WEEKLYTEST for

Session Target (Med.)

2021-22 INSTRUCTIONS
[ Time : 3 Hours ]
[ Max. Marks : 720 ]
(i) T his Paper has 180

Batch - 1
questions. All questions
are compulsory.
(ii) The Maximum marks

Date:
for each question is 4.
(iii) 1 mark will be deducted
th
29 December 2021
against each negative
response from the total
marks.
(iv) Use of calculator, slide
rule, graph paper and
trignometric tables is
NOT PERMITTED.

Name of the Candidate : ...............................................

Roll No.: .........................................................................

Centre Code: .................................................................

Centre Town: ..................................................................

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 WEEKLY TEST TARGET (MED.) (BATCH - 1) - SESSION - 2021-22
[Time : 3 Hours ] DATE - 29.12.2021 Full Marks : 720

01. A rod of mass m and length l is made to stand at 07. A small part of the rim of a fly wheel breaks off
an angle of 60° with the vertical. potential energy while it is rotating at a constant angular speed.
of the rod in this position is Then its radius of gyration will
(1) Increase
mgl mgl mgl (2) Decrease
(1) mgl (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4 (3) Remain unchanged
02. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is (4) Nothing definite can be said
swinging freely about a horizontal axis passing 08. A door 1.6 m wide requires a force of 1 N to be
through its end. Its maximum angular speed is applied at the free end to open or close it. The
. Its centre of mass rises to a maximum height force that is required at a point 0.4 m distant
of from the hinges for opening or closing the door is
(1) 1.2 N (2) 3.6 N (3) 2.4 N (4) 4 N
1 l2 2 1 l 1 l2 2 1 l2 2
(1) (2) 6 g (3) (4) 09. A particle with position vector r has a linear
3 g 2 g 6 g momentum p. Which of the following statements
is true in respect of its angular momentum L
03. In a rectangle ABCD (BC = 2 AB). The moment
about the origin.
of inertia along which axes will be minimum.
E (1) L acts along p
A B
(2) L acts along r
(3) L is maximum when p and r are parallel
H F (4) L is maximum when p is perpendicular to r
10. A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the
same mass and made up of same material are
D C allowed to roll down (from rest) on inclined plane,
G
then
(1) BC (2) BD (3) HF (4) EG
(1) Solid sphere reaches the bottom first
04. The moment of inertia about an axis of a body
which is rotating with angular velocity 1 radian (2) Solid sphere reaches the bottom late
per second is numerically equal to (3) Disc will reach the bottom first
(1) One-fourth of its rotational kinetic energy (4) All of them reach the bottom at the same time
(2) Half of the rotational kinetic energy 11. If x, v and a denote the displacement, the velocity
and the acceleration of a particle executing simple
(3) Rotational kinetic energy harmonic motion of time period T, then which of
(4) Twice the rotational kinetic energy the following does not change with time
05. From a circular ring of mass M and radius R, an (1) a2T2 + 42v2 (2) aT/x
arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The (3) aT / 4v (4) aT/v
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the 12. Which one of the following equations of motion
ring about an axis passing through the centre of represents simple harmonic motion
the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring (1) Acceleration = –k0x + k1x2
is k times MR2 . Then the value of k is
(2) Acceleration = –k(x + a)
(1) 3/4 (2) 7/8 (3) 1/4 (4) 1
(3) Acceleration = k(x+a)
06. The moment of inertia of a circular disc of mass
(4) Acceleration = kx
M and radius R about an axis passing through
the centre of mass is I0. The moment of inertia Where k, k0, k1 and a are all positive
of another circular disc of same mass and 13. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM with
thickness but half the density about the same frequency of 60 Hz is 0.01m. The maximum value
axis is of the acceleration of the particle is
(1) 144 2m/s2 (2) 144m/s2
I0 I
(1) (2) 0 (3) 8 I0 (4) 2I0 144
8 4 m/s 2
(3) (4) 2882m/s2
2
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14. Which one of the following statements is true for 21. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a
the speed v and the acceleration a of a particle hollow sphere containing mercury suspended by
executing simple harmonic motion means of wire. If a little mercury is drained off,
(1) When v is maximum, a is maximum the period of pendulum will
(2) Value of a is zero, whatever may be the value (1) Remains unchanged
of v (2) Increase
(3) When v is zero, a is zero (3) Decrease
(4) When v is maximum, a is zero (4) Become erratic
15. The potential energy of a simple harmonic 22. A transverse pulse is shown in the figure, on
oscillator when the particle is half way to its end which 4 points are shown at any instant. Which
point is (where E is the total energy) of the following points are in a state to move
upwards in subsequent time?
1 1 1 2
(1) E (2) E (3) E (4) E
8 4 2 3
16. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The
Potential Energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy (KE)
and Total Energy (T.E.) are measured as a function
of displacement x. Which of the following
statements is true
(1) A, B (2) A, D (3) B, C (4) B, D
(1) P.E. is maximum when x = 0
23. A rope of length L and mass M hangs freely from
(2) K.E. is maximum when x = 0 the ceiling. If the time taken by a transverse
(3) T.E. is zero when x = 0 wave to travel from the bottom to the top of the
(4) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum rope is T, then time to cover first half length is
17. If a simple pendulum of length L has maximum  2 – 1 T T
angular displacement , then the maximum (1) T (2) T  (3) (4)
 2  2 2
kinetic energy of bob of mass M is 
24. A uniform rope havi ng some mass hangs
1 Ml Mg
(1) 2 g (2) vertically from a rigid support. A transverse wave
2L pulse is produced at the lower end. The speed (u)
of the wave pulse varies with height (h) from the
 lower end as
(3) MgL(1–cos) (4) MgLsin
2
18. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of
period T and the equation of motion is given by x
= a sin (t + /6). After the elapse of what fraction
of the time period the velocity of the point will be (1) (2)
equal to half its maximum velocity

