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CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES
Chemical Engineering Calculations 1 11. A supplier shipped a material for chicken feed with the following
analytical report: protein – 22%, triglyceride – 8%, moisture –
10%. During transport moisture was picked up by the material;
For numbers 1 to 3: the later analytical report showed 14% moisture. Based on the
Wine making involves a series of very complex reactions most of latest report, recalculate the % triglyceride.
which are performed by microorganisms. The starting a. 21.02% c. 7.64%
concentration of sugars determines the final alcohol content and b. 39.33% d. 14.65%
sweetness of the wine. The specific gravity of the starting stock
is therefore adjusted to achieve desired quality of wine. A starting For numbers 12 to 14:
stock solution has a specific gravity of 1.075 and contains 12.7 An evaporator is fed continuously with 25 MT/h of a solution
wt% sugar. If all the sugar is assumed to be C12H22O11, determine consisting of 10% NaOH, 10% NaCl, and 80% H2O. During
evaporation, water is boiled off, and salt precipitates as crystals,
1. kg sugar / kg H2O which are settled and removed from the remaining liquor. The
a. 0.286 c. 0.145 concentrated liquor leaving the evaporator contains 50% NaOH,
b. 0.039 d. 0.327 2% NaCl and 48% H2O.
2. lb solution / ft3 solution 12. Calculate the kg of water evaporated per hour
a. 67.1 c. 50.5 a. 19300 c. 17600
b. 39.2 d. 48.6 b. 18500 d. 16200
3. g sugar / L solution 13. Calculate the kg salt precipitated per hour

a. 202 c. 295 a. 2400 c. 1100
b. 136 d. 144 b. 3500 d. 4700
For numbers 4 to 6: 14. Calculate the kg of concentrated liquor produced per hour
Two aqueous sulfuric acid solutions containing 20 wt% H2SO4 a. 4000 c. 6000
(SG=1.139) and 60 wt% H2SO4 (SG=1.498) are mixed to form a b. 3000 d. 5000
4 M solution (SG=1.213).
For numbers 15 to 16:
4. Calculate the mass fraction of sulfuric acid in the product solution. Ten kilograms each of salts A and B are dissolved in 50 kg of
a. 0.105 c. 0.323 water. The solubility of A in water is 1 kg per kg water and that of
b. 0.667 d. 0.548 B is 0.5 kg per kg of water. The solution is heated to evaporate
water. When the concentration of the solution reaches the
5. Calculate the feed ratio (liters 20% solution per liter 60% solution) saturation concentration of any salt, further evaporation results in
a. 2.96 c. 1.75 the crystallization of that salt. If 70% of the water that is originally
b. 3.08 d. 4.51 present in the solution is driven off by evaporation, determine the
following:
6. What feed rate of the 60% solution (L/hr) would be required to
produce 1250 kg/h of the product. 15. The weight of the final solution
a. 986 L/h c. 110 L/h a. 46.5 c. 11.5
b. 257 L/h d. 462 L/h b. 28.5 d. 32.5
For numbers 7 to 8: 16. The weight of the crystals formed

If 1 L of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 1 L of water at 200C. a. 2.5 c. 0
b. 5.5 d.1.5
7. How many kilograms of solution result?
a. 1.85 kg c. 1.79 kg 17. 1200 lb of barium nitrate is dissolved in sufficient water to form a
b. 2.06 kg d. 2.11 kg saturated solution at 900C. Assuming that 5% of the weight of the
original solution is lost through evaporation calculate the crop of
8. How many liters? crystals obtained when cooled at 200C. Solubility data for barium
a. 1.93 L c. 2.00 L nitrate at 900C is 30.6% wt and 8.6 wt% at 200C.
b. 1.88 L d. 2.15 L a. 952.4 lbs c. 962.4 lbs
b. 970 lbs d. 980 lbs
9. Air is bubbled through a drum of liquid hexane at a rate of 0.10
kmol/min. The gas stream leaving the drum contains 10 mol% 18. What is the theoretical yield of crystals which may be obtained by
hexane vapor. Air may be considered insoluble in liquid hexane. cooling a solution containing 1000 kg of sodium sulfate (mw = 142
Use an integral balance to estimate the time required to vaporize kg/kmol) in 5000 kg water to 283 K? The solubility of sodium
10 m3 of the liquid. sulfate at 283 K is 9 kg anhydrous salt / 100 kg water and the
a. 4200 min c. 7700 min deposited crystals will consist of decahydrate. It may be assumed
b. 6900 min d. 8100 min that 2% of the water will be lost by evaporation during cooling.
a. 4469.17 kg c. 6000 kg
10. Urea, phosphoric acid and potassium chloride are mixed together b. 250 kg d. 1430.83 kg
to obtain a mixed fertilizer having NPK content 10:26:26 as %N,
%P2O5 and %K2O by weight, balance being the weight of filler
materials. Calculate the amount of potassium chloride to be
mixed to get 1000 kg of mixed fertilizer.
a. 214.4 kg c. 411.5 kg
b. 359 kg d. 505 kg
19. A solution of NH4Cl is saturated at 700C. Calculate the 25. The concentration of the original solution in the receiver
temperature to which this solution must be cooled in order to a. 32% NaOH c. 40% NaOH
crystallize out of 45% of the NH4Cl. The solubility of NH4Cl in b. 25% NaOH d. 56% NaOH
water are:
26. The mass of water (in kilograms) evaporated in one hour
a. 3200 kg c. 4500 kg
Temperature, 0C Solubility,
b. 5100 kg d. 6600 kg
g/100g H2O
70 60.2 For numbers 27 to 29:
10 33.3 For the preparation of potassium nitrate, 10000 kg/h of a 20%
0 29.4 KNO3 solution is mixed with a recycle stream and sent to an
evaporator. The rate of evaporation is 1.5 times the rate of
a. 8.6 c. 9.5 introduction of recycle stream. The concentrated solution leaving
b. 5.7 d. 7.2 the evaporator contains 50% KNO3. This is admitted to the
crystallizer which yields crystals containing 5% water. At the
20. In the azeotropic distillation of an ethanol–water solution, a feed crystallization temperature the solubility is 50 kg/100 kg of water.
mixture containing 95.6% alcohol is mixed with pure benzene and The major part of the mother liquor leaving the crystallizer is
distilled. The benzene forms a ternary azeotrope with alcohol– returned to the crystallizer as recycle. Calculate the following:
water with a composition of 74.1% benzene, 7.4% water and
18.5% alcohol, which is distilled over as the overhead product. 27. The concentration of KNO3 in the stream entering the evaporator
Absolute alcohol is obtained as the residue product. Determine a. 33% c. 16%
the quantity of benzene required for producing 100 kg of absolute b. 25% d. 40%
alcohol.
a. 48 kg c. 66 kg 28. The flow rate of recycle stream in kg/h
b. 74 kg d. 52 kg a. 5143 c. 1354
b. 4531 d. 3415
21. Oil is extracted from seeds by leaching with organic solvents. 29. The rate of production of crystals
Soybean seeds containing 20% oil, 65% inert solids and 15% a. 3925 c. 1588
water are leached with hexane and after extraction the solid b. 2007 d. 4610
residue is removed from the solution of oil in hexane. The residue
analyzed 1.0% oil, 88% inert cake and 11% water. What percent
of oil is recovered?
a. 90% c. 96% Fresh air containing 4 mol% water vapor is to be cooled and
b. 82% d. 87% dehumidified to a water content of 1.70 mol% H2O. A stream of
fresh air is combined with a recycle stream of previously
22. Acetone is recovered from an acetone-air mixture containing 25% dehumidified air and passed through the cooler. The blended
(volume) acetone by scrubbing with water. Assuming that air is stream entering the unit contains 2.3 mol% H2O. In the air
insoluble in water, determine the percent of acetone in the
conditioner, some of the water in the feed stream is condensed
entering gas that is absorbed if the gas leaving the scrubber
analyzes 5% acetone. and removed as liquid. A fraction of the dehumidified air leaving
a. 96% c. 65% the cooler is recycled and the remainder is delivered to a room.
b. 84% d. 73% Taking 100 mol of dehumidified air delivered to the room as a
basis of calculation, calculate the following:
23. One hundred pounds of solution containing 80 wt% Na2SO4 must
be obtained by evaporating a dilute solution using a double effect 30. The moles of fresh feed
evaporator. If the evaporator from the 2nd effect is 60% of that a. 115 mol c. 102 mol
coming from the first effect and the concentrate of the first effect b. 126 mol d. 133 mol
contains 1 lb Na2SO4 per pound of water. Calculate for the
composition of the feed.
31. The moles of water condensed
a. 69% Na2SO4 c. 45% Na2SO4
b. 55% Na2SO4 d. 31% Na2SO4 a. 0.8 mol c. 2.4 mol
b. 1.0 mol d. 3.3 mol
24. One drier will dry a material from 45% moisture (wb) to 20%
moisture (db) from here the material enters another drier where 32. The moles of dehumidified air recycled
the H2O content is further reduced to give a final product weighing a. 270 mol c. 280 mol
1000 kg. If the total evaporation from both driers is 800 kg, the b. 290 mol d. 260 mol
moisture of the final product is
a. 5% c. 2%
b. 3% d. 1% For numbers 33 to 35:
An equimolar liquid mixture of benzene and toluene is separated
into two product streams by distillation. A process flowchart and
For numbers 25 to 26: a somewhat oversimplified description of what happens in the
An aqueous solution containing 15% NaOH and 0.5% NaCl is process follow:
concentrated at a rate of 100 kg/min in an evaporator. The
concentrated solution is then mixed with 2000 kg of aqueous
NaOH solution in a mixer. At the end of one hour a sample is
collected from the mixer and analyzed. The analysis shows 40%
NaOH and 0.8574% NaCl. Calculate the following:
37. The fraction of the feed that bypasses the evaporator.

a. 0.032 c. 0.150
b. 0.099 d. 0.250

A limestone analysis: CaCO3 – 92.89%, MgCO3 – 5.41% and
unreactive – 1.70%. By heating the limestone, you recover oxides
that together known as lime:
38. How many pounds of calcium oxide can be made from 1 ton of
limestone?
a. 1041 lb c. 2348 lb
b. 3567 lb d. 4020 lb
39. How many pounds of CO2 can be recovered per lb of limestone?

a. 0.33 c. 0.22
b. 0.11 d. 0.44
40. How many pounds of limestone are needed to make 1 ton of

lime?
Inside the column a liquid stream flows downward and a vapor
a. 3100 c. 3550
stream rises. At each point in the column some of the liquid
b. 3890 d. 3760
vaporizes and some of the vapor condenses. The vapor leaving
the top of the column, which contains 97 mole% benzene, is
completely condensed and split into two equal fractions: one is
The synthesis of ammonia proceeds according to the following
taken off as the overhead product stream, and the other (the
reaction:
reflux) is recycled to the top of the column. The overhead product
N2 + 3 H2 à 2 NH3
stream contains 89.2% of the benzene fed to the column. The
In a given plant, 4202 lb of nitrogen and 1046 lb of hydrogen are
liquid leaving the bottom of the column is fed to a partial reboiler
fed to the synthesis reactor per hour. Production of pure ammonia
in which 45% of it is vaporized. The vapor generated in the
from this reactor is 3060 lb per hour.
reboiler (the boil-up) is recycled to become the rising vapor
stream in the column, and the residual reboiler liquid is taken off
41. What is the limiting reactant?
as the bottom product stream. The compositions of the streams
a. N2 c. both (a) and (b)
leaving the reboiler are governed by the relation
b. H2 d. NH3
yB (1-yB )
= 2.25 42. What is the percent excess reactant?
xB (1-xB )
a. 13% c. 17%
where and are the mole fractions of benzene in the vapor and b. 16% d. 19%
liquid streams, respectively. Take a basis of 100 mol fed to the
column, determine the following: 43. What is the percent conversion obtained based on the limiting
reactant?
33. The molar amounts of overhead and bottom products a. 50% c. 70%
a. 46 mol and 54 mol c. 33 mol and 67 mol b. 60% d. 80%
b. 49 mol and 51 mol d. 38 mol and 62 mol
34. The mole fraction of benzene in the bottom product A barytes composed of 100 percent BaSO4 is fused with carbon
a. 0.2 c. 0.4 in the form of coke containing 6% ash (which is infusible). The
b. 0.3 d. 0.1 composition of the fusion mass is
BaSO4 11.1%
35. The percentage recovery of toluene in the bottoms product BaS 72.8%
a. 92% c. 95% C 13.9%
b. 97% d. 90% Ash 2.2%
Reaction: BaSO4 + 4 C à BaS + 4 CO
Fresh orange juice contains 12.0 wt% solids and the balance 44. Find the excess reactant.
water, and the concentrated orange juice contains 42.0 wt% a. C c. CO
solids. Initially a single evaporation process was used for the b. BaSO4 d. BaS
concentration, but volatile constituents of the juice escaped with
the water, leaving the concentrate with a flat taste. The current 45. Find the percent excess reactant.
process overcomes this problem by bypassing the evaporator a. 44.8% c. 50.6%
with a fraction of the fresh juice. The juice is concentrated to 58 b. 38.9% d. 66.7%
wt% solids, and the evaporator product stream is mixed with the
bypassed fresh juice to achieve the desired final concentration. 46. What is the degree of completion of the reaction?
Calculate the following: a. 0.6 c. 0.8
b. 0.7 d. 0.9
36. The amount of product (42% concentrate) produced per 100 kg
fresh juice fed to the process.
a. 35.3 c. 28.6
b. 40.5 d. 19.2
54. The kg of TiO2 ore fed.

47. In the Deacon process for the manufacture of chlorine, HCl and a. 0.26 c. 2.05
O2 react to form Cl2 and H2O. Sufficient air is fed to provide 35%
b. 0.54 d. 1.33
excess oxygen and the fractional conversion of HCl is 85%.
Calculate the mole fraction of water in the product stream.
a. 0.18 c. 0.10 55. The kg of 45 wt % HCl solution fed.
b. 0.12 d. 0.15 a. 0.26 c. 2.05
b. 0.54 d. 1.33
48. Phenol (94) can be manufactured by reacting chlorobenzene
(112.45) with sodium hydroxide (40). To produce 1000 kg of 56. The ratio of recycle stream to fresh TiO2 ore (in kg).
phenol, 1200 kg of sodium hydroxide and 1,320 kg of
a. 0.26 c. 2.05
chlorobenzene are used. What is the maximum conversion of the
excess reactant? b. 0.54 d. 1.33
a. 29.66% c. 31.05%
b. 35.47% d. 39.13% For numbers 57 to 58:
Propane is dehydrogenated to form propylene in a catalytic
For numbers 49 to 50: reactor. The process is to be designed for a 95% overall
Acrylonitrile is produced in the reaction of propylene, ammonia conversion of propane. The reaction products are separated into
and oxygen: C3H6 + NH3 + 3/2 O2 à C3H3N + 3 H2O two streams: the first, which contains H2, C3H6, and 0.555% of the
The feed contains 10 mole % propylene, 12 mole% ammonia, propane that leaves the reactor, is taken off as a product; the
and 78% air. A fractional conversion of 30% of the limiting second stream, which contains the balance of the unreacted
reactant is achieved. Taking 100 mol of feed as basis, determine propane and 5% of the propylene in the first stream, is recycled
the following: to the reactor.
49. The percentage by which of the reactants in excess 57. Calculate the ratio of moles recycled / mole fresh feed
a. 24%, 6.2% c. 25%, 8.5% a. 1.2 c. 2.5
b. 28%, 7.5% d. 20%, 9.2% b. 6.8 D. 9.0
50. The mole% of water in the product gas 58. What is the single-pass conversion?
a. 6% c. 5% a. 9.6% c. 25.0%
b. 7% d. 9% b. 13.5% d. 38.2%

Given the reaction of ethyl tetrabromide with zinc dust produces Chemical Engineering Calculations II
C2H2 and ZnBr2. Based on the C2H2Br4, on one pass through the
reactor the conversion is 80%, and the unreacted C2H2Br4 is For numbers 59 to 61:
recycled. On the basis of 1000 kg/hr of C2H2Br4 fed to the reactor Butane is burned with air. No carbon monoxide is present in the
per hour, calculate combustion products. Calculate the molar composition of water
in the product gas for each of the following cases:
51. The rate of recycle in lb/hr
a. 150 kg c. 350 kg 59. Theoretical air supplied, 100% conversion of butane
a. 12.0% c. 3.3%
b. 250 kg d. 450 kg
b. 14.9% d. 10.7%
52. The amount of Zn that has to be added per hour if Zn is to be 20% 60. 20% excess air, 100% conversion of butane
in excess a. 12.6% c. 15.2%
a. 233 kg c. 454 kg b. 8.8% d. 10.1%
b. 116 kg d. 378 kg
61. 20% excess air, 90% conversion of butane
53. The mole ratio of ZnBr2 to C2H2 in the products a. 9.1% c. 11.4%
a. 1.5 c. 2.0 b. 13.6% d. 7.5%
b. 1.0 d. 2.5
For numbers 54 to 56: A fuel containing 75% ethane and 25% propane is burned with
TiCl4 can be formed by reacting titanium dioxide (TiO2) with dry air. All the H2 burns to H2O and the CO2 to CO ratio is 10:1.
hydrochloric acid. TiO2 is available as an ore containing 78 % Fifteen% excess air is supplied. Calculate:
TiO2 and 22 % inerts. The HCl is available as 45 wt% solution
(the balance is water). The per pass conversion of TiO2 is 75 %. 62. Percent CO in the Orsat analysis of stack gas
The HCl is fed into the reactor in 20 % excess based on the a. 1.04% c. 5.33%
b. 2.18% d. 4.27%
reaction. Pure unreacted TiO2is recycled back to mix with the
TiO2 feed. 63. Percent CO in the complete analysis of stack gas
TiO2+ 4 HCl à TiCl4 + 2H2O a. 0.65% c. 0.89%
For 1 kg of TiCl4 produced, determine: b. 0.33% d. 0.99%
For number 64 to 65: 74. % Combined water in VCM

Orsat analysis of the stack gas from the combustion of a gaseous a. 55% c. 66%
mixture of acetylene and methane shows 9.82% CO2, 1.37%CO, b. 44% d. 33%
0.69% H2, 5.43% O2 and 82.69% N2. Determine:
75. Calorific Value of VCM.
64. The % excess air a. 12 MJ/kg c. 15 MJ/kg
a. 15% c 10% b. 17 MJ/kg d. 10 MJ/kg
b. 20% d. 25%
65. The % mol CH4 in the gaseous fuel A furnace is fired with high volatile A bituminous coal whose
a. 50% c. 40% ultimate analysis shows 75.2% C, 5.19% H, 8.72% O, 1.5% N,
b. 30% d. 60% 7.8% ash and 1.6% S. 60% excess air is supplied. Assume CO
to CO2 ratio of 0.175. The stack gas leaves at 3000C, 740 torrs.
For numbers 66 to 67: Calculate:
A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burnt with excess air. Orsat
analysis of the stack gas shows 7.9% CO2, 1.18% CO, 0.24% H2, 76. The % water in the complete analysis of the stack gas if air is
5.25% O2, and 85.43% N2. Air is substantially dry. The stack supplied at 280C, 100 kPa and essentially dry.
gases leave at 750 mmHg pressure. Calculate: a. 2.06% c. 3.12%
b. 5.90% d. 4.47%
66. The % excess air
a. 25% c 18% 77. The calorific value of the coal.
b. 34% d. 44% a. 28 MJ/kg c. 31 MJ/kg
b. 25 MJ/kg d. 39 MJ/kg
67. The formula of the hydrocarbon
a. CH4 c C3H8 For numbers 78 to 79:
b. C2H6 d. C4H10 A high volatile B bituminous coal analyzing 22% VCM, 64% FC,
4% M, 1.4% N and 1.6% S has a calorific value of 32.5 MJ/kg. It
68. The burning of pure butane with excess air gives a stack gas is burned in excess air supplied essentially dry at 280C and 1 atm.
which analyzes 11.55% CO2 on a dry basis. Assuming complete The stack gases leave at 250C, 740 mmHg and contain 8.37%
combustion, calculate the % excess air CO2, 4.19% CO and 2.51% H2. Calculate:
a. 16% c. 11%
b. 20% d. 23% 78. The % excess O2
a. 38% c. 55%
69. The octane number of a gasoline was determined using a mixture b. 40% d. 62%
of isooctane and n-heptane with the same knocking tendency as
the gasoline If the iso-octane - heptane mixture is burned in 30% 79. The % N2 in the complete Orsat analysis of the stack gas
excess air, with a product gas molal ratio of CO2 to CO of 5:2 and a. 75% c. 76%
H2 to CO of 1:1, what is the % CO in the Orsat analysis? Assume b. 89% d. 80%
octane number of 85. Density of iso-octane is 0.6918 and n-
heptane is 0.684 g/ml. 80. A furnace burns coal with the following analysis: M – 4.1%, VCM
a. 3.03% c. 2.95% – 24%, FC – 63.0%, N – 1.20%, S – 1.80%, Ash – 8.90%. The
b. 1.56% d. 4.47% refuse analyzed 4.8% VCM, 12.6% FC, 82.6% ash and a calorific
value of 32 MJ/kg. Calculate the percentage of gross calorific
70. If the test study on the combustion of the cetane-methyl value lost in the refuse.
naphthalene mixture gave a product gas analyzing 7.14% CO2, a. 1.38% c. 0.90%
4.28% CO, 8.24% O2 and 80.34% N2, what is the cetane number b. 2.16% d. 3.05%
of the diesel. Density of cetane is 0.7751 and methyl naphthalene
is 1.025 g/ml.
a. 28 c. 53
b. 36 d. 45

