Yakeen NEET 2.

0 (2024)

PRACTICE TEST-02

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 09/07/2023 M. MARKS : 720

ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY

1. (1) 51. (2) 101. (4) 151. (2)
2. (2) 52. (2) 102. (4) 152. (3)
3. (4) 53. (4) 103. (1) 153. (2)
4. (4) 54. (1) 104. (4) 154. (1)
5. (4) 55. (3) 105. (3) 155. (4)
6. (2) 56. (4) 106. (2) 156. (4)
7. (2) 57. (4) 107. (1) 157. (2)
8. (4) 58. (1) 108. (2) 158. (2)
9. (3) 59. (3) 109. (2) 159. (3)
10. (2) 60. (2) 110. (2) 160. (3)
11. (2) 61. (3) 111. (4) 161. (4)
12. (3) 62. (1) 112. (1) 162. (3)
13. (1) 63. (4) 113. (3) 163. (1)
14. (1) 64. (1) 114. (2) 164. (4)
15. (2) 65. (1) 115. (2) 165. (4)
16. (2) 66. (2) 116. (1) 166. (2)
17. (4) 67. (3) 117. (3) 167. (1)
18. (4) 68. (2) 118. (2) 168. (4)
19. (4) 69. (2) 119. (2) 169. (3)
20. (2) 70. (2) 120. (2) 170. (3)
21. (3) 71. (1) 121. (4) 171. (1)
22. (4) 72. (2) 122. (1) 172. (2)
23. (2) 73. (2) 123. (2) 173. (3)
24. (4) 74. (2) 124. (3) 174. (2)
25. (1) 75. (2) 125. (3) 175. (3)
26. (4) 76. (2) 126. (3) 176. (3)
27. (3) 77. (4) 127. (1) 177. (4)
28. (3) 78. (3) 128. (3) 178. (2)
29. (4) 79. (4) 129. (3) 179. (4)
30. (3) 80. (3) 130. (1) 180. (2)
31. (1) 81. (1) 131. (3) 181. (4)
32. (3) 82. (3) 132. (1) 182. (2)
33. (2) 83. (1) 133. (3) 183. (3)
34. (4) 84. (3) 134. (1) 184. (3)
35. (4) 85. (2) 135. (4) 185. (2)
36. (4) 86. (1) 136. (4) 186. (1)
37. (2) 87. (4) 137. (4) 187. (1)
38. (1) 88. (2) 138. (1) 188. (3)
39. (2) 89. (4) 139. (4) 189. (3)
40. (2) 90. (1) 140. (3) 190. (3)
41. (2) 91. (4) 141. (4) 191. (2)
42. (4) 92. (3) 142. (2) 192. (3)
43. (4) 93. (1) 143. (2) 193. (4)
44. (1) 94. (1) 144. (1) 194. (3)
45. (2) 95. (1) 145. (4) 195. (2)
46. (2) 96. (3) 146. (3) 196. (4)
47. (2) 97. (4) 147. (4) 197. (2)
48. (4) 98. (3) 148. (2) 198. (3)
49. (2) 99. (4) 149. (2) 199. (3)
50. (3) 100. (4) 150. (3) 200. (4)

[1]
 Yakeen NEET 2.0 Legend (2024)

