NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 4
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct concerning to the TCP acknowledgement
number?
I. It is a 16-bit number.
II. It contains the sequence number of the previous bytes the receiver has received.

a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) None of them are correct

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: TCP acknowledgement number is 32-bit in length, and it contains the sequence
number of the next byte the receiver expects to receive on a connection

QUESTION 2:
If maximum network layer payload size is 2KB, what is the maximum TCP payload size?
a) 2048 bytes
b) 2028 bytes
c) 2008 bytes
d) 1988 bytes

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: TCP header can range from 20 to 60 bytes. So, the maximum TCP payload would be
(maximum network layer payload – minimum header size) i.e., 2048 – 20 = 2028 bytes.

QUESTION 3:
Packets of the same session may be routed through different paths in
a) Both TCP and UDP
b) Neither TCP nor UDP
c) TCP, but not UDP
d) UDP, but not TCP

Correct Answer: (a)

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Explanation: Packet is the network layer protocol data unit (PDU). TCP and UDP are transport
layer protocols. Packets of the same session may be routed through different routes

QUESTION 4:
Which of the following system calls results in the sending of SYN packets?
a) socket
b) listen
c) bind
d) connect

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: In case of a TCP socket, connect system call causes an attempt to establish a new
TCP connection. When connect() is called by a client, a three way handshake happens to establish
the connection in TCP: (i) the client requests a connection by sending a SYN message to the server,
(ii) the server acknowledges this request by sending SYN-ACK back to the client, and (iii) the
client responds with an ACK and the connection is established.

QUESTION 5:
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for the Transport Layer?
I. Transport layer protocol should be stateful
II. Uses FTP protocols for ensuring flow control
a) Only I.
b) Only II.
c) Both I and II.
d) None of them.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: The transport layer needs to remember the state of the pipe, so that appropriate
actions can be taken. We need a stateful protocol for the transport layer. Moreover, ARQ protocols
are used for ensuring flow control.

QUESTION 6:
Which of the following is helpful to avoid TCP SYN flood attack? Use of cryptographic function to
generate sequence numbers for TCP connection is helpful to avoid?
a) Two-way handshaking
b) Checksum
c) Cryptographic functions
d) None of these

Correct Answer: (c)

2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Explanation: Cryptographic function generates sequence numbers that help in avoiding the TCP
SYN flood attack.

QUESTION 7:
What is/are the parameters responsible for restricting TCP segment size?
a) IP address
b) IP payload
c) Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) of the link
d) Acknowledgement number field size

Correct Answer: (b) and (c)

Explanation: TCP segment size is restricted by two parameters namely IP payload (65515 bytes)
and Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) of the link

QUESTION 8:
“For effective congestion avoidance, the sending rate of the network should be the minimum of
network rate and receiver rate”
The above statement is:
a) true
b) false

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Sending rate should be based on the what the underlying network can support so
should be kept minimum(network rate, receiver rate) for effective congestion avoidance

QUESTION 9:
TCP supports broadcasting
a) The above statement is correct
b) The above statement is wrong

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: TCP cannot broadcast, it supports point-to-point communication only

QUESTION 10:
Which is the default port number for establishing httpd (Apache HTTP server) connection?
a) 43
b) 44
c) 443
d) None of these

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: httpd is established through port 80

3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan-Apr 2024)
Assignment- Week 5
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
Consider the following statements.
(i) UDP is a wrapper of the IP layer.
(ii) TCP is suitable for short message transfer where reliability is not a concern.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c) Both i and ii
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: UDP is a wrapper of the IP layer. UDP is suitable for short message transfer where
reliability is not a concern. In contrast, reliability is a major concern in TCP.

QUESTION 2:
When the select() system call returns zero?
a) An error was encountered
b) Call timed out without any event ready for the sockets monitored
c) Zero is the number of sockets that have events pending (read, write, exception)
d) OS kills the process.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: When select() returns zero, it indicates that the call timed out without any event
ready for the sockets being monitored.

QUESTION 3:
When you create a socket as s = socket(domain, type, protocol), why do you set the value of the
protocol parameter as zero?
a) The system selects the default protocol number for the domain and socket type requested.
b) No protocol needed
c) Since a computer understands binary so that it can be either 0 or 1
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a)

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Explanation: Setting the protocol parameter to zero is a way of indicating that you want the
system to choose the default protocol for the specified socket type and address family. This is often
suitable for most common use cases, where the default protocol is the one expected for the given
socket type and address family (e.g., TCP for SOCK_STREAM and IPv4).

QUESTION 4:
SOCK STREAM represents
a) UDP-based Datagram Socket
b) TCP-based Stream Socket
c) QUIC-based Stream Socket
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: SOCK STREAM represents TCP-based Stream socket.

QUESTION 5:
Socket Address is:
a) IPv4 Address Translated to Ipv6 Address
b) Combination of IP Address and Port Address
c) Combination of MAC Address and domain Address
d) Application Layer Address

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Socket is a combination of IP and Port address.

