교재4) Mechanical Pe Thermal and Fluids Full Exam 2017

Mechanical
Full Exam PE
Engineering Pro Guides
Thermal & Fluids

April 2017 Version
80 exam difficulty level problems

Covers Mechanical PE Thermal & Fluids exam topics
Written in exam format
Also includes detailed solutions
Justin Kauwale, P.E.
SECTION 1
INTRODUCTION
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Introduction
Table of Contents
1.0 Introduction ............................................................................................................................. 2
1.1 Key Concepts and Skills ...................................................................................................... 2
1.2 Units .................................................................................................................................... 5
2.0 Disclaimer ............................................................................................................................... 5
3.0 How to use this Book .............................................................................................................. 5
4.0 Sample exam tips ................................................................... Error! Bookmark not defined.
5.0 Recommended References .................................................................................................... 9
5.1 Mechanical Engineering Reference Manual ........................................................................ 9
5.2 Engineering Unit Conversions Book .................................................................................... 9
5.3 Schaum's Outline of Thermodynamics for Engineers, 3rd Edition ...................................... 9
5.4 Schaum's Outline of Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics, 4th Edition .................................... 10
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1.0 INTRODUCTION
One of the most important steps in an engineer's career is obtaining the professional
engineering (P.E.) license. It allows an individual to legally practice engineering in the state of
licensure. This credential can also help to obtain higher compensation and develop a credible
reputation. In order to obtain a P.E. license, the engineer must first meet the qualifications as
required by the state of licensure, including minimum experience, references and the passing of
the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) exam. Engineering
Pro Guides focuses on helping engineers pass the NCEES exam through the use of free
content on the website, http://www.engproguides.com and through the creation of books like
sample exams and guides that outline how to pass the PE exam.
The key to passing the PE exam is to learn the key concepts and skills that are tested on the
exam. There are several issues that make this key very difficult. First, the key concepts and
skills are unknown to most engineers studying for the exam. Second, the key concepts and
skills are not contained in a single document. This exam tests the key concepts and skills
required to pass the Mechanical - Thermal & Fluids Mechanical P.E. Exam.
1.1 KEY CONCEPTS AND SKILLS

How are the key concepts and skills determined?
The key concepts and skills tested in this sample exam were first developed through an analysis
of the topics and information presented by NCEES. NCEES indicates on their website that the
P.E. Exam will cover an AM exam (4 hours) followed by a PM exam (4 hours) and that the exam
will be 80 questions long, 40 questions in the morning and 40 questions in the afternoon. The
Thermal & Fluids Mechanical PE exam will focus on the following topics as indicated by
NCEES. (http://ncees.org/engineering/pe/):
I. Principles (32 questions)
A) Basic Engineering Practice (6 questions)

1 Engineering terms and symbols
2 Economic analysis
3 Units and conversions
B) Fluid Mechanics (6 questions)
1 Fluid properties (e.g., density, viscosity)
2 Compressible flow (e.g., Mach number, nozzles, diffusers)
3 Incompressible flow (e.g., friction factor, Reynolds number, lift, drag)
C) Heat Transfer Principles (e.g., convection, conduction, radiation) (6 questions)
D) Mass Balance Principles ((e.g., evaporation, dehumidification, mixing)) (4 questions)
E) Thermodynamics (7 questions)
1 Thermodynamic properties (e.g., enthalpy, entropy)
2 Thermodynamic cycles (e.g., Combined, Brayton, Rankine)
3 Energy Balances (e.g., 1st and 2nd laws)
4 Combustion (e.g., stoichiometrics, efficiency)
F) Support Knowledge (4 questions)
1 Pipe system analysis (e.g., pipe stress, pipe supports, hoop stress)
2 Joints (e.g., welded, bolted, threaded)
3 Psychrometrics (e.g., dew point, relative humidity)
4 Codes and Standards
II. Hydraulic and Fluid Applications
A. Hydraulic and Fluid Equipment (15 questions)

1. Pumps and fans (e.g., cavitation, curves, power, series, parallel)
2. Compressors (e.g., dynamic head, power, efficiency)
3. Pressure vessels (e.g., design factors, materials, pressure relief)
4. Control valves (e.g., flow characteristics, sizing)
5. Actuators (e.g., hydraulic, pneumatic)
6. Connections (e.g., fittings, tubing)
B. Distribution Systems (e.g., pipe flow) (9 questions)
III. Energy/Power System Applications
A. Energy/Power Equipment (8 questions)

1. Turbines (e.g., steam, gas)
2. Boilers and steam generators (e.g., heat rate, efficiency)
3. Internal combustion engines (e.g., compression ratio, BMEP)
4. Heat exchangers (e.g., shell and tube, feedwater heaters)
5. Cooling towers (e.g., approach, drift, blowdown)
6. Condensers (e.g., surface area, materials)
B. Cooling/Heating (e.g., capacity, loads, cycles) (6 questions)
C. Energy Recovery (e.g., waste heat, storage) (5 questions)
D. Combined Cycles (e.g., components, efficiency) (5 questions
Next, each of these broad topics were investigated and filtered for concepts and skills that met
the following criteria:
(1) First, the concept and skill must be commonly encountered in the Thermal & Fluids field
of study. For example, in the Thermal & Fluids field: Power cycles, steam properties, pump
sizing, fan sizing, determining friction losses and calculating net positive suction head are
regular occurrences in the Thermal & Fluids field.
(2) Second, the skill and concept must be testable in roughly 6 minutes per problem . There
are (40) questions on the morning exam and you will be provided with 4 hours to complete the
exam. The same is true for the afternoon portion of the exam. This results in an average of 6
minutes per problem. This criterion limits the complexity of the exam problems and the resulting
solutions. For example, pressure drop calculations are common in the Thermal & Fluids field,
but the calculation is often very lengthy because of the number of steps involved, especially if a
unique fluid and flow condition is used. Thus, common fluids like water/air and common
pipe/duct materials are used.
(3) Third, the key concepts and skills must be used or be known by practicing Mechanical
engineers in the Thermal & Fluids field. This criterion is similar to the first criterion. However,
this criterion filters the concepts and skills further by limiting the field to material encountered
and used by practicing engineers . The HVAC & Refrigeration, Thermal & Fluids and
Mechanical Systems & Materials fields are vast and there are many different avenues an
engineer can take. Two diverging paths are those engineers involved in research and those
who practice. Research engineers are pushing the boundaries of the field and are highly
focused in their specific area of the field. The Professional Engineering exam does not cover
emerging technologies or highly focused material.
(4) The P.E. Exam must test the principle or application of the skill and concept and not the
background knowledge of the topic or concept. The exam also does not cover background
information on the NCEES topics. The P.E. Exam is meant to prove that the test taker is
minimally competent to practice in the Mechanical Engineering field. The exam is less
concerned with theory and more with the principle or application of the theory, skill or concept.
For example, the P.E. exam is less concerned with the theory of evaporation in a cooling tower
and more with the performance and selection of a cooling tower.
In summary, this book is intended to test the necessary skills and concepts to develop a
minimally competent, practicing professional engineer in the Mechanical Engineering – Thermal
& Fluids field, capable of passing the P.E. exam.
1.2 UNITS
The primary units that are used in the P.E. Exam are United States Customary System Units
(USCS). As such, this guide focuses exclusively on the USCS. However, it is recommended
that the test taker have a conversion book, because certain areas of the P.E. Exam may use the
International System of Units (SI).
2.0 DISCLAIMER
In no event will Engineering Pro Guides be liable for any incidental, indirect, consequential,
punitive or special damages of any kind, or any other damages whatsoever, including, without
limitation, those resulting from loss of profit, loss of contracts, loss of reputation, goodwill, data,
information, income, anticipated savings or business relationships, whether or not Engineering
Pro Guides has been advised of the possibility of such damage, arising out of or in connection
with the use of this document or any referenced documents and/or websites.
This book was created on the basis of determining an independent interpretation of the
minimum required knowledge and skills of a professional engineer. In no way does this
document represent the National Council of Examiners for Engineers and Surveying views or
the views of any other professional engineering society.
3.0 HOW TO USE THIS BOOK

First, it is recommended that the engineer in training gather the recommended references
presented in the following section.
Engineering Pro Guides sample exams can be used in multiple ways, depending on where you
are in your study process. If you are at the beginning or middle, it can be used to test your
competency, gain an understanding and feel for the test format, and help to highlight target
areas to study. If you are at the end, it can be used to determine your preparedness for the real
exam. Remember that the questions are a sample of the many topics that may be tested and
are limited to fit a full exam length and therefore is not comprehensive of all concepts.
Because the exam is written to be similar to the difficulty and format of the NCEES exam, it is
recommended that the test be completed in one sitting and timed for four hours to simulate the
real exam. This will give you a better indication of your status of preparation for the exam. If
you are at the ending of your studying, it is recommended to couple this exam with the PM
section to simulate the full exam test day.
Review the exam day rules and replicate the environment for the real test as much as possible,
including the type of calculator you may use and the acceptable references. Keep a watch or
clock next to you to gauge your pace for 40 questions in 4 hours.
Based on the NCEES website, the following are general rules for exam day.
Allowed:
1. Snacks that are not disruptive to others

2. Watches and small clocks
3. Religious head coverings
4. Two straight edges: e.g. ruler, scale, protractor, triangle
5. Approved references
6. Approved calculator (2 recommended for backup)
7. Eyeglasses
8. Non electronic magnifying glass
9. (Units conversion book is also recommended)
Prohibited:
1. Cell phones
2. Hats and hoods
3. Slide charts, wheel charts, drafting compasses
4. Weapons
5. Tobacco
6. Personal Chairs
7. Eyeglass/Magnifying glass cases
8. Scratch Paper (all writing must be done in the exam booklet)
For additional references on exam day policies, exam day processes, and items to bring
on your exam day, review the NCEES Examinee Guide:
http://ncees.org/exams/examinee-guide/
Similar to the NCEES exam, the tested topics are presented in a random order. For best use of
your time, answer the questions that you know first and return to the questions that you are
unfamiliar with later. Once all the known questions are answered, go through the test again and
attempt to answer the remaining questions by level of difficulty. If time allots, review your
answers.
If you are stuck on a question, seek the following avenues.
1. Study Guide: It is important to understand your study guides and indices. During times
of uncertainty, these will likely lead you to your answers. Determine the key concept that
is being asked in the question and refer to your indices or pre-tabbed sections. The
concepts in the morning exam are meant to be broader and will likely be found in the
Mechanical Engineering Reference Manual (MERM) or one of the other references,
listed below.
2. Process of Elimination: There are only four possible choices for each question. Ask
yourself if there is an answer that does not make sense and eliminate it. Further narrow
down the answer that are derived from equations or concepts that you know are not right
and are instead meant to deceive the test taker. See if there are answers that are
similar or separated by something like a conversion error. This may be an indication that
the correct equation was used.
3. Educated Guess: Remember that there is no penalty for wrong answers. Hopefully with
the process of elimination you are able to narrow down as many answers as possible
and are able to create an educated guess.
4. Rules of Thumb: Rules of thumb can be used to not only speed up time, but to help lead
you in the right direction.
5. If the time is almost up and there are still unanswered questions remaining, determine
whether it makes sense to check for mistakes on the problems you do know how to
solve, or to tackle the unanswered problems.
Typical Exam Verbiage/Design:
1. Most Nearly: Due to rounding differences, the exam answers will not match yours
exactly and in fact may not closely resemble your answer. NCEES uses the term “most
nearly” to test your confidence in your solution. When the question prompts you with
“most nearly”, choose the answer that most closely matches yours, whether it be greater
than or lesser to your value.
2. Irrelevant Information: The exam is intended to test your overall understanding of

concepts. At times the question will include unnecessary information that is meant to
misdirect you.
3. Deceiving Answers: NCEES wants to know that you are able to determine the
appropriate methods for the solutions. There are answers that were intentionally
produced from wrong equations to mislead the test taker. For example, you may forget
a 1/2 in the formula, KE = (1/2)MV2 and there would be two answers each off by a factor
of 1/2.
4. Do Not Overanalyze: The exam questions are meant to be completed in 6 minutes.

Therefore, they are intended to be written as straight forward as possible. Do not be
tempted to overanalyze the meaning of a question. This will only lead you down the
wrong path.
Review the Solutions:
Once the sample test is completed, grade your results. Measure your aptitude in speed,
concept comprehension, and overall score. If you score is above the 75% range then you are in
good shape. This 75% score is only applicable if you have prepared completely for the exam. If
you are just starting out, then please do not be worried about a low score. This is number is
also just a range; there is no finite score to determine passing the test. Instead, NCEES
calibrates the results against practicing professional engineers. See this page
http://ncees.org/exams/scoring-process/ for a better understanding of how NCEES grades the
scores.
Review the answers that you got wrong and use the solutions as a learning tool on how to
address these types of problems. Compare the types of questions you are missing with the
NCEES outline of topics and determine where you should focus your studying. Finally repeat as
many practice problems as you can to get a better grasp of the test and to continually improve
your score.
4.0 RECOMMENDED REFERENCES
The following references are recommended to be reviewed prior to the exam and should be
used during the exam. When reviewing these references, make sure you first understand the
content. These references do not go into depth on explaining the equations or concepts but are
simply references. If you require more background information on any of the information in
these references, then you may need to research the information on the internet. Secondly, you
should be very familiar with the indices of these references and should be able to navigate the
references to find information quickly. This may require you to insert tabs into the references.
Once you have completed these two tasks then you should be ready to use these references
during the exam. (Tip: It is helpful to have the indices of your references printed separately to
allow you to have both the index and the reference material open at the same time, making for
quicker searches.)
4.1 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING REFERENCE MANUAL

By Michael Lindeburg PE
The Mechanical Engineering Reference Manual or MERM is the most popular and most
comprehensive manual designed for the Mechanical Professional Engineering exam. It is
recommended that the engineer be very familiar with the contents of this book and to bring this
book to the exam. This book and the engineering unit conversions book should allow you to
answer a good portion of the exam questions.
Amazon Link i: Mechanical Engineering Reference Manual for PE Exam, 13th Edition
4.2 ENGINEERING UNIT CONVERSIONS BOOK

By Michael Lindeburg PE
Another book related to the MERM is the Engineering Unit Conversions book. This is also
another recommended book to use during the exam and while studying for the exam.
Amazon Linki: Engineering Unit Conversions
4.3 SCHAUM'S OUTLINE OF THERMODYNAMICS FOR ENGINEERS, 3RD EDITION

By Merle Potter, Craig W. Somerton
This book covers the Energy/Power Systems section. Although it is not as concise as the
previous two references, it does provide a little explanation and background information on
concepts.
Amazon Linki: Schaum's Outline of Thermodynamics for Engineers, 3rd Edition
4.4 SCHAUM'S OUTLINE OF FLUID MECHANICS AND HYDRAULICS, 4TH EDITION
By Cheng Liu, Giles Ranald, Jack Evett
This book covers the Hydraulics and Fluids section. This reference is similar to the previous
reference. It provides the key equations and concepts but also provides a little background
information on concepts.
Amazon Linki: Schaum's Outline of Fluid Mechanics and Hydraulics, 4th Edition
i
Justin Kauwale is a participant in the Amazon Services LLC Associates Program, an affiliate advertising program designed to
provide a means for sites to earn advertising fees by advertising and linking to amazon.com
SECTION 2
AM SESSION QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Honey has a dynamic viscosity of 1,000 poise, a specific heat capacity of 0.6 cal/g-oC, and a
density of 0.05 oz/mL. The kinematic viscosity of honey, in ft2/sec, is most nearly?
(A) 0.76
(B) 7.1
(C) 25
(D) 30
QUESTION 2
50 GPM of water flows through a 2-1/2" pipe and then branches into (2) pipes shown in the
figure below. If the velocity in the 1-1/2" pipe is measured at 4 ft/sec, then what is the velocity
through the 1" pipe?
(A) 3.9 ft/sec
(B) 5.6 ft/sec
(C) 7.2 ft/sec
(D) 9.1 ft/sec
Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

AM Session Questions -1
QUESTION 3
A heat pump provides 85.0 MBTUH of cooling, 66.0 MBTUH of heating and uses 5.9 KW of
electricity. What is the COP of the heat pump during heating?
(A) 3.3
(B) 3.5
(C) 4.8
(D) 6.8
QUESTION 4
A new machine is installed in order to increase productivity. This new machine costs $75,000
and has an ongoing operating and maintenance cost of $500 per month. The new machine will
save $2,000 per month and will have a salvage value of $10,000 after 10 years. If the interest
rate is 5%, then what is the annual cost of the new machine?
(A) $8,243
(B) $9,038
(C) $12,038
(D) $9,083

QUESTION 5
A company requires a return on investment for all proposed projects to be better than 5%. If a
project proposes to install high efficiency equipment with an initial investment of $100,000, a
projected savings of $775 per month and a salvage value of $20,000 at the end of the 10 year
lifetime of the equipment, then which of the following statements is true?
(A) The project should not be completed, because the return on investment is 2%.
(B) The project should not be completed, because the return on investment is 7%.
(C) The project should be completed, because the return on investment is 2%.
(D) The project should be completed, because the return on investment is 7%.