PRACTICE TEST- 04

DURATION :200
DURATION : 90 Minutes
Minutes DATE : 20/08/2023 M.MARKS :720

ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY

1. (3) 51. (3) 101. (4) 151. (2)
2. (2) 52. (1) 102. (2) 152. (3)
3. (3) 53. (3) 103. (4) 153. (3)
4. (4) 54. (1) 104. (3) 154. (4)
5. (2) 55. (3) 105. (3) 155. (1)
6. (3) 56. (2) 106. (1) 156. (1)
7. (1) 57. (3) 107. (2) 157. (1)
8. (4) 58. (1) 108. (2) 158. (1)
9. (4) 59. (4) 109. (3) 159. (3)
10. (3) 60. (1) 110. (2) 160. (1)
11. (1) 61. (4) 111. (2) 161. (1)
12. (4) 62. (3) 112. (2) 162. (2)
13. (1) 63. (2) 113. (4) 163. (4)
14. (2) 64. (2) 114. (3) 164. (2)
15. (2) 65. (3) 115. (4) 165. (3)
16. (1) 66. (3) 116. (2) 166. (1)
17. (3) 67. (4) 117. (4) 167. (2)
18. (3) 68. (3) 118. (1) 168. (1)
19. (2) 69. (1) 119. (3) 169. (1)
20. (1) 70. (4) 120. (3) 170. (1)
21. (4) 71. (3) 121. (1) 171. (4)
22. (2) 72. (1) 122. (2) 172. (2)
23. (4) 73. (3) 123. (4) 173. (1)
24. (1) 74. (4) 124. (3) 174. (3)
25. (3) 75. (3) 125. (4) 175. (1)
26. (4) 76. (2) 126. (2) 176. (2)
27. (2) 77. (1) 127. (4) 177. (1)
28. (1) 78. (1) 128. (4) 178. (3)
29. (2) 79. (1) 129. (4) 179. (3)
30. (1) 80. (3) 130. (3) 180. (1)
31. (3) 81. (4) 131. (4) 181. (1)
32. (3) 82. (4) 132. (3) 182. (4)
33. (2) 83. (1) 133. (1) 183. (1)
34. (2) 84. (3) 134. (1) 184. (2)
35. (1) 85. (1) 135. (4) 185. (4)
36. (1) 86. (4) 136. (4) 186. (1)
37. (3) 87. (3) 137. (1) 187. (2)
38. (3) 88. (4) 138. (3) 188. (3)
39. (2) 89. (2) 139. (4) 189. (4)
40. (3) 90. (2) 140. (1) 190. (2)
41. (2) 91. (2) 141. (3) 191. (1)
42. (2) 92. (1) 142. (3) 192. (1)
43. (3) 93. (4) 143. (2) 193. (4)
44. (3) 94. (3) 144. (1) 194. (2)
45. (1) 95. (1) 145. (2) 195. (1)
46. (4) 96. (1) 146. (4) 196. (3)
47. (3) 97. (3) 147. (1) 197. (1)
48. (1) 98. (1) 148. (4) 198. (2)
49. (3) 99. (1) 149. (3) 199. (3)
50. (4) 100. (1) 150 (1) 200. (1)

[1]
 Practice Test - 02 Yakeen NEET 4.0 (2024) 22/10/2023

BOTANY

ANSWER KEY

1. (4) 26. (3)

2. (4) 27. (1)
3. (4) 28. (4)
4. (3) 29. (4)
5. (1) 30. (2)
6. (3) 31. (1)
7. (3) 32. (3)
8. (2) 33. (1)
9. (3) 34. (2)
10. (4) 35. (3)
11. (2) 36. (3)
12. (3) 37. (3)
13. (1) 38. (2)
14. (3) 39. (4)
15. (1) 40. (1)
16. (3) 41. (2)
17. (1) 42. (3)
18. (1) 43. (3)
19. (4) 44. (1)
20. (2) 45. (4)
21. (2) 46. (2)
22. (1) 47. (4)
23. (3) 48. (1)
24. (1) 49. (1)
25. (1) 50. (1)
 SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
1. (1) 8. (4)
[ML2T–2] = [DxFyVz]  2ct   2x 
y = 2 Asin   cos  
     
2. (2)
ct
x = 8 + 12t − t 3 = dimensionless  ct = 

dx
= 12 − 3t 2 x
dt = dimensionless  x = 

If v = 0 , then 12 − 3t 2 = 0
 4 = t2 9. (3)
 t =2s  − t2
F=
d 2x v 2
a= = −6t
dt 2 Dimensionally,  = [T2 ]
−2
a t =2 s  −12 ms
[T 2 ]
[MLT −2 ] =
a = 12 ms−2 [L2T −2 ]
T2
3. (4) =
[MLT −2  L2T −2 ]
a
S
n th =u+ ( 2n − 1)   = [M−1L−3T6 ]
2
4
n = 3, (given), a = ms−2 Dimensions of
3  T2
a = −1 −3 6 = [ML3T−4 ]
S th = u + ( 2n − 1)  M L T
n 2
4 1 2
 S rd = 0 +  ( 2  3 − 1) =  5 10. (2)
3 3 2 3
Displacement 0
10 vavg = = =0
 m = S rd Time Time
3 3

