2023 Singapore Math Challenge Grade 7 Sec 1 v2

SECONDARY 1 (GRADE 7) 2023 CONTEST PAPER
NAME: Index Number:

SCHOOL:
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Please DO NOT OPEN the contest booklet until the Proctor has given permission to
start.
2. TIME: 90 minutes.
3. There are 35 questions:

Section A: Questions 1 to 10 score 2 points each, no points are deducted for an
unanswered question or wrong answer.
Section B: Questions 11 to 30 score 3 points each, no points are deducted for an
unanswered or wrong answer.
Section C: Questions 31 to 35 score 4 points each, no points are deducted for an
unanswered or wrong answer.
4. Shade your answers neatly using a 2B lead pencil in the Answer Entry Sheet.
5. PROCTORING: No one may help any student in any way during the contest.
6. No electronic devices capable of storing and displaying visual information are

allowed during the course of the exam.
7. Calculators are allowed into the exam.
8. All students must fill and shade their Name, School and Index Number in the
Answer Entry Sheet and Contest booklet.
9. MINIMUM TIME: Students must stay in the exam hall for the full 90 minutes.
10. A student must show detailed working and transfer answers to the Answer Entry
Sheet.
11. No exam papers and written notes can be taken out by any contestant.
Appendix A
Instructions for completing your Answer Entry Sheet (AES)
1. Use only 2B lead pencils.

2. Write your name on both side of AS. On the front page of AES, please write your name and
school name on the space provided.
3. Write your index number in the space provided and fill in the proper circle directly below each
number.
4. Write your grade in the space provided and fill in the proper circle directly below your grade.
5. Mark only one answer to each question.

6. Make heavy black marks that fill the circle completely.
7. Write the answer in the space provided and fill in the proper circle directly below each number.
There should only be one answer for each question.
8. Erase cleanly any answer you wish to change.

9. Do not make stray marks on this AES.
10. Do not fold or staple the AES.
Singapore Math Challenge 2023, Secondary 1 (Grade 7) Contest
Section A: 10 Open-ended Questions (10 X 2 marks = 20 marks)
1. Given the equation 20𝑥 − [4(𝑦 − 3𝑥) + 9𝑥] + 5𝑥 = 𝑚(𝑠𝑥 + 𝑡𝑦), 𝑚 > 3 and
𝑚, 𝑠, and 𝑡 are integers, find the sum of 𝑚, 𝑠, and 𝑡.
Answer: __________________
2. Find the smallest possible integer 𝑚 such that 120𝑚 is a perfect square.
Answer: __________________
1
3. Consider a sequence where the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term is given by 𝑇𝑛 = (3𝑛 + 2)3 .
Find the difference between the 6th and 5th term of the sequence.
Answer: __________________
4. A sum of money was divided among Alice, Bob, and Carol in the ratio of 7: 3: 10.
If Bob received $80 less than Carol, find the average amount of money
received per person, in dollars. Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
2
5. Emily, travelling at an average speed of 5 𝑘𝑚/ℎ, takes 40 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 to walk to

the library. If she left her house for the library at 08: 30 𝐴𝑀, calculate the
average speed, in 𝑚/𝑠, at which she must travel if she is to reach the library
by 09: 00 𝐴𝑀. Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
3
6. Find the gradient of the graph shown. Round off the answer to the nearest
integer.
Answer: __________________
4
7. Given that −5 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3, 3 ≤ 𝑦 < 15 and 2 ≤ 𝑧 ≤ 10, and 𝑥, 𝑦, and 𝑧 are

natural numbers, find the smallest value of 𝑀 = 4𝑥 3 − 2𝑦 2 + 3𝑧 4 . If 𝑀 is
negative number, express your answer of 𝑀 as a positive integer.
Answer: __________________
8. Estimate √125+5.5552 and round off the answer to the nearest integer.
3.33×4.444
Answer: __________________
5
9. Solve the equation:
9
36 (𝑥 + ) + 24(𝑥 + 3) = 120𝑥
2
Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
6
10. The diagram shows an isosceles triangle where 𝑃𝑄 = 𝑅𝑄. Find the value
of 𝑥. Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
7
Section B: 20 Open-ended Questions (20 X 3 marks = 60 marks)

