They also go on extended tours of Europe and the US and enjoy a new culture that is
different from what they experience at home. Question 34: A. in contrast B. for instance
C. in general D. after all
Question 35: A. demanding B. ordering C. requesting D. offering
Question 36: A. who B. when C. whose D. that
Question 37: A. every B. many C. such D. each
Question 38: A. incidents B. pursuits C. actions D. duties
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 39 to 43.
The coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic has upended family life around the world.
School closures, working remotely, physical distancing — it’s a lot for parents to navigate. Robert
Jenkins, UNICEF’s Global Chief of Education, offers some tips to help keep children’s education on
track while they’re staying home.
First, plan a routine together. Try to establish a routine that factors in age-appropriate education
programmes that can be followed online, on the television or through the radio. Also, factor in
playtime and time for reading. Use everyday activities as learning opportunities for your children.
Although establishing a routine and structure is critically important for children and young people, in
these times you may notice your children need some level of flexibility. If your child seems restless
and agitated when you’re trying to follow an online learning programme with them, flip to a more
active option. Do not forget that planning and doing house chores together safely is great for the
development of fine and gross motor functions.
Next, have open conversations. Encourage your children to ask questions and express their
feelings with you. Remember that your child may have different reactions to stress, so be patient and
understanding. Start by inviting your child to talk about the issue. Find out how much they already
know and follow their lead. Discuss good hygiene practices. You can use everyday moments to
reinforce the importance of things like regular and thorough handwashing. Make sure you are in a safe
environment and allow your child to talk freely. Drawing, stories and other activities may help to open
a discussion.
Last, protect children online. Digital platforms provide an opportunity for children to keep
learning, take part in play and keep in touch with their friends. But increased access online brings
heightened risks for children’s safety, protection and privacy. Discuss the internet with your children
A.
so that they know how it works, what they need to be aware of, and what appropriate behavior looks
like on the platforms they use, such as video calls.
(Adapted from https://www.unicef.org/) Question 39: Which of the following questions does the
passage answer?
A. How can parents maintain their children’s education in the pandemic?
B. What should parents do to help their children reduce stress?
C. How does the pandemic affect children’s education?
D. What are the new ways to learn in the COVID-19 pandemic?
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what does Robert Jenkins suggest that parents should do?
A. Separating learning online from doing everyday activities.
B. Letting their children free in their leisure time.
C. Not involving their children in doing domestic chores.
D. Planning a flexible routine that is suitable for the age of their children. Question 41: The word
“agitated” in paragraph 2 most probably means __________.
A. excited and enjoyable B. anxious and nervous
C. tired and bored D. relaxed and comfortable
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are the ways to have open conversations with
children, EXCEPT __________.
A. Stimulate children to ask questions and express their emotions
B. Realizing the current understanding level of children
C. Talking in a secure environment
D. Reacting in different ways to children’s stress
Question 43: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. internet B. privacy C. safety D. risk
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
A new study shows that urbanization shifts this seasonal cue in nuanced ways, with cities in
cold climates triggering earlier spring plant growth and cities in warm climates delaying it. The study
also found that the urban heat island effect, the phenomenon in which cities are warmer than their
surroundings, is not the only culprit behind the shift, suggesting that other aspects of urbanization,
such as pollution, changes in humidity and fertilizer runoff, may also influence plants' seasonal
patterns.
Researchers analyzed millions of observations of 136 plant species across the U.S. and Europe
to study how regional temperature and the local density of people—a proxy for urbanization—affect
when plants sprout leaves and blossoms. Their results revealed a complex story: Separately, warmer
temperatures and higher population density each spurred earlier springs. A 3.6-degree Fahrenheit
increase in temperature bumped up plants' production of leaves and flowers by about five and six
days, respectively. A fourfold increase in human population density advanced flowering and leaf
production dates by about three days. But the team found that when these two factors worked together,
local temperature had an outsized influence.
In cold regions — areas with an average November-to-May temperature of about 18 degrees—
plants produced leaves and flowers about 20 days earlier in locations with about 26,000 people per
square mile, compared with equally frigid wildland. When an area's average November-to-May
temperature jumped to 68, however, leaves and flowers appeared four and six days later, respectively,
in locations with about 26,000 people per square mile, compared with equally balmy wildland. In New
York, for example, plants are likely sprouting leaves about 9.5 days earlier and blossoms eight days
earlier than uninhabited regions with the same temperature. Jacksonville, in contrast, is likely pushing
leaf production later by about one day and flowers by about half a day, with leaves appearing two days
later and flowers a day later in Houston.
Even after accounting for urban heat islands, the team's models revealed cities significantly
affect plants' springtime growth. "Not only are there other things going on, but they actually matter
quite a lot," said study co-author Brian Stucky, Florida Museum research scientist. Plants may not be
the only organisms affected by seasonal shifts, he added. "Seasons are such a big part of our lives. We
define our world around seasonal things. Those rhythms are what we think of as the normal way the
world works."
(Source: https://phys.org/) Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Fauna
and flora reply to human influences.
B. Embracing the urbanization challenges.
C. Urbanization may hold the key to plant survival.
D. Urbanization delays spring plant growth.
Question 45: The word “nuanced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. subtle B. trivial C. obvious D. refined
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. warm climate B. spring plant C. seasonal cue D. plant growth Question 47:
According to paragraph 2, what will rising temperature combined with increased crowdedness cause?
A. The plants that are supposed to be summer species will bloom in springtime.
B. The stimulating effect prompted by temperature increase will be immense.
C. The two forces will cancel each other and deliver a normal spring outcome.
D. The fruits will ripen before the appearance of leaves due to early blossom.
Question 48: The word “proxy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________. A. guide
B. proof C. demonstration D. representative
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what can be generalized from different pairs of comparison
cases?
A. One is the place where residents use the Celsius scale while the other favors Fahrenheit.
B. Both investigated areas are selected due to their typicality for research purposes.
C. One is a populous region while the other is desolate with the same weather settings.
D. Both places have immigrants traveling from countries with opposite climates.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Human activities within urban environments only affect the biogeochemical cycles.
B. One key area for future temperature research is climate change in suburbs and exurbs. C.
The frigid areas from November to May boast an average temperature of 18 degrees Celsius.
D. Pollution is one of the aspects of urbanization leading to disrupted plant growth.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. Huyen walks to school everyday.
Huyen goes……………………......................…….......
Question 52. Does your school have over 800 pupils?
Are ……………………………...........................................?
Question 53. You have 6 children.
There are…………….......…………...............................
Question 54. How much is a bowl of noodles?
How much does ………………………….....................………?
Question 55 What is the price of a cake and an orange
How…………………....………………….....................…………....?
Question 56. The last time we saw her was on Easter day.
