Paper Software Engineering.

Class BSCS F18 & BSIT F18

1. RAD stands for
a)Rapid Application Development
b) Relative Application Development
c) Rapid Application Document
d) None of the mentioned
2.  Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
a) Waterfall Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
d) Build & Fix Model
3. Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model?
a) Coding
b) Quick Design
c) Prototype Refinement
d) Engineer Product
4.  Which of the following statements regarding Build & Fix Model is wrong?
a) It scales up well to large projects
b) Code soon becomes unfixable & unchangeable
c) Maintenance is practically not possible
d) No room for structured design
5. RAD Model has
a) 5 phases
b) 3 phase
c) 2 phases
d) 6 phases
6. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle
b) System Development Life cycle
c) Software Design Life Cycle
d) System Design Life Cycle
7.  Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC?
a) RAD Model
b) Prototyping Model
c) Waterfall Model
d) both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
8.  Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
a) All of the mentioned
b) Incremental Model
c) Concurrent Development Model
d) WINWIN Spiral Model
9. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
a) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
b) Linear Model & RAD Model
 c) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
10.  What is the major advantage of using Incremental Model?
a) Easier to test and debug & It is used when there is a need to get a product to
the market early
b) Easier to test and debug
c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to the market early
d) Customer can respond to each increment
11. The spiral model was originally proposed by
a) Barry Boehm
b) IBM
c) Pressman
d) Royce
12.  Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model.
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later date
13. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?
a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
c) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
d) All of the mentioned
14. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
a) Concurrent Model
b) Spiral Model
c) WINWIN Spiral Model
d) Incremental Model
15.  Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development
a) All of the mentioned
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) Individuals and interactions
16. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Both Incremental and Iterative Development
b) Iterative Development
c) Linear Development
d) Incremental Development
17. Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process?
a) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Uses incremental product delivery strategy
d) All of the mentioned
18.  What are the types of requirements ?
a) All of the mentioned
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) Availability
19. Select the developer-specific requirement ?
a) Both Portability and Maintainability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Portability
20. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) design
b) elicitation
c) analysis
d) documentation
21. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function deployment
c) quality function development
d) none of the mentioned
22. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
23. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Users of the software
c) Managers
d) Middle level stakeholder
24. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
a) Maintainability
b) None of the mentioned
c) Robustness
d) Portability
25. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
26. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
 c) Serviceability
d) Installability
27. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
a) Client
b) Project manager
c) Production team
d) Investor
28. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as
expected?
a) Project risk
b) Product risk
c) Business risk
d) Programming risk
29. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you
learn more about the risk?
a) Risk planning
b) Risk monitoring
c) Risk analysis
d) Risk identification
30. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where
the software is being developed?
a) People risks
b) Organizational risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Technology risks
31.  Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies
that are used to develop the system?
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks
c) Estimation risks
d) Organizational risks
32. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability
information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time
b) Requirements changes
c) Organizational restructuring
d) None of the mentioned
33. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
b) Minimization strategies
c) Contingency plans
d) All of the mentioned
34. Software Maintenance includes
a) Error corrections
 b) All of the mentioned
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
d) Enhancements of capabilities
35. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing
environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?
a) Corrective
b) Adaptive
c) Perfective
d) Preventive
36. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?
a) System Testing
b) Regression Testing
c) Integration Testing
d) Unit Testing
37. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?
a) Efficiency
b) Inclusiveness
c) Generality
d) Precision
38.  In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?
a) Process measurement
b) Process analysis
c) Process change
d) None of the mentioned
39. What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and
engineers?
a) Role
b) Exception
c) Activity
d) Process
40. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
a) rework
b) none of the mentioned
c) failure mode analysis
d) repair
41. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?
a) Hardware
b) Programmers
c) Software
d) None of the mentioned
42. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is
called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality Assurance
 c) Quality of conformance
d) None of the mentioned
43. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?
a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
44.  Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the
software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
45. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the
process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) failure cause
b) equivalent faults
c) errors
d) none of the mentioned
46. What is not included in prevention costs?
a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) equipment calibration and maintenance
d) test equipment
47. CMM stands for
a) Capability Management Module
b) Conservative Maturity Model
c) Capability Maturity Model
d) Capability Maturity Module
48. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records.