T T T T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 12 8 6
19. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of
amplitude 5 cm ha maximum speed of 31.4cm/s.
The frequency of its oscillation is (3) (4)
(1) 3 Hz (2) 2 Hz (3) 4 Hz (4) 1 Hz
20. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of
constant length at earth surface is T. Its period 25. A transverse pulse generated at the bottom of a
inside a mine is uniform rope of length L, travels in upward
(1) Greater than T direction. The time taken by it to travel the full
length of rope will be
(2) Less than T
(3) Equal to T L 2L L 4L
(4) Cannot be compared (1) (2) (3) (4)
2g g g g
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26. Which one of the following represents a wave? 33. A uniform string resonates with a tuning fork,
(1) y = A sin (t – kx) at a maximum tension of 32 N. If it is divided
into two segments by placing a wedge at a
(2) y = A cos2 (at – bx + c) + A sin2 (at – bx + c)
distance one-fourth of length from one end, then
(3) y = A sin kx to reson an ce wi th same fre qu en cy the
(4) y = A sin t maximum value of tension for string will be
27. A sinusoidal wave of frequency 500 Hz has a (1) 2N (2) 4N (3) 8N (4) 16 N
speed of 350 m/s. The phase difference between
34. A charged particle of mass m1 and charge q1 is
two displacements at a certain point at times
revolving in a circle of radius r. Another charged
1 ms apart is
particle of charge q2 and mass m2 is situated at
  3 the centre of the circle. If the velocity and time
(1) (2) (3)  (4) period of the revolving particle be  and T
4 2 2
repectively then
28. The equation of travelling wave is
q1q2r 1 q1q 2
 x (1) V  4 m (2) V  m 4 r
y = a sin 2  pt –  0 1 1 0
 5 
Then the ratio of maximum particle velocity to
160 m12r 3 160 m1r 3
wave velocity is (3) T  (4) T 
q1q 2 q1q 2
a 2a 2a
(1) (2) 2 5a (3) (4) 35. Two spheres carrying charges +6 C and +9 C,
5 5 5
separated by a distance d, experiences a force of
29. Standing waves are produced in 10 m long repulsion F. When a charge of – 3 C is given to
stretched string fixed at both ends. If the string both the sphere and kept at the same distance
vibrates in 5 segments and wave velocity is 20 as before, the new force of repulsion is
m/s, the frequency is
F F
(1) 5 Hz (2) 10 Hz (3) 2 Hz (4) 4 Hz (1) 3 F (2) (3) F (4)
9 3
30. Two waves have equations x1 = a sin (t + 1) and
x2 = a sin (t + 2). If in the resultant wave the 36. Two point charges are 3 m apart and their
frequency and amplitude remain equal to combined charge is 8 C. The force of repulsion
amplitude of superimposing waves, the phase between them is 0.012 N. Charges are
difference between them is (1) 4 C, 4 C (2) 6 C, 2 C
 2   (3) 5 C, 3 C (4) 7 C, 1 C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 3 4 3 37. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
31. The equation of a standing wave in a string fixed
at both ends is given as repulsion between the ions, the number of
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being
y = 2 A sin kx cos t the charge on an electron)
The amplitude and frequency of a particle
vibrating at the mid of an antinode and a node 40Fd2 40Fe2
are respectively (1) (2)
e2 d2
 A   
(1) A, (2) , (3) A, (4) 2A, 40Fd2
2 2
2   2 40Fd2
(3) (4)
e2 q2
32. Two waves are represented by y
y1 = 5 sin 2 (75t – 0.25x) 38. Two identical metal spheres charged with
+12 C and – 8 C are kept at certain distance in
y2 = 10 sin 2 (150t – 0.50x)
air. They are brought into contact and then kept
l1 at the same distance. The ratio of the magnitudes
The intensity ratio l of the two waves is of electrostatic forces between them before and
2
after contact is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 8 (4) 1 : 16
(1) 24 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 12 : 1 (4) 8 : 1