QUESTION 6:
(i) UDP does not have any flow control and congestion control mechanism.
(ii) UDP is suitable for purposes where error checking and correction is less important than timely
delivery.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c) Both i and ii
d) None the above

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: UDP does not have any flow control and congestion control mechanism. UDP is
suitable for purposes where error checking and correction is less important than timely delivery.

QUESTION 7:
Packet integrity can be checked by the checksum mechanism.
a) True
b) False
2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Packet integrity can be checked by the checksum mechanism.

QUESTION 8:
Consider the following statements regarding the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control
algorithm. Note that CWND stands for the TCP congestion window. The CWND increases linearly
after every round trip time till threshold.
a) True
b) False

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Each time an ACK is received by the sender, the congestion window is increased by
1 segment: CWND=CWND+1. Thus, CWND increases exponentially on every RTT.

QUESTION 9:
Consider a TCP connection in a state where there are no outstanding ACKs. The sender sends two
segments back to back. The sequence numbers of the first and second segments are 230 and 290
respectively. The first segment was lost but the second segment was received correctly by the
receiver.
Let X be the amount of data carried in the first segment (in bytes) and Y be the ACK number sent
by the receiver. The values of X and Y are:
a) 60 and 290
b) 230 and 291
c) 60 and 231
d) 60 and 230

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: Sequence number of 1st segment = 230
Sequence number of 2nd segment = 290
From here, the range of sequence numbers contained in the 1st segment = [230,289].
Total number of sequence numbers contained in the 1st segment = 289 – 230 + 1 = 60.
TCP assigns one sequence number to each byte of data.
Thus, Amount of data contained in the first segment = 60 bytes.
On receiving the 2nd segment,
Receiver sends the acknowledgement asking for the first segment only.
This is because it expects the 1st segment first.
Receiver keeps sending this ACK number until it receives the first segment correctly.
Thus, Acknowledgement number = Sequence number of the 1st segment = 230.
So, option (d) is correct.

QUESTION 10:
In TCP congestion control mechanism is triggered once
3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

a) 1 Duplicate ACK(DUPACK) is received

b) After a Retransmission Timeout(RTO)
c) 3 Duplicate ACK(DUPACK) is received
d) No Duplicate ACK(DUPACK) is received

Correct Answer: (b) and (c)

Explanation: TCP congestion control mechanism is triggered in two situations, when
retransmission timeout and 3 duplicate ACK is received.

4
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 1
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
“Router operates at the Transport Layer of OSI model”. The statement is:
a) True
b) False

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: A router is a layer 3 device or deployed in network layer of the seven layer OSI
model, and is responsible for forwarding data packets between computer networks

QUESTION 2:
Which of the following two statement(s) is/are correct?
I. Physical layer converts digital data to analog signal and vice versa
II. Data link layer handles bit stuffing and checksums for error handling
a) Only I is correct
b) Only II is correct
c) Both I and II are correct
d) None of the statements are correct

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: In physical layer, digital data are converted to analog signal for transmission and then
converted back to digital. In data link layer, bit stuffing and checksums are introduced so that error
during transmission can be handled.

QUESTION 3:
Which one of the following technologies does a typical circuit switching protocol uses?
a) Datagram packets
b) Virtual circuit
c) Time division
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: In circuit switching, transistors act as switches or crosspoints in the circuit between
the sender and receiver. Time division switching works by slicing digitized speech information into
a sequence of time intervals, or slots.

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 4:
Which of the following is/are example(s) of Application Layer protocols of OSI model?
a) File Transfer Protocol
b) User Datagram Protocol
c) Ethernet
d) Telnet

Correct Answer: (a) and (d)

Explanation: FTP, Telnet, are application layer protocol in OSI model whereas UDP is a transport
layer and Ethernet is data link layer protocol.

QUESTION 5:
Which of the following is/are true for packet switching?
a) Packet switching is less reliable.
b) It is a store and forward technique.
c) Call setup is required in packet switching
d) None of the options

Correct Answer: (a), (b)

Explanation: Packet switching uses store and forward technique. Packet switching is less reliable
– it can result in packet loss due to congestion on the network or errors in transmission.

QUESTION 6:
“Switches break up collision domain”. The statement is:
a) True
b) False

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Collision domain allows one device to send a packet on a network segment, forcing
other devices on the same segment to pay attention to it. So, if other devices try to transmit during
that period, it will lead to collision. Switches only “switches” frames from one port to another within
the same network, so breaks up collision domain

QUESTION 7:
Which one of the following switching is not transparent (in terms of data traversal)?
a) Context switching
b) Packet switching
c) Both context and packet switching
d) None of the context and packet switching

2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Circuit switching is completely transparent as it follows a dedicated path. In
contrast, the packet switching is not transparent one where each packet can follow a different path.