4. (4) 11. (2)

After 1 minute 10 second, the athlete will be at
dimetrically opposite hence displacement = 2R .
5. (4)
1 −1/2
Speed of light, c =  c = ( 00 ) 12. (3)
00 Distance  |Displacement ∣
So, dimensional formula of (µ00)–1/2 is [LT–1]
13. (1)
6. (2)
dx
v= = 4t + 2
dt
 v ( t = 1 s ) = 6 m/s

14. (1)
dy d2y
y will be maximum when = 0 and 2  0
dt dt
Area under the speed-time graph gives distance. dy
Now = 3 − 2t = 0
1 9 dt
Area =  3 1.5  m
2 4 3
t = s
2
7. (2)
The dimensions of change in velocity is same as
that of velocity [M0LT–1]

[2]
15. (2) dxQ
vQ = = f − 2t
s = 3t + 7t + 14t + 8
3 2
dt
ds vP = vQ
v = = 9t 2 + 14t + 14
dt  a + 2bt = f − 2t
d 2s f −a
a = 2 = 18t + 14 2t + 2bt = f − a  t =
dt 2 ( b + 1)
a t =1 s = 18 + 14
25. (1)
a t =1 s = 32 ms−2 When a body starts from rest and under the effect
of constant acceleration then the distance travelled
16. (2) by the body in same time intervals is in the ratio
v t of odd number i.e., 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
 udv =  0 At dt
3
So, h1 : h2 : h3  1 : 3 : 5
At 4 h1 1 h1 1
 v −u = = , =
4 h2 3 h3 5
h h
 h1 = 2 , h1 = 3
17. (4) 3 5
h2 h3
18. (4) So, h1 = =
3 5
19. (4) 26. (4)
F V
20. (2)
F MLT −2
K= = −1
= [MT −1 ]
21. (3) V LT
aA = tan60 , aB = tan45 = 1 m/s2
aA = 3 m/s2 27. (3)
a Maximum instantaneous velocity will be at that
 A= 3 point which has maximum slope.
aB
As clear from the graph ‘C’ has maximum slope.
22. (4) 28. (3)
From the graph at t = 1 s, vi = 10 m/s The dimensional formula for pressure
At t = 7 s, v f = 25 m/s Force MLT−2
P= =  ML−1 T−2 
v f − vi 15 Area L 2  
aaverage = = = 2.5 m/s2
Δt 6
29. (4)
23. (2) None of the graph is physically possible

30. (3)
Time taken : t1 t2
31. (1)
x x
As t1 = and t2 = For upward motion  velocity after 30 sec.
v1 v2 v = u + at
x+x v = 0 + 10  30 = 300 m/s
 v=
t1 + t2
32. (3)
2x 2v v
= = 12 r
x x v1 + v2 Distance = and Displacement =r 2
+ 2
v1 v2
Displacement r 2 2 2
2 1 1
 = + Distance r
v v1 v2 2
33. (2)
24. (4) The dimensional formula of energy
dxP E = [ML2T–2]
vP = = a + 2bt
dt So, dimension of (i) Mass → 1 (ii) Length → 2
(iii) Time → –2

[3]
34. (4) By the principle of homogeneity,
Speed and distance never be negative. c = t = [T]
at = v  a =  LT −2 
In practice, the body cannot have multiple
position and velocity at the same time.
Total distance travelled cannot decrease with b
time. = LT −1  b = [L]
T
42. (4)
35. (4) 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m
Force MLT−2
Surface tension = =
Length L 43. (4)
W
= [ML2 A−1T−3 ]
–2
Surface tension = [MT ] Dimension of
q
36. (2) which is different from dimension of force [MLT–2]
2h
Time taken by stone to do down t1 = 44. (1)
g
h
Time taken by sound to come up t2 = 45. (2)
v a = 2x
2h h dv
 T = t1 + t2 = + v = 2x
g v dx
 vdv =  2xdx
37. (2) v
 v2 
In practice, the body cannot have multiple
( )2
4
  = x
2
velocity vector at the same time.
 2 0
38. (1) v2
= 16 − 4
Impulse MLT−1 2
=  [ML−1 T−1 ]
Area L2 V = 24 m / s
−1 −1
Coefficient of viscosity  = [ML T ]
46. (2)
Impulse F = at + bt2
So, = coefficient of viscosity m
Area F → N → kg
s2
39. (2) m m
a, t , v = ? at → N → a.t = kg 2
; a = kg 3 ;
s s
dv
a =   dv =  adt [a] = MLT−3 
dt  
u dv = 0 (3t )
v t 2
+ 2t + 2 dt bt2 → N → bt 2 = kg
m m
; b = kg 4 ;
2
s s
 t3   t 2 
V − 2 = 3  + 2   + 2(t ) [b] = [MLT−4 ]
3 2
   