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39. The force of interaction between two charges q1 46. Which of the following does not give alkane with
= 6 C and q2 = 2 C is 12 N. If charge q = – 2 C is RMgX :
added to each of the charges, then the new force
(1) Ph—OH (2) Cl—NH2
of interaction is
(3) CH3COOH (4) HCl
(1) 0 N (2) 8 N (3) 10 N (4) 12 N
47. The antinock compound is :
40. Equal charges q are placed at the four corners A,
B, C, D of a square of length a, the magnitude of (1) TEL (2) Diethylzinc
the force on the charge at D will be (3) Dimethylcadmium (4) Tetramethyl in
48. What is the chief product obtained when
 1  q2  1  2 2  q2
(1) 1   (2)   n-butane is treated with bromine in the presence
 2  40a 2  2  40a 2
of light at 130°C ?
(1) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—Br
4q 2 3q 2
(3) (4) (2) CH 3—CH 2—CH—Br
40a 2 40a 2
CH3
41. Three charges 1 C, 1 C and 2 C are kept at
vertices of A, B and C of an equilateral triangle (3) CH 3—CH—CH 2—Br
ABC of side 10 cm respectively. The resultant
CH2
force on the charge at C is
(1) 0.9 N (2) 1.8 N (3) 2.72 N (4) 3.12 N CH3
42. An electron of mass m, charge e falls through a (4) CH3—C—CH2—Br
distance h meter in a uniform electric field E.
Then time of fall CH2
49. Which of the following compounds will react with
2hm 2hm
(1) t  (2) t  Na to form 4,5-diethyloctane ?
eE eE
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
2eE 2eE (2) CH3CH2CH2—CH—CH2CH2Br
(3) t  (4) t 
hm hm CH 3
43. In the uniform electric field of E = 1×104 N C–1, an
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2—CH—CH3
electron is accelerated from rest. The velocity of
the electron when it has travelled a distance of 2 Br
× 10–2 m is nearly ........ m s–1
(4) CH3CH2CH2—CH—CH2CH3
e Br
( of electron  1.8 × 1011 C kg–1)
m
50. Which of the following has the lowest boiling
(1) 1.6 × 106 (2) 0.85 × 106 point ?
(3) 0.425 × 106 (4) 8.5 × 106 (1) 2-Methylbutane
44. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is (2) 2-Methylpropane
released from rest in an uniform electric field E.
(3) 2,2-Dimethylpropane
The kinetic energy of the particle after time t is
(4) n-Pentane
E2q 2t2 2E 2t 2
(1) (2) 51. Which step is chain propagation step in the
2m mq
following mechanism ?
Eqm Eq 2m h
(3) (4) (i) Cl2   Cl  Cl
2t 2t2
45. A particle of mass 2 × 10 –5 kg and charge (ii) Cl  CH4  CH3  HCl
4 × 10–3 C moves from rest in a uniform electric
field of magnitude 5 V/m. Its kinetic energy after (iii) Cl  Cl  Cl2
10 seconds is
(iv)  CH3  Cl  CH3 Cl
(1) 2 × 103 J (2) 103 J
(3) 2 × 10–3 J (4) 102 J (1) (i) (2) (ii) (3) (iii) (4) (iv)

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52. An alkane C 6 H 14 gi ves two mono chlo ro Arrange the compounds I, II and III in decreasing
derivatives on chlorination. Its possible structure order of their heats of combustion
is : (1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
(2) CH3—CH—CH2CH2CH3 57. Pure methane can be prepared by :
CH3 (1) Wurtz reaction
(2) Kolbe electrolysis method
(3) CH3—CH—CH2CH3 (3) Soda-lime de-carboxylation
CH2CH3 (4) Reduction with H2
CH3 CH3 58. Ethane is subjected to combustion process.
During the combustion the hybrid state of carbon
(4) CH 3—CH—CH—CH 3 changes from :
53. Which of the following products is formed when (1) sp2 to sp3 (2) sp3 to sp
n-heptane is passed over (Al2O3 + Cr2O3) catalyst (3) sp to sp3 (4) sp2 to sp2
at 773 K ? 59. Arrange the following alkanes in decreasing order
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene of their heats of combustion :
(3) Polyheptane (4) Cycloheptane CH3

54. CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3
AlCl3
CH3—CH—CH3 (i) CH3—C—CH3 (ii) CH3—CH—CH 2—CH3

CH3 CH3
CH3
(Neo-pentane) (Iso-pentane)
Above reaction is an example of :
(iii) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH2  CH3
(1) isomerization (2) Polymerization npentane
(3) Cracking (4) dehydrogenation (1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
55. An alkane (mol. wt. = 86) on bromination gives
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
only two monobromo derivatives (excluding stereo-
isomers). The alkane is :
(1) CH3—CH—CH2—CH2 —CH3 60.
CH3 (I) (II) (III)
The correct order of reactivity of (I), (II) and (III)
CH3 towards addition reaction is :
(2) CH3—C—CH2—CH3 (1) I > III > II (2) I > II > III
CH3 (3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
61. Electrode potential for Mg electrode varies
(3) CH3—CH—CH—CH3 according to the equation
CH3 CH3
0.059 1
EMg2+|Mg| = EMg2+ |Mg – log .
CH3 2 Mg 2 
(4) CH3—C—CH3 The graph of EMg 2|Mg vs log [Mg2+] is
CH3

CH3—CH2 CH3—CH2 (1) (2)

