Air Law-1-18

Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)
Air Law
Chapter – 02
1. ICAO publishes:
a) Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception
b) Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world
c) Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only
d) International law
2. Which annex covers carriage of cargo?
a) 6 b) 14 c) 9 d) 11
3. Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?
a) 14 b) 11 c) 6 d) 18
4. Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?
a) Annex 11 b) Annex 10 c) Annex 14 d) Annex 15
5. How many ICAO Annexes are there?

a) 7 b) 18 c) 19 d) 16
6. What is cabotage?
a) Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier

b) Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country
c) Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC
d) An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country
7. The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered:
a) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states.
b) Binding for all member states.
c) Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference.
d) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.
8. Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and
luggage?
9. Bangladesh is a member of:

a) FAA b) JAA c) ICAO d) ECAC
10. What is the objective of ICAO?
a) To assist states to purchase aircraft

b) To help airlines set up
c) To assist with improving international aviation
d) To train pilots for international aviation
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11. Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international
crew licences?
a) Annex 9 - Facilitation
b) Annex 1 - Personnel Licensing
c) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
d) Annex - 17 Security
12. Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?
a) Annex 9 – Facilitation
b) Annex 18 - Transportation of Dangerous Goods
c) Annex 16 - Environmental Protection
d) Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft
13. When and where were the objectives of ICAO ratified?

a) Chicago 1944 b) Paris 1919 c) Rome 1953 d) Geneva 1946
14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
15. Which annex to the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft?
16. Cabotage indicates:

a) Crop spraying b) A national airline c) A flight over territorial water
d) Right to restrict internal services to operators of that State only
17. Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the
Council?
a) The Assembly
b) The Regional Air Navigation Meeting
c) The Council itself
d) The Air Navigation Commission
18. The Annex to the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Practices
(SARPS) for personnel licensing is:
19. Where is the headquarters of ICAO?

a) Paris b) London c) New York d) Montreal
20. ICAO has how many geographic regions?

a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
21. Deleted.
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22. What is the meaning of RVSM?

a) Reduced vertical separation measurement b) Reduced visual separation minima
c) Reduced vertical separation minima d) Reported vertical separation minima
23. ICAO has how many main divisions?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 6
24. Which shall be deemed to be state aircraft?

a) Military b) Customs c) Police d) All of the above
25. Level when used as generic term means:

a) Height b) Altitude c) Flight level d) All of the above
26. It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardize the safety of
the aircraft; the PIC may:
a) Request the crew to detain the passenger

b) Ask the passenger to disembark
c) Order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question
d) Hand him/her over to the authorities
27. Bangladesh falls into which geographic region of ICAO?

a) Middle East b) Asia c) Mid Asia d) South Asia
28. For how long are members of the ICAO Council appointed to sit on the council?
a) 3 Years b) 1 Year c) 2 Years d) 4 Years
29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons?
a) First freedom b) Fourth freedom

c) Third freedom d) Second freedom
30. The first freedom of the air allows:
a) Over-flight only
b) Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators
c) Landing for technical reasons
d) Carriage of mail and cargo
31. That part of an aerodrome to be used for take-off, landing and taxiing of aircraft, excluding apron is
known as:
a) Manoeuvring area b) Movement area c) Operating area d) Apron
32. Which one of the followings is special use airspace?

a) Prohibited area b) Danger area c) Restricted area d) All of the above
33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?
a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th
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34. A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:
a) A regular series of flights from one place to another

b) Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a bilateral
agreement between the two states
c) Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance
d) Any flight in accordance with the first and second freedoms of the air
35. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers Rules of the air?
a) Annex 1 b) Annex 11 c) Annex 14 d) None of the above
36. Which annex deals with Annex 14?