We haven’t ____________________
Question 57. I haven’t eaten this kind of food before.
This is ____________________
Question 58. It started raining an hour ago.
It has ____________________
Question 59. We haven’t visited my grandfather for two months.
The last time ____________________
Question 60. I have studied English for ten years.
A.
I began ____________________
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 17
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched
Question 2: A. goat B. load C. broad D. road
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate B. patient C. pressure D. planet
Question 4: A. volcanic B. official C. aquatic D. ultimate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Aurora and Linda are reacting to the BLACKPINK member Lisa and her solo debut.
- Aurora: “I think Lisa showed her great sense of patriotism through her debut.”
- Linda: “___________. She included some elements of her Thai heritage in some of her outfits.”
A. I don't think so either B. You’re absolutely right
C. That’s not the same thing at all D. Neither do I
Question 6: Giang is showing his appreciation for Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “________________________.”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: During the 19th century, Britain became the world's first modern ___________ society.
A. urbanize B. urbanized C. urbanization D. urban
Question 8: You have hurt her feelings. You should have put yourself in her __________ to
understand the reason for her reaction.
A. boots B. sandals C. shoes D. sneakers
Question 9: ________ in 1635, the Boston Latin School is the oldest public school in the United
States.
A. To found B. Having been found
C. Founded D. Founding
Question 10: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before we have finished our work B. as soon as we have finished our work
C. after we had finished our work D. when we finished our work
Question 11: In the past, the __________ exam was very difficult and only a small minority of
candidates got through.
A. national B. mock C. final D. entrance
Question 12: If we continue to use our natural resources at this alarming rate, they will __________
by the end of the century.
A. run out B. use up C. go off D. bring back
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a handbag on her birthday last week.
A. new nice big yellow B. big nice yellow new
C. nice big new yellow D. nice yellow big new
Question 14: They want to assimilate into the new culture, but they also want to _____ their own
culture.
A. maintain B. reserve C. conserve D. preserve
Question 15: Many domestic flights have been cancelled __________ adverse weather conditions.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: We had some friends to dinner last night, __________?
A. hadn’t we B. had we C. didn’t we D. did we
Question 17: Valentine’s Day, __________ in many countries, is the time when lovers express their
affection with greetings and gifts.
A. is celebrated B. celebrates C. celebrated D. was celebrated
Question 18: I have to take on more extra work so that I could __________ ends meet with a big
family.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: My youngest sister always dreams __________ becoming an English teacher.
A. with B. for C. at D. of
Question 20: The boy __________ a lot before his mother came back from work.
A. is crying B. has cried C. was crying D. had cried Question 21: The more I know
her, __________ I admire her.
A. less B. the more C. the most D. the least
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The reason why his teacher asked him to repeat the question was that he wasn’t
attending during the lesson.
A. joining B. presenting C. noticing D. appearing
Question 23: If violent crime continues unchecked, the government will take more drastic measures
in this country.
A. untreated B. uninsured C. untested D. uncontrolled
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I was fairly positive about the fact that I’d heard it before because it’s quite familiar to
me.
A. negative B. pessimistic C. hopeless D. uncertain
Question 25: The government took a range of measures to reduce poverty in the area, but they just
drew a blank.
A. had a consequence B. got a result
C. gained an advantage D. took a chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
WHO has been tracking mutations and variants since the start of the COVID-19 outbreak. Our
global SARS-CoV-2 laboratory network includes a dedicated Virus Evolution Working Group, which
(26) __________ to detect new changes quickly and assess their possible impact.
Research groups have carried out genomic sequencing of the COVID-19 virus (27) __________
shared these sequences on public databases, including GISAID. This global collaboration allows
scientists to better track how the virus is changing. WHO recommends that all countries increase the
sequencing of the COVID-19 virus where possible and share data to help one (28) __________
monitor and respond to the evolving pandemic.
WHO has also established a SARS-CoV-2 Risk Monitoring and Evaluation Framework to
identify, monitor and assess variants of concern. It will involve components like surveillance, research
on variants of concern, and (29) __________ of the impact on diagnostics, therapeutics and vaccines.
The framework will serve as a guide for manufacturers and countries on changes (30) __________
may be needed for COVID-19 vaccines.
A.
Question 26: A. relies B. varies C. aims D. loses
Question 27: A. and B. as C. until D. but
Question 28: A. many B. another C. every D. other
Question 29: A. prediction B. expectation C. preparation D. evaluation
Question 30: A. which B. when C. whom D. where
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The main idea behind ecotourism is to educate tourists about conservation efforts and research
developments in fragile natural areas, while also offering travelers a chance to experience those areas
firsthand. Unfortunately, when those fragile areas start to receive a lot of traffic from tourists, it can
negatively impact their ecosystems.
Tourism inevitably leads to development – even in ecotourism efforts. When natural areas
become popular in the travel industry, they usually become the site of hotels, excavations and other
tourist industry activities. These activities sometimes displace indigenous groups and local people
from their homelands, which not only damages the integrity of those local communities, but prevents
its members from benefiting from the economic benefits of a growing tourism industry.
On top of ecotourism’s potential impacts on locals, the industry can also take a toll on
surrounding wildlife. It’s ironic, given that ecotourism aims to educate ecotourists and promote the
conservation of natural habitats, but, for some species, the increased presence of humans may by
default negatively impact their natural behaviors. Increased foot traffic can also affect soil quality and
plant life in general, damaging the area’s overall ecosystem. Finally, not all travel organizations
that market themselves as ecotourist programs are actually environmentally friendly. These
organizations know ecotourism is growing in popularity and may take advantage of that fact by
parading as ecotouristic when in reality they ignore eco-friendly practices. For that reason, it’s
important that would-be ecotourists do their homework before giving an organization their business.
(Adapted from https://traveltips.usatoday.com/) Question 31: What does the author mainly discuss in
the passage?
A. Drawbacks of ecotourism B. Benefits of ecotourism on local areas C. Ecotourism: A
new trend for tourists D. The ways to develop potential ecotourism
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. homelands
B. tourist industry activities
C. displacing indigenous groups and local people from their homelands
D. natural areas become popular in the travel industry
Question 33: According increase in the employment rate of the local people to the passage, what is
the major goal of ecotourism?
A. to increase the employment rate of the local people
B. to stimulate the preservation of natural habitats
C. to enhance tourists’ knowledge about the beauty of surrounding wildlife
D. to diminish the foot traffic affecting the soil quality
Question 34: Which of the following negative impacts of ecotourism is NOT mentioned in the
passage?
A. Some indigenous groups and local inhabitants may not receive the economic benefits of
ecotourism.
