Success in Geo P1 (2015 - 2023 & 2024 G.c.e)

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SUCCESS IN GEOGRAPHY P1 (2015 – 2024 G.C.

E) DON’T POST / SHARE IT ON SOCIAL MEDIA

SUCCESS IN GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1 – 4TH EDITION – SEPTEMBER – 2024
Instant Revision from E.C.Z Question Papers
GRADE 10 – 12 2015 – 2023 & 2024 G.C.E

THIS GEOGRAPHY BOOKLET WILL HELP YOU TO:


 Revise E.C.Z Past Papers with answers instantly
 Self-Check Examination Questions
 Know the Top Examiner’s Mind
 Pass exam easily
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PRIMARY: GRADE 5 – GRADE 7
1. ENGLISH (2015 – 2023) 5. C.T.S (2015 – 2023)
2. MATHS (2015 – 2023) 6. SOCIAL STUDIES (2015 – 2023)
3. INT. SCIENCE (2015 – 2023) 7. SPECIAL PAPER 1 (2015 – 2023)
4. SPECIAL PAPER 2 (2015 – 2023)

JUNIOR SECONDARY: GRADE 8 – GRADE 9


1. ENGLISH P1 (2015 – 2023) 6. AGRIC. SCIENCE (2019 – 2023)
2. ENGLISH P2 (2015 – 2023) 7. SOCIAL STUDIES (2015 – 2023)
3. MATHS P1 (2015 – 2023) 8. BUSINESS STUDIES (2015 – 2023)
4. MATHS P2 (2015 – 2023) 9. COMPUTER STUDIES (2015 – 2023)
5. INT. SCIENCE (2015 – 2023) 10. RELIGIOUS EDUCATION (2015 – 2023)

SENIOR SECONDARY: GRADE 10 – GRADE 12 & G.C.E


1. BIOLOGY P1 (2015 – 2023) G.C.E 20. MATHS P1 (2017 – 2023) G.C.E
2. BIOLOGY P1 (2015 – 2023) INTERNAL 21. MATHS P1 (2015 – 2023) INTERNAL
3. BIOLOGY P2 (2016 – 2023) G.C.E 22. MATHS P2 (2017 – 2023) G.C.E
4. BIOLOGY P2 (2015 – 2023) INTERNAL 23. MATHS P2 (2016 – 2023) INTERNAL
5. COMMERCE (2020 – 2023) 24. PRINCIPLES OF ACCOUNT P1 (2015 – 2021)
6. COMPUTER P1 G12 (2017 – 2022) 25. PRINCIPLES OF ACCONT P2 (2015 – 2023)
7. CIVIC EDUCATION (2017 – 2023) 26. PURE CHEMISTRY P1 (2015 – 2022)
8. ENGLISH P1 (2020 – 2023) G.C.E 27. PURE CHEMISTRY P2 (2015 – 2023)
9. ENGLISH P2 (2015 – 2023) G.C.E 28. PURE PHYSICS P1 (2015 – 2022)
10. ENGLISH P2 (2015 – 2023) INTERNAL 29. PURE PHYSICS P2 (2015 – 2023)
11. ENGLISH P1 (2020 – 2023) INTERNAL 30. RELIGIOUS EDUCATION 2046 (2016 – 2023)
12. GEOGRAPHY P1 (2015 – 2022) 31. RELIGIOUS EDUCATION 2044 (2020 – 2023)
13. GEOGRAPHY P2 (2015 – 2023) 32. SCIENCE P1 (PHYSICS) (2016 – 2023) G.C.E
14. HISTORY P1 (2019 – 2023) INTERNAL 33. SCIENCE P1 (PHYSICS) (2015 – 2023) INTERNAL
15. HISTORY P1 (2019 – 2023) G.C.E 34. SCIENCE P2 (CHEMISTRY) (2015 – 2023) G.C.E
16. HISTORY P2 (2019 – 2023) INTERNAL 35. SCIENCE P2 (CHEMISTRY) (2016 – 2023) INTERNAL
17. HISTORY P2 (2019 – 2022) G.C.E 36. AGRIC. SCIENCE (Theory) (2016 – 2023)
18. LITERATURE P1
19. LITERATURE P2

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
PAPER 1
Friday 16 OCTOBER 2015
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to Candidates
Answer all questions.

SECTION A: MAPWORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES

Questions 1 to 12 are based on the 1:25 000 map extract of Medine (Mauritius).

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY


13 On which of the following days will places along latitude 23½°N have 12 hours of
daylight and 12 hours of darkness?
A 22nd December and 21st June
B 21st June and 23rd September.
C 21st March and 21st June,
D 21st March and 23rd September.

14 Which one of the following is earth's twin planet?


A Jupiter
B Mars
C Mercury
D Venus

15 In volcanism, rocks below the earth's crust have very high temperatures and exist in a
molten state called.
A batholith.
B laccolith.
C lava.
D magma.

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16 Which one of the following is not an example of physical weathering?
A Frost action
B Hydrolysis
C Repeated wetting and drying
D Repeated temperature changes

17 Which of the following are positive effects of volcanic eruption?


A Floods and ash
B Fire and minerals
C Heat and minerals
D Minerals and ash

18 Study the diagram below showing a stage in river formation.

What process is taking place in region marked A?


A Attrition
B Deposition
C Erosion
D Transportation

19 Study the diagram below.

What is the likely cause of the movement of the materials shown above?
A Earthquake
B Frost action
C Running water
D Wind
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20 Study the diagram below,

What do W, X, Y and Z represent?


W X Y Z
A Water table Impermeable layer zone of Zone of
Saturation percolation

B Water table Zone of saturation Zone of Impermeable


percolation

C zone of l water table zone of Impermeable


percolation saturation layer

D Zone of Water table Impermeable Zone of


Saturation layer percolation

21 An earthquake can best be described as.


A faulting of the earth's crust.
B movement of the tectonic plates in the earth's crust.
C shattering of the earth's crust.
D sudden release of energy in form of motion in the earth's crust.

22 Which of the following is a product of volcanism?


A Ionosphere
B Lithosphere
C Tropopause
D Troposphere

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23 Study the map of Africa below showing mean daily temperatures.

What is the mean daily temperature for place A?


A 0oC
B 15oC
C 25oC
D 30oC

24 Study the diagram below representing the amount of cloud cover

What is the amount of cloud cover shown in the diagram?

2
A 8
4
B 8
6
C 8
7
D
8

25 Study the diagram below.

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What kind of weather would be experienced in the area where the information is
obtained?
A Breeze
B Cyclone
C Hurricane
D Storm

26 Study the diagram below.

The feature represents


A a cyclone in the northern hemisphere.
B a cyclone in the southern hemisphere
C an ant-cyclone in the northern hemisphere.
D an anti-cyclone in the southern hemisphere.

27 The earth's atmosphere gets …


A thicker as altitude increases.
B thicker as latitude decreases.
C thinner as altitude decreases.
D thinner as altitude increases.

28 On a map place of equal rainfall will be shown by …


A contours.
B Isobars.
C isohyets.
D isotherms.

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29 Study the map of Africa below.

Which of the areas A, B, C or D experiences rainy summers and dry winters?

30 Which of the following explains why windward sides of mountains receive higher
rainfall than the leeward sides?
A Leeward sides are colder than windward sides.
B Relief on leeward sides blocks rising air.
C Slopes on windward sides facilitate air to rise.
D Slopes on windward sides promote greater evaporation from the ground.

Study the graph below and answer questions 31 and 32.

31 Where is the above station located?


A An equatorial area
B Hot desert area
C Mediterranean land
D Tropical grassland

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32 Which of the following is the characteristic of the vegetation in this area?
A It is drought resistant.
B Many plants have thick stems.
C Trees grow in pure stands.
D Trees grow very tall.

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY


33 Study the population pyramid below.

The graph represents the population structure for…


A Chine
B Mexico.
C Sweden.
D Zimbabwe.

34 The equatorial regions are sparsely populated because…


A of dangerous animals.
B of thick forests.
C primitive people live there.
D Soils are not good for agriculture.

35 Which of the following best describes what life expectancy is?


A Number of years a person is expected to live.
B Number of years a person is expected to be very productive,
C Period when resources available can sustain the population.
D Period when the fertility rate of the population is at its highest.

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36 The bar chart shows age-sex distribution of reported AIDS cases in one Southern
African country in 1999.

Which of the following is not correct about the graph above?


A For the age group 0 – 4 HIV Infection is greater among boys than girls.
B For the population aged between 15 – 29, the females are more vulnerable to
HIV infections than males.
C For the population aged 30 and above, the females are more vulnerable to HIV
infection than males.
D For the population aged 30 and above, the males are more vulnerable to HIV
infection than females.

37 While India owns 15% of the world's cattie population, it does not lead the world in beef
and dairy products exportation. why?
A All the beef and dairy products are consumed locally.
B It is hindered by the belief that cattle are sacred.
C Lack of political will.
D Poor quality cattle are reared.

38 Rice and wheat have common growing geographical requirements. The main difference
in their growing requirements is …
A relief.
B Soil.
C temperature
D water.

39 Which of the following farming techniques is recommended in hilly areas?


A Fallowing
B Shifting cultivation
C Strip farming
D Terracing

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40 How can exhausted sols due to monoculture practices be replenished?
A by crop rotation B Introducing cover cropping
C Terrace farming D Use of contour ploughing

41 Where is dairy farming highly mechanized and practised?


A Arabia B Botswana
C Mexico D New Zealand

42 Which of the following is not a cover crop?


A Cotton B Hay
C Soya Dean's D Sun hemp

43 Study the diagram below showing the world’s chief producers of hydro-electricity.

which country is represented by the portion with 236?


A Canada B Japan
C USA D USSR

44 What is the immediate benefit of load shedding to an electricity generating company?


A Supply is systematically regulated where there is shortage.
B The company makes more money during load shedding.
C There is less work for the company employees,
D Vandalism of cables is prevented.