QUESTION 8:
What is the correct order of three phases in circuit switching?
a) Transfer > Establish > Disconnect
b) Establish > Disconnect > Transfer
c) Establish > Transfer > Disconnect
d) Transfer > Disconnect > Establish
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: In circuit switching, a dedicated communication link is formed between any two
stations. The order of three phases is Establish > Transfer > Disconnect

QUESTION 9:
What is socket address?
a) Either IP address or port where application is running
b) Combination of IP address and MAC address
c) Combination of port and MAC address
d) Combination of port and IP address

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: Socket address is the combination of port and IP address. Number socket is an
internal terminal for transferring and receiving data/packets at a single node in a computer network

QUESTION 10:
Which of the following protocol is responsible for translating, say, www.w3.org into its
corresponding IP address?
a) ARP
b) DNS
c) RARP
d) None of these

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: DNS or Domain Name System protocol is responsible for translating the domain
name to corresponding IP address

3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 2
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
What is the command used by DNS to translate a fully qualified domain name into its
corresponding IP address?
a) iplookup
b) ipconfig
c) nslookup
d) nssearch

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Given a fully qualified domain name, nslookup provides its corresponding IP

QUESTION 2:
On the top of which protocol, TFTP is built?
a) Internet Protocol (IP)
b) File transfer protocol (FTP)
c) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
d) None of these

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: TFTP is implemented on the top of the User Datagram Protocol or UDP

QUESTION 3:
Which of the following is the correct syntax for anchor tags in HTML?
a) <p>…</p>
b) <a>…</a>
c) <ar>…</ar>
d) <b>…</b>

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Anchor tag in HTML is represented with <a>...</a>. An example: <a
href=http://host.xyz.com> Link </a>

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 4:
Which of the following port is used for Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) by default?
a) 22
b) 23
c) 80
d) 443

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: SFTP uses port 22 by default

QUESTION 5:
Consider the following two statements and choose the correct option
(i) Google Chrome or Internet Explorer can be used as an HTTP Server
(ii) Apache Tomcat is an HTTP Client
a) Only (i) is correct
b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) None of them are correct

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: Google Chrome and Internet Explorer are HTTP clients from where requests can be
sent. Apache Tomcat is an application container that serves as an HTTP server.

QUESTION 6:
Consider different activities related to email.
m1: Send an email from a mail client to a mail server
m2: Download an email from the mailbox server to a mail client
m3: Checking email in a web browser
What are the application-level protocols used in each of these activities?

a) m1: HTTP, m2: SMTP, m3: POP

b) m1: SMTP, m2: FTP, m3: HTTP
c) m1: SMTP, m2: POP, m3: HTTP
d) m1: POP, m2: SMTP, m3:IMAP

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Sending an email will be done through the user agent and message transfer agent by
SMTP, downloading an email from the mailbox is done through POP, checking email in a web
browser is done through HTTP.

QUESTION 7:
Which of the following HTTP methods requests information about a document but not the
document itself?
2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

a) GET
b) HEAD
c) PUT
d) POST

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: The HEAD method requests metadata about a document

QUESTION 8:
Consider the following statement and choose the correct option
i) SNMPv3 ensures that a message can not be read by an unauthorized entity
ii) SNMPv3 can not ensure the validity of the source from where the message is sent
a) Only (i) is correct
b) Only (ii) is correct
c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
d) None of the statements are correct

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: SNMPv3 ensures that (i) the packet has not been tampered with (integrity), (ii)
message is from a valid source (validity) and (iii) a message can not be read by an unauthorized
entity (privacy)

QUESTION 9:
Which of the following HTTP status code is returned when the requested document is not found?
a) 400
b) 402
c) 404
d) 503

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: If a requested document is not found, the corresponding error is 404 (not found).

QUESTION 10:
Which of the following is/are not an Application Layer protocol(s)?
a) HTTP
b) SFTP
c) SNMP
d) UDP

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: UDP is a Transport Layer protocol

3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 3
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
Consider that in the sliding window protocol, the packet sequence number is 4 bit long. What is the
maximum window size?
a) 16
b) 15
c) 8
d) 32

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Maximum window size is 2n-1 = 24-1 = 16-1= 15

QUESTION 2:
Flow control is primarily implemented in
a) Application layer
b) Session layer
c) Transport layer
d) Physical layer

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Flow control is mainly a function of the transport layer

QUESTION 3:
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:
I. Self-clocking ensures that no two packets in the network have the same sequence number
II. TCP uses self-clocking
a) Only I is correct
b) Only II is correct
c) None of the statements are correct
d) Both the statements are correct

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: Self clocking is the mechanism to adjust inter-packet transmission duration based on
the sequences acknowledged. It ensures that no two packets in the network have the same sequence
number. This mechanism is used in TCP.

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 4:
Which statement (s) is/are true for Go Back N ARQ protocol?
a) All segments from 0 to N are retransmitted if segment N is lost
b) All segments from 1 to N are retransmitted if segment N is lost
c) All segments from 0 to (N-1) are retransmitted if segment N is lost
d) All segments from 1 to (N-1) are retransmitted if segment N is lost

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: In Go Back N ARQ, all segments from 0 to N are retransmitted if Segment N is lost.

QUESTION 5:
In sliding window protocol, if the sender window size is made 10. Then, how many frames would
be in the window after transmitting 10 frames?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) Cannot be defined

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: If the sender window size is set to 10, then the sender can transmit up to 10 frames
without receiving an acknowledgment. After transmitting 10 frames, the number of frames in the
window would be 0.