B. The increase in the number of vehicles will make pollution worse.
C. Some travel organizations do not actually provide environmentally friendly tours.
D. The surrounding wildlife may be influenced by the frequent presence of humans.
Question 35. What does the author mean when suggesting that ecotourists should “do their
homework”?
A. Ecotourists should attend some courses about ecotourism.
B. Ecotourists should finish their school work before the journey.
C. Ecotourists should take advantage of the trips to understand more about their school lessons.
D. Ecotourists should find out information about ecotourism and the travel organization before
travelling.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The administrative room, which serves as the department headquarters, is noisy like a market.
Health workers from all over the country are present. People dispersed to various corners where we
carefully put on our personal protective equipment (PPE). After putting on the PPE, we slowly entered
the danger zone, where the patients were waiting. The ward with the most seriously ill patients is the
red zone, which is completely isolated since it is the most dangerous. Next is the transition area called
the yellow zone, and finally the medical staff's safe base, the briefing room, dubbed the green zone.
When going from green to red we must wear the PPE, and when leaving the red zone we must remove
the PPE and carefully disinfect it from head to toe before entering the green zone.
We finally entered the ward. With the PPE on, every movement became very difficult, the
goggles became foggy, and even breathing was difficult. Every one of the patients was suffering from
shortness of breath, coupled with anxiety and panic from witnessing other patients in the room get
worse and occasionally pass away. We had to practice speaking and breathing gently to avoid creating
strong air flows through our masks, which makes it easy to spread the infection. Nurses struggle to
perform venipuncture. Normally very dexterous at drawing blood, here they sometimes need two or
three attempts since having to wear multiple pairs of gloves hinder their ability to feel with their
fingers. It is also difficult for doctors to examine the patients since they cannot use stethoscopes and
must be very brief when asking patients questions. Instead, by observing whether patients breathe
gently, with difficulty or abnormally, and noting their facial expressions, sweat, skin color, we can
assess the progress of the disease.
As the day went by, severe patients were treated and less severe patients were recovering, and so
we finally felt reassured despite being drenched in sweat. Just as it was time for us to return to the
green zone to write up medical records, there was a commotion from the room next door. A patient's
condition was worsening. All the medical staff in the room rushed in for emergency treatment. After a
few minutes the patient's heartbeat returned, and the ventilator was reattached for the patient to resume
breathing. My colleagues were covered in sweat as if they had just showered.
(Source: https://e.vnexpress.net/) Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Life in a Covid-19 field hospital.
B. A doctor’s perspective on COVID-19.
C. Dynamics between patients and doctors.
D. A day battle inside a Covid hospital.
Question 37: The word “dispersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________. A.
scattered B. disunited C. disbanded D. sprinkled
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a challenge for the medics?
A. tight protective equipment B. some uncooperative patients
C. the restrictions on speaking D. the looming risk of infection
Question 39: The word “dexterous” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. quick B. graceful C. brilliant D. adroit
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. nurses B. doctors C. patients D. colleagues
Question 41: Which is NOT true about the hospital in this story?
A. Speaking too much or with force is discouraged to avoid the risk of infection.
B. Only until very late at night could the health workers return to the safe area.
C. Observation skills become crucial for the doctors in this difficult time.
D. Movements between the green and red zones are carefully regulated.
Question 42: Where would the author and his colleagues most possibly go right next?
A.
A. The blue zone B. The red zone C. The yellow zone D. The green zone Mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Mike doesn't feel well today. He can't go out with his friends. A. If Mike felt well
today, he could go out with his friends.
B. Mike wishes he felt well today so that he can go out with his friends.
C. If only Mike had felt well today, he couldn't have gone out with his friends.
D. Provided that Mike feels well today, he can't go out with his friends.
Question 44: Students are forbidden to bring their phones into the exam room. There is no exception
whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
B. On no account are students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
C. At no time were students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
D. In no way are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room. Mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 45: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate urged me to take the job. B. My room-mate persuaded me to take the job.
C. My room-mate insisted on me taking the job. D. My room-mate advised me to take the
job.
Question 46: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.
A. You must go out at this time at night. B. You should go out at this time at night. C. You
needn’t go out at this time at night. D. You may not go out at this time at night.
Question 47: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years. A. I last saw my aunt and her
husband years ago.
B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.
C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.
D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A B C D
Question 49: Marry was on a real height after easily winning the competition because
A B
she really didn't expect to win.
C D
Question 50: Economics in my classes at Sul Ross University were very difficult for me to
A B C
Learn and understand.
D
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51.Shall we go camping in Con Vanh Beach this Sunday?
Let ………………………………………………………….
Question 52.What is the price of a bottle of cooking oil?
How much ………………………………………………………………….
Question 53.Is the police station is behind the post office?
Is the post office …………………………………………………………..
Question 54.My father is driving his car to Ha Noi.
My father is traveling ………………………………………………………..
Question 55.Nam’s father’ car is white.
Nam’s father has …………………………………………………………
Question 56. My brother hasn’t seen his best friend for nearly three years.
It’s ____________________
Question 57. When did you start learning Korea?
How long ____________________
Question 58. We started living here two years ago.
We have ____________________
Question 59. The last time she visited her pen friend was five months ago.
She hasn’t ____________________
Question 60. I last wrote to my uncle in June.
I haven’t ____________________
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 18
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the
other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A.
complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum Mark the letter
A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: He is a highly intelligent person, __________?
A. wasn’t he B. isn’t he C. has he D. was he
Question 6: My mother bought a __________ lunch box for me yesterday.
A. blue new plastic B. new plastic blue C. new blue plastic D. blue new plastic
Question 7: This expensive car __________ me lots of trouble ever since I got it. A. has been
given B. gave C. has given D. gives
Question 8: __________ nutritious your breakfast is, the healthier you feel during the day. A.
Most of B. More C. Most D. The more
Question 9: __________ poverty and faced problems in pursuing her career, Marry finally realized
the importance of perseverance and bravery. A. Have experienced B. Having experienced
C. To experience D. Having been experienced
Question 10: The conventional dessert was topped __________ whipped cream and pieces of fruit.
A. by B. on C. for D. with
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman. A. Despite
B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: You must have a guarantor in order to get __________ visa to enter the country.
A. the B. an C. no article D. a
Question 13: Before __________, we had gone home.
A. raining B. having rained C. rained D. it rained
Question 14: According to a new research, The Air Force is the number one ranked __________ in
this area.
A. employer B. employee C. employment D. employ
A.
Question 15: Marry was born in Korea but ______ in Los Angeles and quickly became
Americanized.
A. grew up B. brought up C. turned up D. came up
Question 16: Government has already ____ all reasonable precautions to limit the spread of
coronavirus.
A. taken B. done C. made D. carried
Question 17: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a copy of her
CV on the __________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Question 18: My vegetarian diet seems to be __________ because I've lost five pounds since I
started this diet.