A furnace is fired with sub bituminous B coal containing 10.3%
moisture, 34% VCM and 7.7% ash. It is also known to contain
1.2% N and 1.57% S. Its calorific value is 22 MJ/kg. Calculate its:
71. % Fixed carbon

a. 55% c. 48%
b. 37% d. 62%
72. % Combined water

a. 22.5% c. 18.5%
b. 10.7% d. 35.9%
73. % Oxygen
a. 29% c. 38%
b. 40% d. 15%
SEPARATION PROCESSES
Leaching 10. In a counter-current extractor, as the axial mixing increases, the

extraction efficiency
- A unit operation in which a soluble component is removed from a. increases
an inert solid by a solvent which preferentially dissolves the b. decreases
soluble matter is known as c. remains unchanged
d. depends on the pressure of the system
1. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?
a. Dissolving gold from ores. For numbers 11 to 12:
b. Dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots. 0.4 kg/s of dry sea-shore sand, containing 1 per cent by mass of
c. Dissolving sugar from the cells of the beet. salt, is to be washed with 0.4 kg/s of fresh water running counter
d. Removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene. currently to the sand through two classifiers in series. It may be
assumed that perfect mixing of the sand and water occurs in each
2. Tea percolation employs classifier and that the sand discharged from each classifier
a. solvent extraction c. absorption contains one part of water for every two of sand by mass.
b. leaching d. adsorption
11. If the washed sand is dried in a kiln dryer, what percentage of salt
3. Neem oil is a traditional plant product which possesses will it retain?
spermicidal properties. A group of students working on their a. 0.47% c. 0.25%
investigatory project wanted to test how effective the said oil was b. 0.18% d. 0.33%
as contraceptive by using it as a component for contraceptives.
The students were able to gather 5 kg of Neem Tree Seeds that 12. What wash rate would be required in a single classifier in order to
contains 30% of soluble oil and 70% inert solids and they decided wash the sand to the same extent?
to use 5 kg of pure hexane to extract the oil. What percentage of a. 0.5 kg/s c. 0.4 kg/s
oil will they be able to recover given that the ratio of the liquid to b. 0.8 kg/s d. 0.9 kg/s
solid components in the underflow is 0.5? Assume ideal
leaching. 13. When the solvent dissolves very little of solute, then
a. 88% c. 73% a. solvent of low latent heat of vaporization should be used.
b. 93% d. 65% b. solvent of low freezing point should be used.
c. large quantity of solvent is required to extract the solute.
4. Which of the following is the most commonly used leaching d. very small quantity of solvent is required.
solvent in vegetable oil industry?
a. phenol c. furfural 14. Seeds, containing 20% by mass of oil, are extracted in a counter
b. hexane d. liquid SO2 current plant, and 90% of the oil is recovered in a solution
containing 50% by mass of oil. If the seeds are extracted with
5. Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done using fresh solvent and 1 kg of solution is removed in the underflow in
a. hot water c. dilute H2SO4 association with every 2 kg of insoluble matter, how many ideal
b. hexane d. lime water stages are required?
a. 5 c. 7
6. In a determination of the solution retention data, the mass fraction b. 3 d. 2
of the solute in the extract was determined to be 0.6. The
corresponding underflow analysis showed a retention of 0.6 kg 15. Ground roasted coffee contains 8% soluble solids, 2% water, and
solvent per kg of the inert solid. The mass fraction of solute in the 90% inert insoluble solids. In order to obtain an extract with high
underflow is most likely soluble solids content without having to concentrate it for spray
a. 0.60 c. 0.47 drying, a countercurrent extraction process is to be used to
b. 0.36 d. 0.27 prepare the extract. It is desired that the final extract contains 0.15
kg soluble/ kg water and that the soluble of the spent coffee
For numbers 7 to 8: grounds not to exceed 0.008 kg/kg dry inert solids. The coffee
In a salt recovery plant, rock salt is being leached to produce grounds carry 1 kg water/ kg of soluble free inert solids and this
industrial salt in a continuous counter current system consisting quantity is constant with the solute concentration in the extract.
of two ideal stages using water as leaching medium. the average Determine the number of extraction stages needed for this
composition of the rock salt is: inerts = 70%, soluble salts = 25%, process.
moisture = 5%, all percentage by weight. The underflow from a. 3 c. 5
each stage contains 0.3 kg of solution per kg of inerts. The plant b. 4 d. 6
leaches 50 MT of rock salt per day using 50 MT of water.
16. Leaching of uranium ore and gold ore is done in
7. The quantity of soluble salts recovered in MT/day is a. centrifugal extractor c. Pachuka tanks
a. 12.1 c. 13.1 b. Bollman extractor d. none of these
b. 14 d. 11.2
17. Tung meal containing 55% oil is to be extracted at a rate of 4000
8. The composition of salt in weight percent in the final underflow is kg/hr using n-hexane containing 5% wt oil as solvent. A counter
a. 0.88% c. 0.98% current multiple stage extraction system is to be used. The meal
b. 0.78% d. 0.68% retains 2 kg solvent per kg of oil free meal while the residual
charge contains 0.11 kg oil per kg oil free meal while the product
9. Rate of leaching increases with increasing is composed of 15 weight percent of oil. The theoretical number
a. temperature c. viscosity of solvent of stages is
b. pressure d. size of the solid a. 4 c. 3
b. 5 d. 6
18. Bollman extractor 26. Compound A is extracted from a solution of A + B into a pure
a. is a static bed leaching equipment. solvent S. A co-current unit is used for the liquid-liquid extraction.
b. is used for extraction of oil from oil seed. The inlet rate of the solution containing A is 200 moles of B/hr-m2
c. is a centrifugal extractor. and the solvent flow, rate is 400 moles of S/m2-hr. The equilibrium
d. employs only counter-current extraction. data is represented by Y = 2x, where Y is in moles of a A/moles
of B and X is in moles A/moles of S. The maximum percentage
For numbers 19 to 20: extraction achieved in the unit is
One thousand pounds of roasted copper ore containing 10 a. 25% c. 50%
percent CuSO4, 85 percent insoluble gangue and 5 percent b. 70% d. 90%
moisture is to be extracted by washing it three times with 2000-lb
batches of fresh water. It has been found that the solids retain 0.8 27. Which of the following equipment is not used in liquid-liquid
lb of solution per pound of gangue. extraction?
a. Pachuka tank c. Agitated vessels
19. What is the percent CuSO4 of the final underflow sludge after b. Packed towers d. Centrifugal extractors
three washings?
a. 0.13% c. 3.12% 28. A liquid mixture of acetaldehyde and toluene contains 8 lb of
b. 6.54% d. 8.90% acetaldehyde and 90 lb of toluene. Part of the acetaldehyde in
this solution is to be extracted using pure water as the extracting
20. What is the percent recovery?
agent. The extraction is to be performed in two stages, using 25
a. 75.5% c. 85.1%
b. 90.8% d. 97.9% lb of fresh water for each stage. The raffinate layer from the first
stage is treated by fresh water in the second stage. The extraction
takes place at 170C and the equilibrium equation Y=2.2X may be
Liquid-Liquid Extraction employed. Assuming toluene and water is immiscible, what would
be the weight percent of acetaldehyde in a mixture of the extracts
- The unit operation by where two immiscible or partly miscible from both stage if each of the extraction were theoretically
liquids are brought in contact with each other so that the soluble perfect?
substance(s) in one liquid passes into other liquid by diffusion.
a. 8.96% c. 9.33%
21. Acetic acid will be most economically separated from a dilute b. 7.10% d. 5.52%
solution of acetic acid in water by
a. solvent extraction c. continuous distillation 29. Which of the following is an undesirable property for an absorbing
b. evaporation d. absorption solvent?
a. Low vapor pressure c. Low viscosity
22. Separation of two or more components of a liquid solution cannot b. Low freezing point d. None of these
be achieved by
a. liquid extraction c. fractional crystallization 30. The solubility of iodine per unit volume is 200 times greater in
b. absorption d. evaporation ether than in water at a particular temperature. If an aqueous
solution of iodine, 30 ml in volume and containing 2 mg of iodine
23. Solvent extraction is the terminology applied to the liquid-liquid is shaken with 30 ml of ether and the ether is allowed to separate,
extraction, which is preferred for the separation of the what quantity of iodine remains in the water layer?
components of liquids, when a. 9.95x10-3 mg c. 8.86 x10-3 mg
a. extracting solvent is cheaply and abundantly available. b. 6.05x10-3 mg d. 5.40 x10-3 mg
b. one of the liquid components is heat sensitive.
c. viscosity of liquid components is very high. 31. What quantity of iodine remains in the water layer if only 3 ml of
d. one of the liquid components has very high affinity towards the ether is used?
solvent. a. 0.086 mg c. 0.095 mg
b. 0.072 mg d. 0.063 mg
24. The distribution coefficient of solute A between solvents B and S
is given by Y = 2.5X where Y = mass of A / mass of S in extract
and X = mass of A / mass of B in raffinate. S and B are mutually 32. How much iodine is left in the water layer if the extraction in (31)
immiscible. A solution containing 25% A in B is to be extracted in is followed by a second extraction, again using 3 ml of ether?
a single stage contact with a recovery of 80%. The amount of S a. 4.53x10-3 mg c. 2.09 x10-3 mg
in kg required per 100 kg of solution is nearly b. 1.37x10-3 mg d. 2.88 x10-3 mg
a. 100 c. 120
b. 150 d. 200 33. Which method is more efficient, a single large washing or
25. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent repeated small washing?
heat of vaporization, because a. single large washing
a. the pressure drop and hence the pumping cost will be very b. repeated small washing
high. c. either single large or repeated small washing
b. it cannot be recovered by distillation. d. none of these
c. its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high.
d. it will decompose while recovering by distillation.
34. A solution of solute (A) in diluent (B) is mixed with solvent (S).
The component (B) is slightly soluble in (S). The resulting extract
will be
a. rich in S, poor in B, poor in A
b. poor in S, rich in B, poor in A
c. rich in S, rich in B, rich in A
d. rich in S, poor in B, rich in A
35. The apex of an equilateral-triangular coordinate (in ternary liquid 44. Which of the following equipment is not used for liquid
system) represents a/an dispersion?
a. pure component c. binary mixture a. Wetted wall towers c. Venturi scrubbers
b. ternary mixture d. insoluble binary system b. Packed tower d. Agitated vessels
36. Sides of equilateral-triangular co-ordinates (on which ternary 45. In a counter-current liquid extractor
liquid system is plotted) represent a. both liquids flow at fixed rate.
a. a pure component. b. both liquids can have any desired flow rate.
b. a binary mixture. c. only one of the liquids may be pumped at any desired rate.
c. a ternary mixture. d. liquid's flow rate depends upon the temperature and pressure.
d. partially miscible ternary system.
46. The equipment used in the extraction of highly corrosive
37. In triangular coordinates, the ternary composition point falls radioactive liquids is
__________ of the triangle. a. pulse column c. spray column
a. in the corners c. inside b. mixer settler d. baffle tower
b. on the sides d. none of these
47. Radioactive nuclear waste is treated in
For numbers 38 to 39: a. mixer-settler extractor
A solution of 5% acetaldehyde in toluene is to be extracted with b. rotating-disc contactor
water in a five-stage concurrent unit. If 25 kg water per 100 kg of c. pulsed column extractor
feed is used, calculate the following: d. Bollman extractor

38. The mass of acetaldehyde extracted if the equilibrium relation is
Benzoic acid is 9 times more soluble in chloroform than in water.
given by: kg acetaldehyde per kg water = 2.20 (kg acetaldehyde
The percent benzoic acid that will remain from a water solution of
per kg toluene).
benzoic acid if
a. 4.49 kg / 100 kg feed c. 3.36 kg / 100 kg feed
b. 1.11 kg / 100 kg feed d. 2.98 kg / 100 kg feed
48. Equal quantity of chloroform and water is used is
a. 10% c. 15%
39. The final concentration in % weight b. 20% d. 30%
a. 0.89% c. 0.54%
b. 0.67% d. 0.33% 49. Twice as much as chloroform as water is used
a. 2.6% c. 3.5%
40. The commonly used solvent in supercritical extraction is b. 5.3% d. 6.0%
a. methyl ethyl ketone c. water
b. carbon tetrachloride d. carbon dioxide 50. If extraction as in Problem 48 were followed by an extraction as
in Problem 49 is
41. To plan a liquid–liquid extraction we need to know the solute’s a. 0.53% c. 0.63%
distribution ratio between the two phases. One approach is to b. 0.35% d. 0.73%
carry out the extraction on a solution containing a known amount
51. Antibiotics are best handled in a
of solute. After extracting the solution, we isolate the organic a. Podbielniak extractor c. rotating disc contactor
phase and allow it to evaporate, leaving behind the solute. In one b. sieve tray contractor d. pulsed column extractor
such experiment, 1.235 g of a solute with a molar mass of 117.3
g/mol is dissolved in 10.00 mL of water. After extracting with 5.00 52. __________ extractor uses centrifugal force for separating the
mL of toluene, 0.889 g of the solute is recovered in the organic two phases.
phase. How many extractions will we need to recover 99.9% of a. Treybal c. Schiebel
b. Podbielniak d. none of these
the solute?
a. 5 c. 8
b. 6 d. 4 53. Desulfurization of petrol is done in a
a. Bollman extractor
For numbers 42 to 43: b. rotating disc extractor
By extraction with amyl acetate, Penicillin F is recovered from an c. packed extraction column
d. plate type extraction column
aqueous fermentation broth using 6 volumes of solvent per 100
volumes of the aqueous phase. At pH = 3.2, the distribution 54. Which of the following is the most suitable for extraction in a
coefficient KD is 80. system having very low-density difference?
a. Mixer-settler extractor
42. What fraction of the penicillin would be recovered in a single ideal b. Centrifugal extractor
stage? c. Pulsed extractor
a. 77% c. 83% d. Packed extraction tower
b. 65% d. 92%
43. What would be the recovery with two-stage extraction using fresh
solvent in both stages?
a. 88% c. 75%
b. 97% d. 69%
Distillation
55. Which of the following solutions will follow Raoult's law most 64. Relative volatility varies with the concentration of component for
closely? an ideal solution. The relative volatility of a binary mixture may be
a. A solution of benzene, toluene and o-xylene defined as the ratio of vapor pressure of component 'A' to that of
b. 35% solution of camphor in water component 'B', when
c. 35% solution of NH3 in water a. only vapor phase follows Raoult's law.
d. A solution of polar organic compounds (not of homologs of a b. only liquid phase obeys Dalton's law.
series). c. liquid phase obeys Dalton's law and vapor phase obeys
Raoult's law.
56. Calculate the equilibrium compositions of the liquid and the vapor d. Vapor phase obeys Dalton's law and liquid phase obeys
phases for the mixture of methyl alcohol in water at a temperature Raoult's law.
of 500C and under a pressure of 40 kPa. Assume that both the
liquid and the vapor behave ideally. At 500C, the vapor pressure 65. The-relative volatility for separation of a non-ideal binary mixture
of methyl alcohol is 53.32 kPa and that of water is 12.33 kPa. by distillation should be
a. 67.5% methyl alcohol in liquid and 89.98% methyl alcohol in a. 0 c. 1
vapor b. > 1 d. < 1
b. 50.2% methyl alcohol in liquid and 77.60% methyl alcohol in
vapor 66. A liquid mixture of ethyl alcohol and water is in equilibrium with a
c. 61.1% methyl alcohol in liquid and 62.12% methyl alcohol in vapor containing ethyl alcohol and water at a total pressure of 760
vapor mmHg. A sample of the vapor indicates that it contains 3.3 mol of
d. 54.6% methyl alcohol in liquid and 94.33% methyl alcohol in ethyl alcohol for every 1.7 mol of water. If the liquid has a mol
vapor fraction of 0.52 ethyl, what is the relative volatility for the mixture?
a.1.59 c. 1.69
57. Determine the composition of the equilibrium vapor over a liquid b.1.79 d. 1.89
mixture consisting of 10 mol % water, 50 mol % acetic acid and
40 mol % acetone at 800C, assuming that the component obey 67. The physical separation of components in a miscible mixture by
Raoult`s law. The vapor pressures of components at 800C are: simultaneous evaporation and condensation is
water – 47.33 kPa, acetic acid – 27.32 kPa and acetone – 219.77 a. absorption c. extraction
kPa. b. drying d. distillation
a. 2.55% water, 10.35% acetic acid and 87.10% acetone
b. 4.45% water, 12.85% acetic acid and 82.70% acetone 68. In a batch distillation, the boiling point of the distillate product
c. 3.50% water, 15.00% acetic acid and 81.50% acetone compared to the residue is
d. 5.60% water, 11.75% acetic acid and 82.65% acetone a. the same c. lower
b. higher d. half
58. A binary mixture of two moles benzene and 8 moles of toluene
will boil at 69. In batch distillation with constant reflux, overhead product
a. 110 0C c. 110 0F composition __________ with time.
b. 105 C0 d. 102 0C a. increases
b. decreases
59. Boiling point diagram is c. does not vary
a. not affected by pressure. d. may increase on decrease, depends on the system.
b. affected by pressure.
c. a plot of temperature vs. liquid composition. 70. Increasing the operating pressure of a distilling column
d. a plot of temperature vs. vapor composition. a. does not make a difference in components separation
b. makes separation difficult
60. A 50 % by weight benzene – toluene mixture is fed to a column c. sharpens separation
at 180 0F and 1 atm. The condition of the feed is called d. requires less heat in the feed heater
a. saturated liquid c. saturated vapor
b. sub cooled liquid d. mixture of liquid and vapor 71. Determine the relative volatility of n-butane/n-pentane mixture at
300C and 1 atm abs
61. The percentage change in the boiling point of a 20 mole benzene a. 2.55 c. 3.46
– toluene solution when the pressure is increased from 1 atm to b. 3.04 d. 4.28
2 atm is
a. 10.5 % increase c. 25.5 % decrease 72. One hundred mols of 15% by mole n-butane/n-pentane mixture
b. 25.5 % increase d. 10.5% decrease is distilled until the residual liquid contains 45.5 mols. Using the
value of the relative volatility obtained in problem no.71, find the
62. The ease of difficulty of separating components by distillation is average concentration of the distillate in mol% butane.
determined by the a. 20.6 c. 32.4
a. relative volatility c. mole fraction b. 24.7 d. 48.5
b. viscosity d. weight fraction of the components
73. In distillation, overhead product contains
63. When the liquid phase and vapor phase of a binary system obeys a. only one component
Raoult's and Dalton's law respectively, the relative volatility is the b. two components
ratio of c. any number of components
a. vapor pressure of component A to that of component B. d. only saturated liquid
b. vapor pressure of component A to the total pressure.
c. vapor pressure of component A to the partial pressure of A.
d. partial pressure of component A to the total pressure.
For numbers 74 to 76: 84. In steam distillation, the

Given a relative volatility of 4,600 mols of A and 400 mols of B a. temperature is 100°C.
are fed in a kettle for distillation. A is more volatile than B. b. temperature is more than 100° C.
c. product must be immiscible with water.
74. What is the amount of the overhead product if the remaining d. temperature is higher than the boiling point of either
mixture in the kettle is 80%B? component.
a. 826 mol c. 725 mol
b. 641 mol d. 503 mol 85. Glycerin is steam distilled at 1820C and under a 26 in Hg vacuum.
A test shows that one lb of steam is consumed per lb of glycerine
75. How much A is in the overhead product? distilled. What percent excess steam is actually used than
a. 315 mol c. 495 mol theoretical? Vapor pressure of glycerine at 1820C is 21 mmHg.
b. 545 mol d. 625 mol a. 37% c. 16%
b. 21% d. 54%
76. If 50% of the feed evaporated, how much A remains in the kettle?
a. 268 c. 354 For numbers 86 to 88:
b. 406 d. 197 It is planned to feed continuously 100 mol per hour of a solution
containing 80 mol of A and 20 mol of B to an externally fired
77. Flash distillation is suitable for separating the constituents of a kettle by which there is good agitation due to boiling. The residue
binary system, which and vapor will be withdrawn continuously, the vapor condensed,
a. form minimum boiling azeotrope. cooled and sent to storage. There is no return of residue or
b. have very wide boiling points. condensate to kettle, hence, this will be continuous simple
c. have very close boiling points. distillation. It is planned to regulate the heat supply that D grams
d. form constant boiling azeotrope. of distillate per hour will contain 72 mol of the more volatile
component A which is five times more volatile than B.
78. A mixture of 60 mole % A and 40 mol % B is subject to flash
distillation at a separator pressure of 1 atm. The relative volatility 86. Calculate the mols of distillate per hundred moles of feed
of A with respect to B is constant 3. What fraction of the feed must a. 85 c. 79
be vaporized to have the composition of the vapor leaving the b. 62 d. 90
separator be 75 mol % A?
a. 0.3 c. 0.5 87. What is the mole fraction of A in the distillate?
b. 0.6 d. 0.4 a. 0.69 c. 0.91
b. 0.78 d. 0.85
79. One mole feed of a binary mixture of a given composition is flash
vaporized at a fixed P and T. If Raoult's law is obeyed, then 88. What is the mole fraction of A in the residue?
changing the feed composition would effect a. 0.53 c. 0.26
a. the product composition but not the fraction vaporized. b. 0.37 d. 0.42
b. the product composition as well as the fraction vaporized.
c. the fraction vaporized but not the product composition. 89. In a distilling column, the highest pressure will be at
d. neither the product composition nor the fraction vaporized. a. the top
b. the bottom
80. An equimolal mixture of benzene and toluene is subjected to flash c. the feed plate
distillation at a separator pressure of 1 atm. If 40% of the charge d. between the feed plate and the top
is vaporized, at what temperature will the vapor and liquid
separate? 90. In distillation where q is defined as the moles of liquid flow in the
a. 76.50C c. 950C stripping section per mole of feed introduced, for saturated liquid
b. 82.10 C 0 d. 1060C feed
a. q > 1 c. q < 1
81. When the mixture to be distilled has a very high boiling point and b. q = 1 d. q = 0
the product material is heat sensitive, the separation technique to
be used is __________ distillation. 91. When the feed to a distillation column is a saturated liquid, slope
a. continuous c. steam of the feed line is
b. azeotropic d. none of these a. zero c. unity
b. infinity d. none of these
82. Steam distillation is used to
a. reduce the number of plates. 92. In a binary distillation column, if the feed contains 40 mole %
b. avoid thermal decomposition of a component. vapor, the q line will have a slope of
c. increase the efficiency of separation. a. 1.5 c. -0.6
d. increase the total pressure of distillation. b. -1.5 d. 0.6
83. Nitrobenzene is to be open-steam distilled at 125.80C at a 93. A benzene-toluene feed with (40 mol% benzene and 60 mol%
vacuum of 26 “ Hg. How many pounds of steam will be toluene) to a distillation column is at a temperature of 200C. The
theoretically required to collect 2000 pounds of pure molar heat capacity of the feed is 159.2 kJ/kmol-K. Molar latent
nitrobenzene? heats of vaporization of benzene and toluene are 30 813 and 33
a. 93 c. 193 325 kJ/kmol, respectively. The bubble point of the mixture is 95
b. 114 d. 232 0C. The slope of the q line is closest to
a. 0 c. 3.7
b. 1 d. -3.7
94. At minimum reflux ratio for a given separation 103. According to the Fenske equation, what will be the minimum
a. number of plates is zero. number of plates required in a distillation column to separate an
b. number of plates is infinity. equimolar binary mixture of components A and B into an
c. minimum number of the theoretical plates is required.
overhead fraction containing 99 mol% A and a bottom fraction
d. separation is most efficient.
containing 98 mol% B. Assume that relative volatility (αAB = 2)
95. One hundred kgmol/hr of 40 mol% benzene-toluene mixture is does not change appreciably in the column.
fractionated in a plate column at 1 atm. The overhead product a. 5 c. 9
must contain 95 mol% benzene and the bottoms must contain 95 b. 12 d. 28
mol% toluene. The feed is saturated liquid. If the reflux ratio is to
be twice the minimum, determine the kgmol per hour of the 104. In McCabe-Thiele method of theoretical plate calculation for a
overhead vapor? distillation column, the operating lines of stripping and rectifying
a. 38 c. 61 sections coincide with the diagonal at __________ reflux.
b. 43 d. 156 a. total c. minimum
b. operating d. maximum permissible
96. A binary mixture with components A and B is to be separated in
a distillation column to obtain 95 mol% A as the top product. The 105. In a distillation column, with increase in the reflux ratio, the heat
binary mixture has a constant relative volatility 𝛼𝐴𝐵 = 2. The removed in the cooler
column feed is a saturated liquid containing 50 mol% A. Under a. increases.
the usual simplifying assumptions such as constant molal b. decreases.
overflow, negligible heat loss, ideal trays, the minimum reflux ratio c. remains unaffected.
for this separation is d. and the heat required in reboiler decreases.
a. 1.7 c. 1.4
b. 1.6 d. 1.5 106. Fenske's equation for determining the minimum number of
theoretical stages in distillation column holds good, when the
For numbers 97 to 98: a. relative volatility is reasonably constant.
A binary feed mixture containing equimolar quantities of b. mixture (to be separated) shows negative deviation from
components S and T is to be distilled in a fractionating tower at ideality.
atmospheric pressure. The distillate contains 96 mol % S. The c. mixture (to be separated) shows positive deviation from
q-line (feed line) intersects the equilibrium line at x' = 0.46 and ideality.
y'= 0.66, where x' and y' are mole fraction s. Assume that the d. multicomponent distillation is involved.
McCabe-Thiele method is applicable and the relative volatility is
constant. 107. In continuous rectification column is used to separate a binary
mixture of A and B. Distillate in produced at 100 kgmol/hr
97. The minimum reflux ratio is
a. 1.6 c. 0.66 containing 98 mole % A. The mole fractions of A in the liquid and
b. 1.5 d. 0.60 in the vapor, x and y respectively, from two adjacent ideal plates
in the enriching section are as follows
98. The feed is
a. at dew point c. at bubble point x y
b. superheated vapor d. partially vapor 0.65 0.82
0.56 0.76
99. Fenske equation determines the
a. maximum number of ideal plates. If the latent heat of vaporization is the same for all mixtures and
b. height of the distillation column. if the feed is a saturated liquid, calculate the rate in the striping
c. minimum number of theoretical plates. section in kg moles per hour
d. optimum reflux ratio. a. 300 c. 200
b. 400 d. 500
An ideal mixture of A and B is to be distilled continuously. If the
relative volatility is constant at 1.75 and 108. For the same feed, feed quality and separation (in a distillation
feed = saturated liquid with 50 mol% A column), with the increase of total pressure, the number of ideal
plates will
feed rate = 200 lbmol/hr
a. increase
distillation composition = 90% A
bottoms composition = 10% A b. decrease
c. remains same
d. data insufficient, can't be predicted
100. Find the minimum number of theoretical stages
a. 4.22 c. 7.85
109. Inside the distillation column, the
b. 6.85 d. 8.19
a. driving force for the vapor flow is the pressure drop.
b. liquids are not always at their bubble points.
101. What is the minimum reflux ratio?
a. 1.93 c. 2.50 c. pressure increases gradually from bottom to the top of the
b. 2.10 d. 1.55 column.
d. none of these
102. As the reflux ratio decreases, the 110. Overall efficiency of the distillation column is
a. separation becomes more efficient. a. the ratio of number of ideal plates to actual plates
b. number of plates increases. b. the ratio of number of actual plates to ideal plates
c. column diameter increases. c. same as the Murphree efficiency
d. none of these. d. always more than the point efficiency
111. Can the efficiency of a plate in the distillation tower be greater 120. Pick out the wrong statement.
than 100%? a. Critical moisture content is not a property of the material itself.
a. Yes b. A sharp increase in pressure drop gives an indication of the
b. Normally not; but is possible if infinite number of plates are put. flooding in a distillation column.
c. Never c. Separation of components is not possible in liquid extraction, if
d. Yes; if the reflux ratio is maximum. selectivity is unity.
d. Dehydration of ethyl alcohol is most economically done by
112. Pick out the correct statement. molecular distillation at very high vacuum.
a. Ponchon-Savarit method is more accurate than McCabe-
Thiele method to determine the number of theoretical stages 121. Azeotropic distillation is employed to separate
required for the separation of non-ideal binary system by a. constant boiling mixture
distillation. b. high boiling mixture
b. A sharp decrease in pressure drop is an indication of flooding c. mixture with very high relative volatility
in a distillation column. d. heat sensitive materials
c. Solvent used in extractive distillation should be of high volatility.
d. Flash distillation is suitable for separating components which 122. Positive deviation from Raoult's law means a mixture whose total
have very close boiling temperature. pressure is
a. greater than that computed for ideality.
113. Ponchan-Savarit method analyses the fractional equipment b. less than that computed for ideality.
based on c. less than the sum of the vapour pressure of the components.
a. enthalpy balance only. d. none of these.
b. material balance only.
c. both enthalpy and material balances. 123. The equilibrium liquid composition compared to the vapor
d. the assumption of constant molal overflow. composition in case of azeotropic mixture is
a. more
114. The assumption made in Elis method in distillation is that enthalpy b. less
concentration lines of vapor and liquid are c. same
a. parallel d. either more or less; depends on the system
b. straight
c. both parallel and straight 124. Pick out the wrong statement.
d. neither parallel nor straight a. The mole fraction of solute is directly proportional to the
molality of a 'dilute' solution.
115. Smoker's equation for the calculation of number of equilibrium b. For a non-reacting binary mixture of ideal gases, the partial
stages in a continuous binary distillation column is used, when pressure distribution of both components is nonlinear in the case
the of steady state unimolal unidirectional diffusion.
a. relative volatility is close to one (e.g., separation of close boiling c. Azeotropes obey Raoult's law at all temperature.
isomers). d. The relative volatility of a binary mixture at the azeotropic
b. feed is not at its bubble point. composition is 1.
c. number of equilibrium stages in only stripping section is to be
calculated. 125. The relative volatility of a binary mixture at the azeotropic
d. number of equilibrium stages required is likely to be very small. composition is
a. 1 c. > 1
116. Design calculation for multiple component distillation is done by b. 0 d. ∞
a. Ponchon-Savarit method
b. Mccabe-Thiele method 126. A minimum boiling azeotrope is exemplified by
c. enthalpy concentration method a. toluene-benzene
d. tray to tray calculations b. acetone-carbon disulfide
c. water-isobutyl alcohol
117. Which of the following unit operations makes use of Thiele- d. none of these
Geddes equation?
a. Liquid-liquid extraction 127. At what percentage (by volume) of alcohol composition, it forms
b. Solid-liquid extraction an azeotrope with water?
c. Multicomponent absorption with chemical reaction a. 90 c. 91.5
d. Multicomponent distillation. b. 95 d. 99
118. In extractive distillation, solvent is 128. Which of the following binary systems is an example of a
a. added to alter the relative volatility of the mixture. maximum boiling azeotrope?
b. of high volatility. a. water-hydrochloric acid
c. present in overhead stream. b. acetone-carbon disulfide
d. of high viscosity to give high tray efficiency. c. water-ethyl alcohol
d. n-heptane-n-octane
119. Pick out the system with minimum boiling azeotrope at 1 atm.
a. benzene-toluene c. hydrochloric acid-water 129. Back-trapping in a distillation column
b. ethyl alcohol-water d. all of these a. increases tray efficiency.
b. decreases tray efficiency.
c. reduces pressure drop.
d. is desirable, as it provides improved vapor-liquid contact.
FLOW OF FLUIDS