QUESTION 6:
If an application requires reliable communication, which transport layer protocol would be used?
a) ARP
b) RARP
c) TCP
d) UDP

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Applications that require the transport protocol to provide reliable data delivery use
TCP because it verifies that data is delivered across the network accurately and in the proper
sequence. TCP is a reliable, connection-oriented, byte-stream protocol.

QUESTION 7:
Statement: The delayed duplicate problem can be solved using TCP two-way handshaking method.
The above statement is:
a) True
b) False

2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: The two-way handshake presents potential problems when the ACK message from
the server delays too much. A three-way handshake process solves the problem of delayed
duplicate problem.

QUESTION 8:
What is the maximum size of the sender and receiver window in Stop and wait protocol?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Stop and wait protocol is also called as a one-bit sliding window protocol. The
maximum size of the sender and receiver window is 1.

QUESTION 9:
Consider the following statements concerning to the selective repeat protocol and choose the
correct option:
I. Only the lost or error frames are retransmitted
II. The retransmitted frames are always received in sequence
a) Only I is correct.
b) Only II is correct.
c) Both I and II are correct.
d) None of the statements are correct.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: In Selective Repeat ARQ only the lost or error frames are retransmitted, whereas
correct frames are received and buffered. The retransmitted frame is received out of sequence.

QUESTION 10:
In UNIX operating system, the transport layer protocols are implemented as a part of
a) hardware
b) firmware
c) kernel
d) none of these

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: The transport layer protocols are implemented as a part of kernel in UNIX operating
systems

3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 6
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
If NAT (Network Address Translation) device runs out of addresses, i.e., no address is left in the
pool configured then the packets will be dropped and an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
host unreachable packet is sent to the destination.
a) True
b) False

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) host unreachable packet is sent to the
destination and the packets will be dropped when NAT runs out of addresses.

QUESTION 2:
What is supernetting?
a) Split a large network into multiple small networks.
b) Combine multiple small networks in a single large network.
c) Enable the network to accept more hosts.
d) Connect a new network to an existing network.

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: In supernetting, multiple small networks are combined in a single large network.

QUESTION 3:
What is the maximum number of networks possible in class C IP addresses?
a) 2^14
b) 2^24
c) 2^21
d) 2^22

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Class C IP addresses divide 32 bits into two parts: network ID (24 bits) and host ID
(8 bits). In class C networks, the first 3 bits are fixed (110); thus, the remaining 21 bits are used for
network ID generation. So, a total of 2^21 networks are possible.

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 4:
Which of the following is/are not a valid IPv6 address?
a) AE82::1:800:23E7:F5DB
b) FC80:2:7:1:800:23E7:A:F5DB
c) DE62:6A42:1:5AC::800:23E7:F5DB
d) FE80:2030:31:24

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: IPv6 addresses must adhere to specific rules and formats. The given address option
(d) "FE80:2030:31:24" is not a valid IPv6 address because it does not contain the required number
of groups (colon-separated hex quartets). IPv6 addresses should consist of eight groups separated
by colons.

QUESTION 5:
Which is true for class E?
a) It is used for multicasting.
b) It is reserved for experimental purposes.
c) It is used for a network with numerous hosts
d) It is used for a network with less number of host

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Class E IP addresses are reserved for experimental purposes.

QUESTION 6:
The header length of the ipv6 datagram is
a) 10 bytes
b) 20 bytes
c) 30 bytes
d) 40 bytes

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: Header length of ipv6 datagram is 40 bytes.

QUESTION 7:
By the help of NAT Protocol translation technique, the IPv4 and IPv6 networks can also
communicate with each other which do not understand the address of different IP versions.
a) True
b) False

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: By the help of NAT Protocol Translation technique, the IPv4 and IPv6 networks
can also communicate with each other which do not understand the address of different IP versions.
2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 8:
We write the IP address as 191.180.83.235/12 in CIDR notation. What is the subnet mask?
a) 255.240.0.0
b) 255.255.255.0
c) 255.255.240.0
d) 255.0.0.0

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: The first 12 bits are the network address, and the rest (32-12)=20 bits are for the
host address. For IP 191.180.83.235 binary value is 10111111.10110100.01010011.11101011. So
subnet mask is 10111111.10110100.01010011.11101011 and
11111111.11110000.00000000.00000000 = 255.240.0.0

QUESTION 9:
What is the maximum number of hosts under class B addresses?
a) 254
b) 65534
c) 65535
d) 65536

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: In a Class B IP address, the first two octets are used to represent the network
number, which leaves two octets or 16 bits to represent the host portion of the address. With 16 bits
total, 2^16 combinations are possible, yielding 65,536 Class B addresses. Although two of those
numbers, the lowest and highest values, are reserved for particular purposes. Therefore, each Class
B address can support up to 65,534 hosts.

