Bootcamp AIOM 05 CLAT Patter

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

BOOTCAMP AIOM MOCK-05
CLAT PATTERN
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
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Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader
rs . Maximum Marks : 120

10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy
k e writing the roll No. and other details on OMR

response Sheet.
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has to be detached and taken by the 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
candidates. shading the circles. Indicate only the most
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2. In case of any discrepancy in the question
booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR.tr-5K8D3C1J4G
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appropriate answer by shading from the
options provided. The answer circle should be
shaded completely without leaving any space.
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Do not usetr-the
5M8Uprevious 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
for a fresh booklet so obtained. on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
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3. Candidates will not be given a second blank
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance.
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled
carefully.
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be
to take necessary precautions before marking
the appropriate circle.
13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
to be produced at the time of Admission.
sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is not fold.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate the space provided on the OMR response
shall result in the cancellation of his/her Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space
examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No.,
3N1U4O5R5T
5M8Usign
tr-and
prosecuted. in the space/column provided in the
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
will be deducted for every wrong answer or required and in the spaces provided for.
where candidates have marked more than one
response.
CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 8
Legal Reasoning 53-84 13
Logical Reasoning 85-108 21
Quantitative Techniques 109-120
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 32
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
The word “Batik” is Javanese, and means to paint or draw or design with wax on textiles so that when placed in
the dye the wax prevents the part covered from taking the color. The wax is then removed by hot water or
gasoline, leaving the parts thus covered of the original color.
From early times and in many places designs have been made in this manner on various kinds of objects, but the
process reached its highest development in its application to woven fabrics. Wax seems to have been used in this
manner in southern India and probably in some other parts of southeastern Asia for centuries. Early Buddhistic
books of the ninth or tenth century refer to a wax painting process, and there are preserved in Japan ancient
Indian cloths which have been colored in this manner.
This process of wax painting, however, reached its highest development in Java, where it was probably
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introduced about the twelfth century. The earliest written record we have states that in 1518, there was a
flourishing industry of this sort at Cheribon, Java, which showed certain remarkable resemblances to the
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processes employed on the Coromandel coast of southern India. The work was done by men, and plant and
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animal motives were largely used in the designs. At that time, that portion of the island had not yet been
Mohammedanized, as we see by the designs used.
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After Mohammedanism spread over the island, the industry developed rapidly, and many new and original
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patterns were added to those formerly used. The highest development was in central Java, where “Batik”
flourished especially during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries. Here the work was carried on by women,
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especially by those of the leisure class, who could give the time and care necessary to the production of the finest
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work. Some designs were so elaborate and difficult that only the nobility could afford them and a few designs
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were reserved for the use of royalty. In these designs, indigoes or browns are the predominating colors.
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The first detailed account of Batik making was by Raffles in 1817. At that time the “tjanting,” an instrument,
was in universal use. How long it had been
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Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ‘FIRST LESSONS IN BATIK’, by GERTRUDE CLAYTON
1.
LEWIS
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According to the passage, during which centuries did Batik particularly flourish in central Java?
(a) 12th and 13th centuries
(c) 17th and 18th centuries
(b) 14th and 15th centuries
(d) 19th and 20th centuries
2. Which of the following statements would the author agree to?
(a) Batik's primary significance lies in its commercial value in the modern global market.
(b) Batik serves as a notable cultural symbol, mirroring the historical and societal changes in its region of origin.
(c) The technique of Batik was developed without any external cultural or historical influences.
(d) Batik's colors and designs have little connection to the local traditions and customs of Java.
3. What was the role of the nobility in the development of Batik?
(a) The nobility primarily funded the modernization of Batik tools and techniques.
(b) Nobles exclusively designed the patterns used in Batik. tr-5M8U3N1U4O5R5T
(c) Nobility had access to more elaborate and exclusive Batik designs.
(d) The nobility oversaw the commercial distribution of Batik globally.
4. Which of the following words best describes the setting of the Batik industry in Java as portrayed in the passage?
(a) Decaying (b) Flourishing (c) Stagnant (d) Modernized
5. What does the term "predominating" mean as used in the context of the passage discussing Batik?
(a) To reduce in importance.
(b) To blend seamlessly with other elements.
(c) To be the most common or noticeable element.
(d) To undergo a process of fading or disappearance.
6. What is the purpose of the author mentioning “tjanting" in the passage?
(a) To indicate that the "tjanting" is an outdated tool no longer used in Batik making.
(b) To highlight the evolution of tools used in the Batik process, showing technological advancements.
(c) To suggest that the "tjanting" was the only tool used historically in Batik making.
(d) To imply that the "tjanting" significantly reduced the quality of Batik designs.
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): The project Mission Mausam, approved by the Union Cabinet, is an important initiative to
understand the weather and climate better at a time of changes in both, and to help the country tackle them better.
It is a Rs 2,000-crore project which is intended to upgrade the country’s forecasting infrastructure and capabilities
to make more accurate and reliable area-specific and short- and medium-range predictions. It also aims to do
research on weather modification methods. The existing weather observation network will be deepened and
expanded with supercomputers, doppler radars, wind profilers, radiometers, earth system models, and other
gadgets. The National Climate Mission of 2012 has done a lot to improve our understanding of the monsoon. It
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has developed a weather model which can be used to make daily and seasonal predictions. It has also been used
for predictions about heatwaves, etc. But there are questions about the reliability of predictions.
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Mission Mausam has a larger mandate and bigger ambitions. It proposes to employ the latest technologies like
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artificial intelligence and machine learning to study climate and use the results in areas such as agriculture,
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disaster management, defence, aviation, energy, water resources, etc. It plans to go beyond forecasting and to
test weather interventions. The India Meteorological Department has plans to set up a cloud experiment
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laboratory at the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, which will help to modify weather systems to
“suppress and expand” rain, fog, hail, thunderstorms, etc. The government has said that this will help in
consequent deaths.
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controlling rainfall and lightning. The country has in recent years recorded an increase in lightning strikes and
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The government has said the mission will be implemented in two phases. The first phase, which runs until March
2026, will focus on expanding the observation network. The second phase will focus on adding satellites and
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aircraft to further enhance observational capabilities.
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the climatetr-phenomena
methods to manage them. This is no easy task because climate is complex and the country has a diversity of
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climates across its geography. It is a moot question whether a full understanding of climate and weather is
possible as they are very complex and shifting phenomena. It is an ambitious task which needs to be undertaken,
but with due scepticism, not gung-ho techno-optimism.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ‘Playing weather god?’ Deccan Herald
What is the central thesis of the text about Mission Mausam?
(a) Mission Mausam aims to test and implement weather modification technologies to control adverse weather
conditions and improve forecasting.
(b) The main objective of Mission Mausam is to reduce the economic burden caused by climate change through
international collaborations.
(c) Mission Mausam focuses exclusively on enhancing India’s agricultural outputs by utilizing advanced weather
forecasting systems.
(d) The primary goal of Mission Mausam is to transition India's energy sector to rely entirely on renewable
sources by improving weather prediction technologies. tr-5M8U3N1U4O5R5T
8. What is the meaning of the word "mandate" as used in the passage?

(a) A command or authorization given to an individual or organization.
(b) A monthly or annual subscription fee.
(c) A legal document required for travel.
(d) A ceremonial gathering or meeting.
9. Which of the following words best describes the state of predictions made by the National Climate Mission as
mentioned in the passage?
(a) Consistent (b) Precise (c) Questionable (d) Accurate
10. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with regarding Mission Mausam?
(a) Investing in advanced weather forecasting technologies is unnecessary given current capabilities.
(b) Embracing technological optimism without skepticism can effectively address climate challenges.
(c) Mission Mausam's objectives should be approached with a degree of concern.
(d) The existing climate models are fully sufficient for predicting weather phenomena accurately.
11. What makes the use of artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning in Mission Mausam an ‘ambitious’
approach?
(a) It solely enhances the reliability of short-term weather forecasts.
(b) It is primarily aimed at improving local weather stations.
12.
(c) It focuses on technological advancements without practical applications.
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(d) It seeks to integrate cutting-edge technologies to tackle complex climate phenomena comprehensively.
What is the antonym of the word "enhance" as used in the passage?
c
(a) Improve (b) Upgrade (c) Worsen
.
(d) Advance
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Passage (Q.13-Q.18): The word ‘secular’ was added to the Indian Constitution’s preamble through the 42nd
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Amendment in 1976, although the idea of secularism was implicit from the start. India was declared a secular
State to differentiate it from Pakistan, whose raison d’être was a separate nation for Muslims. The makers of the
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Indian constitution did not want to send a message that the religious minority were at the mercy of the majority.
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Therefore, the word secular in the context of the Indian Constitution does not mean ‘not having any connection
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with religion.’ When it was argued on the floor of the assembly that the freedom of religion was opposed to the
of the people.5MAll that a secular State means