56.
Ethylecyclopentane Ethyl cyclohexane
(I) (II)
CH3—CH2
(3) (4)
Ethyl cycloheptane
(III)
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62. Which of the following statement is correct? 68. Arrange LiCl, NaCl, KCl in the decreasing order
(1) ECell and rG of cell reaction both are extensive of their equivalent conductance.
properties. (1) LiCl < NaCl > KCl (2) KCl > NaCl > LiCl
(2) ECell and rG of cell reaction both are intensive (3) NaCl > KCl > LiCl (4) LiCl > KCl > NaCl
properties. 69. As the reaction progresses, the rate of reaction
(3) ECell is an intensive property while rG of cell (1) increase
reaction is an extensive property. (2) decreases
(4) ECell is an extensive property while rG of cell (3) remain constant
reaction is an intensive property. (4) first increases, then decrease
63. The difference between the electrode potentials 70. If the concentration of reactants is increased by
of two electrodes when no current is drawn ‘x’ then rate constant k becomes
through the cell is called.
k k
(1) Cell potential (1) In (2) (3) k + x (4) k
x x
(2) Cell emf 71. The minimum energy required for the reacting
(3) Potential difference molecules to undergoes reaction is :
(4) Cell voltage (1) potential energy (2) kinetic energy
64. Which of the following statement is not correct (3) thermal energy (4) activation energy
about an inert electrode in a cell? 72. The unit of rate constant of a third order chemical
(1) It does not participate in the cell reaction. reaction is :
(2) It provides surface either for oxidation or for (1) mol–1 L s–1 (2) mol–1 s–2
reduction reaction. (3) mol L (4) s–1 mol–2 L2
(3) It provides surface for conduction of electrons. 73. The half-life period for first order reaction A 
product, is 100 min. How long will it take in 80%
(4) It provides surface for redox reaction.
completion?
65. An electrochemical cell can behave like an
(1) 80 min (2) 232 min
electrolytic cell when ____________.
(3) 100 min (4) 200 min
(1) Ecell = 0
74. The temperature coefficient of most of the
(2) Ecell > Eext reactions lies between:
(3) Eext > Ecell (1) 1 and 3 (2) 2 and 3
(4) Ecell = Eext (3) 1 and 4 (4) 2 and 4
66. Which of the statements about solutions of 75. If the reaction rate at a given temperature
electrolytes is not correct? becomes slower then :
(1) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of (1) the free energy of activation is higher
ions. (2) the free energy of activation is lower
(2) Conductivity depends upon viscosity of (3) the entropy changes
solution. (4) the initial concentration of the reactants
(3) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation remains constant
of ions present in solution. 76. All the s-block elements of the periodic table are
(4) Conductivity of solution increases with placed in the groups:
temperature. (1) IA and IIA (2) IIIA and IVA
67. Using the data given below find out the strongest (3) B sub groups (4) VA to VIIA
reducing agent. 77. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
ECr2 O2– /Cr3+ = 1.33V ECl2 /Cl – = 1.36V (1) Cesium is the most electropositive element
7
while F is the most electronegative element
EMnO–4 /Mn2+ = 1.51V ECr3+/Cr = –0.74V (2) Cl has the highest –ve electron gain enthalpy
(1) Cl– out of all the elements
(2) Cr (3) Electron gain enthalpy of N as well as that of
noble gases is positive
(3) Cr3+
(4) In any period, the atomic radius of the noble
(4) Mn2+ gas is lowest
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78. An element X belongs to fourth period and 85. The negative and positive ions are stabilized by :
fifteenth group of the periodic table. Which one of (1) Electrostatic attraction
the following is true regarding the outer electronic
configuration of X? It has (2) Vanderwaals forces
(1) Partially filled d orbitals and completely filled (3) Covalent bond
s orbitals (4) None of the above
(2) Completely filled s-orbital and completely filled 86. The total number of electrons required for writing
p-orbitals the Lewis dot structures are obtained by :
(3) Completely filled s-orbital and half-filled p- (1) adding the valence e – of combining atoms
orbitals
(2) adding the e – of combining atoms.
(4) Half-filled d-orbitals and completely filled s-
orbitals (3) taking the average of e – of combining atoms.
79. On moving from left to right across a period in (4) none of the above
the table the metallic character 87. The lowest energy Lewis structure has :
(1) Increases (1) The maximum formal charge
(2) Decreases (2) The least formal charge
(3) Remains constant (3) Formal charge is idenpendent of energy
(4) First increases and then decreases (4) None of the above
80. The elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54
88. The Octet rule is not applicable to which of these?
and 86 are all
(1) CO (2) N2
(1) Light metals (2) Inert gases
(3) Halogens (4) Rare-earths (3) BCl3 (4) O3
81. An elements has electronic configuration 89. The ionization of atoms is an :
1s22s22p63s23p4. Predict their period, group and (1) Exothermic process
block (2) Endothermic process
(1) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 16
(3) Either exothermic or endothermic process
(2) Period = 5th, block = s, group = 1
(4) No heat change process
(3) Period = 3rd, block = p, group = 10
90. How is the electron pairs arranged in CH 4
(4) Period = 4th, block = d, group = 12 molecule and SF4 molecule respectively?
82. The element having the electronic configuration
(1) Trigonal planar and tetrahedral
1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p1 is
(2) Tetrahedral and trigonal bipyramidal
(1) A transition element
(2) A representative element (3) Tetrahedral and tetrahedral
(3) An inert gas (4) Tetrahedral and octahedral
(4) An inner-transition element 91. What temperature is maintained by scrotum to
83. Of the following pairs, the one containing example testes necessary for spermatogenesis ?
of metalloid elements in the periodic table is (1) 2-2.5°C lower than internal body temperature
(1) Sodium and potassium (2) 2-2.5°F lower than internal body temperature
(2) Fluorine and chlorine (3) 2-2.5°F higher than internal body temperature
(3) Calcium and magnesium (4) 2-2.5°C higher than internal body temperature
(4) Boron and silicon 92 Wh ich of the follo win g is correct abo ut
84. Which of these theories postulated that atoms mammalian testes ?
achieve the stable octet where they are linked (1) Graffian follicles, sertoli cells, leydig cells
by chemical bonds?
(2) Graffian follicles, sertoli cells, seminiferous
(1) Valence Bond Theory
tubules
(2) Molecular Orbital Theory
(3) Graffian follicles, leydig cell, seminiferous
(3) Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Theory tubules
(4) Kossel-Lewis Theory (4) Sertoli cells, seminiferous tubules, leydig cells

