Final review

Which functional classification of joints are slightly movable?

A. B. C. D. Diarthrosis Synarthrosis Ampiarthrosis Synovial joint

Answer: C

Which of the following is not considered a synovial joint?

a.) Elbow joint b.) Metacarpalphalangeal joint c.) Symphyses d.) Radioulnar joint

Answer: C

3. Which of the following does not include in a standard arthrogram tray?

A. B. C. D. E. Sterile drape Gauze pads Contrast media Needles All of the above are included

Answer : C

4. Concentration of nonionic, water-soluble contrast medium should not exceed:

A. B. C. D. 25% 30% 50% 75%

Answer : B

5. The contrast agent used when performing magnetic resonance arthrography is?
A. B. C. D. Isovue Gastrografin Gadolinium Cystografin

Answer : C

6. The most common type of reaction to arthrographic procedure is:

A. B. C. D. Anaphylactic response Skin rash Hypotension Vasovagal response

Answer : D

7. How should the foot be positioned during a hip arthrogram using the anterior approach?
A. B. C. D. 5 degrees laterally 15 degrees medially 45 degrees medially No rotation of the foot

Answer : B

8. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of pneumoarthrography:

A. Large amounts of negative contrast agents are usually necessary B. Painful distention of the joint C. Cost D. Low diagnostic accuracy Answer : C

The knee joint is classified as which of the following type of synovial joint?
A. B. C. D. E. Gliding joint Pivot joint Condylar joint Hinge joint Ball and socket joint

Answer : D

10. Which of the following is not an indication for arthrography?

A. B. C. D. E. Arthritic deformities Rupture of the articular ligaments Cartilaginous defects Hypersensitivity to iodine All the above are indications for arthrography

Answer : D

1. When using the sacral hiatus puncture method for myelography the contrast material is injected into the:
A. B. C. D. Left ventricle Extradural space Subarachnoid space Cisterna magna

Answer: B (p.402)

2. The injection site for lumbar myelography is usually between:

A. B. C. D. L1-L2 L2-L3 L4-L5 T12-L1

Answer: B (p. 401)

3. The leptomeninges are composed of the :

A. B. C. D. Arachnoid and pia mater Pia mater and dura mater Dura mater and arachnoid Spinal cord and dura mater

Answer: A (p. 395)

4. The movement of certain contrast agents by gravity is because the agents are:
A. B. C. D. Hyperbaric Hypobaric Equal to the consistency of cerebrospinal fluid Less viscous than cerebrospinal fluid

Answer: A (p. 400)

5. When the lower cervical and upper thoracic regions are not well demonstrated the __________ should be used.
A. B. C. D. Left lateral decubitus position Anteroposterior view Right internal oblique view Swimmers view

Answer: D (p. 408)

6. The cisternal puncture method is used when:

A. B. C. D. The patient is extremely obese The lower extremities cannot be flexed The lumbar puncture approach is impossible Contrast agent is required to flow into the ventricles

Answer: C (p. 401)

7. Which of the following is not considered to be part of the brain?

A. B. C. D. Pons Medulla oblongata Filum terminale Mesencephalon

Answer: C (p. 395)

8. The largest and uppermost portion of the brain is called the:

A. B. C. D. Pons Hindbrain Cerebrum Filum terminale

Answer: C (p. 395)

9. Which of the following pieces of equipment is not necessary for myelography?

A. B. C. D. Footrest Fluoroscope Shoulder harness Catheter

Answer: D (p. 404)

10. A disadvantage to the use of oily contrast agents is:

Their higher cost That they are absorbed slowly and must be removed from the patient That they do not provide sufficient contrast That patients tend to have more reactions to the substance

Answer: B (p. 400)

All are indications of bone densitometry except: a) Postmenopausal woman b) Diet low in calcium c) Family history d) Presence of barium D

2) For a scanner with a fan array beam, how far should the tachnologist be from the tube? a) 3 ft. b) 6 ft. c) 9 ft. d) 12 ft. C

3) Bone densitometry is used to: 1 predict future fracture risk 2 diagnose osteoporosis 3 diagnose osteopenia A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 D

4) Which answer is a contraindication of bone densitometry? A. B. C. D. A Pregnancy Secondhand Smoke Woman over 55 All of these are contraindications

5) The scanning method that produces the highest patient dose is: A. B. C. D. C DEXA Ultrasonography of the calcaneus QCT SPA

6) DEXA is the gold standard of bone densitometry scanning methods because: A. B. C. D. D its reliable Its widely available Its measurements are precise All of the above

7) The patient dose for DEXA is: A. B. C. D. B High Low Depends on the brand of the scanner being used Nonexistent

8) The best way for a DEXA technologist to protect themselves is: A. B. C. D. D To start the machine and leave the room To be at a predetermined # of feet from the tube To follow the cardinal principle B&C