QUESTION 6
What is the difference in annual value for the following two projects? Assume the interest rate is
5% and the lifetime of both projects is 15 years.
Project A: Initial investment $50,000. Maintenance $1,000/year.
Project B: Initial investment $20,000. Maintenance $2,000/year.
(A) Project A: -$5,815; Project B: -$3,926
(B) Project A: -$3,667; Project B: -$2,456
(C) Project A: $3,941; Project B: $2,523
(D) Project A: $5,815; Project B: $3,926
QUESTION 7
100 lbs/hr of steam flow through a 4” steel schedule 40 pipe. What is the Reynolds number?
Assume the specific volume of the steam is 14 ft3/lb and the viscosity is 8.42 x 10-6 lbm/ft-sec.
(A) 7,500
(B) 9,750
(C) 10,500
(D) 12,500

QUESTION 8
A condenser water pump takes 200 GPM water from the bottom of a cooling tower and supplies
cooling water to a heat exchanger, then it is re-circulated back to the top of the cooling tower.
The condenser water pump is located at grade level. The bottom of the cooling tower is located
3’ above grade and the top of the cooling tower is located 15’ above grade. If there is a total
friction loss of 75 ft of head in the entire cooling water system, then what is the minimum
mechanical horsepower of the pump?
15’
Cooling Tower
3’
Grade
(A) 1 HP
(B) 3 HP
(C) 5 HP
(D) 7.5 HP

QUESTION 9
A 100 GPM condenser water pump is supplied with water by a cooling tower basin that is 5 ft
above the centerline of the pump. The pressure loss due to friction is 2 feet of head.
Condenser water pump serves a cooling tower with entering and leaving conditions of 95 F and
85 F. What is the net positive suction head available at the condenser water pump?
(A) 7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(B) 31 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(C) 35 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(D) 37 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
QUESTION 10
A feedwater pump circulates 500 GPM of water through a system consisting of a heat
exchanger (pressure drop = 10 feet of head) and 200 feet of 6” standard schedule 40 steel pipe
with twenty 6” standard elbows. What is the total pressure loss due to the piping, elbows and
the heat exchanger?
(A) 31 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(B) 21 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(C) 11 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(D) 7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

QUESTION 11
50 F water flows through a 6" schedule 40 steel pipe at a volumetric flow rate of 200 gallons per
minute. What is the Reynolds number?
(A) 80,000
(B) 100,000
(C) 150,000
(D) 220,000

QUESTION 12
500 GPM of water flows through a 6" schedule 40 pipe. If the pipe has a relative roughness
value of .0004 and a Reynolds number of 250,000, then what is the pressure drop through 100
ft of pipe?
(A) 1.7 ft of head
(B) 3.3 ft of head
(C) 4.2 ft of head
(D) 4.9 ft of head
QUESTION 13
A 4” diameter copper pipe carries hot water from the heater to the equipment. The surface
temperature of the pipe is 200 F. The ambient temperature is 75 F. Assume that the
convective heat transfer coefficient is 1.85 Btu/(hr-ft2-F). What is the total heat loss per 100 feet
of pipe?
(A) 24,300 Btuh
(B) 31,900 Btuh
(C) 43,600 Btuh
(D) 67,100 Btuh

QUESTION 14
A wall consists of a 6” brick wall with a thermal conductance of 20 Btu-in/hr-ft2-F. The internal
convective heat transfer coefficient is 1.0 Btu/hr-ft2-F and the external convective heat transfer
coefficient is 2.0 Btu/hr-ft2-F. What R-value of insulation is required to achieve an overall R-20
value for the entire system.
ℎ𝑟𝑟−𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 −℉
(A) 15.1
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
(B) 16.8
(C) 17.2
(D) 18.2
QUESTION 15
A new solar hot water heating system has two loops, (1) solar hot water loop and a (2) domestic
hot water loop. The loops are separated by a plate frame heat exchanger. If the solar hot water
fluid enters the heat exchanger at 160 F and leaves at 130 F and the domestic hot water enters
at 80 F and leaves at 120 F, then what is the LMTD?
(A) 30 F
(B) 31.3 F
(C) 33.7 F
(D) 35 F

QUESTION 16
32 F Chilled water passes through a 4” schedule 40 steel pipe at a flow rate of 100 GPM. What
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
is the Prandtl number? The viscosity is 4.31( ) and the thermal diffusivity is 1.54 x 10-7 ft2/s.
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓−ℎ𝑟𝑟
The heat capacity of chilled water is 1.01 � �
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙∗℉
(A) 1.4
(B) 5.2
(C) 13.7
(D) 15.1
QUESTION 17
A 4” schedule 40 steel pipe carries 100 GPM of chilled water. The chilled water is at a
temperature of 45 F. The exterior of the pipe is measured at a temperature of 50 F. The
thermal conductivity of steel is 30 � �. What is the chilled water total heat loss from 100
ℎ𝑟𝑟∗𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓∗℉
feet of pipe? Assume there is no convective or radiative heat loss.
(A) 400,000 Btu/hr
(B) 800,000 Btu/hr
(C) 1,000,000 Btu/hr
(D) 1,800,000 Btu/hr

QUESTION 18
There is 125 GPM of 45 °F water flowing through a 4” diameter pipe that is located in the ceiling
of a building. The temperature in the ceiling is 85 °F and the temperature of the outer surface of
the pipe is 49 °F. Calculate the convective heat transfer at the fluid inside the pipe. Assume the
water in the pipe is not under extreme pressure and assume the Reynolds number is 1,700,000.
(A) 25
ℎ∗𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 ∗℉
(B) 6,000
(C) 36,000
(D) 71,000

QUESTION 19
What is the air to fuel ratio? Assume the equation is balanced.
𝐶𝐶4 𝐻𝐻10 + 6.5(𝑂𝑂2 + 3.76𝑁𝑁2 ) → 4𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂2 + 5𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂 + 24.44𝑁𝑁2
(A) 10.1
(B) 12.9
(C) 14.8
(D) 15.4

QUESTION 20
An open feedwater heater is supplied with 200 lbm/hr of water at 70 F and steam from the
turbine at 100 lbm/hr at 300 F. Assume the pressure of the water and steam is 14.7 psia. What
is the resulting enthalpy and mass flow rate of the mixture?
(A) 200 lbm/hr at h =420 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
(B) 250 lbm/hr at h =170 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
(C) 300 lbm/hr at h =420 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
(D) 300 lbm/hr at h = 750 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
QUESTION 21
The combustion process follows the below stoichiometric combustion reaction. It is required to
provide 15% excess air for the combustion process. If there are 100 pounds of fuel provided,
then what is the mass of air required?
𝐶𝐶4 𝐻𝐻10 + 6.5(𝑂𝑂2 + 3.76𝑁𝑁2 ) → 4(𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂2 ) + 5(𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂) + 24.4𝑁𝑁2
(A) 1,000 lbm air
(B) 1,200 lbm air
(C) 1,500 lbm air
(D) 1,800 lbm air

QUESTION 22
An air handler has 10,000 CFM of air at 80° F DB/60 % Rel. Hum pass through its cooling coil
with an apparatus dew point of 53° F. The resulting discharge air temperature from the coil is
55° F DB/ 54° F WB. What is the total amount of condensate produced? Assume sea level.
(A) 0.05 GPM
(B) 0.35 GPM
(C) 0.77 GPM
(D) 0.91 GPM
QUESTION 23
A new heat exchanger uses steam to heat water. Steam (50 lb/min) enters the heat exchanger
at 20 psia, fully saturated and leaves as a saturated liquid. What mass flow rate of water can be
expected to provide a 40 degree change in temperature?
(A) 1,000 lb/min
(B) 1,200 lb/min
(C) 1,300 lb/min
(D) 1,400 lb/min

QUESTION 24
A concentrated solar power system produces steam at 800oF, 400 psia and 157 lbm/hr. If the
steam expands through a turbine to 5 psia at 75% isentropic efficiency, and 85% mechanical
efficiency, how much power (KW) does the turbine generate? Assume a density of 0.0196
LBM/FT^3.
(A) 11.3 KW
(B) 15.1 KW
(C) 17.7 KW
(D) 21.2 KW

QUESTION 25
The following pressure-enthalpy diagram shows the vapor compression cycle for the refrigerant
R-134a. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) The compressor work occurs at Step 2 at constant enthalpy.
(B) The expansion device is used at Step 4 to conduct an isobaric process.
(C) At Step 2, the compressor conducts an isentropic process.
(D) At Step 4, the expansion device increases the pressure of the refrigerant at constant
enthalpy.

QUESTION 26
Steam enters a turbine at 600 F at a mass flow rate of 200 lbm/min. Steam enters the turbine at
a pressure of 600 psia and leaves at 14.7 psia. What is the total turbine power output?
Assume the turbine is 100% efficient.
(A) 1,000 KW
(B) 1,250 KW
(C) 1,750 KW
(D) 2,000 KW
QUESTION 27
A Brayton cycle consists of a 20 KW turbine and an 8 KW compressor. Assume the combustion
chamber provides 70,000 BTUH of heat. Any heat and friction losses are assumed to be
negligible. What is the efficiency of this Brayton cycle?
(A) 100%
(B) 75%
(C) 68%
(D) 59%

QUESTION 28
200 lbm/hr of steam is used to pre-heat 200 lbm/hr of water. The water entering conditions are
80 F at 14.7 psia. The steam is enters at a pressure of 14.7 psia and a temperature of 400 F
and leaves at 300 F. What is the leaving temperature of the water?
(A) 127 F
(B) 155 F
(C) 212 F
(D) 225 F
QUESTION 29
An air conditioning system provides air at 55 F DB/ 53 F WB, in order to maintain space
conditions at 75 F DB/50% relative humidity. What is the dew point of the space conditions?
(A) 47 F
(B) 50 F
(C) 55 F
(D) 63 F

QUESTION 30
How many lbs of water are in the air of a 10 ft x 50 ft x 10 ft room at 70oF DB air and 70%
relative humidity?
(A) 1.6
(B) 4.1
(C) 5.2
(D) 5.9
QUESTION 31
A cooling tower is used to cool 10,000 lbs/hr of condenser water from 105 F to 80 F. If the air is
designed to enter at ambient air conditions of 85 F/50% relative humidty and leave at 95 F/90%
relative humidity, then what is the mass flow rate of air required?
(A) 1,950 lbs/hr
(B) 8,975 lbs/hr
(C) 10,000 lbs/hr
(D) 12,255 lbs/hr

QUESTION 32
A new electric heater is provided to heat 5,000 CFM of air at 60 F DB/ 55 F WB. If a 3 KW
heater is provided, then what is the resulting Humidity Ratio?
(A) 49 grains/lb
(B) 69 grains/lb
(C) .008 lb of water/lb of dry air
(D) .012 lb of water/lb of dry air
QUESTION 33
A pump with an impeller diameter of 12” is operated at 1,800 RPM. This pump produces a flow
rate of 125 GPM at 50 feet of head. The impeller diameter will be trimmed to lower the flow to
100 GPM. What should be the new diameter?
(A) 8”
(B) 10”
(C) 14”
(D) 16”

QUESTION 34
A cooling water system requires 300 GPM of cooling water. The pressure losses in the system
total 35 ft of head. The below is a pump curve of a possible pump that can be used to supply
the system. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) The pump cannot meet the required pressure and flow rate, two same pumps should be
used in series to meet the required pressure and flow rate.
(B) The pump cannot meet the required pressure and flow rate, two same pumps should be
used in parallel to meet the required pressure and flow rate.
(C) The pump can meet the required pressure and flow rate.
(D) None of the above statements are true.

QUESTION 35
A new 5 BHP fan with a VFD at 60 HZ provides 10,000 CFM of air for a cooling system. If
during low load conditions the VFD is ramped down to 45 HZ, then what is the new air flow rate
and what is the new power usage?
(A) 1.7 BHP
(B) 2.1 BHP
(C) 4.1 BHP
(D) 5.0 BHP
QUESTION 36
A piston with a compression ratio of 5 is used to compress 200 lbm/hr of air at an entering
temperature of 70 F. What is the temperature of the air as it exits the compressor? Assume an
ideal compressor. Compression ratio is equal to the ratio of the maximum and minimum
volume.
(A) 400 F
(B) 450 F
(C) 500 F
(D) 550 F

QUESTION 37
A compressor has a pressure ratio of 10. Air enters the compressor at 70 F. If the air leaves at
a temperature of 600 F, then what is the isentropic efficiency of the compressor?
(A) 0.97
(B) 0.93
(C) 0.86
(D) 0.81
QUESTION 38
A hydraulic pump must pump 100 GPM of a fluid with a specific gravity 1.55 to power a
hydraulic system. The total pressure loss in the hydraulic system is 15 psi. Assume that the
friction loss in the piping is 4 psi. What is the minimum motor horsepower required of the pump.
Assume the pump has an efficiency of 55% and the motor has an efficiency of 95%.
(A) 0.5 HP
(B) 0.75 HP
(C) 1 HP
(D) 2 HP

QUESTION 39
A sensor is placed in a 2-inch, steel, schedule 40 pipe to measure the velocity pressure of the
cooling water passing through the pipe. The velocity pressure is measured as 1 psig. What is
the velocity of the cooling water?
(A) 2.1 ft/sec
(B) 5.7 ft/sec
(C) 8.6 ft/sec
(D) 12.1ft/sec

QUESTION 40
Which of the following is not a benefit of installing an intercooler and compressing air in two
stages as opposed to compressing air in a single stage?
(A) There is an increase in efficiency in the multi-stage compression process with intercooler as
compared to the single stage compression.
(B) There is an increase in volume in the multi-stage compression process with intercooler as
(C) There is a reduced amount of work done by compression in a multi-stage compression

process with inter cooler as compared to the single stage compression.
(D) There is a decrease in the exiting temperature in the multi-stage compression process with
intercooler as compared to the single stage compression.

SECTION 3
PM SESSION QUESTIONS
QUESTION 41
A manufacturer provides the viscosity for a fluid as 0.41 centipoise. The density of the fluid is
60 lbs/ft3. A pump is used to pump 100 GPM of this fluid through a cooling system that has a
total pressure drop of 100 ft of head. What is the mechanical horsepower required to pump this
fluid?
(A) 0.2 horsepower
(B) 2.5 horsepower
(C) 3.6 horsepower
(D) 4.5 horsepower
QUESTION 42
A compressor is used to compress air from 14.7 psi to 225 psi. The air enters the compressor
at a temperature of 100 F. What is the resulting enthalpy of the air?
The answer is most nearly,
(A) 134 Btu/lbm
(B) 176 Btu.lbm
(C) 263 Btu/lbm
(D) 293 Btu/lbm

PM Session Questions -1
QUESTION 43
A piston-cylinder system has a diameter of 10”. The TDC is at a clearance of 1” from the end of
the cylinder and the BDC is at a distance of 12” from the end of the cylinder. What is the
compression ratio of this system?
(A) 1/12
(B) 1/10
(C) 10
(D) 12
QUESTION 44
A 2” pipe with 50 GPM supplies hot water to a heating coil. You require a valve for quick, shut-
off capabilities with low pressure drop when at 100% open. Which of the following valves is
best suited for this use?
(A) Gate
(B) Ball
(C) Butterfly
(D) Globe

QUESTION 45
100 cubic feet per minute at 100 psig and 400 F is supplied to hydraulic equipment. What is the
standard airflow in cubic feet per minute? Assume dry air.
(A) 2 SCFM
(B) 11 SCFM
(C) 21 SCFM
(D) 86 SCFM
QUESTION 46
A 6” schedule 40 steel pipe carries 600 GPM. The Moody friction factor is .025. What is the
pressure drop (PSI) through 100’ of pipe?
(A) 0.5 psi
(B) 0.9 psi
(C) 1.5 psi
(D) 15 psi

QUESTION 47
A master cylinder compresses the hydraulic fluid to a pressure of 80 psi. Cylinder 2 in the
diagram below has a diameter of 6” and Cylinder 1 has a diameter of 1”. What is the ratio of
Force 2 to Force 1.
(A) 36
(B) 30
(C) 18
(D) 6

QUESTION 48
Your system requires 200 GPM at a pressure of 100 ft of head. There are two options to meet
this design. The first option is to provide two pumps at 200 GPM and 50 ft of head operated in
series, see pump A curve. The second option is to provide two pumps at 100 GPM and 100 ft
of head operated in parallel, see pump B curve. Which of the following statements is most true?