at t = 2
47. (2)
V − 2 = 23 + 22 + 2(2) Unit same → Add, sub, Multi, Div.
V – 2 = 16  V = 18m/s Unit Diff → Multi, Div.

40. (2) 48. (4)

1 kg m F ( x kg )( ym ) n1u1 = n2u2
=
s2 ( zs)2 4g 100 g
 3
= n2  3 3
2 cm 10 cm
z
 F=
xy  n2 = 40

41. (2)
b
v = at +
t +c

[4]
45. (1) [Pg No. 53, NCERT Topic No. 4.5] 49. (3) [Pg No. 60, NCERT Topic No. 4.9.1]
In both cases acceleration is same. In case (ii),
force required is less.

46. (4) [Pg No. 83, NCERT Topic No. 5.10]

Normal is always perpendicular to velocity of mg
block in frame of lift. Fmin =
So, P = zero 1 + 2

47. (3) [Pg No. 78, NCERT Topic No. 5.8]

1 1 50. (4) [Pg No. 60, NCERT Topic No. 4.9.1]
mv 2 = kx 2
2 2
2  4 = 200  x 2
4
 x2 =
100 When A & B just move separately
2 For A  mg = ma
 x=
10 1
 x = 20 cm   40 = 4.a
2
48. (1) [Pg No. 53, NCERT Topic No. 4.5]  a = 5 m/s 2
Consider platform + man as a system
So, Fmin = ( 8 + 4 )  5
= 60 N

F + F = (60 + 20)g
F = 40 kg-wt

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
51. (3) 54. (1)
Since Cl in ClO– has O.N. of +1, which is higher A → B, Isochoric process.
than its lower O.N. of –1 and lower than its highest B → C, Isobaric process.
O.N. of +7, therefore, ClO– can act as an oxidising C → A, Isothermal process.
as well as a reducing agent. (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 142)
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 237)
55. (3)
52. (1) –2 –3 –1/3 –1
Work done by the gas, w = –P ΔV N 2 H 4 , NH 3 , N 3 H, N H 2 OH
w = –nRΔT (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239)
w = –3 × 8.314 × 100 × 10–3 kJ
= –2.4942kJ
56. (2)
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 141)
Reversible isothermal process, w = –2.303 nRT
53. (3) P 
log  1 
2KMnO 4 +16HCl → 2KCl+2MnCl 2 +5Cl 2 +8H 2 O  P2 
According to stoichiometry of reaction, 2 mole of nR
KMnO4 reacts with 16 mole of HCl Adiabatic process, w = ( T2 –T1 )
So, n KMnO 4 = 2, n HCl = 16
( γ–1)
Irreversible isothermal process w = – Pext ( V2 – V1 )
By law of equivalence
( n eq )KMnO = ( n eq )HCl Isochoric process, w = 0
4
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 141 – 142)
2×5=16× ( n f ) HCl  ( n f ) KMnO 4 =5,in acidic medium  57. (3)
Br– is a reducing since it reduces MnO 4– to Mn 2+
( ) HCl
10
nf =
16 and itself gets oxidized to Br2.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 249) (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 237)

[5]
 6

58. (1) 62. (3)

