BIOENETGERTICS……SOLID….

LIQUID……WAVES

1. What is the main source of energy in biological systems?

a) Glucose
b) ATP
c) Protein
d) Lipids

2. Which of the following processes generates ATP?

a) Glycolysis
b) Citric acid cycle
c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) All of the above

3. The breakdown of one glucose molecule into pyruvate during glycolysis

produces how many ATP molecules?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 38

4. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of ADP to ATP during

oxidative phosphorylation?
a) ATP synthase
b) Hexokinase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) Lactate dehydrogenase
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5. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is:

a) Oxygen
b) NAD+
c) FAD
d) Glucose

6. Where does the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) occur in eukaryotic cells?
a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondrial matrix
c) Nucleus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

7. How many molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose in
anaerobic conditions?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 36
d) 38

8. The process by which glucose is converted into two molecules of pyruvate is

called:
a) Glycolysis
b) Gluconeogenesis
c) Glucogenesis
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d) Glycogenolysis

9. Which of the following is the net gain of ATP from one round of the citric acid
cycle?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

10. Which molecule is the primary energy carrier in cells?

a) NADH
b) FADH2
c) ATP
d) Pyruvate

11. The process of converting glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is catalyzed by:

a) Glucokinase
b) Hexokinase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) ATP synthase

12. The majority of ATP produced during cellular respiration is generated during
which phase?
a) Glycolysis
b) Citric acid cycle
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c) Oxidative phosphorylation
d) Fermentation

13. NADH and FADH2 are produced during which metabolic pathway?
a) Glycolysis
b) Citric acid cycle
c) Both glycolysis and citric acid cycle
d) Oxidative phosphorylation

14. Which of the following occurs during anaerobic respiration in muscle cells?
a) Lactic acid fermentation
b) Alcoholic fermentation
c) Oxygen consumption
d) Citric acid cycle

15. Which of the following molecules is a byproduct of the citric acid cycle?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) Glucose
d) Oxygen

16. In which of the following processes is oxygen used directly?

a) Glycolysis
b) Electron transport chain
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c) Citric acid cycle

d) Fermentation

17. How many ATP molecules are generated from the complete oxidation of one
molecule of glucose under aerobic conditions?
a) 2
b) 16
c) 36-38
d) 24

18. The term "oxidative phosphorylation" refers to:

a) The reduction of NADH
b) The use of oxygen to generate ATP
c) The breakdown of glucose
d) The synthesis of glucose from pyruvate

19. The proton gradient generated during the electron transport chain is used by
which enzyme to synthesize ATP?
a) Phosphofructokinase
b) ATP synthase
c) Hexokinase
d) Lactate dehydrogenase

20. In glycolysis, glucose is converted to which of the following molecules?

a) Lactate
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b) Pyruvate
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Citric acid

21. The ATP yield of one molecule of NADH is approximately:

a) 1 ATP
b) 2 ATP
c) 3 ATP
d) 4 ATP

22. The primary role of NAD+ in cellular respiration is to:

a) Serve as the final electron acceptor
b) Donate electrons to the electron transport chain
c) Carry electrons from glycolysis to the citric acid cycle
d) Form ATP

23. Which of the following is a characteristic of anaerobic respiration?

a) Complete oxidation of glucose
b) Production of a large amount of ATP
c) Absence of oxygen
d) Oxygen is used as the final electron acceptor

24. The process of gluconeogenesis involves the formation of glucose from:

a) Glycogen
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b) Fatty acids
c) Amino acids
d) Nucleic acids

25. What is the role of oxygen in cellular respiration?

a) To act as an electron carrier
b) To act as a coenzyme
c) To be the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain
d) To help in glycolysis

I THINK YOU NEED MORE MCQs HEHEHE…..