(A) Two pump A’s in series will be unable to meet the 200 GPM at 100 ft of head requirement.
(B) Two pump B’s in parallel will be unable to meet the 200 GPM at 100 ft of head requirement.
(C) When only a single pump A is operated, then 200 GPM at 50 ft of head will be provided.
(D) When only a single pump B is operated, then more than 100 GPM will be provided.

QUESTION 49
A pump pumps 100 GPM through the circuit below. Each valve has an equivalent length of 15
ft. Equipment A has an equivalent length of 25 ft and Equipment B has an equivalent length of
40 ft. What is the amount of GPM through branch A-C and through branch B-C? Assume the
same diameter pipe throughout the entire circuit and constant friction factor.
(A) Branch A-C = 63 GPM; Branch B-C = 37 GPM;
(B) Branch A-C = 19 GPM; Branch B-C = 81 GPM;
(C) Branch A-C = 50 GPM; Branch B-C = 50 GPM;
(D) Branch A-C = 75 GPM; Branch B-C = 25 GPM;

QUESTION 50
Which of the following topics is most likely not covered by ASME?
(A) Process piping
(B) Elevators
(C) Gas piping
(D) Fire pumps
QUESTION 51
A water pump is measured to provide 200 GPM at 55 ft of head. The motor uses 4.7 BHP and
the motor is 95% efficient. What is the efficiency of the pump?
(A) 41*
(B) 55%
(C) 62%
(D) 69%

QUESTION 52
A control valve is sized for a maximum flow of 100 GPM and a design condition of 100 GPM.
Throughout its operation the control valve will vary the flow to meet the load. The load is
designed to vary from 90 to 100 GPM and it is desired to have exact control. Which of the
following control valves should be used, based on the graph below?
(A) Quick opening globe
(B) Linear globe
(C) Hyperbolic globe
(D) Butterfly

QUESTION 53
Background: A 10 BHP fan operates for 4000 hours in the year. The motor is 85% efficient and
the power factor is 0.85. Energy cost is $0.25 per kilowatt-hour.
Problem: How much does it cost to operate the fan in one year?
(A) $7,460
(B) $8,770
(C) $10,320
(D) $12,140

QUESTION 54
A new 480 Volt, 3-phase motor is provided to serve the following pump with the design
conditions shown in the below figure. If the pump's impeller diameter is decreased by 75% and
the speed of the pump remains the same, then what will be the resulting flow rate?
(A) 100 GPM
(B) 150 GPM
(C) 200 GPM
(D) 250 GPM

QUESTION 55
Steam enters a throttling valve at a pressure of 100 psia and a temperature of 500 F. The
throttling valve reduces the pressure to 50 psia. What is the resulting enthalpy at the exit of the
throttling valve?
(A) 890 Btu/lbm
(B) 960 Btu/lbm
(C) 1,055 Btu/lbm
(D) 1,280 Btu/lbm
QUESTION 56
Two compressors are placed in series, with an intercooler inbetween the two compressors. The
intercooler cools the air such that the temperature entering the second compressor is the same
as the temperature entering the first compressor. The air enters the 1st compressor at a
pressure of 14.7 psia. The required pressure at the exit of the 2nd compressor is 500 psia.
What is the pressure of the air exiting the 1st compressor, if both compressors have the same
pressure ratio?
(A) 39 psia
(B) 86 psia
(C) 176 psia
(D) 257 psia

QUESTION 57
Air enters a turbine at 1000 F and 75 psia. Air leaves the turbine at a pressure of 14.7 psia.
The turbine provides 500 hp of useful work. The mass flow rate of air is 200 lbm/hr. What is the
efficiency of the turbine? Assume k = 1.4.
(A) 39%
(B) 49%
(C) 59%
(D) 67%
QUESTION 58
A steam turbine has entering conditions of 800 psia and 1,000 F. Steam leaves the turbine at
14.7 psia and 300 F. What is the isentropic efficiency of the turbine?
(A) 60%
(B) 65%
(C) 71%
(D) 78%

QUESTION 59
A new steam boiler provides 100 lb/hr of steam at 30 PSIA, 0 degrees super heat to various hot
water heaters. If the hot water heaters are designed to provide a 40 degree delta to incoming
water at 80 F, then what is the total GPM of hot water that the boiler can support?
(A) 4.73 GPM
(B) 10.2 GPM
(C) 15.7 GPM
(D) 21.9 GPM
QUESTION 60
A propane engine consists of a compressor that compresses 75 F atmospheric air to a pressure
of 1,000 psia. The propane then adds 700 Btu for every pound of air that enters the engine.
What is the exit temperature of the air? Assume an isentropic compressor.
(A) 2,590 F
(B) 2,990 F
(C) 3,850 F
(D) 4,250 F

QUESTION 61
A new counter-current heat exchanger is designed for incoming cold water at 43 F and leaving
water at 52 F. If the entering/exiting hot water of 60 F and 50 F, then what will be the LMTD?
(A) 7.5℉
(B) 8.5℉
(C) 10.0℉
(D) 11.5℉
QUESTION 62
A cooling tower has 150 GPM of water at entering and leaving temperatures of 100 F and 85 F.
If the outside air conditions are 82 F DB/75% relative humidity. What is the effectiveness of the
cooling tower, in %?
(A) 62%
(B) 68%
(C) 74%
(D) 79%

QUESTION 63
A cooling tower has an inlet cooling water rate of 10,000 GPM and an inlet temperature of 105
F. The outlet temperature of the water is 75 F. The cooling air enters the cooling tower at 70 F
and 50% relative humidity. The cooling air leaves at 85 F and 98% relative humidity. The total
airflow rate is 112,849 lb/min. How much of the inlet cooling water is evaporated into the
airstream?
(A) 100 GPM
(B) 250 GPM
(C) 500 GPM
(D) 1,000 GPM
QUESTION 64
A steam power plant has a turbine that has a high pressure of 300 psia and a low pressure of
30 psia. If the condenser pressure is reduced to 14.7 psia and the boiler pressure and
maximum boiler temperature remain the same, then which of the following statements is true?
Assume an ideal Rankine cycle.
(A) The overall power plant efficiency will remain unchanged.
(B) The total amount of useful work produced by the turbine will decrease.
(C) The entropy of the steam entering the condenser will remain unchanged.
(D) Statements A and C are both true.

QUESTION 65
A cooling unit cools 4,000 cfm of outside air to 55oF DB, 53oF WB. The outside ambient
condition is 87oF DB, 75oF WB. What is the total cooling load required by the air handling unit?
Assume that the density of air is 0.075 lbs per cubic foot.
(A) 206,000 Btuh
(B) 297,000 Btuh
(C) 341,000 Btuh
(D) 399,000 Btuh
QUESTION 66
A closed feedwater heater is used to heat incoming 70 F water. Saturated steam at 250 psia is
used to heat the incoming water. Saturated steam enters the feedwater heater at a mass flow
rate of 10% of the incoming water mass flow rate. What is the outgoing temperature of the
water?
(A) 78 F
(B) 153 F
(C) 268 F
(D) 400 F

QUESTION 67
A motor is located in a mechanical room at 75 F DB. The motor operates at 10 BHP and is 95%
efficient. The remaining energy is released as heat to the space. What is the amount of heat
emitted to the space?
(A) 1,300 BTUH
(B) 4,200 BTUH
(C) 13,500 BTUH
(D) 25,000 BTUH
QUESTION 68
A cooling tower is used to cool condenser water in a power plant system. As the dry bulb
temperature of the air increases throughout the day, which of the following is the most true?
Assume all other factors remain the same.
(A) As the dry bulb temperature increases, the primary source of cooling provided by the cooling
tower will decrease. The cooling tower fans should be slowed down to limit the amount of hot
air impacting the cooling water.
(B) As the dry bulb temperature increases, the primary source of cooling provided by the cooling
tower will decrease. The condenser water flow rate should be increased.
(C) As the dry bulb temperature increases, the primary source of cooling provided by the cooling
tower will be mostly unaffected.
(D) As the dry bulb temperature increases, the primary source of cooling provided by the cooling
tower will increase. The cooling tower fans should be slowed down to limit the amount of hot air
impacting the cooling water.

QUESTION 69
A boiler operates at a pressure of 200 psia. The feedwater enters at a temperature of 70 F and
leaves at 500 F. The mass flow rate of the water is 100 lbm/hr. The higher heating value of the
fuel provided to the boiler is 12,000 Btu/lbm. If the manufacturer claims that the boiler is 80%
efficient, then how much fuel should you be using in a single day? Assume the boiler runs 24
hours a day.
(A) 2,590 lbs
(B) 2,710 lbs
(C) 3,080 lbs
(D) 3,270 lbs
QUESTION 70
20 lb/hr of 15 PSIA saturated steam is delivered to a heating coil. 2,000 CFM of air enters the
coil at 60 F DB and 90% relative humidity. Latent heat is not transferred to the air. What is the
exiting dry bulb temperature of the air? Assume no super heat or sub-cooling. Bypass factor
and minor heat gains/losses are negligible.
(A) 69 F
(B) 73 F
(C) 75 F
(D) 79 F

QUESTION 71
75 F, 14.7 psia air enters the open Brayton cycle shown below. The air is compressed to a
pressure of 100 psia. Air enters the turbine at a temperature of 1200 F and leaves at a pressure
of 14.7 psia and a temperature of 550 F. Assume no air leakages, constant heat capacity,
isentropic compressor, 80% effective heat exchanger and isentropic turbine. What is the heat
added in the combustion process?
(A) 90 Btu/lbm
(B) 160 Btu/lbm
(C) 200 Btu/lbm
(D) 400 Btu/lbm

QUESTION 72
pressure of 100 psia. The air at stage 2 is 500 F. Air enters the turbine at a temperature of
1200 F and leaves at a pressure of 14.7 psia and a temperature of 550 F. The regenerative
heat exchanger is 90% effective. What is the temperature of the air at stage 3? Assume no air
leakages and constant heat capacity.
(A) 500 F
(B) 505 F
(C) 545 F
(D) 550 F

QUESTION 73
Steam enters a closed feedwater heater and normally leaves as a condensate (sub-cooled
liquid). However, you notice that vapor is leaving the feedwater heater through the drain in lieu
of condensate. Which of the following is most likely true? Assume there have been no changes
to the feedwater or steam conditions and flow rates.
(A) The feedwater mass flow rate should be decreased to allow the steam to condense.
(B) The mass flow rate of the steam should be decreased to increase the turbulence in order to
condense the steam.
(C) The feedwater mass flow rate should be increased to extract more energy from the steam
so that the steam will condense.
(D) Fouling has occurred over time and the feedwater heater no longer transfers sufficient
amount of energy between the feedwater and the steam. The feedwater heater should be
cleaned to increase the heat transfer coefficient.

QUESTION 74
A cooling coil is operated at an apparatus dew point of 54 F. The coil has a bypass factor of
0.05. Air enters the coil at 80 F. What is the temperature of the air leaving the coil?
(A) 54 F
(B) 55 F
(C) 58 F
(D) 79 F

QUESTION 75
A sensible heat recovery device is used to preheat entering outdoor air 3,500 CFM, (40 F, 60%
RH) with 4,000 CFM exhaust air (77 F, 55% RH). A sensible heat device only affects the dry
bulb temperature. The sensible effectiveness of the device is 60%. What is the leaving supply
air dry bulb temperature? Assume zero leakage.
(A) 49.3 F
(B) 62.2 F
(C) 67.8 F
(D) 74.2 F

QUESTION 76
Given the diagram below for a Rankine cycle, determine the value for Q_in.
900 psia, 300 F 850 psia, 900 F

100,000 lbm/hr 100,000 lbm/hr
(A) 2,500 boiler horsepower
(B) 3,000 boiler horsepower
(C) 3,500 boiler horsepower
(D) 5,000 boiler horsepower

QUESTION 77
Given the diagram below for a Rankine cycle, determine the value for W_turbine out. Assume
the turbine is 75% efficient.
750 psia, 850 F

10,000 lbm/hr
14.7 psia
(A) 710 kW
(B) 830 kW
(C) 990 kW
(D) 1,090 kW

QUESTION 78
A steam power plant operates at a maximum pressure of 500 psia and a low pressure value of
14.7 psia. 50 lbm/hr of the steam is extracted from the turbine at 50 psia and is directed to the
open feedwater heater. The maximum temperature is 1000 F. 150 lbm/hr is directed to the
condenser. The temperature of the condensate at point 7 is 130 F. What is the resulting
temperature at point 1?
(A) 200 F
(B) 210 F
(C) 220 F
(D) 230 F

QUESTION 79
14.7 psia. All of the steam is extracted from the turbine at a 60 psia and is reheated back to the
maximum temperature. The maximum temperature is 1000 F. What is the work output at the
turbine? Assume the turbine is 100% efficient.
(A) 300 Btu/lbm
(B) 380 Btu/lbm
(C) 450 Btu/lbm
(D) 490 Btu/lbm

QUESTION 80
A turbine needs to output 10 MW of electricity. Assume the turbine is 100% efficient. The boiler
outputs steam at a temperature of 900 F and a pressure of 500 PSIA. The condenser operates
at a pressure of 5 PSIA. What mass flow rate of steam is required to meet the electricity
demand?
(A) 80,000 lbm/hr
(B) 90,000 lbm/hr
(C) 110,000 lbm/hr
(D) 120,000 lbm/hr

SECTION 4
AM SESSION SOLUTIONS
SOLUTION 1
Honey has a dynamic viscosity of 1,000 poise, a specific heat capacity of 0.6 cal/g-oC, and a
density of 0.05 oz/mL. The kinematic viscosity of honey, in ft2/sec, is most nearly?
Kinematic viscosity is defined as:

𝜇𝜇
ν=
𝜌𝜌
The specific heat capacity is irrelevant.
The dynamic (or absolute) viscosity is irrelevant:
lbf
1 Pa ∙ s 0.020885 ft 2 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∙ 𝑠𝑠
𝜇𝜇 = (1000 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝) ∗ ∗ = 2.09
10 poise 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2
The density is:
𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 0.0625 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 28317 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙

𝜌𝜌 = 0.05 ∗ ∗ 3
= 88.4 3
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 1 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 1 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡
Therefore the kinematic viscosity is:
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∙ 𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ 2 2
ν = 2.09 ∗ ∗ 32.2 𝑠𝑠 = 0.76 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 88.4 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑠𝑠
The correct answer is (A) 0.76

AM Session Solutions -1
SOLUTION 2
50 GPM of water flows through a 2-1/2" pipe and then branches into (2) pipes shown in the
figure below. If the velocity in the 1-1/2" pipe is measured at 4 ft/sec, then what is the velocity
through the 1" pipe?
This is a flow rate balance type problem.
𝑄𝑄2.5" = 𝑄𝑄1.5" + 𝑄𝑄1"
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 1 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 1 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

50 ∗ ∗ =4 ∗ 60 ∗ 0.01417 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 + 𝑋𝑋 ∗ 60 ∗ 0.00597 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 60 sec 7.48 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 1 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

50 ∗ =4 ∗ 60 ∗ 0.01417 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 + 𝑋𝑋 ∗ 60 ∗ 0.00597 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 7.48 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇
𝑿𝑿 = 𝟗𝟗. 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔
The correct answer is most nearly (D), 9.1 ft/sec.