a) Personnel Licensing b) Rules of the air c) air traffic services d) None of the above
37. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:
a) Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board

b) Land for technical reasons
c) Cabotage
d) Over-fly a State without landing
38. Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held?
a) World War I
b) The Korean War
c) World War II
d) The American War of Independence
39. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

a) The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers
b) All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space
c) The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a
boundary with another state
d) The airspace over a state and its territorial waters
40. What law is applicable over the `high seas'?
a) International law
b) The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area
c) The ICAO law
d) The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area
41. If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to
obey the law of France?
a) Yes at all times

b) No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France
c) Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh
d) Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority what he
should do
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42. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as
commander?
a) The passengers
b) The Operator
c) The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane
d) The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane
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Chapter –04 and 05
1. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?
a) 18 b) 21 c) 16 d) 23
2. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL engaged in single crew commercial air transport
operation, how often are you required to have a medical examination?
a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months

b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
d) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months
3. You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours
limited?
a) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer

b) Maximum of 100, not more than 30 in a procedural flight trainer
c) Maximum of 100, not more than 25 in a procedural flight trainer
d) Maximum of 100, not more than 50 in a procedural flight trainer
4. What is the night flying hour’s requirement for an ATPL licence?
a) 75 hours PIC
b) 100 hours PIC or co-pilot
c) 100 hours PIC
d) 75 hours PIC or co-pilot
5. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:
a) Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations

b) Act as PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations
c) Act as a flying instructor
d) Act as PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air transportation
6. Which letters are prohibited for registration marks?
a) 4 letters international codes b) 5 letters combination used in international code of signal

c) 4 letters preceded by Q d) Any letter referring to an ICAO document
7. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?
a) After the 21st day of illness has elapsed

b) On the 21stday of the illness
c) After a month
d) After medical has expired
8. To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a) 15 hrs b) 20 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 35 hrs
9. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

a) Class 2 b) As required by ICAO.
c) Class 1 d) None of the above.
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10. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the
functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited:
a) With 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
b) In full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
c) The flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence
d) The flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to
the requirements of the licensing authority
11. For an ATPL how many night hours are required?
a) 30 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150
12. For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?
a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250
13. To obtain a PPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required?
a) 15 hrs b) 10 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 20 hrs
14. When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying
instructor. When will supervision cease?
a) Once you have passed a competency check

b) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo
c) When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo
d) When you have completed 100 hours solo
15. At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?
a) 21 -60 b) 21 -59 c) 8-59 d) 8-60
16. What medical is required for the issue of a PPL?
a) Class 1 b) As required by ICAO c) Class 2 d) None of the above
17. Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hour’s requirement for a CPL (A)?
a) 100 hours PIC or SPIC

b) 20 hours cross country as PIC including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300
nm) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different aerodromes
c) 25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at least 300 nm an d to
Include 2 landings
d) 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 nm with at least two landings
18. What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL?
a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 21
19. Which of the following is a Bangladesh registered aircraft?

a) S2-ACO b) S -ACO c) S2-ACO d) BD-ACX
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20. Which of the following is a Bangladesh registered military aircraft?

a) S2-ACO b) S3-ACO c) S³-ACX d) S3-ACX
21. What is the minimum age of an applicant for a student’s pilot license?
a) 17 b) 16 c) 18 d) 21
22. Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than
....... hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer.
a) 100 15 b) 100 20 c) 100 25 d) 75 25
23. In Bangladesh, a student pilot shall not undertake a cross-country flight unless he has a minimum of -- - -
hours of solo flight time:
a) 5 hr b) 15 hr c) 10 hr d) 20 hr
24. In Bangladesh , a cross-country flight, applicable to a student pilot, means a flight to a point beyond a
radius of--------- from the aerodrome of departure:
a) 25 nm b) 15 nm c) 20 nm d) 30 nm
25. According to CAR’84, what classes of medical exist?
a) Class 1 only
b) Classes 1, 2 and 3
c) Classes 1 and 2
d) Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4
26. For a PPL minimum how many hours are required?

