XAT-Previous year papers

XAT 2019
English
1. Choose the option that would fill in the blanks meaningfully in the sentence(s) below:
______ the importance of ‘horizontal stratification’ ______ higher education is widely acknowledged, ______
attention has been applied to horizontal stratification ______ compulsory schooling.
A Whereas; with: too less; to
B While; within: far less; within
C While; without: further less; within
D While; on: far fewer; about
E Whereas; about: for less; of
2. Please study the paragraph given below:

In 1942, the French writer Albert Camus composed an essay, ‘The Myth of Sisyphus’. It draws on the Greek
fable of a man condemned to roll a rock up a mountain only to have it roll back down under its own weight, a
______ that lasts for eternity. Camus argues that this image ______ the human condition in a world where we
can no longer make sense of events; but instead of committing suicide, we should ______ ourselves to this
‘elusive feeling of absurdity’ and bear it as best we can. In this sense, Sisyphus is the ideal hero.
Consider the following words:
1. surrender
2. choice
3. symbolises
4. quandary
5. attune
6. option
7. reconcile
8. depicts
Which of the following options is the most appropriate sequence that best fits the blanks in the above
paragraph?
A 4, 2, 6
B 2, 3, 1
C 4, 5, 1
D 2, 5, 7
E 4, 3, 7
3. Study the first sentence and then identify from among the options given the closest antonym of the
highlighted word in the second sentence:
It’s conventional wisdom that procreation between first cousins is unhealthy. But what are the actual genetic
risks?
A tangible
B relative
C abstract
D hard
E unfounded
4. Carefully read the following paragraph:
Who could resist the idea of remembering everything they wanted to, without trying? Learning would be
made easy, exams a ______ and you would never forget where you left your keys. And memory-related
disorders like Alzheimer’s would have met their match. So, it is of little surprise that scientists have turned
their attention to ways of ______ human memory using techniques that ______, supplement or even mimic
parts of the brain. The immediate goal is to treat memory disorders, but the idea of a memory ______ for
everyday life is gaining ground.
Fill in the blanks in the above paragraph, with the best option from among the following:
A joy; augmenting; awaken; crutch
B routine; expanding; invigorate; crutch
C breeze; enhancing; stimulate; prosthesis
D routine; expanding; trigger; support
E breeze; exploring; simulate; aid
5. Read the following statements and answer the question that follows:
1. They subjected the residues from sherds of the rhyta- vessels to radiocarbon dating to determine their
ages and chromatography - mass spectrometry (GC-MS) - to identify their structure and isotopic
composition and found that the vessels were used to store cheese.
2. In many Neolithic sites near the Adriatic Sea, researchers unearthed cone-shaped clay vessels, known as
rhyta, with four legs on the bottom and a round opening on the side.
3. Fresh milk couldn’t be kept for long without going bad; cheese, on the other hand, could be stored for
months at a time, providing much-needed calories to early farmers between harvests.
4. Archaeologists who used to assume animals such as cows and goats were mainly used for meat early in
their domestication history are thus forced to admit that humans might have been using animals for dairy
quite early in their domestication history.
5. “If you kill one cow, you eat meat for about a week until it goes off; but by milking the animals, the farmer
would be spreading the food gain from that animal over several months rather than just one week”
Rank the above five statements so as to make it a logical sequence:
A 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
B 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
C 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
D 2, 1, 3, 5, 4
E 4, 1, 2, 5, 3
6. Read the following statements and answer the question that follows:
1. An in-depth exploration of the Indian case and case studies of early adopters of mobile technology will
provide spectrum managers a pragmatic and modern approach whereby they could utilize their resources
efficiently and optimally.
2. Even as spectrum management regimes are moving from a command and control regime to a flexible use
regime, new technological developments are suggesting that there are significant opportunities in managing
large swathes of spectrum as a common property resource, in addition to flexible use.
3. Political legacies and market realities in different regimes pose unique challenges for spectrum managers
who must negotiate a tricky path to the land promised by technological possibility.
4. On the other hand, supply of spectrum is restricted due to competing nature of uses and vested interests
of incumbent holders.
5. The demand for spectrum has never been so acute as today's communication services extend beyond
simple voice to complex data and video, augmented by evolving technologies such as peer-to-peer sharing,
social networking, Fourth and Fifth Generation networks, Big Data, and cloud computing.
Rank the above five statements so as to make it a logical sequence:
A 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
B 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
C 4, 5, 2, 3, 1
D 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
E 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
Instructions [7 - 8 ]
Read the poem given below and answer the question that follows it:
Black lake, black boat, two black, cut-paper people.
Where do the black trees go that drink here?
Their shadows must cover Canada.
A little light is filtering from the water flowers
Their leaves do not wish us to hurry:
They are round and flat and full of dark advice.
Cold words shake from the oar.
The spirit of blackness is in us, it is in the fishes.
A snag is lifting a valedictory, pale hand;
Stars opening among the lilies.
Are you not blinded by such expressionless sirens?
This is the silence of abandoned souls.
7. Which of the following options best explains the effect of the images in Line 1?
A The first line encapsulates the theme of the poem.
B The images are suffused with an overpowering sense of rebellion.
C The atmosphere indicates a cyclical nature of life and death.
The black lake lacks regenerative potential; ‘black boat’ connotes the funerary boat; cut-paper people are
D
unreal.
E The repeated use of black suggests evil.

8. Which of the following options presents a convincing evaluation of the line, ‘Stars opening among the lilies’?
A The stars are flowers in the sky and the flowers in the lake are stars in water.
B The ethereal light of the stars gets reflected among the lilies.
The spirit of blackness does not hinder the appearance of beauty in nature which is symbolic of hope
C
blossoming in the soul.
D The mirror images, the worlds above and overlap.
E Lilies purify the ‘dark’ into ‘light’ as symbolized in and by stars.

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow it:
Does having a mood disorder make you more creative? That’s the most frequent question I hear about the
relationship. But because we cannot control the instance of a mood disorder (that is, we can’t turn it on and off,
and measure that person’s creativity under both conditions), the question should really be: Do individuals with a
mood disorder exhibit greater creativity than those without? Studies that attempt to answer this question by
comparing the creativity of individuals with a mood disorder against those without, have been well, mixed.
Studies that ask participants to complete surveys of creative personality, behavior or accomplishment, or to
complete divergent thinking measures (where they are asked to generate lots of ideas) often find that
individuals with mood disorders do not differ from those without. However, studies using “creative occupation”
as an indicator of creativity (based on the assumption that those employed in these occupations are relatively
more creative than others) have found that people with bipolar disorders are overrepresented in these
occupations. These studies do not measure the creativity of participants directly, rather they use external
records (such as censuses and medical registries) to tally the number of people with a history of mood
disorders (compared with those without) who report being employed in a creative occupation at some time.
These studies incorporate an enormous number of people and provide solid evidence that people who have
sought treatment for mood disorders are engaged in creative occupations to a greater extent than those who
have not. But can creative occupations serve as a proxy for creative ability?
The creative occupations considered in these studies are overwhelmingly in the arts, which frequently provide
greater autonomy and less rigid structure than the average nine-to-five job. This makes these jobs more
conducive to the success of individuals who struggle with performance consistency as the result of a mood
disorder. The American psychiatrist Arnold Ludwig has suggested that the level of emotional expressiveness
required to be successful in various occupations creates an occupational drift and demonstrated that the
pattern of expressive occupations being associated with a greater incidence of psychopathology is a self-
repeating pattern. For example, professions in the creative arts are associated with greater psychopathology
than professions in the sciences whereas, within creative arts professions, architects exhibit a lower lifetime
prevalence rate of psychopathology than visual artists and, within the visual arts, abstract artists exhibit lower
rates of psychopathology than expressive artists. Therefore, it is possible that many people who suffer from
mood disorders gravitate towards these types of professions, regardless of creative ability or inclination.
9. Go through the following:
1.Mood disorders do not lead to creativity
2.The flexibility of creative occupations makes them more appealing to people with mood disorder
3.Mood swings in creative professions is less prevalent than in non-creative professions
Which of the following would undermine the passage’s main argument?
A 2&3
B 1&2
C 3 only
D 2 only
E 1, 2 & 3
10. All of the following can be inferred from the passage except:
A Individuals with mood disorder often do better in creative job profiles than in regular nine-to-five jobs.
B In creative professions, people with mood disorder are more creative than those without mood disorder.
Mood disorder is more prevalent among people in creative occupations than in non-creative
C
occupations.
D An architect is more likely to have mood disorder than a botanist.
E An abstract painter is less likely to have mood disorder than an interpretive dance performer.
11. Which of the following will make the authors contention in the passage fallacious?
A Everyone in a mental asylum is potentially a great artist.
B Patients in mental asylums prefer time-bound repetitive jobs.
C Creative geniuses never end up in mental asylum.
D Those with a creative spark will land up in a mental asylum.
E Creativity is a form of bipolar disorder.