QUESTION 10:
If the Direct Broadcast Address of the subnet is 201.15.16.31. Which of the following will be the
subnet mask ?
a) 255.255.255.240
b) 255.255.255.192
c) 255.255.255.198
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Direct Broadcast Address of subnet 201.15.16.00011111
201.15.16. 000 11111 Subnet Mask for this 255.255.255.224
201.15.16. 0001 1111 Subnet Mask for this 255.255.255.240
201.15.16. 00011 111 Subnet Mask for this 255.255.255.248
3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

So, option (a) is correct.

4
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan-Apr 2024)
Assignment- Week 7
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
Based on QoS requirements, video conferencing comes under which class of application?
a) Constant bitrate
b) Real-time variable bitrate
c) Non-real-time variable bitrate
d) Available bit-rate or best-effort

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Video conferencing comes under real-time variable bitrate.

QUESTION 2:
The primary goal of QoS is:
a) Control jitter
b) Degrade loss characteristics
c) Increase communication latency
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: The primary goal of QoS is to control jitter, improve loss characteristics and decrease
communication latency.

QUESTION 3:
Which of the following is an example of a traffic scheduling algorithm?
a) Leaky Bucket
b) Token Bucket
c) Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ)
d) Random Early Detection (RED)

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) is an example of a traffic scheduling algorithm. It
assigns weights to different types of traffic to ensure that they are delivered fairly based on their
importance.

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 4:
What is the transmission delay for pushing a packet of size 1MB through a network with a
bandwidth 16Mbps?
a) 2 seconds
b) 0.5 seconds
c) 1 seconds
d) 10 seconds

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Since network bandwidth is 16 Mbps so for sending 1MB (8Mb) of data through the
network it will take 0.5 seconds.

QUESTION 5:
What is the role of “Scheduling” in the basic QoS architecture?
a) It regulates the outgoing traffic rate to control jitter.
b) It marks packets according to their service type.
c) Detects which packets violate the QoS, and drops them.
d) Maintains queue and prioritizes packets into the outgoing buffer as per policy.

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: In QoS architecture, scheduling maintains queue and prioritizes packets into the
outgoing buffer as per policy.

QUESTION 6:
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a) TCP is for Inelastic Traffic and therefore not preferred for real-time video streaming.
b) TCP is for Elastic Traffic and therefore preferred for real-time video streaming.
c) UDP is for Inelastic Traffic and therefore preferred for real-time video streaming.
d) UDP is for Elastic Traffic and therefore preferred for real-time video streaming.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: UDP is Inelastic Traffic and therefore preferred for real-time video streaming.

QUESTION 7:
Which of the following is true for admission control?
a) It ensures that new flows are entered in the network only if QoS of all the existing flows
along with the new flows can be satisfied.
b) It ensures data delivery as fast as it’s created by the sender.
c) It ensures that a sender is not overwhelming a receiver by sending packets faster than it can
consume.
d) It ensures packet overflow.

2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Admission control ensures that new flows are entered in the network only if QoS of
all the existing flows along with the new flows can be satisfied.

QUESTION 8:
In differentiated service architecture (DiffServ), what scheduling technique can be used to
implement Expedited Forwarding (EF)?
a) Weighted Fair Queueing
b) Priority Queueing
c) Custom Queueing with different queue sizes
d) Combination of Weighted Fair Queueing and Custom Queueing with different queue sizes

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: In Differentiated Services (DiffServ) architecture, Priority Queueing, also known as
Strict Priority Scheduling, is the scheduling technique commonly used to implement Expedited
Forwarding (EF).

QUESTION 9:
Which of the following is TRUE about TCP?
a) TCP sends traffic at a constant rate.
b) TCP ensures congestion will never occur in the network.
c) TCP is a physical layer protocol.
d) TCP detects congestion and acts accordingly to avoid it.

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: TCP congestion control algorithm does not ensure that congestion will never happen
in the network. Rather it first finds out whether there is congestion in the network, and it updates its
sending rate to avoid the congestion from the network.

QUESTION 10:
Which of the following is true for Traffic policing?
a) It is a congestion control mechanism that brings delays in packets.
b) It buffers the packets with rates that are greater than the traffic shaping rate.
c) It is a mechanism that monitors the traffic in any network.
d) It causes delay.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Traffic policing is a mechanism used for monitoring and controlling the rate of
traffic in a network. It involves monitoring the incoming network traffic and determining whether it
conforms to a specified traffic profile or meets certain criteria. If the incoming traffic exceeds the
specified limits, traffic policing mechanisms may take actions such as dropping or marking packets
to enforce traffic policies.

3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan-Apr 2024)
Assignment- Week 8
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
When you connect your personal computer (end device / host) to the internet, how does it know/
assign its own IP address, and the Gateway IP address to use for sending packets to remote hosts,
without any manual configuration?
a) Domain Name System (DNS)
b) From its own routing table.
c) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
d) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) assigns IP addresses to devices that
connect to the network.

QUESTION 2:
Why do we consider dividing an IP address into network address and host address?
a) To increase the total number of IP addresses possible.
b) So that routers route the packets based on the host address.
c) To avoid the overhead of storing all possible host IP addresses in each router.
d) For resolving IP addresses from domain names.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: By using network address, routers can forward packets like the postal system (country,
state, city,..), by looking at the relevant network address only instead of the entire host address. Thus
routers do not need to store all possible host IP addresses.