a) 50 b) 40 c) 55 d) 45
27. The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from:
a) Date of issue
b) Date of application received by the authority
c) Date of skill test
d) Date of medical examination
28. In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold:
a) PPL with instructor rating

b) Have CPL with FI rating
c) CPL
d) ATPL
29. For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are:
a) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
b) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
c) 250 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
d) 200 as PIC, or 100 as PIC and 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision
30. A pilot with a CPL can act as:
a) PIC in commercial aviation

b) PIC in any single engine aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
c) PIC of any single pilot aircraft engaged in commercial aviation
d) PIC in any aircraft for which he/she is type rated in commercial aviation
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31. From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from?
a) The date of the assessment b) The date the certificate delivered to the pilot
c) The date of licence issue d) The date of the revalidation of the licence
32. When time in a synthetic trainer is permitted for PPL, it is limited to--- hr?
a) 10 b) 5 c) 7 d) nil
33. The minimum age for a CPL holder is
a) 17 years b) 18 years c) 16 years d) 21 years
34. Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a
crew member's licence to be recognized by Contracting States?
35. Which of the following registration marks cannot be used in registration?
a) G-PRAT b) SY-PAN c) 3T-SSS d) YT-LLL
36. The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least:
a) 100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command

b) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
c) 100 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot
d) 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command
37. A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed:
a) 150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time

b) 150 hours flight time
c) 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time
d) 200 hours flight time
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Q ue st io ns – C hap t er 6
1. An overtaking situation could be considered when the overtaking aircraft is within --------- degrees of the
overtaken aircraft’s plane of symmetry:
a) 140º b) 70º c) 110º d) 120º
2. An overtaking aircraft shall keep out of the aircraft being overtaken by altering its heading to the:
a) Left b) Left if it was to the left c) From the closest side d) Right
3. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class C are:
a) 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud

b) 5 km visibility at or below 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
c) 8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d) 5 km visibility below 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
4. Aircraft coming in from your rear and left which light will you see first?
a) Steady red
b) Steady green
c) Flashing green
d) White
5. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
6. What are the VMC limits for class B airspace?
a) Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface

b) 8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
c) 5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud
d) The same as class D
7. The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class D are:
a. 8 kms visibility below 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
b. 5 km visibility below 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud
c. 5 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
d. 5 kms visibility below 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud
8. Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean?
a) Cleared to land
b) Return for landing and await clearance to land
c) Give way to other landing aircraft
d) Land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron
9. Anti-collision lights are intended to:

a) Relative path of an aircraft b) Attract attention of an aircraft
c) Used in IFR only d) All of the above
10. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What does
it mean?
a) Return to start point b) Clear to taxi
c) Clear for take -off d) Stop
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11. You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'?
a) Rocking wings b) Flashing lights

c) Cut across track d) Breaking turn up and left
12. Which has priority to land?
a) A hospital flight b) An emergency

c) A military flight d) A VVIP flight
13. What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on VFR then changing to IFR?
a) Z b) Y c) I d) V
14. Which of these is not a distress frequency?

1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 KHz
3. 243.0 KHz
4. 2430 KHz
a) 4 only
b) 2 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4
15. If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder?
a) A/2000 + C b) A/7500 + C c) A/7600 + C d) A/7700 + C
16. You are taxiing an aircraft on the ground and you see a flashing red light from the Tower. What does it
mean?
a) Stop
b) Taxi clear of the landing area
c) Give way to approaching aircraft
d) You are not clear for take- off
17. Aircraft ‘A’ is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the
CTR without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)?
a) B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position

b) A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position
c) A has right of way if B is on the right
d) B has right of way if A is on the left
18. Flight plan must be submitted for:

a) Any IFR flight in advisory airspace
b) Any flight across international borders
c) Any flight to be provided with Air Traffic Control service
d) All of the above
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19. If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and
Include the phrase:
a) "Cancelling my flight plan"

b) "Cancelling my flight"
c) "Cancelling my IFR flight"
d) "Cancelling my IMC flight plan"
20. What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"?
a) Waving the arms across the face

b) Drawing the palm across the throat
c) Clenching raised fists
d) Holding both arms up with palms facing forward
21. ATC has given you the transponder code of 4701. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set:
a) A 7600 Mode C b) A 0200 Mode C