ΔH f In a gaseous state, randomness is highest, so entropy
ΔS f =
Tf will be maximum.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 158 – 159)
2930 J mol –1
ΔSf = = 9.77 JK –1 mol –1
300 K 63. (2)
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 158 – 159) M 3+ → M 6+ +3e –
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239)
59. (4)
Cr2 O 72– +14H + +6e – → 2Cr 3+ +7H 2O 64. (2)
n factor of potassium dichromate = 6 The heat absorbed during the isothermal
Mohr’s salt = 1 FeSO4.(NH4)2 SO4.6H2O expansion of an ideal gas against vacuum is zero.
Only oxidation of Fe2+ takes place as, This is because there are no forces of attraction
between the gas molecules. The volume occupied
Fe 2+ → Fe 3+ + e – by the molecules of an ideal gas is zero. For an
So, n-factor of Mohr’s salt = 1 ideal gas, they are point molecules. It means that
By law of equivalence both statements are correct, but reason is not the
( n eq )K Cr O = ( n eq )Mohr's salt correct explanation of assertion.
2 2 7
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 142)
( n eq )K Cr O  ( n f )K Cr O = ( n )Mohr's salt × ( n f )Mohr's salt
2 2 7 2 2 7
65. (3)
6 ×1 = n×1
The oxidation numbers of Cr is +6, not +10 in
n=6
CrO5 because four oxygen atoms are involved in
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 249)
peroxide linkages.
O
60. (1) O O
Using the relation,  H o =  U o +  n g RT Cr
 n g = Number of gaseous moles O O
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239 – 240)
X(g)+Y(g) ⇌ Z(g)
 n g = 1 – 1 – 1 = –1 66. (3)
P 4 + aq. NaOH PH3 + NaH2PO2
 U =  H –  n g RT
o o
Reduction
(
= –4600 cal – –1×2 cal mol –1K –1×500K ) Oxidation

= –4600 cal + 1000 cal = –3600 cal

( n f )oxidation =4 (1–0 ) =4
U o = –3.6 Kcal ( n f )reduction =4 ( 0– ( –3 ) ) = 4 × 3 = 12
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 145) ( n f )oxidation × ( n f )reduction
( n f ) Total =
( n f )oxidation + ( n f )reduction
61. (4)
4 ×12 48
KO 3 ( n f )Total = = =3
Suppose oxidation number of O = x, 4 +12 16
⇒ 1 + 3x = 0 (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 244)
3x = –1 67. (4)
1 By convention, the oxidation number of free metals
x = – = –0.33
3 is zero.
Na 2 O 2 (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239 – 240)
Suppose oxidation number of O = x
2  1 + 2x = 0 68. (3)
2 + 2x = 0 There is no change in the temperature of the gas.
2x = –2 (Correct)
2 There is no change in the internal energy of the gas.
x=– (Correct)
2
The work done by the gas is equal to the heat
x = –1
supplied to the gas. (Correct)
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239) (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 142 – 145)
[6]
 7

69. (1) 76. (2)

BaCl 2 +5 –1
Δ
2 KClO 3 ⎯⎯→ 2 KCl ( s ) +3O 2( g )
 x + ( –2 ) = 0
 x=2
( n f ) KClO 3 = change in oxidation state
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239 – 240) = 5 – ( –1) = 6
M
So, Equivalent mass of KClO3 =
70. (4) 6
There is no work done and no heat exchange (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 249)
between the system and surroundings, as both sun
and earth are part of the solar system, and we 77. (1)
consider the solar system as our system, so no heat is
MnO 4– +8H + +5e – → Mn 2+ +5H 2O
exchanged between system and its surroundings.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 137 – 138) So, n-factor of KMnO4 in acidic medium will be 5.
C 2 O 42– → 2CO 2 +2e –
71. (3) n-factor of C 2 O 42– (oxalate) = 2
In a redox reaction, both oxidation and reduction is
By law of equivalence
happening together.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 237) ( n eq )KMnO 4
(
= n eq )C O
2
2–
4