11. In 2022, a company spent 25% of its budget on research, 1 on marketing, and
5
10% of the remaining budget on employee benefits. The total expenditure was
$4,689,000 . In 2023, the company's budget increased by 20% . The total
expenditure on research, marketing, and employee benefits increased by 18%.
If the marketing budget increased by 15%, and the spending on employee
benefits decreased by 8%, by what percentage did the spending on research
change? Round the answer to the nearest percentage.
Answer: __________________
8
12. A cyclist rides from Point 𝑋 to Point 𝑌 at an average speed of 𝑣 km/h for 30
minutes. She then rides back from Point 𝑌 to Point 𝑋 at an average speed of
𝑤 km/h. The ratio 𝑣: 𝑤 is 7: 8. Find the total time (in minutes) taken for the
entire journey. Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
9
13.. The diagram shows a semicircle where 𝑃𝑄 = 12 is a diameter. 𝑅 is the point

on the semicircle such that 𝑃𝑅 = 𝑄𝑅. Find the area of the shaded region.
Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
10
14. The diagram shows a prism. The base of the prism is in the shape of a
trapezium. The lengths shown are in centimeters. Find the volume of the
prism in 𝑐𝑚3 .
11
Answer: __________________
15. The ratio of 𝑝: 𝑞 = 2 2 ∶ 4 and 𝑞: 𝑟 = 1: 3.

3 7
𝑝 𝑥
Given that 𝑟 = 𝑦 in its simplest form, find the sum of 𝑥 and 𝑦.
12
Answer: __________________
16 In the figure 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑆𝑇, find the sum of all reflex angles.
13
Answer: __________________
17. The total number of employees hired by Bluebird Corporation and Starlight
Enterprises from 2014 to 2017 is detailed below. Determine the percentage
of employees hired in 2016 out of the total number of employees hired over
these four years. Round your answer to the nearest percentage.
14
Answer: __________________
18.
Greenland Park has decided to repurpose a circular area with a circumference

of 40𝜋 𝑚 into an outdoor concert stage. The stage, shaped like a trapezium,
will be constructed on this land, with the longer of its parallel sides matching
exactly the diameter of the circle.
The lengths of the trapezium's parallel sides are in the ratio of 3: 4, and the the
distance between the parallel sides is 14.2𝑚. If the cost of flooring per square
metre is $20, calculate the total cost for the stage flooring. (Figure not drawn
to scale)
Answer: __________________
15
19. The rectangle shown in Figure 1 is cut along its diagonal to obtain two
triangles. The two triangles are then rearranged as shown in Figure 2. 𝑄𝑅𝑆 is
a straight line and a line is drawn to joined 𝑃 and 𝑇. Find the value of 𝑥.
Answer: __________________
16
20. The time zone in Sydney, Australia is GMT +10, while the standard time
zone in Los Angeles, USA is GMT −8. A flight departs from Los Angeles
at 2200 ℎ local time on 15 August 2023 and arrives in Sydney at 0630 ℎ
local time on 17 August 2023. Calculate the duration of the flight in
minutes.
Answer: __________________
17
21. Consider the number pattern:
1𝑠𝑡 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚: 12 − 02 + 2 = 3
2𝑛𝑑 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚: 22 − 12 + 5 = 8
3𝑟𝑑 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚: 32 − 22 + 8 = 13
4𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚: 42 − 32 + 11 = 18
𝑛𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚: 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 = 268
Find the sum of 𝑥, 𝑦 and 𝑧.
𝐻𝑖𝑛𝑡: (𝑛 − 1)2 = 𝑛2 − 2𝑛 + 1
Answer: __________________
18
22. A sequence of patterns is formed using matchsticks. The first three patterns
are shown below. The dots indicate where two or more matchsticks meet.
The table below describes some information about the sequence of patterns:
Pattern A B C
Number of 3 9 18
matchsticks (M)
Number of small 1 4 9
triangles (T)
Number of dots 3 6 10
(D)
What is the sum of T and D in Pattern 45?
Answer: __________________
19
23. Segment AB is parallel to segment EF and segment AC is parallel to DE. If the ∠BAC
= 113°, what is the value (in degrees) of ∠DEF?
Answer: __________________
20
24. In the figure below, there is a right cone with a base radius of 𝐶𝑃 = 5 metres
and a height of 𝐶𝑇 = 6 metres. What is the total surface area of the cone,
including the base, in square metres? Give your answer correct to the nearest
integer.
Answer: __________________
21
25. A rectangular piece of paper is such that its breadth is 65% as long as its
length. It is cut into two equal pieces by cutting along a line parallel to the
breadth. One of the pieces is then rotated by 90° and placed beside the other
piece to obtain a new figure. Find the percentage increase in the perimeter
compared to the original piece of paper. Give your answer correct to the
nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
22
26. James ran 40% of a track at 4 km/h. He then increased his speed by 20% for
the remainder of the track. He took 1 hour 14 minutes to run the entire track.
Find the length of the track correct to the nearest kilometre.
Answer: __________________
27. Two inlet pipes can fill up an empty water tank in 2 hours and 4 hours,
respectively. An outlet pipe can empty the same tank filled fully by with water
tank in 8 hours. If all the pipes are turned on at the same time, how many
minutes will it take to fill up the empty water tank fully?
Answer: __________________
23
28. If 6 1 1 (𝑝𝑥+𝑞)
− (𝑥+2) + (𝑥−2) = 2 (𝑥 2 , find the value of 𝑝2 + 𝑞 2 .
(𝑥 2
−4) −4)
Answer: __________________
29. Consider the following pattern. How many complete triangles are there in
Figure 90?
Answer: __________________
24
30. A solid cuboid has the dimensions as shown in the diagram below. Two
identical solids are removed from the cuboid. The cross section of each of the
solids removed is the biggest possible quadrant that can be removed from the
12 cm by 4 cm face. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid in cm 2,
giving your answer correct to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
25
Section C: 5 Open-ended Questions (5 X 4 marks = 20 marks)
31 In the following figure, points 𝐸 and 𝐷 are the midpoints of 𝐴𝐵 and 𝐴𝐶 ,