45 Ordinarily the quality and price of coal is determined by the following factors except …
A Carbon content.
B impurities present.
C moisture content.
D Size of coal fragments.

46 Which of the following is the advantage of biomass fuel? It ..


A does not require bulk materials.
B has replaced petroleum.
C is renewable.
D reduces deforestation.

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47 Study the diagram below

What mineral can be used at Z?


A Cobalt B Gold
C Magnesium D Silver

48 Why has the location of world iron and steel industries undergone a lot of changes?
A Discovery of new sources of iron ore.
B Exhaustion of coal
C Improvement in the transport sector
D Introduction of new technology

49 Which one of the following types of iron ore has the highest metallic content?
A Haematite
B Limonite
C magnetite
D Siderite

50 Study the diagram below.

In modern times, which of the following would be the most appropriate location for
an integrated iron and steel centre?

A W
B X
C Y
D Z

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
PAPER 1
Friday 16 OCTOBER 2016
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to Candidates
Answer all questions.

SECTION A: MAPWORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES

Questions 1 to 12 are based on the 1:25 000 map

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY


13 A plane left Zambia (30oE) at 21:00 hours on Wednesday. What will be the local time at
place P (105oE) when the plane is leaving Zambia?
A. 02:00 hours on Tuesday
B. 02:00 hours on Wednesday
C. 16:00 hours on Wednesday
D. 16:00 hours on Thursday

14 Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

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Which one of the following angles determines latitude 30oE above?
A. ORP
B. POT
C. PRO
D. TOR

15 Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

Which of the following represents the features marked P, Q, R and S on the diagram?
P Q R S
A Levees Alluvium Bluff Ox-bow Lake
B Levees Bluff Alluvium Ox-bow Lake
C Ox-bow Lake Levees Alluvium Bluff
D Ox-bow Lake Levees Alluvium

16 Read the information given about a mountain type.


(i) Sides are very steep
(ii) The top is almost flat
(iii) Rises above low lands on their side

Which one of the following mountain types has the characteristics described above?
A. Fold mountain
B. Horst mountain
C. Residual mountain
D. Volcanic mountain

17 Which one of the following lists contain a river’s load carried as traction?
A. Boulders, pebbles and stones
B. Dissolved matter in water
C. Silt, mud and mod woods
D. Silt, stones and boulder

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18 Why are some volcanic cones steep sided in their formation? Because…
A. The lava flows quietly and is not very explosive
B. The lava flows slowly and seldom travels far before solidifying
C. The lava spreads out as thin sheets over great distances before solidifying
D. Of the every hot lava that are highly fluid

19. Which one of the following is known as a potent rock breaker in temperate latitudes?
A. Biotic factors
B. Frost action
C. Repeated temperature changes
D. Repeated wetting and drying

20. Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

Which of the following is true about part A in the above diagram? It is a…


A. Sill resistant to denudation
B. Sill not resistant to denudation
C. Dyke resistant to denudation
D. Dyke not resistant to denudation

21. Fold Mountains are also known as mountains of…


A. Accumulation
B. Denudation
C. Deposition
D. Elevation

22. The information below relates to a natural phenomenon.


(i) The crust shakes
(ii) Sea level recedes below normal low tide
(iii) Wild animals flee to high altitude lands
(iv) Inundation of coastal lands by water

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To which of the following does the information relate to?
A. Volcanic eruption
B. Severe avalanche
C. Tsunami
D. Cyclonic incursion

23 What is likely to occur when air rises over cold air?


A. Convectional rainfall
B. Convergence rainfall
C. Orographic rainfall
D. Relief rainfall

24. Study the diagram below showing an air pressure system and answer the question that
follows.

Which one of the following systems is represented by the above diagram?


A. A cyclone in the southern hemisphere
B. A cyclone in the northern hemisphere
C. An anti-cyclone in the northern hemisphere
D. An anti-cyclone in the southern hemisphere

25 On a map, lines joining places with equal amount of cloud cover are known as …
A. Isobars
B. Isohels
C. Isonephs
D. Isohyets

26 The name given to the condensation of water vapour in the air resulting in small
droplets of water floating in the air near the ground and reducing visibility is…
A. Dew
B. Fog
C. Haze
D. Mist

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27 Hot arid regions experiences a large diurnal range of temperature because of…
A. Clouds which act as a blanket
B. Lack of cloud cover
C. The dense vegetative cover
D. The presence of cone shaped trees

28 Study the climatic graph of town X below and answer the question that follows.

What type of climate is experienced by town X?


A. Hot wet equatorial
B. Mediterranean
C. Savanna
D. Tropical monsoon

29 Which one of the following towns has the savanna type of climate?
A. Algiers
B. Cairo
C. Cape town
D. Khartoum

30 The map below shows the extent of the equatorial regions of Africa.

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Which of the following is a reason why area X does not experience equatorial conditions
despite being found along the equator.
A. Coastal location has modified temperatures
B. Its lower altitude discourages formation of rainy clouds
C. The high altitude has resulted into lower temperatures
D. The northeast monsoon winds do not reach the area

31 In which region are the following found?


(i) Halophytic plants
(ii) Underground water reaches the surface in depressions
(iii) Thick long gowns are worn as protection against heat and coldness
(iv) Large diurnal range of temperature

A. Arid hot regions


B. Siberian climatic region
C. Sudan climatic region
D. Warm temperature western margin

32 Which one of the following is not an adaptation of the vegetation in the savanna?
A. Corn shaped
B. Fire resistant
C. Long tap-roots
D. Umbrella shaped

23 Study the world map below and answer the question that follows.

Two factors which have attracted more people in the shaded area shown above are…
A. Industries and fertile land
B. Lack of natural disasters and cooler climate
C. Warmer climate and fertile soils
D. Wetter conditions and industries

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34 A country is said to have an optimum population when the…
A. Dependence ratio balances with the ratio of workers
B. Developed natural resources are much more than what the population requires
C. Developed natural resources do not meet the needs of its population
D. Number of people is in balance with the developed natural resources

35 Which one of the following is not a problem of over – population?


A. Improper sanitation
B. Inadequate housing
C. High employment levels
D. Poor health service

36 When two or more towns grow and expand towards each other till they eventually
merge, they form a continuous urban or industrial belt known as…
A. Capital city
B. Conurbation
C. Metropolitan city
D. Sub-urban

37 Which of the following is the largest producer of wool?


A. Australia
B. Britain
C. Canada
D. Japan

38 The bar graph below shows the five major coffee producers in the world.

Which country is represented by letter W?


A. Brazil
B. Ethiopia
C. Guatemala
D. Mexico

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39 Which one of the following crops requires the following growing conditions?
(i) Summer rain of 890mm
(ii) Temperature of about 21oC
(iii) Deep, well-drained soil

A. Coffee
B. Maize
C. Sugar cane
D. Wheat

40 Which one of the following crops might lead to deforestation during its processing stage?
A. Cotton
B. Maize
C. Sugar cane
D. Tobacco

41. Which of the following is a type of extensive farming?


A. Dairy farming
B. Fish farming
C. Ranching
D. Truck farming

42 To improve soil fertility, the most likely farming technique that farmers practicing
monoculture may resort to is…
A. Contour ploughing
B. Crop rotation
C. Terracing
D. The growing of cover crops

43 Which one of the following sources of electric power is environmentally friendly?


A. Geothermal
B. Nuclear power
C. Solar power
D. Thermal power

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44 Which one of the following is not an advantage of hydro-electricity over other forms of
energy?
A. Cheap to construct
B. Cleanliness
C. Convenient transport
D. Unlimited degree of divisibility

45 Which one of the following energy sources leads to contaminations of soils by


radioactive materials?
A. Hydro-electric power
B. Nuclear power
C. Solar power
D. Thermal power

46 Which one of the following is not a major use of coal?


A. Fueling rockets into space
B. Generating electricity
C. Raising steam power
D. The manufacture of chemical products

47 The iron and steel industries located along the great lakes-St. Lawrence and along the
Japanese coastal areas have taken advantage of…
A. A wet-point location
B. Cheap water transport
C. Interior iron ore deposits
D. Large interior markets

48. Which one of the following iron ore types has the following properties?
(i) Black in colour and mainly from igneous rocks
(ii) Has excellent magnetic qualities
(iii) Has about 70% iron ore content

A. Hematite
B. Limonite
C. Magnetite
D. Siderite

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49 The coke used in the iron and steel works comes from…
A. Bituminous
B. Gypsum
C. Kaolin
D. Lignite

50. Study a sketch map below and answer the questions that follow.

Which one of the following marked A, B, C and D would an investor best choose for an
integrated iron and steel plant?

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
PAPER 1
Tuesday 31 OCTOBER 2017
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to Candidates
Answer all questions.

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES

Questions 1 to 12

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY


13 At which angle is the Earth's axis inclined to and is responsible for the change of seasons?
A 23½o
B 66½o
C 90o
D 360o

14 What would be the angle of elevation of the midday sun for a place on latitude
58°S on 22nd December?
A 24½o
B 32½o
C 55½o
D 67½o

15 Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

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The diagram above shows the formation of …
A an asymmetrical fold,
B a simple fold.
C an overfold.
D an Overthrust.

16 Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

The feature marked Y Isa.


A deferred junction.
B deferred tributary.
C misfit.
D River capture.

17 Study the diagrams below and answer the question that follows

The feature above represents the formation of a...


A plateau by compression.
B plateau by tension.
C rift valley by compression.
D rift valley by tension.

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18 Sediments deposited in the mouth of a river build a …
A basin.
B delta.
D erosional plain.
D flood plain.

19 Mountains which are formed as a result of denudation are called …


A fold mountains.
B horst mountains.
C residual mountains.
D volcanic mountains.

20 Which of the following is not an agent of weathering?


A Animals
B Air Pressure
C Plants
D Rainfall

21 Which one of the following is not a process of chemical weathering?


A Decomposition
B Frost action
C Oxidation
D Solution

22 Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

The volcanic feature X shown in the diagram above is a…


A caldera.
B crater.
C dyke.
D Spine.