1. Convert 15.14 poises to kinematic viscosity in square feet per second A pump draws 69.1 gal/min of a liquid solution having a density of
if the liquid has a specific gravity of 0.964. 114.8 lb/ft3 from an open storage feed tank of large cross sectional
a. 0.0169 ft2/s c. 0.0333 ft2/s area through a 3-inch sch40 suction line. The pump discharges its
b. 0.0258 ft2/s d. 0.0421 ft2/s flow through a 2-inch sch40 line to an open overhead tank. The end
of the discharge line is 50 ft above the level of the liquid in the feed
2. The viscosity of a gas tank. The friction losses in the piping system are 10 ft-lbf/lb.
a. decreases with increase in temperature
b. increases with increase in temperature 12. What pressure must the pump develop?
c. is independent of temperature a. 35 psi c. 48 psi
d. is independent of pressure for very high pressure intensities b. 29 psi d. 10 psi
3. A piston of diameter 70.00 mm moves inside a cylinder of diameter 13. What is the horsepower of the pump if the efficiency is 65%? The
70.10 mm. Determine the percent decrease in force necessary to flow is turbulent.
move the piston when the lubricant warms from 0 to 120 0C. Values a. 3 hp c. 5 hp
of μ for the lubricant are 0.01820 Pa-s at 00C and 0.00206 Pa-s at b. 7 hp d. 2 hp
1200C.
a. 72% c. 63% 14. For an ideal fluid flow, the Reynolds number is
b. 89% d. 55% a. 2100 c. zero
b. 100 d. infinity
4. The dimensionless number that characterizes the flows of fluid in a
conduit. 15. In a nozzle flow, the inlet conditions are P1=365 kPa gage and
a. Nusselt number c. Grashof number D1=100 mm and the outlet conditions are P2=0 kPa gage and D2=50
b. Peclet number d. Reynolds number mm. Find the flow rate and neglect viscous effects. The fluid is water.
a. 0.032 m3/s c. 0.019 m3/s
5. Turbulent flow generally occurs for cases involving b. 0.055 m3/s d. 0.028 m3/s
a. viscous fluid
b. very narrow passages for capillary tube 16. In a certain chemical plant, the carbonate solution used in the
c. very slow motions absorption tower is pumped continuously from the bottom of the lye
d. none of these storage tank through a standard 4 in. pipe and then through sprays
head at the top of the scrubber. The depth of solution in the storage
6. Water at 800F at 10 ft/s through a 6 inches sch 40 steel pipe with tank is 10 ft and the vertical distance from the spray head to the
length of 1000 ft. The Reynolds number is bottom of the tank is 110 ft.
a. 330 000 c. 550 000 In a test on this equipment the following data were obtained:
b. 260 000 d. 830 000 Rate of flow 200 gpm
Density 68.9 lb/ft3
For numbers 7 to 8: Friction drop from tank to spray head 15 ft-lbf/lb
In an air pipeline, the flow has the following conditions at section 1: Gage pressure on spray head 5 psi
250C, 1.8 bar, 15 m/s velocity, and 50 mm inside diameter of pipe. Power input to pump 14 hp
At section 2 the conditions are: 250C, 1.3 bar, and 75 mm inside Calculate the efficiency of the pump.
diameter of pipe. a. 60% c. 50%
b. 75% d. 65%
7. Calculate the mass flow rate of air.
a. 0.062 kg/s c. 0.051 kg/s 17. A water storage tank supplies water into a factory. Water is supplied
b. 0.034 kg/s d. 0.075 kg/s to the tank through a booster pump installed in the water line. The
theoretical pump horsepower required is 3.25 hp. What is the
8. Determine the velocity at the section 2. monthly operating cost of the pump, if electrical power cost on the
a. 6.4 m/s c. 9.2 m/s average is P 3.73/kWh? The pump is 65% efficient and operates for
b. 7.5 m/s d. 3.3 m/s 12 hours a day.
a. P 3300 c. P 5000
9. Water flows through an 8 in (ID=7.981 in) steel pipe at an average b. P 7000 d. P 9000
velocity of 6 ft/s. Downstream the pipe splits into an 8-in main and a
2 in (ID=2.067 in) bypass pipes. If the velocity in the bypass is twice 18. Water is stored in an elevated reservoir. To generate power, water
the velocity of the main pipe, calculate the volumetric flowrate in the flows from this reservoir down through a large conduit to a turbine
main pipe in ft3/s. and then through a similar-sized conduit. At a point in the conduit
a. 1.84 c. 3.05 89.5 m above the turbine, the pressure is 172.4 kPa, and a level 5 m
b. 2.31 d. 4.69 below the turbine, the pressure is 89.6 kPa. The water flow rate is
0.800 m3/s. The output of the shaft of the turbine is 658 kW. The
10. Water at 200C enters an inclined 1-inch ID where the upstream point water density is 1000 kg/m3. If the efficiency of the turbine in
is at 10 psig. The downstream point is ½ inch ID and 40 ft below the converting the mechanical energy given up by the fluid to the turbine
upstream point where the water discharges at 30 gpm to the shaft is 89 %, calculate the friction loss in the turbine in J/g.
atmosphere. What is the friction in ft of water? a. 97 J/kg c. 81 J/kg
a. 10.2 c. 28.1 b. 85 J/kg d. 76 J/kg
b. 8.6 d. 45.2
11. Water at 200C is pumped at a constant rate of 9 m3/h from a large A liquid having a density of 801 kg/m3 and a viscosity 1.49x10-3 Pa-
reservoir resting on the floor to the open top of an experimental s is flowing through a horizontal straight pipe of a velocity of 4.57
absorption tower. The point of discharges is 5 m above the floor, and m/s. The commercial steel pipe is 1 ½ in nominal pipe size, schedule
the frictional losses in the 50 mm pipe from the reservoir to the tower 40. For a length of a pipe of 61 m, do as follows:
amount to 2.5 J/kg. At what height in the reservoir must the water
level be kept if the pump can develop only 0.1 kW? 19. Calculate the friction loss.
a. 2.50 m c. 3.84 m a. 491 J/kg c. 126 J/kg
b. 1.26 m d. 0.77 m b. 350 J/kg d. 278 J/kg
FLOW OF FLUIDS
20. For smooth tube of the same inside diameter, calculate the friction For numbers 30 to 32:
loss. A cooling water pump is operating at a speed of 2800 rpm. Its flow
a. 410 J/kg c. 100 J/kg rate is 1000 gal/min at a head of 160 ft.
b. 350 J/kg d. 280 J/kg
30. What is the power requirement of the pump?
21. What is the percent reduction of the F for the smooth tube? a. 10 kW c. 20 kW
a. 21% c. 42% b. 30 kW d. 40 kW
b. 13% d. 34%
31. If the pump speed is increased to 5000 rpm, determine the new
For numbers 22 to 23: power requirement.
A steel pipe having an inside diameter of 13.25 inches is to be a. 47 kW c. 80 kW
designed to carry 48 000 bbl of oil per 24 hour day from a mid- b. 133 kW d. 170 kW
continent field to a refinery 580 miles from the source. The difference
in elevation of the two ends of the line is negligible. At an average 32. When a fluid flows through a reducer in a piping system, the velocity
temperature involved, the oil has an absolute viscosity of 50 at the outlet end is _ the velocity at the inlet.
centipoises and a specific gravity of 0.87. a. less than c. the same as
b. more than d. one-half
22. Calculate the horsepower required to overcome friction in the pipe
line. 33. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the
a. 5100 hp c. 3800 hp connector used should be a/an
b. 1600 hp d. 4200 hp a. union c. tee
b. reducer d. elbow
23. Since the maximum allowable pressure in any section of the line is
650 psi, it will be necessary to insert additional pumping stations at 34. Which valve is used accurately to regulate the flow of liquids and
suitable intervals along the pipe line. What is the smallest number of gases at low flow rates?
pumping stations required? a. needle valve c. ball valve
a. 15 c. 7 b. check valve d. globe valve
b. 10 d. 5
35. Calculate the radius of capillary tube in mm, such that it is a flow of
24. What is the hydraulic diameter of a rectangular duct with dimensions a viscous fluid
6 inches by 12 inches? Kinematic viscosity 0.000043 m2/s
a. 8 inches c. 10.63 inches Length of tube 50.2 cm
b. 10 inches d. 11.86 inches Mass flow rate 0.003 kg/s
Density of fluid 955 kg/m3
25. The hydraulic diameter of concentric annular space where 1-in OD Pressure drop 4.77 atm
pipe is located inside a 2-in ID pipe is a. 0.32 c. 0.75
a. 1 in c. pi/4 in b. 0.18 d. 0.45
b. 1.5 in d. 2 in
36. Methane at 60 0F is flowing at a steady mass rate through a steel
26. Water is flowing at a rate of 80 gpm through 50 ft of an annular main having an inside diameter of 12 inches. The absolute pressure
conduit made of ½ in and 1 ¼ in schedule 40 steel pipe. What is the drops from 40 atm to 20 atm, in a length of 500 miles substantially
pressure drop in the 50 ft? Assume as average properties, a density horizontal pipe. Calculate the hourly rate of flow expressed as ft 3
of 62.3 lb/ft3 and a viscosity of 0.88 centipoise. measured at 600F and normal barometric pressure.
a. 110 psia c. 115 psia a. 650000 cfh c. 520000 cfh
b. 125 psia d. 150 psia c. 380000 cfh d. 440000 cfh
27. The pressure after the pump in a 6-inch inside diameter smooth pipe 37. Nitrogen gas is flowing through a 4” sch40 steel pipe at 25 0C. The
conducting water is 20 psia. The water is discharged at an open tank flow rate is 7.4 x10-2 kg/s and the flow is assumed isothermal. The
100 ft from the pump. Calculate the rate of discharge of water in ft3/s. pipe is 3000 m long and the inlet pressure is 200 kPa abs. What is
a. 2.5 c. 1.6 the outlet pressure?
b. 5.8 d. 3.6 a. 189 kPa c. 170 kPa
b. 155 kPa d. 146 kPa
28. A pump discharges ethanol at 380C into a smooth tube of 50 mm ID
at a gage pressure of 280 kPa. This pipe is 40 m long (total For numbers 38 to 39:
equivalent length) and supplies ethanol at a gage pressure of 140 Calculate the theoretical adiabatic horsepower to compress 1 000
kPa to a reactor. What is the volumetric flow rate of ethanol to the cfm of helium from standard atmospheric pressure and 800F to 200
reactor? There is negligible change in elevation between the pump psig,
and reactor. ρ = 820 kg/m3 and μ = 0.9 cP.
a. 0.01 m3/s c. 0.02 m3/s 38. In a single stage.
b. 0.03 m3/s c. 0.04 m3/s a. 308 hp c. 210 hp
b. 228 hp c. 546 hp
29. Water flowing at 2.27 m3/hr at 320 K is pumped through a 40 mm ID
pipe, through a length of 150 m in a horizontal direction, and up 39. In 2 stages.
through a vertical height of 10 m. In the pipe there is a control valve, a. 308 hp c. 210 hp
equivalent to 200 pipe diameters, and other pipe fittings equivalent b. 228 hp c. 546 hp
to 60 pipe diameters. Also in the line is a heat exchanger across
which the head lost is 1.5 m water. Assume that the main pipe has a 40. Nitrogen is to be compressed in four stages from 14.7 psia to 3500
roughness of 0.2 mm What power must be supplied to the pump if it psig. What would be the pressure in the third stage?
is 60 percent efficient? a. 894 psia c. 753 psia
a. 97 W c. 136 W b. 227 psia d. 561 psia
b. 188 W d. 205 W
FLOW OF FLUIDS
41. A pitot tube with U-tube water manometer is attached to a horizontal

pipe of 4 in inside diameter. If the manometer reading is 15 in,
determine the volumetric flowrate, in gpm, of oil in the pipe. The pitot
opening is placed at the center of the pipe. The oil has a specific
gravity of 0.84 and a viscosity of 0.0336 lb/ft-s.
a. 77 c. 32
b. 55 d. 94
42. Which of the following is not true?

a. A pump will operate safely if its NPSH is greater than zero.
b. Fans and blowers are used to transport gases.
c. Pumps and blowers increase the mechanical energy of the fluid.
d. The power loss due to friction in a venturi meter is greater than in
an orifice meter.
43. Which statement is not true?

a. Potential flow is a flow of compressible fluids with no shear.
b. Rotameters are variable-head meters.
c. There are 8 schedule numbers in used for standard pipes.
d. Roughness has no appreciable effect on the friction factor when
flow is laminar.
44. A sharp-edged circular orifice is to be used to measure the flowrate

of water at 200C (ρ = 1000 kg/m3, μ = 1 mPa-s) in a pipeline with an
internal diameter of 250 mm. The orifice diameter is 50 mm. The
reading of a mercury manometer at the throat tap position is 242 mm.
Calculate the flowrate in L/s.
a. 5.85 L/s c. 7.11 L/s
b. 6.64 L/s d. 9.27 L/s
45. A sharp edged orifice meter is to be fabricated to measure water

flowing at a rate not exceed 1200 cfh, with a differential head of 30
inHg. What orifice diameter in inches is required if D2/D1=1/5?
a. 1.5 c. 2.0
b. 1.0 d. 2.5
TRANSPORT PROCESSES
Heat Transfer 10. A flat wall is to be constructed of firebrick, insulating brick, and
building brick in series such that the heat loss will not exceed 250
1. The driving force in heat transfer is BTU/hr-ft2 when the hot face of the firebrick is 20000F and the cold
a. concentration gradient face of the building is 1000F. What minimum wall thickness is
c. viscosity gradient required?
b. temperature gradient a. 22 in c. 3 in
d. thickness of the solid in question b. 9 in d. 18 in
2. Thermal diffusivity of a material Data:

a. has the unit m2 /sec.
b. is defined as k/ρ x Cp. k, BTU/hr- brick max allow,
c. is the ratio of thermal conductivity to thermal capacity. ft-0F thickness, in 0F
d. all (a), (b) and (c). fireclay brick 0.90 4.5 -

insulating brick 0.12 3.0 1800
3. Under the same temperature gradient across various metal plates of building brick 0.40 4.0 300
the same thickness, the heat conducted per unit of surface area will
be largest across
a. lead c. iron 11. What actual heat loss will occur in Problem 10?
b. copper d. nickel a. 200 BTU/hr-ft2 c. 240 BTU/hr-ft2
b. 180 BTU/hr-ft2 d. 160 BTU/hr-ft2
4. If a man touches two metals which were kept together at room
temperature, why would one metal feel colder than the other 12. The following data was obtained in a test on a flat-walled furnace the
a. one has a high heat transfer coefficient linings of which consist of a 4.5 in non-corrosive brick of unknown
b. one has a high thermal conductivity conductivity and the outer wall of 8 in clay brick, also of unknown
c. one has a lower temperature conductivity. The temperature of the inner wall (flame side) was
d. one has a higher heat capacity found to be 11050F and that of the outer wall 3650F. This furnace was
lagged with 2 in of magnesia (k=0.04) thermocouples inserted at
5. Cork is a good insulator because it has various points and the following data taken.
a. free electrons Temperature of inner wall (flame side) 13550F
b. atoms colliding frequency Temperature at the junction of brick layers 12900F
c. low density Temperature at the junction of ordinary brick and magnesia 8900F
d. porous body
Temperature of the outer surface of magnesia 1900F
6. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture Calculate the % of heat loss that is saved by the lagging.
would a. 50% c. 37%
a. increase c. remains unaffected b. 28% d. 44%
b. decrease d. none of the above
13. A hallow metal sphere is heated so that the inside wall temperature
7. A furnace wall is constructed of firebrick 6 in thick. The temperature is 3000F. The sphere has an internal diameter of 6 inches and is 2
of the inside of the wall is 1300 0F and the temperature of the outside inches thick. What is the heat loss from the sphere if the outer surface
of the wall is 175 0F. If the mean thermal conductivity under these is maintained at 2120F? The thermal conductivity of the metal is 8
conditions is 0.17 BTU/hr-ft-0F, what is the rate of heat loss through BTU-ft/hr-ft2-0F?
10 ft2 of wall surface? a. 7650 BTU/hr c. 1802 BTU/hr
a. 5700 BTU/hr c. 3825 BTU/hr b. 4156 BTU/hr d. 5529 BTU/hr
b. 1070 kcal/hr d. 2354 kcal/hr
14. A current of 250 amperes is passing through a stainless wire with
For numbers 8 to 9: diameter of 5.08 mm. The wire is 2.44 m long and has an electrical
A furnace is constructed with 0.20 m of firebrick, 0.10 m of insulating resistance of 0.0843 ohms. The outer surface is held constant at
brick, and 0.20 m of building brick. The inside temperature is 1200 K 154.6 0C. The thermal conductivity of the wire is 22.5 W/m-K. The
and the outside temperature is 330 K. If the thermal conductivities center temperature of the wire is
are as shown in the figure, estimate the heat loss per unit area and a. 435 K c. 256 K
the temperature at the junction of the firebrick and the insulating b. 380 K d. 621 K
brick.
15. Heat transfer occurs by natural convection because change in
temperature causes differences in
a. viscosity c. thermal conductivity
b. density d. heat capacity
16. The inner wall of a furnace is at a temperature of 700 0C. The

composite wall is made of two substances, 10 and 20 cm thick with
thermal conductivities of 0.05 and 0.1 W/m-K respectively. The
ambient air is at 30 0C and the heat transfer coefficient between the
outer surface of wall and air is 20 W/m2-K. The rate of heat loss from
8. The heat loss per unit area is
the outer surface in W/m2 is
a. 961 W/m2 c. 1056 W/m2
a. 165.4 c. 172.8
b. 1248 W/m2 d. 1567 W/m2
b. 167.5 d. 175.1
9. The temperature at the junction of the firebrick and the insulating
brick is
a. 983 K c. 1063 K
b. 1115 K d. 1472 K
1
TRANSPORT PROCESSES
For numbers 17 to 18: 25. Heat transfer in turbulent flow may be described by an empirical
A steel pipeline, 2 in-sch40, contains saturated steam at 121.1 0C. equation correlating
The pipeline is insulated with 1 inch of asbestos (k=0.182 SI units). a. Nusselt, Peclet, Prandtl numbers
Assuming that the inside surface temperature of the pipe wall is at b. Nusselt, Prandtl, Stanton numbers
121.10C and the outer surface of the insulation is at 26.70C. c. Nusselt, Prandtl, Reynolds numbers
d. Nusselt, Graetz, Schimdt numbers
17. Calculate the heat loss (in Watts) for L=30.5 m.
a. 5400 c. 4910 26. Air at 206.8 kPa and an average of 477.6 K is being heated as it flows
b. 4375 d. 3862 through a tube of 25.4 mm inside diameter at a velocity of 7.62 m/s.
The heating medium is 488.7 K steam condensing on the outside of
18. How much steam in kg/hr is condensed due to the heat loss? the tube. Since the heat transfer coefficient of condensing steam is
a. 10.9 c. 8.13 several thousand W/m2-K and the resistance of the metal wall is very
b. 8.81 b. 9.74 small, it will be assumed that the surface wall temperature of the
metal in contact with air is 488.7 K. Calculate the heat flux for an L/D
For numbers 19 to 20: > 60.
Carbon tetrachloride, flowing at 19000 kg/hr is to be cooled from a. 70 W/m2 c. 60 W/m2
850C to 400C in a double pipe heat exchanger using 13500 kg/hr of b. 50 W/m 2 d. 80 W/m2
cooling water at 200C. The overall heat transfer coefficient is 1500
W/m2-K. Assume specific heat of CCl4 is 0.88 J/g-0C. 27. In a 1–1 shell and tube heat exchanger, steam is condensing on
the shell side at TS °C, and the cold fluid is being heated on the
19. Determine the area (in m2) needed if flow is countercurrent. tube side from t1 °C to t2 °C. The following equation relates t 2 to
a. 5.7 c. 4.2 the other variables.
b. 1.9 d. 3.6
20. Determine the area (in m2) needed if flow is parallel