9) Trabecular bone is found: A. B. C. D. D In the shaft of long bones Outlining the entire outside of every bone In the feet In the ends of long bones

10) Standard scores used to measure bone density are known as: A. B. C. D. A T & Z-scores T & Y-scores X & Y-scores W & Z-scores

1. Which of the following positions are used most frequently during hysterosalpingography?
Right anterior oblique Prone Anteroposterior Lateral

2. How long do you wait to take delayed films after using iodized oils?
6 hours 12 hours 24 hours 36 hours

3. Which of the following is an oily contrast?

Hexabrix Sinografin Omni 240 Hypaque

4. What is the highlighted area of the uterus?

Body Fundus Vagina Cervix

5. True or False: A Foley catheter is used for HSGs.

False, a 5 French catheter is used.

6. If there is specific pathology, what additional views are asked for by the radiologist?
Oblique Prone Lateral All of the above

7. What position is the patient in for the HSG?

Supine Prone Lithotomy position Down-dog position

8. What is the absolute contraindication of this exam?

Pregnancy Uterine bleeding Fistulas None of the above

9. Name the cassette size used for the normal HSG:

14x17 10x12 8x10 None because this is a fluoro exam

10. The patient may be instructed to take what the day before the exam?
A large amount of fluids Non-gas forming laxative Tylenol All of the above

1. Who is considered to be part of the oncology team?

A. Radiation oncologist, medical physicist, dosimetrist, radiation therapist, oncology nurse B. Radiation oncologist, dosimetrist, radiation therapist, oncology nurse C. Medical physicist, dosimetrist, radiation therapist, oncology nurse D. Radiation oncologist, medical physicist, dosimetrist, radiation therapist

2. What percentage of cancer is treated with radiation?

A. B. C. D. 50% 60% 75% 90%

3. When was the first treatment of cancer using radiation reported?

A. B. C. D. January 1902 January 1896 January 1906 April 1909

4. Which of the following are very radiosensitive?

1. Gonadal germ cells 2. Epithelial tumors A. B. C. D. 1 only 1 and 3 1 and 4 4 only 3. Mesenchymal tumors 4. Lympoproliferative tumors

5. Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power?

True or False

False: Shorter wavelengths do

6. Which piece of equipment uses a robotic arm?

A. B. C. D. 60Co CyberKnife Tomo Therapy Linacs

7. What are hot spots?

A. B. C. D. Area that the sun is shining Area of the body that is warm to the touch Area of excessive radiation dose Where the radiation enters the body

8. What is the average daily dose given during treatments?

A. B. C. D. 180 to 200 cGy 90 to 100 cGy 280 to 300 cGy 200 to 250 cGy

9. When is the patient position acquired?

A. B. C. D. Day of the first treatment During simulation During a visit to the oncologist Patient position is not important

10. All of the following are true except?

A. Multileaf collimators are a beam defining system B. Intensity modulated radiation therapy reduces the radiation dose to normal tissues and structures C. 60Co was the first skin sparing machine D. Intensity modulated radiation therapy cuts the treatment time in half

1. Which of the following cannot be determined by ultrasound?

A. B. C. D. Size of a fetus Appropriate amount of amniotic fluid cushioning a fetus Vertebral fracture Kidney stones

2. What is an ultrasound of the heart called?

A. B. C. D. Echogram Echocardiogram Cardiogram ECG

3. Who discovered piezoelectric effect?

A. B. C. D. Marie Curie Pierre & Jacques Curie Marie & Jacques Curie Roentgen

4. Which of the following will ultrasound freely travel through?

A. B. C. D. Gallstones Kidney stones Blood Heart valve

5. If wanting to scan a mass on a patients wrist near the surface, would you rather use a 3 MHz or a 5 MHz transducer?
5 MHz because the sound waves will be more easily absorbed than from a 3 MHz and will provide better quality of a superficial structure.

6. From 100%, what is the reflection rate reduced to when using gel?
A. B. C. D. 50% 10% 1% 0.1%

7. True or False: Ultrasound can be used to diagnose diseases of the lungs.

False. Gases reflect ultrasounds

8. True or False: Ultrasound can be used to determine the blood flow through arteries/veins.
True.

9. What type of transducer was this image most likely taken from?
A. B. C. D. Vector Linear Curved Normal

10. The common carotid artery (CCA) branches off into what two main branches?
A. B. C. D. ICA and MCA ICA and ECA The CCA does not branch None of the above

1. All are types of catheters except:

A. B. C. D. Diagnostic angiographic catheter Micro catheter Contusion catheter Balloon catheter

Answer: C

2. Atherectomy is:
Removal of plaques Removal of veins Addition of pathways Addition of stents

Answer A

3. How many purposes for embolization are there?

A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4

Answer C

4. The first Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty (PTA) was performed by Dotter and Judkins in :
A. B. C. D. 1953 1964 1986 2001