Lately it seems everyone’s got an opinion about women’s speech. Everybody has been getting his two cents in
about vocal fry, up-speak, and women’s allegedly over-liberal use of apologies. The ways women live and move
in the world are subject to relentless scrutiny, their modes of speech are assessed against a (usually)
masculine standard. This is increasingly true as women have entered previously male-dominated fields like
industry and politics.
In his essay “On Speech and Public Release,” Joshua Gunn highlights the field of public address as an important
arena where social roles and norms are contested, reshaped, and upheld. Gunn argues that the field of public
address is an important symbolic arena where we harbor an “[ideological] bias against the feminine voice,” a
bias, that is rooted in positive primal associations with masculinity (and the corresponding devaluation of
femininity, the voice that constrains and nags—the mother, the droning Charlie Brown schoolteacher, the wife).
Gunn contends that masculine speech is the cultural standard. It’s what we value and respect. The low pitch
and assertive demeanor that characterize the adult male voice signify reason, control, and authority, suitable for
the public domain. Women’s voices are higher pitched, like those of immature boys, and their characteristic
speech patterns have a distinctive cadence that exhibits a wider range of emotional expression. In Western
cultures, this is bad because it comes across as uncontrolled. We associate uncontrolled speech - “the cry, the
grunt, the scream, and the yawp” - with things that happen in the private, domestic spheres (both coded as
feminine). Men are expected to repress passionate, emotional speech, Gunn explains, precisely because it
threatens norms of masculine control and order.
The notion of control also relates to the cultural ideal of eloquence. Language ideologies in the U.S. are
complex and highly prescriptive, but not formal or explicit. They are internalized by osmosis, from early
observations of adult language use, criticism from teachers (i.e., telling little girls not to “be so bossy” and boys
to “act like gentlemen”), and sanctions imposed by peers. These norms become most obvious when they are
violated. When men fall off the “control and reason” wagon, they suffer for it. Gunn recalls Howard Dean’s
infamous 2004 “I Have a Scream” speech, in which Dean emitted a spontaneous high-pitched screech of joy
after he rattled off a list of planned campaign stops. The rest, as they say, is history. Women face a different
dilemma—how to please like a woman and impress like a man. Women in the public sphere have, historically,
been expected to “perform” femininity and they usually do this by adopting a personal tone, giving anecdotal
evidence, using domestic metaphors, and making emotional appeals to ideals of wifely virtue and motherhood.
Gunn arrives at the conclusion that “eloquence” is, essentially, code for values associated with masculinity,
saying, “Performances of femininity are principally vocal and related, not to arguments, but to tone; not to
appearance, but to speech; not to good reasons, but to sound. This implies that the ideology of sexism is much
more insidious, much more deeply ingrained than many might suppose.”
12. Which of the following statements if true, is contrary to the ideas developed in the passage?
Women in their communicative behavior are said to prefer a high-involvement style and men a high-
A
considerate style.
Women who use the lowest frequency of women's vocal traits have an unusually high status and are well
B
educated professionals with middle class backgrounds.
In certain hierarchically organized Indian political parties, women can participate in discussions as long
C
as they appeal, persuade, and support others, and not initiate new ones.
The linguistic ideology in vogue in ancient North India allowed only men of higher-castes and ruling
D
dynasties to use Sanskrit; women and servants spoke Prakrit or Pali.
Studies show that male followers of powerful women political leaders in Indian states imitate their
E
leaders’ cadence, rhetoric and rhythm.
13. An American female politician might not be expected to exhibit the features of public discourse discussed
in the passage while ______.
A addressing her colleagues
B chatting with intimate colleagues
C speaking to members of a congregation
D giving testimony
E conversing with members of her community
14. Which one of the following, if true, would make the core argument of the passage irrelevant?
Men seek to gain upper hand in conversation as they consider themselves competitive, while women
A
use them as a way to gain confirmation and support.
When a wife tells her husband that she's unwell, he normally offers to take her to a doctor. Invariably, she
B
is disappointed, as what she looks for is sympathy.
C Unlike men who use and prefer to hear direct imperatives, women prefer 'indirections.'
Where a management decision seems unattractive, men will often resist it vocally, while women may
D
appear to accede, but complain subsequently.
E Today, sharing of emotions and elaborations is more important than sharing information and being brief.
There are no Commandments in art and no easy axioms for art appreciation. “Do I like this?” is the question
anyone should ask themselves at the moment of confrontation with the picture. But if “yes,” why “yes”? and if
“no,” why “no”? The obvious direct emotional response is never simple, and ninety-nine times out of a hundred,
the “yes” or “no” has nothing at all to do with the picture in its own right. “I don’t understand this poem” and “I
don’t like this picture” are statements that tell us something about the speaker. That should be obvious, but in
fact, such statements are offered as criticisms of art, as evidence against, not least because the ignorant, the
lazy, or the plain confused are not likely to want to admit themselves as such. We hear a lot about the arrogance
of the artist but nothing about the arrogance of the audience. The audience, who have given no thought to the
medium or the method, will glance up, flick through, chatter over the opening chords, then snap their fingers and
walk away like some monstrous Roman tyrant. This is not arrogance; of course, they can absorb in a few
moments, and without any effort, the sum of the artist and the art.
Admire me is the sub-text of so much of our looking; the demand put on art that it should reflect the reality of
the viewer. The true painting, in its stubborn independence, cannot do this, except coincidentally. Its reality is
imaginative not mundane.
When the thick curtain of protection is taken away; protection of prejudice, protection of authority, protection of
trivia, even the most familiar of paintings can begin to work its power. There are very few people who could
manage an hour alone with the Mona Lisa. Our poor art-lover in his aesthetic laboratory has not succeeded in
freeing himself from the protection of assumption. What he has found is that the painting objects to his lack of
concentration; his failure to meet intensity with intensity. He still has not discovered anything about the
painting, but the painting has discovered a lot about him. He is inadequate, and the painting has told him so.
When you say “This work is boring/ pointless/silly/obscure/élitist etc.,” you might be right, because you are
looking at a fad, or you might be wrong because the work falls so outside of the safety of your own experience
that in order to keep your own world intact, you must deny the other world of the painting. This denial of
imaginative experience happens at a deeper level than our affirmation of our daily world. Every day, in countless
ways, you and I convince ourselves about ourselves. True art, when it happens to us, challenges the “I” that we
are and you say, “This work has nothing to do with me.”
Art is not a little bit of evolution that late-twentieth-century city dwellers can safely do without. Strictly, art does
not belong to our evolutionary pattern at all. It has no biological necessity. Time taken up with it was time lost to
hunting, gathering, mating, exploring, building, surviving, thriving. We say we have no time for art. If we say that
art, all art. is no longer relevant to our lives, then we might at least risk the question “What has happened to our
lives?” The usual question, “What has happened to art?” is too easy an escape route.
15. A young man visits a critically acclaimed modern art exhibition in his city and finds that he doesn’t like any
of the exhibits. If he were to share his experience with the author of the passage, which of the following is
most likely to be the author’s response?
A “Your feelings about art are totally insignificant because they are definitely prejudiced.”
B “Don’t deny the other world of art to hide your inadequacies."
C “You are as arrogant as the artists who produced those modern art exhibits.”
D “Modern art is, indeed, distasteful because of its abstract nature, and because it shows us up.”
E “You didn’t like modern art, that’s fine, but maybe you will like classical art forms.”
16. What according to the passage is the prerequisite to appreciate art?
A Prior knowledge of the art in question

B Participation with an open-mind
C Protection of assumption
D Preconceived notions of how we would be affected
E Participation of the artist
17. When the writer observes, ‘This is not arrogance; of course, they can absorb in a few moments, and without
any effort, the sum of the artist and the art’, he is being _____.
A ironical
B sarcastic
C objective
D hyperbolic
E naive
Elevation has always existed but has just moved out of the realm of philosophy and religion and been
recognized as a distinct emotional state and a subject for psychological study. Psychology has long focused on
what goes wrong, but in the past decade there has been an explosion of interest in “positive psychology”—what
makes us feel good and why. University of Virginia moral psychologist Jonathan Haidt, who coined the term
elevation, writes, “Powerful moments of elevation sometimes seem to push a mental ‘reset button,’ wiping out
feelings of cynicism and replacing them with feelings of hope, love, and optimism, and a sense of moral
inspiration.”
Haidt quotes first-century Greek philosopher Longinus on great oratory: “The effect of elevated language upon
an audience is not persuasion but transport.” Such feeling was once a part of our public discourse. After
hearing Abraham Lincoln’s second inaugural address, former slave Frederick Douglass said it was a “sacred
effort.” But uplifting rhetoric came to sound anachronistic, except as practiced by the occasional master like
Martin Luther King Jr.
It was while looking through the letters of Thomas Jefferson that Haidt first found a description of elevation.
Jefferson wrote of the physical sensation that comes from witnessing goodness in others: It is to “dilate [the]
breast and elevate [the] sentiments … and privately covenant to copy the fair example.” Haidt took this
description as a mandate.
Elevation can so often give us chills or a tingling feeling in the chest. This noticeable, physiological response is
important. In fact, this physical reaction is what can tell us most surely that we have been moved. This reaction,
and the prosocial inclinations it seems to inspire, has been linked with a specific hormone, oxytocin, emitted
from Vagus nerve which works with oxytocin, the hormone of connection. The nerve’s activities can only be
studied indirectly.
Elevation is part of a family of self-transcending emotions. Some others are awe, that sense of the vastness of
the universe and smallness of self that is often invoked by nature; another is admiration, that goose-bump-
making thrill that comes from seeing exceptional skill in action. While there is very little lab work on the
elevating emotions, there is quite a bit on its counterpart, disgust. It started as a survival strategy: Early humans
needed to figure out when food was spoiled by contact with bacteria or parasites. From there disgust expanded
to the social realm—people became repelled by the idea of contact with the defiled or by behaviors that seemed
to belong to lower people. “Disgust is probably the most powerful emotion that separates your group from other
groups.” Haidt says disgust is the bottom floor of a vertical continuum of emotion; hit the up button, and you
arrive at elevation. Another response to something extraordinary in another person can be envy, with all its
downsides. Envy is unlikely, however, when the extraordinary aspect of another person is a moral virtue (such as
acting in a just way, bravery and self-sacrifice, and caring for others).
18. Which of the options below is false according to the passage?
A Elevated language is highly persuasive.
B Elevation results in a sense of moral inspiration of and purges us of negative emotions.
C Reactions to extraordinary external stimuli inevitably purge us of evil.
D Admiration is a more appropriate antonym of disgust than elevation.
Elevation is admiration of virtue; admiration for skill is known as admiration: awe inheres in admiration
E
and is generally caused by the majesty of nature.
19. Which of the options will complete the statement given below meaningfully and appropriately, according to
the passage?
Disgust is not a self-transcending emotion because it ________.
A is the antonym of elevation
B springs from love
C is linked to invocation of nature
D it creates 'us versus them' divide based on group identities
E is about experiencing a moment when the ‘self’ reigns supreme
20. Which of the options below correctly identifies the function of elevation?
A It helps us in creating national identities.
B It helps leaders to attract followers.
C It helps us become religious.
D It helps to enforce moral and ethical values in a society.
E It helps transcendence to a higher plane.

21. Which of the statements below is least fallacious?
A Cheating in examinations is wrong because God will punish you.
B Mitigating risks often comes with costs.
C The snake in the temple likes milk because devotees offer it milk.
D Educated people do not oppose sale of hard drinks by governments. So drinking cannot be illegal.
E Marlon Brando was such a great actor because everyone liked him.
22. Which option does not reflect the relationship implicit in ‘Emendation : Editor’?
A Injunction : Judge
B Examination : Doctor
C Discipline : Coach
D Illumination : Usher
E Renunciation : Saint
23. Read the following paragraph and answer the question that follows:
Empirical observation told us years ago that goats were slowly becoming the new dog, and according to a
new study, they are truly qualified to be man’s best friend. The Royal Society released heart-warming
research showing that just like humans, goats have no desire to interact with people who come off as angry
or upset, and that they’re much more attracted to those with big smiles plastered across their faces. When
12 males and 8 females were released into a pen decorated with images of happy and angry humans, the
scientists learned that goats can “distinguish between happy and angry images of the same person,” and in
general, they prefer their humans to be happy.
Which of the following statements is definitely true according to the passage?
A When they look at a smiling person, the goats are happy.
B When they look at a frowning person, goats are afraid of him.
C When they look at a straight-faced person, goats remain passive.
D When they look at a frowning person, the goats are sad.
E When they look at a smiling person, goats run towards him.

An accurate measure of drug efficacy would require comparing the response of patients taking it with that
of patients taking placebos; the drug effect could then be calculated by subtracting the placebo response
from the overall response, much as a deli-counter worker subtracts the weight of the container to determine
how much lobster salad you’re getting. In the last half of the 1950s, this calculus gave rise to a new way to
evaluate drugs: the double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial, in which neither patient nor clinician knew
who was getting the active drug and who the placebo.
Which of the options is a wrong answer to this Question How does a double-blind ensure a better trial of a
new drug?
A It increases the overall response to the drug.
B The patient does not know whether he/she is getting a placebo.
C It reflects the calculus exemplified by the deli-counter episode.
D The clinician cannot pick and choose patients to whom placebos can be administered.
E It gives rise to an unbiased testing of drugs.

Alligators are freshwater reptiles. However, people have come face to face with them in mud in a salt marsh
in Georgia. Finding alligators in the salt marsh is not a mystery or a miracle. At least 23 species of predator
have been spotted living in surprising habitats. Predators such as alligators, otters, mountain lions, wolves
and raptors are thriving in places they shouldn't, revealing some serious misunderstandings about their
behaviour and how to protect them. Scientific literature divulges that these creatures are actually returning
to places they once occupied. It gives us astonishing insights into the lives of animals and helps
conservationists improve the old stomping grounds of these creatures.
Which of the following statements provides the most plausible explanation of the predators' behaviour?
A Predators prefer to occupy different habitats, depending on the season and prevailing weather.
B Predators migrate to a habitat different from where they were born.
C Predators are fully aware of where they were born.
D Predators have a genetic memory of their traditional stomping grounds.
E Predators have no awareness of where they were born.
26. Study the text given below and answer the question that follows it:
Dense, dirty air laced with grease best describes the atmosphere of most Lagos streets. Drive from one
corner of this great west African city to another and in no time you will find surfaces lightly dusted, like a
soft sprinkling of icing on cakes. Under the half-moons of fingernails, thick grime settles. It’s a scene taken
as typically African: polluted, bedraggled, unhealthy. This has only ever been made possible by the
exploitation of Africa’s people. This week five west African countries, Nigeria included, announced plans to
end the practice of European oil companies and traders exporting “African quality” diesel. “Dirty fuel” has
earned the name because it is imported diesel with sulphur levels as high as 3,000 parts per million when
the European maximum is 10ppm. To be clear, “African quality” fuel, is fuel not fit for European humans.
Which of the options is not necessarily the underlying assumption of the author in the paragraph above?
A European oil companies dump their fuel on African countries.
B Economic exploitation, until challenged runs smoothly.
C Racism makes it easy for Europeans to justify the exploitation of inferior races.
D Typically, African cities today are not fit for human habitation.
E African nations had accepted ‘dirty fuel’ as the norm.
Decision Making
Read the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:
You are a Human Resource (HR) Manager in the HR Department of Vikash Educational Charitable Trust. You
organize and support recruitment and training, provide secretarial support for disciplinary investigations and
keep personnel records of staff. You report to Ms. Deelipa, one of the two Senior HR Managers who reports to
the HR Director.
27. For the post of Consultant Professor in the Trust, two internal candidates, Mr. Rana and Mr. Charan were
interviewed. Mr. Charan was selected as he was considered to be academically gifted with impressive
leadership skills, even though he had less experience than the other. Three days later, Mr. Rana came to
your office complaining that the selection was unfair as he had more experience than Mr. Charan.
Which of the following is the best way to handle the issue raised by Rana?
Tell Mr. Rana, that you empathize with him, but the process was fair, and details of the assessment
A
could be shared with him.
Tell Mr. Rana that if he is interested, he could write to the HR Director and you would act as per the
B
directives received.
Offer tea to Mr. Rana and say that you can understand why he is upset. Let him have a bit of a moan and
C
help him get it out of his system.
Tell Mr. Rana that the Institute finds the right person for the job, not the one who has been around the
D
longest.
Warn Mr. Rana that his complaint will be construed as misdemeanour and held against him in the next
E
promotion cycle.
28. Ms. Deelipa has asked you to conduct a Non Teaching Staff Induction Training. You are to call for a tender
from various agencies with specifications that include the contents, duration, experience, budget and other
relevant information. You then need to shortlist five agencies from the list of 20 and make a presentation
within two days.
Review the following responses:
1. Rate all 20 agencies on a scale of 1 to 5 on information available and select the top 5.
2. Select the five lowest bids based on the price quoted.
3. Seek selection criteria from Deelipa and the HR Director and shortlist the bidders accordingly.
4. Follow the advise of a person who has completed a similar task.
Select the best of the following responses in the descending order of effectiveness?
A 4,1,3
B 1,3,4
C 3,2,4
D 1,2,3
E 3,1,2
29. The Vikash Trust has recently been plagued by a high turnover of teaching assistants with many looking for
higher salary and better facilities. You have been asked to design and run a campaign to attract and appoint
10 teaching assistants. One of your measures of success will be the retention of the new recruits. You have
4 weeks for the interview.
Review the following:
1. Shortlist apt candidates who reflect values of the Trust from among respondees to your wide
advertisement campaign.
2.Design an ad that attracts candidates with values that matches the Trust's, release it at an appropriate
time and re-validate the candidates' credentials at the time of shortlisting.
3. Repeat the process that was followed by the Trust last time.
4. Seek expert advice on drafting an attractive advertisement.
Select the best of the following responses in the descending order of effectiveness?
A 4,1,2
B 2,1,3
C 4,3,1
D 1,2,3
E 2,3,4
30. The new induction training program has been a roaring success. All new induction courses for the next 12
months have been tightly scheduled. This morning, you receive a call from Mr. Surya, the Head of the Trust
requesting you to train eight newly recruited teaching assistants before they start their job next month. You
explain that all the slots are fully booked for the next 3 months, but he insists that the new teaching
assistants be trained immediately, to hopefully reduce turnover among them. You speak to Deelipa, who
wants you to deal with the issue on your own.
Review the following responses that you wish to communicate to Mr. Surya:
1. Inform him that once the schedules are drawn up, it is not possible to effect any change as the reputation
of the Trust would be at stake.
2. Suggest that a new agency may be permitted to run induction sessions for these teaching assistants, as
a special case.
3. Tell him that if some inductees dropout in the first month, at least some teaching assistants can be
accommodated.
4. Tell him that since no space is available in the induction training sessions for three months, you, as the
HR manager would conduct induction sessions for them after office hours.
Select the best of the following responses in the descending order of effectiveness.
A 2,1,3,4
B 3,2,1,4
C 3,2,4,1
D 2,4,3,1
E 2,3,1,4
The Public Relations Department of an organization has spent only 4 crores of its allocated 16 crores on
publicity. There are 2 months left in the financial year. Due to shortage of officers, the Assistant Director,
Operations has been given an additional charge of publicity. Because of his other commitments, he is unable to
find time to undertake tasks such as baseline study, ascertaining communication needs, testing proposed
messages and media channels, deciding optimum periodicity, measuring impact, etc. He also argues spending
the rest of the budget is unnecessary because their regular programs are already widely known. His boss, the
Director, however, feels that only by utilizing the entire budget can a similar amount be demanded the next year.
He also thinks that there is nothing like enough publicity.
31. Which of these is the best course of action for the department?
A Repeat the advertising done so far 3 times over and thus exhaust the entire amount.
Rely on the operational experience of the Director and the Assistant Director and start spending the
B
optimal amount right away.
C Surrender the budget right away so it can be utilized by other departments.
Hire a specialized external agency which will study the gaps and needs within a fortnight and follow it's
D
recommendations.
E Request higher authorities to reallocate the remaining amount to other departments of the organization.
32. Which of these new developments, if true, would most justify a larger utilization of the advertising budget?
A Advertising agencies have announced a 25% reduction in rates.
An internal committee of the organization has made strong recommendations to improve service
B
delivery.
C The organization has approved a new major scheme for immediate implementation.
D The findings of a baseline study on assessing communication needs are now available.
E A new Assistant Director has been posted to exclusively look after publicity.
Read the following caselet and answer questions that follow:
Sanchit group of Hospitals seeks to improve the success rate and patient satisfaction rate by 100% in the next
year. However, the management can't afford to send doctors for professional development outside the country
nor afford purchasing more equipment. As an in-house measure, the managing board thought of having doctors
with high patient satisfaction to mentor those with less. Most of the doctors found it an interference by the
management, judgmental and an expression of distrust. There were, however, some isolated few who found it a
novel way of learning from each other. The doctors felt the management should instead increase consultancy
fees and spend more on recruiting more paramedics who could spend time with patients, rather than blame
doctors and decided to call it quits. For the management, this would mean loss of patients.
33. Consider the following actions:
1. Conduct a survey of all stakeholders and ascertain their needs and suggestions.
2. Build consensus among doctors and paramedics on a possible way forward.
3. Prepare an action plan that details the road map along with financial implications.
4. Design differential service packages based on the affordability of the patients.
5. Run a brainstorming session among the leading doctors of the area.
Which of the following sequence of actions is most appropriate for the hospital administration in achieving
their goal?
A 5,4,2
B 1,5,3
C 4,2,1
D 4,5,2
E 1,2,3
34. Which of the following decisions is most likely to satisfy all the stakeholders?
A Increase the income of doctors and paramedics, and the ambiance of the hospital.
B Give 30% discount on medicines purchased from the hospital store.
C Increase the income of doctors and the number of paramedics.
D Raise income of doctors and reduce the waiting time of patients.
Allow doctors to choose patients based on income levels, thus profiting both patients and the
E
organization.
35. Given the current situation, which of the following is the most interactive and effective way to increase the
learning among paramedics and doctors?
Get doctors and paramedics with high satisfaction rates document their success stories for use of
A
others.
Encourage paramedics and doctors to pursue courses over MOOC platform, at their own cost, which
B
shall be partially subsidized after successful completion.
C Ask doctors and paramedics with high satisfaction rate to give lectures to others before start of work.
D Implement professional development standards for staff linking it with an accountability framework.
Create groups of paramedics and doctors, to meet everyday and discuss their insights and experience of
E
the day.
Thakur Raja, a young cabinet minister, glanced through the notes of his secretary regarding the recent
controversies on ‘Racket’, the most popular game of the country. While International Racket Association (IRA)
has agreed to implement Drug Testing Code (DTC), the Racket Club which controls the entire Racket related
activities had some reservations regarding the initiative. A majority of the citizens eagerly awaited their
country's participation and performance at the international competitions during the Champions Trophy. Due to
the popularity of the game, 70% of the total revenue associated with the game originates from the country.
Hence, the Racket Club has earned high bargaining power with the IRA and can influence decisions not aligned
with its interests. Three of the most popular and senior players of the Club, including the captain, are against
the imposition of DTC citing security reasons. A decision against the interests of these players might result in
law and order problems throughout the country. Other players support the decision of their senior colleagues
and if the Racket Club refuses, players may support the rebel Counter Racket Club, a new national level
initiative. The Counter Racket Club can challenge the monopoly of the Racket Club, if it succeeds in attracting
some popular players.
Raja was a great soccer player and has major reservations against racket. According to him, racket has
negative influence on the country’s youth and distracts them from productive work. He also considers drug
testing as an essential feature of any sports and games across the world. As the new cabinet minister for Youth
and Sports, he needs to take some important decisions on this contentious issue.
36. If Thakur Raja wants to create a lasting impact, the most reasonable option for him is to:
A Force the Racket Club to accept all regulations relating to drug testing.
B Enforce drug testing while providing adequate security to all players.
C Get popular Racket players to endorse Soccer.
D Ban Racket as a sport, citing its negative influence on youth.

E Align with Counter Racket Club and reinforce their initiatives.
37. Identify the best argument for Raja to decide in favor of the IRA.
A Raja is interested in making Racket less popular in the country.
B Three of the top international teams are keen on implementing DTC.
C The next World cup is scheduled to be held in a country which has made DTC mandatory.
Raja and the President of the Racket Club are political opponents and could use the present issue to
D
settle their mutual scores.
E Raja can justify his decision citing his position as a cabinet minister.
38. According to DTC, each athlete/sportsperson needs to submit their schedule for the next three months
specifying an hour each day when they can be randomly tested for drugs. DTC also ensures the
confidentiality of the submitted schedule by:
i. Limiting access of player-supplied information only to two senior officers.
ii. Allowing these officers to access the schedule of only those sports persons who are randomly selected
for testing.
iii. Introducing similar security features for DTC database as is the case with financial institutions.
The top three popular players realize security is the only reason for them to get a favorable decision from
Raja. Hence during discussions, they should focus on all options except:
A Recent report includes their country to be among the top five nations vulnerable to data security breach.
B DTC is unwilling to share details with security agencies of officers involved in background check.
Any leak of their private schedules may result in huge public gathering and it will make the job of
C
security agencies very difficult.
D Popular Racket players are on the hit list of terrorist organizations.
E It is difficult to provide adequate security coverage in large stadiums where Racket is played.
Mrs. Bhalla is the principal of ‘Happy Public School’. While it is a private school, the trust is socially sensitive
and as part of their “Spread Happiness Policy” provides quality education to many needy students from low
income neighborhood for free. She received a strange complaint from some of the affluent parents regarding
their discomfort with allowing poor children to study along with their kids. They were concerned more about
their manners, habits and language than about schooling. They wanted the trust to either start a separate shift
for such children or remove them from the school since they are supporting them. On the other hand, the
parents of the poor children complained of bullying and teasing and shared their concern regarding the mental
trauma their children undergo. While Mrs. Bhalla, by no means wants to yield to the demands of the affluent
parents, she also cannot ignore them since some of them have been making substantial donations to the
school.
39. Which of the following is most likely to get the affluent parents to accept the school’s policy?
A Accept the suggestion of affluent parents to start a separate shift for the poor students.
Invite professionals to conduct workshop for the poorer children so that they learn basic manners,
B
habits and language.
C Meet the two parent groups separately, understand their key concerns and seek solutions from both.
D Invite the founder of the school to clarify to all parents the school’s policy.
Share the fact, that the government instituted school ranking, places 25% weight to policies similar to the
E
school's.
40. While Mrs. Bhalla understands the problems of overcrowded classrooms and classroom management, she
foresees in them an opportunity to develop more sensitive and self-motivated learners.
Mrs. Bhalla is considering the following actions:
1. Take the student and teacher councils on board and seek their ideas to redress the challenge the school
faces.
2. Brainstorm with teachers and students on a strategy to engage all learners in teams for meaningful
learning and healthy relationships.
3. Encourage students for self-learning and teachers into more supervisory roles to ensure discipline.
4. Engage students in a process of periodic reflection so that they can get in touch with their thoughts,
feelings and actions towards self and others.
5. Create achievement based student groups to encourage competition and ease classroom management.
Which of the following combination of actions would be most effective in developing sensitive and self-
motivated learners?
A 1,2,3
B 1,3,5
C 2,1,5
D 5,4,3
E 1,2,4
41. Which of the following options will empower students the most?
A Ensure no kid from poor income group is detained.
B Maximise students learning achievement.
C Help students relate learning to their real life experiences.
D Ensure rich kids to get to know those on whom their money is spent.
E Encourage students to ask questions that teacher find difficult to answer.

Read the following caselet and answer questions that follow:
Divya grew up in a business family in Hyderabad. As a Systems engineer she travelled extensively on business
deals and later settled in her in-law’s place in Warangal. Once during her visit to Thailand she got to taste some
roll over ice cream. Interestingly, a few weeks later, she came across an advertisement from a reputed
Bangalore based Rollover Handcrafted Ice Cream Company calling for expression of interest from potential
franchises.
Warangal did not have any quality ice cream parlour. The company wanted the potential franchisees to invest
Rs. 20 lacs and 700 square feet space. Profits were to be shared in 3:7 ratio between the company and the
franchisee. Divya was excited, but was wondering if Rs. 20 lacs was too much to invest. Further, she did not
have the entire amount and was thinking of taking a loan. She enquired with the Rollover franchisees and found
that a franchisee in Hyderabad had sales revenue varying between 5 and 6 lacs rupees per month with a profit
margin between 25-30%. Divya decided to go ahead.
Warangal had three main areas -Kazipet, Jangaon and Warangal. All areas were linked by good roads. Kazipet
was a business area where most high end retail formats were located. It was also the education hub of the city.
Jangaon, on the other hand, was a growing lower middle class business area and Warangal was mostly
residential.
Divya favoured Kazipet. However, she soon encountered problems. Not only was it difficult to obtain space in
Kazipet but property rentals touched 30-40 rupees per square feet per month as against Jangaon and Warangal
where it was 15-20 rupees per square feet per month. Divya’s friend, who lived in Jangaon, told her that a few
branded outlets were opening in Jangaon and it appeared to be the fastest growing market in Warangal with the
highest percentage of teenagers. But, Divya was not in favour of Jangaon. She hoped to target college going
crowd of Kazipet. High real estate prices in Kazipet and lower profitability estimate in Jangaon market
confused Divya.
42. Which of the following options, if true, would most likely interest Divya to start a franchise?
A Doctors of the area do not consider Ice cream to be a major cause of obesity.
B A bank is ready to give her a quick loan.
C She can charge high prices for her ice creams without losing customers.
D Her friend who runs a restaurant recently in Kazipet is doing good business.
E In recent times, a couple of franchisees shut down within months of starting.
43. Which of the following is least likely to demotivate Divya?
A Investing a huge amount may not bring expected returns.
B The bank would insist on loan repayment on a monthly basis.
C The property rentals would soon go up in Kazipet.
D Unlike Hyderabad, people in Kazipet don’t seem to like Rollover ice cream.
E Rollover franchise in Hyderabad is making huge profits.

44. What could be the most likely reason for Divya opting for Kazipet?
A Spiralling real-estate prices in Kazipet.
B No branded outlets is likely to come up in Jangaon in the near future.
C High percentage of teenagers in Kazipet attracted to Rollover ice cream.

D High density of population in both Warangal and Jangaon.
E She felt, college going crowd is excited about the latest in ice creams.
45. Which is the most important decision criterion for Divya to consider in such a business situation?
A Attracting customers through big discounts in the initial phase of business.
B Consistent increase in the number of customers in the future.
C Range and variety of ice-cream flavours.
D Availability of space in premium locality.
E Availability of loan at low interest rate.
Due to increased competition, Electro Automobiles, the Indian subsidiary of Robert Automobile Company (RAC)
reported lower sales and profits. RAC expects its new model Limo, developed especially for value conscious
customers of India and China, would revive its fortunes. In order to prevent customers from buying competing
products, RAC announced the launch of Limo six months ahead of schedule. Unrest in its Indian supplier
resulted in delayed delivery of essential components to its main plant. Hence, Limo was launched on schedule
only in China. Within a short span, Limo captured 30% of the Chinese market , which was 200% higher than
expectation. Indian customers were becoming increasingly restless because they couldn't get a Limo in India.
Electro’s dealers were worried, customers might switch to other cars.
46. The indian subsidiary is concerned that the delay in launching the product will give undue advantage to
some competitor. The organization was considering the following strategies to keep customers engaged
with the company:
1. Ask the dealers to encourage their prospective customers to seek similar products from the competition,
rather than wait for Limo’s launch.
2. Suggest the dealers to accept booking for Limo, announcing the launch within six months of booking,
while in reality plan to keep postponing launch indefinitely.
3. Run full page advertisements in the papers, every month, to keep the interest in the model from ebbing,
with no mention of the launch date.
4. Import parts from outside India, and launch the product, at a 30% premium, planning a relaunch a few
years later of the indianized version.
5. Go against its worldwide policy of non-interference in supplier plants, and announce a hefty bonus to the
employees of the supplier with a hope to temporarily bring the plant to life.
6. Promise the supplier plant (that has some unrest) a higher margin share of about 5% compared to what
was shared earlier, with an eye to stem the unrest.
Which of the following combination of responses above, will most likely keep the prospective customers
engaged with the company and not jump to some competitor’s product?
A 1,2,3
B 2,3,4
C 3,2,5
D 1,5,6
E 3,4,5
47. Mr. Murugan from Chennai experienced the comfort of Limo during his visit to China. He was willing to
deposit an approximate price of Limo to buy the first available unit from Mr. Ahmed, a dealer in Chennai.
Electro Automobile is yet to announce the actual price, and the process for allocation of the vehicles.
Which of the following is the best option for Ahmed?
Collect 50% of the entire amount Mr. Murugan is willing to deposit as advance and the remaining at the
A
time of launch.
Collect the entire amount Mr. Murugan is willing to deposit after clarifying that delivery and price is
B
subject to the company policy.
Collect the amount and transfer it to the account of Electro Automobiles, instead of keeping it in his
C
personal account.
D Collect the amount from Mr. Murugan. Later when the delivery is delayed, blame it on RAC’s problems.
E Not collect the amount, but suggest to Mr. Murugan to write to Electro Automobiles.
Quant
48. A, B, C, D and E are five employees working in a company. In two successive years, each of them got hikes
in his salary as follows:
A : p% and (p+1)%,
B : (p+2)% and (p-1)%,
C : (p+3)% and (p-2)%,
D : (p+4)% and (p-3)%,
E : (p+5)% and (p-4)%.
If all of them have the same salary at the end of two years, who got the least hike in his salary?
A E
B D
C C
D A
E B
49. A firm pays its five clerks Rs. 15,000 each, three assistants Rs. 40,000 each and its accountant Rs. 66,000.
Then the mean salary in the firm comprising of these nine employees exceeds its median salary by rupees
A 14000
B 14600
C 15200
D 15480
E 14720
50. Two numbers a and b are inversely proportional to each other. If a increases by 100%, then b decreases by:
A 200%
B 100%
C 150%
D 80%
E 50%
3
51. If 7a × 35b+1 × 20c+2 is a whole number then which one of the statements below is consistent with it?

A a = 2, b = 1, c = 1
B a = 1, b = 2, c = 2
C a = 2, b = 1, c = 2
D a = 3, b = 1, c = 1
E a = 3, b = 2, c = 1
52. A gold ingot in the shape of a cylinder is melted and the resulting molten metal molded into a few identical
conical ingots. If the height of each cone is half the height of the original cylinder and the area of the
circular base of each cone is one fifth that of the circular base of the cylinder, then how many conical ingots
can be made?
A 60
B 10
C 30
D 20
E 40
53. Given that a and b are integers and that 5x + 2 7 is a root of the polynomial x2 − ax + b + 2 7 in x,

what is the value of b?
A 5
B 2
C 9
D 7
E 14
54. An article is marked x% above the cost price. A discount of 2 x% is given on the marked price. If the profit is
3
4% of the cost price and the value of x lies between 25 and 50, then the value of 50% of x is?
A 12
B 16
C 13
D 15
E 20
55. A computer is sold either for Rs.19200 cash or for Rs.4800 cash down payment together with five equal
monthly installments. If the rate of interest charged is 12% per annum, then the amount of each installment
(nearest to a rupee) is:
A Rs.2880
B Rs.2965
C Rs.2896
D Rs.2990
E Rs.3016
56. When opening his fruit shop for the day a shopkeeper found that his stock of apples could be perfectly
arranged in a complete triangular array: that is, every row with one apple more than the row immediately
above, going all the way up ending with a single apple at the top.
During any sales transaction, apples are always picked from the uppermost row, and going below only when
that row is exhausted.
When one customer walked in the middle of the day she found an incomplete array in display having 126
apples totally. How many rows of apples (complete and incomplete) were seen by this customer? (Assume
that the initial stock did not exceed 150 apples.)
A 15
B 14
C 13
D 12
E 11
57. Let P be the point of intersection of the lines
3x + 4y = 2a and 7x + 2y = 2018
and Q the point of intersection of the lines
3x + 4y = 2018 and 5x + 3y = 1
If the line through P and Q has slope 2, the value of a is:
A 4035
B 1/2
C 3026
D 1
E 1009
58. Let C be a circle of radius 20 cm. Let L1, L2 be the lines given by 2x − y −1 = 0 and x + 2y−18 = 0,

respectively. Suppose that L1 passes through the center of C and that L2 is tangent to C at the point of
intersection of L1 and L2. If (a,b) is the center of C, which of the following is a possible value of a + b?
A 11
B 17
C 8
D 20
E 14
59. log(97−56 3) equals which of the following?

log 7+4 3
A None of the others
B -2
C -4
D -3
E -5

60. In the trapezium ABCD the sides AB and CD are parallel. The value of sin∠BAC is

sin∠BAD
A BC
AD
B AB
CD
C AC
CD
D AD
AC
E AC
AD
61. In the picture below, EFGH, ABCD are squares, and ABE, BCF, CDG, DAH are equilateral triangles. What is the
ratio of the area of the square EFGH to that of ABCD?
A 3+2
B 2+ 3
C 1+ 3
D 2+2
E 3+ 2
62. What is the maximum number of points that can be placed on a circular disk of radius 1 metre (some of the
points could be placed on the bounding circle of the disk) such that no two points are at a distance of less
than 1 metre from each other?
A 6
B 9
C 7
D 8
E 5
63. The figure below shows two right angled triangles ∆OAB and ∆OQP with right angles at vertex A and P,
respectively, having the common vertex O, The lengths of some of the sides are indicated in the figure.
(Note that the figure is not drawn to scale.) AB and OP are parallel.
What is ∠QOB?
A tan−1 (2/3)
B 45°
C 30°
D tan−1 (3/2)
E 60°
64. Consider the function f(x) = (x + 4)(x + 6)(x + 8) ⋯ (x + 98). The number of integers x for which f(x) < 0 is:
A 23
B 26
C 24

D 48

65. Let ABC be an isosceles triangle. Suppose that the sides AB and AC are equal and let the length of AB be x
cm. Let b denote the angle ∠ABC and sin b = 3/5. If the area of the triangle ABC is M square cm, then which
of the following is true about M?
x2
A M< 4
3x2
B 4 ≤ M < x2
C M ≥ x2
x2 3x2
D 2 ≤M < 4
x2 x2
E 4 ≤M < 2
66. If x2 + x + 1 = 0, then x2018 + x2019 equals which of the following:
A x+1
B x
C −x
D x−1
67. We have two unknown positive integers m and n, whose product is less than 100.
There are two additional statement of facts available:
mn is divisible by six consecutive integers { j, j + 1,...,j + 5 }
m + n is a perfect square.
Which of the two statements above, alone or in combination shall be sufficient to determine the numbers m
and n?
A Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is
B
sufficient.
C Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
D Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question.
E Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
68. A bag contains marbles of three colours-red, blue and green. There are 8 blue marbles in the bag.
There are two additional statement of facts available:
If we pull out marbles from the bag at random, to guarantee that we have at least 3 green marbles, we need
to extract 17 marbles.
If we pull out marbles from the bag at random, to guarantee that we have at least 2 red marbles, we need to
extract 19 marbles.
Which of the two statements above, alone or in combination shall be sufficient to answer the question "how
many green marbles are there in the bag"?
A Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
B Statement 2 alone is sufficient, but statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C Statements 1 and 2 together are not sufficient, and additional data is needed to answer the question.
D Each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is
E
sufficient.
The break-up of the students in a university by subject major is given in the polar pie-chart. The bar chart shows
the number of students who major in physics by geographic location.
69. How many students major in chemistry?
A 200
B 175
C 170
D 190
E 180
70. If the proportion of physics majors who are from Delhi is the same as the proportion of engineering majors
who are from Delhi, how many engineering majors are from Delhi?
A 22
B 26
C 18
D 20
E 24
71. 12% of all students are from Chennai. What is the largest possible percentage of economics students that
can be from Chennai, rounded off to the nearest integer?
A 73%
B 77%
C 75%
D 71%
E 69%
Given below is the time table for a trans-continental train that cuts across several time zones. All timings are in
local time in the respective cities. The average speed of the train between any two cities is the same in both
directions.
72. Which of the following pairs of cities are in the same time zone?
A Yag and Vaq
B Vaq and Sab
C Zut and Yag
D No pair of cities are in the same time zone.
E Sab and Raz

73. What is the total time taken in minutes by the train to go from Zut to Raz?
A 22 hours, 40 minutes
B 28 hours, 40 minutes
C 16 hours, 40 minutes
D 20 hours, 40 minutes
E 24 hours, 40 minutes
74. What time is it at Yag when it is 12:00 noon at Sab?
A 5:00 pm
B 12:00 noon
C 9:30 am
D 7:00 am
E 2:30 pm
General Knowledge
75. Which of the following countries does not border the Mediterranean Sea?
A Portugal
B Greece
C Spain
D Italy
E France
76. The Mumbai Interbank Bid Rate (MIBID) and the Mumbai Interbank Offer Rate (MIBOR) are yardsticks that
control which of the following financial markets?
A FOREX markets
B Commodities markets
C Derivatives market
D Insurance market
E Call Money market
77. Name the city which was the capital of the ‘undivided’ Assam state immediately after independence.
A Aizawl
B Agartala
C Kohima
D Imphal
E Shillong
78. Name the European country that signed a pact with India in March 2018 to deepen the cooperation in the
field of environment management. The deal also affirms a commitment to fight climate change.
A France
B UK
C Netherlands
D Portugal
E Spain
79. Name the two countries with which India has inked agreements to enable the successful mission called
‘Gaganyaan’ that is slated for 2022.
A USA and China
B UK and USA
C France and Russia
D USA and France
E Russia and China
80. The ‘Kyoto Protocol’ which was adopted in 1997 by several countries in Kyoto, Japan focusses on which of
the following aspects?
A Climate Change
B Repatriation of criminals
C Anti-terrorism
D Denuclearisation
E Free Trade Agreements

81. Name the Russian leader whose name is synonymous with the two reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika.
A Yuri Andropov
B Leonid Brezhnev
C Konstantin Chernenko
D Boris Yeltsin
E Mikhail Gorbachev
82. Name the Indian saint who wrote ‘Autobiography of a Yogi’.
A Satya Sai Baba
B Swami Abhedananda
C Sri Aurobindo
D Paramhansa Yogananda
E Hanuman Das Baba

83. Sequence these four rivers in terms of their point of meeting the Bay of Bengal from north to south (i.e.
from Kolkata down southwards to Kanyakumari).
A Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery
B Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery
C Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Cauvery
D Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, Cauvery
E Mahanadi, Godavari, Cauvery, Krishna

84. According to the World Bank, which country is the highest recipient of remittances?
A China
B Mexico
C Philippines
D India
E Egypt
85. Of the five members listed from the erstwhile royal families of Kerala, one was a nationally known painter
and artist. In his name, every year the government of Kerala award people for their excellence in the field of
art and culture. Name this painter.
A Marthanda Varma
B Chitra Thirunal
C Avittom Thirunal
D Sree Mulam Thirunal
E Raja Ravi Varma

86. Of the five people listed below, four are Managing Directors and one is the Chairman of the State Bank of
India (SBI) as of October 2018. Who among the five is the Chairman of SBI?
A Rajnish Kumar
B Arijit Basu
C PK Gupta
D Dinesh Kumar Khara
E Anshula Kant
87. The prestigious Horlicks brand of GlaxoSmithKline has been recently brought over by another mega FMCG
brand. Name the buyer company.
A Cavinkare
B Patanjali
C Nestle
D Dabur
E Hindustan Unilever
88. Which of the following countries is not a member of Union of European Football Association (UEFA)?
A Georgia
B Kazakhstan
C Azerbaijan
D Turkey
E Uzbekistan
89. Which of the mobile service providers is going to launch GigaFiber broadband?
A Airtel
B Idea
C Vodafone
D Jio
E BSNL
90. What is the common name of the acidic combination of nitric acid and hydrochloric acid that can actually
dissolve metals like gold and platinum?
A Aqua Pura
B Aqua Regia
C Aqua Fina
D Auro Dissolvo
E Aqua Aura
91. Viacom18 is a popular entertainment network of India. Which of these channels does not belong to
Viacom18?
A Colors
B Rishtey
C MTV
D Nickelodeon
E Disney International
92. Republic of Armenia is a UN member state but is not recognized by one of the UN member states. Identify
the state.
A Russia
B Georgia
C Azerbaijan
D Pakistan
E Iran
93. The name of this dance and the name of the community that performs this dance is the same. It is a
Rajasthani folk dance and the intricate dance movements mimic the movement of snakes. Which dance are
we talking about?
A Lambadi dance
B Kalbelia dance
C Chhau dance
D Phag dance
E Bihu dance
94. Which of the following countries is the largest source of imports to India as on 31st March 2018?
A Switzerland
B Pakistan
C China
D Saudi Arabia
E USA
95. Which of the following is a winter game which is very similar to Ice Hockey and is often considered as the
national sport of Russia?
A Pato
B Bandy
C Tejo
D Arnis
E Bubkashi
96. Which of the following liquids demonstrates a convex meniscus when confined within a glass tube?
A Water in an anomalous expansion state between 0-4° C
B Water at room temperature
C Olive oil
D Petroleum
E Mercury
97. Arrange these historical events in the order of their occurrence:

1. Introduction of Ryotwari System in India
2. Vernacular Press Act
3. Permanent settlement of Bengal
4. Introduction of Rowlatt Act
A iii, i, ii, iv
B i, ii, iv, iii
C i, iii, ii, iv
D i, iii, iv, ii
E iii, ii, i, iv
98. What is Article 356 of Indian Constitution?
A Provision of special status to the state of Manipur.
B Provision of special status to the state of J & K.
C Suspension of Financial autonomy to a state.
D Provision of special status to the state of Arunachal.
E Imposition of President's Rule after the suspension of a state government.

99. Which are the three sessions of the Parliament of India?
A New Year Session, Summer Session and Winter Session
B Budget Session, Diwali Session and Winter Session
C Budget Session, Monsoon Session and Winter Session
D Summer Session, Monsoon Session and Winter Session
E Spring Session, Summer Session and Winter Session

Answers
English
1.B 2.E 3.E 4.C 5.D 6.E 7.D 8.C

9.C 10.B 11.B 12.E 13.B 14.E 15.B 16.B
17.B 18.C 19.D 20.E 21.B 22.D 23.A 24.A
25.D 26.C
Decision Making
27.A 28.E 29.B 30.D 31.D 32.C 33.E 34.A

35.E 36.B 37.C 38.E 39.E 40.E 41.C 42.C
43.E 44.E 45.B 46.E 47.B
Quant
48.A 49.A 50.E 51.E 52.C 53.A 54.D 55.B

56.D 57.C 58.B 59.C 60.D 61.A 62.C 63.B
64.C 65.E 66.C 67.B 68.B 69.B 70.D 71.A
72.C 73.A 74.A
General Knowledge
75.A 76.E 77.E 78.A 79.C 80.A 81.E 82.D

83.B 84.D 85.E 86.A 87.E 88.E 89.D 90.B
91.E 92.D 93.B 94.C 95.B 96.E 97.A 98.E
99.C
Explanations
English
1. B
From an initial reading, we can understand that the two parts of the sentence are contrasting each other. So the
perfect fir for the first blank is "while".
Since in the first case the importance is widely acknowledged, in the second case it has to be the opposite, so
the best fit for the third blank would be "far less".
In the second and fourth blank, we need an apt preposition, and the correct one would be "within".
So the correct option is B.
2. E
In the first blank we are looking for a word that signifies a dilemma, quandary(4) is a word that goes well here
as it means "state of perplexity or uncertainty over what to do in a difficult situation".
The second blank requires a word that goes with the essence of depicting an image, symbolizes(3) is the
perfect fit for this blank as there is no option which has the word depict(8) in it.
The third blank requires a word that means to accept or come to terms with something, while attune(5) is a
good choice, reconcile(7) is the best choice and is also available in the options.
Hence the answer is 437.
3. E
The highlighted word is conventional which here means common knowledge, known by all. The perfect
antonym would be unfounded which means having no foundation or not based on truth.
4. C
The first blank requires a word that conveys the idea of something which is easy to do. Joy is a word that
conveys the expression, but we have a better choice which is a breeze (a thing that is easy to accomplish).
Hence we have eliminated Options A B and D.
The second blank requires a word that goes with the idea of increasing or improving, enhancing is a perfect fit.
So we can conclude that the correct option is C as the other two words stimulate (encourage or increase
activity) and prosthesis (artificially created or modified body part) match for the respective blanks.
5. D
2 introduces us to an archaeological discovery of clay vessels. 1 takes it forward by telling about the studies
carried out on the finds which conclude that the vessels were used to store cheese. 3 explains why cheese was
stored instead of milk. At the same time, 5 elaborates why cows were domesticated for milk rather than for
meat. 4 states the changes in views of several archaeologists as a result of the discovery.
Hence the correct order of the sentences is 21354.
6. E
2 is introducing a scenario where, despite a shift in the regime of spectrum management, new technological
developments are suggesting that there are significant opportunities in managing large swathes of the
spectrum as a common property resource. 5 elaborates the opportunities mentioned earlier. 4 presents a
potential problem to 5 due to the supply of spectrum being restricted. 3 elaborates the problem mentioned in 4.
1 provides a solution to the presented problem.
Hence the correct order of the sentences is 25431.
7. D
The speaker tersely describes an ominous setting: "Black lake, black boat, two black, cut-paper people."
Though this line describes the setting of the poem, it does not convey the theme, nor does it imply an
overpowering sense of rebellion or cyclical nature of life and death.
While it does suggest evil as a whole, each element of the first line conveys a distinct image.
Such an essence is is conveyed only in option D.
8. C
So far, the poem was conveying the image of engulfing blackness; suddenly, the speaker notices, "Stars open
among the lilies".
The light that now appears along with the newly formed visible "lilies" stuns the speaker as it is not held back by
the darkness around, but rather it blossoms hope.
In option C, this evaluation is well expressed.
Therefore, the correct answer is C.
9. C
The idea conveyed in the passage is that while people with mood swings generally do better in creative profiles
as compared to nine to five jobs, hence there is the possibility of mood swings being more prevalent in creative
jobs as compared to other ones.
There is no direct indication of mood swings leading to increased creativity (1) or the flexibility factor of
creative jobs making it more appealing for the more creative people (2).
However, if mood swings in creative professions are less prevalent than in non-creative occupations (3), then it
would undermine the idea of the passage.
Hence C is the only option that contradicts the passage's main argument.
10. B
According to the passage, people with mood disorders do better in creative jobs as compared to nine to five
jobs.
Options A, C, D&E all agree to this idea.
However, there is no evidence showing that within creative jobs people with mood disorders are more creative
than those without.
Hence the correct option is B.
11. B
The author is trying to assert the idea that people who suffer from mood disorders may gravitate towards
creative professions.
Option A goes with this idea.
Option C may seem like the right choice, but the author does not believe that all creative people are bound to
end up with mental health issues.
Option D is the direct contrast of Option C and goes somewhat in line with the author's ideas.
In option E, if creativity is a form of bipolar disorder, then it does not go against the author's beliefs.
But if patients in mental asylums prefer time-bound repetitive jobs, then the author's contention would be
rendered fallacious because time-bound repetitive tasks are considered mundane and uncreative.
12. E
Throughout the passage, the underlying idea is that women are forced to adapt to masculine traits to gain
public acceptance.
Here we are looking for an option in which the idea that women do not have to follow masculine traits or even
better, men have to adapt characteristics of women to gain acceptance.
If the male followers of powerful women political leaders in India imitate their leaders' (women politicians')
traits, then the whole idea of the passage is invalid.
Hence the option we are looking for is E.
13. B
An American female politician is expected to exhibit features of public discourse while talking publicly or in a
professional capacity.
However, she is doesn't have to maintain this charade in private. So we are looking for an option in which the
public is not watching her or hearing her interaction.
Chatting with an intimate colleague is a private event, and hence, she can be herself.
Therefore, the correct choice is B.
14. E
In the passage, it is discussed that women face a challenge in today's world as the expected standards are all
set to masculine values.
So if sharing of emotions and elaboration, both considered as feminine traits, is more important than sharing
information and being brief, which are considered masculine traits, then the core argument of the passage that
women are having trouble getting the world to accept their qualities as a standard would be irrelevant.
Therefore the option we are looking for is E.
15. B
The author is of the view that the reason viewers are unable to appreciate art is because of their arrogance
which makes them unworthy or inadequate of the art. The author has a condescension towards the people who
are unable to appreciate art.
Of the options, in D&E, the idea is being supportive of the views of the young man. Whereas, in A&C, the tone is
that of insult.
Only in B, we can find a tone of condescension.
Hence, the choice that most reflects this view of the author Option B.
16. B
In the passage, the author mentions "Our poor art-lover in his aesthetic laboratory has not succeeded in freeing
himself from the protection of assumption".
From this, it is clear that in order to truly appreciate art, one must be free of assumptions and should be open-
minded.
17. B
The author is criticising the audience for their arrogance, so when he says "This is not arrogance; of course,
they can absorb in a few moments, and without any effort, the sum of the artist and the art" he is clearly being
sarcastic.
Hence the correct answer is B.
18. C
From the passage, we understand that "Another response to something extraordinary in another person can be
envy, with all its downsides". However, Option C suggests that an extraordinary stimuli will definitely rid us of all
evil; this is false.
We have to keep in mind that we cannot make assumptions unless asked in the question.
Hence, we have to select an option such that the passage can justify the fallacy of the idea.
Therefore the correct answer is C.
19. D
Transcend is the exhilarating experience of something beyond normal or rather an experience of something
higher.
Disgust is not the antonym of elevation, and neither does it spring from love.
There is no indication in the passage that disgust invokes nature, nor does it mention anything about a moment
when self-reign prevails. While these characteristics of disgust may be true, we have to select an answer based
on the passage.
Disgust is a negative emotion that creates the feeling of separation and the same is given in the passage.
So the correct answer is D.
20. E
From the passage, we get the phrase "Elevation is part of a family of self-transcending emotions", transcending
is the experience of something beyond natural or physical. The closest we have to this definition is Option E.
21. B
Let's examine each option.
A. Cheating in an examination is wrong not because God will punish us, rather because cheating is morally
wrong and is so with or without the fear of punishment.
B. Mitigating risks may or may not come with a cost and the use of the word "often" keeps this sentence from
being fallacious.
C. The snake may like milk irrespective of what the devotees offer.
D. A government which is liable to listen to the people cannot discriminate on the basis of educational
qualification of the people.
E. Marlon Brando was a great actor irrespective of his fan following.
Hence the answer that is least fallacious is B.
22. D
Emendation is the process of correcting a judgement, which is an action performed by a judge.
In Option D we have illumination (to illuminate or light up) and Usher (a person who directs people to their
designated seats at a wedding or in a cinema), the two words don't establish a relationship like the one in the
example while all the other options do.
Hence the correct answer is D.
23. A
Let's consider two instances from the passage, "they’re much more attracted to those with big smiles plastered
across their faces" & "they prefer their humans to be happy".
We can infer from these that goats become happy when they are looking at a smiling person because naturally,
they will be happy to see something they are attracted to.
Hence A is definitely true. But similar reactions based on emotions or situations cannot be clearly determined
from the given passage.
24. A
From the passage, it is clear the that double-blind, placebo-controlled clinical trial is unbiased, gives no chance
for the clinician to choose patients nor does the patient know if he is getting the drug or the placebo and
moreover it reflects the calculus exemplified by the deli-counter episode. In no way does this trial increase the
overall efficiency of the drug. So the correct answer is A.
25. D
From the sentence "Scientific literature divulges that these creatures are actually returning to places they once
occupied" it is understood that predators have a memory of their stomping grounds.
Hence the answer is D.
26. C
While all the other ideas are expressed in the passage, there is no mention of Europeans using racism to justify
their exploitation.
Hence the correct answer is C.
Decision Making
27. A
Mr. Charan was selected as he was considered to be academically gifted with impressive leadership skills, even
though he had less experience than Mr. Rana. The best way to handle the issue raised by Rana would be to
empathize with him and state that the process was fair. Option D and E would be too rude and unprofessional
as Mr. Rana has every right to voice his grievance. Option B does not help in resolving the situation. Moreover, it
is too ‘bureaucratic’ in nature. Option C is not a better option when compared to option A as it does not provide
Mr. Rana with details of the assessment which would help him in his understanding of the situation.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
28. E
Following the advice of a person who has completed a similar task is not really a valid step to follow in a
process. If it is followed, the rest of the actions would be irrelevant so we can ignore statement 4. From the
other options, it would be prudent to first seek selection criteria to shortlist the bidders, then rate all 20
agencies on a scale and finally select the five lowest bids. Thus option E contains the appropriate sequence of
actions.
29. B
Since the turnover of applicants is already quite high, investing money on designing an attractive advertisement
would be redundant. Note that 4 talks about an 'attractive' investment and not an appropriate advertisement,
and hence, would not be suitable. Thus, we need to order 1,2,3 and 3 now, as these are better than 4, which is
directly eliminated.
1. The problem here is to sift the candidates from such a large pool. Since 1 does not provide a way to do that,
and advises to go the long route, it would not be that effective.
2. Filtering the candidates, in the beginning, would ensure that only the right and motivated candidate make it to
the interview. Hence, 2 would be the most effective.
3. Following the last year's procedure would be the least effective as it might not be prepared to deal with the
increased influx of applications.
Thus the decreasing order of effectiveness would be 2, 1, 3.
30. D
Mr. Surya, the Head of the Trust is requesting to train eight newly recruited teaching assistants before they start
their job next month. Even though all the slots are fully booked for the next 3 months, the training of the new
teaching assistants is crucial. As the slots are fully booked for the next 3 months, a new agency can be
appointed for the task of training. Thus, statement 2 is the best possible action. In case 2 is not possible, then it
would be fair for the HR Manager to conduct induction sessions for training after office hours. Thus, statement
4 can be followed next. In case both 2 and 4 are not possible, it would be prudent to honestly inform the Head
that some teaching assistants could be accommodated only if some inductees dropped out in the first month.
Hence, statement 3 follows next. Also statement 1 can only be the last possible course-of-action due to it being
confrontational in nature.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
31. D
The Assistant Director states that spending the budget is unnecessary because their regular programs are
already widely known. However, the Director feels that only by utilizing the entire budget can a similar amount
be demanded the next year. In this case, it would be best to come up with some data/analysis to determine the
next course of action. Hiring an external agency to study the gaps and needs is a valid course of action. Option
A, C and E are contrary to the Director’s opinion. Option B may not be effective at all. It also makes little sense.
Hence the answer is option D.
32. C
The Public Relations Department has spent only 4 crores of its allocated 16 crores on publicity. There can be
very little justification for any increase in advertising budget. However, if the organization has a new major
scheme for immediate implementation, it would require substantial publicity. This can be the only reason for an
increase in the advertising budget. The other alternatives do not provide a valid reason for the increase.
Hence, the correct answer is option C
33. E
The stakeholders - the management and the doctors - are at loggerheads. The best option would be to start
with a needs analysis. Step 1 would be the most appropriate option for the first step. After that, building a
consensus among doctors and paramedics on a possible way forward and preparing an action plan along with
financial implications would be suitable steps. Thus 1, 2, 3 is the right sequence. Steps 4 and 5 do not address
the problem at hand.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
34. A
The hospital management has to amicably resolve the situation so that all the stakeholders -management,
doctors, paramedics and patients - are happy. The hospital management also wants to improve the patient
satisfaction and the success rate. The doctors feel the management should spend more on recruiting more
paramedics who could spend time with patients. The passage states that ‘For the management, this (recruiting
more paramedics) would mean loss of patients’. Thus an increase in paramedics is ruled out. In such a
scenario, it would be suitable if the management manages with existing doctors/paramedics by increasing their
incomes, and augmenting the ambiance of the hospital.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
35. E
The most interactive and effective way to increase the learning among paramedics and doctors would be the
one in which they meet everyday and discuss their insights. Thus option E is the best choice. Option A does not
help in mutual learning. Option B and D are not as interactive as E. Option C is not practical as giving lectures to
others before they start their work is not a great way of learning or exchanging notes at all in an hospital type
work environment.
36. B
Racket is the most popular game of the country. 70% of the total revenue associated with the game originates
from the country. Since the International Racket Association (IRA) has agreed to implement Drug Testing Code
(DTC), the Racket Club has no choice but to implement the same. However, some players have reservations
against this. The best thing for Thakur Raja would be to implement drug testing while also considering the
demands of the senior players. Thus option B is the correct choice of action. Option C, D and E reek of personal
vendetta. They are not appropriate for a person who is the Sports Minister. Moreover, they do not solve the
problem at hand. Option A does not take into account the problems of the senior players.
37. C
Being the Sports Minister, it is important for Thakur Raja to act in anon-partisan manner. Based on this, we can
eliminate option A, D and E. Between option B and C, the latter offers a better reason for Raja to decide in favor
of the IRA. If the next World cup is scheduled to be held in a country which has made DTC mandatory, the team
that does not undergo such tests may be barred from playing. Hence, option C presents the best argument for
Raja to decide in favor of the IRA.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
38. E
Each athlete/sportsperson needs to submit their schedule for the next three months specifying an hour each
day when they can be randomly tested for drugs. The top three popular players realize security is the only
reason for them to get a favorable decision from Raja. Hence, they should be raising points that will focus on
guidelines that DTC has submitted to ensure the confidentiality of the players’ schedule and the possible
implications if such guidelines are breached. Options A, B, C and D are appropriate to be discussed as they
focus on the given aspects. Option E does not fall under the pointers that DTC has submitted to ensure the
confidentiality of the players’ schedule. It is out of context to the given situation.
39. E
If the government-instituted school ranking places 25% weight to policies similar to the school's policies, then
the school has no choice but to implement the same. Thus option E is most likely to get the affluent parents to
accept the school’s policy.
40. E
Mrs. Bhalla is facing the problems of overcrowded classrooms and classroom management. Moreover, she
wants the students to develop more sensitive and self motivated learners. In such a scenario, encouraging
students for selflearning or making them compete will not make any difference to the problem at hand. Steps 3
and 5 are thus eliminated. This eliminated options A, B, C and D. We are left with option E. Steps 1, 2 and 4 are
appropriate steps for Mrs. Bhalla to carry out.
41. C
Options A and D focus on poor and rich kids only. They can be easily eliminated. Option E makes no sense.
Between options B and C, the latter states how empowerment can be achieved. Option B is too general in
nature. Eliminate option B.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
42. C
The main concern of Divya is that the financial risk of opening a franchisee is high as she will have to take out a
huge loan and invest a lot in the infrastructure. Thus, the option that can let her know that the franchisee will be
financially stable will help her make the decision.
Option A can be dismissed as it does not relate to the main concerns of Divya.
Getting a loan is not a problem for Divya, but to be able to repay it. Thus, option B can be dismissed.
Option D talks about a restaurant's business. This does not ensure that Divya's business would also work.
Option E will have the opposite effect.
Option C is the best choice. If Divya can charge higher prices while retaining the customers, it will increase her
confidence in the ability to cover all the costs.
Hence, the answer is option C.
43. E
We have to select an option which will not demotivate Divya.
Options A, B, C and D are all negative in tone and will discourage Divya from opening a franchisee.
Hence, the answer is option E.
44. E
Option A can be dismissed as real estate is not the criteria for choosing Kazipeth. As the franchisee also needs
to generate revenue.
Option B is about Jangaon and not Kazipeth. Hence, it can be dismissed.
Option C mentions teenagers being attracted to rollover ice cream. But it doesn't necessarily convert into higher
sales.
Option D talks about higher population density in Warangal and Jangaon. Hence it will not encourage her to
open a shop in Kazipeth.
Option E is the best choice as it is mentioned that one of the reasons Divya was attracted to Kazipeth is
because it is an education hub.
45. B
The most crucial criterion for Divya would be a steady increase in business as she has to take a huge loan and
invest money in the shop's infrastructure.
Options A, C and D, can be dismissed as they do not relate to the above point.
Among B and E, B is more important, as a consistent increase in the number of customers will make sure that
the business flourishes.
Hence, the answer is option B.
46. E
Strategy 1 will lead to the customers moving to the competition. The objective is to keep the customers
engaged with the company. Hence, this can be dismissed.
Strategy 2 is unethical as it tells the dealers to be dishonest to their customers.
Strategy 3 is a valid one as it will keep the awareness of the "limo" among the public.
Strategy 4 is also a valid one as it will allow the company to start shipping the cars quickly and the company
can retain their customers.
Strategy 5 is also a valid one as the company needs the manufacturing plants to make the cars after procuring
the parts.
Strategy 6 can be dismissed as it might lead to other manufacturing plants creating unrest for higher pay.
Thus, the valid strategies are 3, 4 and 5.
47. B
Since Mr Murugan is willing to deposit an amount and wait for the first car to be available, option B makes the
most sense. It ensures that Mr Murugan purchases the car and also lets him know about policy.
Option A is also valid but not as suitable as B.
Transferring the amount to Electro Automobile's account does not make sense. Hence, C can be dismissed.
Options D and E can lead to Mr Murugan cancelling his order.
Hence, the answer is option B.
Quant
48. A
Let the initial salary of A,B,C,D,E be a, b, c, d, e respectively and let the final salary of everyone be x
p p+1
Now, a ∗ (1 + 100 ) ∗ (1 + 100 )
=x
⇒a= p
(1+ 100
x
)∗(1+ p+1
100 )

⇒a= x∗100∗100
(100+p)∗(100+p+1)
⇒a= x∗100∗100
(p+100)∗(p+101)
Similarly, b = (1+ p+2
x
p−1
100 )∗(1+ 100 )

⇒b= x∗100∗100
(p+102)∗(p+99)
Similarly, c = (1+ p+3

x
p−2
100 )∗(1+ 100 )

⇒c= x∗100∗100
(p+103)∗(p+98)
Similarly, d = (1+ p+4

x
p−3
100 )∗(1+ 100 )

⇒d= x∗100∗100
(p+104)∗(p+97)
Similarly, e = (1+ p+5

x
p−4
100 )∗(1+ 100 )

⇒e= x∗100∗100
(p+105)∗(p+96)
The numerators of the fractions are same, therefore the one with the smallest value of denominator will have
the greatest value. If we compare the denominators, we can find out the fraction with the highest value. The
person with the highest initial salary got the least raise, as we know that the final salary of all the candidates is
same.
Thus, denominator of a, aden = (p + 100) ∗ (p + 101) = p2 + 201p + 100 ∗ 101

Similarly, bden = (p + 102) ∗ (p + 99) = p2 + 201p + 102 ∗ 99
cden = (p + 103) ∗ (p + 98) = p2 + 201p + 103 ∗ 98

dden = (p + 104) ∗ (p + 97) = p2 + 201p + 104 ∗ 97

eden = (p + 105) ∗ (p + 96) = p2 + 201p + 105 ∗ 96

We see that we need to compare only the last terms of the denominators as the other terms are same.
Thus, last term of a, alt = 100 ∗ 101 = 100.52 − 0.52
last term of b, blt = 102 ∗ 99 = 100.52 − 1.52
last term of c, clt = 103 ∗ 98 = 100.52 − 2.52
last term of d, dlt
= 104 ∗ 97 = 100.52 − 3.52
last term of e, dlt = 105 ∗ 96 = 100.52 − 4.52
Thus, we can see that since denominator of e is the smallest, therefore E has the highest initial salary.
49. A
There are 9 employees in the firm. Median of any set is the element which occurs in the middle of the set when
the elements are positioned in increasing or decreasing order. The number of elements in this set = 5+3+1 = 9
Thus, the middle element will be in the position 9+1

2 = 5th. Since we know that the clerks are paid the least so

the clerk salaries would be in the beginning of the set if arranged in ascending order. Thus, the 5th element will
be a clerk's salary as the number of clerks is 5.
Thus, median of the set = Rs 15,000.
To find the mean salary, we first need to find the sum total salary of the people involved.
Total salary = (Number of clerks*salary of 1 clerk) + (Number of assistants*salary of 1 assistant) + (Number of
accountants*salary of 1 accountant)
⇒ Total salary = (5*15,000)+(3*40,000)+(1*66,000)
⇒ Total salary = 75,000+1,20,000+66,000
⇒ Total salary = 2,61,000
Total Salary
Mean salary = Total number of employees
261000
⇒ Mean salary = 9
⇒ Mean salary = Rs 29,000 /-

Thus, difference between mean and median salary = 29,000-15,000 = Rs 14,000
VIDEO SOLUTION
50. E
Inverse proportionality is expressed as follows :
1
a∝ b
⇒ a*b = constant
When value of a changes, the value of b changes accordingly such that their product remains same.
′
Thus, new value of a a = a + a = 2a
′
Thus, the new value of b b can be solved by :
′ ′
a ∗b =a∗b
′
⇒ 2a ∗ b = a ∗ b
′
⇒b = b
2

Thus b decreases by 50%.
51. E
In the given statement, the expression becomes a whole number only when the powers of all the prime
numbers are also whole numbers.
Let us first simplify the expression a bit by expressing all terms in terms of prime numbers.
3
7a × 35b+1 × 20c+2
3
⇒ 7a × 5b+1 × 7b+1 × 22(c+2) × 5c+2
⇒ 3
22c+4 × 5b+c+3 × 7a+b+1
2c+4 b+c+3 a+b+1

⇒2 3

5 3

7 3

Now, from the given options, we can put in values of the variables and check the exponents of all the numbers.
Option A : a = 2, b = 1, c = 1 :
5
In this case, we can see that exponent of 5 ie b+c+3
3 = 3 is not a whole number.

Option B : a = 1, b = 2, c = 2
In this case, we can see that exponent of 2 ie 2c+4

3 = 8
3 is not a whole number.

Option C : a = 2, b = 1, c = 2
In this case, we can see that exponent of 2 ie 2c+4

3 = 8
3 is not a whole number.

Option D : a = 3, b = 1, c = 1
5
In this case, we can see that exponent of 5 ie b+c+3
3 = 3 is not a whole number.

Option E : a = 3, b = 2, c = 1
In this case, we can see that all exponents are whole numbers.
Thus, option E is the correct option.
52. C
Let the radius of the cylinder be r and height be h (as shown).
Let the dimensions of the cone be rc and hc (as shown).
It is given that hc = h
2
Area of base of cone Ac = π × rc2
Area of base of cylinder A = π × r2

1
Given, Ac = 5 ×A
1
⇒ π × rc2 =
5 × π × r2
1
⇒ rc2 =
5 × r2
r2
⇒ rc2
=5
Now we know that the volume of cylinder = total volume of cones
Let the number of cones be n.
So, volume of cylinder = n x volume of each cone
⇒ V = n × Vc
1
⇒ π × r2 × h = n ×
2
3 × π × rc × hc
⇒ r2 × h = n × 1
3 × rc2 × hc

r2
⇒ rc2
× h
hc

×3=n
⇒5× 2×3=n
⇒ 30 = n
Thus, 30 conical ingots can be made.
VIDEO SOLUTION
53. A
Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full Marks is being awarded to all candidates.
54. D
Let CP of object be a.
4
It is given that SP = (1 + 100 ) x CP
⇒ SP = 1.04 x CP
It is given that MP = (1 + 100
x
) x CP
2x
It is also given that SP = (1 − 100
3
) x MP

2x
⇒ SP = (1 − 300 ) x (1
100 ) x CP
x
+
4 2x
⇒ (1 + 100 ) x CP = (1 − 300
) x (1 + 100
x
) x CP
4 2x
⇒ (1 + 100 ) = (1 − 300
) x (1 + 100x
)
104 2x
⇒ 100 = (1 − 300 ) x (1 + 100 )

x

104 300−2x
⇒ 100 = ( 300 ) x ( 100 )

x+100

104
⇒ 100 × 300 × 100 = (300 − 2x) x (x + 100)

⇒ 31200 = (300 − 2x) x (x + 100)

Now, we look at the options.
Since the question says that xϵ[25, 30] so 50% of x ie 0.5x cannot be less than 12.50 ie 25
2 and cannot be more

than 25 ie 50
2
This eliminates option A.

Putting values of x given in the remaining options in the final expression, [here we need to be careful to use the
value of x and not the value of 50% of x as given in the expression]
Look carefully in the remaining options : 16,13,15 as 0.5x ie 32,26,30 as possible values of x.
In the question since the discount rate offered is 2x

3 %, then a safer choice would be to check for the option of

30 in the beginning. It is a safer choice because the percentage of discount that we get in the other options are
not whole numbers.
NOTE : THIS IS JUST A SAFE CHOICE AND NEVER MARK AN ANSWER DIRECTLY ON THIS PRESUMPTION
WITHOUT CHECKING IT.
Putting x=30 in the expression :
(300 - (2x30))x(30+100) = (300-60)x(100+30) = 240x130 = 24x13x100= 312x100 = 31200= LHS of expression.
Thus the value of x is 30.
Therefore value of 50% of x = 0.5x30 = 15
55. B
Amount on which interest will be charged = 19200 - 4800 = 14400
The total amount paid will be equal to the sum of all monthly instalments. Therefore, we have
14400 ∗ k 5a = I(k 4a + k 3a + k 2a + k a + 1) .....(1)
12 1
where, k = 1 + 100 & a = 12
We know that, k 5a − 1 = (k − 1)(k 4a + k 3a + k 2a + k a + 1)

k 5a −1
=>k 4a + k 3a + k 2a + k a + 1 = k−1 ....(2)

Substituting in equation (1) we get

I = 14400 ∗ k 5a ∗ [ kk−1
5a −1 ] ....(3)

On substituting the values of k and a in equation (3) we get

I ≈ 2965
Hence, option B.
56. D
The stack of apples can be imagined as shown below. For every row, there is an increase of 1 apple from the
previous row.
This means that the sum total of the apples present in the stack will be sum of AP given as : 1,2,3,4.... ie the
sum of numbers from 1.
n×(n+1)
This is given by the formula S = 2
Since the initial number of apples was not more than 150, we find the maximum number of rows that was
possible.
Let S be the total initial sum of apples in the cart.
We know that S ≤ 150
n×(n+1)
⇒ 2 ≤ 150
⇒ n × (n + 1) ≤ 300
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 300
Since the biggest number with square less than 300 is 17, we try to see if 17 works in the expression by hit and
trial method.
So, 17 x 18 = 306 > 300, therefore the maximum number of rows possible is not 17.
Since 306 is JUST over 300, let us check at 16.
So, 16 x 17 = 272 < 300, therefore the maximum number of rows possible is 16.
Let us tabulate the total number of apples present in the cart based on the number of rows :
Since the total number of apples from row 15 is less than 126 (which was found by the customer), we can
safely say that the total number of rows of apples with the shopkeeper that day was 16.
Now, if 'n' rows of apples are sold, the total available apples can be calculated as : 16×17
n×(n+1)
2
− 2
Let us tabulate the result obtained in this case :

From the table we can see that when the customer saw 126 apples, the apples in the top 4 rows had been sold.
Therefore, the number of rows = 16 - 4 = 12 rows.
57. C
On solving for x and y from the equations
3x + 4y = 2018 and 5x + 3y = 1
we get Q(-550,917)
Let, P(x,y)
y−917
So, x+550 = 2

=> y - 2x = 2017 ....(1)

Considering the equations
3x + 4y = 2a ........(2)
7x + 2y = 2018 .....(3)
On subtracting equation (2) from (3) we have,
4x - 2y = 2018 - 2a
=> 2x - y = 1009 - a
=> y - 2x = a -1009 .....(4)
From equation (1) and (4)
2017 = a - 1009
=> a = 3026
Hence, option C.
VIDEO SOLUTION
58. B
As mentioned in the question,
Lines L1 and L2 intersect at point P as shown in the figure.
On solving for x and y from equations
x + 2y - 18 = 0
2x - y - 1 = 0
We get x = 4 and y =7.
Given, radius = 20
Using the equation of a circle, we have

(4 − a)2 + (7 − b)2 = 20....(1)
The center of the circle will lie on the line: 2x - y - 1 = 0
a,b will satisfy this equation.
So 2a-b-1=0
b=2a-1
From equation 1...
(4 − a)2 + (7 − b)2 = 20
(4 − a)2 + (8 − 2a)2 = 20
5(4 − a)2 = 20
a=6 or a=2
b=11 or b=3
The sum of the coordinates possible=6+11 or 2+3
i.e. 17 or 5
Option B is one of the solution.
59. C
Simplify the expression a bit to remove the root sign in the denominator
log 97 − 56 3
1

× (log 7 + 4 3)
2

log 97 − 56 3
⇒2×

log 7 + 4 3

To move further, let us see the root of the numerator.
Assume the root of the numberator to be a− b.

When we square it, we get a + b − (2 × a b) = a + b − 2 ab

comparing the value of terms under root with the terms in the numerator, we get
ab = 28 3 and a + b = 97

From solving this, we get to know that a = 7 and b = 4 3
log 7 − 4 3
Thus the expression can be written as 2 × 2 ×

log 7 + 4 3

log 7 − 4 3
⇒ 4×

log 7 + 4 3

Now, let us look at the reciprocal of the term in log in the denominator.
1 1 7−4 3
= ×

7+4 3 7+4 3 7−4 3

7−4 3
⇒

72 − (4 3)2

7−4 3
⇒ =7−4 3

49 − 48

log(7−4 3) log(7−4 3) log(7−4 3)

= = = −1

log(7+4 3) log( 7−41 3 ) − log(7−4 3)

Thus the value of the expression can be further simplified as
⇒ 4 × (−1) = −4
Hence the correct answer is option C
60. D
Construct a perpendicular in the trapezium. Let its height be 'h'
h
Now, sin∠BAC =
AC
h
and sin∠BAD =
AD
h
sin∠BAC AC AD
= =

Thus,
h

sin∠BAD AD
AC
61. A
Let the sides of the smaller square be x units and the sides of the larger square be y units.
Construct diagonal HF on the larger square. Let the point of intersection of AD and diagonal be I and point of
intersection of BC and diagonal be J.
We know that since EFGH is a square, the diagonal will bisect the angle. Therefore ∠EHF = 45o
Observe △AEH and △DHG :
AE=AH=DH=DG = x units and EH=HG=y units.
Thus by SSS property, △AEH ≅ △DHG

Thus, we know that ∠AHE=∠DHG
Also, ∠AHE+∠DHG+∠AHD= 90o (angle of a square)

⇒ (2 × ∠AHE) + 60o = 90o (angle of an equilateral triangle)
⇒ (2 × ∠AHE) = 30o
⇒ ∠AHE = 15o
Since ∠AHE = 15o , ∠AHI = 45o − 15o = 30o
60o
Since 30o = we can say that HF is the angle bisector of ∠AHD
2

Since △AHD is an equilateral triangle, we know that the angle bisector, median and altitude will all be the same
line ie HI in this case.
By symmetry, we know that JF will also be the angle bisector, median and altitude.
3×x
Also, length of altitude of equilateral triangle ie HI and JF =

2

Length of diagonal HF = 2×y

From the figure, we can express the length of diagonal HF as given :

3×x 3×x
2×y = +x+

2 2

⇒ 2 × y = ( 3 × x) + x

⇒ 2 × y = x × ( 3 + 1)

3+1
⇒y =x×( )

2

y 3+1 2 4+2 3
Ratio of areas asked = ( )2 = ( ) = =2+ 3

2 2

x
Alternate Explanation:
Let AB=BC=CD=DA=x, then the area the area of square ABCD will be x2
Since AHD, DGC, CFB, and BAE are equilateral triangles with side x, the sum of area of these traingles will be
3
4× 4

× x2 = 3x2
We know that angle HAD=60, angle DAB=90, and angle BAE=60, thus angle HAE=360-(60+90+60)=150
Area of triangles HAE+HDG+GCF+FBE=4* area of triangle HAE
In HAE, AH=AE=x, and angle HAE=150, thus area will be 12 × x × x × sin 150
sin 150=sin(180-150)=sin 30=0.5
Thus area of 4 triangles will be 4*0.5*x*x*0.5=x2
Thus, total area= x2 + 3 x 2 + x 2 = x 2 (2 +

3)

Thus area of EFGH/area of ABCD=2 + 3
62. C
In order to accommodate maximum number of points on the circular disk, all the points should be placed on the
boundary of the disk as any point if placed inside the boundary would be less than 1 metre apart from the
centre of the disk. Also, all the points have to be exactly 1 metre apart from each other to place maximum
number of points. Hence, a maximum of 6 points can be placed on the boundary of the disk (each adjacent
points placed 60 degrees apart) and 1 point at the centre.
Hence, a total of 7 points can be placed on the disk.
63. B
The figure can be redrawn as shown above.
∵ AB and OP are parallel, POAC is a rectangle.
In right △QCB, QB = 5
△QBO is an isosceles right angled triangle with ∠OQB = 90° (By Pythagoras theorem)
∴ ∠QOB = 45°
64. C
The critical points of the function are -4, -6, -8, ... , -98 ( 48 points).
For all integers less than -98 and greater than -4 f(x) > 0 always .
for x= -5, f(x) < 0
Similarly, for x= -9, -13, ...., -97 (This is an AP with common difference -4)
Hence, in total there are 24 such integers satisfying f(x)< 0.
65. E
△ ABC can be represented as shown above where AD ⊥ BC
Given, Sin b = 35
Hence, AD = 3x 4x
5 and BD = 5

Now, BC = 2 BD = 8x
5
12x2
∴ area of △ ABC = 12 * BC * AD = 12 *

8x 3x
5 * 5 = 25

Only option E satisfies.

Hence, option E.
66. C
We know that,
x3 − 1 = (x − 1)(x2 + x + 1)
Since, x2 +x+1=0
∴ x3 − 1 = 0
=> x3 = 1
Now, x2018 + x2019

= (x3 )672 ∗ x2 + (x3 )673
= 1672 ∗ x2 + 1673
= x2 + 1
= -x
Hence, option C.
 VIDEO SOLUTION
67. B
Given, m and n are two positive integers having product less than 100
Statement 1:
mn is divisible by 6 consecutive integers. This means mn must be divisible by the LCM of these 6 integers its
multiples.
Only numbers from 1 to 6 satisfy this with LCM 60. Any other set of 6 consecutive integers clearly exceeds 100
as its LCM.
Only such number satisfying the condition is 60.
60 can further be expressed as the product of two positive integers in the following ways:
1 x 60, 2 x 30, 3 x 20, 4 x 15, 5 x 12 and 6 x 10.
So, no unique values of m and n can be determined from the above.
Statement 2:
m + n is a perfect square.
From this statement alone too no unique set of solutions can be determined.
From Statements 1 and 2:
Only the pair 6 x 10 satisfies the condition.
Hence, both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is
sufficient.
68. B
From statement 1:
Red + Blue + Green = 17
Since, this ensures that there are at least 3 green marbles, so, remaining marbles must be red and blue.
∴ Red + Blue = 17 - 3 = 14
Blue = 14 - Red = 14 - 8 = 6
But, this doesn't give us the total number of green marbles. So, statement 1 alone is not sufficient.
From statement 2:
Red + Blue + Green = 19
Since, this ensures that there are at least 2 red marbles, so, remaining marbles must be blue and green
∴ Blue + Green = 19 - 2 = 17
Again, Green = 17 - Blue = 17 - 8 = 9.
Hence, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
69. B
Total number of Physics major from all locations = 225
225
∴ Total number of students = 0.18 = 1250

Number of students majoring in chemistry = 14 % * 1250 = 175

Hence, option B.
70. D
225

Number of engineering students = 20% * 1250 = 250

So, basis the given condition we have
18 x
225 = 250

=> x = 20
Hence, option D
(Note: This question has been presented as was in the actual paper and has been solved by the aid of visual
inference)
71. A
225

Students from Chennai = 12% * 1250 = 150

Given, number of Physics majors from chennai = 40
∴ maximum possible number of economic students from chennai = 150 - 40 = 110
Maximum percentage of students = 110
150 * 100 % = 73.33 %

Hence, option A.
Explanation [72 - 74]:
The above figure shows the time taken in hrs:min to travel between two consecutive cities both for upward and
downward journeys.
The difference in time between two consecutive cities will be the average of the difference in time taken for
upward and downward journeys.
So, the difference of time for different consecutive pairs can be found as below:
Z-Y:
For both up & down motions time difference is 0. Hence, Z & Y are in same time zone.
Y-V:
Time taken for travelling from Y to V is less than that of from V to Y with a difference of 4 hrs. Hence, Y is 2
hours ahead of V.
V-S:
Time taken for travelling from V to S is less than that of from S to V with a difference of 6 hrs. Hence, V is 3
hours ahead of S.
S-R:
Time taken for travelling from S to R is less than that of from R to S with a difference of 2 hrs. Hence, S is 1
hour ahead of R.
72. C
As shown above, only cities Zut and Yag are in same time-zone.
Hence, option C.
73. A
Zut is 6 hours ahead of Rag. Also, the train departs from Zut at 6:00 am and arrives at Rag at 10:40 pm taking a
total of 16 hrs 40 min. Hence, the total time taken to travel from Zut to Rag is 22 hrs 40 min.
Hence, option A.
74. A
It can be concluded that Yag is 5 hours ahead of Sab. Hence, it will be 5:00 Pm at Yag when it is 12 noon at Sab.
Hence, option A.

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XAT 2019

A Whereas; with: too less; to

B While; within: far less; within

C While; without: further less; within

D While; on: far fewer; about

E Whereas; about: for less; of

2. Please study the paragraph given below:

A ​joy; augmenting; awaken; crutch

B routine; expanding; invigorate; crutch

C breeze; enhancing; stimulate; prosthesis

D routine; expanding; trigger; support

E breeze; exploring; simulate; aid

A The first line encapsulates the theme of the poem.

B The images are suffused with an overpowering sense of rebellion.

C The atmosphere indicates a cyclical nature of life and death.

E The repeated use of black suggests evil.

D The mirror images, the worlds above and overlap.

E Lilies purify the ‘dark’ into ‘light’ as symbolized in and by stars.

D An architect is more likely to have mood disorder than a botanist.

A Everyone in a mental asylum is potentially a great artist.

B Patients in mental asylums prefer time-bound repetitive jobs.

C Creative geniuses never end up in mental asylum.

D Those with a creative spark will land up in a mental asylum.

E Creativity is a form of bipolar disorder.

A addressing her colleagues

B chatting with intimate colleagues

C speaking to members of a congregation

E conversing with members of her community

B “Don’t deny the other world of art to hide your inadequacies."

A Prior knowledge of the art in question

D Preconceived notions of how we would be affected

E Participation of the artist

A Elevated language is highly persuasive.

B Elevation results in a sense of moral inspiration of and purges us of negative emotions.

C Reactions to extraordinary external stimuli inevitably purge us of evil.

D Admiration is a more appropriate antonym of disgust than elevation.

A is the antonym of elevation

B springs from love

C is linked to invocation of nature

D it creates 'us versus them' divide based on group identities

E is about experiencing a moment when the ‘self’ reigns supreme

A It helps us in creating national identities.

B It helps leaders to attract followers.

C It helps us become religious.

D It helps to enforce moral and ethical values in a society.

E It helps transcendence to a higher plane.

A Cheating in examinations is wrong because God will punish you.

B Mitigating risks often comes with costs.

A When they look at a smiling person, the goats are happy.

B When they look at a frowning person, goats are afraid of him.

C When they look at a straight-faced person, goats remain passive.

D When they look at a frowning person, the goats are sad.

E When they look at a smiling person, goats run towards him.

A It increases the overall response to the drug.

B The patient does not know whether he/she is getting a placebo.

C It reflects the calculus exemplified by the deli-counter episode.

E It gives rise to an unbiased testing of drugs.

B Predators migrate to a habitat different from where they were born.

C Predators are fully aware of where they were born.

D Predators have a genetic memory of their traditional stomping grounds.

A joy; augmenting; awaken; crutch