respectively. 𝐶𝐸 and 𝐵𝐷 intersect at point 𝑃. 𝐺𝐶 is parallel to 𝐴𝐵, intersecting
the extension of 𝐵𝐷 𝑎𝑡 𝐺. If 𝐵𝑃 = 14 cm, what is the length of 𝐵𝐺 in cm?
Answer: __________________
26
32 Written as a product of its prime factors, 88 200 = 23 × 32 × 52 × 72 . The

number 𝑛 is a factor of 88 200 and its last digit is 5. If it is not a perfect square,
find the greatest possible value of 𝑛.
Answer: __________________
27
33. A cylindrical container with base diameter of 40 cm is filled with water to a

depth of 10 cm. A cube with side of length 14 cm is placed on the base of the
container and is partially immersed in the water. What is the percentage of
the cube that is submerged in the water? Give your answer correct to the
nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
28
34 In a survey, some students were asked to choose their favourite colour from
Yellow, Red and Green. Each student chose exactly one colour. The results
are represented on the pie chart as shown.
What is the minimum number of students who chose Red?
Answer: __________________
29
35. The area of the square base of a pyramid is 2880 cm 2. The triangular faces of
the pyramid are identical and each has an area of 840 cm2. What is the height
of the pyramid, in cm? Round off the answer to the nearest integer.
Answer: __________________
30
Space for Rough Work
31

2023 Singapore Math Challenge Grade 7 Sec 1 v2

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2023 Singapore Math Challenge Grade 7 Sec 1 v2

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SECONDARY 1 (GRADE 7) 2023 CONTEST PAPER

NAME: Index Number:

3. There are 35 questions:

6. No electronic devices capable of storing and displaying visual information are

7. Calculators are allowed into the exam.

Instructions for completing your Answer Entry Sheet (AES)

1. Use only 2B lead pencils.

5. Mark only one answer to each question.

8. Erase cleanly any answer you wish to change.

Section A: 10 Open-ended Questions (10 X 2 marks = 20 marks)

3. Consider a sequence where the 𝑛𝑡ℎ term is given by 𝑇𝑛 = (3𝑛 + 2)3 .

5. Emily, travelling at an average speed of 5 𝑘𝑚/ℎ, takes 40 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 to walk to

7. Given that −5 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3, 3 ≤ 𝑦 < 15 and 2 ≤ 𝑧 ≤ 10, and 𝑥, 𝑦, and 𝑧 are

9. Solve the equation:

Section B: 20 Open-ended Questions (20 X 3 marks = 60 marks)

13.. The diagram shows a semicircle where 𝑃𝑄 = 12 is a diameter. 𝑅 is the point

15. The ratio of 𝑝: 𝑞 = 2 2 ∶ 4 and 𝑞: 𝑟 = 1: 3.

16 In the figure 𝑃𝑄𝑅𝑆𝑇, find the sum of all reflex angles.

Greenland Park has decided to repurpose a circular area with a circumference

21. Consider the number pattern:

𝑛𝑡ℎ 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚: 𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 + 𝑧 = 268

Find the sum of 𝑥, 𝑦 and 𝑧.

What is the sum of T and D in Pattern 45?

Section C: 5 Open-ended Questions (5 X 4 marks = 20 marks)

31 In the following figure, points 𝐸 and 𝐷 are the midpoints of 𝐴𝐵 and 𝐴𝐶 ,

32 Written as a product of its prime factors, 88 200 = 23 × 32 × 52 × 72 . The

33. A cylindrical container with base diameter of 40 cm is filled with water to a

What is the minimum number of students who chose Red?

Space for Rough Work

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