a. 7.8 c. 2.6
b. 3.9 d. 5.4 Where ‘U’ is the overall heat transfer coefficient, ‘A’ is the heat
transfer area, ‘W’ is the mass flow rate and ‘Cp’ is the heat
21. A cooling coil, consisting of a single length of tubing through which capacity. The tube side coefficient is controlling and the tube side
water is circulated, is provided in a reaction vessel, the contents of fluid is in turbulent flow. TS = 130°C, t1 = 30°C, t2 = 80°C. If the
which are kept uniformly at 360 K by means of a stirrer. The inlet and mass flow rate of the cold fluid is double while keeping all the
outlet temperatures of the cooling water are 280 K and 320 K other conditions it, find the new value of t 2 at steady state.
respectively. What would be the outlet water temperature if the length
a. 800C c. 660C
of the cooling coil were increased by 5 times? Assume the overall
b. 540C d. 750C
heat transfer coefficient to be constant over the length of the tube
and independent of the water temperature.
28. When heat is transferred from hot body to cold body, in a straight
a. 429 K c. 358 K
line, without affecting the intervening medium, it is referred as heat
b. 370 K d. 465 K
transfer by
a. conduction c. radiation
22. In an oil cooler, 216 kg/h of hot oil enters a thin metal pipe of diameter
b. convection d. convection and radiation
25 mm. An equal mass of cooling water flows through the annular
space between the pipe and a larger concentric pipe; the oil and
29. An ideal surface that absorbs all incident radiation, regardless of the
water moving in opposite directions. The oil enters at 420 K and is to
wavelengths and direction and is also considered to be a perfect
be cooled to 320 K. If the water enters at 290 K, what length of pipe
emitter is referred to as a
will be required? Take coefficients of 1.6 kW/m2 K on the oil side and
a. gray body c. black body
3.6 kW/m2 K on the water side and 2 kJ/kg-K for the specific heat of
b. black hole d. pin hole
the oil.
a. 1.9 m c. 3.5 m
30. In thermal radiation, for a black body
b. 4.8 m d. 2.7 m
a. α= 1 and ε is not equal to 1
b. α is not equal to 1 and ε= 1
23. The temperature of oil leaving a co-current flow cooler is to be
c. α and ε are not equal to 1
reduced from 370 to 350 K by lengthening the cooler. The oil and
d. α= 1 and ε= 1
water flowrates, the inlet temperatures and the other dimensions of
where α is absorptivity and ε is emissivity.
the cooler will remain constant. The water enters at 285 K and oil at
420 K. The water leaves the original cooler at 310 K. If the original
length is 1 m, what must be the new length?
A bare horizontal pipe of 50 mm outside diameter is placed in a room
a. 1.86 m c. 3.33 m
where the air temperature is 290 K. Saturated steam at 415 K flows
b. 2.52 m d. 4.50 m
through the pipe. Using emissivity of 0.9
24. It is desired to warm an oil of specific heat 2.0 kJ/kg K from 300 to
31. Estimate the heat transfer coefficient due to convection from the pipe
325 K by passing it through a tubular heat exchanger containing
to the room.
metal tubes of inner diameter 10 mm. Along the outside of the tubes
a. 7.4 W/m2-0C c. 12.8 W/m2-0C
flows water, inlet temperature 372 K, and outlet temperature 361 K.
b. 9.23 W/m2-0C d. 8.5 W/m2-0C
The overall heat transfer coefficient from water to oil, based on the
inside area of the tubes, may be assumed constant at 230 W/m2 K,
32. What is the total heat loss per meter length of pipe from the steam to
and 0.075 kg/s of oil is to be passed through each tube. The oil is to
the room?
make two passes through the heater and the water makes one pass
a. 258 c. 564
along the outside of the tubes. Calculate the length of the tubes
b. 345 d. 305
required.
a. 3 m c. 4 m
b. 5 m d. 6 m
2
TRANSPORT PROCESSES
33. Two large parallel plates with gray surfaces are placed 75 mm apart. 43. For 00C and 2 atm abs
One has emissivity of 0.8 and at T=350 K; and the other has a. 3.87x10-5 m2/s c. 7.73x10-6 m2/s
emissivity of 0.4 and at T=300 K. Calculate the net heat transfer by b. 8.70x10-5 m2/s d. none of these
radiation in W/m2.
a. 108 c. 255 For numbers 44 to 45:
b. 142 d. 194 By what percentage would the rate of absorption be increased or
decreases by increasing the total pressure from 100 to 200 kPa in
Diffusion the following cases?
34. The Fick’s Law of Diffusion gives the rate of diffusion based on 44. The absorption of ammonia from a mixture of ammonia and air
a. pressure driving force containing 10% ammonia by volume, using pure water as solvent.
b. temperature driving force Assume that all the resistance to the mass transfer lies within the gas
c. concentration driving force phase.
d. all of these a. 0% c. 48%
b. 50% d. 100%
35. In steady-state equimolal counterdiffusion, the following are true:
a. NB = 0; NA is constant c. NA = -NB; NA + NB = 0 45. The same conditions as (44) but the absorbing solution exerts a
b. NA = 0; NB is nonzero d. NA + NB = constant partial vapor pressure of ammonia of 5 kN/m2.
a. 0% c. 48%
36. The enrichment of ethyl alcohol in the vapor phase from an aqueous b. 50% d. 100%
ethyl alcohol solution during rectification is an example of
a. unicomponent diffusion 46. Molecular diffusivity of a liquid –
b. equimolal counterdiffusion a. increases with temperature
c. phase drift b. may increase or decrease with temperature
d. convective diffusion c. decreases with temperature
d. is independent of temperature
37. Ammonia (A) being absorbed from air (B) into water is an example
of 47. A thick ethanol –water solution in the form of stagnant film 2 mm thick
a. steady-state equimolal diffusion at 293 K in contact at one surface with an organic solvent in which
b. stead-state unicomponent ethanol is soluble and water is insoluble. At point 1 the concentration
c. steady-state multicomponent diffusion of ethanol is 16.8 wt% and the solution density is 972.8 kg/m3. At
d. unsteady-state equimolal diffusion point 2 the concentration of ethanol is 6.8 wt% and density is 988.1
kg/m3. The diffusivity of ethanol is 0.740x10-9 m2/s. Calculate the
38. For a gas phase diffusion, unicomponent diffusion through a gas- steady state flux, NA.
liquid interface will likely to occur if a. 5x10-7 kmol A /s-m2 c. 2x10-7 kmol A /s-m2
a. one component is soluble and the other is not b. 6x10-7 kmol A /s-m2 d. 9x10-7 kmol A /s-m2
b. both components are soluble in the solvent
c. both components are insoluble in the solvent 48. It represents the total mass transferred to mass transferred by
d. none of these molecular diffusion.
a. Schmidt Number c. Reynolds Number
39. A mixture of He and N2 gas is contained in a pipe at 298 K and 1 atm b. Sherwood Number d. Nusselt Number
total pressure which is constant throughout. At one end of the pipe
at point 1 the partial pressure pA1of He is 0.6 atm and at the other For numbers 49 to 50:
end 0.2 m pA2 = 0.2 atm. Calculate the flux of He at steady state if Pure aniline is evaporating through a stagnant air film of 1 mm
DAB of the He-N2 mixture is 0.687 x 10-4 m2/s. thickness at 300 K and a total pressure of 100 kPa. The vapor
a. 5.63x10-6 kmol A /s-m2 pressure of aniline at 300 K is 0.1 kPa. The total molar concentration
b. 2.05x10-6 kmol A /s-m2 under these conditions is 40.1 mol/m3. The diffusivity of aniline in air
c. 1.94x10-6 kmol A /s-m2 is 0.74 x 10-5 m2/s.
d. 7.83x10-6 kmol A /s-m2
49. The numerical value of the mass transfer coefficient is 7.4 x 10-3. Its
40. Water in the bottom of a narrow metal tube is held at a constant units are
temperature of 293 K. The total pressure of air (assumed dry) is a. m/s c. mol/m2-s-Pa
1.01325 x 105 Pa (1.0 atm) and the temperature is 293 K (20 °C). b. cm/s d. kmol/ m2-s-Pa
Water evaporates and diffuses through the air in the tube, and the
diffusion path z2-z1 is 0.1524 m (0.5 ft) long. Calculate the rate of 50. The rate of evaporation of aniline is 2.97 x 10-4. Its units are
evaporation at steady state in kg mol/s-m2. The diffusivity of water a. mol/s c. mol/m2
vapor at 293 K and 1 am pressure is 0.250 x 10-4 m2/s. Assume that b. mol/cm2-s d. kmol/ m2-s
the system is isothermal.
a. 3.8x10-7 kmol A /s-m2 c. 2.0x10-7 kmol A /s-m2 51. Which of the following is true about rate of mass transfer in liquid?
b. 5.5x10-7 kmol A /s-m2 d. 1.6x10-7 kmol A /s-m2 a. NA = kG (Pab – Pai) c. NA = kC (Pab – Pai)
b. NA = kG (Cab – Cai) d. NA = kC (Cab – Cai)
For numbers 41to 43:
Normal butanol is diffusing through air at 1 atm abs. Using Fuller et. For numbers 52 to 53:
al. method, estimate the diffusivity for the following temperatures A stream of air at 100 kPa pressure and 300 K is flowing the top
and compare with the experimental data: surface of a thin flat sheet of solid naphthalene of length of 0.2 m with
a velocity of 20 m/s. The other data are
41. For 00C
Mass diffusivity of naphthalene vapor in air = 6 x 10-6 m2/s
a. 3.87x10-5 m2/s c. 7.73x10-6m2/s
b. 8.70x10-5m2/s d. none of these Kinematic viscosity of air = 1.5 x 10-5 m2/s
Concentration of naphthalene at the air solid naphthalene interface
42. For 25.90C = 1 x 10-5 kmol/m3
a. 3.87x10-5 m2/s c. 7.73x10-6 m2/s Calculate the following:
b. 8.70x10-5 m2/s d. none of these
3
TRANSPORT PROCESSES
52. The average mass transfer coefficient over the flat plate.
a. 5.62x10-6 kmol/m2-s-kPa
b. 1.58x10-6 kmol/m2-s-kPa
c. 2.09x10-6 kmol/m2-s-kPa
d. 3.75 x10-6 kmol/m2-s-kPa
53. The rate of loss of naphthalene from the surface per unit width.
a. 1.88x10-8 kmol/s c. 2.65x10-8 kmol/s
b. 3.33 x10 kmol/s
-8 d. 6.6 x10-8 kmol/s
54. For turbulent mass transfer in pipes, the Sherwood number depends
upon the Reynolds number (Re) as
a. Re0.33 c. Re0.53
b. Re0.83 d. Re
55. A dimensionless number that represents the ratio of the molecular

momentum diffusion to the molecular mass diffusivity
a. Sherwood Number c. Schmidt Number
b. Reynolds Number d. Rayleigh Number
4
TRANSPORT PROCESSES
Additional Problems 7. Saturated steam at 267 °F is flowing inside a 1-in. steel pipe
having an ID of 0.824 in. and an OD of 1.050 in. The pipe is
Heat Transfer insulated with 1.5 in. of insulation on the e pipe is estimated as hi
= 1000 BTU/h-ft2·oF, and the convective coefficient on the outside
1. A 50 mm diameter pipe of circular cross section and with of the lagging is estimated as ho = 2 BTU/h-ft2·oF. The mean
walls 3 mm thick is covered with two concentric layers of thermal conductivity of the metal is 45 W/m K and 0.064 W/m-K
lagging, the inner layer having a thickness of 25 mm and a or 0.037 BTU/hr-ft-°F for the insulation. Calculate the heat loss
for 1 ft of pipe using resistances if the surrounding air is at 80°F.
thermal conductivity of 0.08 W/m-K, and the outer layer a
a. 25 BTU/hr c. 48 BTU/hr
thickness of 40 mm and a thermal conductivity of 0.04 W/m-K.
b. 19 BTU/hr d. 30 BTU/hr
What is the rate of heat loss per meter length of pipe if the
temperature inside the pipe is 550 K and the outside surface
8. The critical radius ‘r’ of insulation on a pipe is given by
temperature is 330 K?
a. r = 2k/h c. r = k/h
a. 62.7 W/m c. 55.3 W/m b. r = k/2h d. r = h/k
b. 48.9 W/m d. 71.1 W/m
9. The critical radius of insulation for a spherical shell is (where
2. A spherical, thin-walled metallic container is used to store
k = thermal conductivity of insulating material and ho = heat
liquid nitrogen at 77 K. The container has a diameter of 0.5 m
transfer coefficient of the outer surface)
and is covered with an evacuated, reflective insulation a. k/ho c. ho/k
composed of silica powder. The insulation is 25 mm thick, and b. 2k/ho d. ho/2k
its outer surface is exposed to ambient air at 300 K. The
convection coefficient is known to be 20 W/m2K. The latent
10. The Nusselt number for fully developed (both thermally
heat of vaporization and the density of liquid nitrogen are
and hydrodynamically) laminar flow through a circular pipe
2X105 J/kg and 804 kg/m3, respectively. What is the rate of whose surface temperature remains constant is
liquid boil-off? a. 1.66 c. 88.66
a. 7.19 kg/d c. 3.08 kg/d b. 3.66 d. dependent on NRe only
b. 9.32 kg/d d. 5.64 kg/d
11. For turbulent flow in a tube, the heat transfer coefficient is
3. A composite insulating wall has a layer of red brick and obtained from the Dittus-Boelter correlation. If the tube
another insulating brick, held together by an aluminum rivet of diameter is halved and the flow rate is doubled, then the heat
30 mm diameter per 0.1 m2 of the surface. The red brick layer transfer co-efficient will change by a factor of
is 100 mm thick, with the hot surface at 2250C, and the a. 1 c. 1.74
insulating brick is 250 mm thick, with the cold surface at 370C. b. 6.1 d. 37
The thermal conductivities of materials are: k aluminum =
203.6, k red brick = 0.93 and k insulating brick = 0.116 W/m- 12. Steam condensing on the outer surface of a thin-walled
K. Estimate the percentage increase in heat transfer due to the circular tube of diameter D = 50 mm and length L = 6 m
rivets. maintains a uniform outer surface temperature of 100°C.
a. 930% c. 840% Water flows through the tube at a rate of m = 0.25 kg/s, and
b. 660% d. 510% its inlet and outlet temperatures are Tmi = 15°C and Tmo =
57°C. What is the average convection coefficient associated
For numbers 4 to 5: with the water flow?
A fresh food product is held in cold storage at 278.0 K. It is a. 680 W/m2K c. 750 W/m2-K
packed in a container in the shape of a flat slab with all faces b. 510 W/m K 2 d. 830 W/m2-K
insulated except for the top fat surface, which is exposed to
the air at 278.0 K For estimation purposes the surface 13. The radiation heat flux from a heating element at a
temperature will be assumed to be 278 K The slab is 152.4 temperature of 800°C, in a furnace maintained at 300°C is 8
mm thick and the exposed surface area is 0.186 m2. The kW/m2. The flux, when the element temperature is increased
density of the foodstuff is 641 kg/m3 . The heat of respiration to 1000°C for the same furnace temperature is
is 0.070 kJ/kg-h and the thermal conductivity is 0.346 W/m-K. a. 11.2 kW/m2 c. 12.0 kW/m2
Calculate the maximum temperature in the food product at b. 14.6 kW/m 2 d. 16.5 kW/m2
steady state and the total heat given off in W. (Note: It is
assumed in this problem that there is no air circulation inside 14. Two very large walls are maintained at constant
the foodstuff. Hence, the results will be conservative, since temperatures of 1200 and 1000 OF respectively. Their
circulation during respiration will reduce the temperature. emissivity are 0.9 and 0.75. The heat (BTU/hr-ft2) that need to
be removed from the colder wall is close to
4. Maximum temperature a. 5927 c. 4236
a. 278.4 K c. 279.3 K b. 3340 d. 3653
b. 278.9 K d. 279.6 K
15. A 2" IPS steel pipe carrying steam at 300 OF is insulated
5. Total heat given off in W
with ½ in of rockwool (k = 0.033 BTU/hr-ft-0F). The
a. 0.44 W c. 0.35 W
b. 0.29 W d. 0.17 W temperature of the wool surface exposed to surrounding air (t
= 70 OF) is 125 0F. The emissivity of the insulation is 0.9. The
6. A plane wall that is 20 cm thick and has a constant thermal fictitious radiation coefficient of heat transfer (BTU/hr-ft2-degF)
conductivity k = 3 W/m-K undergoes one dimensional steady is nearer to
conduction. The surface temperature of the left side of the wall is a. 1.1 c. 1.7
known (T1 = 50 deg C) and the right side of the wall is exposed b. 2.3 d. 2.9
to air (Tair = 10 deg C) and convective heat transfer (h = 60 W/m2-
K). What is the temperature at the interface between the wall and
the air on the right hand side (T2)?
a. 270C c. 350C
b. 180C d. 440C
16. An uninsulated steam pipe passes through a room in which Gas Absorption
the air and walls are at 25°C. The outside diameter of the pipe
is 70 mm, and its surface temperature and emissivity are 23. A countercurrent absorption tower is designed to remove
200°C and 0.8, respectively. If the coefficient associated with 95% of component A from an inert binary gas mixture using
free convection heat transfer from the surface air is 15 W/m2, pure solvent B. The mole ratio of A in the inert gas is 0.01. The
what is the rate of heat loss from the surface per unit length of carrier gas flow rate is 50 kmol/h. The equilibrium relation is
pipe. given by Y=2X, where Y and X are the mole ratios of A in the
a. 650 W/m c. 835 W/m gas and liquid phases, respectively. If the tower is operated at
b. 998 W/m d. 726 W/m twice the minimum solvent flow rate, the mole ratio of A in the
exit liquid stream is ___.
17. Wavelength corresponding to the maximum energy is a. 0.006 c. 0.005
inversely proportional to the absolute temperature. This is b. 0.003 d. 0.001
__________ law.
a. Stefan's c. Dalton's 24. 7316 lbs per hour of a rich absorption oil containing 5%
b. Wien's d. Kirchoffs hexane by weight is to be stripped until the leaving liquid
contains 0.05% by weight of hexane. It is to be heated to 2670F
18. There are removed 500 Btu per min of heat from a body and contacted with 180 lbs per hour of steam. The tower
by a refrigerator operating between the limits of 440R and operating at 2670F. Pressure in the stripper is 1 psig. Vapor
550R. If the coefficient of a performance is ¾ of that of a pressure of hexane at 2670F is 3800 mm. Molecular weight of
Carnot refrigerator working between the same temperature oil is 220. Calculate the number of theoretical plates required
limits, find the heat rejected. a. 6.4 plates c. 7.3 plates
a. 245 Btu/min c. 498 Btu/min b. 5.5 plates d. 4.2 plates
b. 345 Btu/min d. 667 Btu/min
25. Which of the following provides maximum contact surface
19. The thermal efficiency of a reversible heat engine for a liquid-vapor system?
operating between two given thermal reservoirs is 0.4. The a. Packed tower c. Bubble-cap plate column
device is used either as a refrigerator or as a heat pump b. Sieve-plate column d. Wetted wall column
between the same reservoirs. Then the coefficient of
performance as a refrigerator (COP)R and the co-efficient of
performance as a heat pump (COP)HP are
a. (COP)R = (COP)HP = 0.6
b. (COP)R = 2.5; (COP)HP = 1.5
c. (COP)R = 1.5; (COP)HP = 2.5
d. (COP)R = (COP)HP = 2.5
Diffusion
20. Water at 25°C is flowing in a covered irrigation ditch below

ground. Every 100 m, there is a vent line 30 mm inside
diameter and 1.0 m long to the outside atmosphere at 25°C.
There are 10 vents in the 1000- m ditch. The outside air can
be assumed to be dry. Calculate the total evaporation loss of
water in kg/day.
a. 2.9x10-4 c. 4.2x10-4
b. 1.5x10 -4 d. 3.7x10-4
21. For a mixture of ethanol vapor and methane, predict the

diffusivity using the method of Fuller et al. method at 2 atm and
298 K.
a. 1.9x10-6 m2/s c. 3.3x10-6 m2/s
b. 7.1x10 m /s
-6 2 d. 4.6x10-6 m2/s
22. A thin liquid film of ammonia (NH3), which has formed on

the inner surface of a tube of diameter D= 10 m and length L
= 1m, is removed by passing dry air through the tube at a flow
rate of 3X10-4 kg/s. The tube and the air are at 25C°. What is
the average mass transfer convection coefficient?
a. 0.083 m/s c. 0.055 m/s
b. 0.012 m/s d. 0.076 m/s
GAS ABSORPTION
1. In a gas absorption tower, mass transfer occurs primarily 10. Air from a solvent plant contains 2 percent n-pentane. The pentane
a. from the liquid phase to the gas phase concentration is to be reduced to 0.1 percent by contacting the gas,
b. from the liquid phase to the packing at 800F and 147 lb per sq. in abs with 6950 lb per hour of an
c. from the gas phase to the liquid phase absorption oil that contains 0.05 percent pentane by weight; 100000
d. from the gas phase to the packing
cu. ft of the gas, measures at 600F and 14.7 psia, is handled per hour.
2. Separation of a mixture of two gases by absorption in the liquid The molecular weight of the oil is 220. The vapor pressure of pentane
solvent depends upon the difference in their at 800F is 523 mmHg. Raoult’s law and Dalton’s law are assumed to
a. viscosity c. density be valid at these conditions. Calculate the number of perfect plates
b. solubility d. relative volatility required
a. 3.6 c. 4.9
3. In gas absorption, one solute is being absorbed while the rest of the
b. 7.8 d. 5.1
components are assumed to be ______ and the liquid is ________.
a. inert, volatile
b. non-soluble, non-volatile For numbers 11 to 12:
c. non-soluble, volatile Propane is to be stripped from non-volatile oil by steam in a counter-
d. soluble, volatile current tower. Four moles of steam will be supplied at the bottom of
the tower for every 100 moles of oil-propane feed at the top. The oil
4. In a CO2 absorber using a carbonate solution as absorbent, 1,000 originally contains 2.5 mole percent propane and this concentration
kmols/h of flue gases containing 50% by volume CO2 and the must be reduced to 0.25 mole percent. The tower is maintained at
balance being inert gases, is fed into the column. The lean gas 2800F and 35 psia. The equilibrium relationship is y = 33.4x, where x
leaves the absorber with a 2% by volume CO2. Calculate the quantity and y are mole fraction units.
of CO2, in kg/h, that is recovered from the regeneration of the fat
liquor. 11. How many equilibrium stages are required?
a. 15900 kg/hr c. 18500 kg/hr a. 1 c. 4
b. 27700 kg/hr d. 21600 kg/hr b. 3 d. 2
5. In general, operating pressure should be ___ and temperature ___for 12. If the pressure is increased to 70 psia, how many equilibrium stages
an absorber, to minimize stage requirements and/or absorbent flow are required?
rate to lower the equipment volume required to accommodate the a. 6 c. 4
gas flow. b. 8 d. 3
a. high, low c. low, high
b. maximum, low d. minimum, high 13. What could be the effect of lowering the temperature of stripping?
a. number of stages increases
Fur numbers 6 to 7: b. number of stages decreases
A gas mixture containing 1% acetone and 99% dry air by volume is c. either a or b
contacted with pure water in a plate gas absorber in which 90% of d. cannot be determined
the acetone is recovered. The inlet gas flow rate is 30 kmol/hr and
the inlet water flow rate is 90 kmol/hr. The absorber operates at 27 14. The reverse is true for stripping. However, the operating pressure
0C and 1 atm. The equilibrium curve is given by y* = 2.53x. should not be too high and the operating temperature should not be
too low as to ___ the feed gas.
6. What is the concentration of the strong liquor? a. vaporize c. condense
a. 0.003 by mol c. 0.001 by mol b. compress d. none of these
b. 0.002 by mol d. 0.004 by mol
15. A mixture of benzene vapor and flue gas contains 12.7 mole %
7. What is the number of theoretical plates required? benzene and is to be scrubbed continuously in a packed tower
a. 5.1 c. 7.0 operated at atmospheric pressure at 430C. The tower is to be
b. 6.2 d. 7.9 designed to treat 36000 ft3 per hour of entering gas and the exit gas
is to contain 1.5 mole % benzene. Pure solvent will be supplied at
For numbers 8 to 9: the rate of 28 lbmol/hr. The solution of benzene in oil may be
Acetone is to be removed from an air/acetone mixture using a plate assumed to follow Raoult’s law and the vapor pressure of pure
column at 1 atm. The mixture enters the bottom of the absorber solvent at 430C is 0.263 atm. It is agreed that the maximum allowable
containing 2% acetone by volume. Pure water is used to remove 95% superficial velocity of the gas is 1 ft/sec. Calculate the height of the
of the acetone. If the actual liquid flow rate is 1.2 times the minimum tower required, assuming that the height of a transfer unit is 2 ft.
required and if the equilibrium relationship is represented by y* = a. 6.5 ft c. 5.8 ft
2.53x, b. 7.0 ft d. 9.3 ft
8. What is the mole fraction of acetone in the lean gas? 16. A packed tower with an inside volume of 300 ft3 is to be used for an
a. 0.0015 c. 0.0025 absorption under such conditions that KGa = 2/8 lbmol/hr-atm-ft3 and
b. 0.0066 d. 0.0038 Henry’s law is applicable to the ammonia solution. The pressure
difference driving force at the top of the column (p – p*) is 0.009 atm,
9. What is the theoretical number of stages? and the pressure difference driving force at the bottom of the column
a. 9.17 c. 23.81 is 0.09 atm. If 550 lb of ammonia, in addition to the inert gases, enters
b. 12.75 d. 28.43 the tower per hour, what percent of the entering ammonia will be
absorbed?
a. 85% c. 54%
b. 72% d. 91%
GAS ABSORPTION
17. Flooding results in

a. high tray efficiency
b. low tray efficiency
c. high gas velocity
d. good contact between the fluids
18. Operating velocity in a packed tower is usually

a. half the flooding velocity
b. twice the flooding velocity
c. equal to flooding velocity
d. more than the flooding velocity
19. Flooding in a column results due to

a. high pressure drop
b. low pressure drop
c. low velocity of the liquid
d. high temperature
20. Channeling in a packed tower results from

a. high pressure drop
b. non-uniformity of packing
c. maldistribution of liquid
d. both b and c
PARTICLE TECHNOLOGY
Screening 7. Calculate the total load to the crusher.