c) A 7700 Mode C d) A 4701 Mode C
22. For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least:
a) 2 hours before off-block time b) 60 minutes before departure

c) 45 minutes before departure d) 30 minutes before off-block time
23. Which Mode ‘A’ code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognized as an aircraft in
distress?
a) Code 7500 b) Code 7700 c) Code 7000 d) Code 7600
24. An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 243 MHz - 125.7 MHz b) 121.5 MHz - 243 KHz

c) 121.5 KHz - 243 MHz d) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
25. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not c omply with
ATC instructions. You should:
a) Select code 7500 A on your transponder

b) Ask ATC for different instructions
c) Comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft
d) Comply with ATC instructions
26. A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?
a) Clear to move forward b) Brakes off

c) Remove chocks d) Clear to close all engines
27. In Bangladesh, A VFR flight operated by trainee/non-instrument rated pilot shall not be cleared for any
airfield or X-Ctry flight, when ETA is----- at the destination
a) Before SS b) Within 30 minutes before SS
c) Within 24 minute before SS d) Within evening civil twilight
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28. Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft?
a) The State b) The Operator c) The Commander d) The owner
29. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:
a) On the Captain's initiative b) whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace
c) If told by ATC d) at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation
30. In Bangladesh, what is the minimum ground visibility required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an
aerodrome in CTR?
a) 1000m b) 1500m c) 30000m d) 1500ft
31. Before an aircraft is taxied on the maneuvering area of and aerodrome for the purpose of take-off, the P-I-C
shall:
a) Enter the runway and take off immediately
b) Check that the radio apparatus fitted to the aircraft and to be used in flight is functioning corrections
c) Ask ATC what to do d. None is correct
32. In Bangladesh, a local VFR flight operated by trainee/non-instrument rated pilots
shall land back:
a) Before SS b) Within 30 minutes before SS
c) Within 24 minute before SS d) Within evening civil twilight
33. As per ICAO what is the minimum ground visibility required to enable a SVFR flight to take off from an
aerodrome in CTR?
a) 1000 m b) 1500 m c) 3000 m d) 1500 ft
34. A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate compared to the given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus
a) 10% b) 3% c) 5% d) 2%
35. In which of the following cases, ATC is to be notified if the ETA is found to be an error of:
a) 3minutes b) More than 3 minutes c) 2 minutes d) All of the above
36. In Bangladesh, VFR flights are not permitted above:
a) FL 150 b) FL 200 c) FL 60 d) TL
37. In Bangladesh, VFR flights are not permitted:
a) Above FL 150 b) Between SS and SR c) At transonic & supersonic speed d) All of the above
38. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over the congested area of cities at a height less than-------- above the
highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the aircraft:
a) 2000ft b) 1000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
39. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over an open air assembly of persons at a height less than --------
above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m from the aircraft:
a) 1000ft b) 2000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
40. VFR flights are not permitted to fly over the congested area of cities at a height less than-1000ft above the
highest obstacle within a radius of --------- from the aircraft:
a) 5km b) 6000m c) 600m d) 3000m
41. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over the low terrain at a height -------- above the highest obstacle within
a radius of 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a) 1000ft b) 2000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
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42. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over mountainous areas at a height less than -------- above the highest
obstacle within a radius of 8km of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a) 1000ft b) 2000ft c) 500ft d) 3000ft
43. IFR flights are not permitted to fly over high terrain or mountainous areas at a height less than 2000ft
above the highest obstacle within a radius of --------- of the estimated position of the aircraft:
a) 5km b) 600m c) 8km d) 3km
44. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is
not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to you may proceed?
a) Continue b) Proceed c) May proceed d) You proceed
45. In the signals area of an aerodrome, a red square with l yellow diagonals (cross) means:
a) Landing prohibited b) gliders are operating c) helicopters are operating d) special landing
46. Weather minima for the VFR flight within control zone is:
a) Flight visibility 5 km ; ceiling 1500 ft b) Visibility 3 km ; ceiling 1000 ft
c) Visibility 3 km ; ceiling 1500 ft d) Ground Visibility 5 km ; ceiling 1500 ft
47. What is the VMC limits for class B airspace at 10,000ft?