A. operating B. working C. performing D. driving
Question 19: Ho Chi Minh president raised six urgent issues that government needed to solve
immediately to ease the food __________ in 1945.
A. lack B. deficiencies C. inadequacies D. shortages
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Laura would like to be financially secure by age 50, so she is working hard to earn a
lot of money.
A. safe B. stable C. confident D. protected
Question 21: He didn’t realize his ambition of becoming a dancer because he lost a leg in a
motorcycle accident.
A. recognize B. achieve C. identify D. succeed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I like modern art to a certain degree, but I don't like the really experimental stuff.
A. unsure B. unlimited C. unchanged D. uncertain
Question 23: Some doctors in this hospital came under suspicion of unethical behavior towards
their patients.
A. betrayed people’s trust B. found not guilty
C. received people’s approval D. considered to be dishonest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “__________”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Question 25: Thanh and Hung are talking about a businesswoman.
- Thanh: “Mrs Phuong Hang is an exceptionally talented businesswoman to make such an
enormous fortune”
- Hung: “__________. Very few women can achieve great success like her.”
A. I totally disagree with you B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. I’m afraid I can’t side with you on this one D. There’re no doubtful about it Mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: The boy collided with the car is making recovery from operation.
A B C D
Question 27: It’s reported that the number of cars which is stolen every year has risen.
A B C D
Question 28: I wonder if I can pay for the car by instalments because I really want it but I
don’t have
A B C money.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: This is the most enjoyable wedding party I have ever attended. A. I have never
attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I have never attended a more enjoyable wedding party than this one.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party like this.
Question 30: "It's you who broke my vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It wasn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things. A. You may not have
worried about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t have worried about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t have worried about these trivial things.
D. You can’t have worried about these trivial things.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all matches with
an unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all matches with
an unacceptable result.
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost all
matches with an unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with an
unacceptable result.
Question 33: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away. A. As was the
explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away. Read the
following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Exploration has changed a lot over time. In the past, only adventurers who were willing to take
(34) __________ were considered explorers. In contrast, anyone can be an explorer today thanks to
modern technology.
In the past, when explorers traveled the world, people back home had to wait for months to hear
about their adventures. Explorers kept (35) __________ and wrote letters about their experiences.
They would only be able to tell (36)__________what they saw after they returned. By the end of the
nineteenth century, explorers were also able to take photos in the same way (37)__________ they do
today. However, they were unable to see the photos right away. It often took a long time for them to
get photos printed.
(38) __________, today’s explorers can travel around the globe and can send back live, real-
time images. Thanks to high-tech devices and the Internet, anyone can interact with them. When a
discovery is made, we can see photos on social media and read blog posts the same day. We may not
be there, but we still take part in the adventure.
(Adapted from Thomas Fast, 2017)
A.
Question 34: A. dangers B. possibilities C. risks D. chances
Question 35: A. magazines B. journals C. history D. publication
Question 36: A. another B. other C. the others D. others
Question 37: A. what B. where C. that D. when Question 38: A. In the same
way B. On one hand C. By comparison D. Similarly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 39 to 43.
When I surveyed over 5,000 middle grade students for my book, kids were already reminding
me of the technology gap between them and their parents. They claimed that parents “didn’t have a
clue” as to what they were experiencing on screens. While generation gap is often characteristic of
adolescence in any generation, it is even wider because of rapidly changing technology.
Even the guidelines I prescribed six years ago would be impossible to implement for this
generation of tablets, cellphones and notebooks that travel in children’s backpacks. Setting and
enforcing guidelines early for children is helpful. Taking technology away at bedtime is still possible
and at least allows them a good night’s rest. Cautioning your children about not sharing real names,
addresses or phone numbers in chatrooms or for any emails protects them somewhat. Making sure
your hardworking home is balanced by non-screen family fun can be enormous protection. Beware of
over-consequencing and over-punishing for small problems.
We don’t want your children to think of their parents as enemies in a battle of wills.
Tell your children how wise and experienced you are and how much you love them at least five
times a week. They need to know they can count on you in this complex, fastmoving world even if
they know more about technology than you do. Like every generation, your children will grow up and
hopefully find responsible directions for their own lives. Technology skills are valued in the work
force and technology is here to stay. Learning as much about it as possible will help you stay tuned-in
to what your children aren’t saying. (Source: https://www.wdtimes.com/) Question 39: Which could
be the best title of the passage?
A. Technology - a great challenge to parents. B. Negative aspects of technology. C.
Kids don’t want to talk about their lives. D. Technology facilitates communication.
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. characteristic B. middle grade student
C. generation gap D. technology gap
Question 41: According to the passage, what shouldn’t the parents do in order to regulate the
children’s use of technology?
A. Confiscating the technology when bedtime comes.
B. Preserving time for activities beyond screens and technology.
C. Warning kids against oversharing on social media.
D. Demanding kids to share with the parents all their passwords. Question 42: The word “tuned-
in” in paragraph 3 mostly means __________.
A. oblivious B. alien C. sensitive D. helpful
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE about the technology in this day and age? A.
Guidelines for technological parental control are still the same.
B. People can’t live successfully without technical skills.
C. Technology has made community activities more crucial than ever.
D. The detrimental effects of technology are holding it back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
If we really care about nature, then surely conservation has to be practical; it needs to work.
Everything we hear on the news seems to say the opposite: nature continues to go down the tube;
extinction rates are increasing; new threats like climate change are emerging; and beautiful places are
being destroyed before our eyes. All this is true; and yet…
If things are getting worse, it is obvious that conservation is failing. Well, no. In 2006, scientists
at BirdLife International showed that conservation action had prevented 16 bird species from going
extinct during the 1994-2004 time period. In 2014, scientists from the Durrell Wildlife Conservation
Trust found that sustained conservation action from 1988 to 2012 resulted in eight species being
down-listed to lower categories of threat on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. In a pivotal
study in 2015, a group of researchers from the IUCN Species Survival Commission found that without
conservation action that took place between 1996 and 2008, the status of the world’s ungulates (deer,
antelopes, cattle and their relatives) would have been nearly eight times worse than was actually
observed. In 2017, researchers were able to quantify how conservation investments made between
1996 and 2008 reduced biodiversity loss in 109 countries by 29% per country on average.
Once again, this suggests that although too little was spent on conservation, it had a significant
level of success. As a result, decision-makers are now in a position, for the first time, to forecast what
the positive impacts of any increase in conservation spending are likely to be in relation to different
scenarios of human development pressure, and then compare these forecasts to their policy targets.
