Cluster 5: Radiologic Sciences

NAME: DATE: SCORE:

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This TEST contains 100 questions of MULTIPLE CHOICE.
2. Read the questions carefully.
3. Choose the BEST answer by shading the LETTER of your choice in the answer sheet provided.
4. Write letter E if the answer is not found among the choices.
5. NO ERASURE and ALTERATIONS.

99m
1. For Tc, which of the following is LEAST likely to B. must be much larger than the transducer
contribute to patient dose? material to reduce attenuation
A. Auger Electrons C. Internal Conversion C. must be made with the same material as the
B. Beta Particles D. Gamma rays damping material
D. must be smaller than the impedance of the
2. Energies of alpha particle are generally between: tissue
A. 1.02 MeV – 2.04 MeV
B. 0.511 MeV – 1.02 MeV 9. The actual time from the start of the pulse to the
C. 5 – 10 MeV end of the pulse is known as
D. 4 – 7 MeV A. pulse repetition frequency
B. pulse repetition period
3. The isocenter is C. pulse duration
A. An imaginary point in the beam where the D. spatial pulse length
dose is normalized
B. The point at the center axis where the 10. Artifacts appearing as parallel, equally spaced lines
maximum dose occurs are characteristic of
C. The point around which the source of the A. acoustic shadowing
beam rotates B. specular reflection
D. The central ray of the beam C. reverberation
D. enhancement
4. Alpha particle is equivalent to the nucleus of what
atom? 11. There are many types of natural and synthetic
A. Lithium C. Helium crystals that possess and exhibit piezoelectric
B. Deuterium D. Tritium properties. Which of the following are not natural?
A. Tourmaline
5. Onco- means B. Quartz
A. Swelling C. Cancer C. Rochelle salt
B. Tumor D. Inflammation D. Lithium sulphate

6. It is branch of radiology that uses ionizing radiation 12. Ultrasound wave propagation causes displacement
to treat diseases such as malignant tumors. of particles in a medium. What are the regions of
A. Nuclear medicine greatest particle concentration called?
B. Radiobiology A. Compression C. Attenuation
C. Cobalt 60 B. Rarefaction D. Reflection
D. Radiotherapy
13. If frequency is doubled, the wavelength will
7. A person in radiation oncology that plans the dose to A. double
be delivered to the patient B. increase by a factor of four
A. Radiation therapist C. become shorter by one-fourth
B. Radiation oncologist D. become shorter by one-half
C. Medical physicist 14. What is the typical frequency of medical ultrasound
D. All of the above transducers?
A. less than 20 kHz
8. The acoustic impedance of the matching layer B. greater than 20 Hz but less than 20,000 Hz
A. can be chosen to improve transmission into C. greater than 20,000 Hz but less than
the body 2,000,000 Hz
D. greater than 1 MHz
 B. Make the CT scanning operation quieter
15. Attenuation of an ultrasound beam can occur by C. Allow for continuous rotation of the detectors
A. Absorption C. Reflection and X-ray tube around the patient
B. Scattering D. All of the above D. Reduce the potential for motion artifacts
associated with spiral/helical scanning
16. What type of artifact is seen with a bright tapering
trail of echoes just distal to closely spaced strong 24. Which of the following describe the fraction of
reflectors? those reaching the detector that is being detected?
A. Edge C. Comet A. Geometric Efficiency
B. Mirror image D. Shadowing B. Thermonuclear Efficiency
C. Detection Efficiency
17. The fundamental operating principle of medical D. Intrinsic Efficiency
ultrasound transducers is ___________.
A. Snell’s law C. Impedance effect 25. Conventional Tomography has improved contrast
B. Doppler law D. Piezoelectric effect resolution because of the following reason:
A. Imaging time is reduced
18. Beam attenuation can be defined as B. Out of plane tissues are blurred
A. The phenomenon by which artifacts result C. X-ray beam is selectively filtered
when lower-energy photons are prefentially D. Tissues are superimposed
absorbed, leaving only higher-intensity
photons to strike the detector array. 26. The primary type of interaction that contributes to
B. X-ray energy that is produced from the subject contrast in CT images.
bombarding a substance with fast-moving A. Pair production
electrons B. Compton scattering
C. The ability of the detector to capture C. Photoelectric effect
transmitted photons and change them to D. Linear Attenuation
electronic signals
D. The phenomenon by which an x-ray beam 27. Which of the following is defined as the ability to
passing through a structure is decreased in distinguish details in objects of different densities a
intensity or amount because of absorption small distance apart?
and interaction with matter. A. Contrast resolution
B. Spatial resolution
19. Which of the following is a low-attenuation C. Cross field uniformity
structure? D. Interpolation
A. Iodine-filled aorta C. Rib
B. Trachea D. Calcified arteries 28. The ability of the tube to withstand by-product heat
is called ____
20. How often should an average CT number water A. Heat capacity
calibration test be performed? B. Thermal potential
A. Daily C. Monthly C. Heat dissipation
B. Yearly D. Weekly D. Thermal transference