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explained that “it (secular State) does not mean
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idea of a secular State, it was challenged by several members of the drafting committee. Babasaheb Ambedkar
is
that we
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shall not take into consideration the religious sentiments
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parliament shall not be competent to impose any particular
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religion upon the rest of the people”. The second president of India, S Radhakrishnan, explained the sentiment
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thus: “When India is said to be a secular State, it does not mean that we reject the reality of an unseen spirit or
the relevance of religion to life or that we exalt irreligion. It does not mean that secularism itself becomes a
positive religion.”
Thus, the distinguishing features of Indian secularism as envisaged by the constitution are, firstly, that there is
no religion that the State identifies with; secondly, that the people are free to follow religion of their choice; and
thirdly, that the State does not discriminate between people following different religions. It is a common practice
in many democracies for the heads of governments to celebrate festivals in their offices. It is a common practice
for heads of state to wish their people on important festivals. Religion is a guiding force in the lives of people.
It has always guided mankind on its path to self-fulfilment. It is from religious teachings that our idea of right
and wrong has been derived. It is the moral hand of religion that keeps people on the right path.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ‘Secularism – a positive idea’, by Rohini Pandurangi, Deccan
Herald
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13. What does the inclusion of the word "secular" in the Indian Constitution suggest about the foundational values
of India?
(a) It suggests a rejection of all religious values and practices in public life.
(b) It indicates that India identifies with a specific religion that the State imposes on its citizens.
(c) It reflects the intention to embrace multiple religious practices and prevent any one religion from dominating
others.
(d) It represents the State's preference for atheism over any religious belief.
14. Which of the following suggestions would be given by the author to the Indian lawmakers?
1. Ensure policies do not discriminate based on religion.
2. Never observe any religious festival at offices.
Select the correct answer by using the given codes:-
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
(a) Persuasive (b) Explanatory (c) Critical (d) Narrative
16. What is the meaning of the word "raison d’être" as used in the context of the passage?
(a) A reason for being or existence.
(b) A philosophical debate about morality.
(c) A celebration of cultural diversity.
(d) A legal obligation imposed by the state.
17.
as used in the passage?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Personification (d) Hyperbole
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Which literary device is employed in the phrase “the moral hand of religion that keeps people on the right path”
18. Which of the following is the most likely source of the passage?
(a) A travel blog discussing cultural diversity in India.
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(b) A newspaper editorial on current political debates.
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(c) An academic text on constitutional law and secularism in India.
(d) A religious sermon on the principles of various faiths.
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Passage (Q.19-Q.24): Though Indians have been travelling for the last few centuries, documentation of their
travels have been scarce and far between. Pilgrimage, trade, and conquest drove the earliest subcontinental
travels, but it was specifically a male domain. Though much less in number as compared to the men, women’s
travel writing from colonial Bengal resulted
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Though historically women have been more associated with fixity, with home rather than
the road, the spread of English education for the middle class since the late nineteenth century also played a
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significant role in developing such narratives. Also, the emancipation of women, inculcated largely by the
progressive Brahmo Samaj movement, made the weaker sex venture into Victorian homes. For many of the
women who travelled to different countries of Europe and to England in particular, it meant visiting the land of
freedom, and the journey gave access to this freedom. Though most of the time the Bengali woman, who
belonged to middle-class Hindu/Brahmo, liberal, educated, bhadralok class families, had a male chaperone (in
most cases they were their husbands who were travelling for professional reasons, though they do not discuss
their activities much), the very act of travel bore the signature of modernity. But very few of them documented
their experiences and those came out as occasional autobiographical accounts published in book form primarily
for personal and private circulation. It is only from the beginning of the twentieth century that we find women’s
travel narratives started appearing regularly in popular Bengali literary periodicals of the time. With the spread
of education, newspapers and periodicals became the means through which prevailing ideas and ideologies were
transmitted to a large audience within a short period of time. These vernacular periodicals reflected the dreams,
aspirations, and motivations of the newly educated middle class, who picked 5T
travelogues to both entertain and
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educate their readers.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from ‘Social History through Women’s Writings’, by Somdatta
Mandal
19. What primarily drove the earliest subcontinental travels according to the passage?
(a) Leisure and exploration (b) Pilgrimage, trade, and conquest
(c) Scientific research (d) Colonial governance
20. It can be said that:
(a) The primary influence on women’s social standing was the increase in trade activities during colonial times.
(b) Women's engagement in travel and literature subtly contested established gender norms.
(c) The advent of English education had little impact on the cultural behaviors of middle-class women.
(d) Most women who documented their travels did so with the encouragement of their immediate family
members.
21. According to the passage, what role did the spread of English education play in women’s travel narratives?
(a) It diminished women’s interest in travel.
(b) It had no significant impact on travel narratives.
(c) It helped in developing narratives that reflected modernity and emancipation.
(d) It restricted women's ability to document their travels.
22. What does the passage imply about the association of women with "fixity"?
(a) Women were encouraged to travel frequently.
(b) Women were often perceived as more stable and homebound.
(c) The association was a modern construct without historical precedent.
(d) Women were predominantly the primary breadwinners in their families.
23.
(a) They became less frequent and more focused on fiction.
(b) They started appearing regularly in popular Bengali literary periodicals.
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What change occurred regarding women’s travel narratives from the beginning of the twentieth century?
(c) They shifted from autobiographical to fictional accounts.

(d) They were exclusively published for male audiences.
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24. According to the passage, how did vernacular periodicals serve the newly educated middle class?
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(a) They primarily focused on government policies and regulations.
(b) They became a means to transmit prevailing ideas and ideologies quickly.
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(c) They discouraged travel and promoted local traditions.
(d) They limited the readership to elite social classes.
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.31) Cabinet Approves One Nation, One Election Recommendations
The Union Cabinet on Wednesday approved a high-level committee’s recommendation on implementing
simultaneous national, state and local polls across India, laying the ground for the far-reaching but controversial
reform that can reshape the world’s largest democracy.
The proposal to align elections was a part of the Bharatiya Janata Party’s 2024 poll manifesto and has the backing
of Prime Minister Narendra Modi but is fiercely opposed by a raft of political parties and activists who allege
that it will hurt democratic accountability. “Cabinet has accepted the recommendations by the high-level
committee on one nation, one election,” Union minister for information & broadcasting Ashwini Vaishnaw told
reporters at a briefing after the Cabinet meeting.
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former President Ram Nath Kovind that submitted its report to President Droupadi Murmu on March 14.
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He said an implementation group will be formed to execute the recommendations of the committee chaired by
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“We will seek to create a consensus over the next few months... Our government believes in creating a consensus
on items which affect democracy and the nation in the long run. This is a subject, a topic that will strengthen our
nation,” Vaishnaw said.
25.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.hindustantimes.com
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Elections to which of the following bodies are supposed to be covered if Simultaneous Elections are held?
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(a) House of the People, State Legislative Assemblies, and Municipalities only
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(b) House of the People, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies
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(c) House of the People, State Legislative Assemblies, Municipalities, and Panchayats
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(d) House of people, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies,
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26. Which article
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country will move to a system of simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and state Assemblies?
27.
(a) Article 82A
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(b) Article 80A (c) Article 92A
Which of the following is TRUE about the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)?
(d) Article 90A
(a) The MCC comes into force after the voting process is officially completed.
(b) The MCC comes into force from the date the election schedule is announced until the results are declared.
(c) The MCC is enforced starting on the day candidates file their nominations for elections.
(d) The MCC applies from the date the political campaigns officially begin until voting concludes.
28. During elections in India, holding public meetings during the 48-hour period before the hour fixed for the closing
of the poll is prohibited. The 48-hour period is known as
(a) Campaign Restriction Period
(b) Election Silence
(c) Voter Reflection Period
(d) Pre-Polling Quiet Period 1U4O5R5T tr-5M8U3N
29. After the changes brought in the selection process in 2023, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election
Commissioners (ECs) are appointed by the President based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.
Who among the following is not a member of the Selection Committee?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Union Cabinet Minister
(c) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of India
30. Consider the following statements regarding the elections to the 3rd tier of governance, i.e., the Local Self
Government:
1. The State Election Commission is responsible for administering elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions
and Urban Local Bodies.
2. Before 1992, elections to these Local Self Government bodies were conducted by the Election Commission
of India.
3. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments of 1992 provided legal sanctity to Local Self Governments,
establishing them as an important part of nation-building.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
31. Which of the following is a key recommendation of the Committee led by Former President on Simultaneous
Elections?
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(a) Simultaneous elections to Lok Sabha, State Assemblies, municipalities, and panchayats can be held without
any constitutional amendments.
by the states.
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(b) Simultaneous elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies can be held with no requirement for ratification
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(c) Elections to municipalities and panchayats must be held on the same day as Lok Sabha and State Assembly
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elections without any additional procedures.
(d) Constitutional amendments for simultaneous elections to Lok Sabha and State Assemblies require
ratification by all states.
Passage (Q.32-Q.38): Unified Pension Scheme
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The Centre faced much criticism when it adopted the National Pension Scheme and gradually gave up on the
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Old Pension Scheme. On one hand, government employees were dissatisfied with the change in policies over
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National Pension Scheme (NPS), several states and opposition parties were insisting on returning to OPS to woo
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In a bid totr-balance sides, the Centre unveiled the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) in August 2024, which
promised to be a mix of both the existing pension schemes. The UPS combines the guaranteed advantages of the
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OPS with the added benefits of the NPS, providing government employees with a more reliable and secure
retirement plan.
The sustainability of pension schemes has been a subject of deliberation among policymakers, economists, and
specialists. The defined Benefit Old Pension Scheme (OPS) was favoured by employees because of its reliability
and assurance. However, it placed a notable financial strain on the government.
Unlike other schemes, the OPS did not necessitate contributions from employees, rendering it advantageous for
employees but concurrently creating a substantial liability for the government. Retired individuals were entitled
to 50% of their final salary as a lifelong pension without having made any contributions during their tenure.
Furthermore, the OPS granted dearness relief to account for inflation and extended a family pension to
dependents.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.businesstoday.in
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32. Consider the following statements regarding the salient features of8Uthe Unified Pension Scheme (UPS):
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1. The assured pension is 50% of the average basic pay drawn over the last 12 months prior to superannuation,
for a minimum qualifying service of 25 years.
2. For a lesser period of service, up to a minimum of 5 years, the pension will be proportionate.
3. The assured family pension is 60% of the pension of the employee immediately before their demise.
4. The assured minimum pension is ₹10,000 per month after superannuation, with a minimum of 10 years of
service.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
33. Which report became the basis for the National Pension Scheme (NPS) in India?
(a) 11th Pay Commission report (b) OASIS Report
(c) Kelkar Committee Report (d) Gadgil Report
34. Under the Pensions Act, 1871, which feature was part of the pension scheme introduced by the British for
government employees?
(a) A pension amount based on the employee's contribution
(b) The retiree was assured 50% of the last drawn basic salary as pension
(c) No provision for Dearness Allowance (DA) in the pension scheme
(d) Gratuity was capped at ₹10 lakhs for government employees
35. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) was discontinued and the National
Pension Scheme (NPS) was introduced?
(a) Manmohan Singh (b) Inder Kumar Gujral
36.
(c) P. V. Narasimha Rao (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
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Which of the following regulatory bodies in India regulates the National Pension System (NPS)?
(a) SEBI (b) RBI (c) PFRDA (d) IRDAI
c
37.
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Which of the following was the primary reason for discontinuing the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) and replacing
it with the National Pension Scheme (NPS)?
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(a) To provide higher pension benefits to retirees
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(b) To reduce the burden of increasing pension liabilities on the government
(c) To include Armed Forces personnel under the pension scheme
38.
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(d) To promote early retirement among government employees
a
Citizens of which age group are eligible to join the National Pension Scheme (NPS) under the All-Citizens
Model?
(a) 18 - 60 years
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Passage (Q.39-Q.44): Nepal to introduce new currency note featuring disputed territories with India
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"The cabinet approved to re-design the banknote of Rs 100 and replace the old map printed in the background
of the bank note during the cabinet meetings held on April 25 and May 2,” the report quoted Sharma, who is also
the Minister for Information and Communication. On June 18, 2020, Nepal completed the process of updating
the country’s political map by incorporating three strategically important areas by amending its Constitution,
something that India reacted sharply, calling it a “unilateral act” and terming as “untenable” the “artificial
enlargement” of the territorial claims by Nepal.
Nepal shares a border of over 1,850 km with five Indian states – Sikkim, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and
Uttarakhand. In June 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Nepalese counterpart Pushpakamal Dahal
'Prachanda' vowed to resolve the boundary dispute under the spirit of friendship during the latter's visit to India.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.businesstoday.in/india/story/nepal-to-introduce-new-
currency-note-featuring-disputed-territories-with-india-428247-2024-05-04
39. Which treaty established the Kali River as Nepal's western boundary with India?
4O5R5T
tr-5M8U3N1U
(a) Treaty of Sugauli (b) Treaty of Versailles
(c) Treaty of Nanking (d) Treaty of Tordesillas
40. Which of the following territories is not included in the new Rs 100 Nepalese currency note featuring disputed
areas?
(a) Lipulekh (b) Limpiyadhura (c) Kalapani (d) Gangtok
41. Which district of Uttarakhand is the Kalapani valley located in?

