Fasak

GURU NANAK INSTITUTIONS TECHNICAL CAMPUS (AUTONOMOUS)
SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Software Engineering
SUBJECT CODE: 22PC0CS10
II B. tech -II Semester
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

AY: 2024-2025
B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

UNIT - 1
1. Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes?
a) Software dependence
b) Software development
c) Software validation
d) Software specification
0. What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
a) Customer can respond to each increment
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market
early
0. Selection of a model is based on
a) Requirements
b) Development team
c) Users
d) Project type and associated risk
e) All of the mentioned
1. What is Software?
a) Software is set of programs
b) Software is documentation and configuration of data
c) Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data
d) None of the mentioned
2. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
d) All of the mentioned
3. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
4. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design
b) Coding
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
5. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) both b & c

6. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
a) Waterfall & RAD
b) Prototyping & Spiral
c) Prototyping & RAD
d) Waterfall & Spiral
7. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?

a) Design
b) Repeatable
c) Managed
d) Optimizing
8. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described in
a) Software Product Engineering
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management
d) Software Quality Management
9. CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Module
d) Capability Maturity Model
0. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
1. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
2. Which of these does not account for software failure?
a) Increasing Demand
b) Low expectation
c) Increasing Supply
d) Less reliable and expensive
3. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers are required.
b) Increases re-usability of components.
c) Encourages customer/client feedback.
d) Both a & c.
4. Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less experience
on similar projects?
a) Spiral
b) Waterfall

c) RAD
d) Iterative Enhancement Model
5. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
b) Spiral Model
c) Concurrent Model
d) Incremental Model
UNIT - 2
1. Which one of the following is a functional requirement?
a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) Testability
e) None of the mentioned
2. 1.FAST stands for
a) Functional Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique

0. The user system requirements are the parts of which document?

a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
1. Select the developer specific requirement?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both a and b
2. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability
d) Install ability
3. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
4. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
5. What are the types of requirements?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
e) All of the mentioned
6. Which is one of the most important stakeholders from the following?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d) Users of the software
7. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.”
What kind of a requirement the system is providing?
a) Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
8. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task?
a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
9. Which of the following is a requirement management activity?
a) Investigation

b) Design
c) Construction and Test
10. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
11. What are the four dimensions of Dependability?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
12. What is the first step of requirement elicitation?
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
13. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modeling to give a functional view of
the system?
a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Ram Baugh)
14. Why is Requirements Management Important? It is due to the changes

a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
15. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on
another platform.
b) It can be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally available and
standardized.
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating
within the environment for which the system was intended.
d) Both a and b
e) It refers to the level at which a software system uses scarce computational resources, such as
CPU cycles, memory, disk space, buffers and communication channels.
0. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.
i. Managers
ii. Entry level Personnel
iii. Users
iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) i, ii, iv, iii
b) i, ii, iii, iv

c) ii, iv, i, iii

20. Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
b) Design
c) Analysis
d) Development and Documentation
UNIT - 3
1. Who designs and implements database structures.
a) Programmers
b) Project managers
c) Technical writers
d) Database administrators
2. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is:
a) Efficiency
b) Accuracy
c) Quality
d) Complexity
3. Which is the first step in the software development life cycle?
a) Analysis
b) Design
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification
d) Development and Documentation
4. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
5. In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of
the goals and objectives of the project.

a) documentation
b) flowchart
c) program specification
d) design
6. What is an object?
a) An object is an instance of a class.
b) An object includes encapsulation of data
c) An object is not an instance of a class
7. In the Designing phase, which is the primary area of concern?
a) Architecture
b) Data
c) Interface
8. UML interfaces are used to:
a) specify required services for types of objects.
b) Program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk.
c) Define executable logic to reuse across classes.
d) Define an API for all classes.
9. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module
a) can be written more compactly
b) focuses on just one thing
c) is able to complete its function in a timely manner
d) is connected to other modules and the outside world
10. Constraints can be represented in UML by
a) {text}
b) [text] c) constraint
11. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for
a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
12. Select the statement true for activity diagrams.
a) They can be used to discover parallel activities
b) They are used to depict workflow for a particular business activity
c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and are difficult to trace back to object models
13. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow indicates:
a) Navigability
b) Dependency
c) Association
d) Refers to
14. Which of the following diagrams is time oriented?
a) Collaboration
b) Sequence
c) Activity
15. Debugging is:
a) creating program code