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23 Apart from an anemometer, what else can be used to estimate wind speed?
A Aneroid barometer
B Beaufort scale
C Hygrometer
D Windrose

24 Study the table below which shows mean monthly temperatures for Verrkheyansk.

What is the annual range of temperature for the above station?


A -34.5°C
B 34°C
C 50oC
D 65.5oC

25 Regarding the greenhouse effect, what role do the greenhouse gases play?
A Allow more heat from the sun to enter the atmosphere.
B Generate the additional heat through chemical reactions.
C Help humid air to hold more heat within the atmosphere.
D Trap heat that is reflected from the surface of the earth.

26 What condition would lead to the dry and wet bulb thermometers recording the
same reading?
A Air saturated with moisture
B Low moisture in the air
C Moderate moisture in the air
D No moisture in the air

27 Which clouds are associated with thunderstorm and heavy rains?


A Cirro cumulus
B Cumulonimbus
C Cumulus
D Stratus

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28 Which of the following instruments used for measuring elements of weather is
not placed in a Stevenson screen?
A Maximum thermometer
B Mercury barometer
C Minimum thermometer
D Wet and dry bulb thermometer

29 Study the diagram below.

What climatic condition is likely to occur at location A?


A Cloudy
B Cool
C Rainy
D Warm

30 An atmospheric region where there is intense heating with expanding air and ascending
convection Currents is Known as the..
A doldrums.
B high pressure z0ne.
C horse latitudes.
D westerlies.

31 Study the table below and answer the question that follows.

From the above climatic table, identify the type of climate associated with each region.
W X Y Z
A Equatorial Mediterranean Hot Deserts Savanna
B Equatorial Savanna Mediterranean Hot Deserts
C Mediterranean Savanna Hot Deserts Equatorial
D Savanna Hot Deserts Equatorial Mediterranean

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32 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of vegetation in cool temperate regions?
A Broad leaves
B Bulbous roots
C Cone shaped trees
D Waxy leaves

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY


33 Which of the following is the most common characteristic feature of developing
countries?
A High literacy levels
B Low birth rate
C Low death rate
D Low life expectancy

34 Which one of the following countries is densely populated?


A Australia
B Brazil
C Java
D Tunisia

35 Which one of the following is not the cause of dense population in the North west Europe?
A Early marriages.
B Improved medical facilities.
C Increased food production.
D Increased industrialization.

36 A country can be described to be over populated when …


A there is greater decline in death rate than birth rate.
B there are more resources to sustain the population.
C there is a higher improvement in both medical and educational services.
D the area has a higher population than the resources can support.

37 Which one of the following types of farming is not commonly practised in the
A Mechanised cereal cultivation
B Oriental agriculture
C Plantation agriculture
D Sedentary cultivation

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38 Which one of the following crops can be used as a fuel, stock feed and alcoholic drink?
A Barley
B Maize
C Sugarcane
D Tea

39 What is meant by terracing in agriculture?


A Allowing a field to rest to enable natural processes to restore nutrients.
B Cutting of steep slopes to create flat land conditions for crop cultivation.
C Making lines in the ground for planting and allowing water to flow.
D Planting of crops on a mountainous area.

40 Which of the following is the least applicable to plantation agriculture in the world?
A Crops raised in plantations are mainly for export.
B The plantations are entirely owned by foreigners.
C Plantations are much larger in acreage.
D Average yields from plantations are higher.

41 What chemical do farmers apply to crops for quick maturity as well as strengthen root
formation?
A Calcium
B Nitrate
C Phosphate
D Potash

42 What would be the most suitable sequence of farming practices when one moves
from the city centre to the outskirts?
A Dairying – Market Gardening – Ranching – Mixed Farming
B Dairying – Ranching – Market Gardening – Mixed Farming
C Market Gardening – Dairying – Mixed Farming – Ranching
D Market Gardening – Mixed Farming – Dairying – Ranching

43 Why is solar energy less used in equatorial regions despite the sun mostly being
overhead throughout the year? Due to the presence of …
A heavy rains
B high humidity
C much cloud cover
D tall trees

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44 At a newly discovered oil well, oil is usually brought to the surface by …
A drilling.
B pipeline.
C pressure.
D pumping.

45 Which one of the following continents has the best developed water power potential?
A Africa
B Asia
C Australia
D South America

46 Over two-thirds of the world's electricity supply comes from ...


A geothermal plants.
B hydro-electric plants.
C nuclear plants.
D thermal plants.

47 Which one of the following is not the use of coal? A fuel in …


A blast furnace.
B jet engines.
C steam engines.
D brewing industry.

48 Which of the following types of energy is referred to as 'white coal?


A Geothermal
B Hydro-electricity
C Natural gas
D Petroleum

49 The leading coal producing country in Africa is.


A Nigeria.
B South Africa.
C Zambia.
D Zimbabwe.

50 Which one of the following minerals is the most abundant?


A Coal B Limestone
C Iron Ore D Cobalt

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
PAPER 1
Tuesday 31 OCTOBER 2018
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to Candidates
Answer all questions.

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES

Questions 1 to 12

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

13. A president’s jet destined for Lusaka (30oE), Zambia, leaves New York (74oW) at 23:00hrs
on Tuesday. If it is a 15:00 hour flight, what time is the jet expected to land in Lusaka?
A. 08:00 hours on Tuesday
B. 07:00 hours on Wednesday
C. 14:04 hours on Wednesday
D. 21:00 hours on Wednesday

14. Which of the following statements is correct about the earth’s revolution?
A. The revolution of the earth results into day and night
B. The summer solstice is experienced when the sun is vertically overhead at the
tropic of Capricorn (23½oS)
C. The sun is never overhead beyond the tropics at any time of the year
D. The winter solstice is experienced when the sun is vertically overhead at the
tropic of cancer (23½oN)

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15. The layer of the earth that is mainly composed of very dense rocks that are rich in
olivine is the…
A. Barysphere
B. Hydrosphere
C. Lithosphere
D. Mesosphere

16. Study the diagram and answer the question that follows

What feature is shown above?


A. Block mountain
B. Fold mountain
C. Residual mountain
D. Volcanic mountain

17. The upfolds in the earth’s crust due to compressional forces are called…
A. Anticlines
B. Nappe
C. Overfolds
D. Synclines

18. Study the diagram below and answer questions that follows.

The water discharge channels shown in the diagram above are known as…

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A. Distributaries
B. Ox-bow lakes
C. River rejuvenation
D. Tributaries

19. At which stage of a river will the feature shown above be formed?
A. Mountain stage
B. River mouth
C. River source
D. Valley course

20. The volcanic feature that forms when a mass of magma cuts across a bedding plane is
called a …
A. Batholith
B. Dyke
C. Laccolith
D. Sill

21. Study the diagram below and answer the question that follows.

What feature is shown in the diagram above?


A. Fountain
B. Geyser
C. Hot spring
D. Steam

22. The gradual disintegration of rocks by atmospheric forces is referred to as…


A. Deposition
B. Erosion
C. Transportation
D. Weathering

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23. Study the climatic data below for station Y and answer the question that follows.
Station Y
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temp (oC) 26 26 27 29 31 33 35 34 33 32 30 27
Prep (mm) 38 15 15 20 0 0 0 0 0 8 18 36

24. What type of natural vegetation is associated with station Y?


A. Date palms and cacti
B. Evergreen trees and mangroves
C. Tall grass with oak
D. Teak forest and shrubs

25. Which climatic region is referred to as the ‘orchard lands’ of the world?
A. Equatorial region
B. Hot desert region
C. Mediterranean region
D. Savanna region

Study the map below and answer the following two questions.

26. Which one of the following is the climatic characteristic of the shaded area?
A. Cloudless skies
B. High humidity
C. Very high annual temperature range
D. Very low diurnal range temperature

27. Plants adapt to the climate of the shaded area except by…
A. Growing long top roots
B. Growing waxy leaves
C. Producing seeds that do not lie dormant
D. Storing water in the stem

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Study the map below and answer the question that follows.

28. The area marked E will experience …


A. Convectional rainfall
B. Cyclonic rainfall
C. Fog
D. Mist

29. What type of vegetation is typical of climatic conditions with winter rains and summer
droughts?
A. Cacti, thorn bushes, date palms
B. Cork oak, cedar, cypresses
C. Mahogany, ebony, orchids
D. Teak, Sal, bamboo

30. The natural vegetation in the wet equatorial climate does not occur in pure stands.
What does the term ‘pure stand’ mean?
A. Vegetation has a variety of evergreen trees
B. Vegetation occurs in a distinct layer arrangement
C. Vegetation of a mixed species found in the same area
D. Vegetation of the same species found in the same area

Study the diagram below and answer the following question

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31. Which one of the settlements A, B, C or D would experience the highest atmospheric
pressure?