SOLUTION 3
A heat pump provides 85.0 MBTUH of cooling, 66.0 MBTUH of heating and uses 5.9 KW of
electricity. What is the COP of the heat pump during heating?
The coefficient of performance for a heat pump during heating is the heat energy delivered by
the heat pump divided by the work done by the compressor.
𝑄𝑄𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 =
𝑊𝑊𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
66.0 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = = 3.3
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ
5.9 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 ∗ �3.412 �
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
The correct answer is A.
(A) 3.3
(B) 3.5
(C) 4.8
(D) 6.8

SOLUTION 4
A new machine is installed in order to increase productivity. This new machine costs $75,000
and has an ongoing operating and maintenance cost of $500 per month. The new machine will
save $1,000 per month and will have a salvage value of $7,500 after 10 years. If the interest
rate is 5%, then what is the annual cost of the new machine?
This problem involves finding the total annual cost. First, convert all your terms to an annual
value.
Initial Cost [Negative value = money lost at the beginning of the lifetime]
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡, 5%
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 (𝑃𝑃)𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 (𝐴𝐴)
𝐴𝐴
𝐴𝐴 = 𝑃𝑃 ∗ ( , 5%, 10)
𝑃𝑃
𝐴𝐴 = −$75,000 ∗ 0.12950
𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = −$9,712.50
Salvage Value [Positive value = money gained at the end of the lifetime]
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 (𝐹𝐹)𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 (𝐴𝐴)
𝐴𝐴
𝐴𝐴 = 𝐹𝐹 ∗ ( , 5%, 10)
𝐹𝐹
𝐴𝐴 = $10,000 ∗ 0.07950
𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = $795
Operating & Maintenance Cost [Negative value = Money lost]
−$500
𝐴𝐴𝑂𝑂&𝑀𝑀 = ∗ 12 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑠𝑠 = −$6,000 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚ℎ
Savings [Positive value = Money gained]
$2,000
𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = ∗ 12 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑠𝑠 = $24,000 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚ℎ
Finally, sum up all annual values.
𝐴𝐴𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝐴𝐴𝑂𝑂&𝑀𝑀 + 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝐴𝐴𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = −$9,712.50 + $795 + −$6,000 + $24,000
𝐴𝐴𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = $9,082.50

Correct answer is D.
(D) $𝟗𝟗, 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

SOLUTION 5
A company requires a return on investment for all proposed projects to be better than 5%. If a
project proposes to install high efficiency equipment with an initial investment of $100,000, a
projected savings of $775 per month and a salvage value of $20,000 at the end of the 10 year
lifetime of the equipment, then which of the following statements is true?
This problem can be completed in multiple ways and this is only one way. First, you should
convert all values to like terms. But we don’t know the return on investment, but we do have a
baseline of 5%. Let’s start with 5% and convert everything to Present Value.
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = −$100,000
𝑃𝑃
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = $775 ∗ 12 ∗ ( , 𝑖𝑖 = 5%, 𝑛𝑛 = 10);
𝐴𝐴
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = $9,300 ∗ 7.722 = $71,815;
𝑃𝑃
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 = $20,000 ∗ ( , 𝑖𝑖 = 5%, 𝑛𝑛 = 10);
𝐹𝐹
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 = $20,000 ∗ 0.6139 = $12,278
Combing like terms, results in the following.
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + 𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
−$100,000 + $71,815 + $12,278 = −$15,907
Since the resulting value is negative, the return on investment must be lower than 5%. The next
step would be to try a lower interest rate and repeat the steps. Luckily the solutions give us a
hint as to what interest rate to try, 2%.
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = −$100,000
𝑃𝑃
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = $775 ∗ 12 ∗ ( , 𝑖𝑖 = 2%, 𝑛𝑛 = 10);
𝐴𝐴
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = $9,300 ∗ 8.983 = $83,542;
𝑃𝑃
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 = $20,000 ∗ ( , 𝑖𝑖 = 2%, 𝑛𝑛 = 10);
𝐹𝐹
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 = $20,000 ∗ 0.8203 = $16,406
Combing like terms, results in the following.
𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + 𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑃𝑃𝑉𝑉𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
−$100,000 + $83,542 + $16,406 = −$52
The summation of all the terms is nearly $0, which means you have the correct rate of return.

The correct answer is (A) The project should not be completed, because the return on
investment is 2%.
The rate of return is less than the required 5% for the company.

SOLUTION 6
What is the difference in annual value for the following two projects? Assume the interest rate is
5% and the lifetime of both projects is 15 years.
Project A: Initial investment $50,000. Maintenance $1,000/year.
Project B: Initial investment $20,000. Maintenance $2,000/year.
First, you need to convert all values to annual values.
𝐴𝐴
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,𝐴𝐴 = −$50,000 ∗ ( , 𝑖𝑖 = 5%, 𝑛𝑛 = 15)
𝑃𝑃
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,𝐴𝐴 = −$50,000 ∗ .0963 = −$4,815
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚,𝐴𝐴 = −$1,000
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 𝐴𝐴 = −$4,815 − $1,000 = −$5,815
𝐴𝐴
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,𝐴𝐴 = −$20,000 ∗ ( , 𝑖𝑖 = 5%, 𝑛𝑛 = 15)
𝑃𝑃
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,𝐴𝐴 = −$20,000 ∗ .0963 = −$1,926
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚,𝐴𝐴 = −$2,000
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑜𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗, 𝐵𝐵 = −$1,926 − $2,000 = −$3,926
The correct answer is (A) Project A: -$5,815; Project B: -$3,926

SOLUTION 7
100 lbs/hr of steam flow through a 4” steel schedule 40 pipe. What is the Reynolds number?
Assume the specific volume of the steam is 14 ft3/lb and the viscosity is 8.42 x 10-6 lbm/ft-sec.
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 =
𝜇𝜇
1 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝜌𝜌 = � 3 � = .0699 3
14.3 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 1 ℎ𝑟𝑟

𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑓𝑓𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 100 ∗ 14.3 ∗ = 0.397 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 /𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 3600 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 = 𝑉𝑉 = (0.397 )/(.08841 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 ) =
sec
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑉𝑉 = 4.49
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝐷𝐷 = 4.026𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 /12 = 0.3355𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
lbm
𝜇𝜇 = 8.42 x 10−8
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
. 0699 ∗ 4.49 ∗ 0.3355 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = = 12,506
−6 lbm
8.42 x 10
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 12,500.
(A) 7,500
(B) 9,750
(C) 10,500
(D) 12,500

SOLUTION 8
A condenser water pump takes 200 GPM water from the bottom of a cooling tower and supplies
cooling water to a heat exchanger, then it is re-circulated back to the top of the cooling tower.
The condenser water pump is located at grade level. The bottom of the cooling tower is located
3’ above grade and the top of the cooling tower is located 15’ above grade. If there is a total
friction loss of 75 ft of head in the entire cooling water system, then what is the minimum
mechanical horsepower of the pump?
15’
Cooling Tower
3’
Grade
For this problem you need to find the total dynamic head, to complete the following pump
horsepower equation.
(𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺) ∗ (𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇)

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑝𝑝𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 =
3956
The total dynamic head that the pump will see is equal to the summation of the friction and the
elevation.
Althoug the pump sees an initial positive head due to the water being 3’ above the pump, the
pump will have to pump up against the 15’ elevation change to the top of the cooling tower.
𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑑𝑑𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 15′ − 3′ = 12 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝑑𝑑𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 75 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
(200 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺) ∗ (87 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓)

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑝𝑝𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 = = 4.39 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
3956
The correct answer is most neraly, (C) 5 HP.

SOLUTION 9
A 100 GPM condenser water pump is supplied with water by a cooling tower basin that is 5 ft
above the centerline of the pump. The pressure loss due to friction is 2 feet of head.
Condenser water pump serves a cooling tower with entering and leaving conditions of 95 F and
85 F. What is the net positive suction head available at the condenser water pump?
NPSHA is found through the following equation:
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 = 𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ±𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 − 𝑃𝑃𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑉𝑉𝑃𝑃𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤
𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 5 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
(𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 5′ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝)
The pipe friction is given as 2 feet of head
𝑃𝑃𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 2.0 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
Find the vapor pressure of the water as a function of temperature use the average temperature
of 90 F.
𝑃𝑃𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 = 1.6 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
Finally, the first term for atmospheric pressure must be added, since the basin is open to the
atmosphere and is subject to this pressure.
2.31 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 14.7 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 ∗ = 33.9 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
Plug in all the variables into the below equation.
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 = 𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ±𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 − 𝑃𝑃𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − 𝑉𝑉𝑃𝑃𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 = 33.9′ + 5′ − 2.0′ − 1.6′
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 = 35.3 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇 𝒐𝒐𝒐𝒐 𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉

SOLUTION 10
A feedwater pump circulates 500 GPM of water through a system consisting of a heat
exchanger (pressure drop = 10 feet of head) and 200 feet of 6” standard schedule 40 steel pipe
with twenty 6” standard elbows. What is the total pressure loss due to the piping, elbows and
the heat exchanger?
First, find the total equivalent length which is found by adding the total length of pipes and the
total equivalent length of the elbows. MERM Appendix – Typical Equivalent Lengths of Valves
and Fittings.
20 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 90° 6" 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∗ (14 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒) = 280 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙ℎ = 280 + 200 = 480 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
Second check the MERM for the pressure drop per 100 ft, for 6" Schedule 40 steel pipe and
500 GPM.
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 = 7.39 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 100′
Multiply the pressure drop factor per length of pipe by the total equivalent length of pipe:
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

𝑃𝑃𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 7.39 ∗ 280′ = 20.7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
100′
Don’t forget the 10 ft of head from the heat exchanger.
𝑃𝑃𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 20.7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 + 10′ = 30.7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
Correct answer is most nearly (A) 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇 𝒐𝒐𝒐𝒐 𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉𝒉

SOLUTION 11
Water at 50 °F flows through a 6" schedule 40 steel pipe at a volumetric flow rate of 200 gallons
per minute. What is the Reynolds number?
First, find the kinematic viscosity of water at 50 F [refer to your Mechanical Engineering
Reference Manual]
𝑣𝑣 = 1.410 𝑥𝑥 10−5 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 /𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
Next find the velocity of water through the 6" schedule 40 steel pipe.
𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑎𝑎6" 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆ℎ 40 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 0.2006 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2
𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖6" 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆ℎ 40 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 0.5054 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
[𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝,
𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀]
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 200 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 1 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
200 ∗� � = 0.4456
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 448.83 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 = 0.4456 ÷ 0.2006 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 = 2.22 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓/𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
Finally, find Reynolds number.
𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 ∗ 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 =
𝑣𝑣
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
2.22 ∗ 0.5054𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
1.41 𝑥𝑥 10−5 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 / sec
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = 79,573
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 80,000.

SOLUTION 12
500 GPM of water flows through a 6" schedule 40 pipe. If the pipe has a relative roughness
value of .0004 and a Reynolds number of 250,000, then what is the pressure drop through 100
ft of pipe?
Use the Darcy Weisbach equation to find the pressure drop.
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑣𝑣 2
ℎ= [𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊ℎ 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸]
2𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ℎ = 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒; 𝑓𝑓 = 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓; 𝑣𝑣 = 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 � �,
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐷𝐷 = 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 [𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓], 𝑔𝑔 = 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 [32.2 ]
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 2
First, you need to use the Moody Diagram to find the friction factor. [Use your MERM]
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 0.004 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑑𝑑 ′ 𝑠𝑠 𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 = 250,000
𝑓𝑓 = .018
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
1 1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑉𝑉 = 500 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 ∗ � 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 �∗� � = 5.55
448.83 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 0.20063 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 𝑠𝑠

Use the Darcy Weisbach equation
. 018 ∗ 100 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ 5.52

ℎ=
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
2 ∗ 0.506 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ 32.2
ℎ = 1.7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 1.7 ft of head.

SOLUTION 13
A 4” diameter copper pipe carries hot water from the heater to the equipment. The surface
temperature of the pipe is 200 F. The ambient temperature is 75 F. Assume that the
convective heat transfer coefficient is 1.85 Btu/(hr-ft2-F). What is the total heat loss per 100 feet
of pipe?
The main concept to understand in this problem is that the total heat loss from a pipe includes
both radiation and convection. Since the problem does not indicate that the pipe is physically
touching anything, then we can assume that there is no conduction taking place.
𝑄𝑄𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = ℎ𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 ∗ 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ∗ (𝑇𝑇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 − 𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )
𝑄𝑄𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 1.85 ∗ 𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ∗ (200 − 75℉)
ℎ𝑟𝑟 − 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 − ℉
4"
𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 100 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ �𝜋𝜋 ∗ � = 104.72 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2
12"/𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑄𝑄𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 1.85 ∗ 104.72 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 ∗ (200 − 75℉) = 24,216 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
𝑄𝑄𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 𝜎𝜎 ∗ (𝑇𝑇 4 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 − 𝑇𝑇 4 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )
𝑄𝑄𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 1.714 𝑥𝑥 10−9 ∗ 104.72 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 ∗ ((200 + 460)4 − (75 + 460)4 )
ℎ𝑟𝑟 − 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 2 − 𝑅𝑅4
𝑄𝑄𝑟𝑟𝑎𝑎𝑑𝑑 = 19,353 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
𝑄𝑄𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 𝑄𝑄𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 + 𝑄𝑄𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 24,216 + 19,353 = 43,569 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒, 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩

SOLUTION 14
A wall consists of a 6” brick wall with a thermal conductance of 20 Btu-in/hr-ft2-F. The internal
convective heat transfer coefficient is 1.0 Btu/hr-ft2-F and the external convective heat transfer
coefficient is 2.0 Btu/hr-ft2-F. What R-value of insulation is required to achieve an overall R-20
value for the entire system.
The first step is to convert all values to R-Values. The units for R-values are hr-ft2-F/Btu.
−1
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 − 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 1
𝑅𝑅𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 = �20 2
∗� �� = 0.3
ℎ𝑟𝑟 − 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 − ℉ 6 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
−1
𝑅𝑅𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = �1.0 � = 1.0
−1
𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = �2.0 � = 0.5
𝑅𝑅𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 20 = 0.3 + 1.0 + 0.5 + 𝑅𝑅𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
𝑅𝑅𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 18.2
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 18.2.

SOLUTION 15
A new solar hot water heating system has two loops, (1) solar hot water loop and a (2) domestic
hot water loop. The loops are separated by a plate frame heat exchanger. If the solar hot water
fluid enters the heat exchanger at 160 F and leaves at 130 F and the domestic hot water enters
at 80 F and leaves at 120 F, then what is the LMTD? Assume a parallel flow heat exchanger.
∆𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎 − ∆𝑇𝑇𝑏𝑏
𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 =
∆𝑇𝑇
ln( 𝑎𝑎 )
∆𝑇𝑇𝑏𝑏
∆𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎 = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 160 − 80 = 80 𝐹𝐹
∆𝑇𝑇𝑏𝑏 = 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 130 − 120 = 10 𝐹𝐹
80 − 10
𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 = = 33.7 𝐹𝐹
80
ln( )
10
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 33.7 F.

SOLUTION 16
32 F Chilled water passes through a 4” schedule 40 steel pipe at a flow rate of 100 GPM. What
is the Prandtl number? The viscosity is 4.31( ) and the thermal diffusivity is 1.54 x 10-7 ft2/s.
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓−ℎ𝑟𝑟
The heat capacity of chilled water is 1.01 � �
In this problem, you must know the Prandtl number equation and the conversion of centistokes
to ft2/s.
𝜇𝜇 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 =
𝑘𝑘
𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 = 1.01 � �;
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ ℉
[𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑇𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡] → 𝑘𝑘 = 0.32 � �;
ℎ𝑟𝑟 ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ ℉
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
[𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡] → 𝜇𝜇 = 1.79 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 ∗ 2.41 = 4.31
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − ℎ𝑟𝑟
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
4.31 ∗ 1.0
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 − ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ ℉
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = = 11.3
0.32
ℎ ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ ℉
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 13.7.