(a) Almora (b) Chamoli (c) Pithoragarh (d) Haridwar
42. In which year was the Treaty of Peace and Friendship between India and Nepal signed?
(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1962 (d) 1975
43. In which year did Nepal become a federal democratic republic after overthrowing the monarchy?
(a) 2006 (b) 2007 (c) 2008 (d) 2015
44. With which country did India sign an agreement in 2015 to use the Lipulekh pass for trade, causing displeasure
in Nepal?
(a) Bhutan (b) China (c) Bangladesh (d) Myanmar
Passage (Q.45-Q.48): No claim to promotion as FR: SC
Passage: Supreme Court has said that the Constitution is silent on criteria for granting promotion to govt servants
and ruled that the legislature and executive are free to decide the norms for promotion keeping in view the nature,
functions and requirements of a promotional post.
m
A bench of CJI D Y Chandrachud and Justices J B Pardiwala and Manoj Misra in a recent judgment said, "In
o
India, no govt servant can claim promotion as their right because Constitution does not prescribe criteria for
c
filling seats in promotional posts. The legislature or the executive may decide the method for filling vacancies
rs .
to promotional posts based on the nature of employment and the functions that the candidate will be expected to
discharge." It said the judiciary cannot sit in review to decide whether a policy adopted for promotion is apt for
selecting the 'best candidates', except on the limited ground where such a policy appeared to violate the principle
e
of equal opportunity, guaranteed under Article 16 of the Constitution. While deciding disputes over selection of
k
district judges in Gujarat, the bench said the principle of seniority as a parameter of selection for promotion
derived from the belief that competence is related to experience and that it limits scope of favouritism.
45.
r an
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com
The 82nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000, added a provision under Article 335 allowing relaxation in
p
qualifying marks for which group in any examination? 5I5F
tr-5K8D3C1J4G
o
(a) Womentr-5M
candidates
8U3N1U4O 5R 5T
(b) Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
46. T
(c) Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST)
(d) Other Backward Classes (OBC)
In the Indra Sawhney Judgment of 1992, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of 27% reservation for
OBCs, but imposed which of the following restrictions to maintain the constitutionally guaranteed right to
equality under Article 14?
(a) A ceiling of 50% on total reservations, with no exceptions.
(b) A ceiling of 50% on total reservations, unless approved by Parliament.
(c) A ceiling of 50% on total reservations, unless exceptional circumstances warrant a breach.
(d) A ceiling of 49% on total reservations, with no breach allowed under any circumstances.
47. Who among the follwoign gave the dissenting opinion in the recent Supreme Court verdict allowing sub-
classification within Scheduled Castes (SC) for reservation?
(a) Justice Bela Trivedi
(b) Justice B.V. Nagarathna 4O5R5T
tr-5M8U3N1U
(c) Justice N.V. Ramana
(d) Justice Indu Malhotra
48. In which case was the 103rd Constitutional Amendment that introduced a 10% reservation for Economically
Weaker Sections (EWS) challenged?
(a) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India
(b) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India
(c) M. Nagaraj v. Union of India
(d) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Passage (Q.49-Q.52): International Yoga Day
Passage: Yoga, a tradition originating from India over 5,000 years ago, is a practice that combines physical,
mental, and spiritual disciplines to achieve a harmonious balance between the body and mind. The word "yoga"
is derived from the Sanskrit term meaning "to join" or "to unite," symbolizing the union of body and
consciousness.
The World Health Organization (WHO) recognizes yoga as a powerful tool for improving both physical and
mental health, and for preventing and controlling noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) such as cardiovascular
diseases, cancer, chronic respiratory diseases, and diabetes. These NCDs account for over 80% of premature
deaths, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Yoga, by promoting healthier lifestyle choices and
reducing physical inactivity, can play a crucial role in achieving a 15% relative reduction in physical inactivity
by 2030, a target of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Yoga offers immediate psychological benefits, including reduced anxiety and stress, and enhanced emotional
m
and social well-being. Unlike many forms of physical activity that can be exhausting, yoga helps lower heart
o
rate and activates the parasympathetic nervous system, providing a calming effect. It is a versatile practice that
can be adapted to suit people of all health levels, including those who are ill.
c
49.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.thehindu.com
rs .
During which session of the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) and in which year was the idea of the
e
International Day of Yoga (IDY) proposed by India?
k
(a) 69th session, 2014 (b) 70th session, 2015
(c) 68th session, 2013 (d) 67th session, 2012
50.
(a) Yoga for Health and Harmony
(c) Yoga for Peace and Unity
r an
What is the theme for the 10th International Day of Yoga in 2024?
(b) Yoga for Self and Society
(d) Yoga for a Balanced Life
51. The M-Yoga app, aims
tr-5M8U3N1U
4O5R
o p
in collaboration between which of the following?
tr-5K8D3C1J4G
5I 5F
to5Tpromote the concept of ‘One World, One Health’ through yoga. It is being developed
52.
T
(a) UNESCO and Ministry of Health
(b) WHO and Ministry of Ayush
(c) UNICEF and Ministry of Education
(d) World Bank and Ministry of Sports
Which other United Nations day is observed on June 21, along with the International Day of Yoga?
(a) International Day of the Celebration of the Solstice
(b) World Health Day
(c) International Day of Happiness
(d) International Day of Education
4O5R5T
tr-5M8U3N1U
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.60): The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024 was introduced in Lok Sabha on July 31, 2024.
The Bill seeks to replace the Aircraft Act, 1934. The Act regulates the civil aviation sector. It sets up three
statutory authorities: (i) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) for performing regulatory functions and
overseeing safety, (ii) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) for overseeing security, and (iii) Aircraft
Accidents Investigation Bureau for investigation of aircraft accidents. The central government may issue
directions to these authorities and also review their orders, if necessary, in public interest. The Bill retains the
regulatory structure and most of the provisions under the 1934 Act.
The Act empowers the central government to make Rules on several matters. These include: (i) regulation of
specified activities related to aircrafts and matters related to licencing, certification, and inspection, (ii) regulation
m
of air transport services, and (iii) implementation of Convention relating to International Civil Aviation of 1944.
o
The Bill retains these provisions and adds that the central government may make Rules on radio telephone
operator certificate and licences under the International Telecommunication Convention.
c
.
The Act allows the central government to impose penalties for contravention of Rules. It empowers the central
rs
government to appoint an officer for adjudication of penalties. This officer must be of the rank of the Deputy
Secretary to Government of India or above. Decisions of the Adjudicating Officer may be appealed before an
e
Appellate Officer, who must be of a higher rank than the Adjudicating Officer. The Bill retains this and adds an
additional level of appeal. The appeal against the decisions of the First Appellate Officer will lie before the
Appellate Officer.
a
(SOURCE- https://prsindia.org/billtrack/the-bharatiya-vayuyan-vidheyak-2024) k
Second Appellate Officer. The Second Appellate Officer must be an officer of a higher rank than the First
n
53.
(a) To introduce a new statutory authoritytr-for
r
What is the primary objective of the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024?
p 3C1J
air
5K8D 4G5I5F
safety.
o
3N1U 4O 5R 5T
(b) To replace the
tr-5M8U Aircraft Act, 1934 with updated regulations for civil aviation.
(c) To create a three-tier appellate structure for penalties.
54.
T
(d) To enhance international cooperation in civil aviation.
Which authority is responsible for overseeing the security of civil aviation under the Bharatiya Vayuyan
Vidheyak, 2024?
(a) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
(b) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
(c) Aircraft Accidents Investigation Bureau (AAIB)
(d) Central Government
55. What additional provision has been introduced in the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024, related to appeals
against penalties?
(a) Establishment of the First Appellate Officer.
(b) Additional level of appeal with a Second Appellate Officer.
(c) Removal of the appeal system. 5R5T
5M8U3N1U4O
(d) Penalty imposition by an officer below the rank of Deputytr-Secretary.
56. Which of the following is retained from the Aircraft Act, 1934 under the new Bill?
(a) The central government’s authority to make Rules.
(b) The regulatory structure of DGCA, BCAS, and AAIB.
(c) The central government’s authority to impose penalties for contravention of Rules.
(d) All of the above.
57. What new rule-making power does the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak, 2024 grant the central government that
was not present in the Aircraft Act, 1934?
(a) Regulation of air transport services.
(b) Licenses under the International Telecommunication Convention.
(c) Imposition of penalties for Rule contravention.
(d) Regulation of specified activities related to aircrafts
58. What is the role of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) under the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak,
2024?
(a) Overseeing security in the civil aviation sector.
(b) Investigating aircraft accidents.
(c) Performing regulatory functions and overseeing safety.
(d) Issuing penalties for contraventions of Rules.
59.
the passage?
(a) To simplify the appeal process for penalties.
c o m
What is the significance of introducing a Second Appellate Officer under the new Bill that can be inferred from
.
(b) To add an additional level of review for penalty decisions.
rs
(c) To give the central government more direct control over aviation safety.
(d) To provide the DGCA with final decision-making authority.
60.
e
Imagine that a new airline, SkyHigh Airlines, has been established to provide domestic air travel services.
k
Shortly after its launch, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) conducts an inspection and finds
n
that SkyHigh Airlines has not complied with the necessary licensing and safety regulations stipulated in the
Act. The DGCA decides to impose a significant penalty officer of adjudication on the airline for these
violations.
p
the Act for adjudicating such violations.tr-What
r a
SkyHigh Airlines disputes the penalty, arguing that the DGCA did not follow the proper procedures outlined in
1J4G5I5F are available to SkyHigh Airlines in contesting the
5K8D3Coptions
o
5R 5T
penalty? tr-5M8U3N1U4O
(a) SkyHigh Airlines can appeal directly to the Second Appellate Officer without going through the First
Appellate Officer.
T
(b) SkyHigh Airlines can appeal the decision to the First Appellate Officer and, if necessary, escalate the appeal
to the Second Appellate Officer if they are dissatisfied with the outcome.
(c) SkyHigh Airlines must first pay the penalty before appealing, as the penalty is automatically enforced upon
issuance.
(d) SkyHigh Airlines has no option to appeal the DGCA's decision since it is final and cannot be challenged.
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): The central issue before the Kerala High Court was whether only vehicle manufacturers
are authorized to provide “safety glazing” for windscreens and window glasses, or if vehicle owners can later
apply their own “safety glazing” by installing a plastic layer on the inner side of the window pane. VLT (Visible
Light Transmission) denotes the percentage of visible light that penetrates a glass. A higher VLT percentage
means more light passes through, while a lower VLT results in reduced visibility into the vehicle. Additionally,
the VLT percentage influences the heat and UV (ultraviolet) protection offered by the glass, as UV rays are
known to be harmful to humans. tr-5M8U3N1U
4O5R5T
As per the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, the front and rear windshields of vehicles should have a VLT of
at least 70 per cent, and the side windows at least 50 per cent. The Bureau of Indian Standards also sets the same
stipulations. However, a 2012 Supreme Court ruling effectively banned sun films across India, citing that heavily
tinted windows posed safety risks, as they obstructed visibility of any potential criminal activity within the
vehicle. The Supreme Court stated that no materials, including films of any VLT, could be applied to windscreens
and window glasses. The Supreme Court's ruling applies universally to all vehicle window tints, regardless
of when they were applied.
The Kerala High Court held that the Supreme Court's 2012 decision concerned the unamended Rule 100 of the
Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, which primarily outlined the responsibilities of vehicle manufacturers. As
a result, any modifications made by vehicle owners—such as applying a sun film or safety glazing—were
automatically prohibited under the Supreme Court’s ruling. However, in April 2021, this rule was amended to
place greater responsibility on owners to maintain the VLT standards of their vehicles’ windscreens and window
glasses. Consequently, this amendment opened the door for vehicle owners to use cool films and safety glazing,
provided their glass met the required standards set by the Motor Vehicle Act and the Bureau of Indian Standards.
The Kerala HC clarified the amended law. “No officer checking a motor vehicle can detect as to whether the
layer of plastic (film) of the inner side of the glass pane of toughened or laminated glass is pasted either by the
manufacturer or by the owner. Such penalisation [based on whether the sunscreen has been retroactively
installed] therefore would be unsustainable,” the court said.
61. What change was made in April 2021 regarding the Central Motor Vehicles Rules?
(a) The minimum VLT requirements for window glass were reduced.
(b) Vehicle owners were given the responsibility to maintain VLT standards.
(c) The use of sun films was entirely prohibited for all vehicles.
(d) Manufacturers were allowed to use lower quality materials for safety glazing.
c o m
62.
rs .
What was the significance of the Supreme Court's 2012 ruling concerning vehicle window films?
(a) It mandated that all vehicles must have completely clear glass.
e
(b) It did not banned the use of any materials on vehicle windows.
(c) It established that the responsibility for safety glazing lies solely with manufacturers.
63.
k
(d) It highlighted the safety risks associated with heavily tinted vehicle windows.
n
What is the role of the Kerala High Court's interpretation regarding the amended law?
a
(a) To affirm that any modifications by vehicle owners are prohibited.
(c) To mandate that all vehicles must undergo