Study the table below and answer the following two questions
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D Total range
o
Temp ( C) 22 25 29 32 31 28 27 26 27 27 26 39 9
Prep (mm) 0 3 3 13 64 122 208 307 140 13 0 0 864

32. From which climatic region would the above data be drawn?
A. Equatorial region
B. Mediterranean region
C. Tropical region
D. Tropical monsoon

33. How does vegetation adapt to the climatic conditions shown above?
A. Trees are deciduous, long tap roots and broad trunks
B. Trees are halophytic, have long roots and thick succulent stems
C. Trees are xerophytic, short branches with few leaves and have no shade
D. Trees have broad leaves and slender trunks

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY


34. Population density refers to…
A. Average living standards of people in a given area
B. Number of people living in a given area of land
C. Total population of a country in relation to inhibited land area of that country
D. Total population of a region in relation to the area’s productivity

35. The following are types of rural settlement patterns except…


A. Dispersed
B. Isolated
C. Linear
D. Nucleated

36. Which one of the following is not a problem associated with over population?
A. A decline in health standards
B. A rapid population increase
C. High rate of unemployment
D. Shortage of workforce

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Study the map below and answer the following question

37. Which of the above shaded areas marked A, B, C and D has low population density due
to arid climatic conditions?

38. Which of the areas A, B, C or D practices extensive cereal cultivation?

39. In Australia, beef cattle ranching is difficult to fully develop due to…
A. Great distances of the cattle farms from the eastern coastal towns
B. High competition from outside Australia
C. High tsetse infestation which causes trypanosomiasis
D. Reliable heavy rainfall that makes pasture growth difficult

40. Truck farming is commonly practiced in the United States of America. The other name
for truck farming is…
A. Fruit farming
B. Horticulture
C. Market gardening
D. Sericulture

41. The least grown cereal crop in Africa is…


A. Maize
B. Millet
C. Sorghum
D. Wheat

42. Ginning is one of the processes used in the manufacture of cotton yarn. This process
refers to the…
A. Gathering of cotton bolls from the plant
B. Joining of the cotton fibre to form a continuous thread
C. Separation of the seeds from the cotton fibre
D. Washing of the cotton fibre

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43. Atomic power is derived from the mineral called…
A. Bauxite B. Feldspar
C. Graphite D. Uranium

44. In which of the following are oil traps likely to occur? ...impervious rock layers.
A. Anticlines above B. Anticlines below
C. Synclines above D. Synclines below

45. Most of the oil in Canada is drilled…


A. Around the St. Lawrence Great Lakes region
B. In the Alberta province
C. In the north-west territory
D. On the shores of the Hudson Bay

46. Which one of the following basic requirements in the generation of hydro-electricity is
the least essential?
A. Heavy capital outlay B. Large international market
C. Steep slope D. Sufficient volume of water

47. The world’s leading coal producer among the following countries is…
A. China B. France
C. Japan D. South Africa

48. Which one of the following is a disadvantage of wind energy in the world?
A. Geothermal power B. Hydro-electric power
C. Solar energy D. Wind energy

49. At a hydro-electric power station, what directly converts potential energy in water to
electricity?
A. Generator
B. Penstocks
C. Transformers
D. Turbines

50. Which one of the following is not a product mined in connection with petroleum?
A. Asphalt
B. Coke
C. Ethane
D. Methane

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
PAPER 1
Tuesday 31 OCTOBER 2019
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to Candidates
Answer all questions.

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES

Questions 1 to 12

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY


13. During the under 20 world cup soccer competition in South Korean Republic (120oE) a
match between England and Zambia commenced at 15:00hrs. What was the time in
Zambia (30oE) when the match commenced?
A. 06:00hrs
B. 07:00hrs
C. 08:00hrs
D. 09:00hrs

14. What is the approximate straight-line distance between Cairo (30oN) and Bulawayo (20oS)?
A. 600km
B. 1,600km
C. 3,300km
D. 5,550km

15. The permanent tilt of the earth’s axis and revolution of the earth in its orbit together cause…
A. Day and night
B. Deflection of the wind
C. Difference in times between places on different meridians
D. Varying lengths of the day and night at different times of the year

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16. Study the diagram below

The feature above is most likely to have been caused by…


A. Erosion
B. Faulting
C. Folding
D. Jointing

17. Which of the following types of weathering is common in temperate regions and in high
mountains?
A. Exfoliation
B. Frost action
C. Hydration
D. Oxidation

18. Study the diagram below

The feature labelled S is…


A. Batholith
B. Dyke
C. Laccolith
D. Phacolith

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19. Study the diagram below

Which of the points A, B, C or D represents the plain course of a river?

20. Study the diagram below

What type of mass movement is shown in the diagram above?


A. Landslide
B. Mudflow
C. Rock fall
D. Soil creep

21. Study the diagram below

What river feature are represented by M and N?


M N
A. Estuary Lagoon
B. Estuary Ox-bow lake
C. Lagoon Distributary
D. Ox-bow lake Distributary
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22. Study the diagram below

What environmental hazard has affected the shaded area?


A. Acidic rain
B. Drought
C. Floods
D. Tropical storms

23. Which one of the following represents a cyclone in the southern hemisphere?

Study the climatic chart below

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24. Which statement is correct about the climatic data above? It…
A. Has relatively high temperature in summer
B. Has relatively uniform temperature throughout the year
C. Has very high rainfall throughout the year
D. Most of the rains are received in summer

25. What vegetation type best suits the climatic data being represented?
A. Evergreen forests, palm trees and deciduous trees
B. Evergreen oak, pine and wiry grass
C. Scrub, drought resistant and cacti
D. Tall grass, scattered trees and thorny bushes

26. The earth’s atmosphere gets…


A. Thicker as altitude increases
B. Thicker as latitude decreases
C. Thinner as altitude decreases
D. Thinner as altitude increases

27. Which of the following regions is the poorest in biodiversity?


A. Equatorial
B. Hot deserts
C. Mediterranean
D. Savanna

Study the map the map of Africa below

28. Which of the following areas A, B, C or D experiences less rainfall?

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29. Which of the following is the characteristic of the vegetation in area C?
A. It is drought resistant
B. Many plants have thick stems
C. Trees grow in pure stands
D. Trees grow very tall

30. The term hydrophytic is associated with the…climate?


A. Equatorial
B. Hot desert
C. Mediterranean
D. Constructing Savanna

31. What type of vegetation springs up when the virgin tropical rainforest have been
cleared and abandoned?
A. Creepers
B. Evergreen trees
C. Lianas
D. Mangrove forests

32. The extreme diurnal range of temperature is characteristic of the…


A. Equatorial climate
B. Hot desert climate
C. Mediterranean climate
D. Sudan climate

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY


33. How can traffic congestion be reduced in large cities?
A. Constructing by pass routes
B. Creating single lanes
C. Encouraging use of private vehicles
D. Impounding over speeding vehicles

34. Which one of the following is not a push factor in the rural-urban migration process?
A. Decrease in the standard of living
B. High dependency ratio
C. High gross national product per capital income
D. Low levels of national development

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Study the table below
Country Birth rate per 1000 Death rate per 1000
X 13 12
Y 16 09
Z 50 16
W 54 12

35. Which one of the following is correct about the table above?
A. Country W is Zimbabwe while Y is Nigeria
B. Country X is Nigeria while Z is United Kingdom
C. Country Y is Zimbabwe while X is Nigeria
D. Country Z is the United States of America while Y is Zimbabwe

36. Study the diagram below

What type of settlement is shown above?


A. Dispersed
B. Isolated
C. Linear
D. Nucleated

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37. Towns tend to grow and expand towards each other till they eventually merge.
This is called…?
A. Confluence town
B. Conurbation
C. Nodal town
D. Satellite town

38. Which one of the following countries has the highest fertility rate?
A. Egypt
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. United states of America

39. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plantation farming?


A. It is capital intensive
B. It is generally a monoculture crop
C. It is not highly mechanized
D. It occupies large areas of land

40. Dairy farming is usually practiced near large city areas because…?
A. Dairy products are perishable
B. Grass is greener in urban areas
C. Only urban areas are suitable for dairy animals
D. Rural duelers do not consume dairy products

41. Which of the following crops are grown under shifting cultivation?
A. Barley and millet
B. Cassava and maize
C. Sorghum and rice
D. Wheat and ground nuts

42. Which one of the following describes extensive farming?


A. Highly mechanized
B. High use of draught power
C. High use of human labour
D. High yield per hectarage

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43. Which one of the following is a geographical requirement for the successful growth of
maize?
A. Average rainfall of 650mm – 1000mm
B. Average temperature of above 16oC
C. Rich alluvial soils with an impoverished sub-soil
D. Thick clay soil on gentle slopes

44. A geologist prospecting and surveying for oil would most likely consider…?
A. Gently folded anticline strata B. Zones of igneous rocks
C. Zones of impervious rocks D. Zones of metamorphic rocks

45. For successful hydro-electric power development, the following factors are essential
except…?
A. Convenient transport B. Large domestic market
C. Sufficient volume of water D. Steep gradient

46. The highest potential which Africa has on solar production is based on the abundance
of…?
A. Forests B. Minerals
C. Cloud cover D. Sunshine

47. Which among the following countries is the major importer of coal?
A. China B. India
C. Japan D. Malaysia

48. What type of energy produced by human and animal waste is used for lighting, cooking
and generating electricity?
A. Biogas B. Ethanol
C. Methane D. Petroleum

49. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?


A. Biomass B. Coal
C. Petroleum D. Uranium

50. What type of energy has propelled the success in manufacturing of valuable
machinery, electrical appliances in Switzerland?
A. Hydro-electric power B. Thermal power
C. Nuclear power D. Geothermal power

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA


Examination for General Certificate of Education Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
PAPER 1
2020

Time: 1 hour 30 minutes

Instructions to Candidates
Answer all questions.

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES


Questions 1 to 12

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

13 On 21st March, Alaska (64.2°N) experiences …


A 24 hours of daylight.
B equal day and night.
C longer days and shorter nights.
D longer nights and shorter days.

14 A jet destined for place Y (165°E) leaves Accra (0°) at 06 00hours GMT and takes an hour
to fly every 30°. At this speed, what would be the local time at place Y when the jet
arrives?
A 05 30 hours
B 11 30 hours
C 12 30 hours
D 22 30 hours

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Study the diagram below and answer question 15.

15 The feature shown above is …


A a basic lava cone.
B a composite cone.
C an acid lava cone.
D an ash and under cone.

16 In volcanism, rocks below the earth's crust exist in a molten state called magma because
of very
A high latitude.
B high pressure.
C low pressure.
D low temperature.

Study the diagram below and answer question 17.

17 What type of folding is represented at X?


A Nappe
B Normal fold
C Recumbent fold
D Reverse fold

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Study the diagram of the earth's structure and answer question 18.

18 Which of the labelled parts A, B, C or D makes up the continents?

19 Waterfalls are not formed when a ...


A bar of resistant rock lies transversely across a river valley.
B river capture occurs at the head of a stream.
C river descends a hanging valley.
D river plunges down the edge of a plateau.