QUESTION 3:
Which of the following statements are correct?
I. The Internet is a single network controlled by one organization.
II. A transit AS can also be a stub AS.
III. All AS must have the same local routing algorithm.
IV. Distance vector routing and Link state routing protocols are examples of Intradomain
routing.

a) II and IV

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

b) Only II
c) Only IV
d) I and II

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: Distance vector routing and Link state routing protocols are examples of Intradomain
routing.

QUESTION 4:
For the following network, what will be the routing table for C, if we use link state routing?

a)
To NextHop
A B
B B
D D
E B
b)
To NextHop
A B
B B
D E
E E
c)
To NextHop
A B
B B
D E
E A
d)
To NextHop
A B
2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

B B
D B
E B
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: The cost of every possible route from C to other nodes is shown below.
Cost(B) = 1 When Next Hop is B
Cost(A) = 1+ Cost(A from B) = 1 + 1 = 2, when Next Hop is B
Cost(D) = 6, when Next Hop is D
Cost(E) = 5 as directly connected to C
Cost(E) = Cost(E from A) + Cost(A from B) + Cost(B) = 2 + 1 + 1 = 4 when Next Hop is B, better
than the previous cost
Cost(E) = Cost(E from D) + Cost(D) = 6 + 3 = 9. Which is not better than the previous cost 4
So option (a) is correct.

QUESTION 5:
In the BGP protocol, UPDATE and NOTIFICATION messages are used for:
a) Exchanging reachability information and Confirming a BGP connection.
b) Ensuring that a BGP neighbour is still alive and Confirming a BGP connection.
c) Exchanging reachability information and to notify an error.
d) Opening a BGP connection and Closing a BGP connection.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: UPDATE and NOTIFICATION messages are used for exchanging reachability
information and to notify an error in the BGP protocol.

QUESTION 6:
Which is TRUE about BGP routing protocol?
a) It is an Intradomain routing protocol.
b) It is a type of Link State routing protocol.
c) BGP replaces the IGP protocol in an AS.
d) BGP relies on IGP for packet forwarding between IBGP peers.

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: BGP relies on IGP for packet forwarding between IBGP peers.

QUESTION 7:
BGP communication packet types are:
a) SYNC, OPEN, UPDATE, NOTIFICATION
b) OPEN, UPDATE, NOTIFICATION, KEEPALIVE
c) SYNC, FINISH, NOTIFICATION, KEEPALIVE
d) FINISH, OPEN, UPDATE, NOTIFICATION

Correct Answer: (b)

3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Explanation: BGP communication packet types are OPEN, UPDATE, NOTIFICATION,

KEEPALIVE.

QUESTION 8:
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is:
a) Distance Vector routing protocol
b) Link state routing protocol
c) Path vector routing protocol
d) Hybrid routing protocol

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is a link state routing protocol.

QUESTION 9:
Which type of routing protocol uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to calculate the best path for
forwarding IP packets?
a) Link-state routing protocol
b) Distance-vector routing protocol
c) Hybrid routing protocol
d) Path-vector routing protocol

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Distance-vector routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm to calculate the
best path for forwarding IP packets. They exchange routing information between routers by
periodically sending their entire routing table to their neighbors.

QUESTION 10:
Consider a network with three routers, A, B, and C. The routing table for router A has the following
entries:
Destination: 192.168.1.0/24, Next Hop: B
Destination: 192.168.1.128/28, Next Hop : D
Destination: 192.168.2.0/24, Next Hop: C
If router A receives an IP packet with a destination address of 192.168.1.10, what will be the next
hop for this packet?
a) D
b) B
c) C
d) None of the Above

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Since the destination address of the IP packet is in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet, router
A will forward the packet to the next hop router B.

4
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

5
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 9
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
What is the purpose of a routing table in IP routing?
a) To store the MAC addresses of connected devices
b) To store the IP addresses of all devices in the network
c) To store information about the best path to reach destination networks
d) To store the DNS mappings of domain names to IP addresses

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: The routing table in IP routing is used to store information about available network
paths, including destination network addresses, next-hop routers or outgoing interfaces, and
associated metrics, enabling routers to make forwarding decisions based on the best available
routes.

QUESTION 2:
What is the role of a forwarding plane in an SDN architecture?
a) To configure network devices based on controller commands
b) To manage and control the flow of data packets in the network
c) To handle the exchange of control messages between SDN components
d) To forward data packets based on instructions from the control plane

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: The forwarding plane in an SDN architecture is responsible for directly forwarding
data packets based on instructions received from the control plane, ensuring efficient and
policy-compliant packet delivery.

QUESTION 3:
What is the primary benefit of using SDN in a network?
a) Improved network security
b) Increased network bandwidth
c) Simplified network management and automation
d) Enhanced Quality of Service (QoS)

Correct Answer: (c)

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Explanation: The primary benefit of SDN is simplified network management and automation,
achieved through centralized control and abstraction of network infrastructure, leading to improved
efficiency and reduced operational costs.