There is one clear conclusion from these and similar studies: conservation does work, but we do
not do anywhere close to enough of it. The threats to nature are certainly growing and this means that
we have to spend more on conservation just to stand still. On the other hand, if some of the
commitments made by the world’s governments are actually acted upon, such as the 2010 Aichi
Biodiversity Targets and the 2015 Sustainable Development Goals, then the number of resources to be
allocated to conservation is set to increase. Let’s hope that this will indeed be the case.
(Source: https://www.synchronicityearth.org/) Question 44: Which question is the passage most
possibly the answer to? A. What exactly do conservationists need to do?
B. Why do we conserve nature in the first place?
C. Does conservation actually work?
D. What is and isn’t conservation?
Question 45: The word “emerging” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by__________.
A. proceeding B. waning C. popping D. arising
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a successful effort in
conservation?
A. Many bird species were brought back from the brink of extinction.
B. Situation of the ungulates has become better.
C. Eight species are now less at risk of extinction.
D. The decline in biological diversity in many countries slowed down.
Question 47: The word “quantify” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by __________.
A. evaluate B. rate C. determine D. judge
Question 48: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. establishing new conservation goals B. support from the governments
C. the amount of resources D. more investment in conservation
Question 49: According to the passage, the overall situation is getting worse, __________. A.
and could turn even worse within the next decade.
B. despite some small local successes in conservation.
C. but not as fast as if we were doing no conservation at all.
D. yet many people still think that we are making progress.
Question 50. Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. There is increasing evidence that conservation is actually working.
B. There are many different views on how to achieve conservation.
C. Governments will need to do more to reach the necessary level of success.
D. Dears and antelopes are the species belonging to the ungulates group.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51.Shall we go camping in Con Vanh Beach this Sunday?
Let ………………………………………………………….
Question 52.What is the price of a bottle of cooking oil?
How much ………………………………………………………………….
A.
Question 53.Is the police station is behind the post office?
Is the post office …………………………………………………………..
Question 54.My father is driving his car to Ha Noi.
My father is traveling ………………………………………………………..
Question 55.Nam’s father’ car is white.
Nam’s father has …………………………………………………………
Question 56. My father can’t cook as well as my mother does.
My mother _________________________________________
Question 57. George drives more carefully than he used to.
George didn’t _________________________________________________
Question 58. No other city in Vietnam is so large as HCM city.
HCM city __________________________________________________
Question 59. I don’t type so quickly as Tom does.
Tom _________________________________________________
Question 60. Physics isn’t so difficult as maths.
Maths __________________________________________________ ________
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 19
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. shame B. drank C. cable D. blaze
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the
other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. defend B. precede C. decent D. expand
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Many people are deeply unhappy about the way the government has handled this matter,
______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6: Nylon __________ by an American chemist, Julian Hill in the 1930s.
A. invented B. was invented C. invent D. was inventing
Question 7: The basic design of the car is very similar __________ that of earlier models.
A. in B. with C. to D. of
Question 8: __________ a car is, the more comfortable it is.
A. More expensive B. Most expensive C. The more expensive D.
The most expensive
Question 9: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before the weather was good B. as long as the weather is good
C. after the weather has been good D. when the weather will be good
Question 10: I will tell David you are looking for him when I __________ him tomorrow.
A. see B. will see C. saw D. was seeing
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because Question 12: It was made of a
__________ material.
A. metallic strange green B. strange green metallic C. green strange metallic
D. green metallic strange
Question 13: __________ by my success, Tom decided not to quit his job.
A. To encourage B. Having encouraged C. Encouraged D. Encouraging Question
14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: I know you don’t like Jack’s idea, but just __________ with him for a while. A.
get out B. get along C. play along D. play out
Question 16: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had said, but I
didn't __________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Question 17: If you have any information that is __________ to the investigation, you should call the
police.
A. substantial B. material C. identical D. rational
Question 18: The hospital hit the __________ and became the center of a media storm when a
number of suspicious deaths occurred.
A. books B. ceiling C. buffers D. headlines
Question 19: The judge has decided to __________ his decision until a later date because there
wasn’t enough evidence.
A. preserve B. reserve C. maintain D. conserve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It is an independent voluntary organization which aims to provide assistance to people
in need.
A. necessity B. hardship C. obstacle D. requirement
Question 21: Manufacturing plants which produce large amounts of carbon dioxide should closely
monitor the emission.
A. nearly B. exactly C. carefully D. strongly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: That visitors throw garbage into the ocean shows how shallow their commitment to the
environment really is.
A. deep B. serious C. attentive D. significant
Question 23: She demonstrated a clear determination to win because she didn’t throw in the towel
just because she had lost one game.
A. admit that she has been defeated B. stop trying to win
C. have the chance to succeed D. do her best to achieve victory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Ronaldo and Messi are meeting at an outdoor cafe serving drinks.
- Messi: “Which drink do you want, coke or water?”
- Ronaldo: “__________ because it’s better for our health than coke.”
A. Either will do B. I’d prefer a glass of water
C. I don’t like both of them D. No thanks, I’ve just had some Question 25: Giang is
showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “__________”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction on each of the following questions.
A.
Question 26: He introduced himself to me and asked if I’d like him to visit once in awhile on his
rounds. A B C D
Question 27: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.
A B C D
Question 28: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally
treated regardless of her age, sex, or nationality. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party. A. I have
ever attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I attended such an enjoyable wedding party a long time ago.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 30: "It's me who broke your vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It isn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things. A. You may worry
about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t worry about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t worry about these trivial things.
D. You must worry about these trivial things.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She lives so far away. He really wants her to visit him more regularly.
A. If she doesn’t live so far away, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
B. He wishes she lived near here and could have visited him more regularly.
C. If only she lived near here and could visit him more regularly.
D. As long as she lives near here, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
Question 33: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.
A. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his work.
B. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his work.
C. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have promoted to chief executive.
D. But for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief executive.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The (34) __________ girl who fell off a 12th floor apartment in Hanoi and was saved by a truck
driver last Sunday was discharged from hospital Friday morning. Hoang Hai Duc, head of pediatric
orthopedics at the National Children’s Hospital, said a dislocated hip has been fixed and the child
would have a (35) __________ after two or three weeks to see if her hips have regained their full
function. "This is truly too big a joy for our family," the girl’s mother said. The three-year-old
dislocated (36) __________ falling 50 m from the balcony in an apartment complex on Nguyen Huy
Tuong Street. She fortunately survived after Nguyen Ngoc Manh, a 31-year-old truck driver (37)
__________ had parked nearby, clambered up a corrugated roof and caught the falling child. Manh,
who slightly injured his arms in the ordeal, said the (38) __________ has turned his life upside down.
His story was picked up by the national and international media, turning him into a celebrity
overnight. Many called him a hero to his discomfort. "I don’t see myself as a hero; I just want to do
good," he had said at the time.