r
(b) To clarify that owners can install safety glazing as long as VLT standards are met.
p
tr-5K8Dinspections
3C1J4G5I5F for compliance.
o
(d) To eliminate the 5R 5T
need for manufacturers to comply with VLT standards.
1U4O
tr-5M8U3N
T
64. According to the passage, why would penalizing vehicle owners based on the source of the plastic layer on
windows be deemed unsustainable?
(a) Officers cannot determine who applied the safety glazing.
(b) Vehicle owners are exempt from compliance under the new law.
(c) Manufacturers are the only ones legally accountable for safety standards.
(d) The law does not specify the materials that can be used for safety glazing.
65. In 2023, a car owner, Mr. Rao, purchased a luxury sedan that originally came with factory-installed tinted
windows. The vehicle has a VLT of 30%, which is below the legally mandated limit of 70% for front and rear
windshields as per the Motor Vehicles Act and the Bureau of Indian Standards. Despite the Supreme Court
ruling in 2012 banning the use of any films on vehicle windows, Mr. Rao decides to enhance the privacy of his
vehicle. He installs a new sun film with a VLT of 15% on the rear windows, believing it offers better
protection against UV rays and heat. During a routine traffic stop, police officers notice the heavily tinted
windows and issue Mr. Rao a fine for violating the VLT standards Can Mr. Rao successfully challenge the fine
by arguing that the tint was factory-installed and thus exempt tr-from
5M8Uthe 4O5R5T
3N1USupreme Court's ruling?
(a) Yes, Mr. Rao can challenge the fine because factory-installed tints are not covered under the Supreme Court's
ruling.
(b) No, Mr. Rao cannot challenge the fine as the Supreme Court's ruling applies universally to all vehicle window
tints, regardless of when they were applied.
(c) Yes, Mr. Rao can argue that since he did not install the tint himself, he should not be held liable under the
ruling.
(d) No, Mr. Rao can only be fined for modifications made by vehicle owners, not for factory-installed tints.
Passage (Q.66-Q.71): Tightening the law on child pornography, the Supreme Court on September 23, 2023,
stated that viewing, possessing, and failing to report such content are punishable under the Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, regardless of whether the material is shared or transmitted further. The
court set aside a Madras High Court decision from earlier this year that had quashed criminal proceedings against
a 28-year-old man who had downloaded two pornographic videos involving children on his phone.
The Supreme Court expanded the interpretation of Section 15 of the POCSO Act, which addresses the
“Punishment for storage of pornographic material involving children.” The court clarified that “possession”
includes situations where an individual may not physically hold the material but has the “power to control” it
and knowledge of such control. This notion of “constructive possession” implies that even viewing, distributing,
or displaying the material constitutes possession under Section 15.
Justice Pardiwala illustrated this by stating that an individual who routinely watches child pornography online,
without downloading it, is still considered to be in possession since they exercise control over the material during
m
the viewing process. Additionally, the court noted that an individual who unintentionally receives child
pornography via an unknown link must report it to the authorities after closing the link to avoid liability.
o
The court ruled that the offence under Section 15 applies even if the accused does not have physical possession
c
of child pornography at the time the FIR is filed. The intent of the accused can be inferred from how the material
.
was stored or possessed and the circumstances surrounding its deletion, destruction, or reporting.
rs
(Source-https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/child-pornography-law-posco-act-supreme-
court-9584617/)
66.
e
In light of the Supreme Court's ruling, which of the following statements about "constructive possession" of
child pornography is correct?
k
n
(a) Constructive possession only applies to physical storage of child pornography.
a
(b) Constructive possession can occur even when the individual does not physically store the material but has
control over it during viewing.
r
p
(c) An individual can only be charged with possession if they have downloaded the material.
5I5F
tr-5K8D3C1J4G
(d) Constructive possession does not apply to individuals who view child pornography online.
o
5R 5T
8U3N1U4O
tr-5M
67. If an individual receives a child pornographic video from an unknown sender and immediately closes the link,
T
which of the following actions must they take to avoid liability under the POCSO Act?
(a) They must delete the video from their device.
(b) They must report the incident to the specified authorities.
(c) They can take no action as closing the link absolves them of any responsibility.
(d) They must share the link with their friends to warn them.
68. In what circumstances can an individual be held liable under Section 15 of the POCSO Act?
(a) Only if they have physical possession of child pornography when the FIR is filed.
(b) If they have possessed child pornography at any time, even if it is deleted before the FIR is filed.
(c) If they only view child pornography but never download it.
(d) If they report child pornography after viewing it.
69. What factors can be used to determine the intention (mens rea) of an accused in child pornography cases under
Section 15 of the POCSO Act?
4O5R5T
(a) Only the physical possession of child pornography. tr-5M8U3N1U
(b) The manner in which the material is stored or possessed and the circumstances regarding its deletion,
destruction, or reporting.
(c) The age of the accused at the time of possession.
(d) Whether the accused has a criminal record related to similar offenses.
70. In which of the following scenarios can a person be held liable under Section 15 of the Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act for possession of child pornography?
I. A 30-year-old man named Vikram accidentally stumbles upon a child pornography video while browsing
the internet. Although he immediately closes the link and does not share it with anyone, he does not report
the incident to the authorities.
II. During a routine check, law enforcement discovers that Priya, a teacher, has been storing child pornography
videos on her computer for several months. She argues that she never shared the material with anyone and
only watched it privately.
III. Rohan, a software engineer, frequently views child pornography on various websites but has never
downloaded or saved any content on his device. He believes he cannot be prosecuted under the POCSO Act
since he has no physical possession of the material.
IV. While using social media, Anika receives an unsolicited message with a link to a child pornography video.
After realizing what it is, she immediately closes the message but fails to report it to the authorities.
m
(a) Only I (b) Only III and IV (c) Only II and III (d) All of the above
71.
.c o
In the bustling city of Bengaluru, a university student named Priya receives a link to a video in a group chat, not
knowing it contains child pornography. Curious and unaware of its illegal nature, she clicks on the link and
watches the video for a few minutes before feeling uncomfortable and closing it. She decides not to report it to
rs
anyone, thinking it was an isolated incident and not something serious. Later, the police investigate her social
media for similar content and find her browsing history, including the link she accessed. Determine which of the
following statements is true.
k e
i. Priya can be held liable under Sec 15 of the POCSO Act for viewing the child pornography, as she exercised
control over the material during the viewing process.
device.
r n
ii. Priya is not liable under Sec 15 of the POCSO Act because she did not download or store the material on her
a
iii. Priya must report the receipt of the link to the authorities to avoid potential liability under the POCSO Act.
iv. The law distinguishes between intentional
liability.
tr-5M 8U 3N 1U
o
4O 5R 5T
p and
tr-5K8D3C unintentional
1J4G5I 5F viewing of child pornography in terms of
v. The offence of viewing child pornography applies only if the individual has physical possession of the
material.
(a) i, iii, and vi