a) 8km b) 5km c) 3km d) 6km
48. What is the VMC limits for class D airspace at 4,000ft?
a) 8km b) 5km c) 3km d) 5nm
49. When two or more heavier than air aircraft are approaching to land, which one has the right of way:
a) The faster aircraft has the right of way b)The bigger aircraft has the right of way
c) The aircraft at the lower altitude has the right of way d) None of the above.
50. Warning to an unauthorized aircraft that is flying or about to enter restricted, prohibited or danger area is
done by series of projectiles discharged from ground at an interval of:
a) 15 seconds b) 10 seconds c) 30 seconds d) 20 seconds
51. Do any rules of the air exist over international waters (high seas areas)?
a) Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air
b) No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas
c) Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass
d) Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane
52. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered to prosecute such
an offence?
a) Interpol
b) The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane
c) The Authority of the State of the Operator
d) ICAO through the International Court at The Hague
53. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code?
a) 2000 b) 7777 c) 7600 d) 7500
54. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65?

a. No
b. Yes, but only for single engine operation
c. Yes, but not in commercial aviation
d. Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over
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55. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the
licence. What else must you carry?
a) Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself
b) Your valid medical certificate
c) Your valid medical certificate or your passport
d) Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms you
identity as stated on your licence
56. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell.
Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?
a) Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication
b) Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
c) Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure
d) The need to wear dark glasses
57. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical
concerns. One such situation is:
a) A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient
b) Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days
c) Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days
d) Diagnosis for regular use of correcting lenses
58. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell.
Which of the following would be classified as being unwell?
a) Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication
b) Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less
c) Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or more
d) Admission to hospital or a clinic for more than 12 hours
59. It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge)
lights. You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect
that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off?
a) No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times
b) Yes but only because it is daylight
c) No because you are flying IFR
d) Yes
60. If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the
other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot?
a) No, he only needs to be a qualified observer
b) No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make
c) Yes
d) No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that renders you
incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying
61. `If you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed
traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true?
a) Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome
b) If you are aware that the aerodrome is there
c) If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ)
d) Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ
15
62. When is a flight plan required?

a) For all flights
b) For all IFR flights
c) For all flights which require an air traffic service
d) For all flights which require an air traffic control service
63. When is a flight plan not required?

a) For VFR flights crossing international boundaries
b) For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross the boundary
c) For VFR flights in advisory airspace
d) For flights over distances less than 50Km at night
64. A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is submitted.
(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is required
regarding the type of aeroplane?
a) Wake turbulence category
b) Optimum cruising Mach number
c) Maximum un-pressurized cabin altitude
d) Minimum equipment list
65. When is a flight plan `closed'?

a) When it is complete and ready for filing
b) When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing'
c) When the aeroplane arrives at the destination
d) On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome
66. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained?