Question 34: A. a little B. little C. few D. much
Question 35: A. checkup B. breakup C. outbreak D. breakthrough
Question 36: A. when B. before C. after D. while
Question 37: A. which B. what C. whose D. that
Question 38: A. occasion B. incident C. accident D. situation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The 21 st century has become another important century for inventions and discoveries. We are
only in the 2nd decade of this century currently but we have already witnessed many big innovations
that have drastically changed our way of living. Bluetooth technology, broadband internet, artificial
heart, genetic engineering, virtual reality, 3D printing are some to name a few. These inventions are
changing the way we live, do our things and communicate with the others. Even though some of these
developments are in the early stage of innovation, they have a more sophisticated and promising
future. Social media is one of the most important aspects that has affected each person in this modern
time.
According to Heidi Cohen, Social Media are the platforms that enable the interactive web by
engaging users to participate in, comment on and create content as means of communicating with their
social graph, other users and the public. The power of social media has changed most of the things in
our daily life. Social media has revolutionized and completely changed the way we send and receive
information. It is more interactive, can be done in realtime and uses a wide number of media like text,
audio, video, pictures, graphics and more. With these sites, sending and receiving messages offline and
in realtime, audio and video chatting, sharing pictures, video and text, going “Live” to many
audiences, meeting old friends and making new has revolutionized our way of establishing
connections with others. There are also the negative sides of the innovation of social media and
their usage. Increase in cyber-crime, invasion of privacy, security threats etc. is some of the issues
associated with social networks. But at the same time social networks are working themselves to cope
with the increasing problems that arise with the improper use of it. With more and more sophistication
and versatility of use, social media have undoubtedly proved to be a boon to connectivity and social
interaction between people in this age of communication and information technology.
(Adapted from https://arjungelal.wordpress.com/) Question 39: Which of the following could serve
as the best title of the passage? A. Social Media – One of the Greatest Inventions of the 21st
Century
B. How Positive Social Media Changes Our Lives?
C. Advantages and Disadvantages of Social Media
D. Important Inventions in Modern Society
Question 40: What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. information B. the way C. social media D. the power
Question 41: The following are benefits brought by social media mentioned in paragraph 2,
EXCEPT __________.
A. connecting people all over the world
B. keeping contact with others via various ways
C. helping people exchange information in a more interactive way D. increasing the private
invasion of users
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following sentences is TRUE? A. The new
inventions remain the way we interact with each other.
B. It’s unlikely for people to process documents on social media.
C. Using social media improperly will increase the problems for users.
D. People nowadays send and receive more online messages than normal.
Question 43: The word “boon” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________. A.
benefit B. drawback C. challenge D. advance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Six the Musical tells the stories of King Henry VIII's six wives through a collection of pop songs
as they compare lives to see who suffered the most and who should therefore lead their girl group. The
songs are catchy, fun, and exciting, and they are genuinely great pop tunes. The singing performances
from the Australian actresses were amazing, and all of them were technically very skilled.
A.
It originated as a college student's concept album and it is clear even in performance that it is not
designed to exist as anything more than that. The dialogue is clumsy and tonally confused. It gives the
audience proverbial whiplash by sounding like a Hi-5 concert one moment to hammy, beginner
improv-style dialogue the next, before snapping to blunt, and pretty overt, British jokes about sex and
adultery.
Six tries to emulate Hamilton's success by using modern musical elements and basing the story
on a 'woke' and empowering retelling of history. But, as a revision on Henry VIII's wives, it just
regurgitates a bunch of facts that the audience already knows and sets it to the song. In performance
most of the characters are portrayed as strong, independent women, and they pull it off well by
anchoring their music in modern-day pop feminists. But the squabbles between the wives play into the
stereotype that women are catty and bitch about each other behind their backs. The entire musical is
steeped in the idea that these women are only notable because of their relationship with King Henry
VIII. Only in the last song of the show do the women finally reject Henry VIII and come to support
and appreciate each other. Six didn't have to be like that. It could have been about the women
supporting each other from the start.
And that is my other problem with Six. It tries to sell itself as a musical when it really isn’t. Most
of the actresses cannot act or dance, they can only sing, and the choreography they are working with is
very static compared to the likes of West Side Story, Moulin Rouge or most other musicals. At the
same time, the set and lighting design are barely used and don't add much to their performances.
https://www.arc.unsw.edu.au/ Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Feminism in the musical genre. B. Reviewing Six the musical.
C. The fame of a new musical. D. A failed copy of Hamilton.
Question 45: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. Henry VIII's wives B. pop tunes C. performances D. actresses
Question 46: The phrase “steeped in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. imbued with B. connected with C. soaked in D. implanted in
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem with Six the musical?
A. It tries to follow in the footsteps of the legendary historical musical – Hamilton.
B. The musical fails to provide a new perspective as a revision on Henry VIII's wives.
C. The characters can’t portray the pop stars they are modelled after.
D. The cast of Six the musical all consists of female performers.
Question 48: The word “static” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. stable B. steady C. unvarying D. orderly
Question 49: The author’s criticism about the musical is based on the rationale that __________.
A. a rendition of history should not stray too far from the original version.
B. historical stories should not be told with adulterous humor and sass.
C. a musical should combine acting, dancing, singing and set design together.
D. in Broadway, women’s stories don’t count unless they are about suffering.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is mentioned about Six the musical? A. Six the
musical is nothing more than a concept album.
B. Six the musical’s songs belong on the Billboard Hot 100.
C. Six the musical is a celebration of 16th-century girl power.
D. Six the musical has a witty, clever, and powerful dialogue.
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. Does Phong’s school have forty classrooms?
Are ……………………………………………………………..?
Question 52. I intend to visit Mui Ne this summer.
I’m………………………………………………………………….
Question 53. We can’t go out now. It is very cold.
It’s too……………………………………………………………….
Question 54. Mr Pike’s nationality is Australian.
Mr Pike comes……………………………………………………
Question 55. Warm weather is good for my health.
I like………………………………………………………………..
Question 56. Nam speaks English worse than his sister.
Nam’s _________________________________________________
Question 57. History is not as difficult as Maths.
Maths __________________________________
Question 58. Real Madrid is not as good as Real Zaragoza.
Real Zaragoza __________________________________
Question 59. Watching TV is not as important as doing homework.
Doing homework __________________________________
Question 60. My sister and my brother are not as happy as me.
I __________________________________
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ 20
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. damaged B. practiced C. attacked D. escaped
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the
other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A.
complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. effective B. romantic C. concentrate D. addiction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: These roads were barely wide enough for us to pass, __________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 6: Relations between the two countries _______ further recently due to territorial disputes.
A. have been deteriorated B. have deteriorated
C. were deteriorated D. deteriorates
Question 7: Parents must keep an eye on their kids because they may eat stuff like pills or marbles
__________ mistake for candies.
A. at B. by C. for D. in
Question 8: __________ the students concentrate on their lessons, the more impatient their teachers
will become.