T
vi. The Supreme Court’s ruling emphasizes that "constructive possession" includes both viewing and control of
child pornography.
(b) ii, iv, and v (c) i, iv, and v (d) iii and vi only
Passage (Q.72-Q.77): The first phase of polling for the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly will take place on
Wednesday. Given that this is the first election since 2019 when the constitutional compact of Jammu and
Kashmir was altered by the abrogation of Article 370, the new Legislative Assembly will be substantially
different from earlier Assemblies. The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 created two UTs — the
UT of Ladakh without a legislature, and the UT of Jammu and Kashmir with a legislature.
The 2019 Act also specifies the powers of the J&K Lieutenant Governor (LG). Section 53, which deals with the
role of the Council of Ministers, states: “The Lieutenant Governor shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in
his discretion in a matter:
(i) Which falls outside the purview of the powers conferred on the Legislative
4O5R5T
Assembly; or
tr-5M8U3N1U
(ii) In which he is required by or under any law to act in his discretion or to exercise any judicial functions; or
(iii) Related to All India Services and Anti Corruption Bureau.”
This means that apart from public order and police, the bureaucracy and the anti-corruption bureau will also be
under the LG’s control.
The provision also says that whenever “any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter as respects
which the Lieutenant Governor is by or under this Act required to act in his discretion, the decision of the
Lieutenant Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done by the Lieutenant Governor
shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion”, and that
“the question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the Lieutenant Governor shall
not be inquired into in any court”.
In the run up to the elections, a series of administrative changes have extended the powers of the LG, granting
him the power to also appoint the Advocate General and law officers, and to give him a say in decisions regarding
prosecutions and sanctions.
SOURCE- https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/nature-of-jk-assembly-9573231/
72. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the impact of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act,
2019?
(a) The Act abolished the legislative assembly in Jammu and Kashmir entirely.
(b) The Act established two Union Territories, one of which has a legislature.
(c) The Act granted full statehood to Jammu and Kashmir.
(d) The Act removed all powers from the Lieutenant Governor.
73. What is the role of the Lieutenant Governor as outlined in the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
(a) He has full discretion in all legislative matters.
(b) He must always act on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
(c) He can act in his discretion in specific matters as defined by the Act.
(d) He is prohibited from making decisions on law enforcement.
c o m
.
74. Following the 2019 Act, what powers were extended to the Lieutenant Governor in relation to legal
rs
appointments?
(a) He can appoint members of the legislative assembly.
(b) He can appoint the Advocate General and law officers.
(c) He has the authority to dissolve the legislative assembly.
(d) He must appoint a Chief Minister from the ruling party.
k e
75.
law?
r
(a) All decisions made by the LG can be appealed.
an
What significant legal principle is established regarding the LG’s actions that cannot be questioned in a court of
(b) The validity of the LG’s actions shall not be called5I5F into question based on his discretion.
(c) The LG must document
(d) The LGtr-5M
o
3N1U4O5R5T
can8Uonly
all decisions
p
for 8D3C1J4G
tr-5Kpublic scrutiny.
act with the consent of the central government.
76.
T
Who among the following holds the authority to make final decisions on matters requiring discretion in the
Jammu and Kashmir governance structure as per the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019?
(a) The Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) The Council of Ministers.
(c) The Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.
(d) The Legislative Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.
77. The Jammu and Kashmir Legislative Assembly is in session, discussing a new bill aimed at enhancing the
accountability of the police force. During the debate, a sudden incident occurs where the police are accused of
misconduct in a recent operation. The Chief Minister decides to take immediate action by proposing that the
Legislative Assembly should conduct an inquiry into the matter. However, the Lieutenant Governor intervenes,
citing his discretionary powers.
Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the situation?
(a) The Legislative Assembly has the authority to conduct the inquiry without any intervention from the
Lieutenant Governor. tr-5M8U3N1U
4O5R5T
(b) The Lieutenant Governor can refuse to allow the inquiry as it falls outside the purview of the Legislative
Assembly's powers.
(c) The Chief Minister can override the Lieutenant Governor’s decision and proceed with the inquiry
independently.
(d) The inquiry must be conducted by the Anti-Corruption Bureau, which operates under the direct control of
the Lieutenant Governor.
Passage (Q.78-Q.84): The principle of strict liability evolved in the case of Rylands v Fletcher. In the year 1868,
the principle of strict liability stated that any person who kept hazardous substances on their premises would be
held responsible if such substances escaped the premises and caused any damage. Dangerous Substances: The
defendant will be held strictly liable only if “dangerous substances” escape from his premises. For the purpose
of imposing strict liability, a dangerous substance can be defined as any substance which will cause some
mischief or harm if it escapes. Escape: One more essential condition to make the defendant strictly liable is that
the material should escape from the premises and shouldn’t be within reach of the defendant after its escape.
Non-natural Use: To constitute a strict liability, there should be a non-natural use of the land. In the case of
Rylands v. Fletcher, the water collected in the reservoir was considered to be a non-natural use of the land.
Storage of water for domestic use is considered to be natural use. These three conditions need to be satisfied
simultaneously to constitute a strict liability. There are certain exceptions to the rule of strict liability, which is-
Plaintiff’s Fault: If the plaintiff is at fault and any damage is caused, the defendant wouldn’t be held liable, as
the plaintiff himself came in contact with the dangerous thing.
[Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/concept-strict-liability-absolute -liability]
78.
o m
Babbar had a large horse that he loved very much; he had built a stable for it in his backyard. He used to keep it
tied up as the horse was very mischievous; it would make loud noises and run around. Once, it even ran over a
c
.
child. So, Babbar made sure to take care of the horse and ensure it did not escape. However, one day, the horse
rs
was not put on a leash and escaped from the stable, injuring a neighbor. The neighbor sued him and sought to
hold him liable under the doctrine of strict liability. Decide.
(a) He will be liable under strict liability as the horse can be considered a dangerous substance.
k e
(b) He will not be liable under strict liability because it was not an unnatural use of land.
(c) He will be held liable because keeping a mischievous horse in his backyard is an unnatural use of land, and
n
it escaped also injuring his neighbour.
(d) He will be held liable because the horse escaped.
79.
into it. The pit was1Ualso tr-