21. Which of the following is affected by the slice in a CT 29. What is the amount of dose measurement given in
study? RT?
A. Spatial resolution A. Gray C. Centigray
B. Radiation does to the patient B. Rads D. All of the above
C. Quantum mottle
D. Signal-to-noise ration 30. The 0 line density in CT scanning is ____.
A. Fats C. Muscle
B. Bones D. Water
22. The 2-dimensional representation of attenuation 31. Acromegaly is characterized by which of the
coefficient: following manifestations?
A. Voxel C. Pinhole A. Abnormal enlargement of the torso
B. Pixel D. All of the above B. Abnormal enlargement of the extremities
C. Abnormal enlargement of the pituitary gland
23. The main purpose of the slip ring technology is to: D. Abnormal enragement of the fingers
A. Increase the number of detectors that can be
housed in the gantry
32. Which of the following are the uses of the procedure 40. Which of the following modalities is most useful in
urinary catheterization? demonstrating the density of the renal carcinoma
1. To procure a specimen for diagnostic and its degree of metastasis?
purpose A. MRI C. Nuclear Medicine
2. To drain urine from the bladder when B. Ultrasound D. CT Scan
the patient is unable to urinate for
other reasons 41. It is a rare congenital anomaly with complete
3. To place medication into the bladder duplication of the uterus, cervix, and vagina.
A. I only C. II and III only A. Unicornuate horn
B. I and II only D. All of the above B. Bicornuate horn
C. Uterus didelphys
33. Paraplegia is caused by injury to the __. D. Hydrosalpinx
A. Spinal cord
B. Thoracic spinal cord 42. Depicts a uterus that is more vertical than normal
C. Spinal column and points backward toward the bowel.
D. Lumbar spinal cord A. Anteversion
B. Retroversion
34. The establishment of an anastomosis between the C. Retroflexed
upper portion of the stomach and the jejunum D. Anteflexed
A. Gastroduodenostomy
B. Gastrojejunostomy 43. Propagation speed errors result in
C. Ileectomy A. reverberation
D. Colostomy B. improper axial position
C. shadowing
35. Commonly known as the Black lung disease. D. a Doppler shift
A. Pneumoconiosis C. Anthracosis
B. Asbestosis D. Tuberculosis 44. Which of the following has an effect on the
propagation speed of the ultrasound?
36. The breaking apart of an intervertebral disk that A. high-frequency transducers
results in pressure on spinal nerve roots B. output power
1. Herniated disk C. angle of the ultrasound beam
2. Dislocated disk D. tissue type
3. Ruptured disk
A. I only C. II and III only 45. When particle motion of a medium is parallel to the
B. I and III only D. All of the above direction of a wave propagation, what is the wave
being transmitted called?
37. The power capacity of the generator is listed in A. longitudinal wave
A. Milliamperage (mA) B. shear wave
B. Kilowatts (kW) C. surface wave
C. Thousand heat units (KHU) D. transverse wave
D. Million heat units (MHU)
46. The acoustic impedance of a material is
38. Cooling mechanisms housed within the gantry help A. directly proportional to density and inversely
to reduce temperature fluctuations that could affect proportional to velocity
the system performance. B. directly proportional to velocity and inversely
A. X-ray tube C. Filtration proportional to density
B. Generator D. DAS C. inversely proportional to density and velocity
D. equal to the product of density and velocity