a) collection
b) maintenance
c) verification
d) dis-positioning
49. Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM?
a) Managed
b) Repeatable
c) Design
d) Optimizing
50. The CMM emphasizes
a) continuous process improvement
b) the need to accept quality system
c) the need to record information
d) none of the mentioned
51. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how software components are
distributed across the processors in the system.
a) process
b) logical
c) physical
d) all of the mentioned
52.  Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting
processes at run time?
a) physical
b) development
c) process
d) logical
53. Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?
a) type of application
b) distribution of the system
c) testing the system
d) architectural styles
54.  Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as
objects or object classes?
a) physical
b) development
c) logical
d) process
55.  Which of the following is golden rule for interface design?
a) Place the user in control
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) All of the mentioned
d) Make the interface consistent
56. Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain
control?
a) Provide for flexible interaction
b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
c) Show technical internals from the casual user
d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear on the screen
57.  Which of the following is not a user interface design process?
a) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
b) Interface design
c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
d) Interface validation
58. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on __________ can be
significant.
a) short-term memory
b) shortcuts
 c) objects that appear on the screen
d) all of the mentioned
59.  A software might allow a user to interact via
a) keyboard commands
b) mouse movement
c) all of the mentioned
d) voice recognition commands
60. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of
the software?
a) mental image
b) user’s model
c) design model
d) system image
61. What establishes the profile of end-users of the system?
a) design model
b) system image
c) mental image
d) user’s model
62.  What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled
with all supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics?
a) mental image
b) interface design
c) interface validation
d) system image
63. The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base
available at
a) free of cost
b) short period of time
c) high cost
d) low cost
64. Consider the example and categorize it accordingly, “A pattern-matching system
developed as part of a text-processing system may be reused in a database
management system”.
a) Application system reuse
b) None of the mentioned
c) Object and function reuse
d) Component reuse
65. COTS stands for
a) None of the mentioned
b) Commercial Off-The-Shelf states
c) Commercial Off-The-System state
d) Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems
66. Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more
specific subsystem or application?
 a) Software reuse
b) Object-oriented programming language
c) None of the mentioned
d) Framework
67.  “An ordering system may be adapted to cope with a centralized ordering process in
one company and a distributed process in another.” Which category the example
belong to?
a) Functional specialization
b) Platform specialization
c) Environment specialization
d) Process specialization
68. Which of the following is not an advantages of software reuse?
a) lower costs
b) faster software development
c) lower risks
d) high effectiveness
69. ERP stands for
a) Effective Reuse Planning
b) None of the mentioned
c) Effective Research Planning
d) Enterprise Resource Planning
70. Which of the following option is not provided by formal methods?
a) providing frameworks
b) verifying systems
c) provide investors
d) both providing frameworks and verifying systems
71. The _________ of a formal specification language is often based on a syntax that is
derived from standard set theory notation and predicate calculus.
a) semantic domain
b) set
c) sequence
d) syntactic domain
72. Which of the following provides a concise, unambiguous, and consistent method for
documenting system requirements?
a) CMM
b) ISO-9001
c) CASE tools
d) Formal methods
73.  Which of the following is a feature of CBSE?
a) It increases quality
b) CBSE shortens delivery time
c) CBSE increases productivity
d) All of the mentioned
74.  Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”For a component to be
composable, all external interactions must
take place through publicly defined interfaces”?
a) Standardized
b) Independent
c) Documented
d) Composable
75. A component model defines standards for
a) properties
b) methods
c) mechanisms
d) all of the mentioned
76. A _________ defines a set of standards for components, including interface
standards, usage standards, and deployment standards.
a) Component-based software engineering
b) Component composition
c) Component interfaces
d) Component model
77. CASE stands for
a) Cost Aided Software Engineering
b) None of the mentioned
c) Control Aided Software Engineering
d) Computer Aided Software Engineering
78.  What are the problems with re-structuring?
a) Loss of comments
b) All of the mentioned
c) Heavy computational demands
d) Loss of documentation
79.  Reverse engineering of data focuses on
a) Internal data structures
b) Database structures
c) None of the mentioned
d) ALL of the mentioned
80. When does one decides to re-engineer a product?
a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
b) when system crashes frequently
c) subsystems of a larger system require few maintenance
d) when hardware or software support becomes obsolete