r a
Abhiram had dug a pit in his garden to collect rainwater as he had a large orchard and needed water for irrigation.
p
He had covered the mouth of the pit with wooden 1Jplanks
5K8D3C 4G5I
5F and thick plastic sheets to prevent anyone from falling
very deep. One day, a neighborhood child named Aryan entered the garden to retrieve
o
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his ball, which had landed there. Unaware of the pit, he saw the sheets, tried to remove them to see what was
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underneath, and fell in, resulting in his death. Decide whether Abhiram will be held strictly liable or not.
(a) Abhiram would be liable because having a pit is not an unnatural use of land.
(b) He would be liable as there was no dangerous substance, and no escape occurred.
(c) He will be liable as the kid fell into the pit and died.
(d) He would not be liable as it does not meet all the criteria for strict liability.
80. Santosh was a nature enthusiast who was very passionate about planting trees and exotic shrubs on his land. He
often traveled to various countries to acquire unique plants and trees. On one occasion, he went to Vietnam and
brought back a famous but poisonous plant. He planted it in a miniature garden inside his room. One day, his
neighbor, intending to steal some plants to sell for money, broke into Santosh's house and found the miniature
garden. As a result, he developed severe blisters on his skin. The neighbor then sued Santosh under the principle
of strict liability for keeping a dangerous substance in a residential area. Decide.
(a) Santosh will be held liable as it was not an unnatural use of land.
(b) Santosh would be held liable because the plant did not escape his premises.
(c) Santosh would be held liable as he should not have kept such a dangerous 5R5T plant in his house.
5M8U3N1U4O
(d) Santosh would not be liable because the neighbour broke tr- into his house and put himself in danger.
81. Simran decided to have a big party at her new house, and she invited all her friends and relatives. She also had
a large bonfire in her little backyard. Her neighbour, Kevin, was playing with his 9-month-old child in his garden,
which was just next to Simran’s backyard. Simran lit the bonfire up, and the party started. Soon, one of the pieces
of wood flew into Kevin’s Garden, and it hit his son in his eye, which rendered his kid blind. Kevin argued for
strict liability on the part of Simran. Decide.
(a) Simran will be held liable because she should have been careful.
(b) Simran will be held liable because a large bonfire in such a small land was unnatural use.
(c) Simran will be held liable for justice because the kid was rendered blind.
(d) Simran will not be held liable as Kevin knew there was a party, and still, he sat in the garden.
82. Joe Goldberg had a huge apartment; there, he kept his books. In the basement of the building, where his library
was, he had this glass cage where he had installed a big AC, and it was like cold storage to take care of the old
books as they were particularly fragile. No one knew about this. One day his neighbour Beck was walking in the
library, and she saw the sign which said do not go to the basement, but out of curiosity, she went. There she saw
the glass cage and went in to check, and she suddenly got locked. Joe found her and got her out. She sued Joe
under strict liability. Decide
(a) Joe would not be liable because it was not an unnatural use of land, and there was no escape.
(b) Joe would be liable as keeping a glass cage in a library was an unnatural use and was quite dangerous.
(c) Joe would not be liable because Beck herself went into the basement.
(d) Joe would not be liable because Beck ignored the sign.
83. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the principle of strict liability as established in Rylands v
Fletcher?
m
(a) A defendant can be held strictly liable if the harmful substance was stored for domestic use.
(b) Strict liability applies only if the plaintiff can prove that the defendant was negligent in handling the
substances.
c o
(c) The defendant is not liable if the plaintiff was at fault and came into contact with the dangerous substance.
.
(d) All substances stored on the premises can lead to strict liability, regardless of their nature.
84.
rs
In a recent case, a factory owner stored a large quantity of chemicals on his premises for industrial purposes.
e
During a storm, the chemicals escaped and caused significant damage to a nearby residential area. Considering
the principle of strict liability established in Rylands v Fletcher, which of the following statements is most
accurate regarding the factory owner's liability?
k
n
(a) The factory owner is not liable since the storm was an act of God and beyond his control.
a
(b) The factory owner is liable if the chemicals are considered dangerous substances and there was a non-
natural use of the land.
r
p
(c) The factory owner is only liable if the residential area
5I5F had prior knowledge of the hazardous materials
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stored.
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(d) The factory owner is liable only if the chemicals were intended for use on the property.
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SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): In just four years, Richard Osman has transformed himself from a TV presenter and
producer into a best-selling author. One of the most humorous elements in Osman’s latest novel involves the use
of AI, with the murderer concealing his identity by asking ChatGPT to write his emails in the style of a friendly
English gentleman. He doesn't worry about AI replacing roles in the arts as he says: "AI is not going to write
Succession anytime soon, or a Kate Atkinson novel. There's always going to be room for great culture that comes
from the human heart rather than a machine's head."
In his new novel, Osman also touches on the world of social media influencers.
"I was reading that influencers were being used to smuggle things because no one questions why they're going
m
to Dubai or the Cayman Islands all the time with either no luggage, or lots of it.
o
"They spend their lives travelling around the world but actually if you look behind the curtain, they don't have
c
any money so they are the perfect people to abuse if you're a criminal gang because you can always take
advantage of someone like that."
rs .
But Osman says there's another side to the influencer lifestyle, one that can help those from less privileged
backgrounds break into the media industry.
k e
"If you're a young working-class kid and you've got talent, there's an avenue to money that didn't used to exist,"
he explains.
an
"Social media has given working-class talent a way to bypass the traditional gatekeepers of television."
r
Osman says there were barely any working-class people in the TV industry when he joined and "even fewer
people now".
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He was fortunate
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p
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5I5F
to1Uhave attended university on a scholarship and received housing benefits to move to London,
so he was able to take a low-paid job in the industry, but in today's world "I would not be able to do what I do
now".
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"Traditional media industry is in such decline that there's not an awful lot it can do to help working-class kids
get jobs," Osman explains.
Instead he says that young people are having "to do it by themselves and lean into the world of self-promotion".
While there's a buzz around his new book, Osman's fans are most excited about what's next in store for The
Thursday Murder Club.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, “Richard Osman: I'm terrible at playing detective”, by Yasmin
Rufo, BBC
85. What is the central theme of the passage?
(a) Richard Osman's critique of social media culture.
(b) The influence of AI on creative industries and media. 4O5R5T
tr-5M8U3N1U
(c) Osman’s perspective on AI, social media, and class opportunities.
(d) The decline of traditional television and its challenges.
86. According to the passage, what does social media provide for working-class talent?
(a) A platform for criminal activities and illegal work.
(b) New avenues for success to those previously marginalized by traditional gatekeepers.
(c) A way to exploit influencers for money laundering.
(d) A declining industry that offers little opportunity for new talent.
87. The author would DEFINITELY AGREE to the statement that:
(a) Artificial intelligence will soon take over significant roles in producing mainstream cultural works.
(b) the dwindling prospects in conventional media outlets have created a gap that digital platforms attempt to
bridge, though insufficiently.
(c) Social media platforms have completely rectified the limitations faced by working-class individuals in the
media industry.
(d) The advancements in technology have entirely eliminated the need for traditional gatekeepers in the media
industry.
88. “AI is not going to write Succession anytime soon, or a Kate Atkinson novel."
Based on the quoted line from the passage, which of the following conclusions can be drawn ?
(a) AI can efficiently replace all roles in creative industries.
(b) AI has already mastered the art of writing complex TV shows.
(c) AI will soon be the primary creator of all forms of literature.
89.
(d) AI still lacks the emotional depth to create profound literary works.
o m
Based on the passage, which of the following strengthens the author's view on the vulnerability of influencers?
c
.
(a) Influencers' lack of financial security makes them susceptible to manipulation.
(b) Influencers often mask their economic hardships with a lavish lifestyle.
rs
(c) Many influencers prioritize appearances over financial stability.
(d) Influencers frequently engage in activities that do not generate stable income.
90.
k e
“They spend their lives traveling around the world but actually if you look behind the curtain.....”
Based on the quoted line from the passage, what is the significance of the word 'curtain' in this context?
n
(a) It suggests the hidden aspects of the influencer lifestyle.
a
(b) It highlights the transparency of influencer activities.
r
(c) It indicates a theatrical element in the portrayal of influencers.
p
(d) It refers to the physical environments influencers operate in.
3C1J4G5I5F
tr-5K8D
o
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tr-5M8U3N1U
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): The dominance of the US dollar is increasingly being questioned due to a range of
geopolitical, geoeconomic, and geostrategic challenges and shifts. The dollar has long symbolised the United
T
States’ hard and soft power within a unipolar currency order. The dollar’s future as the dominant world currency
hinges on the geopolitical fragmentation between the US, Russia, and China—an outcome that could impact the
liberal international order. Technically, de-dollarisation refers to a significant reduction in the disproportionate
use of the US dollar in global trade and financial transactions. Foreign governments and corporations borrow
heavily against US dollars, with approximately 64% of the world’s debt held in dollars. Currently, around 84%
of global transactions are done in US dollars, though estimates may vary. This disproportionate share of the
dollar persists despite the US accounting for only about 10% of global trade. Many governments and central
banks hold dollar-based assets—such as Treasury debt—as reserves to manage foreign currency reserves. Gold
accounts for 10% of global reserves, and the US dollar remains the primary global reserve currency. Geopolitical
and geoeconomic uncertainties have increased the global community’s propensity to seek safe havens for
investments. In this sense, the US dollar continues to enjoy confidence as the world’s safest currency, especially
among countries that have a military alliance with the US. Nearly three-quarters of US assets abroad are held by
America’s closest allies, and these military allies are also the major reserve holders of the US dollar. Thus,
security guarantees and political affiliations drive the holding of8UUS 4O5R5T The dominance of the dollar is
3N1Uassets.
tr-5M
primarily maintained due to geopolitical fragmentation of the world into three blocs: the US-leaning bloc, the
China-leaning bloc, and the non-aligned bloc. The foreign exchange reserves of the US-bloc countries have
remained relatively static. However, countries with a low alignment with the US, such as those with a low-voting
alignment in the United Nations, may reduce their dollar holdings and dependence. BRICS nations have also
emerged as frontrunners in this de-dollarisation process. Countries facing the risk of US economic sanctions or
geopolitical tensions are more likely to move away from the US dollar.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, “The geopolitics of de-dollarisation”, Deccan Herald
91. Which of the following is the author MOST LIKELY TO AGREE with?
(a) The U.S. dollar’s dominance is primarily underpinned by America’s significant share in global trade.
(b) Geopolitical alignments and military alliances play a crucial role in maintaining the dominance of the U.S.
dollar.
(c) The shift towards de-dollarization is largely driven by the economic performance of the U.S. compared to
other countries.
(d) Most global transactions are conducted in currencies other than the U.S. dollar due to its decreasing utility.
92. Which of the following, if true, would MOST STRENGTHEN the main argument of the passage?
(a) International trade agreements increasingly stipulate transactions to be conducted in currencies other than
the U.S. dollar.
(b) There has been a recent decrease in the military expenditures of countries that are U.S. allies.
(c) Several major economies have increased their reserves of euros and Chinese yuan over the past decade.
m
(d) Recent geopolitical conflicts have prompted more countries to increase their holdings in U.S. dollars for
security reasons.
93.
. o
Based only on the author's analysis that “Countries facing the risk of US economic sanctions or geopolitical
c
tensions are more likely to move away from the US dollar,” which of the following would the author be MOST
rs
LIKELY AGREE with?
(a) Economic sanctions by the US enhance the global dominance of the U.S. dollar by restricting other
e
currencies’ flow.
(b) Countries at risk of sanctions should develop alternative financial systems to mitigate reliance on the U.S.
dollar.
n k
(c) The U.S. dollar is likely to gain more dominance as global trade tensions decrease.
a
(d) Countries aligned with U.S. foreign policy are more inclined to switch to currencies other than the U.S.
94.
dollar.
What can be INFERRED from the
p r statement: 3C1J4G5I5F nations