Study the diagram below and answer question 20.

20 Feature A is formed as a result of the …


A inside bend of a river bank being eroded rapidly.
B outside bend of a river bank being eroded rapidly.
C rapid erosion of the river banks.
D rapid erosion of the river beds.

21 A geyser is best described as ...


A a fountain of super heated steam.
B an explosion of volcanic vapour.
C a pool of hot water.
D a thermal steam.

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22 Chemical weathering mostly occurs …
A in acid deserts.
B in humid tropical areas
C where there are high winds.
D within the Arctic Circle.

23 Landslides usually occur …


A where man has artificially steepened slopes.
B when the soil is completely saturated with water.
C with a slow, gradual but continuous movement of soil downhill.
D with repeated temperature changes on the land.

Study the diagram below and answer question 24.

24 The diagram shows a...


A Hurricane.
B Tornado.
C Tsunami.
D Typhoon.

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25 The diagram below shows a sea breeze during the day. What is happening at X and Y?

X Y
A Warm air descending Cold air rising
B Warm air rising Warm air descending
C Cold air descending Warm air descending
D Warm air rising Cold air descending

26 There is little undergrowth in the Equatorial Rain Forest because ...


A it rains all year round.
B of uniform high temperature.
C there is less sunlight reaching the ground.
D the soil is less fertile.

Study the map diagram of a tropical cyclone in Southern Hemisphere.

27 In which direction is the wind likely to be deflected to?


A Centre
B Left
C Right
D Sideward

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Study the climatic data for station X shown below and answer questions 28 and 29.
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
o
Temp ( C) 14 14 15 15 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14
Prep (mm) 94 89 124 244 165 81 66 84 74 213 244 142

28 In which climatic region is station X located?


A Continental
B Equatorial
C Mediterranean
D Savannah

29 What is the range of temperature for station X?


A 1°C
B 14°C
C 29°C
D 171°C

Study the map below and answer question 30.

30 Which of the labelled regions A, B, C or D receives rainfall in winter?

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Study the chart below and answer question 31.

31 What climatic region is represented by the diagram?


A Equatorial
B Hot desert
C Mediterranean
D Tropical grassland

32 The importance of an Isohel is that it indicates areas with equal ...


A loud cover.
B pressure.
C rainfall.
D sunshine.

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY


33 An area whose natural resources can no longer support its inhabitants is said to be …
A over developed.
B over populated.
C under developed.
D under populated.

34 The equatorial regions are sparsely populated because ...


A of dangerous animals.
B of primitive people who live there.
C of thick forests.
D soils are not good for agriculture.

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Study the diagram below and answer question 35.

35 The type of settlement pattern depicted in the diagram is.


A block.
B dispersed.
C linear
D nucleated.

36 A town whose area covers 30,000 km had an estimated population of 1,920,000 people.
What is the population density for the town? ... people per square kilometre.
A 15
B 16
C 46
D 64

Study the map below and answer questions 37 and 38.

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37 Which area has low population density due to adverse dry climatic conditions?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4

38 In which of the numbered areas is there a high population density due to intensive
agriculture?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4

39 A crop that thrives in the tropics, even in areas with little moisture and can survive in
day temperature of over 32°C, with an annual rainfall ranging from 1 100 to 1 780mm is
A cocoa.
B coffee.
C cotton.
D tea.

40 Which type of farming is largely associated with the production of cocoa, coffee and
rubber?
A Intensive farming
B Mixed farming
C Plantation farming
D Shifting farming

41 Which one of the following is not a reason that affects Ethiopia's coffee production
potential?
A It is difficult to access the parts of the country with fertile soil.
B It is difficult to sell coffee in Europe.
C It has high transport costs than any other country.
D Most coffee farmers are not trained.

42 Which of the following is a common feature of plantation agriculture? It …


A is financed by foreign capital.
B lacks social services for workers.
C is not capital intensive.
D provides raw materials for local industries.

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43 Which of the following farming methods allows conservation of ground moisture
and replenishing of soil nutrients?
A Controlled grazing
B Fallowing
C Strip cropping
D Terracing

44 The world's greatest tea producer is ...


A China.
B India.
C Indonesia.
D Thailand.

45 Shifting cultivators abandon their fields after a few years due to …


A improvised soils.
B lack of pesticides.
C lack of proper seeds.
D the use of elementary tools.

46 The reason why countries prefer to have petroleum refineries in their own countries and
not at the port of import is because ...
A pipeline transportation of crude oil is cheaper.
B filtering of by-products is much higher.
C port of import charges are higher.
D these are higher economic multiplier effects.

Study the diagram below and answer question 47.

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47 At what point would mining be most expensive, A, B, C or D?

Study the map below and answer question 48.

48 What hydroelectric power station is shown on the map?


A Aswan H.E.P
B Owen H.E.P
C Sennar H.E.P
D Volta H.E.P

49 Africa has vast water resources but has not developed in the area of Hydro Electric
power. This is because ...
A most rivers dry up during the year.
B of lack of capital to invest in H.E.P.
C of lack of skilled man power.
D of poor government policy.

50 The following are sources of fuel and power. Which one is not a fossil fuel?
A Coal
B Geo Thermal
C Natural gas
D Petroleum

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA
Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
PAPER 1
Monday 22 NOVEMBER 2021
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Marks: 50

Instructions to Candidates
Answer all questions.

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES

Questions 1 to 12

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY

Study the following diagram and answer question 13.

13 What is the difference in latitude between points A and B?


A 15o
B 30o
C 45o
D 60o

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14 Find the latitude for town Y in the Northern Hemisphere whose angle of elevation is 46o
on 21st March?
A 0o
B 25o
C 44o
D 67o

15 Which one of the following planets takes the longest period of time to make one
revolution?
A Earth
B Jupiter
C Mars
D Venus

16 Which of the following is not an aspect of volcanicity?


A Batholith
B Dyke
C Fold
D Geyser

17 The soils along the river banks in its lower course are fertile mainly because of the ...
A decomposition of leaves from trees along the banks.
B deposition of silt during the flooding of the plain.
C droppings of animals that come to drink water.
D fishing activities that are done in the lower course.

18 The drainage pattern likely to be formed on volcanic mountains is …


A confluence.
B dendritic.
C radial.
D trellis.

19 Which of the following materials from an eruption of a volcano makes the movement of
people in the nearby places difficult?
A Ash
B Composite cone
C Lava
D Parasitic cone

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20 Which one of the following river loads is largely responsible for both lateral and vertical
corrosion?
A Material in solution
B Materials in suspension
C Soil creep
D Traction load

21 The following are river sources except, …


A lake.
B marsh.
C Ocean.
D spring.

22 The major cause of synclines and anticlines is … force.


A compression
B rotation
C tension
D vertical

23 Dissected plateaux are caused by ... erosion.


A gully
B lateral
C sheet
D vertical

24 At the delta, a river discharges its water through several channels called …
A distributaries.
B meanders.
C streams.
D tributaries.

Study the following diagram and answer question 25.

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25 The diagram above shows …
A a cyclone.
B a land breeze.
C a sea breeze.
D an anticyclone.

26 A tropical storm which develops in low pressure systems traveling about 800km per
hour and is very destructive is called …
A anticyclone
B hurricane.
C tornado.
D typhoon.

Study the following climatic table showing the mean monthly precipitation for Station
A and answer question 27.
Month J F M A M J J A S O N D
Temp (oC) 33 31 29 27 26 26 27 30 32 33 34 35
Rainfall mm 28 15 15 20 0 0 0 0 0 8 18 36

27 What is the mean annual rainfall for Station A above?


A 15mm
B 25mm
C 12.5mm
D 13.5mm

28 Which one of the following representation of cloud cover is a typical characteristic of


the not deserts?

29 The most distinctive feature of the hot, wet equatorial climate is its
A large annual range of temperature.
B heavy summer rainfall.
C double maxima of rainfall coinciding with equinoxes.
D distinct dry and wet seasons.

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30 Which one of the following climatic regions is likely to have wiry grass?
A Equatorial
B Hot desert
C Mediterranean
D Savanna

31 Lumbering in the Savannah regions has been negatively affected largely due to …
A increase in deforestation.
B lack of government's policies.
C lack of proper machinery.
D scattered tree species of the same type.

32 The following tree species are all found in the Savannah region except, …
A Acacia.
B Baobab
C Meranti
D Mulga.

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

33 The population density of a country depends on the ..


A birth rate and death rate.
B rate of population increase.
C size of the territory and the size of population.
D standard of living and urbanisation.

34 Which one of the following countries is the least populated


A Britain
B Colombia
C Egypt
D Sweden

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Study the world map and answer question 35.

35 The shaded areas are densely populated mainly due to …


A agriculture.
B fishing.
C mining.
D industrialisation.

36 The most and critical challenge in over populated areas is …


A food shortages.
B lack of accommodation.
C lack of clothing.
D poor road network.

Study the following diagram and answer question 37.

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37 Which one of the following settlement patterns is depicted in the diagram?
A Dispersed
B Isolated
C Linear
D Nucleated

38 What name is given to centres of commerce and finance where trade is the primary
concern?
A Banking towns
B Commercial towns
C Financial towns
D Market towns

39 Which one of the following is the greatest producer of rice in the world?
A China
B India
C Indonesia
D Thailand

Study the following characteristics of farming and answer question 40.


X, Y and Z are characteristics of three different farming types.
X – practised in densely populated countries also known as oriental farming.
Y – farms are highly mechanised and farming is done on a large.
Z – abandoning of exhausted fields to clear new ones after a few years.

40 Which one of the following best describes the farming type mentioned in the passage?
Shifting cultivation Intensive farming Extensive Farming
A Y X Z
B X Y Z
C Z X Y
D Z Y X

41 Which type of farming tends to result into low yield per hectare but high yield per
individual?
A Extensive mechanised farming
B Intensive subsistence farming
C Plantation farming
D Shifting cultivation

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42 Soil erosion may not be prevented by …
A contour ploughing
B planting trees.
C ploughing grasslands."
D terracing farmland.