Screening a. 6300 lb/hr c. 7100 lb/hr
- a unit operation where a mixture of various sizes of particles is b. 5500 lb/hr d. 4200 lb/hr
separated into two or more portions, each of which is more
uniform in particle size than the original mixture by allowing the 8. What is the screen effectiveness?
material to pass over a surface provided with the openings of a. 70% c. 58%
the desired size. b. 82% d. 63%
1. The material passing one screening surface and retained on a For numbers 9 to 10:
subsequent surface is called Limestone is crushed by six units operating in parallel and the
a. intermediate material c. plus material products separated by six 35-mesh screens also in parallel, into two
b. minus material d. none of these fractions. The effective dimensions of each screen is 6 ft by 20 ft. The
common undersize from the screens come out at the rate of 50
2. In screen analysis, notation 10 mm / 5 mm means passing through tons/hour. Assume no losses.
a. 10 mm screen and retained on 5 mm screen
b. 5 mm screen and retained on 10 mm screen Mesh Size Feed Size Oversize Undersize
c. both 5 mm and 13 mm screens 6/8 0.075 0.080 0.020
d. neither 5 mm nor 10 mm screens 8/10 0.125 0.145 0.055
10/20 0.100 0.170 0.090
3. For sizing of fine materials, the most suitable equipment is a 20/28 0.125 0.150 0.085
a. trommel c. grizzly 28/35 0.125 0.280 0.100
b. shaking screen d. vibrating screen 35/48 0.175 0.175 0.150
48/65 0.225 0.150
Screen Aperture 65/100 0.050 0.250
- clear space between the individual wires of the screen.
100/150 0.100
Mesh Number
9. What is the efficiency of each screen?
- number of apertures per linear inch.
a. 52.8% c. 56.7%
b. 55.3% d. 58.9%
Sieve Scales
- is a series of testing sieves having openings in a fixed
10. Calculate the capacity of each screen in lb/24 hour per sqft.
succession. The ratio of aperture of a given sieve to the
a. 5750 c. 5280
aperture of the next one in a sieve series is constant.
b. 5120 d. 5340
4. Mesh number indicates the number of holes per
11. As particle size is reduced
a. square inch c. square foot
a. screening becomes progressively more difficult
b. linear inch d. linear foot
b. screening becomes progressively easier
c. capacity and effectiveness of the screen is increased
5. Screen efficiency is
d. none of these
a. recovery x rejection c. recovery
b. rejection d. none of these
12. Increasing the capacity of screen
a. decreases the screen effectiveness
6. It is desired to separate a mixture of sugar crystals into two fractions,
b. does not affect the screen effectiveness
a coarse fraction retained on an 8-mesh screen, and a fine fraction
c. increases the screen effectiveness
passing through it. Screen analysis of the feed, coarse and fine
d. none of these
fractions below
Mass fraction of +8 particles in feed =0.46
13. Screen capacity is not a function of
Mass fraction of +8 particles in coarse particles =0.88
a. its openings size c. screening mechanism
Mass fraction of +8 particles in fine fractions =0.32
b. screening surface d. atmospheric humidity.
Calculate the overall effectiveness of the screen used for the
separation purpose per 100 kg of feed.
14. A screen is said to be blinded when
a. 45% c. 40%
a. oversizes are present in undersize fraction
b. 55% d. 50%
b. undersizes are retained in oversize fraction
c. the screen is plugged with solid particles
For numbers 7 to 8:
d. its capacity is abruptly increased
1800 lbs of dolomite per hour is produced by crushing and then
screening through a 14-mesh screen. The screen analysis is as
follows:
Fine silica is fed at 1500 lbs/hour to a double-deck vibrating screen
combination to obtain a 48/65 mesh (Tyler) product. The silica feed is
Screen
introduced into the upper screen of the 48 mesh and the product is
Feed to Undersize Oversize
Tyler Mesh discharged off the surface of the lower screen of 65 mesh. During the
Screen Product Circulating
screening operation, the ratio of oversize to product to undersize is
Load 2:1.5:1. Laboratory analysis of the different fractions:
4 on 14.34 24
8 on 20.0 28 Feed Oversize Undersize
14 on 20.0 24 Product
Screen Mesh Mass Mass Mass
28 on 28.5 40 24 Mass
Fraction Fraction Fraction
0 through 24 10/14 to 28/35 0.2821 0.5855 0.3385 0.00453
48 on 8.6 30
mesh 35/48 0.2580 0.3370 0.3220 0.00360
100 on 5.7 20 48/65 0.2810 0.0660 0.5260 0.34400
100 through 2.86 10 65/100 0.0910 0.0050 0.0670 0.29900
100/150 to
0.0870 0.0060 0.0260 0.35300
150/200
PARTICLE TECHNOLOGY
15. Determine the effectiveness of the screening equipment. 23. Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best expressed in
a. 57% c. 49% terms of
b. 51% d. 46% a. centimeters c. screen size
b. micron d. surface area/unit mass
16. If the screen measure 5 ft x 8 ft each, what is the capacity in MT/day-
ft2-mm of the 65 mesh screen on the basis of a perfectly functioning 24. The hardness of a mineral is a criterion of its resistance to crushing.
48 mesh screen? Which of the following is an example of a hard material?
a. 0.90 c. 0.60 a. talc c. sapphire
b. 0.80 d. 0.70 b. calcite d. feldspar
17. Calculate the capacity in MT/day-ft2-mm on the basis of the actual Size Reduction
performance of the 48 mesh screen. - involves the production of smaller mass units from larger mass
a. 1.5 c. 1.3 units of the same material.
b. 1.1 d. 1.9
25. For the preliminary breaking of hard rock, we use
For numbers 18 to 20: a. gyratory crusher c. tube mill
A quartz mixture is screened on a 10-mesh screen. The cumulative b. ball mill d. quirrel-cage disintegrator
screen analysis of feed, overflow and underflow are given in the table.
Calculate the following: 26. Feed size of ≥ 25 cms can be accepted by
a. ball mill c. rod mill
b. fluid energy mill d. jaw crusher
Mesh Dp (mm) Feed Overflow Underflow
27. Size reduction mechanism used in jaw crushers is
4 4.699 0 0 0
a. attribution c. compression
b. cutting d. impact
6 3.327 0.025 0.071 0
28. Size reduction does not occur due to compression in case of
8 2.362 0.15 0.43 0
a. rod mills c. gyratory crushers
b. jaw crushers d. smooth roll crushers
10 1.651 0.47 0.85 0.195
29. Gyratory crushers compared to the reciprocating jaw crushers
14 1.168 0.73 0.97 0.58
a. have greater capacity per unit of discharge area.
b. crush intermittently.
20 0.833 0.885 0.99 0.83
c. are less suitable for coarse materials.
28 0.589 0.94 1.0 0.91 d. have less steady power consumption.
30. To get ultrafine particles, the equipment used is

35 0.417 0.96 0.94
a. ball mill c. hammer crusher
65 0.208 0.98 0.975 b. rod mill d. fluid energy mill
Pan 1.0 1.0 31. Size reduction of asbestos and mica is done by
a. hammer mills c. rod mills
b. gyratory crushers d. crushing rolls
18. The mass ratio of overflow to feed
a. 0.42 c. 0.58 32. To get fine talc powder from its granules, the equipment used is
b. 0.64 d. 0.36 a. roller crusher c. jaw crusher
b. ball mill d. gyratory crusher
19. The mass ratio of underflow to feed
a. 0.64 c. 0.42 34. Maximum size reduction in a ball mill is done by
b. 0.36 d. 0.58 a. attrition c. impact
b. compression d. cutting
20. Over-all effectiveness of the screen
a. 70% c. 55% 35. The operating speed of a ball mill should be
b. 67% d. 88% a. less than the critical speed
b. at least equal to the critical speed
c. much more than the critical speed
d. none of these
Size Reduction
36. The critical speed of 6 ft diameter ball mill where the balls are
Sphericity considered small compared to the diameter of the ball mill is
- Is a measure of how closely the shape of an object resembles a. 17.3 rpm c. 31.3 rpm
that of a perfect sphere. b. 28.5 rpm d. 40 rpm
21. For a non-spherical particle, the sphericity 37. A ball mill 1.2 m in diameter is being run at 0.8 Hz. It is found that the
a. is defined as the ratio of surface area of a sphere having the same mill is not working satisfactorily. Would you suggest any modification
volume as the particle to the actual surface area of the particle. in the condition of operation?
b. has the dimension of length. a. The speed of rotation should be doubled
c. is always less than 1. b. The speed of rotation should be halved
d. is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the same surface area as c. The speed of rotation should be tripled
the particle to the actual volume of the particle. d. No, the speed of rotation should be the same
22. Sphericity for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter 38. Power required to drive a ball mill with a particular ball load is
a. 1.5 c. 0.87 proportional to (where, D = diameter of ball mill )
b. 0.5 d. 0.73 a. D c. 1/D
b. D2.5 d. 1/D2.5
PARTICLE TECHNOLOGY
39. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding 49. The terminal velocity of a small sphere settling in a viscous fluid
a. decreases varies as the
b. is same as for coarser grinding a. first power of its diameter
c. increases b. inverse of the fluid viscosity
d. is 1.5 times than for coarser grinding c. inverse square of the diameter
d. square of the difference in specific weights of solid and fluid
40. The energy required per unit mass to grind limestone particles of very
large size to 100 µm is 12.7 kWh/ton. An estimate (using Bond's law) 50. Buoyant force
of the energy to grind the particles from a very large size to 50 µrn is a. for non-symmetrical bodies is not vertical
a. 6.35 kWh/ton c. 9.0 kWh/ton b. depends on the depth of the submergence of the floating body
b. 18 kWh/ton d. 25.4 kWh/ton c. depends on the weight of the floating body
d. none of these
41. An available crusher has been accepting hard rock with a volume
surface mean diameter of 0.069 m and providing a product with a 51. Terminal velocity is
surface mean diameter of 5 x 10-3 m. The power required for crushing a. constant velocity with no acceleration
10000 kg/h of this specified rock is 6.35 kW. Assume that the b. a fluctuating velocity
mechanical efficiency of the unit will remain unchanged. The power c. attained after moving one-half of total distance
consumption if the capacity were reduced to 9000 kg/h with the same d. none of these
feed characteristics but with a reduction in the volume surface mean
diameter of the product is 4 x 10-3 m is 52. Determine the terminal settling velocity of dust particles having a
a. 7.35 kW c. 6.64 kW diameter of 60 microns at 294.3 K and 101.32 kPa. The dust particles
b. 7.00 kW d. 8.64 kW can be considered spherical with a density of 1280 kg/m3.
a. 0.18 m/s c. 0.2 m/s
42. It is desired to crush 100 ton/h of phosphate rock from a feed size b. 0.14 m/s d. 0.09 m/s
where 80% is less than 4 in to a product where 80% is less than 1/8
in. 53. The terminal settling velocity of a 6 mm diameter glass sphere
a. 148 kW c. 156 kW (density: 2500 kg/m3) in a viscous Newtonian liquid (density: 1500
b. 120 kW d. 139 kW kg/m3) is 100 µm/s. If the particle Reynolds number is small and
the value of acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s2, then the
43. Particles of an average size of 25 x10-4 m are crushed to an average viscosity of the liquid (in Pa-s) is
product size of 5 x10-4 m at the rate of 15 tons/hr. At this rate the a. 300.5 c. 245.3
crusher consumes 32 kW of power of which 2 kW are required for b. 196.2 d. 490.5
running the mill empty. What would be the power consumptions of
10 tons/hr of this product to further crushed 1x10-4 m size in the same 54. Solid spherical particles of coffee extract from a dryer having a
mill? Assume Rittinger’s law is applicable diameter of 400 microns are falling through air at a temperature
a. 100 kW c. 120 kW of 422 K. The density of the particles is 1030 kg/m3. Calculate the
b. 150 kW d. 160 kW distance of fall in 5 s. The pressure is 101.32 kPa.
a. 1.4 m c. 5.5 m
44. A material is crushed in a Blake Jaw Crusher and the average size
b. 4.0 m d. 7.3 m
of particles reduced from 50 mm to 10 mm with the consumption of
energy at the rate of 13 kW/(kg/s). The consumption of energy
55. A random handful of silica particles ranging in size from 28 mesh to
needed to crush the same material of an average size 75 mm to an
200 mesh is thrown to a very deep body of water (without tides or
average size 25 mm assuming Kick’s Law applies is
turbulence)
a. 8.88 kW/(kg/s) c. 8.08 kW/(kg/s)
Data:
b. 4.33 kW/(kg/s) d. 4.66 kW/(kg/s)
Viscosity of water = 0.01 poise
Density of silica = 2.65 g/cm3
28 mesh = 0.0589 cm
Sedimentation
200 mesh = 0.0074 cm
The distance between the largest and smallest particles after 10
Sedimentation
min is
- separation of dilute into a clear fluid and dense slurry by gravity
a. 4700 cm c. 5000 cm
settling.
b. 4900 cm d. 4000 cm
45. The operation by which solids are separated from liquids due to
56. In hindered settling, particles are
difference in the respective densities is
a. placed farther from the wall
a. screening c. sedimentation
b. near each other
b. adsorption d. absorption
c. not affected by other particles and the wall
d. none of these
46. Forces acting on a particle settling in fluid are
a. gravitational and buoyant forces
57. Solid spherical particles having a diameter of 0.09 mm and a solid
b. centrifugal and drag forces
density of 2002 kg/m3 are settling in a solution of water at 26.70C.
c. gravitational or centrifugal, buoyant and drag forces
The volume fraction of the solids in the solution is 0.45. The settling
d. external, drag and viscous forces
velocity is __. For H2O: ρ=994.7 kg/m3 and µ=0.861x10-3 Pa-s.
a. 5.3x10-3 m/s c. 2.369x10-4 m/s
47. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
b. 3.26 x10 m/s
-3 d. 3x10-5 m/s
a. fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
b. the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
58. Calculate the Reynolds number
c. the solid on the fluid
a. 9.89x10-3 c. 5.61x10-3
d. none of these
b. 4.33x10 -3 c. 2.05x10-3
48. Stoke’s law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
a. <1 c. >1
b. <5 d. none of these
PARTICLE TECHNOLOGY
59. Particles of quartz having a diameter of 0.137 mm and a specific 69. The capacity in m3/hr of a clarifying operating under these conditions
gravity of 2.65 are settling in water at 293.2 K. The volume is
fraction of the particles in the slurry mixture of quartz and water Diameter of bowl = 600 mm
is 0.25. Calculate the Reynolds number. Thickness of liquid layer = 75 mm
a. 0.21 c. 0.30
Depth of bowl = 400 mm
b. 0.24 d. 0.35
Speed = 1200 rpm
Centrifugation Specific gravity of the liquid = 1.2
Specific gravity of the solid = 1.6
Centrifugation Viscosity of liquid = 2cP
- a mechanical process of separating multi-phase mixture via Cut size of particles = 30 microns
the use of centrifugal force. a. 250 c. 220
b. 210 d. 270
60. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled,
then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled For numbers 70 to 71:
b. linear speed of the basket is halved An aqueous suspension consisting of particles of density 2500 kg/m3
c. centrifugal force is doubled in the size range 1 to 10 microns is introduced into a centrifuge with
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased a basket 450 mm rotating at 80 Hz. If the suspension forms a layer
75 mm thick in the basket, calculate the following
A centrifuge having a radius of bowl of 0.1016 m is rotating at 70. The angular velocity in rad/s
N=1000 rev/min. a. 456 c. 503
b. 338 d. 291
61. Calculate the centrifugal force developed in terms of gravity forces.
a. 114 c. 227 71. The time will it take for the smallest particle to settle out
b. 335 d. 110 a. 15.1 s c. 22.9 s
b. 25.8 s d. 19.3 s
62. Compare this force to that for a bowl with a radius of 0.2032 m
rotating at the same rev/min.
a. 114 c. 227 Filtration
b. 335 d. 110
Filtration
63. A centrifuge bowl is spinning at a constant 1500 rev/min. What - suspended solid particles in a fluid of liquid or gas is physically
radius bowl is needed for a force of 500 g's. or mechanically removed by using a porous medium that retains
a. 0.1 m c. 0.3 m the particle as separate phase or cake and passes the clear
b. 0.2 m d. 0.4 m filtrate.
-
64. If a centrifuge is 0.9 m diameter and rotates at 20 Hz, at what speed 72. A plate and frame filter press containing 24 frames, each 1-inch thick
should a laboratory centrifuge of 150 mm diameter be run if it is to and has inside dimensions of 2 ft by 2 ft. Filtering time is 2 hours.
duplicate the performance of the large unit? Wash water volume is 10% of the filtrate volume per cycle. Filtering
a. 49 Hz c. 55 Hz and washing are done at the same pressure. The final cake is 0.05
b. 36 Hz d. 27 Hz ft3 per ft3 of filtrate. If the time for cleaning and reassembling is 30
min/cycle, the capacity of the press is
65. If a force greater than that of gravity is used to separate solids & a. 900 ft3/hr c. 950 ft3/d
fluids of different densities, the process is termed as the b. 936 ft3/d d. 936 ft3/cycle
a. sedimentation c. flocculation
b. dispersion d. centrifugation 73. A plate and frame filter press with 10 frames is used to filter a slurry
at a constant pressure. Total filtration area is 75 ft2 and the filter
66. Ultra centrifuges are used for the separation of _____ solid particles. delivers 400 lbs of filtrate in half an hour. If 10 more frames are added
a. coarse c. fine to the filter press, while other conditions remain the same, the time
produce 400 lb of filtrate, assuming Rm = 0, is
b. colloidal d. dissolved
a. 10 min c. 7.5 min
b. 30 min d. 15 min
67. A dilute slurry contains small solid food particles having a diameter
of 5x10-2 mm which are to be removed by centrifuging. The particle 74. A slurry of CaCO3 is filtered in a plate and frame filter press with a
density is 1050 kg/m3 and the solution density is 1000 kg/m3. The total area of 86.1 ft2, and operated at constant pressure drop of 2
viscosity of the liquid is 1.2 × 10-3 Pa · s. A centrifuge at 3000 rpm is atm. The mass of dry cake collected is 742 lbs and the volume
to be used. The bowl dimensions are b = 100.1 mm, r1 = 5.0 mm, and collected is 68.1 ft3. The following data have been determined for the
said slurry.
r2 = 30.0 mm. Calculate the expected flow rate in m3/s just to remove
Viscosity = 0.982 cP
these particles. Specific cake resistance = 1.27 x1011ft/lb
a. 8.7x10-5 c. 2.4x10-5 Resistance due to the filter medium = 1.55x1010/ft
b. 1.0x10-5 d. 4.5x10-5 Calculate the filtration time in minutes.
a. 28 c. 42
68. The capacity of a Sharples centrifuge is estimated to be b. 36 d. 48
increase/decrease by _____ % if its speed is doubled and the cut
size of the product is reduced by 20%
a. 20% increase c. 156% increase
b. 80% increase d. 120% increase
PARTICLE TECHNOLOGY
75. Filter aid is used For numbers 84 to 85:

a. to increase the rate of filtration To clean a sand bed filter, it is fluidized at minimum conditions using
b. to decrease the pressure drop water at 240C. The round sand particles have a density of 2550 kg/m3
c. to increase the porosity of the cake and an average size of 0.40 mm. sphericity = 0.86 and ε=0.42.
d. as a support base for the septum
84. If the bed diameter is 0.4 m and the desired height of the bed at these
76. The porosity of a compressible cake is minimum fluidizing conditions is 1.75 m. Calculate the amount
a. minimum at the filter medium of solids needed.
b. minimum at the upstream face a. 235.52 kg c. 352.32 kg
c. maximum at the filter medium b. 523.35 kg d. 325.25 kg
d. same throughout the thickness
85. What is the minimum velocity for fluidization?
77. The constant pressure (38.7 psia) filtration equation for a filtration a. 0.0016 c. 0.0009
system is b. 0.0028 d.0.0033
t / V = 9.05 x10-5 V + 0.01, sec/L
If the slurry is filtered at constant rate of 10 L/s, how long will it
take to reach 50 psi filtration pressure.
a. 132 s c. 155 s
b. 140 s d. 128 s
78. The PV relationship for slurry filtering at constant rate of 0.2 ft3 of
filtrate per s is P = 16300 V + 220
where P is filtration pressure in psf and V = filtrate in ft3
If the slurry is filtered at constant pressure filtration of 20 psi, how
long will it take to filter 10 ft3 of filtrate. Assume the cake is
incompressible.
a. 33 min c. 50 min
b. 24 min d. 16 min
79. In the filtration of a sludge, the initial period is effected at a constant

rate with the feed pump at full capacity until the pressure differential
reaches 400 kPa. The pressure is then maintained at this value for a
remainder of filtration. The constant rate operation requires 900
seconds and 1/3 of the total filtrate is obtained during this period. No
washing of the cycle is done. If the time for removing the cake and
reassembling the press is 1200 seconds determine the total time per
cycle.
a. 5700 s c. 5100 s
b. 4500 s d. 4015 s
80. A rotary drum filter with 35% of its filtering area submerged in the
slurry, turns at 0.5 rpm. The filtrate production is 0.61 cubic meter per
min per square meter of filtering area submerged when filtering lime
slurry. Average production is 20.4 cubic meters of filtrate per hour.
The estimated area of the filter cloth in square meter is
a. 3.2 c. 1.6
b. 2.5 d. 4.4
Fluidization
Fluidization
- is defined as a method to keep solid particles floating in an
upward direction in a flow of gas or liquid.