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have also emerged as frontrunners in this de-
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dollarisation 8U3N1U4O5R
process"?
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(a) BRICS nations are increasingly adopting the euro as their primary reserve currency.
95.
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(b) BRICS nations are likely leading initiatives to reduce global reliance on the U.S. dollar.
(c) BRICS nations are opposed to any form of international trade that involves the U.S. dollar.
(d) BRICS nations are solely dependent on the U.S. dollar for their economic transactions.
Given the significant role of U.S. military allies in holding American assets, which of the following actions
WOULD MOST LIKELY MAINTAIN the U.S. dollar’s status as the primary global reserve currency?
(a) U.S. reducing economic sanctions on non-allied countries.
(b) Allies reducing their strategic dependencies on the U.S.
(c) Allies diversifying their reserve currencies away from the U.S. dollar.
(d) U.S. increasing security commitments to its military allies.
96. Which of the following ASSUMPTIONS have been made by the author?
1. The geopolitical divisions between the US, Russia, and China will continue to deepen.
2. Countries will act in their economic self-interest in response to these divisions.
3N1U4O5R5T
3. The liberal international order remains stable and unaffected by8Ucurrency
tr-5M shifts.
Choose the correct answer by using the given codes:
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): In the middle of the 19th Century even British capitalists wanted the government in
India to invest more, but British officials refused to act unless it would directly protect their power.
The chaos of British rule helped turn late 19th Century India into one of the world's most famine-prone societies,
as the political networks and mechanisms with which Indians supported each other in times of need were
undermined by the British fear of political challenge.
Famine relief was focused on protecting centres of British authority and keeping expenditure as low as possible.
The initial strategy was to build famine camps to provide the starving with work far away from existing centres
of settlement, so the poor didn't cluster and protest in imperial towns.
British rule ended amid a cycle of violence sparked by the Raj's paranoid concerns about its own security. The
20th Century's two world wars turned India into a massive self-financing barracks essential to defend Britain's
position throughout Asia - but it also racked up anxiety in the face of challenge.
The idea of dominating India had come to be woven into imperial families' very way of life; for some, any form
m
of retreat involved a major existential crisis. The result was events like Gen Reginald Dyer's unplanned massacre
o
of hundreds of people at Amritsar's Jallianwala Bagh in 1919, which undermined the belief of many Indian
nationalists that they could negotiate with the Raj.
c
rs .
The political strategy of Indian opponents to British rule was designed to create an ordered society in contrast to
the chaos and violence they associated with imperial power. That, for example, was the aim of Mohandas
Gandhi's strategy of non-violence. But amidst economic depression and world war, Indian society fragmented.
k e
The Raj's failure to provide protection to different social groups meant fear and a tendency towards retaliatory
violence spread throughout north India. The end of World War Two was marked by mass poverty and an
n
unprecedented social collapse.
p r
Source: Extracted with edits and revisionstr-from,a
By 1946, Britons felt that their state could no longer uphold its core purpose, to maintain their own safety. The
speed with which British officers fled India in 1947 was remarkable.
5K8D3C“Viewpoint:
1J4G5I5F The myth of 'strong' British rule in India”, by Jon
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Wilson, BBC
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97.
T
Based on the passage, what primarily contributed to the disruption of traditional support systems among the
Indian population during British rule in the late 19th century?
(a) British officials undermining political networks and mechanisms.
(b) The introduction of famine camps by Indian authorities.
(c) Increased investment by British capitalists in Indian infrastructure.
(d) The relocation of British officials to urban centers.
98. Which of the following is the crux of the passage?
(a) The British Empire’s focus on enhancing Indian infrastructure led to increased social and economic
development during the colonial period.
(b) India’s path to independence was largely shaped by internal reform movements that were unrelated to British
administrative strategies.
(c) British investments in India were primarily aimed at promoting cultural exchanges and mutual understanding
between Britain and India.
(d) British colonial strategies, primarily shaped by concerns tr-
over security
5M8U 3N1U4O5Rand
5T control, detrimentally impacted
Indian societal structures and fueled nationalist movements.
99. Which of the following situations, if true, can STRENGTHEN the author's assertions?
(a) Records indicate that there was a significant reduction in famine incidences in India during the late 19th
century under British governance.
(b) Historical data confirm an increase in the frequency and severity of famines in India coinciding with periods
of stringent British economic policies.
(c) Documentation shows that British colonial policies led to a considerable improvement in healthcare and life
expectancy in India.
(d) Evidence suggests that British administrative reforms led to widespread economic prosperity and stability in
regions previously prone to unrest.
100. What role did World War Two play in exacerbating social and economic conditions in India during British rule?
(a) It led to an increase in democratic governance in India due to British dependency.
(b) It caused significant technological advancements in Indian industries.
(c) It resulted in large-scale migration of British citizens to India.
(d) It transformed India into a self-financing barracks critical for Britain's Asian defense.
101. Which of the following paradoxes has been highlighted by the author in the passage?
(a) The British intended to modernize India's infrastructure, but their policies led to economic stagnation.
(b) The British aimed to cultivate political alliances with Indian leaders, yet often undermined these leaders
through political maneuvers.
(c) The British sought to maintain control and ensure security, yet their methods resulted in increased instability
and violence.
(d) The British promoted policies of cultural assimilation to foster unity, but these policies led to widespread
m
cultural dissonance and resistance.
o
102. What could be a potential consequence of the British focus on protecting their own centers of authority and
c
minimizing expenditure during famine relief efforts in India?
.
(a) Enhanced collaboration between British authorities and Indian communities.
rs
(b) Increased technological investment in Indian agriculture.
(c) Intensified unrest and protests among the Indian population.
e
(d) Strengthened political networks within Indian social structures.
k
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): The tragic death of a 26-year-old Indian employee at a leading accounting firm has
n
ignited a serious debate about workplace culture and employee welfare in corporate environments.
a
Her death has resonated deeply, sparking a discussion on the "hustle culture" promoted by many corporates and
Some argue that this culture drives
p r
start-ups - a work ethic that prioritises productivity, often at the expense of employee well-being.
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innovation and1J4G 5I5F
growth,
with many choosing extra hours out of passion or
o
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ambition. Others say that employees are often pressured by management, leading to burnout and a diminished
quality of life.
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India is known to have one of the most overworked workforces globally. A recent report by the International
Labour Organisation said half of India's workforce worked for over 49 hours each week, making India the second
country after Bhutan to have the longest working hours.
Labour economist Shyam Sunder said India's work culture had shifted post-1990s with the rise of the service
sector, leading firms to bypass labour laws to meet round-the-clock demands.
He added that the culture has now been "institutionalised" by firms but it has also been accepted by employees.
"Even in business schools, students are tacitly told that working long hours to earn a high salary is normal and
even desirable," he said.
According to him, for there to be any real change in corporate culture, a "mindset shift" is necessary - one where
both firms and employees approach work with a more mature outlook, viewing it as important, but not the only
part and purpose of life. 1U4O5R5T tr-5M8U3N
"Till then, all the other steps by corporates, like offering period leave or partnering with mental health firms will
remain supplementary at best and symbolic at worst," he said.
Chandrasekhar Sripada, a professor at the Indian School of Business, agrees with this view. He said that toxic
work culture was a "complex, multi-stake holder problem" and that everyone, from industry leaders to managers
to employees and even society, would have to change the way they viewed productivity in order for there to be
any real change.
"We're still confusing hard work with productive work," Mr Sripada said. "The point of technology is to reduce
human work so why are working hours getting longer?"
"We need to start focussing on sustainable growth, not just from an environmental standpoint, but also from a
labour rights perspective," he added.
"Scandinavian countries have already created much gentler working environments, so there are models for India
to follow. All it needs is willpower."
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, “Death of Indian employee sparks debate on 'toxic work
culture'”, by Cherylann Mollan, BBC
103. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY TO BE A SOLUTION for addressing the negative impacts of hustle
culture in Indian corporates as per the discussions in the passage?
(a) Reducing the number of working hours per week.
(b) Promoting the use of technology to enhance productivity without extending work hours.
(c) Increasing the intensity of work without breaks.
(d) Implementing policies that prioritize mental health and employee well-being.
passage?
c
(a) Corporate policies like period leave are seen in abundance in the Indian corporate culture.
m
104. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the current corporate culture in India as discussed in the
o
.
(b) There is a need for a mindset shift where work is not seen as the only part and purpose of life.
rs
(c) Firms and employees have institutionalized the culture of working long hours.
(d) Toxic work culture is viewed as a complex, multi-stakeholder problem that requires changes from many
e
parties.
improve employee welfare and productivity in India?