43 Which one of the following countries is the world's largest consumer of wheat?
A Britain
B Canada
C Egypt
D South Africa

Study the following growing conditions and answer question 44.


(i) It is cultivated extensively from 35 North to 25 South
(ii) Summer temperatures of 21°C.
(iii) Rainfall of about 1,000mm with 200 frost free days.
(iv) Best harvested during bright sunny days.

44 Which of the following crops requires the stated growing conditions?


A Cassava
B Cocoa
C Coffee
D Cotton

45 The rearing of cattle mainly for beef production is known as …


A dairying.
B horticulture.
C ranching.
D poultry.

46 Thermal electricity refers to power ...


A contained in batteries.
B made from running water.
C made from solar radiation.
D made from natural gas

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47 Which of the following is referred to as a clean coal?
A Geothermal energy
B Hydro energy
C Solar energy
D Wind energy

48 Which of the following is not among the major factors that have promoted coal mining
in South Africa? The …
A bulk of the coal is exported to earn forex.
B coal lies near the surface.
C coal is mostly mined by open cast method.
D Coal occurs in very thick layers.

49 Which one of the following countries has the least potential in the production of hydro
electricity?
A France
B Germany
C Japan
D Poland

50 Which one of the following is mined in connection with petroleum?


A Asphalt
B Ethane
C Methane
D Kerosene

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA

Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
Paper 1

Friday 18 NOVEMBER 2022


Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Marks: 50

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES


Questions 1 to 12 are based on the 1:50 000 map extract of Zvishavane (Zimbabwe).
1 Find the six figure grid reference for a water reservoir north east of Zvishavane.
A 514 959
B 518 964
C 959 514
D 964 518

2 Find the distance of Shavi River from grid square 970442 to 010422.
A 3.9Km
B 4.4km
C 5.9km
D 6.9km

3 The height of the trigonometrical station in grid square 0043 is ...


A 1 030.0m.
B 1 076.6m.
C 1 173.0m.
D 1 179.6m.

4 What is the bearing of the dip tank in grid square 9645 from the trigonometric station in
grid square 9042?
A 24°
B 66°
C 114°
D 246o

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5 What is the major economic activity for the town of Zvishavane?
A Farming
B Fishing
C Mining
D Tourism

6 What evidence is found on the map to show that Pastoralism is practised? The presence of …
A dams.
B dip tanks.
C rivers.
D vegetation.

7 According to map evidence, the dominant vegetation in Zvishavane is ...


A dense bush.
B medium bush.
C plantation.
D sparse bush.

8 The dominant settlement pattern in the town of Zvishavane is ...


A cluster.
B dispersed.
C Linear.
D random.

9 According to the map evidence, which one of the following social service is not provided
in Zvishavane town?
A Education
B Health
C Recreation
D Trade

Study the following map extract and answer question 10.

10 The general relief of the map extract is ...


A flat land.
B hilly land.
C low land.
D swampy land.

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11 The drainage pattern of the Shavi River and its tributaries is ...
A braided.
B radial
C rectangular.
D trellised.

12 Which one of the following diagram shows the cross section of the land between a dip
tank in grid 9642 and the mine dump in grid 9944?

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY


13 Which one of the following planets is the hottest and similar in size to planet Earth?
A Mars
B Neptune
C Saturn
D Venus

14 The sun is directly overhead on the Equator each year on ...


A 21 June and 22 December.
B 21 March and 21 June.
C 21 March and 23 September.
D 23 September and 22 December.

15 What would be the local time on a ship at longitude 75°W when it is 11 00 hours in
London (0°)?
A 05 00 hours
B 06 00 hours
C 15 00 hours
D 16 00 hours

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16 Internal Earth's movements operating along horizontal planes moving away from each
other are known as ...
A compression forces.
B external forces.
C tension forces.
D vertical movements.

Study the following diagram and answer question 17.

17 The feature marked E is a ...


A fault.
B fold.
C graben.
D horst.

18 Chemical weathering is more common ...


A in arid areas.
B in humid tropical regions.
C within the Arctic Circle.
D where winds are dust laden.

19 The overriding portion of the thrust fold is called ...


A graben.
B horst.
C nappe.
D syncline.

Study the following diagram and answer question 20.

20 Which of the following features are represented by letters X and Y?


X Y
A Elbow of capture Wind gap
B Misfit Elbow of capture
C Pirated stream Wind gap
D Wind gap Misfit

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21 Which of the following is a result of tensional movements?
A Dyke
B Horst
C Sill
D Spur

22 Mountains of accumulation are also called ...


A block mountains.
B mountains of elevation.
C residual mountains.
D volcanic mountains.

Study the following diagram and answer question 23.

23 At which stage of the river is the feature above found?


A Delta
B Mountain course
C Plain course
D Valley course

Study the following climatic table and answer questions 24 and 25.
Month Jan Feb Mar April May June July Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec
Tem (°C) 25 23 24 22 20 10 12 20 24 29 28 27
Rain (mm) 04 06 07 09 11 13 16 15 12 10 06 03

24 What type of climate is represented by the recordings from the table?


A Equatorial
B Mediterranean
C Savannah
D Tropical monsoon

25 Which one of the following towns experiences the type of climate referred to in
question 24?
A Cape town
B Gaborone
C Khartoum
D Kinshasa

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26 The Horse latitude is located between ...
A 30° N and 30° S.
B 40° N and 40° S.
C 50° N and 50° S.
D 60° N and 60° S.

27 In which of the following climatic regions are typhoons likely to occur?


A Antarctic region
B Arctic region
C High pressure region
D Low pressure region

28 Why are the windward slopes of coastal mountains wetter than the leeward slopes?
This is because ...
A descending winds are warm.
B the sea is warmer than the land.
C the winds have to rise to cross them.
D they are nearer the sea.

29 Which of the following factors does not determine the amount of heat received in any
part of the earth's surface?
A Distance from the sea
B Latitude
C Longitude
D Relief

30 What happens when prevailing winds blow parallel to the coast?


A Floods are usually experienced.
B Heavy rainfall is received.
C Little or no rainfall is received.
D Snowfall is experienced.

Study the world map and answer questions 31 and 32.

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31 The area marked Y experiences ... climate.
A Hot desert
B Mediterranean
C Savanna
D Tropical Monsoon

32 Which of the following plant species are found in area Y?


A Baobab and Acacias
B Cacti and Thorn bushes
C Lichens and Mosses
D Pine and Cedar

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY


33 The area along the Nile Valley is densely populated because of ...
A presence of ancient sites for tourism.
B good transport network.
C fertile soils.
D adequate rainfall.

34 Which of the following is the best way of controlling the population?


A Eliminating unwanted pregnancies
B Enhancing family planning
C Improving health care
D Increasing food production

35 A situation where the available resources match the population of an area is called ...
A maximum population.
B optimum population.
C over population.
D under population.

36 The rate of natural increase of population is best defined as the crude ...
A birth rate minus the crude death rate.
B birth rate minus the fertility rate.
C death rate divided by the crude death rate.
D death rate divided by the fertility rate.

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Study the graph showing population projection and answer question 37.

37 The projected world population in 2075 is ...


A 11.8.
B 12.5.
C 12.9.
D 13.1.

38 In which of the following continents is rural over-population common?


A Africa
B Asia
C Europe
D North America

Study the following map and answer question 39.

39 Which is the main reason why areas marked A and B are sparsely populated? They are ...
A covered with ice.
B dry and infertile.
C government protected areas.
D mountainous.

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Study the following population pyramid and answer question 40.

40 The population pyramid represents ...


A a growing population.
B a medium population.
C an old population.
D a young population.

41 The largest producer of tea is ...


A China.
B India.
C Japan.
D Sri Lanka.

42 The following are economic factors influencing agriculture except ...


A labour.
B market.
C soil.
D transport.

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Study the following bar graph showing four major countries that produce wheat.

43 Which country is represented by the letter D?


A Argentina
B China
C Italy
D United States of America

44 The following crops are legumes except ...


A beans.
B groundnuts.
C sunhemp.
D wheat.

45 Which one of following crops is not a raw material?


A Coffee
B Oil Palm
C Rubber
D Timber

Study the map of Africa and answer question 46.

46 Name the major crop grown in the shaded areas above.


A Barley
B Dates
C Oats
D Vines

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Study the pie chart that shows the energy consumption by energy type and answer question 47.

47 Which one of the continents is represented in the pie chart above?


A Africa
B Asia
C North America
D South America

48 The term 'mineral oil' refers to ...


A coal
B diesel.
C petroleum.
D natural gas.

49 Which of the following statements is true about renewable energy?


A Burning of fuel wood, natural gas and coal
B Combustion of nuclear energy
C The use of hydro-electricity, solar energy and bio-gas
D The use of coal and oil

50 Which one of the following countries accounts for the least world's total production of
coal?
A Brazil
B Canada
C China
D Japan

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA

Examination for School Certificate Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
Paper 1

Friday 17 NOVEMBER 2023


Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Marks: 50

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES


Questions 1 to 12 are based on the 1:50 000 map extract of Victoria Falls Town (Zimbabwe).
1 Find the six figure grid reference of the Trigonometrical Station 527/T.
A 721 964
B 726 194
C 734 195
D 193 735

2 Find the length of the Masuwe River from grid 72 to grid 74. ... meters.
A 3 000
B 3 800
C 4 600
D 5 000

Study the following map extract and answer question 3.

3 What is the bearing of the unmarked spot height 927 from the view point?
A 75
B 105
C 160
D 220

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4 What tourist attraction is found in grid square 7718?