Solid particles having a size of 0.12 mm, a shape factor of 0.88, and
a density of 1000 kg/m3 are to be fluidized using air at 2 atm and
250C. The voidage at minimum fluidizing conditions is 0.42.
81. If the cross section of the empty bed is 0.30 m2 and the bed contains
300 kg of solid, calculate the minimum height of the fluidized bed.
a. 1.85 m c. 1.90 m
b. 1.72 m d. 1.63 m
82. Calculate the pressure drop at the minimum fluidizing conditions.

a. 0.098 x105 Pa c. 0.076 x105 Pa
b. 0.065 x10 Pa
5 d. 0.082 x105 Pa
83. Calculate minimum velocity for fluidization.

a. 0.004 m/s c. 0.005 m/s
b. 0.001 m/s d. 0.002 m/s
CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING
1. In which of the following cases does the reaction go farthest to 13. After 8 minutes in a batch reactor, reactant (CAO = 1 mol/L) is 80%
completion? converted; after 18 minutes, conversion is 90%. What is the order of
a. k = 102 c. k = 10 the reaction?
b. k = 10-2 d. k = 1 a. 1/2 c. 2
b. 3/2 d. 3
2. If “n” is the order of reaction, then unit of rate constant is
a. 1 / (time) (concentration)n-1 14. If the reaction, 2 A + B  C is second order, which of the following
b. (time)-1(concentration)n-1 plots will give a straight line?
c. (time)n-1 (concentration) a. log CA vs time c. log CA vs reciprocal time
d. none of these b. CA vs time d.1/CA vs time
3. A certain reaction has a specific rate constant of 10 L/mol-min. The 15. The decomposition of a compound X gave the rate data shown
order of the reaction is below.
a. ½ c. 1
b. 0 d. 2 t, min [X] t
0 0.600
4. The reaction in which rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric 10 0.472
equation is called 20 0.389
a. elementary reaction c. non-elementary reaction 30 0.331
b. parallel reaction d. autocatalytic reaction 40 0.288
5. The overall order of the reaction for the elementary reaction
A+2BC The reaction is
a. 0 c. 2 a. first order c. second order
b. 1 d. 3 b. third order d. zero order
6. The rate of formation of B in terms of rA, where rA = -kCACB2 is 16. The value of the rate constant is
a. 1/2 rA c. 2 rA a. 0.045 c. 0.056
b. rA d. 3 rA b. 0.076 d. 0.084
7. Find the reaction orders with respect to A and B: 17. Half-life period of a chemical reaction is
a. the time required to reduce the concentration of the reacting
CA 4 1 1 substance to half its initial value
CB 1 1 8 b. half of the space time of the reaction
-rA 2 1 4 c. half of the residence time of the reaction
d. none of these
a. a = 1/2, b = 2/3 c. a = 2/3, b = 1/3
b. a = 2/5, b = 1 d. a = 1/2, b = 1 18. The half-life of a material undergoing second order decay is
a. proportional to the square of initial concentration
8. On doubling the concentration of reactant, the rate of reaction triples, b. independent of initial concentration
find the reaction order. c. proportional to initial concentration
a. 1.36 c. 1.59 d. inversely proportional to initial concentration
b. 2.01 d. 2.88
19. For the liquid phase reaction A  P, in a series of experiments in a
9. If the rate of reaction independent of the concentration of the batch reactor, the half-life was found to be inversely proportional to
reactants, the reaction is said to be? the square root of the initial concentration of A. The order of the
a. first order c. second order reaction is
b. third order d. zero order a. 3/2 c.1
b. 1/2 d. 2
10. A polymerization reaction occurs at constant temperature in a
homogeneous phase. For the initial monomer concentrations of 0.3, 20. The following half-life data are available for the irreversible liquid
0.5 and 0.9 mol/L, 30% of the monomer reacts in 40 minutes. Find phase reaction, A  P
the reaction rate constant.
a. 0.129 /hr c. 0.451 /hr Initial Concentration Half-life
b. 0.535 /hr d. 0.964 /hr (kmol/m3) (min)
2 2
11. In a first order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration 8 1
of reactant from 1 mol/L to 0.5 mol/L will be _ that required to reduce
it from 10 mol/L to 5 mol/L in the same volume. What is the overall order of the reaction?
a. more than c. same as a. 1 c. 1.5
b. less than d. data insufficient b. 2.5 d. 3
12. The concentration versus batch time data for a constant volume For numbers 21 to 24:
isothermal batch reactor is given in the table below. The following is data for the reaction: A → B
Time,s 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 Time (sec) [A] (M) Time (sec) [A] (M)
CA, kmol/m3 1 0.92 0.82 0.80 0.76 0.72 0.70 0 1.00 100 0.659
25 0.914 125 0.573
Assuming the reaction to first order in A, find the best value of k. 50 0.829 150 0.488
a. 1.95 x10-3 /s c. 2.63 x10-3 /s 75 0.744 200 ?
b. 8.71 x10 /s
-3 d. 6.07 x10-3 /s
21. The order of the reactant A
a. 0 c. 1
b. 2 d. 3
22. The value of k is 33. For the reaction that can be written as A  B  C, the value of k1
a. 0.0011 c. 0.00226 is 5.65 x10-3 per min and the time necessary to reach the maximum
b. 0.0034 d. 0.00428 concentration of B is 26 min. What is the value of k2?
a. 0.3459 c. 0.1246
23. The concentration at 200 seconds is b. 0.7763 d. 0.1231
a. 0.12 M c. 0.25 M
b. 0.28 M d. 0.32 M 34. For CBO = CCO = 0, find the maximum concentration of CB for k1 = 2k2.
a. CAO c. CAO /2
24. The half-life of the reaction is b. 2 CAO d. 0
a. 62 s c. 85 s
b. 125 s d. 147 s 35. The following liquid phase reaction is taking place in an isothermal
batch reactor
For numbers 25 to 27: A  B (1st order)  C (zero order)
The reaction A + B + C  products has equimolar amounts initially, Feed concentration = 1mol /L
1 M. If the reaction is second – order with respect to A and first – The time required at which the concentration of B will reach its
order with respect to B and C. maximum value is given by
a. 1/k1 ln (k1/k2) c. 1/ (k2 – k1) ln (k2/k1)
25. The rate constant k is equal to ______ if 30% Cao decomposes b. 1/k2 ln (k2/k1) d. 1/k2 ln (k1/k2)
after 0.5 hours.
a. 0.59 / hour c. 1.277 / hour 36. The following liquid phase reactions are carried out in a plug flow
b. 7.211 / hour d. 2.177 / hour reactor
A + C  2D + P rP = k1 CA CC
26. The concentration of A after 1 hour AB rD = k2 CA
a. 0.59 c. 1.277 What is the ratio of moles of P formed to moles of B formed at the
b. 7.211 d. 2.177 reactor exit if the conversion of C is 50%. No product is present in
the feed. Data: CAO = CCO = 2 kmol / m3, k1 = 1 m3 / kmol-s and k2 = 1
27. The half-life of the reaction /s.
a. 2.781 hours c. 1.278 hours a. 0 c. 0.5
b. 1.782 hours d. 1.827 hours b. 0.75 d. 1
28. With increases in temperature, the rate constant obeying Arrhenius 37. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction
equation a. increases in the presence of catalyst
a. increases b. decreases in the presence of catalyst
b. decreases c. remains unaffected in the presence of a catalyst
c. decreases exponentially with temperature d. can either increase or decrease; depends on the type of catalyst
d. can either increase or decrease, depends on the frequency factor
38. If a first order reversible liquid reaction A ↔ B is conducted in a batch
29. Which of the statements is wrong? reactor. The initial concentrations are CAO = 0.5 gmol/L and CBO = 0.
a. From Arrhenius Law, the value of the frequency factor, ko does After 8 minutes, the fractional conversion of A is 1/3 and at
affect the temperature sensitivity. equilibrium, the fractional conversion of A is 2/3. Find the equilibrium
b. Reactions with high E are very T- sensitive, with low E are constant.
relatively T – insensitive a. 1 c. 2
c. Any given reaction is much more T- sensitive at a low T than at a b. 3 d. 4
high T.
d. From Arrhenius law, a plot of ln k vs 1/T gives a straight line, with For numbers 39 to 40:
large slope for large E and small slope for small E. The hydrolysis of methyl acetate in an autocatalytic reaction and is
first order with respect to both methyl acetate and acetic acid. The
30. A second order reaction involving reactants initially present at 0.10 reaction is elementary, bimolecular and can be considered
mole/L is found to be 20% complete in 40 minutes, when the reaction irreversible at constant volume for design purposes. The following
is 25 0C, and 40% complete in 35 minutes, when the reaction is 50 data are given:
0C. What is the activation energy for this reaction in cal/mol. Initial concentration of methyl acetate = 0.45 gmol/L
a. 2700 cal/mol c.1020 cal/mol Initial concentration of acetic acid = 0.045 gmol/L
b. 8500 cal/mol d. 5530 cal/mol The conversion in 1 hr is 65% in a batch reactor. Calculate:
31. At a given value of E/R, the ratio of the rate constants at 500 K and 39. The rate constant
400 K is 2 if Arrhenius Law is used. What will be this ratio if transition- a. 6.2 L/gmol-hr c.1.3 L/gmol-hr
state theory is used with the same value of E/R? b. 2.5 L/gmol-hr d. 5.7 L/gmol-hr
a. 1.6 c. 2.24
b. 2 d. 2.5 40. The time at which the rate passes through the maximum (CA = CB)
a. 30 min c. 45 min
32. The research department in your company has given you information b. 60 min d. 120 min
of the reaction E  2G. Two trial reactions were run for ten minutes.
In both cases the initial concentration of E was 0.175 mol/L, and the 41. The reactor volume to process 200 m3/hr.
concentration of G was zero. The data given you is: a. 120 c. 150
At T = 700F (G) = 0.022 mol/L after 10 minutes b. 170 d. 130
At T = 1000F (G) = 0.059 mol/L after 10 minutes
Assuming first order kinetics, how long must a batch reaction be run 42. For the gaseous reaction 2 A  B where the feed consist of 50 mol%
at 1700F to produce a conversion of 80% of E with an initial A and 50 mol% inert, the expansion factor is
composition of 0.065 mol/L? a. 1 c. -0.25
a. 11.2 min c. 10.3 min b. -0.5 d. 0
b. 13.0 min d. 14.5 min
43. A gaseous reaction, A  2B + C takes place isothermally in a 53. A space-time of 3 hours for a flow reactor means that
constant pressure reactor. Starting with gaseous mixture containing a. the time required to process one reactor volume of feed (measured
50% A, the ratio of final to initial volume is found to be 1.6. Calculate at specified conditions) is 3 hour
the percentage conversion of A. b. three reactor volumes of feed can be processed every hour
a. 30 c. 60 c. it takes three hours to dump the entire volume of the reaction with
b. 50 d. 74 feed
d. conversion is per cent after three hour
The slow gas – phase reaction A → 2.4 R with first – order kinetics 54. A space velocity of 5/hour means that
takes place isothermally (25°C) in a constant volume bomb. Starting a. five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) are being fed
with pure A at 1 atm, the pressure in the bomb rises to 1.8 atm in 75 into the reactor per hour
minutes. b. after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed
c. percent conversion can be achieved in at least 5 hours
44. The actual conversion of A in the constant volume bomb. d. a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 hours
a. 0.57 c. 0.66
b. 0.75 d. 0.88 55. A pollutant P degrades according to first order kinetics. An aqueous
stream containing P at 2 kmol/m3 and volumetric flow rate of 1 m3/h
45. The concentration of A (M) after 75 minutes. requires a mixed flow reactor of volume V to bring down the pollutant
a. 0.0411 c. 0.0175 to 0.5 kmol/m3. The inlet concentration of the pollutant is now
b. 0.0327 d. 0.0972 doubled and the volumetric flow rate is tripled. If the pollutant level is
to be brought down to the same level of 0.5 kmol/m3, the volume of
For numbers 46 to 47: the mixed flow reactor should increase by a factor of _.
Nitrogen pentoxide decomposes as follows: a. 7/3 c. 7
N2O5 → ½ O2 + N2O4 b. 7/2 d. 1/7
-r N2O5 = (2.2 x 10 -3/min) CN2O5
N2O4 ↔ 2NO2, instantaneous Kp = 45 mmHg 56. For the liquid phase zero order irreversible reaction A B, the
conversion of A in a CSTR is found to be 0.3 at a space velocity of
46. The partial pressure of N2O5 (constant volume bomb) after 6.5 hours 0.1 min-1. What will be the conversion for a PFR with a space velocity
if we start with pure N2O5 at atmospheric pressure. of 0.2 min-1? Assume that all the other operating conditions are the
a. 0.254 atm c. 0.424 atm same for CSTR and PFR.
b. 0.562 atm d. 0.137 atm a. 0.15 c. 0.60
b. 0.30 d. 0.90
47. The partial pressure of NO2 57. A homogeneous liquid phase reaction, A R; -rA = kC A2 takes place
a. 0.19 atm c. 0.13 atm with 50% conversion in a well-mixed reactor operating isothermally.
b. 0.15 atm d. 0.11 atm What will be the conversion if the reactor is replaced by a plug flow
type of equal size – all else remaining the same?
For numbers 48 to 49: a. 10% c. 20%
For a zero order reaction A  rR taking place in a constant – volume b. 50% d. 67%
bomb , π = 1 when t = 0 and π = 1.5 when t = 1. For the same
reaction, same feed composition and initial pressure taking place in For numbers 58 to 59:
a constant pressure setup, find V at t=1 if V= 1 at t=0. The homogeneous gas phase decomposition of phosphine 4PH3(g)
P4 (g)+ 6H2 (g) proceeds at 649 ºC with first – order rate [- r(phosphine)
48. Find the value of the apparent rate order constant k. = (10/hr) CA]. The reactor operates at 649 ºC and 460 kPa can
2
a. k = RT (1−r)
0.5
c. k = RT (r−1) produce 80% conversion of a feed consisting of 40 mole of pure
2 1
phosphine per hour.
b. k = d. k =
RT ( r−1) 2(1−r)RT
58. The initial concentration of A
49. Find V at t=1 if V= 1 at t=0. a. 60 mol/m3 c. 20 mol/m3
a. 1.5 Vo c. 1.6Vo b. 40 mol/m3 d. 80 mol/m3
b. 1.65Vo d. 1.85VO
59. The volume of the plug flow reactor
50. A batch reactor is characterized by a. 170 L c.192 L
a. constant residence time b. 148 L d. 255 L
b. the variation in extent of reaction and properties of the reaction
mixture with time 60. A homogeneous gas phase reaction A  3R has reported at 2150C,
c. variation in reactor volume -rA=10-2 CA 0.5 (mol/L-s). Find the space time needed for 80%
d. very low conversion conversion of 50% A-50% inert feed to a plug flow operating at 2150C
and 5 atm.
51. A plug-flow reactor is characterized by a. 33 s c. 44 s
a. high capacity b. 22 s d. 55 s
b. presence of axial mixing
c. presence of lateral mixing For numbers 61 to 63:
d. constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture In a reactor where the volumetric flow rate is constant at 12 L/min,
the conversion of A is 85% according to the reaction A  B. The
52. A backmix reactor entering molar composition is 1.5 mol/L. For the reaction at 25 0C,
a. is same as plug-flow reactor use k = 0.258 min-1.
b. is same as ideal stirred tank reactor
c. employs mixing in axial direction only 61. Calculate the reactor volume for a tubular reactor.
d. is most suitable for gas phase reaction a. 41 L c. 58 L
b. 75 L d. 88 L
62. If the length of the tubular reactor was doubled, what would be the
new conversion?
a. 90.3% c. 94.2%
b. 97.8% d. 99.1%
63. Calculate the reactor volume for a backmix reactor.

a. 196 L c. 264 L
b. 293 L d. 350 L

A liquid phase reaction A R is carried out in a series of three
completely mixed stirred tank reactors of equal size. The reaction
rate constant k is 0.066/min. Overall conversion is 90%. The feed
rate is 10 liters/min and the feed conditions only A in concentration
of 1 mol/L.
64. The overall space time in minutes for the three-reactor system is
a. 5.24 c. 52.4
b. 524 d. 17.5
65. The concentration from the second reactor is

a. 0.215 c. 0.35
b. 0.10 d. 0.50
CHEMICAL REACTIONS ENGINEERING
Additional Problems
1. For the given data, propose a rate law for FOR NUMBERS 6-7
the reaction A → P by determining the Given the zero-order gas phase decomposition A →
order and the rate constant. 2.7R, in a constant-volume bomb starting with 80%
[A] (M) -r (M/s) A, 20% inert, we have the following data given in
A
the table.
0.01 0.00047
Time (s) Total Pressure (atm)
0.05 0.0015
0 1
0.75 0.013
1 1.5
1 0.017
6. If we introduce A at a total pressure of 10
1.5 0.0212
atm, no inert, what will be the total pressure
2 0.027
at t = 1?
5 0.053
a. 10
10 0.09 b. 10.5
a. k = 0.0158, n = 0.677 c. 11
b. k = 0.0158, n = 0.766 d. 11.5
c. k = 0.0581, n = 0.677
d. k = 0.0581, n = 0.766 7. If we introduce A at a partial pressure of 1
atm and inert at a partial pressure of 9 atm,
2. Given the reaction A → B, initially pure gas what will be the total pressure at t = 1?
A was fed to the reactor with an initial a. 10
pressure of 8.2 atm at 500 K. With k = 10 b. 10.5
L/mol-s, if the reactor used was a constant c. 11
volume batch reactor, calculate the d. 11.5
residence time for 90% conversion.
a. 1.8 s 8. What is the maximum % increase in total
b. 3.3 s volume expected for the batch, isobaric,
c. 4.5 s gaseous decomposition 2A → 2R + S if the
d. 6.9 s feed contained 25% inert?
a. 35.7%
3. The gas-phase decomposition A → B + 2C b. 37.5%
is carried out in a constant-volume batch c. 53.7%
reactor. Determine the reaction order and d. 57.3%
the rate constant.
C (M) t (min) 9. A first order reaction 2A → R took place in
AO 1/2
0.075 1.3 a constant pressure setup which resulted in
0.05 1.96 a 20 % decrease in reactor volume after 3
0.025 4.1 minutes. It was noted that initially, the
0.0133 7.7 reactor contained only 20 % inert and the
0.01 9.8 rest A. What is the rate constant?
a. n = 1, k = 10.26 a. 0.213
b. n = 1, k = 26.01 b. 0.231
c. n = 2, k = 10.26 c. 0.312
d. n = 2, k = 26.01 d. 0.321
4. The first order reversible liquid reaction A 10. A gas decomposes at 900 OC according to:
↔ R takes place in a batch reactor. After 8 2A(g) → 2R(g) + S(g) with the rate constant
minutes, the conversion of A is 33.3% of 1000 cm3/mol-s. Using pure A, calculate
while equilibrium conversion is 66.7%. the time it will take to react 80% of A in a
Find a rate equation for this reaction. batch reactor at 900 OC and 1 atm in
a. k2 = 0.02879, k1 = 0.05767 minutes.
b. k2 = 0.02879, k1 = 0.06757 a. 6.11 min
c. k2 = 0.07289, k1 = 0.05767 b. 7.22 min
d. k2 = 0.07289, k1 = 0.06757 c. 8.33 min
d. 9.44 min
5. The gas phase reaction A → B + C is
carried out isothermally in a 20 L constant 11. When the first-order homogenous gas-
volume batch reactor. 20 mol of pure A is phase decomposition A → 2.5R is carried
initially placed in the reactor. The reactor is out in an isothermal batch reactor at 2 atm
well mixed. If the temperature is 400.15 K, with 20% inert present, the volume
what is the final total pressure assuming increases by 60% in 20 mins. When the
that the reaction goes to completion? reaction is carried out in a constant-volume
a. 56.76 atm reactor, find the time required for the
b. 65.67 atm pressure to reach 8 atm if the initial
c. 67.65 atm pressure is 5 atm, 2 atm of which consists
d. 76.56 atm of inert.
CHEMICAL REACTIONS ENGINEERING
Additional Problems
a. 31.7 min 17. A fluid flows through 2 stirred tank reactors
b. 37.1 min in series. Each reactor has a capacity of
c. 71.3 min 40,000 liters and the fluid enters at 100
d. 73.1 min L/hr. The fluid undergoes 1st order decay
with a half-life of 24 hrs. Find the %
12. The gas phase decomposition: 1.5A → 2R conversion of the fluid, assuming an initial
when studied in an isothermal constant concentration of 1 M.
volume batch reactor gave the same half- a. 9.94%
life of 20 min for different feed b. 49.9%
compositions. If the same reaction is c. 94.9%
conducted at the same temperature in a d. 99.4%
constant pressure batch reactor using a feed
consisting of 80%A, 20% Inert by mole, 18. The liquid reaction 1.5A → 2R when
what will be the % increase in the total studied in an isothermal 200 L batch reactor
volume after 1 hour? gave the same half-life of 35 min for
a. 23.33% different feed compositions. Suppose the
b. 32.33% same reaction is conducted at the same
c. 33.23% temp in four equally sized backmix reactors
d. 33.32% in series. What is the space time for 85 %
conversion?
13. An isothermal, gas phase reaction 2A → P a. 30.64
is to be carried out in a variable volume b. 34.06
batch reactor. The feed composed of 60% A c. 36.04
(rest inert) enters at 5 atm and 80 °C. The d. 43.06
specific rate of reaction is 2.8 cm3/mol-s at
50 °C with E = 15400 cal/mol. Calculate 19. The liquid phase reaction A → B + C is
the time required for reactant A to be conducted isothermally at 50 °C in a
reduced to half its initial concentration. CSTR. The inlet concentration of A is 8.0
a. 408 s gmol/L. At a space time of 5 minutes, the
b. 480 s concentration of A at the exit is 4.0 gmol/L.
c. 804 s The kinetics of the reaction are described
d. 840 s by the equation –rA = kCA0.5. A plug flow
reactor of the same volume is added in
FOR NUMBERS 14-15 series after the CSTR. What is the
A homogeneous liquid phase reaction X →Y -rX = concentration of A in gmol/L at the exit of
kCx2 takes place with a 50% conversion in a mixed the PFR?
flow reactor. a. 1 M
14. What will be the conversion if this reactor b. 1.5 M
is replaced by another mixed flow reactor c. 2 M
having a volume 6 times that of original d. 2.5 M
reactor?
a. 0.57 20. Two CSTRs are in series for a first order
b. 0.67 reaction. Forty percent conversion is
c. 0.75 obtained in the first CSTR. What is the
d. 0.81 relative size of the second reactor,
compared to the first, to obtain 80% overall
15. What will be the conversion if the original conversion?
reactor is replaced by a PFR of same size? a. V/3
a. 0.57 b. V/2
b. 0.67 c. 2V
c. 0.75 d. 3V
d. 0.81
16. An aqueous feed of A and B (400 L/min,

0.1 M A, 0.2 M B) is to be converted to
product in a mixed flow reactor. The
kinetics of the reaction are represented by
A + B → R, -rA = 200CACB. Find the
volume of reactor needed for 99.9%
conversion of A to product.
a. 19904.06 L
b. 19906.04 L
c. 19940.06 L
d. 19960.04 L
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS
Dimensions and Units 11. reversibly assuming gas is ideal

a. 7 c. 151
For numbers 1 to 3: b. 55 d. 157
Compare the costs of electricity at 1 p per kWh and gas at 15 p per
therm. 12. reversibly assuming gas obeys van der Waals equation of state
(a=0.86 Pa-m6-mol-2and b = 3.18 x10-5 m3-mol-)
1. How many MJ in 1 kWh? a. 7 c. 151
a. 1.8 MJ c. 2.2 MJ b. 55 d. 157
b. 3.6 MJ d. 4.5 MJ
2. What is the cost of electricity per MJ? First Law of Thermodynamics

a. 0.28 c. 0.14
b. 0.36 d. 0.50 13. Which law is the basis for the manufacture of thermometers?
a. Boyle’s Law c. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
3. What is the cost of gas per MJ? b. Raoult’s Law d. Carnot’s Principle
a. 0.28 c. 0.14
b. 0.36 d. 0.50 For numbers 14 to 16:
How many degrees of freedom has each of the following systems?
4. A piece of chocolate cake contains about 400 Calories. A nutritional
Calorie is equal to 1000 calories (thermochemical calories). How 14. Liquid water in equilibrium with its vapor
many 8-inch high steps must a 180-lb man climb to expend 400 Cal a. one c. two
from the piece of cake? b. three d. four
a. 103 steps c. 1030 steps
b. 10300 steps d. 103000 steps 15. Liquid water in equilibrium with a mixture of water vapor and nitrogen.
a. one c. two
For numbers 5 to 8: b. three d. four
A gas is confined in a 0.47 m diameter cylinder by a piston, on which
rests a weight. The mass of the piston and weight together is 150 kg. 16. A liquid solution of alcohol in water in equilibrium with its vapor.
The local gravity acceleration is 9.813 m/s2, the atmospheric a. one c. two
pressure is 101.57 kPa. b. three d. four
5. What is the force in Newtons exerted on the gas by the atmosphere, 17. Energy is added to the water as work but is extracted from the water
the piston and the weight, assuming no friction between the piston as heat was performed by
and cylinder? a. Van ness c. Joule
a. 1.91 x104 N c. 2.03 x104 N b. Fitzer d. Smith
b. 1.56 x10 N
4 d. 2.28 x104 N
18. In Joule’s experiment, an insulated container contains 20 kg of water
6. What is the pressure of the gas in kPa? initially at 250C. It is stirred by an agitator, which is made to turn by
a. 105 kPa c. 110 kPa a slowly falling body weighing 40 kg through a height of 4 m. The
b. 128 kPa d. 117 kPa process is repeated 500 times. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8
m/s2. Neglecting the heat capacity of agitator, calculate the
7. If the gas in the cylinder is heated, it expands, pushing the piston and temperature of water in 0C.
the weight upward. If the piston and weight are raised 0.83 m, what a. 390C c. 280C
is the work done by the gas in kJ? b. 450C d. 340C
a. -16 kJ c. -11 kJ
b. 16 kJ d. 11 kJ 19. These properties depend on the current state of the system and not
on how the system reaches that state.
8. What is the change in potential energy of the piston and weight? a. path functions c. excess property
a. 1.8 kJ c. 1.9 kJ b. state functions d. all of these
b. 1.5 kJ d. 1.2 kJ
20. Which of the following statement is correct?
For numbers 9 to 12: a. The standard heat of formation of an element is negative.
Calculate the work (J) done by a sample of 0.10 mol Ne gas that b. Since △H = △U + △PV and can never be equal to △U.
expands isothermally from 0.6 L to 1.2 L at 0oC according to the c. Q and W are state functions.
following conditions: d. Q + W is a state function.
9. against a constant external pressure of 0.9 atm. 21. The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas reacts with a solid CaO
a. 7 c. 151 to form solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter at constant
b. 55 d. 157 volume. The data obtained give a direct measure of
a. △U c. △H
10. against a variable pressure which varies with volume according to b. V△P d. Cp
the expression PVn = k, and with the given data:
22. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy (∆H)
change of the system is
Px103 (atm) 194 134 100 70
a. C vdT c. CpdT
b. ∫CpdT d. ∫CvdT
V (L) 0.60 0.80 1.0 1.2
23. Cv is given by
a. (∂U/ ∂T)v c. (∂U/∂V)T
a. 7 c. 151 b. (∂U/∂P)v d. (∂V/ ∂T)P
b. 55 d. 157
For numbers 24 to 26: 33. Change in kinetic energy

A gas initially at 15 psia and 2 ft3 undergoes a process to 90 psia and a. 8.75 kW c. 9.66 kW
0.6 ft3, during which the enthalpy increases by 15.5 BTU; Cv=2.44 b. 4.32 kW d. 5.05 kW
BTU/lb-R. Determine
34. Change in potential energy
24. ∆U a. -3.33 x10-3 kW c. -6.81 x10-3 kW
a. 12.2 BTU c. 13.3 BTU b.-4.06 x10-3 kW d. -1.99 x10-3 kW
b. 11.1 BTU d. 10.0 BTU
35. Specific enthalpy change associated with the process
25. Cp in BTU/lb-R a. -720 kJ/kg c. -510 kJ/kg
a. 3.42 c. 4.01 b. -890 kJ/kg d. -650 kJ/kg
b. 5.56 d. 2.98
36. Air flows steadily at a rate of 0.5 kg/s through an air compressor,
26. R in in BTU/lb-R entering at 7 m/s speed, 100 kPa pressure and. 0.95 m3/kg specific
a. 0.54 c. 0.98 volume, and leaving at 5 m/s, 700 kPa, and 0.19 m3/kg. The internal
b. 0.61 d. 0.12 energy of the air leaving is 90 kJ/kg greater than of the air entering.
Cooling water in the compressor jackets absorbs heat from the air at
27. A gas is confined in a cylinder by a piston. The initial pressure of the a rate of 58 kW. Compute the work in kW.
gas is 7 bar, and the volume is 0.10 m 3. The piston is held in place a. 211 kW c. 122 kW
by latches in the cylinder wall. The whole apparatus is placed in a b. 112 kW d. 212 kW
total vacuum. What is the energy change of the apparatus if the
remaining latches are removed so that the gas suddenly expands to For numbers 37 to 38:
double its initial volume, the piston striking other latches at the end Steams flows at steady state through a converging insulated nozzle,
of the process? 25 cm long and with an inlet diameter of 5 cm. At the nozzle entrance,
a. -10.13 kJ c. -70 kJ the temperature and pressure are 3250C and 700 kPa, and the
b. 0 kJ d. cannot be determined velocity is 30 m/s. At the nozzle exit, the steam temperature and
pressure are 2400C and 350 kPa. Property values are:
28. One pound of a gas in a piston cylinder arrangement undergoes H1 = 31125.5 kJ/kg H2 = 2945.7 kJ/kg
expansion from 500 psia to 50 psia. The initial volume of the gas is
3 ft3 per lb. The variation of P and V is such that PV1.4 is a constant. 37. What is the velocity of the steam at the nozzle exit?
Calculate the change in internal energy if the work performed is equal a. 578 m/s c. 756 m/s
to the amount of heat transferred to the surrounding. b. 325 m/s d. 149 m/s
a. 0 BTU c. –669 BTU
b. 669 BTU d. -776 BTU 38. What is the exit diameter?
a. 1.33 cm c. 1.60 cm
For numbers 29 to 31: b. 1.49 cm d. 1.25 cm
A container with an air tight piston is at a pressure of 100 psia and at
a temperature of 70 0F. The piston moves up when 100 BTU of heat For numbers 39 to 40:
is transferred at a constant pressure and the volume changes from Air flows steadily and adiabatically through a horizontal straight pipe.
0.5 ft3 to 2.0 ft3. Assuming perfect gas behavior, calculate the The air enters the pipe at an absolute pressure of 100 psia, a
following: temperature of 1000F, and a linear velocity of 10 ft/sec. The air leaves
at 2 psia.
29. The change in internal energy
a. 84 BTU c. 60 BTU 39. What is the temperature of the leaving air?
b. 72 BTU d. 55 BTU a. 600F c. 800F
b. 70 F
0 d. 500F
30. The final temperature in 0F
a. 1660 c. 1220 40. What is the velocity of the leaving air?
b. 1440 d. 1330 a. 482 fps c. 345 fps
b. 161 fps d. 229 fps
31. The heat capacity of the process, Cp in BTU/R
a. 0.0537 c. 0.0629
b. 0.0416 d. 0.0381 Volumetric Properties of Pure Fluids
32. A group of 50 persons attended a secret meeting in a room which is
41. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a
12 m by 10 m long and a ceiling of 3 m. The room is completely
sealed off and insulated. Each person gives off 150 kcal per hour of
gas is called
heat and occupies a volume of 0.2 m3. The room has an initial a. Equation of state
pressure of 101.3 kPa and temperature of 160C. Calculate the room b. ideal gas equation
temperature after 10 minutes in 0C. c. Gibbs Duhem equation
a. 25 c. 36 d. all of these
b. 33 d. 29
42. The equation, PV = nRT is best obeyed by gases at
For numbers 33 to 35: a. low pressure and high temperature
Five hundred kilograms per hour of steam drives a turbine. The b. high pressure and low temperature
steam enters the turbine at 44 atm and 4500C at a linear velocity of c. low pressure and low temperature
60 m/s and leaves at a point 5 m below the turbine inlet at d. high pressure and high temperature
atmospheric pressure and a velocity of 360 m/s. The turbine delivers
shaft work at a rate of 70 kW, and the heat loss from the turbine is 43. Compressibility factor of a gas is
estimated to be 104 kcal/hr. Calculate the following: a. not a function of pressure
b. not a function of its nature
c. not a function of its temperature
d. unity, if it follows PV = nRT
44. Cp – Cv = R is valid for For numbers 56 to 57:

a. ideal gases Reported values for the virial coefficients of isopropanol vapor at
b. all gases 2000C are: B = -388 cm3/mol and C = -26000 cm6/mol2. Calculate
c. gases at very high pressure V and Z for isopropanol vapor at 2000C and 10 bar by:
d. gases at a very low temperature
56. Ideal Gas
45. For monoatomic gases, Cp / Cv equals a. 1, 3934 cm3/mol c. 1, 3488 cm3/mol
a. 1.0 c. 1.3 b. 1, 3539 cm3/mol d. 1. 3495 cm3/mol
b. 1.4 d. 1.67
57. Virial equation of state
46. Isobaric process means a constant a. 0.91, 3934 cm3/mol c. 0.89, 3488 cm3/mol
a. temperature process c. pressure process b. 0.95, 3539 cm3/mol d. 0.80, 3495 cm3/mol
b. volume process d. entropy process
47. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas Given that the vapor pressure of n-butane at 350 K is 9.4573 bar,
a. increases find the molar volume of the following using Redlich-Kwong
b. decreases equation.
c. remains unchanged
d. data insufficient can’t be predicted 58. Saturated vapor
a. 2667 cm3/mol c. 2520 cm3/mol
48. Determine the theoretical horsepower required for the isothermal b. 2486 cm3/mol d. 2555 cm3/mol
compression of 800 ft3/min of air from 14.7 to 120 psia.
a. 103 hp c. 110 hp 59. Saturated liquid
b. 108 hp d. 115 hp a. 191.0 cm3/mol c. 133.3 cm3/mol
b. 112.6 cm3/mol d. 127.8 cm3/mol
49. A process consists of two steps: (1) One mole of air at T = 800 K
and P = 4 bar is cooled at constant volume to T = 350 K. (2) The For numbers 60 to 62:
air is then heated at constant pressure until its temperature Determine the molar volume of n-butane at 510 K and 25 bar by each
reaches 800 K. If this two-step process is replaced by a single of the following:
isothermal expansion of air from 800 K and 4 bar to some final
pressure P, what is the value of P that makes the work of the two 60. The ideal-gas equation
processes the same? Assume mechanical reversibility and treat a. 1696 cm3/mol c. 1905 cm3/mol
air as an ideal gas with Cp = (7/2)R and Cv = (5/2)R. b. 1880 cm3/mol d. 1758 cm3/mol
a. 2.28 bar c. 2.52 bar
61. The generalized compressibility-factor correlation
b. 3.01 bar d. 1.86 bar
a. 1483 cm3/mol c. 1480 cm3/mol
b. 1486 cm3/mol d. 1489 cm3/mol
50. In an adiabatic process
a. heat transfer is zero 62. Equation, with the generalized correlation for B
b. temperature change is zero a. 1483 cm3/mol c. 1480 cm3/mol
c. work done is a path function b. 1486 cm3/mol d. 1489 cm3/mol
d. enthalpy remains constant
63. A solid is transformed into vapor without going through the liquid
51. What is the specific gravity of nitrogen at 800F and 745 mmHg phase at
compared to air at 800F and 745 mmHg? a. below triple point c. triple point
a. 0.21 c. 1.04 b. boiling point d. always
b. 0.79 d. 0.97
52. From PVn = C, when n = 0, the process is For liquid acetone at 200C and 1 bar, β = 1.487 x 10-3 0C-, κ = 62
a. isochoric c. polytropic x 10-6 bar and V = 1.287 cm3/g.
b. isothermal d. isobaric
64. The value of (δP/δT)V at 200C and 1 bar is
53. From PVn = C, the process is isochoric if n equals a. 24 bar/0C c. 26 bar/0C
a. 0 c. 1 b. 28 bar/0C d. 30 bar/0C
b. δ d. ∞
65. The pressure generated by heating at constant V from 200C and
54. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes the following sequence of 1 bar to 300C is
mechanically reversible processes in a closed system: from an a. 241 c. 242
initial state of 700C and 1 bar, it is compressed adiabatically to b. 243 d. 245
1500C, it is then cooled from 150 to 700C at constant pressure
and finally, it is expanded isothermally to its original state. 66. What is the change in volume for a change from 200C and 1 bar
Calculate W for the entire process. Take Cv = 3R/2 and Cp = to 0 0C and 10 bar?
5R/2. a. -0.038 cm3/g c. -0.083 cm3/g
a. -168 J c. 168 J b. 0.038 cm3/g d. 0.083 cm3/g
b. 0 J d. 237 J
55. If the processes are carried out irreversibly but so as to

accomplish exactly the same changes of state – the same
changes P, T, U and H then different values of Q and W.
Calculate W if each step is carried out with an efficiency of 80%.
a. 168 J c. 1996 J
b. 883 J d. 0 J
For numbers 67 to 69: 76. What is the Carnot efficiency?

Five kilograms of carbon tetrachloride undergo a mechanically a. 40% c. 92%
reversible, isobaric change of state at 1 bar during which the b. 75% d. 66%
temperature changes from 00C to 200C. The properties for liquid
carbon tetrachloride at 1 bar and 0 0C may be assumed 77. What is the maximum entropy change for any process in the
independent of temperature: β = 1.2x10-3/K, CP = 0.84 kJ/kg-K cycle?
and ρ = 1590 kg/m3. Determine the following: a. 0.125 BTU/lb-R c. 0.375 BTU/lb-R
b. 0.500 BTU/lb-R d. 0.224 BTU/lb-R
67. ΔV
a. 8x10-5 m3 c. 6 x10-5 m3 78. An inventor claims to have a cyclic engine which exchanges heat
b. 2x10-5 m3 d. 5x10-5 m3 with reservoirs at 250C and 2500C, and which produces 0.45 kJ
of work for each kJ of heat extracted from the hot reservoir. Is the
68. W claim believable?
a. -5 J c. -8 J a. Yes b. No
b. -2 J d. -4 J
79. An inventor has devised a complicated non-flow process in which
69. Q 1 mol of air is the working fluid. The net effects of the process are
a. 76 kJ c. 65 kJ claimed to be:
b. 52 kJ d. 84 kJ  A change in state of the air from 2500C and 3 bar to 800C and 1
bar.
70. ΔU  The production of 1800 J of work.
a. 67.82 kJ c. 90.01 kJ  The transfer of an undisclosed amount of heat to a heat reservoir
b. 83.99 kJ d. 55.64 kJ at 300C.
Determine whether the claimed performance of the process is
71. For liquid water the isothermal compressibility is given by: consistent with the second law. Assume that air is an ideal gas
for which Cp = (7/2)R.
c a. Yes b. No
κ= V (P + b)
80. Consider A (l, 750C)  A (g, 1550C) which is carried out at
where c and b are functions of temperature only. If 1 kg of water constant pressure. The total S for this process is found to be
is compressed isothermally and reversibly from 1 to 500 bar at 75.0 J/mol-K. For A (l) and A (g), the Cp are 75 J/mol-K and 29
600C, how much work is required? At 600C, b=2,700 bar and J/mol-K, respectively, and are not independent on temperature.
c=0.125 cm3/g. Calculate Hvap for A (l) at 1250C (boiling point).
a. 516 J c. 289 J a. 2.5x104 J c. 2.5x10-4 J
b. 403 J d. 772 J c. 5.2x104 J d. 5.2x10-4 J

A 40-kg steel casting (Cp=0.5 kJ/kg-K) at a temperature of 4500C
Second Law of Thermodynamics is quenched in 150 kg of oil (Cp=2.5 kJ/kg-K) at 250C. if there are
no heat losses, what is the change in entropy of
72. A central power plant, rated at 800 000 kW, generates steam at
585 K and discards heat to a river at 295 K. If the thermal 81. The casting
efficiency of the plant is 70% of the maximum possible value, how a. -16.33 kJ/K c. -26.13 kJ/k
much heat is discarded to the river at rated power? b. +16.33 kJ/K d. +26.13 kJ/k
a. 1.5x103 MW c. 2.3 x103 MW
b. 3.0 x103 MW d. 4.9 x103 MW 82. The oil
a. -16.33 kJ/K c. -26.13 kJ/k
For numbers 73 to 74: b. +16.33 kJ/K d. +26.13 kJ/k
A nuclear power plant generates 750 MW; the reactor
temperature is 3150C and a river with water temperature of 200C 83. Both considered together
is available. a. 9.8 kJ/K c. 0 kJ/K
b. -9.8 kJ/K d. 43 kJ/K
73. What is the minimum rate at which heat must be discarded to the
river?
84. Methane gas at 550 K and 5 bar undergoes a reversible adiabatic
a. 680 MW c. 420 MW
expansion to 1 bar. Assuming methane to be an ideal gas at these
b. 330 MW d. 745 MW
conditions, find its final temperature. Cp / R = 1.702 + 9.081x10-3 T –
74. If the actual thermal efficiency of the plant is 60% of the 2.164 x10-6 T2.
maximum, what is the temperature rise in 0C of the river if it has a. 411 K c. 389 K
a flow of 165 m3 s-? b. 465 K d. 307 K
a. 4.0 c. 3.6
b. 2.5 d. 1.1 For numbers 85 to 87:
Hydrogen, initially at 15 psia and 800F, is compressed at the rate of
For numbers 75 to 77: 20 cfm in a hot environment to a pressure of 75.3 psig. The details
A heat engine operating at a Carnot cycle between 15400F and of the process are unknown but it us estimated the heat enters at the
400F rejects 250 BTU/lb of working fluid to the sink. rate of 20 BTU/min. For a change of entropy of 0.0268 BTU/min-R.
Determine:
75. What is the work produced by the heat engine?
a. 190 BTU/lb c. 560 BTU/lb
b. 350 BTU/lb d. 750 BTU/lb
85. The final temperature. Applications of Thermodynamics to Flow Processes

a. 660 R c. 970 R
b. 820 R d. 710 R 94. Determine whether water is compressed liquid, superheated
vapor, saturated liquid, saturated vapor, or a mixture of saturated
86. The work if the system is non-flow.
liquid and saturated vapor, in each case. If the state is determined
to be a mixture, determine the quality.
a. 2.14 hp c. 4.69 hp
(i) At 10 MPa and an entropy of 3.3 kJ/kg-K
b. 3.33 hp d. 5.02 hp (ii) At 320 0C and 5.6 MPa
(iii) With specific volume of 0.10 m3/kg at 1 MPa
87. The work if the system is steady flow. a. subcooled, superheated, mixture (0.50)
a. 246 BTU/min c. 188 BTU/min b. mixture (0.40), superheated, subcooled
b. 257 BTU/min d. 135 BTU/min c. superheated, mixture (0.60), subcooled
d. subcooled, mixture (0.30), superheated
Heat Effects 95. Wet steam at 230 0C has a density of 0.025 g/cm3. Determine H.
a. 2350 kJ/kg c. 1990 kJ/kg
88. The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at b. 3410 kJ/kg d. 4070 kJ/kg
constant pressure and at constant volume at 270C when liquid
water forms is 96. A steam turbine with rated capacity of 56 400 kW operates with
a. –1192.2 cal c. 1257.44 cal steam at inlet conditions of 8600 kPa and 5000C, and discharges
b. –2314.5 cal d. –1257.44 cal into a condenser at a pressure of 10 kPa. Assuming a turbine
efficiency of 0.75, determine the mass rate of flow of the steam.
89. At 900C, the vapor pressure of acetic acid is 293 mmHg and its a. 45 kg/s c. 37 kg/s
vapor pressure at 1000C is 417mmHg. Calculate the normal b. 28 kg/s d. 59 kg/s
boiling point of acetic acid.
a. 271.4 K c. 298.2 K For numbers 97 to 99:
b. 391.3 K d. 303.0 K Three pounds per second of steam expand in a turbine
isentropically from 300 psia and 7000F to 2000F. Determine the
90. An ice skating rink contains ice at -100C. Calculate the pressure following:
than an ice skate blade must exert to allow smooth ice skating at S1: 1.6758 H1: 1368.9 V1: 2.2263
this temperature. Assume that ΔHfusion= 1440 cal/mol. ρliquid = 1.0 Sfg: 1.4824 Hfg: 977.9 Vfg: 33.6224
g/ml and ρice = 0.917 g/ml. Sg2: 1.7764 Hg2: 1146 Vg2: 33.639
a. 10x103 psi c. 20x103 psi
b. 15x10 psi
3 d. 25x103 psi 97. Quality of the exit steam.
a. 88% c. 90%
91. Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature 1 mol of
b. 93% d. 85%
methane from 260 to 6000C in a steady flow process at a pressure
sufficient low that methane may be considered as ideal gas.
a. 19800 J c. 22700 J 98. Steady flow work.
b. 10100 J d. 25400 J a. 868 BTU/s c. 645 BTU/s
b. 709 BTU/s d. 953 BTU/s
A reversible compression of 1 mol of an ideal gas in 99. Non-flow work.
piston/cylinder device results in a pressure increase from 1 bar to
P2 and a temperature increase from 400 K to 950 K. the path a. 842 BTU/s c. 698 BTU/s
followed by the gas during compression is given by PV 1.55 = k, b. 755 BTU/s d. 904 BTU/s
and the molar heat capacity is given by:
Cp/R= 3.85 + 0.57x10-3 T [T=K]. Water at 450C and 10 kPa enters an adiabatic pump and is
discharged at a pressure of 8600 kPa. Assume the pump
92. Determine the heat transferred during the process. efficiency to be 0.75. The following are properties for saturated
a. 5092 J c. 6478 J liquid water at 450C: V = 1.010 cm3/g, β = 425 x10-6/K and Cp =
b. 3355 J d. 7216 J 4.178 kJ/kg-K. Calculate the following:
93. Calculate the final pressure. 100. Work of the pump

a. 11.45 bar b. 13.66 bar a. 11.57 kJ/kg c. 12.05 kJ/kg
b. 10.05 bar d. 14.43 bar b. 14.92 kJ/kg d. 13.66 kJ/kg
101. Temperature change of the water

a. 0.97 K c. 0.88 K
b. 0.56 K d. 0.71 K
102. Entropy change of the water

a. 0.008 kJ/kg-K c. 0.005 kJ/kg-K
b. 0.001 kJ/kg-K d. 0.009 kJ/kg-K
103. Work output of turbine is __ the work input to the pump For numbers 113 to 115:
a. less than An ideal Diesel engine uses air initially at 200C and 90 kPa at the
b. equal to beginning of the compression process. If the compression ratio is
c. greater than 15 and the maximum temperature in the cycle is 20000C,
d. less than or greater than determine the following:
113. net work (kJ) produced

Thermodynamics Cycles a. 812 c. 1010
b. 930 d. 1414
Gaseous nitrogen actuates a Carnot power cycle in which 114. mean effective pressure (kPa)
respective volumes at the four corners of the cycle, starting at the a. 812 c. 1010
beginning of the isothermal expansion, are V1=10.10 L, V2=14.53 b. 930 d. 1414
L, V3=226.54 L, and V4=157.73 L. The cycle receives 21.1 kJ of
heat. Calculate the following: 115. cut-off ratio
a. 1.3 c. 2.6
104. Work, W b. 2.8 d. 5.7
a. 12 kJ c. 8 kJ
b. 17 kJ d. 14 kJ
105. Mean effective pressure, MEP

a. 65 kPa c. 50 kPa
b. 88 kPa d. 42 kPa
106. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is ___ the efficiency of Rankine

cycle.
a. less than c. equal to
b. greater than d. less than or greater than
107. The losses in condenser are ___.

a. small c. always constant
b. large d. none of these

In a Rankine cycle, steam at 6.89 MPa, 5160C enters the turbine
with an initial velocity of 30.48 m/s and leaves at 20.68 kPa with
a velocity of 91.44 m/s. Mass flow rate of the steam is 136078
kg/hr.
At 6.89 MPa and 5160C:
H = 3451.16 kJ/kg S = 6.86 kJ/kg-K
At 20.68 kPa:
Hv = 2610.21 kJ/kg Hl = 254.43 kJ/kg
Sv = 7.9 kJ/kg-K Sl = 0.841 kJ/kg-K
Vv = 7.41 m3/kg Vl = 1.02x10-3 m3/kg
108. Compute the thermal efficiency of the cycle.

a. 41% c. 22%
b. 37% d. 53%
109. What is the net power produced in hp?

a. 60000 hp c. 50000 hp
b. 40000 hp d. 30000 hp

An Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 9.5. The air is at 100
kPa, 17°C, and 600 cm³ prior to the compression stroke.
Temperature at the end of isentropic expansion is 800 K. Using
constant specific heat, calculate the following:
110. Highest temperature in the cycle

a. 1763 K c. 1969 K
b. 1654 K d. 1892 K
111. Thermal Efficiency

a. 59.4% c. 62.8%
b. 47.1% d. 36.7%
112. Mean effective pressure

a. 609 kPa c. 547 kPa
b. 718 kPa d. 425 kPa
HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER
Evaporation For numbers 11 to12:

Determine the boiling point rise for the following solutions in water.
1. Evaporation is also sometimes called as
a. thermal compression c. water distillation 11. A 30 wt% solution of citric acid in water boiling at 2200F.
b. liquid compression d. vapor compression a. 3.4 0F c. 2.2 0F
b. 1.8 0F d. 4.5 0F
2. The concentration of glycerin from a water solution by the
application of heat is 12. What is the boiling point elevation of a 30% NaOH solution boiling
a. distillation c. crystallization in an evaporator at a pressure of 172.4 kPa?
b. evaporation d. reverse osmosis a. 15 0C c. 10 0C
0
b. 13 C d. 17 0C
3. The total amount of evaporation an evaporator is capable of
producing per unit of time. For numbers 13 to 15:
a. economy c. steam consumption A single effect evaporator is to concentrate 20000 lb/hr of a 20%
b. capacity d. fouling factors solution NaOH to 50% solids. Saturated steam is available at 20
psig. The absolute vapor pressure in the vapor space is to be 100
4. When the pressure of the chamber is decreased, the boiling point of mmHg. The overall coefficient is to be estimated to be 250
the solution inside the chamber will BTU/hr-ft2-0F. The feed temperature is 1000F. Calculate the
a. increase c. decrease following:
b. remain the same d. increase or decrease
13. The amount of steam consumed
For numbers 5 to 8: a. 15400 lb/h c. 12800 lb/h
4500 kg/h of a 10% wt sugar solution is to be concentrated to 30% b. 13500 lb/h d. 19100 lb/hr
wt using single effect evaporator. Feed enters at 21°C. Saturated
steam at 110°C is available and the temperature in the condenser 14. The steam economy
is 43°C. Specific heat of the solutions may be taken as constant at a. 0.72 c. 0.78
4 J/g-°C. The over-all heat transfer coefficient is 2840 W/m2-0C. b. 0.88 d. 0.90
5. Determine the steam consumption, in kg/h. 15. The heating surface required.
a. 3400 kg/h c. 5800 kg/h a. 930 ft2 c. 810 ft2
b. 4700 kg/h d. 6500 kg/h b. 670 ft2 d. 550 ft2
6. How many square meters of heating surface are required? 16. A heat transfer device that is normally used to liquefy vapors is
a. 15 m2 c. 11 m2 a. evaporator c. reboiler
b. 9 m2 d. 13 m2 b. condenser d. humidifier
7. What is the steam economy? 17. The temperature driving force in an evaporator is determined as the
a. 0.82 c. 0.90 difference between the condensing steam temperature and
b. 0.88 d. 0.92 a. condenser temperature
b. boiling point of the solution
8. An evaporator having an area of 83.6 m2 and U = 2270 W/m2-K is c. boiling point of the solvent
used to produce distilled water for a boiler feed. Tap water having d. BPR of the solution
400 ppm is dissolved solids at 15.60C is fed to the evaporator
operating at 1 atm pressure abs. Saturated steam at 115.60C is 18. In a country where capital is scarce and energy cost is low, which is
available for use. Calculate the amount of distilled water produced appropriate to install?
per hour if the outlet liquid contains 800 ppm solids. a. multiple effect evaporator
a. 3595 kg/h c. 4215 kg/h b. single effect evaporator
b. 7191 kg/h d. 6543 kg/h
19. The fresh feed enters at the coldest effect.
9. A single effect evaporator concentrates 1 MT of 10 wt% sucrose a. feed-forward c. feed-backward
solution to 50%. The feed enters the evaporator at 200C and has a b. parallel-feed d. none of these
specific heat of 1.0. The evaporator is maintained at a vacuum of
600 mmHg. The heat is provided by saturated steam at 8.8 kg/cm2 20. In commercial practice, the areas in all effects for a multiple effect
gage. Assuming that no sensible heat is recovered in the evaporator are
evaporator, calculate the weight of heating steam, in kg, needed for a. greater c. lesser
concentrating the sucrose solution. b. constant d. equal
a. 1020 kg c. 2860 kg
b. 2100 kg d. 1430 kg 21. A multiple effect evaporator ______the steam cost
a. increases c. decreases
10. A single effect evaporator is being used to concentrate a feed of b. keep the same d. double
10000 lb/h of a cane sugar solution at 800F and containing a sugar
content of 150 Brix to 300 Brix for use in a food process. Saturated
steam at 2400F is available for heating. The vapor space in the
evaporator will be at 1 atm abs pressure. The overall U = 350
BTU/h-ft2-0F and the heat capacity of the feed CP = 0.91 BTU/lb-0F.
The boiling point rise of the solution can be estimated from BPR, 0F
= 3.2x + 11.2x2, where x is wt fraction of sugar solution. The heat of
solution can be considered negligible and neglected. Calculate the
area required for the evaporator.
a. 667 ft2 c. 333 ft2
b. 568 ft2 d. 495 ft2
1
For numbers 22 to 24: 32. In industrial crystallization from a solution, the two phase mixture of
A solution with a negligible boiling point rise is being evaporated in mother liquor and crystals of all sizes, which occupies the
a triple effect evaporator using saturated steam at 121.1°C. The crystallizer and is withdrawn as product is called
pressure in the vapor of the last effect is 25.6 kPa abs. The heat a. product crystals c. mother liquor
transfer coefficients are U1 = 2840, U2 = 1988, and U3 = 1420 b. magma d. invariant crystals
W/m2·K and the areas are equal. Estimate the boiling point in each
of the evaporators. 33. A solution of Na2SO4 in water is saturated at 50 0C. When a
saturated solution of Na2SO4 is cooled, crystals of Na2SO4 x 10H2O
22. T1 separate from the solution. If 1000 kg of this solution is cooled to 10
0
a. 381.7 K c. 286.2 K C, the percentage yield obtained is
b. 592.3 K d. 440.9 K Temperature, 0C Solubility of Na2SO4
(g per 100g water)
23. T2 50 46.7
a. 289.1 K b. 363.8 K 10 9
b. 501.5 K d. 411.1 K a. 91% c. 55%
b. 86% d. 73%
24. T3
a. 210.5 K c. 495.2 K For numbers 34 to 35:
b. 338.7 K d. 526.2 K A saturated solution containing 1500 kg of potassium chloride at
360 K is cooled in an open tank to 290 K. If the specific gravity of
25. Consider a four-effect standard vertical tube, each effect has 140 the solution is 1.2, the solubility of potassium chloride per 100 parts
m2 of heating surface, is to be used to concentrate, from 4% to 35% water is 53.55 at 360 K and 34.5 at 290 K.
percent solids, the total boiling point elevation is 100C. Forward
feed is to be used. Saturated steam is available at 1200C, and the 34. What is the capacity of the tank?
vacuum in the las effect corresponds to a boiling temperature of a. 4.56 m3 c. 2.99 m3
400C. the overall coefficients, in W/m2-K are 2950 in I, 2670 in II, b. 3.58 m3
d. 5.71 m3
2070 in III and 1360 in IV, all specific heats may be taken as 4.2
J/g-0C and radiation is negligible. Calculate the boiling point of 35. Calculate the mass of the crystals obtained, neglecting loss of
solution in effect number 1. water by evaporation.
a. 107.70C c. 101.50C a. 489 kg c. 112 kg
b. 112.30C d. 116.40C b. 653 kg d. 534 kg
36. Rasorite containing 85% Na2B4O7 x 4H2O is dissolved, filtered, and

26. ___ of the vapor is recovered and reuse in the multiple effect run to the crystallizer as a 25% solution of borax, Na2B4O7 x 10H2O
evaporator. at 150 0F. After cooling to 100 0F the crystals are centrifuged and go
a. heat transfer c. specific heat to the drier containing 5% moisture. The mother liquor contains 8%
b. latent heat d. sensible heat
borax. What yield of the crystals is obtained per ton of rasorite
27. It is the deposition and growth on body walls, and specially on processed?
heating surfaces, of a material undergoing an irreversible chemical a. 0.8 ton c. 0.7 ton
reaction in the evaporator. b. 0.6 ton d. 0.9 ton
a. salting c. scaling
b. fouling d. boiling 37. In practice, slow cooling maintaining a low level of supersaturation
produces ___ crystals and fast cooling produces ___ crystals.
28. It is the formation of deposits other than salt or scale and maybe a. small, large c. large, small
due to corrosion. b. fine, coarse d. coarse, fine
a. salting c. scaling
b. fouling d. boiling 38. It is the process by which crystalline bodies are created within a
supersaturated fluid.
a. polymorphism c. nucleation
b. crystal growth d. seeding
Crystallization 39. A tank holds 10000 kg of a saturated Na2CO3 at 300C. You want to
crystallize from this solution 3000 kg Na2CO3 x 10 H2O without any
For numbers 29 to 31: accompanying water. To what temperature must the solution be
A solution of sodium nitrate in water at a temperature of 400C cooled?
contains 49% NaNO3 by weight. Temperature (0C) Solubility (g Na2CO3/100 g H2O)
29. Calculate the percentage saturation of this solution. 0 7
a. 92% c. 96% 10 12.5
b. 84% d. 88% 20 21.5
30 38.8
30. Calculate the lb of NaNO3 that crystallized from 1000 lb of this a. 260C c. 100C
solution by cooling it to 100C. b. 180C d. 150C
a. 94 lb c. 82 lb
b. 76 lb d. 63 lb 40. When a solution is cooled to produce a supersaturated solution and
hence to cause crystallization, the heat that must be removed is the
31. Calculate the percentage yield of the process. sum of the ____ necessary to cool the solution and the heat of
a. 15.2% c. 18.1% crystallization.
b. 16.7% d. 17.5% a. heat of reaction c. enthalpy
b. sensible heat content d. heat of condensation
2
For numbers 41 to 43: 49. Calculate the percentage of the vapor condenses and the final
Ammonium sulfate is to be crystallized from a solution containing composition of the gas phase if the air is cooled to 800C at constant
48% (NH4)2SO4 by cooling it in a counter flow crystallizer from 85 to pressure.
350C. During cooling the amount of water that evaporates is 5% of
a. 20% c. 25%
the mass of the feed solution.
Data: b. 30% d. 35%
Feed rate = 1000 kg/h
Solubility of N(H4)2SO4 at 350C = 75 kg /100 kg of water 50. Calculate the percent condensation if, instead of being cooled, the
Specific heat of 48% (NH4)2SO4 at solution = 2.97 kJ/kg-K air is compressed isothermally to 8500 mmHg.
Heat of crystallization of (NH4)2SO4 = 75.2 kJ/kg a. 12% c. 15%
b. 18% c. 13%
41. Calculate the rate of formation of crystals.
a. 127.5 kg/h c. 822.5 kg/h
b. 678.3 kg/h d. 321.7 kh/h
In a vessel at 101.325 kN/m2 and 300K, the percentage relative
42. What is the cooling water rate, if it is heated from 18 to 290C? humidity of the water vapor in the air is 25. If partial pressure of
a. 764 kg/h c. 810 kg/h water vapor when air is saturated with vapor at 300K is 3.6 kN/m2,
calculate:
b. 505 kg/h d. 427 kg/h
51. The partial pressure of the water vapor in the vessels
43. Determine the required cooling surface, if the overall heat transfer a. 0.2 c. 0.7
is 125 W/m2-K. b. 0.5 d. 0.9
a. 3.13 m2 c. 1.95 m2
b. 2.52 m2 d. 4.02 m2 52. The humidity of the air
a. 0.006 c. 0.001
For numbers 44 to 46: b. 0.003 d. 0.008
Glauber’s salt, Na2SO4x10H2O, is to be produced in a
Swenson–Walker crystallizer by cooling to 290 K a solution of 53. The humid volume
anhydrous Na2SO4 which saturates between 300 K and 290 K. a. 0.352 m3/kg c. 0.857 m3/kg
Cooling water enters and leaves the unit at 280 K and 290 K b. 0.109 m3/kg d. 0.264 m3/kg
respectively and evaporation is negligible. The solubilities of
anhydrous Na2SO4 in water are 40 and 14 kg/100 kg water at 300 K 54. The percentage humidity
and 290 K respectively, the mean heat capacity of the liquor is 3.8 a. 31% c. 10%
kJ/kgK and the heat of crystallization is 230 kJ/kg. For the b. 46% d. 25 %
crystallizer, the available heat transfer area is 3 m2/m length, the
overall coefficient of heat transfer is 0.15 kW/m2-K. For numbers 55 to 58:
The absolute humidity of a carbon dioxide–water vapor mixture at
44. Calculate the amount of feed in kg/s 310 K and 100 kPa is measured to be 0.022 kg water per kg dry
a. 0.559 c. 0.342 carbon dioxide. Calculate the following:
b. 0.643 d. 0.488
55. The molal humidity
45. The total heat to be removed is a. 0.0267 c. 0.0537
a. 76 kW c. 92 kW b. 0.0336 d. 0.0011
b. 51 kW d. 88 kW
56. The percent relative saturation
46. How many sections of crystallizer, each 3 m long, will be required to a. 82.42% c. 81.48%
process 0.25 kg/s of the product? b. 80.36% d. 84.90%
a. 4 c. 2
b. 1 d. 6 57. The percent saturation
a. 82.42% c. 81.48%
47. What is the yield of sodium acetate crystals (CH3COONa x 3H2O) b. 80.36% d. 84.90%
obtainable from a vacuum crystallizer operating at 1.33 kN/m2 when
it is supplied with 0.56 kg/s of a 40 percent aqueous solution of the 58. The temperature to which the gas is to be heated at constant
salt at 353 K? The boiling point elevation of the solution is 11.5 K. pressure to reduce its percent saturation to 30 percent
Data: a. 337.5 K c. 345.5 K
Heat of crystallization, q = 144 kJ/kg trihydrate b. 327.5 K d. 461.5 K
Heat capacity of the solution, Cp = 3.5 kJ/kg deg K
Latent heat of water at 1.33 kN/m2, λ = 2.46 MJ/kg For numbers 59 to 62:
Boiling point of water at 1.33 kN/m2 = 290.7K The vapor pressure of styrene is 100 mmHg at 820C and 200
Solubility of sodium acetate product = 0.539 kg/kg water. mmHg at 1000C. A gas that consists of 10 mol% styrene and 90
a. 0.15 kg/s c. 0.18 kg/s mol% non-condensable is contained in a tank at 1000C and 1000
b. 0.12 kg/s d. 0.16 kg/s mmHg. Calculate:
59. The dew point of the gas

Humidification a. 770C c. 820C
b. 1000C d. 960C
A stream of air at 1000C and 5260 mmHg contains 10% water by 60. The relative saturation
volume. a. 20% c. 30%
b. 40% d. 50%
48. Calculate the dew point.
a. 900F c. 830F
0
b. 72 F d. 650F
3
61. The molal saturation 74. Which of the following processes may always be regarded as a
a. 0.111 c. 0.087 constant-humidity process?
b. 0.206 d. 0.150 a. cooling of air
b. air conditioning
62. The percentage saturation c. water-cooling in a cooling tower
a. 33.3% c. 44.4% d. heating of air
b. 55.5% d. 66.6%
75. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures become identical at
For 63 to 65: a. 100% saturation curve c. 50% saturation curve
A gas mixture contains 0.0083 mol of water vapor per mol of dry b. 78% saturation curve d. none of these
methane at a temperature of 270C and a total pressure of 200 kPa.
76. Steady state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid
63. Percent relative saturation of the mixture evaporating into a large amount of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture is
a. 46% c. 58% a. dry-bulb temperature
b. 33% d. 60% b. wet bulb temperature
c. dew point
64. Percent saturation of the mixture d. adiabatic saturation temperature
a. 65% c. 46%
b. 77% d. 50% 77. The semiconductor plant at the Food Terminal Export Zone, an
adiabatic dryer is used where air enters at 160°F. If the air has a
65. Temperature to which the mixture must be heated at 200 kPa in dew point of 68°F and it picked up 0.08 lb water per 100 ft3, how
order that the relative saturation will be 0.20. saturated is the air coming out of the dryer?
a. 530C c. 370C a. 50% c. 60%
b. 640C d. 420C b. 70% d. 80%
66. In a process in which it is used as a solvent, benzene is evaporated For numbers 78 to 79:
into dry nitrogen. At 297 K and 101.3 kN/m2, the resulting mixture It is desired to condition saturated atmospheric air at 70°F with
has a percentage relative humidity of 60. It is required to recover 80 entrained 0.0008 lb water per cu ft air to hot air at 200°F dry bulb
per cent of the benzene present by cooling to 283 K and and 115°F wet bulb temperatures. The air is passed thru a heater,
compressing to a suitable pressure. What should this pressure be? then thru an adiabatic humidifier, then thru a reheater. The air, as it
The vapor pressure of benzene is 12.2 kN/m2 at 297 K and 6.0 leaves the adiabatic humidifier, has a humidity of 90%. Calculate
kN/m2 at 283 K. the temperature of the air as it leaves the
a. 392 kPa c. 345 kPa
b. 353 kPa d. 386 kPa 78. Heater
a. 1060F c. 1370F
3 2
67. 30,000 m of cool gas (measured at 289 K and 101.3 kN/m b. 1150F d. 1240F
saturated with water vapor) is compressed to 340 kN/m2 pressure,
cooled to 289 K and the condensed water is drained off. 79. Adiabatic humidifier
Subsequently the pressure is reduced to 170 kN/m3 and the gas is a. 2280F c. 2390F
distributed at this pressure and 289 K. What is the percentage b. 2020F d. 2150F
humidity after this treatment? The vapor pressure of water at 289 K
is 1.8 kN/m2. For numbers 80 to 82:
a. 26.50% c. 31.25% 1000 cfm of air (A) at 950F dry bulb, 740F wet bulb is mixed with
b. 49.73% d. 54.91% 2000 cfm of air (B) at 650F dry bulb, 540F wet bulb. Determine for
the mixed stream:
The air supply for a dryer has a dry-bulb temperature of 700F and a 80. The dry bulb temperature
wet bulb temperature of 600F. It is heated to 2000F by coils and a. 830F c. 750F
0
blown into the dryer. In the dryer it cools along an adiabatic cooling b. 90 F d. 850F
line and leaves the dryer fully saturated.
81. The wet bulb temperature
68. What is the dew point of the initial air? a. 610F c. 500F
a. 620F c. 400F b. 550F d. 680F
b. 350F d. 540F
82. The cfm of mixed stream
69. What is its humidity? a. 3000 cfm c. 3100 cfm
a. 0.0066 c. 0.0087 b. 3050 cfm b. 2990 cfm
b. 0.0090 d. 0.0052
83. If 100 lb of dry air at 500F db and 500F wb is mixed with 300 lb of
70. What is its percentage relative humidity? dry air at 1100F db and 800F wb, the resulting mixture will have a
a. 33% c. 55% dry bulb temperature of
b. 44% d. 66% a. 800F c. 850F
0
b. 90 F d. 950F
71. How much heat is needed to heat 100 ft3 to 2000F?
a. 235 BTU c. 168 BTU 84. What is the wet bulb temperature of the resulting mixture for the
b. 107 BTU d. 240 BTU mixed air of Problem 84?
a. 850F c. 650F
72. How much water will be evaporated per 100 ft3 of entering air? b. 730F d. 700F
a. 0.262 lb c. 0.185 lb
b. 0.333 lb d. 0.497 lb 85. The degrees of freedom associated with a humidification process is
a. 1 c. 2
73. At what temperature does the air leave the dryer? b. 3 d. 4
a. 860F c. 720F
0
b. 93 F d. 610F
4
86. Which of the following remains constant during sensible cooling 98. A wet solid is dried in a batch drier under constant drying conditions
process? from 25% db to 10% db in 4.17 hours. The critical moisture content
a. specific humidity is 15% db and its equilibrium moisture content is 5% db. How long
b. partial pressure of vapor will it take to dry the solid from 30% db to 8% db under the same
c. both a and b drying conditions?
d. neither a nor b a. 6.66 hours c. 4.44 hours
b. 2.65 hours d. 1.44 hours
87. During sensible cooling process
a. relative humidity decreases 99. Wet solid is dried in a batch dryer under constant drying conditions
b. relative humidity increases from 35% to 10% in 7 hours. The critical moisture content is 20%
c. wet bulb temperature increases and the equilibrium moisture is 4%. All moisture contents are on dry
d. both b and c basis. How long should it take to dry the same solid from 10% to
5% moisture under the same drying conditions.
For numbers 88 to 90: a. 6.5 hrs c. 5.1 hrs
Air in an amount 1000 cfm at 1500F, 20% RH is passed over a b. 3.3 hrs d. 4.8 hrs
refrigerated coil and thereby brought to 600F, 90% RH with the
condensed moisture withdrawn at 550F. The air is then reheated by 100. Wet solid is to be dried from 40 to 10% in 5 hours under constant
means of an electric heating coil to 1500F. drying conditions. The critical moisture is 20% and the equilibrium
moisture content is 7%. All moisture contents are on a dry basis.
88. Compute the moisture removed in lb/min. The time needed to dry from 15% to 5% free moisture under the
a. 1.44 c. 3.67 same drying conditions is
b. 2.08 d. 4.19 a. 4.28 hrs c. 1.85 hrs
b. 2.67 hrs d. 2.03 hrs
89. Compute the heat removed by the refrigerated coil, expressed as
tons of refrigerated coil, expressed as tons of refrigeration. 101. A porous material dries in the open air at a rate approximately
a. 11 c. 17 proportional to its moisture content. If a sheet hangs in the wind
b. 15 d. 13 losses half its free moisture in the first hour, when will it have lost
99%, weather conditions remaining the same?
90. Calculate the wattage of the heating coil required. a. 6.6 hrs c. 4.7 hrs
a. 38 kW c. 25 kW b. 7.5 hrs d. 8.1 hrs
b. 16 kW d. 44 kW
102. The initial moisture content of a food product is 77% (wet basis),
Drying and the critical moisture content is 30% (wet basis). If the constant
drying rate is 0.1 kg H2O / m2-s, compute the time required for the
91. To remove all the moisture from a wet solid requires exposure to product to begin the falling rate drying period. Neglect equilibrium
a. perfectly dry air c. highly humid air moisture content. The product has a cube shape with 5 cm sides,
b. air at high temperature d. none of these and the initial product density is 950 kg/m3.
a. 23.4 s c. 34.6 s
92. The portion of water in the wet solid that cannot be removed by the b. 48.5 s d. 53.2 s
air in its contact is called
a. free moisture For numbers 103 to 105:
b. final moisture content Ipil-ipil leaves will be dried in a moving train of trays dryers. The wet
c. equilibrium moisture content leaves containing 75 % water (wet basis) is to be dried to 15% (wet
d. critical moisture content basis) in tray containing 1 m x 1.5 m. The wet leaves are spread out
in the tray to a uniform thickness of 8 cm. Calculate:
93. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium
moisture is called 103. The number of trays needed to produce 1 MT of the dried leaves
a. unbound moisture c. free moisture a. 20 c. 45
b. critical moisture d. bound moisture b. 38 d. 17
94. When drying banana chips under the sun, the rate of drying is 104. The amount of water removed/MT of product. The density of the
faster on a leaves is 0.75 g/cc
a. slightly breezy day c. calm day a. 2400 kg c. 3300 kg
b. cloudy day d. hot and windy day b. 5800 kg d. 4700 kg
95. The critical moisture content in case of drying indicates 105. If dry hot air at 20% RH and a dry bulb temperature of 1100F is
a. beginning of falling rate period blown into the dryer and moist air leaves at 1050F dry bulb and 860F
b. beginning of constant rate period wet bulb temperatures, how many ft3 of dry hot air will be needed
c. end of falling rate period per MT of product?
d. none of these a. 8.05x106 ft3 c. 6.41x106 ft3
b. 4.98x106 ft3 d.5.22x106 ft3
96. In drying at the falling rate period, the rate at which moisture is
removed from the solid material 106. An adiabatic tunnel dryer handles 100 kg of banana chips per batch
a. increases with time reducing the moisture content from 50% and 12% wet basis. Drying
b. remains constant takes 10 hours to complete by flowing air at 82 0C and 5% R.H. The
c. decreases with time air leaves the dryer saturated. Assuming that the rate of drying is
d. no more drying takes place constant, calculate the volume of air blown in m3/hr.
a. 222 c. 250
97. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff b. 267 d. 208
can be dried
a. in indirect tray dryer c. in spray dryer
b. by freeze drying d. festoon dryer
5
107. Detergent solution is dried to a powder in a

a. spray dryer c. spouted bed dryer
b. tunnel dryer d. pan open to atmosphere
108. Calcium ammonium nitrate (a fertilizer) is dried in a

a. rotary dryer c. vacuum dryer
b. tunnel dryer d. none of these
109. Rotary dryer cannot handle

a. free flowing materials c. dry materials
b. sticky materials d. granular materials

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CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

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For numbers 38 to 40:

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40. How many pounds of limestone are needed to make 1 ton of

54. The kg of TiO2 ore fed.

For numbers 51 to 53:

For number 64 to 65: 74. % Combined water in VCM

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71. % Fixed carbon

72. % Combined water

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2. Thermal diffusivity of a material Data:

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83. Calculate minimum velocity for fluidization.

63. Calculate the reactor volume for a backmix reactor.

For numbers 64 to 65:

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