QUESTION 4:
Which SDN protocol is used to communicate between the SDN controller and the network devices
to program forwarding behavior?
a) OSPF
b) OpenFlow
c) BGP
d) ICMP

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: OpenFlow is the SDN protocol used to communicate between the SDN controller
and network devices, enabling the controller to program the forwarding behavior of switches and
routers.

QUESTION 5:
What is the purpose of a default route in a routing table?
a) To define a backup path to a destination network
b) To provide a route for packets with unknown destination addresses
c) To prioritize certain types of traffic over others
d) To load balance traffic across multiple paths

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: The default route is used when a router does not have a specific route for a
destination address, allowing it to forward packets to a default gateway or next-hop router for
further processing.

QUESTION 6:
How does SDN differ from traditional networking in terms of network configuration and
management?
a) SDN uses centralized control and programmability, while traditional networking uses
distributed control and manual configuration.
b) SDN uses distributed control and manual configuration, while traditional networking uses
centralized control and programmability.
c) SDN and traditional networking both use centralized control and programmability.
d) SDN and traditional networking both use distributed control and manual configuration.

Correct Answer: (a)

2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Explanation: SDN differs from traditional networking by using centralized control and
programmability, whereas traditional networking relies on distributed control and manual
configuration.
QUESTION 7:
Which routing algorithm is commonly used in SDN to compute optimal paths for data packets?
a) Dijkstra's algorithm
b) Bellman-Ford algorithm
c) Floyd-Warshall algorithm
d) A* algorithm

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: Dijkstra's algorithm is commonly used in SDN to compute optimal paths for data
packets based on the shortest path algorithm, considering link costs and network topology.

QUESTION 8:
How does SDN facilitate network virtualization?
a) By allowing multiple physical networks to be controlled by a single SDN controller
b) By creating virtual instances of network devices, such as switches and routers
c) By enabling the creation of virtual networks that operate independently from the physical
network infrastructure
d) By providing a virtualized control plane that abstracts the underlying network topology

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: SDN facilitates network virtualization by creating virtual networks that can be
configured and managed independently from the physical network, allowing for greater flexibility
and efficiency in network operations.

QUESTION 9:
What role does the Southbound API play in SDN architecture?
a) It enables communication between the SDN controller and network devices
b) It provides a standardized interface for applications to interact with the SDN controller
c) It controls the flow of data packets within the network
d) It manages the exchange of control messages between SDN components

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: The Southbound API acts as the vital communication channel between the SDN
controller and the network devices, playing a critical role in enabling the centralized control and
programmability that define the SDN paradigm.

QUESTION 10:
How does SDN improve network scalability compared to traditional networking?
a) By enabling the dynamic allocation of resources based on demand
b) By increasing the number of physical devices in the network
3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

c) By reducing the need for manual configuration of network devices

d) By improving the efficiency of network protocols

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: SDN improves network scalability by dynamically allocating resources based on
demand, ensuring efficient use of resources without manual intervention.

4
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 10
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
What is the primary function of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?
a) To provide end-to-end socket connection
b) To establish, maintain, and terminate connections between devices
c) To regulate the flow of data between sender and receiver
d) To manage access to the physical network medium

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation: the primary function of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model is to manage access to
the physical network medium.

QUESTION 2:
Which is NOT one of the LLC services?
a) Connection mode service
b) Acknowledged connectionless service
c) Intermediate switching service
d) Unacknowledged connectionless service

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer provides services such as connection
mode service, acknowledged connectionless service, and unacknowledged connectionless service.
However, "Intermediate switching service" is not one of the defined LLC services.

QUESTION 3:
Every station connected to an Ethernet network is provided a 6-byte physical address by
a) the firmware
b) the network interface card
c) the internet service provider
d) None of these

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: Every station connected to an Ethernet network is provided with a 6-byte physical
address, known as a MAC address, which is typically stored in the network interface card (NIC).

1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 4:
When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been changed during the transmission, the error is called
____________
a) random error
b) burst error
c) inverted error
d) double error

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: A burst error occurs when two or more bits in a data unit have been changed during
transmission, often caused by noise or interference affecting consecutive bits.

QUESTION 5:
Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the type of
medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) error control sublayer

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation: The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the Data Link Layer performs data
link functions that depend upon the type of medium, such as controlling access to the network
medium and addressing frames for transmission.

QUESTION 6:
In Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD), the sending station must detect
a) Collision
b) Signal
c) Sense
d) Station

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: In CSMA/CD, the sending station must detect collisions on the network before
retransmitting its data to avoid data corruption and improve network efficiency.

QUESTION 7:
In Go-Back-N ARQ, if the sequence number is represented by 4 bits, the sender and receiver
window size should be,
2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

a) 16, 16
b) 8, 1
c) 15, 15
d) 15, 1
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: Size of the sender window must be less than 2^m. Size of the receiver is always 1.
If m = 4, window size = 2^4 – 1 = 15.
Thus, in Go-Back-N ARQ, if the sequence number is represented by 4 bits, the sender and receiver
window size should be 15 and 1 respectively.
QUESTION 8:
In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?

a) 1 to 63
b) 1 to 64
c) 0 to 63
d) 0 to 64
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: In Go-Back-N ARQ, the sequence numbers range from 0 to (window size - 1). If the
window size is 63, the sequence numbers will range from 0 to 63.