A An embankment
B National monument
C Pump house
D Railway line cross

5 Which one of the following modes of transport are tourists not likely to use when
getting into Victoria Falls Town?
A Air transport
B Railway transport
C Road transport
D Water transport

6 From map evidence, which one of the following economic activity is not carried out in
Victoria Falls?
A Farming
B Power transmission
C Railway transport
D Tourism

7 What is the direction of Princes Elizabeth Island in grid square 7720 from Canary Island
in square 7422?
A North East
B North West
C South East
D South West

8 What is the difference in the height of land between Musuwe Falls in grid square 7813
and Game Park entrance gate in grid square 7313?
A 10m
B 20m
C 30m
D 40m

9 What type of vegetation is dominant on the map extract of Victoria Falls Town? ... bush.
A Medium
B Sparse
C Very dense
D Very open

10 The channel of the Zambezi River East of grid line 78 and South of grid line 16 can be
described as ...
A flat. B narrow.
C steep. D wide.

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11 In which of the following grid squares is there evidence for generation of electricity?
A 7620
B 7718
C 7812
D 7917

Study the map extract and answer question 12.

12 Which one of the following diagrams represents a correct cross section of the map along
grid line 20?

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY


13 What is the straight line distance between Cape Town 33°S and the Tropic of Capricorn
23½°S?
A 1 054.5km
B 2 608.5km
C 3 666.5km
D 6 216.0km

14 Which planet orbits in a clockwise direction from east to west?


A Earth
B Jupiter
C Saturn
D Uranus
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15 If the local time in Georgia Town (Guyana) 60oW is 01 35 hours, what will be the local
time in Bankok (Thailand) 100°E?
A 02 40 hours
B 04 15 hours
C 10 40 hours
D 12 15 hours

Study the following diagram and answer question 16.

16 The diagram illustrates the formation of ...


A fold mountains.
B intermont plateau.
C residual mountains.
D volcanic plateau.

17 Which of the following lists contain a river's load carried as traction?


A Boulders, pebbles and stones
B Dissolved matter in water
C Silt, mud and mod woods
D Silt, stones and boulder

18 Which of the following factors is responsible for all forms of mass movement?
A Gravity
B Moisture
C Pressure
D Temperature

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Study the diagram that shows a cross section of a river profile and answer question 19.

19 What does the diagram illustrate?


A Formation of rapids
B River flooding
C River rejuvenation
D River terracing

Study the following diagram and answer question 20.

20 Which of the following is true about part A in the diagram? It is a ...


A sill resistant to denudation.
B sill not resistant to denudation.
C dyke resistant to denudation.
D dyke not resistant to denudation.

21 Which one of the following is not a process of chemical weathering?


A Decomposition
B Frost action
C Oxidation
D Solution

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Study the following diagram and answer question 22.

22 The volcanic feature X shown in the diagram is called ...


A caldera.
B crater.
C dyke.
D spine.

23 The Tropical Continental Savannah type of climate is best described as having ...
A hot, wet, autumn and cool dry spring.
B much rain all year round.
C summer rain and winter drought.
D winter rain and summer drought.

Study the following weather characteristics and answer question 24.


(i) An area with high pressure in the centre.
(ii) Isobars far apart.
(iii) Winds move in an anticlockwise direction.
24 The description above refers to ...
A a cyclone in the Northern hemisphere.
B a cyclone in the Southern hemisphere.
C an anticyclone in the Northern hemisphere.
D an anticyclone in the Southern hemisphere.

25 Regarding the greenhouse effect, what role do the greenhouse gases play?
A Allow more heat from the sun to enter the atmosphere.
B Generate additional heat through chemical reactions.
C Help humid air to hold more heat within the atmosphere.
D Trap heat that is reflected from the surface of the earth.

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26 Why do the hot deserts experience cold nights? Due to ...
A cloud cover.
B clear skies.
C low air pressure.
D high solar insolation.

Study the climatic graph for town X and answer question 27.

27 What type of climate is experienced by town X?


A Hot desert
B Hot wet equatorial
C Mediterranean
D Savanna

Study the following map of Africa and answer question 28.

28 Which of the following is a reason why area X does not experience equatorial climatic
conditions despite being found along the equator?
A Coastal location has modified temperatures.
B Its lower altitude discourages formation of rainy clouds.
C The higher altitude has resulted into lower temperatures.
D The North East monsoon winds do not reach the area.

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29 Which one of the following towns has the Savanna type of climate?
A Algiers
B Cairo
C Cape Town
D Khartoum

30 Plants have few or no leaves and their foliage is either waxy, leathery or needle shaped.
This describes the ... vegetation.
A Equatorial
B Hot desert
C Mediterranean
D Savannah

31 Which one of the following climatic regions has the smallest daily range of temperature?
A Equatorial
B Hot desert
C Mediterranean
D Savannah

32 The Savannah vegetation has adapted to the climate by the following ways except ...
A having broad leaves.
B having broad trunks.
C having long tap roots.
D shedding of leaves.

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY

33 Which one of the following African countries has the highest population?
A Demographic Republic of Congo
B Egypt
C Ethiopia
D South Africa

34 The average number of children that would be born to each woman during her
reproductive period is known as ...
A birth rate.
B fertility rate.
C life expectancy.
D mortality.

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Study the world map and answer question 35.

35 Two factors which have attracted more people in the shaded areas shown on the map are ...
A industries and fertile land.
B lack of natural disasters and cooler climate.
C warmer climate and fertile soils.
D wetter conditions and industries.

36 The growth of population creates an urgent need for ...


A commercial activities.
B extensive agriculture.
C housing.
D industrialisation.

37 What does the term 'Zero Growth' mean in population studies?


A No more babies are being born.
B There are more baby boys born than girls.
C There are more baby girls born than boys.
D The population remains constant.

38 Why is there a lower birth rate in Industrial areas than in agricultural areas?
A Industrial workers are more aware of family planning.
B Married couples are usually separated in industrial areas.
C Pollution In Industrial areas reduces the fertility of women.
D There are fewer women In Industrial areas.

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39 Which one of the following list of crops may not be produced under market gardening?
A Cabbage, green maize, cucumber
B Carrots, tomatoes, green beans
C Carrots, silk, oranges
D Cucumber, onions, lettuce

40 In an area of extensive livestock farming, under what conditions are cattle likely to be
replaced by sheep? When ...
A markets become closer.
B transport becomes better.
C land becomes less drained.
D pasture becomes sparse.

41 Which of the following is the least applicable to plantation agriculture in the world?
A Average yields from plantations are higher.
B Crops raised in plantations are mainly for export.
C Plantations are much larger in acreage.
D The plantations are entirely owned by foreigners.

Study the map of Africa and answer question 42.

42 Which one of the following crops is mainly produced in the shaded area?
A Maize
B Rice
C Sugarcane
D Wheat

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Study the bar graph that shows the five major coffee producers in the world and answer
question 43.

43 Which country is represented by the letter W?


A Brazil
B Ethiopia
C Guatemala
D Mexico

44 Which of the following is a type of extensive farming?


A Dairy farming
B Fish farming
C Ranching
D Truck farming

45 Which of the following crops might lead to deforestation during it's processing stage?
A Cotton
B Maize
C Sugar cane
D Tobacco

46 Which of the following sources of power is renewable?


A Coal
B Gas
C Oil
D Water

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47 Oil tankers today are increasing in size because ...
A transportation costs per unit oil is low.
B there is no risk of fire.
C they can carry other cargo.
D they sail the deep seas.

48 The electricity generated from hot water or steam from rocks in the earth's crust is
referred to as ...
A geothermal.
B hydro-electricity.
C solar.
D thermal.

49 At a newly discovered oil well, oil is usually brought to the surface by ...
A drilling.
B pipeline.
C pressure.
D pumping.

50 The leading coal producing country in Africa is ...


A Nigeria.
B South Africa.
C Zambia.
D Zimbabwe.

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EXAMINATIONS COUNCIL OF ZAMBIA

Examination for General Certificate of Education Ordinary Level

Geography 2218/1
Paper 1

Thursday 1 AUGUST 2024


Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Marks: 50

SECTION A: MAP WORK AND BASIC TECHNIQUES

Questions 1 to 12 are based on the 1:50 000 map extract of Kildonan (Zimbabwe).

1 What is the six figure grid reference of the dip tank in the left top corner of the map?
A 359 756
B 366 759
C 751 364
D 759 356

2 Find the distance of the main road from the western edge of the map in 3468 to the
southern edge in 4063.
A 6.5 kilometres
B 7.0 kilometres
C 7.8 kilometres
D 8.7 kilometres

3 What is the general direction of the flow of Mukwadzi River?


A North East to South West
B North West to South East
C South East to North West
D South West to North East

4 What is the bearing of a dip tank near the unmarked spot height 1321 in square 4470
from the dip tank in square 3869?
A 10°
B 80°
C 100°
D 260o

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5 What drainage pattern is dominant in Kildonan?
A Dendritic
B Radial
C Rectangular
D Trellised

6 According to map evidence, which feature shows that there is livestock rearing in
Kildonan?
A Dams
B Dip tanks
C Paddocks
D Vegetation

Study the following map extract and answer the question that follows.

7 Which one of the following physical feature is between the two mountain ranges?
A Col
B Gap
C Gorge
D Plateau

8 Which one of the following is not found in Kildonan?


A Forestry
B Housing
C Mining
D Plantation farming

9 Which one of the following vegetation is dominant in Kildonan?


A Dense bush
B Medium bush
C Recreation
D Trade

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10 According to map evidence, Kildonan can be referred to as ... centre.
A administrative
B mining
C trading
D tourist

11 What settlement pattern characterises Kildonan?


A Cluster
B Dispersed
C Isolated
D Linear

12 What man-made feature is commonly found near the cultivated areas of Kildonan?
A Dams
B Embarkments
C Powerlines
D Railways lines

SECTION B: ELEMENTS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY


Study the following map and answer question 13.

13 Which one is true about line X?


A All lines of longitudes are measured from line X.
B One loses or gains two hours upon crossing line X.
C The beginning and ending of the earth's rotation is marked by line X.
D Upon crossing line X the date changes.