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93. LH surge occurs during which phase of the Option
menstrual cycle ? (1) A—5, B—2, C—4, D—1, E—3
(1) Menstrual phase (2) A—1, B—3, C—2, D—5, E—4
(2) At the beginning of proliferative phase (3) A—3, B—2, C—5, D—4, E—1
(3) Just before the end of the proliferative phase (4) A—1, B—2, C—3, D—4, E—5
(4) At the middle of the cycle 100. The fleshy folds of tissue which extend down from
94. In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the ovulation the mons pubis is :
takes place typically on : (1) Labia minora (2) Hymen
(1) day 1 of the cycle (2) day 5 of the cycle (3) Labia majora (4) Myometrium
(3) day 14 of the cycle (4) day 28 of the cycle 101. The chemical substances released by activated
spermatazoa that acts on the ground substance
95. The phase of menstrual cycle in human that last
of follicle cells is known as :
for 7-8 days
(1) progesterone (2) Relaxin
(1) follicular phase (2) ovulatory phase
(3) Hyaluronidase (4) Gonadotropin
(3) luteal phase (4) menstrual
102. Match list I and List II and choose the correct
96. Which of the following exhibits strong contraction answer.
during delivery of the baby ?
List-I List-II
(1) Perimetrium (2) Endometrium
A. Hypothalamus 1. Sperm lysins
(3) Myometrium (4) All of these
B. Acrosome 2. Estrogen
97. Proliferation of endometrium of uterus is C. Graffian follicle 3. Oxytocin
controlled by
D. Leydig cells 4. GnRH
(1) Relaxin (2) Oxytocin
E. Parturition 5. Testosterone
(3) Progesterone (4) Estrogen
Option :
98. Choose the correct combination of labelling the
(1) A—4, B—1, C—2, D—3, E—5
hormonal control of female reproductive system.
(2) A—2, B—1, C—4, D—3, E—5
Hypothalamus
(3) A—2, B—1, C—5, D—4, E—3
(4) A—4, B—1, C—2, D—5, E—3
A
103. Which of the following is a finger like structure?
Positive Anterior pituitary Negative (1) Mons pubis (2) Hymen
feedback feedback
(3) Labia minora (4) clitoris
B
(a)
Ovary (d)
C
104.
D
(c)
(1) A—GnRH, B—TSH, C—LTH, D—uterus
(b)
(2) A—G nRH, B—LH/FS H, C—Estroge n/
Progesterone, D—Uterus (a) (b) (c) (d)
Mature
(3) A—GnRH, B—STH, C—LH, D—Uterus Secondary Corpus Primary
1 Graffian
(4) A—GnRH, B—ACTH, C—LH, D—Uterus follicle albicans oocyte
follicle
99. Match the following with correct combination. Mature
Primary Secondary Corpus
A. Hyaluronidase 1. Acrosomal reaction 2 graffian
follicle oocyte luteum
B. Corpus luteum 2. Morphogenic follicle
movement Primary Corpus Secondary Tertiary
3
C. Gastrulation 3. Progesterone follicle albicans oocyte follicle
D. Capacitation 4. Mammary gland Mature
Primary Corpus Secondary
4 graffian
E. Colostrum 5. Sperm activation follicle luteum oocyte
follicle
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105. Caput epididymis is a narrow tubule present on (2) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal
the inner side of testis. It is present in between rhythm of sleepwake cycle.
(1) rete testis and vasa efferentia (3) Progesterone - corpus luteum, stimulation of
(2) cauda epididymis and vas deferens growth and activities of female secondary sex
organs.
(3) vasa efferentia and corpus epididymis
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall,
(4) Vasa efferentia and rete testis increases the blood pressure.
106. The blood calcium level is lowered by the 112. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of :
deficiency of :
(1) the parathyroid glands, leading to increased
(1) both calcitonin and parathormone metabolic rate
(2) calcitonin (2) the kidney, leading to suppression of
(3) parathormone renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(4) thyroxine (3) the adrenal medulla, leading to increased
107. A health disorder that results from the deficiency secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
of thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) a (4) the pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood
low metabolic rate, (ii) increase in body weight sugar levels.
and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is : 113. Which one of the following hormones is not
(1) simple goitre (2) myxoedema involved in sugar metabolism ?
(3) cretinism (4) hyperthyroidism (1) Insulin
108. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of: (2) Glucagon
(1) tetany (2) anaemia (3) Cortisone
(3) angina pectoris (4) gout (4) Aldosterone
109. The 24 hours (diurnal) rhythm of our body such 114. Which one of the following hormones though
as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by
hormone : the master gland ?
(1) calcitonin (2) prolactin (1) Prolactin
(3) adrenaline (4) melatonin (2) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
110. Select the answer which correctly matches the (3) Antidiuretic hormone
endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and (4) Luteinsing hormone
its function/deficiency symptom.
115. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not
Endocrine Hormone Function/ antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each
gland Deficiency other ?
symptoms (1) Aldosterone Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(1) Thyroid Thyroxine Lack of iodine in (2) Relaxin Inhibin
gland diet results in goitre (3) Parathormone Calcitonin
(2) Corpus Testosterone Stimulates (4) Insulin Glucagon
luteum spermatogenesis 116. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’
endocrine gland because :
(3) Anterior Oxytoxin Stimulates uterus
(1) it is provided with a duct
pituitary contraction during
(2) it only stores and releases hormones
child birth
(3) it is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(4) Posterior Growth Oversecretion
(4) it secretes enzymes.
pituitary Hormone stimulates
117. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body
(GH) abnormal growth
is :
111. Identify the hormone with its correct matching
(1) corpus cardiacum
of source and function.
(2) corpus luteum
(1) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and
maintenance of mammary glands. (3) corpus allatum
(4) pineal gland
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118. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in 124. Fo llow ings subphyl a often refe rred to as
reproduction, acts on : protochordates-
(1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates (1) Tunicata and Vertebrata
secretion of LH and FSH (2) Cephalochordata and Vertebrata.
(2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates (3) Urochordata and Cephalochordata
secretion of oxytocin and FSH
(4) Urochordata and Hemichordata
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and relaxin 125. Incorrect match is-
(1) Pila— (Apple snail)
(4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and oxytocin. (2) Octopus— (Devil fish)
119. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does (3) Dentalium— (Tusk shell)
not cause further increase in height, because : (4) Echinus—— (Sea Lily)
(1) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence 126. ’Portuguese man-of-war’ is the name of-
(2) bones loose their sensitivity to growth (1) Fasciola (2) Physalia
hormone in adults
(3) Aplysia (4) Sycon
(3) muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
127. Select the incorrect statements-
(4) growth hormone becomes inactive in adults.
(1) Aptenodytes are oviparous and development
120. Choose the incorrect match of animals and thier
is direct.
level of organisation
(2) Macropus has milk producing glands
(1) Sponges—cellular
(3) Ornithorhynchus is viviparous
(2) Adamsia—-tissue
(4) Salamanders are poikilothermous
(3) Pleurobrachia—organ
128. All are amphibians EXCEPT-
(4) Aplysia—organ system
(1) Bufo (2) Rana (3) Hyla (4) Betta
121. The digestive system in Platyhelminthes has
129. Chondrichthyes & Osteichthyes categorised
(1) a single opening to the outside of the body that
under a ‘division’ of-
serves as both mouth and anus
(1) Agnatha
(2) incomplete two opening to the outside of the
body that have one mouth and one anus (2) Gnathostomata
(3) complete digestive system has two openings, (3) Tetrapoda
mouth and anus (4) Pisces
(4) absence of digestive system and there is no 130. One of the following characters of chordates is
differentiation (1) Ganglionated nerve cord
122. Select the correct match- (2) Paired nerve cord
Column I Column II (3) Solid ventral nerve cord
(A) Mollusca (i) Cuttlefish (4) Dorsal hallow nerve cord
(B) Echinodermata (ii) Antedon 131. Vertebral column is derived from
(C) Chordata (iii) Ascidia (1) Notochord
(D) Annelida (iv)Nereis (2) Dorsal nerve chord
(1) A-iii,B-ii,C-iv,D-i (3) Ventral nerve chord
(2) A-iv,B-i,C-iii,D-ii (4) Outgrowth of cranivum
(3) A-i,B-iii,C-ii,D-iv 132. Which one of the following structure is present
(4) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv in all adult vertebrates?
123. The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for (1) Notochord
feeding, called radula is seen in (2) Dorsal tubular nerve chord
(1) arthropods (2) molluscs (3) Pharyngeal gill slits
(3) echinoderms (4) hemichordates (4) Renal portal system