SOLUTION 17
A 4” schedule 40 steel pipe carries 100 GPM of chilled water. The chilled water is at a
temperature of 45 F. The exterior of the pipe is measured at a temperature of 50 F. The
thermal conductivity of steel is 30 � �. What is the chilled water total heat loss from 100
ℎ𝑟𝑟∗𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓∗℉
feet of pipe? Assume there is no convective or radiative heat loss
The equation for conduction through pipes is shown below.
2𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 ∗ (𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − 𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 )

𝑄𝑄 = 𝑟𝑟
ln( 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 )
𝑟𝑟𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
The MERM has the following values for the inner radius and outer radius.
1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 2.25 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ∗ = 0.188 [𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓]
12𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑟𝑟𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 2.013 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ∗ = 0.168 [𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓]
12𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
2 ∗ 30 𝜋𝜋 ∗ 100 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ (50 − 45 𝐹𝐹)
ℎ𝑟𝑟 ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ ℉
𝑄𝑄 =
0.188
ln( )
0.168
94,247.8 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/ℎ𝑟𝑟
𝑄𝑄 = = 834,051 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/ℎ𝑟𝑟
0.113
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 800,000 Btu/hr.

SOLUTION 18
There is 125 GPM of 45 °F water flowing through a 4” diameter pipe that is located in the ceiling
of a building. The temperature in the ceiling is 85 °F and the temperature of the outer surface of
the pipe is 49 °F. Calculate the convective heat transfer at the fluid inside the pipe. Assume the
water in the pipe is not under extreme pressure and assume the Reynolds number is 1,700,000.
The temperature of the wall of the pipe is greater than the fluid temperature, thus this equation
should be used.
𝐷𝐷 ∗ ℎ𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 = = .023 ∗ 𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒 .8 ∗ 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 .4
𝑘𝑘
Solve for the Nusselt number, Nu, by first finding the Prandtl number. The Prandtl number, Pr,
is calculated with the following equations.
𝜇𝜇 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 =
𝑘𝑘
Use the tables in the MERM or your own resources to find the properties of water. Because the
properties of water do not change drastically under minor pressure differences, water at
atmospheric pressure can be used as a close estimate.
At 45°F, water has the following properties:

𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙∗𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝜇𝜇 = 3.75 , 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
ℎ𝑟𝑟
𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 = 1.005 , 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵∗𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑘𝑘 = 0.332 , 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
Therefore,
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

𝜇𝜇 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 3.75 ∗ 1.005
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = = ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ ℉ = 11.35
𝑘𝑘 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
0.332
ℎ ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 ∗ ℉
Solve for the convective heat transfer:
.8 .4 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
. 023 ∗ 𝑅𝑅𝑒𝑒 .8 ∗ 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 .4 ∗ 𝑘𝑘 . 023 ∗ 1,700,000 ∗ 11.35 ∗ 0.332 ℎ ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 ∗ ℉
ℎ𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = =
𝐷𝐷 0.3355 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐵𝐵𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡
ℎ𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 5,801
ℎ ∗ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 2 ∗ ℉
𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩
The correct answer is most nearly,(B) 𝟔𝟔, 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝒉𝒉∗𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝟐𝟐 ∗℉

SOLUTION 19
What is the air to fuel ratio? Assume the equation is balanced.
𝐶𝐶4 𝐻𝐻10 + 6.5(𝑂𝑂2 + 3.76𝑁𝑁2 ) → 4𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂2 + 5𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂 + 24.44𝑁𝑁2
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎, 6.5(𝑂𝑂2 + 3.76𝑁𝑁2 )
6.5 ∗ (16 ∗ 2 + 3.76 ∗ 14 ∗ 2) = 892
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓, 𝐶𝐶4 𝐻𝐻10
4 ∗ 12 + 10 ∗ 1 = 58
𝑚𝑚𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 892
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = = = 15.4
𝑚𝑚𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 58
The answer is most nearly, (D), 15.4.

SOLUTION 20
An open feedwater heater is supplied with 200 lbm/hr of water at 70 F and steam from the
turbine at 100 lbm/hr at 300 F. Assume the pressure of the water and steam is 14.7 psia. What
is the resulting enthalpy and mass flow rate of the mixture?
The first step is to find the enthalpy of the entering conditions.
200 lbm/hr of water at 70 F (14.7 psia):
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡, 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙, 70 𝐹𝐹: ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 38.08
Steam from the turbine at 100 lbm/hr at 300 F (14.7 psia):
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡, 300 𝐹𝐹, 14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝: ℎ𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 1,192.7
Now you should mix the two incoming streams via the lever rule.
𝑚𝑚̇𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 + 𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ∗ ℎ𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ∗ ℎ𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 → 𝑚𝑚̇𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 + 𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 300
ℎ𝑟𝑟
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
200 ∗ 38.08 + 100 ∗ 1,192.7 = 300 ∗ ℎ𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ℎ𝑟𝑟
ℎ𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 423 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 300 lbm/hr at h =𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩/𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍.

SOLUTION 21
The combustion process follows the below stoichiometric combustion reaction. It is required to
provide 15% excess air for the combustion process. If there are 100 pounds of fuel provided,
then what is the mass of air required?
𝐶𝐶4 𝐻𝐻10 + 6.5𝑂𝑂2 + 24.4𝑁𝑁2 → 4(𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂2 ) + 5(𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂) + 24.4𝑁𝑁2
In this problem fuel is represented by 𝐶𝐶4 𝐻𝐻10 and air is 6.5(𝑂𝑂2 + 3.76𝑁𝑁2 ).
The first step is to calculate the molecular weight of both fuel and air.
𝐶𝐶4 𝐻𝐻10 = 4 ∗ 12 + 1 ∗ 10 = 58 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
6.5𝑂𝑂2 + 24.4𝑁𝑁2 = 6.5 ∗ (16 ∗ 2) + 24.4 ∗ (2 ∗ 14) = 891 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
The air to fuel ratio is as follows:
891 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 =
58 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
Since you need 100 pounds of fuel, then multiple this number by the air to fuel ratio to get air.
891 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

100 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ = 1,536 𝑙𝑙𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
58 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
But you need 15% excess air.
1,536 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∗ 1.15 = 1,767 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 1,800 lbm air.

SOLUTION 22
An air handler has 10,000 CFM of air at 80° F DB/60 % Rel. Hum pass through its cooling coil
with an apparatus dew point of 53° F. The resulting discharge air temperature from the coil is
55° F DB/ 54° F WB. What is the total amount of condensate produced? Assume sea level.
In order to determine the amount of condensate produced, the change in humidity ratio must
first be determined.
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔
∆𝑊𝑊𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 = 𝑊𝑊𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − 𝑊𝑊𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 6.656 − 4.611
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 1 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐻𝐻20

∆𝑊𝑊𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 = 2.045 3
∗ = .000292 3
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 7000 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐻𝐻20 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐻𝐻20

.000292 3
∗ 10,000 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝑀𝑀 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 2.92
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐻𝐻20 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 3 7.48 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔

2.92 ∗ ∗ 3
= 0.35
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 62.4 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝐻𝐻20 1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 0.35 GPM.

SOLUTION 23
A new heat exchanger uses steam to heat water. Steam (50 lb/min) enters the heat exchanger
at 20 psia, fully saturated and leaves as a saturated liquid. What mass flow rate of water can be
expected to provide a 40 degree change in temperature?
This problem is an energy balance type problem. The energy from the steam is transferred to
water.
Steam Available Energy
𝑄𝑄 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
From the steam tables, find the latent heat of vaporization of 20 psia steam.
ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 960.05
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Energy Balance Equation
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
50 ∗ 960.05 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ ∆𝑇𝑇
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 = 1.0 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤, 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ 𝐹𝐹
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡
50 ∗ 960.05 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 1.0 ∗ 40
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑚𝑚̇ = 1200 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 1,200 lb/min.

SOLUTION 24
A concentrated solar power system produces steam at 800oF, 400 psia and 157 lbm/hr. If the
steam expands through a turbine to 5 psia at 75% isentropic efficiency, and 85% mechanical
efficiency, how much power (KW) does the turbine generate?
The power generated in the turbine is defined as
𝑃𝑃𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 𝜂𝜂𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∗ 𝜂𝜂𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∗ 𝑚𝑚̇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ∗ (ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 – ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 )
Refer to your steam tables for the density of steam at 800oF
𝜌𝜌 = 0.0196 ( )
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
So, the ideal mass flow rate is:
𝑚𝑚̇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 157
ℎ𝑟𝑟
From the superheated steam tables at 800oF and 400 psia:
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1416.9 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1.6849
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ °𝑅𝑅
Since the expansion of an ideal turbine is isentropic, the leaving entropy of the steam is equal to
the entering entropy.
𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1.6849
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ °𝑅𝑅
The quality, x, of the steam leaving the turbine may be found with this entropy. So, from the
saturated steam tables at 5 psia,
𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓 = 0.2349 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 1.6089
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ °𝑅𝑅 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ∗ °𝑅𝑅
ℎ𝑓𝑓 = 130.2 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 1000.5
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 , 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 𝑥𝑥 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖:
𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 – 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓 1.6849 – 0.2349

𝑥𝑥 = = = 0.90
𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 1.6089
Then, the quality can be used to find the leaving enthalpy.
ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = ℎ𝑓𝑓 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

130.2 + 0.90 ∗ �1000.5 � = 1031.9
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙

Finally, the turbine power can be solved:
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

𝑃𝑃𝑡𝑡𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢 = 0.75 ∗ 0.85 ∗ 157 ∗ �1416.9 – 1031.9 � = 38,583𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Now convert to MW.
1 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
= 38,583 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ ∗ = 11.3 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
3,412 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 11.3 KW.
(A) 11.3
(B) 15.1
(C) 17.7
(D) 21.2

SOLUTION 25
The following pressure-enthalpy diagram shows the vapor compression cycle for the refrigerant
R-134a. Which of the following statements is true?
A is incorrect, the Compressor work does occur at Step 2, however the enthalpy is shown to
change. The compressor work occurs at constant entropy, not constant enthalpy.
B is incorrect, the expansion device is used at Step 4, however the process is isobaric or
constant pressure.
C is correct, the compressor work does occur at Step 2 and the process is isentropic
since it follows the constant entropy line.
D is incorrect; the expansion device decreases the pressure.

(A) The compressor work occurs at Step 2 at constant enthalpy.
(B) The expansion device is used at Step 4 to conduct an isobaric process.
(C) At Step 2, the compressor conducts an isentropic process.
(D) At Step 4, the expansion device increases the pressure of the refrigerant at constant
enthalpy.

SOLUTION 26
Steam enters a turbine at 600 F at a mass flow rate of 200 lbm/min. Steam enters the turbine at
a pressure of 600 psia and leaves at 14.7 psia. What is the total turbine power output?
Assume the turbine is 100% efficient.
In this problem, you need to find the enthalpy of the entering and leaving conditions of the
steam.
600 𝐹𝐹 & 600 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖ℎ 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢.
𝐶𝐶ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓, 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 600 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 486 𝐹𝐹.
𝑇𝑇ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤ℎ 𝑎𝑎 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 600 𝐹𝐹.
600 𝐹𝐹 & 600 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 → ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1289.9
Next find the leaving condition. You know the pressure is 14.7 psia and you know the turbine is
isentropic so the entering and leaving entropies are the same.
600 𝐹𝐹 & 600 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 → 𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1.5326 = 𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1.5326 = 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 0.3122 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ 1.4445
𝑥𝑥 = 0.85
ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = ℎ𝑓𝑓 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 180.2 + 0.85 ∗ 970.1 = 1004.8
Calculate turbine power by taking the mass flow rate multipled by the difference between
entering and leaving enthalpies.
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 200 ∗ 60 ∗ �1289.9 − 1004.8 � = 3,421,200
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ℎ𝑟𝑟
3,421,200 = 1,003 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
ℎ𝑟𝑟
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 1,000 KW.

SOLUTION 27
A Brayton cycle consists of a 20 KW turbine and an 8 KW compressor. Assume the combustion
chamber provides 70,000 BTUH of heat. Any heat and friction losses are assumed to be
negligible. What is the efficiency of this Brayton cycle?
𝑊𝑊𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑊𝑊𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 − 𝑊𝑊𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐

𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = =
𝑊𝑊𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
First convert BTUH to KW.

1 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 70,000 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ ∗ = 20.52 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾
3,412 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
Next find the efficiency
𝑊𝑊𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 20 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 − 8 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘

𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = = = 58.5%
𝑊𝑊𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 20.52 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 59%.

SOLUTION 28
200 lbm/hr of steam is used to pre-heat 200 lbm/hr of water. The water entering conditions are
80 F at 14.7 psia. The steam is enters at a pressure of 14.7 psia and a temperature of 400 F
and leaves at 300 F. What is the leaving temperature of the water?
First find the steam enthalpy for the entering and leaving conditions.
300 𝐹𝐹 & 14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖ℎ 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢.
𝐶𝐶ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓, 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 212 𝐹𝐹.
𝑇𝑇ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤ℎ 𝑎𝑎 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 300 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 400 𝐹𝐹.
400 𝐹𝐹 & 14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 → ℎ𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1240
300 𝐹𝐹 & 14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 → ℎ𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1192.7
Next find the entering condition of the water.
ℎ𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 48.06
Now conduct an energy balance on the water and steam.
200 ∗ �ℎ𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − ℎ𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 � = 200 ∗ �ℎ𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − ℎ𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 �
ℎ𝑟𝑟 ℎ𝑟𝑟
200 ∗ �ℎ𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − 48.06� = 200 ∗ (1240 − 1192.7)
ℎ𝑟𝑟 ℎ𝑟𝑟
ℎ𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 95.36
Next find out that the water leaving is in the sub-cooled region, since the enthalpy of saturated
water at 14.7 psia is 180.2 Btu/lbm. The enthalpy is still lower than this amount.
Use the Properties of Saturated Steam by Temperature to find the closest h_f value to 95.36.
You will find that this temperature is inbetween 125 and 130.
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 127 F.

SOLUTION 29
An air conditioning system provides air at 55 F DB/ 53 F WB, in order to maintain space
conditions at 75 F DB/50% relative humidity. What is the dew point of the space conditions?
Use your psychrometric chart to find the dew point of the space conditions.
The correct answer is most nearly (C), 55 F.

SOLUTION 30
How many lbs of water are in the air of a 10 ft x 50 ft x 10 ft room at 70oF DB air and 70%
relative humidity?
For this problem, you should have your psychrometric chart.
From the psychrometric chart, the humidity ratio and density values at 70oF DB, 70% relative
humidity are as follows.
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤

ℎ𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = 𝜔𝜔 = 0.011
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝜌𝜌 = 0.074
𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
Use the density, humidity ratio and the total volume of air to find the water content in the air.
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑠𝑠𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 = 𝜔𝜔 ∗ 𝜌𝜌 ∗ 𝑉𝑉 = 0.011 ∗ 0.074 ∗ (10𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ 50𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ 10𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓)
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
𝑚𝑚𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 = 4.07 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 4.1.

SOLUTION 31
A cooling tower is used to cool 10,000 lbs/hr of condenser water from 105 F to 80 F. If the air is
designed to enter at ambient air conditions of 85 F/50% relative humidty and leave at 95 F/90%
relative humidity, then what is the mass flow rate of air required?
The energy from the condenser water is transferred to the air.
𝑚𝑚̇𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝,𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 ∗ �𝑇𝑇𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒,𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 − 𝑇𝑇𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙,𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 � = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∗ (ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙,𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 − ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑟𝑟,𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 )
ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙,𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒,𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝ℎ𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑐𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

10,000 ∗ 1.0 ∗ (105 − 80 𝐹𝐹) = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∗ (55.0 − 34.6 )
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ℉ 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
12,255 = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
ℎ𝑟𝑟
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 12,255 lbs/hr

SOLUTION 32
PRINCIPLES – PSYCHROMETRICS
A new electric heater is provided to heat 5,000 CFM of air at 60 F DB/ 55 F WB. If a 3 KW
heater is provided, then what is the resulting Humidity Ratio?
For this equation, use your psychrometric chart and find the point identified by 60 F DB/55 F
WB. The psychrometric chart below shows the point as red dot. After the air passes the heater,
the air will be sensibly heated, which will not change the moisture content. Thus the humidity
ratio will remain the same.
The value shown is nearly .008 lb of water/lb of dry air.
The correct answer is C.
(C) .008 lb of water/lb of dry air

SOLUTION 33
A pump with an impeller diameter of 12” is operated at 1,800 RPM. This pump produces a flow
rate of 125 GPM at 50 feet of head. The impeller diameter will be trimmed to lower the flow to
100 GPM. What should be the new diameter?
𝑄𝑄1 𝑁𝑁1
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 → =
𝑄𝑄2 𝑁𝑁2
125 12
=
100 𝑁𝑁2
𝑁𝑁2 = 9.6"
The answer is most nearly, (B) 10”.