1. What is the end product of anaerobic respiration in human muscle cells?

a) Lactic acid
b) Ethanol
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Oxygen

2. Which of the following is true about anaerobic respiration?

a) It occurs in the presence of oxygen
b) It produces less ATP compared to aerobic respiration
c) It produces carbon dioxide and water
d) It occurs in the mitochondria
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3. In yeast cells, anaerobic respiration produces which of the following as a

byproduct?
a) Lactic acid
b) Acetyl-CoA
c) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
d) Oxygen

---

**Electron Transport Chain**

4. In the electron transport chain, electrons are transferred to which molecule?

a) NAD+
b) Oxygen
c) ATP synthase
d) Pyruvate

5. The electron transport chain occurs in which part of the cell?

a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondrial inner membrane
c) Nucleus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

6. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is:

a) NAD+
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b) FAD
c) Oxygen
d) Water

**Glycolysis / Glycolytic Pathway / Aerobic Respiration**

7. How many ATP molecules are produced in glycolysis?

a) 2 ATP
b) 4 ATP
c) 6 ATP
d) 38 ATP

8. In which part of the cell does glycolysis take place?

a) Nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria
d) Chloroplast

9. What is the primary product of glycolysis?

a) Glucose
b) Pyruvate
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Oxygen
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---

**Light-Dependent and Light-Independent Phases/ Reactions**

10. The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the:

a) Stroma
b) Cytoplasm
c) Thylakoid membrane
d) Mitochondria

11. The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis are also known as:

a) Calvin cycle
b) Krebs cycle
c) Glycolysis
d) Citric acid cycle

12. Which of the following molecules is produced during the light-dependent

reactions of photosynthesis?
a) Glucose
b) Oxygen
c) ATP and NADPH
d) Carbon dioxide

---
 BIOENETGERTICS……SOLID…. LIQUID……WAVES

**Oxidative Phosphorylation / Cyclic and Non-Cyclic Phosphorylation**

13. Which of the following is a feature of cyclic phosphorylation?

a) Involves both Photosystem I and Photosystem II
b) Only ATP is produced
c) Oxygen is released
d) NADPH is produced

14. Non-cyclic phosphorylation involves the use of which two photosystems?

a) Photosystem I and Photosystem II
b) Photosystem II and Photosystem III
c) Photosystem I and Photosystem IV
d) Photosystem I alone

15. Oxidative phosphorylation produces ATP in the presence of:

a) Light
b) Water
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon dioxide

---

**Photosynthesis**
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16. What is the main function of chlorophyll in photosynthesis?

a) To absorb carbon dioxide
b) To absorb light energy
c) To release oxygen
d) To produce glucose

17. Photosynthesis occurs in the:

a) Mitochondria
b) Ribosomes
c) Chloroplasts
d) Nucleus

18. Which of the following is the correct equation for photosynthesis?

a) 6CO2 + 6H2O + light → C6H12O6 + 6O2
b) C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
c) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + energy
d) 6O2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + energy

---

**Production of ATP**

19. ATP is produced in which part of the cell during aerobic respiration?
 BIOENETGERTICS……SOLID…. LIQUID……WAVES

a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondria
c) Nucleus
d) Golgi apparatus

20. During cellular respiration,

how many ATP molecules are produced from one glucose molecule under
aerobic conditions?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 38
d) 50

21. Which of the following is the role of ATP in the cell?

a) Store genetic information
b) Provide energy for cellular activities
c) Transport oxygen
d) Synthesize glucose

---

**Role of Light, Water, CO2 / Factors Affecting Photosynthesis**

22. Which of the following factors can directly affect the rate of photosynthesis?
 BIOENETGERTICS……SOLID…. LIQUID……WAVES

a) Temperature
b) Light intensity
c) Carbon dioxide concentration
d) All of the above

23. Water is essential for photosynthesis because it:

a) Provides electrons for the electron transport chain
b) Produces oxygen as a byproduct
c) Acts as a reactant in the Calvin cycle
d) All of the above

24. The primary role of carbon dioxide in photosynthesis is to:

a) Provide energy for the light reactions
b) Provide oxygen for the electron transport chain
c) Provide carbon atoms for the production of glucose
d) Produce NADPH

25. The rate of photosynthesis increases with light intensity until it reaches a:
a) Maximum point
b) Minimum point
c) Plateau
d) Decrease in rate
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SOLIDS
Types of Solids
1. Which of the following is an example of a crystalline solid?
a) Rubber
b) Glass
c) Diamond
d) