READING E11 ONLY KEYS

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Pollution is the primary way in which humans have caused drastic changes of wildlife habitats.
Nature and wildlife populations are confronted with a bewildering array of pollutants that we intentionally
or by accident release into the environment. On the global scale, this is evident in the melting of the ice-
caps, both at the poles and in mountain tops, and also in global warming with the release of greenhouse
gases into the atmosphere.

After World War II, the use of synthetic chemicals to control insect pests, weed and fungi became
an integral part of agriculture. The Nobel Prize for medicine was awarded to Paul Mueller, a Swiss chemist,
for discovering the insecticidal properties of DDT. By 1964, scientists were already discovering the
disastrous side effects DDT, which led to the ban of the use of DDT in the 1970s because of its
unacceptable side-effects on wildlife, humans and the food chain.

Modern society heavily relies much on the use of fossil fuels. Because of this, massive quantities of
oil are transported around the globe each year. An inescapable consequence of this is the accidental
spillage of oil at the point of extraction or in transit. When a spill occurs, the most obvious effect on wildlife
is that animal furs and bird feathers get covered with oil which naturally has high concentrations of toxic
components. These can easily lead to the extinction of species.

For the orderly existence of humans, disorder has to happen in the lives of other creatures of the
world and to the world itself. The total destruction of wildlife habitats, human encroachment into existing
habitats, and alteration in climatic balance can directly be related to the existential needs of humans. It
may be impossible to stop this effect. At best, it can be mitigated. (296 words)

(adapted from http://www.englishdaily626.com?

reading_comprehension)

Question 36: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. DDT produced appropriate side-effects in man, wildlife and the food chain.
B. Man intentionally or accidentally release pollutants into the environment.
C. Fossil fuels contribute to the resistance to illness and concentrations of species.
D. The destruction of wildlife habitats does not affect human needs.

Question 37: From paragraph 1, what are the two negative effects of pollution?
A. Pollutants and changes of wildlife habitats.
B. Nature and wildlife populations.
C. The poles and mountain tops.
D. The melting of ice-caps and the release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

Question 38: When there is the spillage of oil, ______.

A. it covers animal furs and bird feathers B. massive quantities of oil are transported
C. it causes no consequence D. it has no effect on the extinction of species

Question 39: From paragraph 3, why was the Swedish scientist Paul Mueller awarded the Nobel Prize ?
A. He controled insect pests. B. He discovered the disastrous side effects DDT.
C. He discovered the insecticidal properties of DDT. D. He banned of the use of DDT.

Question 40: The word “drastic” in paragraph 1 probably means ______

A. dramatic B. severe C. moderate D. suitable

Question 41: The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. massive quantities of oil B. Modern society C. the use of fossil fuels D. the globe

Question 42: According to the passage, where do spills occur?

A. At the point of extraction or in transit. B. Around the globe.
C. At the poles. D. In mountain tops.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correctanswer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past
two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest
known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological
diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in
these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all
ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of
Earth's ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the
most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans
are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff
of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on
Earth, they have unraveled cons of evolution and irrevocably redirected its course.

Certainly, there have been periods in Earth's history when mass extinctions have occurred. The
extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also
been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme
conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it
was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.

However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is
altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide
agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves,
that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and
chemical changes have occurred on it, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic
adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species
that may be able to survive in new environments.
(Adapted from Be a master TOEFL by Bank Soal & Strategi)
Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss? (VD)
A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs
B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests
C. The impact of human activities on Earth's ecosystems
D. The time required for species to adapt to new environments

Question 44: The word "critical" in line 1 is closest in meaning to ______ (NB)
A. negative B. essential C. interesting D. complicated

Question 45: The word "jolting" in line 5 is closest in meaning to ______ (VD)
A. predicted B. shocking C. unknown D. illuminating
Question 46: The author mentions the reduction of the variety of species on Earth to suggest that
______. (VDC)
A. new habitats can be created for species
B. humans are often made ill by polluted water
C. some species have been made extinct by human activity
D. an understanding of evolution can prevent certain species from disappearing

Question 47: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the
world's ecosystems EXCEPT ______ . (TH)
A. destruction of the tropical rain forests
B. habitat destruction in wetlands
C. damage to marine ecosystems
D. the introduction of new varieties of plant species

Question 48: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the second paragraph to emphasize
that ______ . (VD)
A. the cause of the dinosaurs' extinction is unknown
B. Earth's climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs' extinction
C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity
D. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species' extinction

Question 49: The word “it” in the first paragraph refers to ______ (TH)
A. tropical rain forest B. species extinction C. ecosystem D. the human population

Question 50: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? (VD)
A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy.
B. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress.
 C. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems.
D. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the question from 43 to 50
Otters are semi-aquatic mammals. They live on land, but they enjoy spending a great deal of time in the
water. There are thirteen species of otters. They are found mostly in North and South America, Europe,
and Asia. An otter has a long body, a short snout, and a long tail. Its four legs are fairly short, and it has
webbed feet. Its webbed feet are what enable an otter to swim so well. An otter’s fur is either brown or
gray in color, and the fur around its face is much lighter than the fur around the rest of its body.
Otters reach maturity fairly quickly and begin to mate when they are two years of age. Female otters can
give birth to a litter of one to five babies every year. Otters build dens, which are typically holes in the
ground and are located near some source of water. These dens are where female otters give birth to their
babies.
When they are first born, otters are dependent on their mothers. But they grow rapidly and learn how to
swim when they are only two months old. This is about the same amount of time their fur coats need to
grow completely. Otters are natural swimmers, so it does not take much effort for them to learn to swim.
Despite swimming well, the babies stay with their mothers until they are about a year old. Then, once they
become able to hunt for themselves, they set off to live their own lives. Most otters can survive in the wild
for between ten and fifteen years.
Otters are predatory carnivores that consume fish and crustaceans. They have also been known to eat
reptiles, amphibians, and birds even though those are not their first choices. But they are efficient hunters
that rarely starve due to their ability to catch a wide range of prey.
While otters are predators, they are also prey animals. Wolves, large snakes, alligators, and crocodiles
hunt them when they are on land or in shallow water. Further out at sea, killer whales frequently hunt
them. Humans, who desire otters for their pelts, hunt otters, too. In fact, human hunters have taken a
toll on otter populations in places around the world. While some people hunt otters, many more simply
enjoy watching them. Otters are some of the most playful animals on the planet. They seem to have a zest
for life when they swim and play on land. (412 words)
(Source: “Perfect TOEFL Junior” – Practice Test – Book 2, Darakwon TOEFL Junior Research Team)
Question 43: What is the best title for this passage? (Vận dụng cao)
A. All about Otters B. What Does an Otter Look Like?
C. Otters: Nature’s Playful Animals D. Endangered Otters
Question 44: Why does the author mention North and South America, Europe, and Asia? (Vận dụng)
A. To claim that otters are endangered there B. To say that few otters live in those places
today
C. To point out where most otters live D. To note where otters first evolved
Question 45: According to the passage, all of the following are physical characteristics of otters EXCEPT
______. (Vận dụng)
A. their fur is colored either gray or brown B. they have four legs that are short
C. they have tails that are long D. only their front two feet are webbed

Question 46: Which of the following statements does paragraph 2 support? (Hiểu)
A. Female otters give birth to five babies every year. B. Otter couples stay together their entire
lives.
C. Otters build their dens in holes underwater. D. Otters can give birth when they are two
years old.
Question 47: In paragraph 3, the phrase “dependent upon” is closest in meaning to ______. (Vận
dụng)
A. suspicious of B. attached to C. reliant on D. aware of
Question 48: What can be inferred from the article about baby otters? (Vận dụng cao)
A. They cannot eat meat in their first year of life. B. Hunting is harder for them than
swimming.
C. Their fur coats keep them warm in cold water. D. Some of them are very poor swimmers.
Question 49: In paragraph 4, the word “those” refers to ______. (Hiểu)
A. otters B. predatory carnivores
C. fish and crustaceans D. reptiles, amphibians and birds
Question 50: What does the author point out by writing that human hunters “have taken a toll on
otter populations” in paragraph 5? (Vận dụng cao)
 A. Humans are trying to protect otters. B. Humans should stop hunting otters.
C. Humans have reduced the number of otters. D. Humans ought to help save more
otters.
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50:
In 776 B.C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to honor the Greeks’ chief
god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle
caused the Greeks to create competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but
later the games were open to all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized
physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in running, jumping, discus
and javelin throwing, boxing, and horse and chariot racing were held in individual Cities, and the winners
competed every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths
placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held as
games of friendship, and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also
helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities represented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles
called “Olympiads”, dating from 776 B.C. The contests coincided with religious festivities and constituted
an all-out effort on the part of the participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were
dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves, but also to the
cities they represented.

(Source: NEW CLIFFS - TOEFL)

Question 43: What is the main idea of this passage? (VDC)

A. The Greeks severely punished those who did not participate in physical fitness programs.
B. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks.
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they could go back to war.
Question 44: Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the Olympics?
(Hiểu)
A. They must have completed military service.
B. They have to attend special training sessions.
C. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record.
D. They had to be very religious.
Question 45: The word “deeds” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. (VDC)
A. accomplishments B. documents C. ancestors D. properties
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? (VD)
A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
B. The games were held in Greece every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poems glorified the winners in song.
Question 47: The word “halted” in the first paragraph means most nearly the same as ______. (VD)
A. encouraged B. stopped C. started D. fixed
Question 48: The word “they” in the second paragraph refers to ______. (Hiểu)
A. the games B. the Greeks C. competitors D. cities
Question 49: What is an "Olympiad"? (VD)
A. The time it took to finish the games B. The time it took to finish a war
 C. The time it took the athletes to train D. The time between games
Question 50: What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks? (VDC)
A. They were pacifists.
B. They were very simple.
C. They believed athletic events were important.
D. They couldn't count, so they used "Olympiads" for dates.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In
January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot.
The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a body length of twenty-two to twenty-four
inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He
bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb
and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast,
after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner
drum.
Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the
deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined
with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. even to
occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark
and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground.
The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and
spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold.
It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds
feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for
food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the
season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry
family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds
weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own.
(Source: TOEFL Reading Comprehension)
Question 43: What is the topic of this passage?
A. Mating rituals of great horned owls B. Raising a family of great horned owls
C. Nest building of great horned owls D. Habits of young great horned owls
Question 44: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT ______.
A. other small birds B. small mammals C. nuts and seeds D. insects
Question 45: In line 2, the phrase "a resonant hoot" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. an instrument B. an offering of food C. a movement D. a sound
Question 46: What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned
owls?
A. They are sorry to see their young leave home.
B. They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
C. They probably don't see their young after November.
D. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
Question 47: The word "they" in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. the young birds B. the adult birds C. the wise old men D. the prey
Question 48: The phrase "weary of" is closest in meaning to ______.
A. are attracted to B. support C. become sad about D. tire of
Question 49: According to the passage, great horned owls
A. may inhabit a previously used nest B. build nests on tree limbs
C. need big nests for their numerous eggs D. are discriminate nest builders
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
A. To feed the young B. To sit on the nest
C. To build the nest D. To initiate the courtship ritual

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each question from 43 to 50:

FACEBOOK
 Facebook was launched in February 2004 as an alternative to the traditional student directory. Its
initial success with college students was greatly attributed to the provision of an information service that
was not available offline – an interactive student directory containing each student’s class schedule and
social network.
While students already had a loose affiliation with all fellow students at a college, they didn’t have
an easy way to learn more about their fellow students outside their direct social network. Facebook
organized students by class schedule for the first time, making it possible to learn more about that
classmate you might have a crush on. Although I am highlighting one particular use case, initial Facebook
usage was indeed driven by dating type activity – checking people out, learning more about crushes, light
stalking type of activity, etc.
Remarkably, Facebook made important product decisions that ensured harmony and trust between
the offline community and the online service. Facebook originally limited membership to those users who
could verify they had a “edu” e-mail address for the college they attend. Facebook also placed limits on
the ability to search or browse users to the college that the user attends. These measures aim to make
users feel that the site is exclusive and limited to members in their offline community (colleges and
universities). In the early days of Facebook, something like 30% of users actually posted their cell phone
number on their profile. I’m not sure whether this statistic is still valid, but it supports the notion that
users trust who is viewing their profile.
Facebook has recently opened its doors to users outside the “edu” networks. To accomplish this,
they have created “networks”. High schools, employers and geographic areas are, essentially, what
colleges were to the original Facebook. When you join one of these “networks,” you can only view others in
the self-designated network
Adding to the underground feel of Facebook was the viral spread of the site. It fanned out
throughout Boston, and then the Ivy League. Students at other schools had to wait in line until Mark and
friends could find time to add their school. This created even more buzz around the product. Up to the end
of 2006, the site registered close to 15M monthly UVs (unique visitors) and over 6B page views per month.
(384 WORDS)

( Adapted from http://efreeway.avcenter.ntu.edu.tw)

Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The use and the popularity of the social network-Facebook
B. the shortcomings of the social network-Facebook
C. the benefits students have gained from the social network-Facebook
D. the prevalence of the social network-Facebook over others
Question 44: According to the passage, what is the revolutionary of Facebook?
A. It is the first social networking website. B. It is the first interactive student directory.
C. It is the first website built by student. D. It is the first valid social network
Question 45: What is NOT true about Facebook?
A. People can organize a whole new community and meet new friends on Facebook.
B. Facebook once limited its access to those who had a "edu" email address.
C. The fact that Facebook was founded by students wins the trust of the student users
D. No users ever dare to post their phone numbers on their Facebook profile.
Question 46: What is the author’s attitude toward Facebook?
A. He thinks that Facebook distracts student from studying. B. He thinks that Facebook enriches students'
social life.
C. He highly appreciates the birth of Facebook D. He does not make it clear how he/ she feels about
Facebook.
Question 47: What does the word “ crushes” mean?
A. a crowd of people forced to stand closures B. the people who attract you strongly
C. being completely defeated D. the people who get addicted to Facebook
Question 48: What does the word “ notion” mean?
A. conception B. attitude C. orientation D. inclination
Question 49: What does the word “it” refer to?
A.Facebook B. cellphone number C. statistic D. users
Question 50: Facebook is now available to______
A. users of edu network only B. college students only
C. Facebook members only D. people of a variety of work.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
In the United States of America, TV has become a(n) (31) ______ part of most people’s lives. It has
become a baby- sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a keeper of
traditions. Yet when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes evident that TV is
not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor (32) ______ of programs does not elevate people into greater
understanding, but rather maintains and encourages the status quo.
The primary reason for the lack of quality in American TV is related to both the history of TV
programming development and the economics of TV. TV in American began with the radio. Radio
companies and their sponsors first experimented with TV. (33) ______, the close relationship, which the
advertisers had with radio programs become the system for American TV. Sponsors not only pay money
for time within programs, but many actually produced the programs. Thus, coming from the capitalistic,
profit- oriented sector of American society, TV is primarily (34) ______ with reflecting and attracting society
(35) ______ than innovating and experimenting with new ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest
viewing audience possible; to do so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than challenging.
(Adapted from
TiengAnh.com.vn)
Question 31: A. integral B. mixed C. fractional D. superior
Question 32: A. quantity B. quality C. effect D.product
Question 33: A. Therefore B. Yet C. Although D. Nevertheless
Question 34: A. interested B. concerned C. worried D. connected
Question 35: A. more B. rather C. less D. better

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each question
Human Nutrition is the study of how food affects the health and survival of the human body. Human
beings require food to grow, reproduce, and maintain good health. Without food, our bodies could not stay
warm, build or repair tissue, or maintain the heartbeat. Eating the right foods can help us avoid certain
diseases or recover faster when illness occurs. These and other important functions are fueled by chemical
substances in our food called nutrients. Nutrients are classified as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins,
minerals, and water.

When we eat a meal, nutrients are released from food through digestion. Digestion begins in the
mouth by the action of chewing and the chemical activity of saliva, a watery fluid that contains enzymes,
certain proteins that help break down food. Further digestion occurs as food travels through the stomach
and the small intestine, where digestive enzymes and acids liquefy food and muscle contractions push it
along the digestive tract. Nutrients are absorbed from the inside of the small intestine into the
bloodstream and carried to the sites in the body where they are needed. At these sites, several chemical
reactions occur, which ensures the growth and function of body tissues. The parts of foods that are not
absorbed continue to move down the intestinal tract and are eliminated from the body as feces.
Once digested, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats provide the body with the energy it needs to
maintain its many functions. Scientists measure this energy in kilocalories, the amount of energy needed
to raise one kilogram of water one degree Celsius. In nutrition discussions, scientists use the term calorie
instead of kilocalorie as the standard unit of measure in nutrition.
Nutrients are classified as essential or nonessential. Nonessential nutrients are manufactured in the
body and do not need to be obtained from food. Examples include cholesterol, a fatlike substance present
in all animal cells. Essential nutrients must be obtained from food sources, because the body either does
not produce them or produces them in amounts too small to maintain growth and health. Essential
nutrients include water, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
An individual needs varying amounts of each essential nutrient, depending upon such factors as
gender and age. Specific health conditions, such as pregnancy, breast-feeding, illness, or drug use, make
unusual demands on the body and increase its need for nutrients. Dietary guidelines, which take many of
these factors into account, provide general guidance in meeting daily nutritional needs.

( Adapted from “Human Nutrition” by Worthington-Roberts, Bonnie, Microsoft ® Student

2009.)

Question 43: The first paragraph mainly discusses ______.

A. chemical substances in our food B. a variety of essential nutrients to human beings
C. the importance of food to human beings D. the study of human nutrition
Question 44: The word “released” in the second paragraph mostly means “______”
A. refused B. produced C. expressed D. renewed
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT true about the process of digestion?
 A. The small intestine covers the whole digestive system.
B. The small intestine helps the body absorb nutrients.
C. Nutrients are carried to different sites in the body
D. Saliva plays an important role in the first stage of digestion
Question 46: The word “break down” in the second paragraph is closest meaning to “______ ”
A. obtain B. provide C. resolve D. carry
Question 47: According to the passage, nutrients are absorbed ______.
A. over the whole body B. in the mouth C. in the stomach D. in the
small intestine
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following provides energy for the body?
A. Proteins, fats, and minerals B. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
C. Carbohydrates, minerals, and water D. Proteins, vitamins, and carbohydrates
Question 49: The word “them” in the 4th paragraph refers to______.
A. general guidance B. unusual demands C. dietary guidelines D. essential nutrients
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Classification of nutrients B. The body’s need of nutrients
C. The effects of food on the body D. Food sources from animals
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The latest addiction to trap thousands of people is Internet, which has been (31) ______ for broken
relationships, job losses, financial ruin and even one suicide. Psychologists now recognize Internet
Addiction Syndrome (IAS) as a new illness that could cause serious problems and ruin many lives. Special
help groups have been set up to (32) ______ sufferers help and support.
IAS is similar to other problems like gambling, smoking and drinking: addicts have dreams about
Internet; they need to use it first thing in the morning; they (33) ______ to their partners about how much
time they spend online; they wish they could cut down, but are unable to do so. A recent study found that
many users spend up to 40 hours a week on the Internet; (34) ______ they felt guilty, they became
depressed if they were made to stop using it.
Almost anyone can be at risk. Some of the addicts are teenagers who are already hooked on
computer games and who (35) ______ it very difficult to resist the games on the Internet. Surprisingly,
however, psychologists say that most victims are middle-aged housewives who have never used a
computer before.
Adapted from FCE Practice plus, Micheal Pence, 2010, CUP
Question 31: A. accused B. mistaken C. blamed D. faulted (TH)
Question 32: A. recommend B. offer C. suggest D. advise (TH)
Question 33: A. lie B. cheat C. deceive D. betray (TH)
Question 34: A. unless B. without C. although D. despite (NB)
Question 35: A. have B. find C. feel D. say (NB)
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Global emissions of carbon dioxide from fossil fuel burning jumped by the largest amount on record in
2010. Emissions rose 5.9 percent in 2010, according to an analysis released on Sunday by the Global
Carbon Project. Scientists said the increase was almost certainly the largest absolute jump in any year
since the Industrial Revolution. The increase solidified a trend of ever-rising emissions that will make it
difficult, if not impossible, to stop severe climate change in coming decades.
 The burning of coal represented more than half of the growth in emissions, the analysis found. In
the United States, emissions dropped by a remarkable 7 percent in the year of 2009, but rose by over 4
percent in 2010, the new analysis shows." Each year, emissions go up, and there's another year of
negotiations, another year of indecision," said Glen P. Peters, a researcher at the Centre for International
Climate and Environmental Research. "There's no evidence that this path we've been following in the last
10 years is going to change."
Scientists say the rapid growth of emissions is warming the Earth and putting human welfare at
long-term risk. But their increasingly urgent pleas that society finds a way to limit emissions have met
sharp political resistance in many countries because doing so would involve higher energy costs.
The new figures show a continuation of a trend in which developing countries have surpassed the
wealthy countries in their overall greenhouse emissions. In 2010, the burning of fossil fuels and the
production of cement sent more than nine billion tons of carbon into the atmosphere, the new analysis
found, with 57 percent of that coming from developing countries.
On the surface, the figures of recent years suggest that wealthy countries have made headway in
stabilizing their emissions. But Dr. Peters pointed out that, in a sense, the rich countries have simply
exported some of them.The fast rise in developing countries has been caused to a large extent by the
growth of energy-intensive manufacturing industries that make goods that rich countries import. "All that
has changed it’s the location in which the emissions are being produced," Dr. Peters said.
Many countries, as part of their response to the economic crisis, invested billions in programs
designed to make their energy systems greener. While it is possible, the new numbers suggest they have
had little effect so far. (Source:
www.nytimes.com)

Question 43: What is the main idea of this passage?

A. the possible climate change in future decades
B. an analysis released by the Global Carbon Project
C. the record jump in carbon dioxide emissions
D. the main harm of greenhouse gases
Question 44: According to the passage, the report found that the burning coal accounts for________ of the
increase in total emissions.
A. over 50 percent B. more than 4 percent C. only about 7 percent D. a half
Question 45: The word "urgent" in the passage is closest in meaning to________.
A. related B. unsolved C. pressing D. needful
Question 46: The word “ their” in the text refers to ______
A. wealthy countries B. greenhouse emissions C. developing countries D. new figures
Question 47: The phrase "On the surface" in the passage means most nearly the same as________.
A. To all intents and purposes B. Judging from what can be seen
C. Just the tip of the iceberg D. Not thought about deeply or thoroughly
Question 48: According to Glen P. Peters, we can learn that________.
A. rich countries actually take more responsibility for the growth of emissions
B. some countries negotiate together yearly whether to reduce the amounts of emissions
C. the rapid growth of emissions contributes to potential risks for humans
D. human beings will follow the same path of negotiations n the next 10 years
Question 49: Many governments in the world resist limiting emissions because________.
A. It Is not the best way to solve such problems
B. they are unwilling to accept higher energy costs
C. they don't realize the risks of carbon emissions
D. it would probably harm human welfare in the long run
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE according to the text?
A. Developing countries will produce less emissions with economic development.
B. Emissions in the United States dropped by about 7 percent in 2010.
C. There is a long way to go for many countries to limit the fast growth of emissions.
D. Over 50 percent of the growth emissions resulted from the burning of fossil fuels.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the

correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Stress is our body’s reaction to events or conditions that we cannot easily manage or control. When
we are troubled by something, we usually experience some types of__(31)___. There are thousand
conditions that cause us to become tense. These may be major and horrible fighting for our lives in a war,
being imprisoned or facing death. On the other hand, minor__(32)___in our daily lives cause stress as well:
waiting in lines, taking a quiz, or asking for or accepting a date. Although we usually think of stress as
something caused by __(33)___events, pleasant happenings also bring stress.

As a new__(34)___is done on the effects of stress, new techniques are developed to help cope with
anxiety. One aid is to plan for situations that we know will be stressful. Some imagine the event before it
happens, thus preparing their minds and bodies for the tension. Others pretend they are on a pleasant
beach__(35)___in the sunshine; soon their bodies relax and tension melts away. Other people believe
strenuous exercise helps the body handle the problems of daily life. It matters very little which method we
use to relax; what does matter is finding the time to temporarily reduce the effects of modern life on our
brain and body.

(Adapted from http://vi4.ilovetranslation.com/GlEEvm6h1av=d)

Question 31: A. anxiety B. strain C. stress D. Pressure

Question 32: A. conditions B. things C. occasions D. Events

Question 33: A. unpleasant B. unimportant C. unnecessary D. Stressful

Question 34: A. work B. questionnaire C. experiment D. Research

Question 35: A. lie B. which lies C. to lie D. lying

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the

correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.

Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use
one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are
more than a means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried
about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad
for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people
who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected modern
scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious
memory loss. He couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son.
This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a
couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s doctor didn’t agree.
What it is that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there
is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety
continues, it appears that it is best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to
talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful
and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that
says they are bad for your health. So for now, it’s wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
(Adapted from http://vi4.ilovetranslation.com/BY0XNt4K0L6=d/)

Question 43: According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because
______.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communication
B. they make them look more stylist
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
Question 44: The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body
B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain
D. the resident memory
Question 45: The word “means” in the 1st paragraph most closely means ___________.
A. “meanings” B. “expression” C. “transmission” D. “method”
Question 46: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may ____________.
A. damage their users’ emotions
B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament
D. change their users’ social behavior
Question 47: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, ______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability
B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family
D. had a problem with memory
Question 48: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______.
A. their radiant light B. their power of attraction
C. their raiding power D. their invisible rays
Question 49: According to the writer, people should ______.
A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
C. keep off mobile phones regularly
D. never use mobile phones in all cases
Question 50: The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
A. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular
B. Technological Innovations And Their Price
C. The Way Mobile Phones Work
D. Mobile Phones: A Must Of Our Time
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. Yet human activities
are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (31)______ on consuming two-thirds of the
world's resources while half of the world's population do so just to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the
very resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (32)______
built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to
recover completely. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the
consequences. As a (33)______, the planet's ability to support people is being reduced at the very time
when rising human numbers and consumption are (34)______ increasingly heavy demands on it.

The Earth's natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines,
warmth, shelter and minerals to (35)______ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in
how we use the resources, they will go indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will
soon run out and everyone will suffer.
Question 31: A. continues B. repeats C. follows D. carries
Question 32: A. neither B. sooner C. rather D. either
Question 33: A. result B. reaction C. development D. product
Question 34: A. making B. doing C. having D. taking
Question 35: A. maintain B. stay C. hold D. keep
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.

Everyone wants to reduce pollution. But the pollution problems is as complicated as it is serious.
It is complicated (31) _______ much pollution is caused by things that benefit people. For example, exhaust
from automobiles causes a large percentage of air pollution. But the automobile ( 32) _______
transportation for millions of people. Factories discharge much of the material that pollutes the air and
water, but factories give employment to a large number of people. Thus, to end or greatly reduce
pollution immediately, people would have to stop using many things ( 33) _______benefit them.
Most of the people do not want to do that, of course. But pollution can be ( 34) _______reduced in
several ways. Scientists and engineers can work to find ways to lessen the amount of pollution that such
things as automobiles and factories cause. Governments can pass and enforce laws that ( 35)
_______business and traffic to stop, or to cut down on certain polluting activities.
Question 31: A. while B. because C. so D. though
Question 32:A. provides B. takes C. carries D. affords
Question 33: A. why B. it C. what
D. that
Question 34 A. carefully B. unexpectedly C. gradually D. slightly
Question 35: A. request B. require C. forbid D. prevent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Many people have forgotten what the world was like before TV. But today it has become an integral
part of our lives. No medium can compare with TV as a means of information, entertainment and
education. TV now plays such an important role in so many people’s lives that it is essential for us to try to
decide (31)_______ it is bad or good.
First of all, TV is not only a convenient source of entertainment, but also a (32)_______ cheap one. For
a family of 4, for example, it is more convenient as well as cheaper to sit comfortably at home than to go
out. They don’t have to pay for expensive tickets. All they have to do is to turn on TV and they can see
films, political discussions and the latest exciting football matches. Some people say that this is fist where
the danger lies. The TV viewers need do nothing: they (33)______ no choices, they’re completely passive
and don’t even use their legs.
TV, people often say, informs about current events and the latest developments in science and
politics. A lot of good films, music programs have appeared recently on TV. (34)_______ here again there is
a danger. We get to like watching TV so much that it begins to dominate our lives. A friend of mine told me
that when his TV set broke he and his family suddenly found that they had much more time to do things.
The most important thing which is really criticizing is poor quality of the programs and its harmful
effect on children. For example the film “Natural Born Killers” teaches children to kill and there was one
accident in France when a group of teenagers kill their parents.
There are many arguments for and against TV. I think we must understand that TV in itself is neither
good (35)______ bad. TV is as good or as bad as we make it.
(Source: © Television and Advertisement www.native-english.ru/topics/television-and-advertisement)
Q31: A. somehow B. whether C. why D. how biết
Q32: A. comparatively B. conceitedly C. competitively D. casually hiểu
Q33: A. bring B. take C. make D. do biết
Q34: A. Yet B. So C. For D. If only vận dụng
Q35: A. too B. and C. or D. nor biết
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Most Hanoians were willing to use alternatives to wildlife products if they were available and proven
(31) ______ effective, according to a survey by the Vietnam Academy of Social Sciences’ Institute of
Sociology at a conference in the capital.

Of 1,000 randomly selected respondents ranging in age from 20 to 69, 760 said they would choose
alternative products. (32) ______ most people thought of wildlife products as expensive, they still wanted to
use them because they had a strong and profound belief in their (33) ______. About 69 percent of
respondents had eaten wildlife meat, 70 percent had used wildlife products to cure illness and 64 percent
used wildlife products they received as gifts.

However, the survey highlighted that wildlife consumption was largely spontaneous. Many were
given wildlife products as gifts or invited to consume wildlife products by family or friends. It is said that
there should be more campaigns to (34) ______ awareness about the negative impact of unsustainable and
illegal wildlife consumption and encourage the use of alternative products.

At the conference, the Ministry of Natural Resources and Environment also released a review of the
current policy and legal framework for the management and (35) ______ of endangered, rare and precious
wildlife species.
(Adapted from https://www.talkvietnam.com/2017/02/ban-in-hanoians-care-for-giving-up-wildlife-products/)
(201 words)
Q31: A. to be B. being C. be D. been TH
Q32: A. While B. Because C. But D. For TH
Q33: A. effective B. effectively C. effectiveness D. effector NB
Q34: A. rise B. arise C. erase D. raise NB
Q35: A. exploitation B. conservation C. destruction D. construction TH
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
A recent study shows that an unequal share of household chores is still the norm in many
households, despite the fact that many more women now have jobs. In a survey of 1,256 people age d
between 18 and 65, men said they contributed an average of 37 per cent of the total housework, while
the women estimated their share to be nearly double that, at 70 per cent. This ratio was not affected
by whether the woman was working or not.
When they were asked what they thought was a fair division of labor, women with jobs felt that
housework should be shared equally between male and female partners. Women who did not work
outside the home were satisfied to perform 80 per cent - the majority of the household work - if their
husbands did the remainder. Research has shown that, if levels increase beyond these percentages,
women become unhappy and anxious, and feel they are unimportant.
 After marriage, a woman is reported to increase her household workload by 14 hours per week,
but for men the amount is just 90 minutes. So the division of labor becomes unbalanced, as a man's
share increases much less than the woman's. It is the inequality and loss of respect, not the actual
number of hours, which leads to anxiety and depression. The research describes housework as
thankless and unfulfilling. Activities included in the study were cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing
laundry, washing-up and childcare. Women who have jobs report that they feel overworked by these
chores in addition to their professional duties. In contrast, full-time homemakers frequently anticipate
going back to work when the children grow up. Distress for this group is caused by losing the teamwork
in the marriage.
(Extracted from Microsoft® Student 2009, DVD Version)
Question 36. The objects of the survey were ______.
A. married people B. working people
C. unemployed people D. people of a wide range of ages
Question 37. Although women think men should share the housework, those who do not have a paid
job share ______ of the chores.
A. 37 per cent B. 70 per cent C. 80 per cent D. 14 per cent
Question 38. After getting married, ______.
A. men do less housework B. women do twice as much housework
C. men do more housework D. women have a bigger house
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. women B. jobs C. chores D. men
Question 40. The word “norm” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. strange thing B. usual thing C. changing thing D. unequal thing
Question 41. Women who do not have jobs become depressed_________.
A. if their husbands do 20 per cent of the chores
B. if they have to do more than half of the housework
C. because they have no self-respect
D. when their husbands do not help them
Question 42. According to the passage, a good relationship is the one in which_________.
A. women do 80 per cent of the housework
B. men do more housework than women
C. women and men divide the housework equally
D. women do 14 hours of housework
Ex 1. Read the following passage and circle A. B. C. or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Scientists believe that something very serious is happening to the Earth. It is becoming warmer. Scientists predict
that there will be major changes in the climate during the 21 st century. Coastal waters will have higher
temperatures. This will have a serious effect on agriculture. Farmers will have trouble producing good crops. In
warm regions, the weather will be too dry. The amount of water could decrease by 50 per cent. This would cause a
large decrease in agricultural production.
World temperatures could increase from 1.5 to 5.6 degrees Celsius by the middle of the 21st century. And the
increase in temperature could be even greater in the Arctic and Antarctic regions. A rise in temperature could
cause the great ice sheets to melt, which, in turn would raise the level of oceans by one to two meters. Many coastal
cities would be underwater. Why is all this happening?
The Earth and its atmosphere are kept warm by the Sun. The atmosphere lets most of the light from the Sun pass
through to warm the Earth. The Earth is warmer by the sunlight and sends heat energy back into the atmosphere.
Much of this energy escapes from the Earth’s atmosphere. However, some of it remains. Gases such as carbon
dioxide, ozone and water vapor absorb this energy and create more heat. Then, this heat is sent back down to
Earth, and the Earth becomes warmer.
Recently, however, an increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is causing serious problems. Too much carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere prevents heat energy from escaping. Too much heat is sent back down to the Earth, and
the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere continues to increase. When oil, gas, and coal burn, they create
large amounts of carbon dioxide. The destruction of rain forests that absorb carbon dioxide also helps to increase
the amount of carbon dioxide in our atmosphere. Some scientists believe that the amount of carbon dioxide in the
air will double by the late 2000s.
Scientists call this warming of the Earth and its atmosphere “the greenhouse effect”. A greenhouse, made of glass
and plastic, is a special place where plants are grown. The sunlight passes through the glass or plastic and warms
the air inside. The heat inside escapes very slowly, so the greenhouse remains very warm. This is exactly what is
happening on the Earth.
Another reason why the Earth is growing warmer is because of the amount of ozone in our atmosphere. Ozone is a
form of oxygen. In the upper atmosphere, very far from the Earth, a layer of ozone helps to protect the Earth from
95 percent of the harmful light that comes from the sun. If your skin receives too much of this light, you would
develop skin cancer. We need the ozone layer to protect ourselves. But the ozone layer is in trouble. Scientists have
observed that the ozone layer is becoming thin, and above Antarctica there is a hole. This allows too much of the
sun’s dangerous light into our atmosphere and makes the Earth warmer.
Scientists say we must start making changes and planning now. We need to continue to do research, so we can
predict what will happen in the future. We must burn less coal, oil, and gas. Other scientists believe that the
problem is not so serious. They think that the Earth is growing warmer naturally, that we don’t need to worry
about it now, and that we should just get ready for life in the warmer climate. Most scientists agree that the causes
of the world’s climate are very complicated. They say that we must continue to measure the amount of carbon
dioxide and ozone in the atmosphere. Scientists also encourage people to learn about the changes that are
occurring in the world and how we can all help protect our atmosphere.
(https://climate.nasa.gov/effects/)
1. Which of the following will be one of the consequences of a warmer earth?
A. Crops will be poor unless they are grown in the green house.
B. The amount of water will be decreased by half.
C. Farmer will get into trouble because of the heat.
D. There will be no winter on earth.
2. A rise in temperature will be more remarkable ____.
A. in the Arctic and Antarctic regions B. in the coastal cities
C. by the year 2050 D. under the great ice sheets
3. The melting of the polar ice sheets will probably lead to ____.
A. a rise in global temperature B. the extinction of many polar animals
C. flooding of many coastal cities D. a serve winter all over the world
4. The Earth wouldn’t become warmer if ____.
A. the heat energy didn’t escape from the Earth’s atmosphere
B. sunlight didn’t pass through the atmosphere
C. the Earth didn’t send heat energy back into the atmosphere
D. carbon dioxide, ozone and water vapor didn’t retain the heat energy
5. When the rainforests are destroyed ____.
A. people have to burn coal, oil, gas instead of wood for fuel.
B. heat energy fails to escape from the atmosphere.
C. there is nothing to absorb carbon dioxide.
D. serious problems are caused for the scientists.
6. How useful is the ozone layer?
A. It protects the earth from the harmful radiation from the sun.
B. It absorbs much of the carbon dioxide.
C. It sends the extra heat energy back into space and thus keeps the earth cool.
D. It helps treat skin cancer.
7. The two factors that directly cause the greenhouse effects are ____.
 A. the destruction of rain forests and the melting of the polar ice
B. the burning of fossil fuels and the changes of the climate
C. the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and the decrease of the ozone layer
D. the ignorance of greenhouse owners and the development of skin cancer
8. Which is the best title for the passage?
A. The global warming B. The greenhouse effect
C. The heat energy D. The change of climate in the poles

Ex 2. Read the following passage and circle A. B. C. or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
The Amazon rainforest is home to more than a third of all the world's species of plants, birds and animals.
Twenty per cent of all the birds in the world live in the rainforest. Scientists have discovered thousands of types of
plants and animals that can only be found there. There are thousands - probably millions more that we haven't
discovered yet. There are at least 2.5 million species of insects there. Imagine what would happen if they all lost
their home? It couldn't happen, could it? Unfortunately, it's happening right now. Yet, the rainforest is big. But it's
getting smaller. The problem is that people are cutting down the trees, mainly to make room for cows. These
provide meat and make money for their owners. This process of cutting down trees is called ‘deforestation'.

The good news is that it is slowing down. In 2004, for example, more than 27,000 square kilometres were cut
down. That's an area bigger than Wales. In 2006, because of all the campaigns to save rainforest, it dropped to just
over 13,000 square kilometres. The bad news is that it's not enough. Scientists predict that by 2030, the rainforest
will have become smaller by 40%. It's possible that by the end of the 21st century, the rainforest will have
completely disappeared. With deforestation, thousands of the animals, birds, fish and plants that live in the
Amazon rainforest lose their home, their natural habitat. Some of them move to other areas, but most of them die.
Many species have already become extinct, and many more will if deforestation continues. That will change the
balance of life in the rainforest and could cause enormous problems to the region's ecosystem.

There's another problem too. Trees and plants are a vital source of oxygen. If we cut them down, we lose that
oxygen. But it's worse than just that. With deforestation, the trees and plants are burnt. This sends gases into the
Earth's atmosphere, which stops some of the Earth's heat escaping. That then leads to the temperature here on the
ground going up. This increase in the world's temperature is called 'global warming', and most scientists believe
it's a very serious issue. If they stopped deforestation, it might help prevent global warming.

1. Which title best summarises the main idea of the passage?

A. Chances for owners of cow ranches B. Threats to Amazon rainforest

C. Global warming effects D. Habitat destruction

2. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?

A. A fifth of all the birds in the world live in the rainforest.

B. 20% of all the animals in the world live in the rainforest.

C. Nearly two million species of insects are found in the Amazon rainforest.

D. Nearly half of the world's species of plants grow there.

3. In paragraph 1, the word "room” is closest in meaning to ____.

A. chamber B. flat C. area D. studio
127. In paragraph 2, the word "it” refers to ____.

A. room B. process C. rainforest D. deforestation

4. According the passage, which of the following is TRUE about Amazon rainforest?
A. It has become smaller by 40%. B. The deforestation is decreasing.

C. 25% of animal species are extinct now. D. The deforestation is under control.

5. In paragraph 2, the word “enormous” is closest in meaning to ____.

A. serious B. important C. common D. insignificant

6. What might help to restrain global warming?

A. increasing deforestation B. stabilising deforestation

C. ceasing cutting down trees D. clearing more trees for farming