b) finding and correcting errors in the program code

c) identifying the task to be computerized
d) creating the algorithm
16. What is an abstract class?
a) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
b) A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances.
c) A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances
17. Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams
a) Generalization
b) Include
c) Extend
18. Which tool is used for structured designing?
a) Program flowchart
b) Structure chart
c) Data-flow diagram
d) Module
19. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include
a) operations only
b) attributes only
c) both (a) and (b)
1. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a
specific time?
a) Sequence Diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Class Diagram
d) Object Diagram

UNIT - 4
1. Test cases should uncover errors like
a) Nonexistent loop termination
b) Comparison of different data types
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence
2. What is testing process’ first goal?
a) Bug prevention
b) Testing
c) Execution
d) Analyses
3. Which of the following is the way of ensuring that the tests are actually testing code?
a) Control structure testing
b) Complex path testing
c) Code coverage
d) Quality assurance of software
4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process?
a) Efficiency
b) Cost
c) Effort Applied
5. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance?
a) Market
b) Product
c) Technology
d) People
6. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
a) Quality
b) Complexity
c) Reliability
d) All of the Mentioned
7. Which is not an information domain required for determining function point in FPA ?
a) Number of user Input
b) Number of user Inquiries
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors
8. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
a) Yellow box
b) White box
c) Gray box
d) Black box.
9. Which is a black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing?
a) Acceptance testing
b) Regression testing

c) Equivalence partitioning
d) Quality assurance
10. The intent of project metrics is:
a) minimization of development schedule
b) for strategic purposes
c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
d) both a and c
11. Test should be conducted for every possible
a) data
b) case
c) variable
12. Software mistakes during coding are known as
a) errors
b) failures
c) bugs
d) defects
13. ITG stands for
a) instantaneous test group
b) integration testing group
c) individual testing group
d) independent test group
14. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted
systematically.
a) True
b) False
15. By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to
halt the testing process.
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time
c) Metrics
16. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
17. Effective testing will reduce _______ cost.
a) maintenance
b) design
c) coding
d) documentation
18. Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?
a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time
b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any
testing strategy

19. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?

a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
20. Usability can be measured in terms of:
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
c) Net increase in productivity
UNIT - 5
1. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced?
a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
2. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified?
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks
3. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “There will be a change of
organizational management with different priorities.”?
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
c) Management change
d) Product competition
4. What all has to be identified as per risk identification?
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities
c) Consequences
5. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
6. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution

7. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected?
a) Product risk
b) Project risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
8. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
9. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan?
a) Risk identification
b) Performance risk
c) Support risk
d) Risk projection
10. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
11. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.
a) collection
b) maintenance
c) verification
d) dis-positioning
12. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
13. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
14. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be
a) deleted
b) eliminated
c) identified
d) eliminated and identified
15. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about
the risk?
a) Risk monitoring
b) Risk planning
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification

16. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?

a) Known risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks
d) Technical risks
17. Which one is not a risk management activity?
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation
c) Risk control
18. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential
magnitude of that loss?
a) Risk exposure
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
19. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that
they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
20. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used
to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks

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GURU NANAK INSTITUTIONS TECHNICAL CAMPUS (AUTONOMOUS)

SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING & TECHNOLOGY

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

SUBJECT CODE: 22PC0CS10

II B. tech -II Semester

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

7. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?

3. What is the major drawback of using RAD Model?

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

0. The user system requirements are the parts of which document?

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

14. Why is Requirements Management Important? It is due to the changes

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

c) ii, iv, i, iii

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

b) finding and correcting errors in the program code

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

19. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

16. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?

B. TECH – COMPUTER SCINCE AND ENGINEERING – GNITC (SPECIAL BATCH)

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