QUESTION 9:
A network using CSMA/CD has a bandwidth of 10 Mbps. If the maximum propagation time
(including the delays in the devices and ignoring the time needed to send a jamming signal, as we
see later) is 25.6 μs, what is the minimum size of the frame?
a) 128 bytes
b) 32 bytes
c) 16 bytes
d) 64 bytes
Correct Answer: (d)
Explanation: The minimum frame transmission time is Tfr = 2 × Tp = 51.2 μs. This means, in the
worst case, a station needs to transmit for a period of 51.2 μs to detect the collision.
The minimum size of the frame is 10 Mbps × 51.2 μs = 512 bits or 64 bytes. This is actually the
minimum size of the frame for Standard Ethernet.

QUESTION 10:
When an acknowledgement is lost during Go-Back-N ARQ, the receiver retransmits the
acknowledgement after a timeout.
a) True
b) False

Correct Answer: (b)

3
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Explanation: In Go-Back-N ARQ, when an acknowledgment is lost, the receiver does not
retransmit the acknowledgment. Instead, the sender assumes that the packet was lost and
retransmits the entire window of packets starting from the last acknowledged packet.

4
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Computer Network and Internet Protocol

(Jan 2024)
Assignment- Week 11
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10

QUESTION 1:
What is the purpose of the ARP Cache Table in a networking device?
a) To store the IP addresses of all devices in the network
b) To store the MAC addresses of all devices in the network
c) To store recently resolved mappings of IP addresses to MAC addresses
d) To store the routing information for the network
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: The ARP Cache Table in a networking device stores recently resolved mappings of
IP addresses to MAC addresses, allowing for efficient communication within the network.

QUESTION 2:
Which statement is true about Reverse ARP (RARP)?
a) RARP is used to map MAC addresses to IP addresses
b) RARP replies are unicast
c) RARP is primarily used in routers
d) None of the above

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation: RARP is used to map MAC addresses to IP addresses

QUESTION 3:
Which protocol is used for loop avoidance in a LAN environment?
a) ARP
b) DHCP
c) STP
d) BGP

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation: STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is used for loop avoidance in a LAN environment

QUESTION 4:
What is the purpose of VLAN trunking in a LAN?
a) To connect multiple LANs together
1
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

b) To separate traffic from different VLANs on the same physical link

c) To increase the bandwidth of a single VLAN
d) To improve the security of a LAN
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: VLAN trunking enables efficient and secure transport of traffic from different
VLANs over a single physical connection. It helps to optimize network resources and maintain the
logical segmentation of VLANs, even when they need to be interconnected within the LAN.

QUESTION 5:
What is the mandatory access method supported by all implementations of IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
a) DCF
b) PCF
c) Both DCF and PCF
d) Neither DCF nor PCF
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: DCF is the fundamental access method that all IEEE 802.11 WLAN devices must
support to ensure basic functionality and interoperability in a wireless network, while PCF is just an
optional access method.

QUESTION 6:
Which frame type is periodically sent by a base station in a PCF-based WLAN?
a) CTS
b) RTS
c) Beacon frame
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: The beacon frame is the essential frame periodically sent by the base station in a
PCF-based WLAN to facilitate synchronization, network discovery, and maintain PCF operation.

QUESTION 7:
Which IEEE standard specifies the media access control (MAC) and physical layer specifications
for WLANs?
a) IEEE 802.16
b) IEEE 802.3
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.15
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: IEEE 802.11 specifies the media access control (MAC) and physical layer
specifications for WLANs, commonly known as Wi-Fi.

QUESTION 8:
In an IEEE 802.11 WLAN, what problem does the hidden terminal problem refer to?
a) Two senders are in the communication range of each other
2
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses

Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

b) Two senders are not in the communication range of each other

c) The range of the sender is independent of the receiver
d) None of the above
Correct Answer: (b)
Explanation: The hidden terminal problem occurs when two senders are out of range of each
other but can both reach the same receiver, leading to potential collisions and impacting network
performance.

QUESTION 9:
Bridge can operate on which of the following two layers?
a) physical and the data link layer
b) physical and the sessional layer
c) application and the data link layer
d) physical and presentation layer
Correct Answer: (a)
Explanation: Bridge can operate on physical and the data link layer.

QUESTION 10:
A switch has been configured for three different VLANs: VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN4. A router
has been added to provide communication between the VLANs. What type of interface is necessary
on the router if only one connection is to be made between the router and the switch?
a) 10Mbps Ethernet
b) 56Kbps Serial
c) 100Mbps Ethernet
d) 1Gbps Ethernet
Correct Answer: (c)
Explanation: To provide communication between VLANs, a 100Mbps Ethernet interface is
necessary on the router when connecting to a switch with configured VLANs.