SOLUTION 34
A cooling water system requires 300 GPM of cooling water. The pressure losses in the system
total 35 ft of head. The below is a pump curve of a possible pump that can be used to supply
the system. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) The pump cannot meet the required pressure and flow rate, two same pumps should be
used in series to meet the required pressure and flow rate. This statement is correct, two
pumps could supply 300 GPM at 50 ft of head (25 ft of head + 25 ft of head), which will
satisfy the pressure and flow rate requirements.
(B) The pump cannot meet the required pressure and flow rate, two same pumps should be
used in parallel to meet the required pressure and flow rate. This statement is incorrect, two
pumps in parallel would supply 600 GPM (300 GPM + 300 GPM) at 25 ft of head, which will
not satisfy the pressure requirements.
(C) The pump can meet the required pressure and flow rate. This statement is incorrect, a
single pump will only provide 300 GPM at 25 ft of head, which will not meet the pressure
requirements.
(D) None of the above statements are true. Statement A is true.
The correct answer is (A).

SOLUTION 35
A new 5 BHP fan with a VFD at 60 HZ provides 10,000 CFM of air for a cooling system. If
during low load conditions the VFD is ramped down to 45 HZ, then what is the new air flow rate
and what is the new power usage?
This question uses the fan laws. From the fan laws, Flow (CFM) increases linearly with Speed
which is related to the Frequency of the VFD.
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝑀𝑀1 𝑁𝑁1
= , 𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑁𝑁 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 (𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻)
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝑀𝑀2 𝑁𝑁2
10,000 60
=
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝑀𝑀2 45
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝑀𝑀2 = 7,500
Then use similar fan laws to the find the new power.
𝑃𝑃1 𝑁𝑁1 3
= � � , 𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑁𝑁 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 (𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻)
𝑃𝑃2 𝑁𝑁2
5 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 60 3
=� �
𝑃𝑃2 45
𝑃𝑃2 = 2.1 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 2.1 BHP.

SOLUTION 36
A piston with a compression ratio of 5 is used to compress 200 lbm/hr of air at an entering
temperature of 70 F. What is the temperature of the air as it exits the compressor? Assume an
ideal compressor. Compression ratio is equal to the ratio of the maximum and minimum
volume.
The first step is to use the compression ratio to find the minimum and maximum volume.
𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = =5
Next assume isentropic compression to find the resulting temperature. Remember to convert to
absolute temperatures. K=1.4 for air.
𝜐𝜐1 𝑘𝑘−1
𝑇𝑇2 = 𝑇𝑇1 ∗ � �
𝜐𝜐2
5 1.4−1
𝑇𝑇2 = (70 + 460) ∗ � �
1
5 1.4−1
𝑇𝑇2 = (70 + 460) ∗ � �
1
𝑇𝑇2 = 1,009 °𝑅𝑅 → 1009 − 460 = 549 °𝐹𝐹
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 550 F.

SOLUTION 37
A compressor has a pressure ratio of 10. Air enters the compressor at 70 F. If the air leaves at
a temperature of 600 F, then what is the isentropic efficiency of the compressor?
First find the exiting temperature if the compression process was isentropic (ideal case).
𝑃𝑃2
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = = 10
𝑃𝑃1
𝑘𝑘−1
𝑇𝑇2 𝑃𝑃2 𝑘𝑘 𝑇𝑇2 1.4−1
=� � → = (10) 1.4 →
𝑇𝑇1 𝑃𝑃1 (70 + 460)
𝑇𝑇2 = 1,023 °𝑅𝑅 → 1,023 − 460 = 563 °𝐹𝐹
In the ideal case, the amount of work completed by the compressor is found through the below
equation.
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝑚𝑚 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ( 563 °𝐹𝐹 − 70°𝐹𝐹)
In the actual case, the compressor uses more energy as the air increases further in temperature
than is actually required to provide a pressure ratio of 10.
𝑄𝑄𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑚𝑚 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ( 600 °𝐹𝐹 − 70°𝐹𝐹)
The isentropic efficiency is found by dividing the isentropic work by the actual work.
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑚𝑚 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ( 563 °𝐹𝐹 − 70°𝐹𝐹)

= = 0.93
𝑄𝑄𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑚𝑚 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ( 600 °𝐹𝐹 − 70°𝐹𝐹)
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 0.93.

SOLUTION 38
A hydraulic pump must pump 100 GPM of a fluid with a specific gravity 1.55 to power a
hydraulic system. The total pressure loss in the hydraulic system is 15 psi. Assume that the
friction loss in the piping is 4 psi. What is the minimum motor horsepower required of the pump.
Assume the pump has an efficiency of 55% and the motor has an efficiency of 95%.
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 𝑓𝑓𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 ℎ𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
∆𝑃𝑃 ∗ 𝑄𝑄
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 =
1714
∆𝑃𝑃 = 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝; 𝑄𝑄 = 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
15 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 ∗ 100
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 =
1714
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 = 0.88 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 0.88

𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 = = = 1.59 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 . 55
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 1.59

𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = = = 1.68 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 . 95
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 2 HP.

SOLUTION 39
A sensor is placed in a 2-inch, steel, schedule 40 pipe to measure the velocity pressure of the
cooling water passing through the pipe. The velocity pressure is measured as 0.5 psi. What is
the velocity of the cooling water?
The equation for velocity pressure is shown below.
𝑉𝑉 2
𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 =
2𝐺𝐺
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑉𝑉 = 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 � � ; 𝑔𝑔 = 32.2 ; 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 sec 2
Make sure you convert psi to ft of head.
2.31 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

0.5 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 ∗ = 1.15 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
1 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
Now solve for velocity.
𝑉𝑉 2
1.15 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 =
2 ∗ 32.2
𝑉𝑉 = 8.6 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓/𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 8.6 ft/sec.

SOLUTION 40
Which of the following is not a benefit of installing an intercooler and compressing air in two
stages as opposed to compressing air in a single stage?
(A) There is an increase in efficiency in the multi-stage compression process with intercooler as
The intercooler will decrease the temperature of the air, which will cause the volume to
be decreased (ideal gas law) and will also cause the work done by the compressor to
decrease, which will cause the efficiency of the compressor to be increased.
(B) There is an increase in volume in the multi-stage compression process with intercooler as
be decreased (ideal gas law), not increased.
(C) There is a reduced amount of work done by compression in a multi-stage compression

process with inter cooler as compared to the single stage compression.
be decreased (ideal gas law) and will also cause the work done by the compressor to
decrease.
(D) There is a decrease in the exiting temperature in the multi-stage compression process with
intercooler as compared to the single stage compression.
The intercooler will decrease the temperature of the air.
The correct answer is (B).

SECTION 5
PM SESSION SOLUTIONS
QUESTION 41
A manufacturer provides the viscosity for a fluid as 0.41 centipoise. The density of the fluid is
60 lbs/ft3. A pump is used to pump 100 GPM of this fluid through a cooling system that has a
total pressure drop of 100 ft of head. What is the mechanical horsepower required to pump this
fluid?
In order to solve this problem, you only need the following equation:
𝜌𝜌𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
∆ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∗ 𝑄𝑄𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 ∗ ( )
𝜌𝜌𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 =
1714
The other given values are distractions. You do need to account for a change in density from
water.
60 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
100 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∗ 100 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 ∗ ( )
62.4 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 =
3,956
𝑀𝑀𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 = 2.4 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 2.5 horsepower.

PM Session Solutions -1
QUESTION 42
A compressor is used to compress air from 14.7 psi to 225 psi. The air enters the compressor
at a temperature of 100 F. What is the resulting enthalpy of the air?
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝑟𝑟 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞𝑞 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 80 𝐹𝐹 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 → 100 𝐹𝐹 + 460 = 560 °𝑅𝑅
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 560 °𝑅𝑅
𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑟,𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 1.5742
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏, 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑟,𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑟,𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
=
𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑟,𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑟,𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 225 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

=
1.5742 14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑟,𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 24.1
𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑝𝑝𝑟𝑟,𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 24.1
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ℎ ≅ 291 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 293 Btu/lbm.

QUESTION 43
A piston-cylinder system has a diameter of 10”. The TDC is at a clearance of 1” from the end of
the cylinder and the BDC is at a distance of 12” from the end of the cylinder. What is the
compression ratio of this system?
The compression ratio is the ratio of the maximum volume to the minimum volume.
𝑟𝑟 =
𝜋𝜋 ∗ 𝐷𝐷2 ∗ 𝐿𝐿𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝜋𝜋 ∗ 𝐷𝐷2 ∗ 12"

𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = =
4 4
𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝐿𝐿 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝜋𝜋 ∗ 𝐷𝐷 2 ∗ 𝐿𝐿𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝜋𝜋 ∗ 𝐷𝐷2 ∗ 1"

𝑉𝑉𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = =
4 4
𝜋𝜋 ∗ 𝐷𝐷2 ∗ 12"
𝑟𝑟 = 4 = 12
𝜋𝜋 ∗ 𝐷𝐷2 ∗ 1"
4
The compression ratio is most nearly, (D) 12.

QUESTION 44
A 2” pipe with 50 GPM supplies hot water to a heating coil. You require a valve for quick, shut-
off capabilities with low pressure drop when at 100% open. Which of the following valves is
best suited for this use?
A gate valve takes a long time to open and close, but it does provide a low pressure drop and
shut off capabilities.
A ball valve opens and closes in a quarter turn, so it offers quick shut off capabilities. It
does have a bigger pressure drop than a gate valve but it is less than the butterfly and
globe.
A butterfly valve takes longer to open, offers shut off capabilities but the disc in the flow has a
higher pressure drop.
The globe valve has the largest pressure drop due to its construction.
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) Ball.

QUESTION 45
100 cubic feet per minute at 100 psig and 400 F is supplied to hydraulic equipment. What is the
standard airflow in cubic feet per minute? Assume dry air.
Use the following equation to convert from standard cfm (SCFM) to actual cfm (ACFM)
𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 520 𝑅𝑅
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 ∗ � �∗( )
14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
The pressure is given in psig and must first be converted to psia and the temperature must be
converted to Rankine.
𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 100 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 + 14.7 = 114.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 400℉ + 460 = 860°𝑅𝑅
Solve for SCFM.
114.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 520 °𝑅𝑅

100 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 ∗ � �∗� �
14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 860 °𝑅𝑅
21. 2 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 21 SCFM.

QUESTION 46
A 6” schedule 40 steel pipe carries 600 GPM. The Moody friction factor is .025. What is the
pressure drop (PSI) through 100’ of pipe?
For this equation use the Darcy Weisbach Equation below:
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑣𝑣 2
ℎ= [𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊ℎ 𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸]
2𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝑤𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ℎ = 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒; 𝑓𝑓 = 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓; 𝑣𝑣 = 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 � �,
𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐷𝐷 = 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 [𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡], 𝑔𝑔 = 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 [32.2 ]
Prepare each term to be plugged into the equation. First, find velocity. Convert GPM to velocity
[ft/sec].
1 FT 3
Multiply GPM by to get .
448.83 sec
1 FT 3
600 GPM ∗ = 1.3368 .
448.83 sec
MERM → 6"steel schedule 40 internal Area = 0.2006 ft 2
1.3368 ft 3 /sec 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓

Velocity = 2
= 6.66
0.2006 ft 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
Plug in the variables to the equation.
. 025 ∗ 100 ∗ 6.662

ℎ= [𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ]
2 ∗ 0.5054 ∗ 32.2
ℎ = 3.4 [𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ]

0.433 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
Next convert to PSI ℎ = 3.4 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∗ = 1.47 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃
1 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
The answer is most nearly, (C) 1.5 psi.

QUESTION 47
A master cylinder compresses the hydraulic fluid to a pressure of 80 psi. Cylinder 2 in the
diagram below has a diameter of 6” and Cylinder 1 has a diameter of 1”. What is the ratio of
Force 2 to Force 1.
A pressure of 80 psi is exerted on both area 1 and area 2, where pressure is equal to force
divided by area.
𝐹𝐹1 𝐹𝐹2
80 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 = = ;
𝐴𝐴1 𝐴𝐴2
𝐹𝐹1 𝐹𝐹2 𝐹𝐹2 𝐴𝐴2

= → =
𝐴𝐴1 𝐴𝐴2 𝐹𝐹1 𝐴𝐴1
𝐷𝐷 2
𝐹𝐹2 𝜋𝜋 ∗ 4
=
𝐹𝐹1 𝐷𝐷2
𝜋𝜋 ∗
4
62
𝐹𝐹2 𝜋𝜋 ∗ 4
=
𝐹𝐹1 12
𝜋𝜋 ∗
4
𝐹𝐹2
= 36
𝐹𝐹1
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 36.

QUESTION 48
Your system requires 200 GPM at a pressure of 100 ft of head. There are two options to meet
this design. The first option is to provide two pumps at 200 GPM and 50 ft of head operated in
series, see pump A curve. The second option is to provide two pumps at 100 GPM and 100 ft
of head operated in parallel, see pump B curve. Which of the following statements is most true?
On the pump curves you should draw the curves of two pump A’s in series and two pump B’s in
parallel. These curves are shown below. You should also label the operating point if only a
single pump A is running and when a single pump B is running.

Based on the above graphs, the correct answer is most nearly (D).

QUESTION 49
A pump pumps 100 GPM through the circuit below. Each valve has an equivalent length of 15
ft. Equipment A has an equivalent length of 25 ft and Equipment B has an equivalent length of
40 ft. What is the amount of GPM through branch A-C and through branch B-C? Assume the
same diameter pipe throughout the entire circuit and constant friction factor.
The first thing you should know is that the pressure drop between the common points A and C
must be equal regardless of which path you take. So the pressure drop across A-C must equal
the pressure drop across A-B-C.
ℎ𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 = ℎ𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
Use the Darcy Weisbach equation to find the pressure drop.

2 2
𝐿𝐿𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 𝐿𝐿𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶 ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
𝑓𝑓 ∗ = 𝑓𝑓 ∗
2 ∗ 𝐷𝐷 ∗ 𝑔𝑔 2 ∗ 𝐷𝐷 ∗ 𝑔𝑔
Cancel out terms and you are left with the following.
2 2
𝐿𝐿𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 = 𝐿𝐿𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶 ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
Plug-in the equivalent lengths

2 2
(10′ + 15′ + 25′ + 10′ ) ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 = (100′ + 10′ + 15′ + 40′ + 10′ ) ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
Solve for V_A-C
2
175 2
𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 =� � ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
60

175
𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 = � ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
60
𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 = 1.71 ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
Next split up the 100 GPM flow rate.
100 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 = 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶 + 1.71 ∗ 𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶
𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐵𝐵−𝐶𝐶 = 37 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴−𝐶𝐶 = 63 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) Branch A-C = 63 GPM; Branch B-C = 37 GPM;.

QUESTION 50
Which of the following topics is most likely not covered by ASME?
(A) Process piping
(B) Elevators
(C) Gas piping
(D) Fire pumps
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) Fire pumps.
Fire pumps are covered by the National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA).

QUESTION 51
A water pump is measured to provide 200 GPM at 55 ft of head. The motor uses 4.7 BHP and
the motor is 95% efficient. What is the efficiency of the pump?
If a motor uses 4.7 BHP and it is 95% efficient, this means that the pump that the motor drives is
only using 95% of the 4.7 BHP.
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 0.95 ∗ 4.7 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 4.47 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
You also know that the pump is providing mechanical work based on the pump flow rate and
pressure.
ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∗ 𝑄𝑄𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 ∗ 𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆

𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊 = 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
3956
200 ∗ 55 ∗ 1
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊 = 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
3956
𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊 = 2.78 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
So the pump takes 4.47 HP but produces only 2.78 HP of work. So the pump efficiency can be
found as
2.78 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = = 62.2%
4.47 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 62%.