14 On which of the following days will places along latitude 23½°N have 12 hours of day
light and 12 hours darkness?
A 22nd December and 21st June
B 21st June and 23rd December
C 21st March and 21st June
D 21st March and 23rd September

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15 What is the angle of elevation of the midday sun for a place on latitude 58°S on 22
December?
A 24½
B 54½
C 66½
D 67½

Study the following diagram and answer question 16.

What feature is labelled Z?


A Syncline
B Overfold
C Nappe
D Anticline

17 The mechanical grinding of the river's traction load against the banks and bed of the
river is called ...
A attrition.
B corrasion.
C corrosion.
D hydraulic action.

Study the following diagram showing a river profile and answer question 18.

18 What is likely to be formed at B?


A Braided river
B Estuary
C Flood plain
D Ox-bow lake

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19 The drainage pattern that is most likely to be formed from a volcanic cone is ...
A dendritic.
B radial.
C rectangular.
D trellis.

20 The molten rock ejected from underneath the earth's crust to the surface is called …
A dyke.
B lava
C magma.
D sill.

Study the following diagram and answer question 21.

21 What name is given to the feature?


A Cataract
B Interlocking spur
C Levee
D Waterfall

Study the following diagram and answer question 22.

22 The type of weathering taking place in the diagram is ...


A biotic action.
B exfoliation.
C frost action.
D oxidation.

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23 Which one of the climatic regions has the largest daily range of temperature?
A Equatorial
B Hot desert
C Mediterranean
D Savanna

Study the following map and answer question 24.

24 The shaded region on the map experiences ... climate.


A equatorial
B tropical continental
C tropical desert
D tropical marine

25 What environmental hazard can be associated with hot deserts?


A Typhoons
B Earth quakes
C Dust
D Blizzards

26 Scattered trees and tall grass are commonly found in ...


A desert.
B equatorial.
C Mediterranean.
D savanna.

Study the following table which shows the climatic data for station X and answer question 27.

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27 During which season does station X receive maximum rainfall?
A Autumn
B Spring
C Summer
D Winter

Study the map of Africa showing climatic regions and answer questions 28 and 29.

28 What is the characteristic feature of the natural vegetation of climatic region R?


A Deciduous
B Evergreen
C Hydrophytic
D Xerophytic

29 State the climatic region in shaded area P.


A Equatorial
B Hot deserts
C Mediterranean
D Savanna

30 Which one of the following vegetation is typical of climatic conditions with winter rains
and summer droughts?
A Cacti, thorn bushes and date palms
B Cork ork, cedar and cypress
C Mahogany, ebony and orchids
D Teak, sal and bamboo

31 Which one of the following plant is adapted to saline conditions?


A Cedar
B Cork oak
C Mahogany
D Mangrove

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32 The following are natural hazards except ...
A cyclones.
B deforestation.
C floods.
D tsunamis.

SECTION C: ELEMENTS OF WORLD HUMAN GEOGRAPHY


33 A number of towns which have grown and joined together is referred to as ...
A conurbation.
B cosmopolitan.
C metropolitan.
D satellite.

34 Which one of the following is not a push factor leading to rural-urban migration?
A Lack of employment in rural areas
B Land disputes in rural areas
C Limited social services in rural areas
D Rural electrification

Study the world map and answer question 35.

35 Why are shaded areas X and Y sparsely populated?


X Y
A Extreme low temperature Extreme high temperature
B Extreme high temperature Extreme low temperature
C Extreme low temperature Thick forests
D Thick forests Waterlogged soils

36 Which of the following best describes what life expectance is?


A Number of years a person is expected to live.
B Number of years a person is expected to be very productive.
C Period when resources available can sustain the population.
D Period when the fertility rate of the population is at its highest.

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Study the following diagram showing population structure and answer question 37.

37 Which statement is not correct about the population structure?


A Low birth rate
B Low fertility rate
C High life expectancy
D High fertility rate

38 The maximum number of population an environment can sustain adequately without


causing degradation is called ...
A carrying capacity.
B maximum load.
C population density.
D resource degradation.

39 Why are most areas of Asia highly populated? The areas ...
A are highly industrialised.
B have plenty of minerals.
C have fertile alluvial soils.
D have plenty of wild fruits.

40 Sweet potatoes, yams, cassava and cocoyam are examples of ...


A cereal crops.
B fibre crops.
C root crops.
D vegetable oils.

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Study the world map and answer question 40.

41 The shaded areas are ... output.


A mechanised with large wheat
B intensified with large rice
C commercialised with large coffee
D intensified with large sugarcane

42 Why is agriculture done on a small scale in Equatorial regions despite receiving a lot of
rainfall?
A There are a lot of wild fruits for people to eat.
B There are plenty of wild animals that destroy crops.
C The high temperatures that dry up the crops.
D The rains cause waterlogging which is not good for crops.

43 When land is allowed to rest in order to regain its nutrients and retain moisture is called
A contour ploughing.
B fallowing.
C strip cropping.
D terracing.

44 The best crop to be rotated with other crops due to its nutrition value is ...
A beans.
B cotton.
C hay.
D maize.

45 The world's greatest rice producer is ...


A India.
B Indonesia
C South Korea.
D Thailand.

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46 What type of coal is coking coal?
A Anthracite
B Bituminous
C Lignite
D Peat
Study the following diagram and answer question 47.

47 The diagram shows the generation of ... power.


A hydro
B nuclear
C solar
D wind

48 The highest producer of natural gas is ...


A China.
B United Kingdom.
C United States of America.
D West German.

49 What factor largely contributes to the low production of solar energy? Climate
conditions and lack of ..
A capital.
B labour.
C modern technology.
D space for building.

50 The advantage of thermal power stations over hydro power stations is that it ...
A cannot be affected by drought.
B depletes the ozone layer.
C is cheaper to run and manage.
D leads to global warming.

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ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2015


13. D 20. C 27. D 34. B 41. D 48. C
14. D 21. D 28. C 35. A 42. B 49. C
15. D 22. D 29. B 36. C 43. B 50. B
16. B 23. C 30. C 37. B 44. A
17. D 24. A 31. B 38. D 45. D
18. C 25. A 32. A 39. D 46. C
19. A 26. D 33. C 40. A 47. A

ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2016


13. X (02:00) THUR 20. D 27. B 34. D 41. C 48. C
14. B 21. D 28. B 35. C 42. B 49. A
15. C 22. C 29. D 36. B 43. C 50. C
16. B 23. A 30. C 37. A 44. A
17. A 24. C 31. A 38. A 45. B
18. B 25. C 32. A 39. D 46. A
19. B 26. D 33. A 40. B 47. B

ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2017


13. A 20. B 27. B 34. C 41. C 48. B
14. C 21. B 28. B 35. A 42. A 49. B
15. A 22. D 29. C 36. D 43. C 50. A
16. B 23. B 30. A 37. A 44. D
17. D 24. D 31. B 38. C 45. A
18. B 25. D 32. C 39. B 46. D
19. C 26. A 33. D 40. D 47. B

ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2018


13. D 20. B 27. C 34. C 41. D 48. B
14. C 21. B 28. B 35. B 42. A 49. A
15. A 22. D 29. B 36. D 43. D 50. B
16. C 23. A 30. D 37. C 44. C
17. A 24. C 31. A 38. A 45. B
18. A 25. C 32. B 39. D 46. B
19. B 26. A 33. C 40. B 47. A

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ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2019


13. D 20. D 27. C 34. C 41. B 48. A
14. D 21. C 28. A 35. X 42. A 49. D
15. D 22. B 29. D 36. B 43. A 50. A
16. B 23. C 30. A 37. B 44. A
17. B 24. A 31. D 38. A 45. A
18. C 25. B 32. B 39. C 46. D
19. D 26. D 33. A 40. A 47. C

ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2020 G.C.E


13. B 20. B 27. B 34. C 41. B 48. A
14. B 21. A 28. C 35. B 42. A 49. D
15. C 22. B 29. B 36. D 43. B 50. B
16. B 23. C 30. C 37. C 44. B
17. A 24. A 31. C 38. A 45. A
18. C 25. D 32. D 39. B 46. B
19. A 26. A 33. B 40. C 47. A

ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2021


13. D 20. D 27. X 34. D 41. A 48. A
14. C 21. C 28. C 35. D 42. C 49. D
15. B 22. A 29. D 36. A 43. C 50. A
16. C 23. A 30. C 37. D 44. D
17. B 24. A 31. D 38. D 45. C
18. C 25. B 32. C 39. A 46. C
19. C 26. C 33. C 40. C 47. C

ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2022


13. D 20. C 27. D 34. B 41. B 48. C
14. B 21. A 28. C 35. B 42. C 49. C
15. B 22. D 29. C 36. A 43. A 50. A
16. C 23. D 30. C 37. D 44. D
17. A 24. A 31. A 38. B 45. B
18. B 25. D 32. B 39. B 46. B
19. C 26. A 33. C 40. B 47. A

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ANSWERS FOR GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1 – 2023


1. B 8. B 15. D 22. D 29. D 36. C 43. A
2. B 9. B 16. C 23. D 30. B 37. D 44. C
3. B 10. C 17. A 24. D 31. A 38. A 45. D
4. B 11. D 18. A 25. D 32. A 39. C 46. D
5. D 12. A 19. C 26. B 33. C 40. D 47. A
6. A 13. A 20. C 27. C 34. B 41. D 48. A
7. C 14. D 21. B 28. C 35. D 42. C 49. C
50. B

Answers for Geography Paper 1 – 2024 G.C.E


1. - 6. - 11. - 16. C 21. B 26. D 31. D 36. A 41. D 46. B
2. - 7. - 12. - 17. D 22. A 27. A 32. B 37. D 42. D 47. A
3. - 8. - 13. D 18. A 23. B 28. D 33. A 38. A 43. B 48. C
4. - 9. - 14. B 19. B 24. A 29. C 34. D 39. C 44. A 49. A
5. - 10. - 15. D 20. C 25. C 30. C 35. B 40. C 45. A 50. C

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