n =n  (nf )C2O 42–

KMnO 4 ( n f ) KMnO C 2 O 42–
4
72. (1)
A→B 1 5 = n 2
C 2 O 24 –

ΔH reaction =  ( H ) product –  ( H ) reactant 5

n =
C 2 O42 – 2
=15 – 40
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 249)
= – 25 kJ
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 152)
78. (1)
S + O 2 → SO 2 , ΔH = – 298.2 kJ/mole
73. (3)
1
The structure of tetrathionate ion. SO 2 + O 2 → SO 3 , ΔH = – 98.7 kJ/mole
2
SO 3 +H 2 O → H 2SO 4 , ΔH = – 130.2 kJ/mole
1
H 2 + O 2 → H 2 O , ΔH = – 287.3 kJ/mole
2
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 245) The formation of H 2 SO 4
H 2 +S+2O 2 → H 2SO 4
74. (4) can be calculated by adding the above four
For the isothermal expansion of gas, internal energy equations
and enthalpy both are functions of temperature, so ΔH = – ( 298.2 + 98.7 + 130.2 + 287.3 )
both will remain same because temperature is = –814.4 kJ/mole
constant.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 151)
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 142 – 145)
79. (1)
75. (3) 0 1+ –3
4Fe + 3O2 → 4Fe3+ + 6O2– P 4 +3NaOH+3H 2 O → 3NaH 2 PO 2 + PH 3
This is an example of a redox reaction. (Correct) In this reaction, same substance undergoes oxidation
Fe3+ is an oxidizing agent. (Correct) and reduction. Hence, it is an example of
Metallic iron is a reducing agent. (Correct) disproportionation reaction.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 244)
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 241)

[7]
 8

80. (3) 88. (4)

Entropy change for any reaction can be calculated O
as,
H3 PO3  P
ΔSo reaction = ( S om )product ( )reactant
–  S om H OH
OH
Som = standard molar entropy n-factor = 2
So, 0.1 M H 3 PO 3 (aq) solution has normality equal
So, ΔSo reaction = will be positive, only when
to 0.2 N.
( Som )product will greater than ( Som )reactant H 3 PO3 is a dibasic acid.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 238)
(B) and (C) will have positive entropy.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 158 – 159)
89. (2)
81. (4) ΔH = ΔU + Δn g RT; ΔH = ΔU when  n g = 0
Cr2 O 72– +14H + +6Fe 2+ → 2Cr 3+
+6Fe 3+
+7H 2 O In the first reaction Δn g = 2 – ( 2 + 1) = –1
n=6 In the second reaction Δn g = 2 – (1 + 1) = 0
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 246 – 248)
In the third reaction Δn g = 3 – 2 = 1
82. (4) In the fourth reaction Δn g = 2 – 1 =1
An intensive property is one that does not depend on NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 143)
the mass of the substance or system. An extensive
property of a system depends on the size of the 90. (2)
system or the amount of matter in the system. The composition of Fe3O4 is FeO.Fe2O3, which
Enthalpy, internal energy and volume all are has iron in +2 and +3 oxidation states
examples of extensive properties. respectively. Fe2+ ion being a reducing agent
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 144) decolourise KMnO4 solution and itself converts
83. (1) into Fe3+ ions.
Fe and C ⇒ Oxidised Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is
Mn ⇒ Reduced not a correct explanation of assertion.
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 241) (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 246 – 249)

84. (3) 91. (2)

Q = mCT MnO 4– + 2H 2 O + 3e – → MnO 2 + 4OH –
Q
Therefore, C = mΔT In the alkaline medium, conversion of MnO 4– to
J MnO2 involves 3 electron change.

g × °C  Eq. wt. of KMnO4 = Molar mass/3
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 144 – 145) (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 246 – 249)

85. (1) 92. (1)

The balanced equation is According to Hess's law of constant heat
summation, even if a chemical reaction takes place
2MnO 4– + 5C 2 O 42– +16H + → 2 Mn 2+ +10CO 2 +8H 2O by several different routes, the change in enthalpy of
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 246 – 248) the reaction will be same for all the routes.
86. (4) (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 151)
For an ideal gas, in an isothermal process the change
in internal energy is 0, an internal energy is function 93. (4)
of temperate, but temperature remains constant. O.N. of P in H 4 P2 O 5 = 4 ( +1 ) + 2x + 5 ( –2 ) = 0
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 142)
or x = + 3
87. (3) O.N. of P in H 4 P2 O 6 = 4 ( + 1 ) + 2x + 6 ( –2 ) = 0
The balance equation, or x = +4
–
3Cl 2 +6OH → ClO 3– +5Cl – +3H 2 O O.N. of P in H 4 P2 O 7 = 4 ( + 1 ) + 2x + 7 ( –2 ) = 0
 x = 3, y = 5 or x = +5
(NCERT Class – 11 , Page – 246 – 248)
th (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239 – 240)
[8]
 9