QUESTION 52
A control valve is sized for a maximum flow of 100 GPM and a design condition of 100 GPM.
Throughout its operation the control valve will vary the flow to meet the load. The load is
designed to vary from 90 to 100 GPM and it is desired to have exact control. Which of the
following control valves should be used, based on the graph below?
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) Quick opening globe.
At the 90%-100% flow rate, there are more positions at which you can open the valve. This will
allow you to have tighter control. As opposed to the other valves like the hyperbolic globe,
where only a small range of % open positions can correspond to flow rates in the 90 to 100%
range.

QUESTION 53
Background: A 10 BHP fan operates for 4000 hours in the year. The motor is 85% efficient and
the power factor is 0.85. Energy cost is $0.25 per kilowatt-hour.
Problem: How much does it cost to operate the fan in one year?
Convert fan brake horsepower to motor horsepower.
𝑃𝑃𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝[𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵]
𝑃𝑃𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚[𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻] =
𝜀𝜀𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
10 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
𝑃𝑃𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚[𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻] = = 11.8 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
0.85
Determine the amount of power supplied to the motor, use power factor.
𝑃𝑃𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚[𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻] 11.8 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻

𝑃𝑃𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = = = 13.8 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 0.85
Find the kilowatt-hours(kwh) consumed.
𝑃𝑃𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚,𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 = 𝐼𝐼 ∗ 𝑉𝑉
0.7457 𝐾𝐾𝐾𝐾 ℎ𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟

13.8 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 ∗ ∗ 4,000 = 41,267.8 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘ℎ
𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦
Find the cost ($) with the electricity cost.
$0.25
41,267.8 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘ℎ ∗ = $10,317
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘ℎ
The correct answer is most nearly. (C), $10,320

QUESTION 54
A new 480 Volt, 3-phase motor is provided to serve the following pump with the design
conditions shown in the below figure. If the pump's impeller diameter is decreased by 75% and
the speed of the pump remains the same, then what will be the resulting flow rate?
First, find the current design point at the intersection of the system curve and the pump curve.
200 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 80 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒
If the impeller diameter is decreased and the speed remains the same, then the affinity laws can
be used.
𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝑤𝑤𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
=
𝐷𝐷𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝑤𝑤𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 200
=
0.75 ∗ 𝐷𝐷𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝑤𝑤𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝑜𝑜𝑤𝑤𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 150 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
The correct answer is (B) 150 GPM.

QUESTION 55
Steam enters a throttling valve at a pressure of 100 psia and a temperature of 500 F. The
throttling valve reduces the pressure to 50 psia. What is the resulting enthalpy at the exit of the
throttling valve?
The key for this problem is that you should know that a throttling process is governed by no
change in enthalpy.
You should refer to your MERM superheated steam tables and find the enthalpy of the steam
entering the throttling valve.
100 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 500 𝐹𝐹 → ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1,280
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 1,280 Btu/lbm

QUESTION 56
Two compressors are placed in series, with an intercooler inbetween the two compressors. The
intercooler cools the air such that the temperature entering the second compressor is the same
as the temperature entering the first compressor. The air enters the 1st compressor at a
pressure of 14.7 psia. The required pressure at the exit of the 2nd compressor is 500 psia.
What is the pressure of the air exiting the 1st compressor, if both compressors have the same
pressure ratio?
In order to make both compressors have the same pressure ratio, you must use the below
equation.
1
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛ℎ 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑛𝑛
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = � �
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,1𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
1
500 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 2
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = � �
14.6 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑜𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 5.83
Next use the pressure ratio to find the exiting pressure of the 1st compressor.
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,1𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = � �
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,1𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,1𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 5.83 ∗ 𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,1𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,1𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 85.73 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
Double check that you have the correct pressure ratio
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = � �
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,1𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
5.83 = � �
85.73
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 500 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 86 psia.

QUESTION 57
Air enters a turbine at 1000 F and 75 psia. Air leaves the turbine at a pressure of 14.7 psia.
The turbine provides 500 hp of useful work. The mass flow rate of air is 20,000 lbm/hr. What is
the efficiency of the turbine? Assume k = 1.4.
The first step is to find the temperature as it exits the turbine.

𝑘𝑘−1
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑘𝑘
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ∗ � �
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
1.4−1
14.7 1.4
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = (1000 + 460) ∗ � �
75
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 917 °𝑅𝑅 → 457 °𝐹𝐹
Next conduct an energy balance on the turbine.
𝑄𝑄 = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − 𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 )
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

𝑄𝑄 � � = 20,000 ∗ 0.24 ∗ (1,000 − 457)
ℎ𝑟𝑟 ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 °𝐹𝐹
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 2,608,700 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/ℎ𝑟𝑟
Convert 500 horsepower to Btu/hr
𝑄𝑄𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 500 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 → 1,272,500 � �
ℎ𝑟𝑟
Calculate efficiency
𝑄𝑄𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 =
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
1,272,500
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = = 49%
2,608,700
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 49%.

QUESTION 58
A steam turbine has entering conditions of 800 psia and 1,000 F. Steam leaves the turbine at
14.7 psia and 300 F. What is the isentropic efficiency of the turbine?
From the steam tables you should find the enthalpy and entropy of the entering condition.
800 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 1,000 °𝐹𝐹 → ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1,510 ; 𝑠𝑠 = 1.68
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 °𝑅𝑅
14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 300 °𝐹𝐹 → ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1,190
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Next find the “out” conditions if the turbine was isentropic, where the entering and exiting
entropy conditions are the same.
𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1.68
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 °𝑅𝑅
14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1.68 → ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1,100
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 °𝑅𝑅 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Next calculate the efficiency.
ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = ;
ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
1,510 − 1,190
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = ;
1,510 − 1,100
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 = 0.78;
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 78%.

QUESTION 59
A new steam boiler provides 100 lb/hr of steam at 30 PSIA, 0 degrees super heat to various hot
water heaters. If the hot water heaters are designed to provide a 40 degree delta to incoming
water at 80 F, then what is the total GPM of hot water that the boiler can support?
Create an energy balance equation between the steam and the hot water.
𝑄𝑄𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
Find ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 in the MERM, Steam Tables as a function of pressure, Navigate to 30 PSIA. Read the
enthalpy of evaporation.
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

𝑄𝑄𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 100 ∗ 945.2 = 94,520
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ℎ
𝑄𝑄ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ ∆𝑇𝑇
𝑄𝑄ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 = 500 ∗ 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 ∗ ∆𝑇𝑇
𝑄𝑄𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 94,520 = 𝑄𝑄ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 = 500 ∗ 𝑥𝑥 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺 ∗ 40 ℉
ℎ
𝑥𝑥 = 4.73 𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺𝐺
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 4.73 GPM.

QUESTION 60
A propane engine consists of a compressor that compresses 75 F atmospheric air to a pressure
of 1,000 psia. The propane then adds 700 Btu for every pound of air that enters the engine.
What is the exit temperature of the air? Assume an isentropic compressor.
The first step is to find the temperature of the air at the exit of the compressor. Since the
process is isentropic, you can use the below equation.
𝑘𝑘−1
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑘𝑘
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ∗ � �
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
1.4−1
1,000 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 1.4
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = (75 𝐹𝐹 + 460) ∗ � �
14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1,786 °𝑅𝑅 → 1,326 °𝐹𝐹
The second step is to use the below equation to find the resulting temperature after the air
leaves the combustion chamber.
𝑄𝑄(𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵) = 𝑚𝑚(𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙) ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − 𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 )
𝑄𝑄(𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵)
= 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − 𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 )
𝑚𝑚(𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙)
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝐵𝐵𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡
700 � � = 0.24( ) ∗ (𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − 1,326 °𝐹𝐹)
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 °𝐹𝐹
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 4,243 °𝐹𝐹
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 4,250 F.

QUESTION 61
A new counter-current heat exchanger is designed for incoming cold water at 43 F and leaving
water at 52 F. If the entering/exiting hot water of 60 F and 50 F, then what will be the LMTD?
Use the Log Mean Temperature Difference Equation
∆𝑇𝑇𝐴𝐴 − ∆𝑇𝑇𝐵𝐵
𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 =
∆𝑇𝑇
ln � 𝐴𝐴 �
∆𝑇𝑇𝐵𝐵
∆𝑇𝑇𝐵𝐵 = 50 − 43 = 7
∆𝑇𝑇𝐴𝐴 = 60 − 52 = 8
8−7
𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿𝐿 = = 7.5℉
8
ln � �
7
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 7.5 F.

QUESTION 62
A cooling tower has 150 GPM of water at entering and leaving temperatures of 100 F and 85 F.
If the outside air conditions are 82 F DB/75% relative humidity. What is the effectiveness of the
cooling tower, in %?
Cooling tower effectiveness is governed by the following equation:
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∆ [℉] 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 [℉]

𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 [%] = =
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ∆ [℉] 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 + 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎ℎ [℉]
The range is found through the following equation:
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = 𝑇𝑇𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 [℉] − 𝑇𝑇𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 [℉]
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅 = 100 − 85 [℉] = 15℉
The approach is found through the following equation:
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴ℎ = 𝑇𝑇𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 [℉] − 𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊 [℉]
Find the wet bulb temperature through the psychrometric chart:
𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊 = 75.7℉
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴ℎ = 85 − 75.7 [℉] = 9.3 ℉
15
𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 [%] = = 61.7%
15 + 9.3 [℉]
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 62%

QUESTION 63
A cooling tower has an inlet cooling water rate of 10,000 GPM and an inlet temperature of 105
F. The outlet temperature of the water is 75 F. The cooling air enters the cooling tower at 70 F
and 50% relative humidity. The cooling air leaves at 85 F and 98% relative humidity. The total
airflow rate is 112,849 lb/min. How much of the inlet cooling water is evaporated into the
airstream?
The amount of water evaporated can be found by taking the change in the humidity ratio
multiplied by the total airflow rate.
𝑚𝑚𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 𝑚𝑚𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 �𝑊𝑊𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − 𝑊𝑊𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 �
From the psychrometric chart:
𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔
𝑊𝑊𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 181.1 ; 𝑊𝑊𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 54.70 ;
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
Convert grains to lbs of water, divide by 7,000:
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤

𝑊𝑊𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = .02587 ; 𝑊𝑊𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = .007814 ;
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
𝑚𝑚𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 112,849 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 (. 02587 − .00781)
𝑚𝑚𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 2,038 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
Convert lbs to gallons:
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 1 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3 7.48 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔

= 2,038 ∗ ∗ = 244 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 62.4 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 1 𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡 3
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 250 GPM.

QUESTION 64
A steam power plant has a turbine that has a high pressure of 300 psia and a low pressure of
30 psia. If the condenser pressure is reduced to 14.7 psia and the boiler pressure and
maximum boiler temperature remain the same, then which of the following statements is true?
Assume an ideal Rankine cycle.
(A) The overall power plant efficiency will remain unchanged. A decrease in the condenser
pressure will increase the power plant efficiency, because of the increased work done by
the turbine.
(B) The total amount of useful work produced by the turbine will decrease. A decrease in the
condenser pressure will create a higher pressure differential at the turbine, which will
increase the amount of work produced by the turbine.
(C) The entropy of the steam entering the condenser will remain unchanged. This statement
will be true for an ideal turbine. The entropy of the steam entering the condenser will be
the same as the entropy of the steam entering and leaving the condenser. This entropy
is only dependent on the conditions of the steam entering the turbine which will remain
unchanged.
(D) Statements A and C are both true.
The correct answer is most nearly, (C).
14.7 PSIA
New condenser

QUESTION 65
A cooling unit cools 4,000 cfm of outside air to 55oF DB, 53oF WB. The outside ambient
condition is 87oF DB, 75oF WB. What is the total cooling load required by the air handling unit?
Assume that the density of air is 0.075 lbs per cubic foot.
The total heat equation for air with a density of 0.075 lb/ft3 is as shown below:
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 lbm ∗ min

𝑄𝑄𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 [ ] = 4.5 ∗ (∆h) ∗ CFM
ℎ ft 3 ∗ h
Use the psychometric chart to find the enthalpies at the entering and leaving conditions.
At 87oF DB, 75oF WB, the air entering the dedicated outside air unit has an enthalpy of:
ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 38.5 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
At 55oF DB, 53oF WB, the air entering the dedicated outside air unit has an enthalpy of:
ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 22.0 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Therefore, the total cooling load is:
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 lbm ∗ min Btu ft 3

𝑄𝑄𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 [ ] = 4.5 ∗ (38.5 − 22.0) ∗ 4.000
ℎ ft 3 ∗ h lb min
𝑄𝑄𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 � � = 297,000 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/ℎ
ℎ
𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩
The correct answer is most nearly (B) 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐, 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 .
𝒉𝒉

QUESTION 66
A closed feedwater heater is used to heat incoming 70 F water. Saturated steam at 250 psia is
used to heat the incoming water. Saturated steam enters the feedwater heater at a mass flow
rate of 10% of the incoming water mass flow rate. The condensate leaves as a saturated liquid.
What is the outgoing temperature of the water?
In this problem you should conduct an energy balance at the feedwater heater, where the
energy lost by the steam is gained by the water.
𝑄𝑄𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝑄𝑄𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤
𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 (ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ) = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − 𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 )
Reorganizing the variables.
𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 (ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 )

+ 𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
𝑚𝑚̇𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝
But you also know that the ratio of the mass flow rate of steam to water is 0.1.
�ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖,𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 − ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜,𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 �
0.1 ∗ + 𝑇𝑇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝,𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤𝑤
Input your enthalpy values from the steam tables and then input your heat capacity and
temperature values.
(1,201.6 − 376.1)
0.1 ∗ + 70 𝐹𝐹 = 𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
1.0
𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 153 °𝐹𝐹
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 153 F.

QUESTION 67
A motor is located in a mechanical room at 75 F DB. The motor operates at 10 BHP and is 95%
efficient. The remaining energy is released as heat to the space. What is the amount of heat
emitted to the space?
This problem is a unit conversion problem. Except, be sure to take 5% of the total power, since
the rest of the energy is being used for useful work.
2,545
𝑄𝑄ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 = 10 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 ∗ ℎ𝑟𝑟 ∗ 0.05 = 1,273 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/ℎ𝑟𝑟
1 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 1,300 Btuh.

QUESTION 68
A cooling tower is used to cool condenser water in a power plant system. As the dry bulb
temperature of the air increases throughout the day, which of the following is true? Assume all
other factors remain the same.
The cooling tower’s effectiveness is primarily dependent on the entering wet bulb temperature.
An increase in the dry bulb temperature of the air will not affect the cooling provided by the
cooling tower.
The correct answer is most nearly, (C).

QUESTION 69
A boiler operates at a pressure of 200 psia. The feedwater enters at a temperature of 70 F and
leaves at 500 F. The mass flow rate of the water is 100 lbm/hr. The higher heating value of the
fuel provided to the boiler is 12,000 Btu/lbm. If the manufacturer claims that the boiler is 80%
efficient, then how much fuel should you be using in a single day? Assume the boiler runs 24
hours a day.
This problem uses the efficiency of the boiler equation, shown below.
(𝑚𝑚̇𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑟𝑟 ) ∗ (ℎ𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠,𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓,𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖)

𝜀𝜀𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 =
𝑚𝑚̇𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
The efficiency is 80%, HHV = 12,000 Btu/lbm and the mass flow rate of the water is 100 lbm/hr.
You need to find the enthalpy of the feedwater and steam by using your steam tables.
70 °𝐹𝐹, 200 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 → 38.6 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
500 °𝐹𝐹, 200 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 → 1,270 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵/𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Input the values and solve for the mass flow rate of fuel
100 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙/ℎ𝑟𝑟 ∗ (1,270 − 38.6)

0.8 =
𝑚𝑚̇𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 ∗ 1200
𝑚𝑚̇𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 128.3
ℎ𝑟𝑟
Next multiply the mass flow rate by 24 hours
𝑚𝑚𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 128.3 ∗ 24 = 3,079 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
ℎ𝑟𝑟
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 3,080 lbs.

QUESTION 70
20 lb/hr of 15 PSIA saturated steam is delivered to a heating coil. 2,000 CFM of air enters the
coil at 60 F DB and 90% relative humidity. Latent heat is not transferred to the air. What is the
exiting dry bulb temperature of the air? Assume no super heat or sub-cooling. Bypass factor
and minor heat gains/losses are negligible.
This question is an energy balance equation. The heat lost by condensing the steam (latent
heat) is gained by the air passing through the coil.
𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ∗ ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 1.08 ∗ 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 ∗ (∆𝑇𝑇)
First, go to your steam tables as a function of pressure, since Pressure is given and find the
enthalpy of evaporation.
ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 969.5
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Then plug in the enthalpy of evaporation and the other variables into the energy balance
equation.
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
20 ∗ 969.5 = 1.08 ∗ 2,000 ∗ (∆𝑇𝑇)
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
∆𝑇𝑇 = 9.0 ℉
The final dry bulb temperature of the air leaving the coil will be 60 + 9.0 = 69℉
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 69 F.