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133. Which of the following is a chordate feature, not 142. Anther of flowering plant is :
shared by the non-chordates? (1) Bilobed (2) Tetrasporangiate
(1) Triploblastic body (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of the above
(2) True coelom 143. Attachment between placenta and integumented
(3) Bilateral symmetry megasporangium is by the help of stalk called :
(4) Notochord (1) Hilum (2) Micropyle
134. Which among them is a characteristi c of (3) Chalaza (4) Funicle
chordata? 144. Function of suspensor of embryo is :
(1) Dorsal heart (1) Absorption of nourishment
(2) Gut is dorsal to nerve cord (2) Push the embryo into nutritive endopserm
(3) Central nervous system is solid region
(4) Post anal part (tail) is present (3) Formation of secondary embryos
135. The correct classification of Ascidia (4) All of the above
(1) Chordata  Protochordata  Vertebrata 145. Hydrophily is seen in :
(2) Chordata  Protochordata  Cephalochordata (1) Water lily (2) Water Hyacinth
(3) Chordata  Cephalochordata  Vertebrata (3) Hydrilla (4) All of the above
146. Study of pollen grains is :
(4) Chordata  Protochordata  Urochordata
(1) Palynology (2) Palaentology
136. The formation of gametophyte from sporophyte
without meiosis is called : (3) Paleobotany (4) None of the above
(1) Apospory (2) Apogamy 147. Match the following :
(3) Agametospermy (4) None of the above (i) Cleistogamy (a) Insect pollination
137. An anther having four microsporocytes shall (ii) Geitonogamy (b) Bud pollination
produce ____ pollen grains : (iii) Entomophily (c) Pollination between
di fferent flo wer on
(1) 24 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 16
same plant
138. In a type of apomixis called adventive embryony,
(iv)Xenogamy (d) Wind pollination
embryos develop directly from :
(e) Cross pollination
(1) Nucellus or Integuments
(1) (i-a); (ii-e); (iii-b); (iv-c)
(2) Synergids or antipodals
(2) (i-b); (ii-c); (iii-a); (iv-e)
(3) Accessory embro sac
(3) (i-a); (ii-b); (iii-c); (iv-d)
(4) Zygote
(4) (i-b); (ii-c); (iii-d); (iv-e)
139. Pollination occurs when a pollen grain :
148. Which is not a false fruit :
(1) Matures and has three nuclei
(1) Strawberry (2) Apple
(2) Lands on a stigma
(3) Mango (4) Pear
(3) Releases its sperm nuclei
149. A non-nutritive structure is :
(4) Releases its pollen tube nucleus
(1) Tepetum (2) Integument
140. Genetically identical progeny is produced when (3) Endosperm (4) Palisade parenchyma
an individual :
150. Route used by pollen tube for entering ovule.
(1) Practices self-fertilization
(1) Integument (2) Micropyle
(2) Produces identical gametes
(3) Chalaza (4) None of the above
(3) Practices reproduction
151. Asexual reproduction occurs in :
(4) Practices breeding without mitosis
(1) Animals (2) Plants
141. Progeny produced as a result of cross pollination: (3) Prokaryotes (4) All of these
(1) Is sterile 152. Select the incorrect match :
(2) Has recessive character (1) Sponge — Gemmule
(3) Is homozygous (2) Potato — Tuber
(4) Sho ws h igh degree o f variability & is (3) Water hyacinth — Offset
evolutionary important
(4) Yeast — Bulb
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153. Read the following statements : A B C D
(i) Eichhornia contributes extra oxygen to the Leaf buds Penicillum
(1) Offset of of
Bulbil of
with
water bodies which reduces the mortality of Eichhornia Agave
fishes Bryophyllum conidia
(ii) Ginger propagates vegetatively by tap roots Offset of Penicillium
(2) Bulbil of Eichhornia Bulbil of with
(iii) Fleshy buds which take part in vegetative Agave Agave
conidia
propagation are called bulbils, e.g., Agave Bulbil of Penicillium
(3) Leaf buds of Offset of
(iv) A potato tuber having atleast one eye, i.e., Bryophyllum
Agave with
Eichhornia
axillary bud can form a new plant conidia
Leaf buds Penicillium
(v) Bryophyllum possess leaf buds (4) Offsetof of with
Bulbil of
Eichhornia Agave
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? Bryophyllum conidia
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 156. In lower organisms like algae and fungi a shift
(2) (iii), (iv) and (v) from asexual reproduction to sexual reproduction
occurs before the onset of adverse condition. This
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
is to :
(4) (ii) only
(1) Create genetic uniformity
154. What is true for the structure marked X in the
(2) Decrease the survival rate of offsprings
diagram given below ?
(3) Lower down the vigour and vitality of offsprings
(4) Create genetic variability in the future
offsprings for better adaptibility in the
adverse conditions
157. Which of the following correctly depicts the
natural and artificial method of vegetative
propagation ?
(1) X represents the eyes Natural Method Artificial Method
(2) X represents the axillary buds (1) Bulb Root cutting
(3) X represents the terminal bud (2) Rhizome Tuber
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Layering Bulbil
155. Identify correctly : A, B, C and D : (4) Tissue culture Offset
158. The vegetative propagation means :
(1) Asexual reproduction in lower group of
animals
(2) Sexual reproduction in higher group of animals
(3) Asexual reproduction in plants
(4) Sexual reproduction in plants
159. Which of the following is not used for vegetative
propagation ?
(1) Bud and bulb
(2) Bulb and bulbil
(3) Archegonium and antherozoid
(4) Turion and leaves
160. Choose the option which shows two plants in
which new plantlets arise from the same organ
during vegetative propagation ?
(1) Solanum tuberosum and Sugarcane
(2) Rose and Dahlia
(3) Potato and sweet potato
(4) Ginger and sweet potato
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161. Which of the following gives rise to clones of 166. In a certain taxon on insects some have 17
bacteria ? chromosomes and the oth er h ave 18
(1) Conjugation chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome-
bearing organisms are:
(2) Transduction
(1) Males and females, respectively
(3) Transformation
(2) Females and males, respectively
(4) Binary fission
(3) All males
162. Sexual reproduction results in offsprings that are
not identical to the parents or among themselves (4) All females
because : 167. Identity the disease shown by the figure:
(1) They are created as a result of fusion of male
and female gametes
(2) The offsprings are affected by the external
environment
(3) The offsprings are affected by the internal
physiology of one of the parents
(4) None of the above
163. The period of growth in plants before attaining
the sexual maturity is called :
(1) Juvenile phase
(2) Vegetative phase
(3) Gametic phase
(4) Both (1) and (2)
164. Read the following statements : A B
(i) The vegetative phase is of same duration in (Tall stature (Short stature and
different organisms
with feminised underdeveloped
(ii) Clear-cut vegetative, reproductive and
character) feminine character)
se nescent phases can be o bserved in
annual plants A B
(i ii) Bambusa differs from Strobil anth us (1) Down’s syndrome Turner’s Syndrome
Kunthiana (Neela kuranji) in the length of (2) Klinefelter’s syndrome Turner’s syndrome
juvenile phase and being monocarpic (3) Muscular dystrophy Klinefelter’s syndrome
(iv) The end of juvenile/vegetative phase in (4) Turner’s syndrome Down’s syndrome
angiosperms is seen when they come to
flower 168. Identify the figure shown in figure:
(v) Sexual mode of reproduction is present in
most animals
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii)
165. A clear cu t ve getative , re producti ve and
senescent phase can’t be observed in :
(1) Annual plants
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(2) Biennial plants
(2) Down’s syndrome
(3) Monocarpic plants (
(3) Turner’s syndrome
4) Perennial plants
(4) Phenylketonuria