39. Third generation (rotate-rotate) scanners overcame 47. What is the average velocity of ultrasonic waves in
which of the following? soft tissue?
A. Detector signal drift sensitivity A. 1,540 mm/s
B. Spurious signal from moving signal B. 154,000 m/s
C. Translation motion C. 0.154 μm/μs
D. Cost D. approximately one mile per second
48. The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent A. Becquerel C. Curie
on B. mCi D. Gray
A. angulation
B. reflection 58. These are gas-filled detectors
C. the medium and the mode of vibration 1. Ionization Chamber
D. frequency 2. Proportional Counter
3. Geiger-Muller Counter
49. Which of the following test will allow an early A. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only
detection of cervical carcinoma? B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
A. Pap smear
B. Amniocentesis 59. Refers to the treatment in which the source of
C. Laparoscopy radiation is at some distant from the patient.
D. Sonography A. Brachytherapy C. Teletherapy
B. Chemotherapy D. Hormone therapy
50. Results from an overgrowth of the uterine smooth
muscle tissue. 60. Cells in which the normal growth controlling
A. Cystadenocarcinoma mechanism is altered, permitting progressive
B. Uterine Fibroids growth.
C. Leiomyomas A. Epithelial cell C. Cancer cell
D. Both B and C B. Neoplasm D. Metastasis

51. The change in atomic number after electron capture 61. It is the spread of cancer cells in the body.
A. +1 C. 0 A. Metastasis C. Malignancy
B. -1 D. +2 B. Recurrence D. Remission

52. What is the decay process of a heavy nucleus? 62. They discovered that one could achieve the same
A. Beta Minus C. Gamma tumor response with less injury to normal tissue by
B. Alpha D. Electron Capture fractioning the dose.
A. Henri Coutard and Claude Regaud
53. A RAM has a half-life of 6 hours. If 30 MBq is present B. Marie and Pierre Curie
at 2:00 am, how much activity will remain at 8:00pm C. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen and Henri
on the same day in the unit of Bq? Becquerel
A. 0.00000375 C. 3,750 D. J.J. Thomson and John Dalton
B. 3,750,000 D. 3.75
63. First therapeutic application of radiation.
54. This is where the image is presented in a minified A. Jan 26, 1898 C. Jan 29, 1896
image of the real object and essentially situated in B. Jan 28, 1896 D. Jan 26, 1896
an up-side down converging collimators.
A. Converging Collimator 64. Theory states that a cell will die if target molecules
B. Parallel Hole are inactivated as a result of radiation exposure.
C. Diverging Collimator A. Target theory
D. Pinhole B. Theory of radiosensitivity
C. Cancer curability
55. How many percent of radioactive sample remain D. None of the above
after 10 half-lives?
A. 0.97% C. 0.149% 65. Becquerel and Pierre Curie both suffered skin
B. 0.098% D. 1% redness in what part of their body?
A. Thigh C. Chest
B. Hand D. Nasal