Answer B

5. The most accurate laser tip is:

A. B. C. D. Focused Open-tipped Metal-tipped Lens-tipped

Answer: D

6. TIPS is an acronym for:

A. B. C. D. Theraputic Instigational Portal System Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunting Transducing Investigational Pathway Schematic Transthoracic Intermediary Portal System

Answer B

7. Complications in the removal of foreign bodies are:

A. B. C. D. Very Rare Somewhat Rare Somewhat Common Very Common

Answer: A

8. Transmyocardial Revascularization is used to:

A. Reduce Bloodflow B. Maintain Bloodflow C. Increase Bloodflow

Answer: C

9. Chemically dissolving a clot is known as:

A. B. C. D. Ablasion Intravascular Thrombolysis (Fibrinolysis) Destructive Coalition Sectrolysis

Answer: B

10. Which is not a complication of vena cava filters:

A. B. C. D. Tilted or malpositioned filter Filter dissolution Migration of filter Caval perforation

Answer: B

A mammogram is also known as a (an)

A. Tomosynthesis exam B. FFDM C. Egan Technique D. BSE B

Women age 40 and older are recommended to have mammograms every 1-2 years
A. True B. False

Mammograms use what type of radiation?

A. B. C. D. B High level Low level Depends on the patient size A and B

Which of these should be documented of the patient?

A. B. C. D. E. Lumps Scars Lesions Moles All of the above

What type of exam is needed for a patient with no signs or symptoms?

A. Screening Mammogram B. Diagnostic Mammogram C. Biopsy A

What is the ratio of the specialized grids?

A. B. C. D. C 16: 1 12: 1 or 10:1 3:1 or 5:1 No grids are used

Artifacts can be made by

A. B. C. D. E. E Perfume Lotion Deodorant A&B B&C

The software that aids the radiologist in reading images is ___

A. B. C. D. BRCA1 FFDM CAD DOT

Mammograms are capable of detecting cancer ____ before it is palpable.

A. B. C. D. 5 years 10 years 2 years 3 months

How many views of each breast are in a routine exam?

1. 2. 3. 4. 4 3 2 1

1. Who first discovered the principle of CT?

A. Hounsfield B. Radon C. Roentgen D. House

2. When was the first clinical CT taken?

A. 1968 B. 1971 C. 1869 D. 1917

3. How wide is the aperture opening in a CT scanner?

A. 50-85 cm B. 58-90 cm C. 40-30 cm D. 25-50 cm

4. What is the CT table made of?

A. Aluminum B. Lead C. Carbon graphite fiber D. Plastic

5. The stationary anode for CT uses what mA?

A. 50 mA B. 70 mA C. 30 mA D. 40 mA

6. The rotating anode permits what range of kVp?

A. 80-140 kVp B. 90-150 kVp C. 50-80 kVp D. 40-180 kVp

7. The detector is set at what SID?

A. 40 SID B. 33 SID C. 72 SID D. 44 SID

8. What is the dynamic range of a typical scanner?

A. 100-1 B. 1,000-1 C. 1,000,000 to 1 D. 100,000 to 1

9. What is the most common exam performed in CT?

A. Extremity work B. Spine exam C. Pelvis D. Head

10. For ARRT, how many hours of clinical training is needed for CT certification?
A. 18 hrs B. 60 hrs C. 16 hrs D. 32 hrs

Question 1
Radiation protection is important in MRI because: a. Reduces patient dose b. Reduces radiographer dose c. ALARA still applies d. None of the above

Answer : D

Question 2
Magnetic Resonance was first realized in the : a. 1920s b. 1940s c. 1960s d. 1970s

Answer : A

Question 3
Only MRI ___________ equipment is allowed in the exam room. a. Conditional b. Compliant c. Coordinated d. Any equipment is allowed

Answer : B

Question 4
Certification requirements for MRI are changing in: a. 2014 b. 2016 c. Both d. Neither

Answer : C

Question 5
The spin-lattice relaxation process is also known as : a. T1 b. Rest time c. T2 d. Sequestration time

Answer : A

Question 6
The spin-spin relaxation process is also known as : a. T1 b. Rest time c. T2 d. Dizzy time

Answer : C

Question 7
Most diagnostic magnets have a strength of: a. 1T b. 1.5T c. 5T d. 5.5T

Answer : B

Question 8
The sum of the magnitudes and directions of the magnetic spins is known as the : a. Net magnetization vector b. Additional variable c. Geometric factor d. I give up factor

Answer : A

Question 9
All of the following are types of MRI units except a. Open b. Mobile c. Fonar d. Bloch

Answer : D

Question 10
Which magnets are used in MRI: 1. Permanent 2. Electromagnetic 3. Rare Earth a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1 & 2 e. 1, 2 & 3

Answer : D