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169. Rudimentary ovary and lack of secondary sexual (4) Presence of addition copy of chromosome
characters are symptoms of number 17
(1) Down syndrome 174. Aneuploidy is
(2) Phenylketonuria (1) Increase in whole number of chromosome
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome (2) Failure of cytokinesis after teleophase stage
(4) Turner’s syndrome (3) Gain of loss of chromosome
170. Match the column (4) Any of these
A. Monoploidy (i) 2n – 1 175. Polyploidy is
B. Monosomy (ii) 2n + 1 (1) Increase in whole set of chromosome
C. Nullisomy (iii) 2n + 2 (2) Failure of cytokinesis after telephase stage
D. Trisomy (iv) 2n – 2 (3) Gain or loss of chromosome
E. Tetrasomy (v) n (4) Both (1) and (2)
(vi) 3n 176. Point mutation involves
(1) Deletion
(1) A-(v), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(iii) (2) Insertion
(2) A-(v), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(iii) (3) Duplication
(3) A-(vi), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(ii) (4) Change in single base pair
(4) A-(i), B-(v), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(iv) 177. Colchicine interferes with:
171. Hetrozygous purple flower is crossed with (1) Chromosome replication
recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio (2) Incorporation of nitrogen bases
(1) All purple (3) Chromosome condensation
(2) All white (4) Organisation of spindle
(3) 50% purple and 50% white 178. Female heterogamy is shown by
(4) 75% purple and 25% white (1) Grasshopper (2) Drosophila
172. The crossing of an organism with a double (3) Birds (4) Human beings
(homozygous) recessive in order to to determine
whether it is homozygous or heterzygous for a 179. Grasshopper in is an example of XO type of sex
character under consideration is known as determination in which the male have