94. (3) 98. (1)

CO2 is not a reducing agent. MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e– → Mn2+ + 4H2O
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 241) (NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 246 – 248)

95. (1) 99. (1)

At equilibrium, ΔG is equal to zero. In F2O
As, ΔG = ΔH –TΔS  2  ( –1) + x = 0
0 = 30  10 3
( J mol ) – T  105 ( JK
–1 –1
mol –1
)  x = +2
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 239 – 240)
30  10 3
T = K = 285.71K
105
100. (1)
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 162 – 163)
MnO 4– +8H + +5e – → Mn 2+ +4H 2O
96. (1) So, n-factor of potassium permanganate = 5
The oxidation is a process in which an increase in FeSO4
oxidation number of the element happens with the Fe 2+ → Fe 3+ + e –
loss of electrons.
n-factor of FeSO 4 = 1
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 237)
FeC2O4
97. (3) Fe 2+ → Fe 3+ + e –
ΔH r =  BE ( reactant ) –  BE ( product ) C 2 O 42– → 2CO 2 + 2e –
ΔH r =  4×BE ( C–H ) +1×BE ( C=C ) +1×B ( H–H )  n-factor of FeC 2 O 4 = 3
 
By law of equivalence
–  6×BE ( C–H ) +1×BE ( C–C ) 
  ( n eq )KMnO (
= n eq )FeSO + ( n eq )FeC O
=  ( 4×410.50 ) + (1×606.10 ) + (1×431.37 ) 
4 4 2 4

n = n FeSO 4 × ( n f )FeSO 4 + n FeC2O 4

KMnO 4 ×( n f ) KMnO
–  ( 6  410.50 ) + (1  336.49 )  kJ mol –1 4

× (nf )FeC2 O4
= –120.0 kJ mol –1
n KMnO 4 × 5 = 1 × 1 + 1 × 3
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 153 – 154)
4
n KMnO 4 =
5
(NCERT Class – 11th, Page – 246 – 249)

SECTION – III (BOTANY)

101. (4) 104. (3)
Most fungi are heterotrophic. * Viroids: In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a
CLASS 11 NCERT PG NO.22 new infectious agent that was smaller than
viruses and caused potato spindle tuber
102. (2) disease.
Fungi prefer to grow in warm, humid and dark * It was found to be a free RNA
places. CLASS 11 NCERT PG NO.21
CLASS 11 NCERT PG NO.22
105. (3)
103. (4) * Chemotaxonomy that uses the chemical
constituents of the plant to resolve
The morphology of the mycelium, mode of spore
confusions,
formation and fruiting bodies form the basis for
* DNA sequence, protein sequence, aromatic
the division of the kingdom into various classes.
compounds, taken as criteria in
CLASS 11 NCERT PG NO.17
chemotaxonomy.
CLASS 11 NCERT PG NO.30
[9]
 Hints and Solution

1. (4) 12. (3)

Cyanobacteria are aquatic and terrestrial. (A) – Head (C) – Collar
NCERT Page No. 19 (B) – Sheath (D) – Tail fibres
NCERT Page No. 26

2. (4) 13. (1)

All of these are the basis of classification of fungi. In five kingdom classification, Chlorella and
NCERT Page No. 23 Chlamydomonas included in Kingdom Protista.
NCERT Page No. 17
3. (4)
Diatoms lack flagella. 14. (3)
NCERT Page No. 20 A - (4), B - (3), C - (2), D - (1)
NCERT Page No. 21-22
4. (3)
Dinoflagellates have two flagella one lies 15. (1)
longitudinally and the other transversely in a Cyanobacteria are oxygenic and have enzyme
furrow between the wall plates. nitrogenase for nitrogen fixation.
NCERT Page No. 21 NCERT Page No. 19