QUESTION 71
pressure of 100 psia. Air enters the turbine at a temperature of 1200 F and leaves at a pressure
of 14.7 psia and a temperature of 550 F. Assume no air leakages, constant heat capacity,
isentropic compressor, 80% effective heat exchanger and isentropic turbine. What is the heat
added in the combustion process?
The first step is to find the conditions of air at stage 2.

𝑘𝑘−1
𝑃𝑃2 𝑘𝑘
𝑇𝑇2 = 𝑇𝑇1 ∗ � �
𝑃𝑃1
1.4−1
100 1.4
𝑇𝑇2 = (75 + 460) ∗ � �
14.7
𝑇𝑇2 = 925.3 °𝑅𝑅 → 465.3 °𝐹𝐹
Next find the amount of heat transferred at the heat exchanger. The maximum amount of heat
transferred is if stage 2 equals stage 5. Only the change in temperature matters, since the
mass flow rate and heat capacities are the same.
∆𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = (550 − 465.3)
However, only 80% of the maximum is transferred.
∆𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 0.8 ∗ (550 − 465.3) = 67.8 𝐹𝐹

Find the stage 3 temperature.
𝑇𝑇3 = 465.3 + 67.8 = 533.1 °𝐹𝐹
Finally solve for Q_comb/mass.
𝑄𝑄𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = 𝑚𝑚 ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇4 − 𝑇𝑇3 )
𝑄𝑄𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
= 0.24 ( ) ∗ (1200 − 533.1)
𝑚𝑚 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐹𝐹
𝑄𝑄𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
= 160
𝑚𝑚 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 160 Btu/lbm

QUESTION 72
pressure of 100 psia. The air at stage 2 is 500 F. Air enters the turbine at a temperature of
1200 F and leaves at a pressure of 14.7 psia and a temperature of 550 F. The regenerative
heat exchanger is 90% effective. What is the temperature of the air at stage 3? Assume no air
leakages and constant heat capacity.
This problem is an energy balance around the regenerative heat exchanger. The energy gained
from stage 2 to stage 3 is lost from stage 5 to stage 6.
𝑄𝑄𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇3 − 𝑇𝑇2 ) = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇5 − 𝑇𝑇6 )
The mass flow rates and heat capacities are assumed to be the same.
However, not all of the heat lost from stage 5 to stage 6 is gained. Only 90% of the heat is
maximum heat possible is gained. The maximum heat gain is if all the heat at stage 5 is given
to stage 2.
𝑄𝑄𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇5 − 𝑇𝑇2 )
𝑄𝑄𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 0.9 ∗ 𝑄𝑄𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
Substitute Q actual and Q max.
𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇3 − 𝑇𝑇2 ) = 0.9 ∗ 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇5 − 𝑇𝑇2 )
𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (𝑇𝑇3 − 500 𝐹𝐹) = 0.9 ∗ 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ 𝑐𝑐𝑝𝑝 ∗ (550 𝐹𝐹 − 500 𝐹𝐹)
𝑇𝑇3 = 545 𝐹𝐹

The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 545 F.

QUESTION 73
Steam enters a closed feedwater heater and normally leaves as a condensate (sub-cooled
liquid). However, you notice that vapor is leaving the feedwater heater through the drain in lieu
of condensate. Which of the following is most likely true? Assume there have been no changes
to the feedwater or steam conditions and flow rates.
Since, there have been no changes to the feedwater or steam conditions or flow rate, then
something must have occurred within the feedwater heater. A feedwater heater is in its basic
form a type of heat exchanger. Overtime, the surfaces where heat transfer occurs will build up
deposits, which will block heat transfer from one fluid to the other fluid. This buildup is called
fouling. This buildup decreases the heat transfer coefficient. Once the buildup is cleaned, the
heat transfer coefficient should be increased.
The correct answer is most nearly, (D).

QUESTION 74
A cooling coil is operated at an apparatus dew point of 54 F. The coil has a bypass factor of
0.05. Air enters the coil at 80 F. What is the temperature of the air leaving the coil?
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 = 0.05
5% of the air entering the coil leaves at the same temperature, because it “bypasses” the coil.
The remaining 95% is cooled to the apparatus dew point.
𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 𝑇𝑇𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ∗ .95 + 𝑇𝑇𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∗ .05
𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 54 𝐹𝐹 ∗ .95 + 80 𝐹𝐹 ∗ .05
𝑇𝑇𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 = 55.3 𝐹𝐹
The correct answer is most nearly. (B) 55 F.

QUESTION 75
A sensible heat recovery device is used to preheat entering outdoor air 3,500 CFM, (40 F, 60%
RH) with 4,000 CFM exhaust air (77 F, 55% RH). A sensible heat device only affects the dry
bulb temperature. The sensible effectiveness of the device is 60%. What is the leaving supply
air dry bulb temperature? Assume zero leakage.
Use the air-to-air heat exchanger effectiveness equation.
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝑀𝑀𝑂𝑂𝑂𝑂 ∗ (𝐷𝐷𝐵𝐵𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 − 𝐷𝐷𝐵𝐵𝑂𝑂𝑂𝑂 )

𝜀𝜀 =
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 ∗ (𝐷𝐷𝐵𝐵𝐸𝐸𝐸𝐸 − 𝐷𝐷𝐵𝐵𝑂𝑂𝑂𝑂 )
You are limited by the minimum airflow, so the minimum airflow should be placed in the
denominator.
3,500 ∗ (𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 − 40)

0.60 =
3,500 ∗ (77 − 40)
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 = 62.2 ℉
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 62.2 F.

QUESTION 76
Given the diagram below for a Rankine cycle, determine the value for Q_in.
900 psia, 300 F 850 psia, 900 F

100,000 lbm/hr 100,000 lbm/hr
This problem is an energy balance around the boiler. First, use your steam tables to find the
entering and leaving enthalpy of the boiler.
900 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 300 °𝐹𝐹 → ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 271
850 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 900 °𝐹𝐹 → ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1,450 ;
Now use your energy balance equation.
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ (ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 − ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 )

𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 100,000 ∗ (1,450 − 271 )
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 117,900,000
ℎ𝑟𝑟
Finally convert to boiler horsepower
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 1 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 ℎ𝑝𝑝

𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 117,900,000 ∗ = 3,522 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
ℎ𝑟𝑟 33,475 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
The correct answer is most nearly, (C), 3,500 boiler horsepower.

QUESTION 77
Given the diagram below for a Rankine cycle, determine the value for W_turbine out. Assume
the turbine is 75% efficient.
750 psia, 850 F

10,000 lbm/hr
14.7 psia
First find the enthalpy of the steam entering and leaving the turbine.
750 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 850 °𝐹𝐹 → ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1,430 , 𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 1.63
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 − °𝑅𝑅
Assume the turbine is ideal and that the entropy leaving the turbine is the same as the entering
entropy. So use the pressure and entropy properties to find the leaving enthalpy.
𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1.63
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 − °𝑅𝑅
First you need to find the steam quality by using the saturated steam tables by pressure.
[14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝] → 𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1.63 = 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ 𝑠𝑠𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
1.63 = 0.3122 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ 1.4445
𝑥𝑥 = 0.9
Next find the enthalpy of the steam leaving the turbine.
ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = ℎ𝑓𝑓 + 𝑥𝑥 ∗ ℎ𝑓𝑓𝑔𝑔

ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 180.2 + 0.9 ∗ 970.1
ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 1,053
Next calculate the energy change at the turbine.
𝑄𝑄 = 𝑚𝑚̇ ∗ (ℎ𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − ℎ𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 )
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
𝑄𝑄 = 10,000 ∗ (1,430 − 1,053 )
ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝑄𝑄 = 3,770,000
ℎ𝑟𝑟
Convert to KW and since the turbine is 75% efficient, only 75% of the total energy is converted
to useful work.
𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 1 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
𝑄𝑄 = 3,770,000 ∗ ∗ 0.75 = 828 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
ℎ𝑟𝑟 3412 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏ℎ
The correct answer is most nearly, (B) 830 KW.

QUESTION 78
14.7 psia. 50 lbm/hr of the steam is extracted from the turbine at 50 psia and is directed to the
open feedwater heater. The maximum temperature is 1000 F. 510 lbm/hr is directed to the
condenser. The temperature of the condensate at point 7 is 130 F. What is the resulting
temperature at point 1.
This problem is a mixture problem of the enthalpy values at stages 5 and 7.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 3 → 500 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 1,000 𝐹𝐹 → 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 → 𝑠𝑠3 = 1.74
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 − °𝑅𝑅
Stages 3 and 5 have the same entropy, since the turbine is isentropic.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 5 → 50 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 𝑠𝑠5 = 1.74 → ℎ5 = 1,240
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 − °𝑅𝑅 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Next find the enthalpy at stage 7. Since the feedwater heater is open, the steam and
condensate must be at the same pressure.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 7 → 50 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 𝑇𝑇7 = 130 𝐹𝐹 → ℎ7 = 98.1
Now use your mixture equation with the mass flow rates from the question.
𝑚𝑚̇1 ∗ ℎ1 = 𝑚𝑚̇5 ∗ ℎ5 + 𝑚𝑚̇7 ∗ ℎ7
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵

560 ∗ ℎ1 = 50 ∗ 1,240 + 510 ∗ 98.1
ℎ𝑟𝑟 ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 ℎ𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
ℎ1 = 200
Next use the pressure and enthalpy to find the temperature from the saturated steam tables.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 1 → ℎ1 = 200 , 𝑃𝑃 = 50 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 → 𝑇𝑇1 = 232 𝐹𝐹
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 1
The correct answer is most nearly, (D) 230 F.

QUESTION 79
14.7 psia. All of the steam is extracted from the turbine at a 60 psia and is reheated back to the
maximum temperature. The maximum temperature is 1000 F. What is the work output at the
turbine? Assume the turbine is 100% efficient.
In this problem you need to find the enthalpy of the values entering and leaving the turbine for
both stages. Stage 3 to 4 & Stage 5 to 6.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 3: 500 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 1,000 𝐹𝐹 → 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 → ℎ3 = 1,520 ; 𝑠𝑠3 = 1.74
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 − °𝑅𝑅
Since the turbine is isentropic, the entropy at stages 3 and 4 are equal.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 4: 60 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 𝑠𝑠3 = 𝑠𝑠4 = 1.74 → 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 → ℎ4 = 1,260
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 − °𝑅𝑅 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
Next, understand that in a Rankine cycle the vapor is heated up at constant pressure to 1,000 F.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 5: 60 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 1,000 𝐹𝐹 → 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑑 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 → ℎ5 = 1,530 ; 𝑠𝑠5 = 1.98
Since the turbine is isentropic, the entropy at stages 5 and 6 are equal.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 6: 14.7 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 𝑠𝑠5 = 𝑠𝑠6 = 1.98 → ℎ6 = 1,340

The total energy gain at the turbine is shown below:
𝑄𝑄
= (ℎ3 − ℎ4 ) + (ℎ5 − ℎ6 )
𝑚𝑚
𝑄𝑄 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵
= (1520 − 1260) + (1530 − 1340) = 450
𝑚𝑚 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
The correct answer is most nearly, (C) 450 Btu/lbm.

QUESTION 80
A turbine needs to output 10 MW of electricity. Assume the turbine is 100% efficient. The boiler
outputs steam at a temperature of 900 F and a pressure of 500 PSIA. The condenser operates
at a pressure of 5 PSIA. What mass flow rate of steam is required to meet the electricity
demand?
The first step is to find the change in enthalpy from stage 3 to stage 4.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 3: 500 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 900 𝐹𝐹 → 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 → ℎ3 = 1,470 ; 𝑠𝑠3 = 1.7
Because the turbine is 100% efficient, the enthalpy at stage 4 equals the entropy at stage 4.
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 4: 5 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝, 𝑠𝑠4 = 1.7 → 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 → ℎ4 = 1,040
From the question, you know that you need 10 megawatts of power, so first convert to Btuh.
3,412,141 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
𝑄𝑄𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 10 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀 ∗ = 34,121,416 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ
1 𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀
𝑄𝑄𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 34,121,416 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ∗ (ℎ3 − ℎ4 )
𝑄𝑄𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 = 34,121,416 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵ℎ = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 ∗ (1,470 − 1,040 )
𝑚𝑚̇𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 79,352
ℎ𝑟𝑟
The correct answer is most nearly, (A) 80,000 lbm/hr.

SECTION 6
CONCLUSION
5.0 CONCLUSION
If you have any questions on this sample exam or any other Engineering Pro Guides product,
then please contact:
Justin Kauwale at contact@engproguides.com
Hi. My name is Justin Kauwale, the creator of Engineering Pro Guides. I will be happy to
answer any questions you may have about the PE exam. Good luck on your studying! I hope
you pass the exam and I wish you the best in your career. Thank you for your purchase!
Mechanical PE - HVAC and Refrigeration PM Session Sample Exam 1 Conclusion -1

SECTION 7
DIAGNOSTICS OUTLINE
Mechanical PE Exam – Thermal & Fluids
AM Session -Sample Exam Diagnostics
# Major Category Correct?

1 Principles – Basic Engineering Practice
7 Principles – Fluid Mechanics
13 Principles – Heat Transfer
19 Principles – Mass Balance
23 Principles - Thermodynamics
29 Principles – Supportive Knowledge
33 Application – Hydraulic & Fluid Equip.
Mechanical PE Exam – HVAC & Refrigeration
PM Session -Sample Exam Diagnostics
# Major Category Correct?

48 Application – Hydraulic & Fluid Distr.
57 Application – Energy/Power Equip.
65 Application – Cooling/Heating
71 Application – Energy Recovery
76 Application – Combined Cycles

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Mechanical

Thermal & Fluids

80 exam difficulty level problems

1.1 KEY CONCEPTS AND SKILLS

I. Principles (32 questions)

A) Basic Engineering Practice (6 questions)

II. Hydraulic and Fluid Applications

A. Hydraulic and Fluid Equipment (15 questions)

III. Energy/Power System Applications

A. Energy/Power Equipment (8 questions)

3.0 HOW TO USE THIS BOOK

1. Snacks that are not disruptive to others

If you are stuck on a question, seek the following avenues.

Typical Exam Verbiage/Design:

2. Irrelevant Information: The exam is intended to test your overall understanding of

4. Do Not Overanalyze: The exam questions are meant to be completed in 6 minutes.

Review the Solutions:

4.1 MECHANICAL ENGINEERING REFERENCE MANUAL

4.2 ENGINEERING UNIT CONVERSIONS BOOK

Amazon Linki: Engineering Unit Conversions

4.3 SCHAUM'S OUTLINE OF THERMODYNAMICS FOR ENGINEERS, 3RD EDITION

Amazon Linki: Schaum's Outline of Thermodynamics for Engineers, 3rd Edition

(A) 3.9 ft/sec

(B) 5.6 ft/sec

(C) 7.2 ft/sec

(D) 9.1 ft/sec

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

Project A: Initial investment $50,000. Maintenance $1,000/year.

Project B: Initial investment $20,000. Maintenance $2,000/year.

(A) Project A: -$5,815; Project B: -$3,926

(B) Project A: -$3,667; Project B: -$2,456

(C) Project A: $3,941; Project B: $2,523

(D) Project A: $5,815; Project B: $3,926

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

(A) 7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(B) 31 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(C) 35 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(D) 37 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(A) 31 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(B) 21 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(C) 11 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

(D) 7 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

(A) 1.7 ft of head

(B) 3.3 ft of head

(C) 4.2 ft of head

(D) 4.9 ft of head

(A) 24,300 Btuh

(B) 31,900 Btuh

(C) 43,600 Btuh

(D) 67,100 Btuh

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

Mechanical PE - Thermal and Fluids Full Exam

(A) 400,000 Btu/hr

(B) 800,000 Btu/hr

(C) 1,000,000 Btu/hr