(1) Back cross (2) Test cross (1) One X chromosome

(3) Reciprocal cross (4) Dihybrid cross (2) One Y chromosome

173. Down syndrome is (3) Two X chromosome

(1) Failure of cytokinesis of chromosome (4) Non X-chromosome

(2) Failure of telephase 180. One barr body is found in man of genotype:

(3) Presence of addition copy of chromosome (1) XXY (2) XXXY (3) XY (4) XX
number 21

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 WEEKLY TEST FOR TARGET (MED.) (BATCH - 1) SESSION - 2021-22
DATE: 29.12.2021, Answer Key
01. (4) 24. (1) 47. (1) 70. (4) 93. (4) 115. (2) 137. (4) 159. (3)
02. (4) 25. (4) 48. (2) 71. (4) 94. (3) 116. (2) 138. (1) 160. (1)
03. (4) 26. (1) 49. (4) 72. (4) 95. (1) 117. (2) 139. (2) 161. (4)
04. (4) 27. (3) 50. (2) 73. (2) 96. (3) 118. (1) 140. (2) 162. (1)
05. (1) 28. (3) 51. (2) 74. (2) 97. (4) 119. (1) 141. (4) 163. (4)
06. (4) 29. (1) 52. (4) 75. (1) 98. (2) 120. (3) 142. (3) 164. (1)
07. (2) 30. (2) 53. (2) 76. (1) 99. (2) 121. (4) 143. (4) 165. (4)
08. (4) 31. (4) 54. (1) 77. (4) 100. (3) 122. (4) 144. (2) 166. (1)
09. (4) 32. (4) 55. (3) 78. (3) 101. (3) 123. (2) 145. (3) 167. (2)
10. (1) 33. (1) 56. (3) 79. (2) 102. (4) 124. (3) 146. (1) 168. (2)
11. (2) 34. (4) 57. (3) 80. (2) 103. (4) 125. (4) 147. (2) 169. (4)
12. (2) 35. (4) 58. (2) 81. (1) 104. (4) 126. (2) 148. (3) 170. (1)
13. (1) 36. (2) 59. (3) 82. (2) 105. (3) 127. (3) 149. (2) 171. (3)
14. (4) 37. (3) 60. (2) 83. (4) 106. (3) 128. (4) 150. (2) 172. (2)
15. (2) 38. (1) 61. (2) 84. (4) 107. (2) 129. (2) 151. (4) 173. (3)
16. (2) 39. (1) 62. (3) 85. (1) 108. (1) 130. (4) 152. (4) 174. (3)
17. (3) 40. (2) 63. (2) 86. (1) 109. (4) 131. (1) 153. (2) 175. (4)
18. (2) 41. (4) 64. (4) 87. (2) 110. (1) 132. (2) 154. (4) 176. (4)
19. (4) 42. (1) 65. (3) 88. (3) 111. (2) 133. (4) 155. (1) 177. (4)
20. (1) 43. (4) 66. (3) 89. (2) 112. (3) 134. (4) 156. (4) 178. (3)
21. (2) 44. (1) 67. (2) 90. (2) 113. (4) 135. (4) 157. (1) 179. (1)
22. (3) 45. (2) 68. (2) 91. (1) 114. (3) 136. (1) 158. (3) 180. (1)
23. (3) 46. (2) 69. (2) 92. (4)

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Budha Colony, Patna - 1 Lalpur, Circular Road, Ranchi
Help Line : 9334594165/66/67 Help Line : 7564900041/ 42/ 43
Classroom & Test Centre Classroom & Test Centre

RANCHI
HINOO
4th Floor, Mahavir Complex,
Opp. Indira Palace, Main Road
PATNA Hinoo, Ranchi
KANKARBAGH Help Line : 7564900041/ 42/ 43
Tilak Nagar Road, Classroom & Test Centre
Opposite Rajendra Nagar Terminal,
Near Sahaj Nursing Home, Munna Chowk
Help Line : 9608360780 DHANBAD
Classroom & Test Centre OFFICE
Housing Colony, Bartand,
Dhanbad, Jharkhand
Help Line : 9334098595, 9308057050

PATNA
ACHIEVERS CAMPUS DHANBAD
CLASSROOM
Vivek Vihar Colony, Gola Road
GOAL Empire, Memko More,
Help Line : 7564900244 Dhaiya
Classroom & Test Centre Help Line
9334098595, 9308057050

BHILAI
Shop No. 166, New Civic Centre
139, Zonal Market, Sector 10
PATNA Help Line
GOLA ROAD 07884013502, 09826943595
Near St. Karen’s High School
Help Line: 7564902125 RAIPUR
Classroom & Test Centre Beside Vidya Hospital,
Shankar Nagar
Help Line
07714060711, 07415884100

PATNA DELHI
GOAL EDUCATION VILLAGE Shop No. 2, B-4,
Painal, Patna Upper Ground Floor,
Classroom & Test Centre Kalkaji, New Delhi - 110019,
with residential facility. Help Line: 7564900045

GOAL CORPORATE OFFICE HELP LINE

GOAL Building, B/58, Budha Colony, 9334594165/66/67
Patna - 1, Bihar (INDIA) www.goalinstitute.org

SEPARATE BATCH
LIBRARY HOSTEL TRANSPORT FOR BOYS & GIRLS