a) Prior to operating any controlled flight
b) Prior to entry into controlled airspace
c) Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several
aerodromes en route
d) At least 30 minutes prior to take off
67. If you suffer a communication failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an
Estimated Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do
you do?
a) Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible
b) Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible
c) Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700
and make an approach to land
d) Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC
68. If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the
left and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean?
a) Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!)
b) You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow
c) You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger
d) The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be
reported by AIRPROX procedures
69. When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR?
a) If the cloud ceiling is 1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less
b) If the cloud ceiling is greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km
c) If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km
d) If the cloud base is less than 1500ft, or ground visibility 5km or less
16
70. Unless authorized, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level?
a) FL150 b) FL245 c) FL200 d) FL 180
71. When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m
radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water?
a) En route outside of an ATZ
b) Over the sea within gliding distance of the shore
c) In class G airspace in daylight
d) Only where necessary for take-off and landing
72. You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain VMC
much longer. What should you do'?
a) File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance
b) If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome
c) Get a Special VFR clearance and continue
d) Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the ATC sort it out.
73. You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is
traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking
avoiding action. What should you do?
a) Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded
report your flight conditions as VMC
b) Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC
c) Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace
d) Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has
disappeared
74. You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before
making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR?
a) What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace
b) How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC
c) How much day light is left
d) Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the
destination
75. When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A
airspace?
a) In good VMC b) Above 24 500 ft
c) Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force
d) When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique
76. If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a
listening watch with an ATS unit?
a) No
b) Yes, always
c) Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required
d) Yes if you are flying in IMC
77. If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you
prefix the message with?
a) Help
b) Mayday
c) Pan Pan
d) Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)
17
78. If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to
communicate with the military pilot?
a) The frequency in use
b) 121.500 MHz
c) 119.100 MHz
d) 123.450 MHz
79. You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower,
what does it mean?
a) Give way to an approaching aeroplane
b) Return to the starting point
c) Stop
d) Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway
80. You are on short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare
fired from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean?
a) The Tower controller is scaring the birds away
b) An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop
immediately
c) You have not acknowledged the clearance to land
d) Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being
81. You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC
watch. You see this yellow ladder marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do?
a) It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it.
b) It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are
clear to continue taxiing
c) It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it.
d) It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.
82. You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a
man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this
mean?
a) I am not your marshaller; I am waiting for the next aeroplane.
b) I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this
parking bay
c) This is your parking bay
d. Stop immediately
83. You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate to
the marshaller that you intend to start number 2 engine first?
a) Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing
to no 2 engine
b) Raise a hand with two fingers extended
c) Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched
fist
d) Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting
18

Air Law-1-18

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Air Law (ATPL/FOOL)

2. Which annex covers carriage of cargo?

3. Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes?

4. Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services?

a) Annex 11 b) Annex 10 c) Annex 14 d) Annex 15

5. How many ICAO Annexes are there?

a) Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier

a) Annex 2 b) Annex 9 c) Annex 17 d) Annex 18

9. Bangladesh is a member of:

10. What is the objective of ICAO?

a) To assist states to purchase aircraft

12. Which of the annexes deals with the transportation of cargo?

13. When and where were the objectives of ICAO ratified?

a) Annex 15 b) Annex 16 c) Annex 17 d) Annex 18

a) Annex 6 b) Annex 11 c) Annex 17 d) Annex 7

16. Cabotage indicates:

a) Annex 2 b) Annex 12 c) Annex 11 d) Annex 1

19. Where is the headquarters of ICAO?

20. ICAO has how many geographic regions?

22. What is the meaning of RVSM?

23. ICAO has how many main divisions?

24. Which shall be deemed to be state aircraft?

25. Level when used as generic term means:

a) Request the crew to detain the passenger

27. Bangladesh falls into which geographic region of ICAO?

a) First freedom b) Fourth freedom

30. The first freedom of the air allows:

32. Which one of the followings is special use airspace?

33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state?

a) 1st b) 2nd c) 3rd d) 4th

34. A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as:

a) A regular series of flights from one place to another

36. Which annex deals with Annex 14?

37. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to:

a) Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board

39. What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean?

40. What law is applicable over the `high seas'?

a) Yes at all times

Chapter –04 and 05

1. What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence?

a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months

a) Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in a procedural flight trainer

4. What is the night flying hour’s requirement for an ATPL licence?

5. One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to:

a) Act as PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations

6. Which letters are prohibited for registration marks?

a) 4 letters international codes b) 5 letters combination used in international code of signal

7. When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness?

a) After the 21st day of illness has elapsed

a) 15 hrs b) 20 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 35 hrs

9. What medical is required for the issue of a CPL?

11. For an ATPL how many night hours are required?

12. For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required?

a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250

a) 15 hrs b) 10 hrs c) 25 hrs d) 20 hrs

a) Once you have passed a competency check

15. At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL?

a) 21 -60 b) 21 -59 c) 8-59 d) 8-60

16. What medical is required for the issue of a PPL?

a) Class 1 b) As required by ICAO c) Class 2 d) None of the above