A. The least B. The less C. The fewer D. The fewest
Question 9: A fashionable couple bought two ____ rings at one of the most luxurious jewelry stores.
A. wedding beautiful gold B. gold beautiful wedding
C. beautiful gold wedding D. beautiful wedding gold
Question 10: Before the Olympic Games __________, the home team had been well trained to deal
with difficult situations.
A. had been taken place B. took place C. were taken place D. will take place
Question 11: __________ the fact that they did not know English, the visitors were unaware of what
their tour guide asked them to do.
A. Despite B. Due to C. In spite of D. Because
A.
Question 12: Susan will have done voluntary work in hospitals for ten years __________ another
job.
A. as soon as she had moved on to B. when she moved on to
C. by the time she moves on to D. after she will move on to
Question 13: __________ a number of difficulties in the first week, Maria ultimately decided to quit
her new job.
A. Having been encountered B. Being encountered
C. Having encountered D. To encounter
Question 14: Intensive farming has brought about a __________ increase in outbreaks of food
poisoning in the countryside.
A. significance B. significantly C. significant D. signify
Question 15: My family highly encourage me to __________ a place at Oxford University because it
has a high reputation for academic achievement.
A. try out B. try on C. try for D. try out for
Question 16: TV viewers are beginning to get very annoyed with advertisements which are arranged
to __________ the gaps between game shows.
A. bridge B. fill C. narrow D. close
Question 17: You should seek advice from your sister because she knows a lot about the __________
of running a hotel business.
A. structures B. mechanics C. incentives D. constituents
Question 18: I would encourage every individual to support the staff who are under the __________
because of the overload of work.
A. weather B. table C. gun D. knife
Question 19: The ambulances were in _______ within 22 minutes to rush all victims to the hospital.
A. emergency B. presence C. league D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The state government is determined to tackle the problem of poverty in the inner cities.
A. attack B. encounter C. appeal D. impair
Question 21: All ingredients you need to cook soup are readily available from your local store, so
you can buy them whenever you want.
A. willingly B. commonly C. freely D. scarcely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: His report was harshly criticized by fellow students because the information was
deemed too sensitive to be discussed.
A. softly B. slightly C. gently D. severely
Question 23: He finally made a clean breast of everything and admitted that he had broken into the
art gallery and got away with two valuable paintings.
A. concealed the fact of everything B. revealed the truth of everything
C. exposed the truth to the public D. knew the fact of everything
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jury is asking Nanno, her new fellow student, about her hometown.
- Jury: “Where are you from?”
- Nanno: “__________.”
A. I come from nowhere
B. It’s Thailand, which is a country in South East Asia
C. About five kilometers
D. My parents take me to school every day
Question 25: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time.
- Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.”
- Laura: “__________. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time
management skills”
A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right
C. I totally agree with you D. I don’t quite agree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Yesterday evening, the search for the missing men are conducted in poor weather
conditions.
A B C D
Question 27: A qualified engineer together with a friend of him has worked tirelessly for the
construction
A B C D of a new office for a week.
Question 28: This leaflet will give you the essence of how to prepare for a hurricane so that you can
A B C
minimize potential damage.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years. A. We last went to the concert for
two years ago.
B. We have gone to the concert for two years.
C. We went to the concert for two years.
D. The last time we went to the concert was two years ago.
Question 30: “Don’t forget to turn off the air conditioner or you will be punished” said my mother to
me.
A. My mother reminded me of forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
B. My mother warned me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
C. My mother reminded me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
D. My mother warned me against forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
Question 31: It’s high time that the school improved its educational facilities. A. The school
ought to improve its educational facilities.
B. The school doesn’t have to improve its educational facilities.
C. The school should have improved its educational facilities.
D. The school must have improved its educational facilities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: You don’t know how hard I’ve tried to please you. I hope that you can have sympathy
for me.
A. I wish you knew how hard I have tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
B. If only you knew how hard I had tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
C. If you knew how hard I had tried to please you, you could have sympathy for me.
D. As long as you know how hard I’ve tried to please you, you can have sympathy for me.
Question 33: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.
A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.
B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.
C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.
D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
A.
In the book The Population Bomb, which crystallized fears about the planet’s burgeoning
population, Paul Ehrlich predicted widespread famine, social upheaval and a deterioration in
environmental conditions.
The author was wrong. The green revolution that vastly increased agricultural production
starting in the 1960s meant his (34) __________ didn’t come to pass. From the 1960s through the
1900s, yields of rice and wheat in Asia doubled. (35)__________ as the continent’s population
increased by 60 per cent, grain prices fell, the average Asian consumed nearly a third more calories,
and the poverty rate was cut in half.
To keep doing that between now and 2050, we’ll need (36) __________green revolution. There
are two competing visions of (37)__________it will happen. One is hightech, with a heavy emphasis
on continuing work of breeding better crops, but with modern genetic techniques. Scientists can now
identify and manipulate a huge variety of plant genes, for traits like disease (38) __________ and
drought tolerance. That is going to make farming more productive and resilient.
(Adapted from newscientist.com)
Question 34: A. predictions B. implication C. guesses D. anticipation
Question 35: A. When B. If C. Much D. Even
Question 36: A. other B. another C. many D. others
Question 37: A. how B. when C. what D. which
Question 38: A. insistence B. resistance C. persistence D. existence Read the
following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Education has been the focus of media attention since the virus has intermittently closed
classrooms and campuses over the past year. But despite the disruption, the widespread shift to online
learning has given learners and education providers a glimpse of the future.
For our latest Better Managers Briefing, I spoke with Paul Geddes – CEO of technology training
provider QA; and Tim Stewart – the vice chancellor of BPP University and a professor of business
education.
Taking education online was the first and most obvious short-term delivery impact of the
pandemic. For example, Tim says that for him and BPP as an awarding body, the biggest
accomplishment was being able to move assessments online, enabling thousands of students to sit
hundreds of exams under supervision and be able to continue gaining credits and to graduate.
“Inevitably, after the pandemic, some of this will move back offline,” he predicts, “but I think we will
see a much more significant role for online teaching, online assessment, online socializing and online
libraries.”
Mixing “on-demand” digital delivery with live online learning has been essential at QA, says
Paul. “For learners, live lessons mean that you’re more likely to turn up, you're focused, you're going
to pay attention and not be distracted… because your trainer could ask you a question at any time,” he
says. “You can ask questions, you're part of a cohort that can learn from each other and the subject
matter can be tailored to your understanding.” Paul believes, “If you're in a cohort of learners, it’s still
important that you can have a cup of coffee with them and chat through what you’ve just learned in
class. But I don’t think things will return fully to where they were in terms of physical attendance.”