56. It is a chemical molecule used to confer desired 66. What is erythema dose?
location properties. A. the dose that was found to cure all cancer
A. Biologically Active Molecule B. was the only measure of the dose by which
B. Radiotracers the only pioneer could estimate the necessary
C. Radiopharmaceuticals length of treatments
D. Radionuclides C. was the only dose that could be given without
causing complications
57. What is the SI unit for the intensity of Radioactivity? D. the dose that induces skin cancer
 78. Considered as a malignant testicular tumor arising
67. It assesses tumor aggressiveness: from the seminiferous tubules.
A. Staging C. Typing A. Testicular embryonal carcinomas
B. Grading D. TNM System B. Testicular seminomas
C. Testicular teratomas
68. The average energy of cobalt 60 is D. Testicular choriocarcinomas
A. 0.6 MeV C. 2.0 MeV
B. 1.25 MeV D. 4.0 MeV 79. A condition wherein a normally implanted placenta
may prematurely separate from the uterus
69. Simulators are primarily used to A. Placenta previa C. Placental abruption
A. Localize the target B. Placental percreta D. None of the above
B. Duplicate the geometry of therapy machine
C. Duplicate the mechanical movements of the 80. Imaging studies performed on a nongravid woman
therapy machine include:
D. All of the above A. Hysterosalpingography
B. Transvaginal pelvic sonography
70. Which is LEAST likely to be used as a detector C. Transabdominal pelvic sonography
material in PET imaging? D. All of the above
A. BGO C. LSO
B. GSO D. HCO 81. Prostatic hyperplasia most frequently occurs in men:
A. Under age 30 years
71. A radionuclide produced in a nuclear reactor is most B. Between ages 30 and 50 years
likely to decay by: C. Over age 50 years
A. Beta Minus C. Alpha D. None of the above; prostatic hyperplasia is a
B. Beta Plus D. Isomeric Transition female condition
15 16
72. O and O are examples of: 82. Benign masses of the testes include which of the
A. Isotopes C. Isomers following?
B. Isotones D. Isobars 1. Hydroceles
2. Seminomas
73. Adult effective doses (mSv) in PET imaging are most 3. Spermatoceles
likely: A. I and II only C. I and III only
A. 0.3 C. 3 B. II and III only D. All of the above
B. 1 D. 10
83. The congenital herniation of the meninges through a
74. Isomers are nuclides having the same number of defect in the skull or spinal column.
protons, neutrons, and atomic mass but different: A. Encephalocele C. Craniocele
A. Energy Level C. Energy state B. Meningocele D. Hydrocephalus
B. Binding Energy D. Potential Energy
84. Encephalocele can be BEST described by which of
75. A decay process, where the radionuclide emits a the following statements?
particle consisting of two neutrons and two protons. A. It is the protrusion of the spinal cord through
A. Alpha Particle C. Alpha transformation the vertebral column
B. Alpha Decay D. Both B and C B. It is the herniation of the dura mater through
the skull
76. Which of the following are considered as the most C. It is the herniation of brain tissue through a
common site for an ectopic pregnancy? gap in the skull
A. Ovary C. Abdominal cavity D. It is the protrusion of the brain tissue through
B. Salpinx D. Cervix the skin

77. Cryptorchidism is best described as __. 85. It is the temporary paralysis of the seventh cranial
A. A testicle twists on itself nerve that causes paralysis only of the affected side
B. A collection of fluid in the testis or along the of the face
spermatic cord A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Proliferation of breast tissue in the male B. Lou Gehrig’s disease
patient C. Bell’s Palsy
D. Refers to undescended testes D. Multiple Sclerosis
86. Inventor of Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging in 98. It is usually given the Greek letter mu (μ) and is
Real Terms related to the spin angular momentum of a nucleus
A. Felix Bloch A. nuclear spin
B. George Uhlen Beck B. spin
C. Wolfgang Pauli C. magnetic moment
D. Samuel Goudsmit D. all of the above

87. The number of protons in the nucleus 99. The time needed for the water protons to return to
A. Atomic weight C. Atomic number their initial state after the application of a 90° RF
B. Periodic group D. Valence pulse defined as the time needed for protons to
return back to their initial state in Z -axis
88. Has the same atomic number and atomic weight A. longitudinal relaxation
that is equal to one B. Transverse relaxation
A. Carbon C. Hydrogen C. Proton Density
B. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
100. TR image contrast for T1-weighted
89. The time it takes for the excited spins to recover and A. dark
be available for the next excitation B. bright
A. T1 C. Proton Density C. long
B. T2 D. Spin D. short

90. It is related to the spin quantum number.

A. Quantum number C. Echo
B. Nuclear spin D. Gyromagnetic ratio

91. It determines how quickly an MR signal fades after

excitation.
A. T1 time C. Proton Density
B. T2 time D. Spin

92. It refers to the position of a magnetic moment on its

circular precessional path and is expressed as an
angle.
A. Phase C. Coherence
B. Relaxation D. Magnetization transfer

93. The process by which protons release the energy

that they absorbed from the rf pulse.
A. Dephasing C. Coherence
B. Relaxation D. Magnetization transfer

94. First MR scanner

A. 1956 C. 1972
B. 1960 D. 1986

95. Process of energy absorption by an object that is

tuned to absorb energy of a specific frequency only
A. RF pulse C. Frequency
B. Resonance D. Net magnetization

96. The current resulting from precessing magnetization

A. Faraday’s C. Tesla
B. MR signal D. Resonance

97. Frequency range of radiowaves

A. 0-1000 cycle/sec C. 0-3000 cycle/sec
B. 0-1500 cycle/sec D. 0-6000 cycle/sec