5. (1) 16. (3)

Euglenoids are flagellates. C, D, E are incorrect for archaebacteria.
NCERT Page No. 21 NCERT Page No. 19

6. (3) 17. (1)

Methanogens are present in cattle yard. Morels and truffles are edible mushroom.
NCERT Page No. 19 NCERT Page No. 23-24

7. (3) 18. (1)

Coenocytic hypha is multinucleate without septae. The infectious substance of prions are protein.
NCERT Page No. 23 NCERT Page No. 27

8. (2) 19. (4)

Plasmogamy  Karyogamy  Meiosis Ciliates have 2 types of nuclei which other
NCERT Page No. 23 protozoans lack.
NCERT Page No. 22
9. (3)
Mycelium in ascomycetes is branched and septate. 20. (2)
NCERT Page No. 23-24 Lichens are good SO2 pollution indicators Algal
component of lichen is called phycobiont. Fungal
10. (4) component of lichen is called mycobiont.
All are correct about deuteromycetes. NCERT Page No. 27
NCERT Page No. 24
21. (2)
11. (2) Fusion of two cells is called plasmogamy
The above statements are related to viroids. organism that depend on dead plants are called
NCERT Page No. 27 saprophytes. Some cyanobacteria can fix atm N2
in specialised cells called heterocyst.
NCERT Page No. 23, 22, 19
22. (1) 32. (3)
Bacteria are autotrophic and heterotrophic In plant cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by the
organisms. formation of cell plate.
Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms NCERT Page No. 166
classified under kingdom protista.
Mycoplasma is a wall less organism. 33. (1)
NCERT Page No. 18-19, 21, 20 The best stage to observe shape size and number
of chromosome is metaphase.
23. (3) NCERT Page No. 165
Saccharomyces (yeast) is a eukaryote belongs to
kingdom fungi. 34. (2)
NCERT Page No. 18-20, 23 Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
meiosis II.
24. (1) NCERT Page No. 167
Both statements are correct.
NCERT Page No. 222, 23 35. (3)
The number of chromosomes is reduced to half
25. (1) during meiosis – I.
Both Assertion and reason are true and the reason NCERT Page No.169
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
NCERT Page No. 19 36. (3)
II  IV  III  I
26. (3) NCERT Page No. 168-169

37. (3)
The exchange of genetic material between
The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
chromatids and homologous chromosome occurs homologous chromosome is called Bivalent.
during prophase I. NCERT Page No. 168
NCERT Page No. 168
38. (2)
27. (1) During meiosis I, the chromosomes start pairing at
M is not a part of interphase. zygotene.
NCERT Page No. 163 NCERT Page No. 168

28. (4) 39. (4)

Synapsis of homologous chromosomes occurs in II  I  III  IV
meiosis. NCERT Page No. 168
NCERT Page No. 164
40. (1)
29. (4) In meiosis crossing over is initiated at pachytene
All meristematic cells show mitosis. stage of prophase I.
NCERT Page No. 167 NCERT Page No. 168

30. (2) 41. (2)

Option (2) is correct for interphase. In Anaphase I of meiosis homologous
NCERT Page No. 163 chromosomes are segregated.
NCERT Page No. 169
31. (1)
42. (3)
All are correct for G0 stage. The complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
NCERT Page No. 164 marks the end of prophase of mitosis.
NCERT Page No. 164-165
43. (3) 47. (4)
After meiosis I, the resultant daughter cells have All are the results of meiosis.
twice the amount of DNA in comparison to NCERT Page No. 117
haploid gamete.
NCERT Page No. 169 48. (1)
Both statements are correct.
44. (1) NCERT Page No. 168, 169
(A) – 4, (B) – 3, (C) – 2, (D) – 1, (E) – (5)
NCERT Page No. 168-169 49. (1)
Both statements are correct.
45. (4) NCERT Page No. 163, 167, 170
Metaphase chromosomes are made up of two
sister chromatids held together by centromere. 50. (1)
NCERT Page No. 165 Both assertion and reason are true and the reason
is a correct explanation of the assertion.
46. (2) NCERT Page No. 168
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
chromosomes.
NCERT Page No. 164-166

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