(Source: https://www.managers.org.uk/) Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. The changing landscape of education.
B. Between going online or staying offline.
C. What makes teaching and learning successful.
D. How to thrive in the workforce of the future.
Question 40: The word “intermittently” in paragraph 1 mostly means __________.
A. customarily B. repeatedly C. sporadically D. continually Question 41: Which is
NOT mentioned about online learning during the pandemic? A. Students can continue their
degree and graduate normally.
B. Students can be supervised individually through technology.
C. Students can interact with the teacher and other students.
D. Students can sit through tests and be graded.
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. trainers B. things C. learners D. questions
Question 43: According to the passage, how will the education change post-pandemic? A.
Digital delivery will be blended with live learning.
B. Companies will invest more in digital infrastructure.
C. Physical classrooms will have lower rates of attendance.
D. Technical and soft skills will be added to the curriculum.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
You’ve heard all the reasons why some people don’t learn languages, many of these founded on
long-held myths and misconceptions. The truth is, in today’s increasingly interconnected and
interdependent world, proficiency in other languages is a vital skill that gives you the opportunity to
engage with the world in a more immediate and meaningful way—whether in your neighborhood or
thousands of miles away—while better preparing you to compete and succeed in the global economy.
One of the most rewarding aspects of the human experience is our ability to connect with others.
Being able to communicate with someone in his or her language is an incredible gift. Bilinguals have
the unique opportunity to communicate with a wider range of people in their personal and professional
lives. Knowing the language makes you a local no matter where you are, opening up your world
literally and figuratively. You will be shaped by communities. You will be humbled by the kindness of
strangers. You will build lifelong friendships. And for these reasons alone, you will see the reward of
learning languages for many years to come.
Language skills can be a significant competitive advantage that sets you apart from your
monolingual peers. They are among the top eight skills required of all occupations—no matter your
sector or skill level—and the demand for bilingual professionals is rising exponentially. In fact,
between 2010 and 2015, the number of U.S. job postings specifically geared toward bilingual
candidates more than doubled. Employers are seeking professionals who can communicate seamlessly
with customers in new and expanding overseas markets, as well as serve and sell to a large foreign-
born population here at home. With more than 60 million U.S. residents who speak a language other
than English at home, you don’t need to get on a plane to put your language skills to work. As an
added incentive, in many instances, language skills also lead to hiring bonuses and increased salaries.
Whatever your career aspiration—with language skills added to the mix, you’re ahead of the crowd!
(Adapted from https://www.leadwithlanguages.org/) Question 44: Which of the following best serves
as the title of the passage?
A. Reasons Not to Learn Foreign Languages B. Why Learn Foreign Languages?
C. What Foreign Languages to Learn? D. Who Need to Learn Foreign Languages?
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the benefits of knowing another language,
EXCEPT__________.
A. you can communicate with more people in their personal and professional lives.
B. you may become a local person wherever you go.
C. you will get suspicious if strangers are kind to you.
D. you will have many intimate friends.
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. language skills B. monolingual peers C. eight skills D. occupations Question
47: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Our ability to communicate with others is the first requirement in our jobs.
B. You have to learn languages for many years to travel alone.
C. There is an exponential increase in the demand for bilingual professionals.
D. You cannot succeed if you are unable to compete in the global economy.
Question 48: The word “geared” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. tended B. avoided C. trained D. left
A.
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what kind of employees do the U.S employers want to hire?
A. the professionals who can speak a language other than English at home
B. the foreign employees who were born in their nation
C. the workers who can get on a plane to put their language skills to work
D. the professionals who can satisfy the demands to work with the international customers in their
nation and abroad
Question 50: The phrase “ahead of the crowd” in the last paragraph most probably means _______.
A. moving fast B. being outstanding C. becoming the owner D. being the tallest
Rewrite the following sentences without changing its meaning
Question 51. My aunt’s baby will be born in September.
My aunt is………………………………………………………….
Question 52. We intend to play volleyball this weekend.
We are………………………………………………………………
Question 53. How wide is Ba Dinh square?
What………………………………………………………………..
Question 54. What is the age of Peter?
How………………………………………………………………….
Question 55. Miss White’s face is oval. It is small.
Miss White…………………………………………………………..
Question 56. Lan’s hair is long and black.
→ Lan has __________________________________
Question 57. The school has a computer room and a library.
→There __________________________________
Question 58. Phong likes the kitchen most.
→ Phong’s favorite __________________________________
Question 59. My school is far from my house.
→ My school is not __________________________________
Question 60. Each classroom in my school has one projector and one computer.
→ There is ________________________________
-----THE END-----
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 1
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. B
11. B 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. A
21. A 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. C
31. C 32. B 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. A
41. A 42. A 43. A 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. B
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 4
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. A
11. C 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. C
31. D 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. B 38. D 39. D 40. A
41. D 42. B 43. D 44. C 45. A 46. C 47. D 48. C 49. C 50. A
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 5
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. A 16. C 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. B
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. A 30. C
31. B 32. D 33. A 34. D 35. A 36. D 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. C 42. B 43. A 44. D 45. A 46. D 47. D 48. B 49. B 50. A
Đề 7
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. A
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. D 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. B
31. A 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. C 38. D 39. C 40. C
41. A 42. D 43. D 44. B 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. D
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 9
1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. D 13. B 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. B
31. C 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. A
41. C 42. C 43. C 44. B 45. B 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. D 50. C
56. The little girl was made to go to bed in time by her mother.
57.If Lucy weren't ill, she could go to school today.
58.My sister has been learning English since she was four years old.
59.The car was too expensive for my father to buy.
60.No other man in the world is as capable as my father.
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 11
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. B 9. D 10. B
11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. B
21. C 22. A 23. A 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. D 28. D 29. D 30. D
31. A 32. D 33. B 34. B 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. A 42. A 43. D 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. B
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 12
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D
11. D 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. C
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. C
31. A 32. D 33. C 34. C 35. C 36. A 37. B 38. D 39. B 40. C
41. A 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. A
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 13
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. D
11. C 12. A 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. C
31. D 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. C
41. A 42. B 43. C 44. A 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. C
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 14
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. C 30. C
31. A 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. B
41. A 42. D 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 15
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. D
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. C
21. D 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. B 29. B 30. B
31. D 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. C
41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. A 46. D 47. B 48. C 49. A 50. B
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ 17
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C 9. C 10. B
11. D 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. D
21. B 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. A
31. A 32. C 33. B 34. B 35. D 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. D
41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. C
ÁP ÁN ĐỀ 18
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. D
11. C 12. D 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. D 20. C
21. B 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. B 30. A
31. B 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. C
41. D 42. C 43. B 44. C 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B