(a) Increase in salaries acts as a primary motivation for working longer hours.
a k
105. Which of the following STRENGTHENS the argument that corporate culture needs significant reform to
n
r
(b) Maintaining current work hours is required to ensure competitive advantage in the global market.
(c) Traditional work ethics that align with continuous work without breaks must be prioritized to boost mental
health.
(d) The role 3N1U4O 5R
of8Utechnology
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recognized worldwide.
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p
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in reducing unnecessary human labor and focusing on sustainable growth is being
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106. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the impact of prolonged working hours on employees as
mentioned in the passage?
(a) Prolonged working hours have been shown to significantly increase individual productivity and job
satisfaction.
(b) Prolonged working hours contribute to burnout and diminished quality of life among employees.
(c) Employees prefer prolonged working hours as it allows for better personal and professional life balance.
(d) The majority of employees demand prolonged working hours to secure promotions and job stability.
107. Which of the following statements REFLECTS THE NEED for corporate culture changes to improve employee
welfare as discussed in the passage?
(a) Corporates should maintain traditional long working hours to meet global demands effectively.
(b) Technology investments should be limited to sectors other than employee welfare to maximize profits.
(c) There should be a mindset shift to view work as important but not the 5R only
5T
part of life.
tr- 5M 8U3N1U4O
(d) Increasing the intensity of work during office hours is the most effective method to boost productivity.
108. What can be inferred about the general attitude of corporate leadership towards work culture reform in India, as
described in the passage?
(a) Corporate leadership is largely unaware of the detrimental effects of prolonged working hours.
(b) There is a consensus among corporate leaders that existing work practices are effective and should remain
unchanged.
(c) Corporate leadership recognizes the problems but lacks the willpower to implement necessary reforms.
(d) All corporate leaders are actively seeking to reduce working hours across all sectors immediately.
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Direction (Q.109-Q.114): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Shahrukh took his new bike out for a test ride. At 9:00 a.m., he arrived at a milestone displaying a three-digit
number. By 10:00 a.m., he reached a second milestone showing a two-digit number, and both digits of this
number were present in the first milestone's three-digit number. At 11:00 a.m., he arrived at a third milestone
displaying the reverse of the second number. The sum of the digits in all three numbers was the same. Shahrukh
travelled at a uniform speed in the same direction throughout. The numbers on the milestones indicate the
distance to the nearest town in kilometres.
109. What was the speed (in km/hr) at which Shahrukh travelled?
(a) 45 (b) 30 (c) 27 (d) 36
m
110. What was the sum of the digits in the first milestone number?
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 8
c o
111. Shahrukh reached the second milestone, which displayed a two-digit number. Which of the following could be
the second milestone number?
.
rs
(a) 61 (b) 68 (c) 93 (d) 84
112. What would the third milestone number be?
(a) 16 (b) 61 (c) 68
k e (d) 86
113. If Shahrukh was traveling at a uniform speed, how far apart were the first and third milestones?
(a) 90 km (b) 80 km
(b) 18
r n
(c) 100 km
a
(d) 120 km
114. What is the total of sum of the digits of the numbers on the first milestones and third milestones?
(a) 27 (c) 21 (d) 14
Direction
o
(Q.115-Q.120):
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4O5R5T Study
p tr-5K8D3C1J4G
5I 5F
the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
In a group of kids, 40 kids like watching Dragon Ball Z, 45 like watching Hunter x Hunter, and 50 like watching
T
Full Metal Alchemist. Of these, 25 boys like both Dragon Ball Z and Hunter x Hunter, 22 boys like both Dragon
Ball Z and Full Metal Alchemist, 30 boys like both Full Metal Alchemist and Hunter x Hunter, and 15 like all
three-anime series.
115. Find the number of kids who like Dragon Ball Z or Hunter x Hunter but not Full Metal Alchemist.
(a) 25 (b) 24 (c) 23 (d) 22
116. How many kids like only Dragon Ball Z?
(a) 8 (b) 15 (c) 5 (d) 20
117. How many kids like Hunter x Hunter but not Full Metal Alchemist and Dragon Ball Z?
(a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 8 (d) 5
118. If a total of 20 kids do not like any of the three-anime series, how many kids are in the group altogether?
(a) 98 (b) 93 (c) 73 (d) 53
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119. What is the total number of kids who like Dragon Ball Z or Hunter x Hunter?
(a) 65 (b) 70 (c) 55 (d) 60
120. What is the total number of kids who like only one of the three series?
(a) 22 (b) 18 (c) 26 (d) 29
Notes:
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Mock Objection Form (MOF)
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SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-5 in the box):
English Language General Knowledge and Current Affairs Legal Reasoning
Logical Reasoning Quantitative Techniques
2. Approx time devoted to each section:
c o m
English Language Logical Reasoning
rs . Legal Reasoning
General Knowledge and Current Affairs
k e Quantitative Techniques
3. I:
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the wrong sequence
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today
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◻ wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
 spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
 spent insufficient time on _______________________________________ section.
 couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.
Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.
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That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

rs . Maximum Marks : 120

k e writing the roll No. and other details on OMR

Subject Q. No. Page No.

8. What is the meaning of the word "mandate" as used in the passage?

of the people.5MAll that a secular State means

(c) They shifted from autobiographical to fictional accounts.

41. Which district of Uttarakhand is the Kalapani valley located in?

(c) To mandate that all vehicles must undergo

(a) i, iii, and vi

into it. The pit was1Ualso tr-

p r statement: 3C1J4G5I5F nations

Some argue that this culture drives

improve employee welfare and productivity in India?

in reducing unnecessary human labor and focusing on sustainable growth is being

Logical Reasoning Quantitative Techniques

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

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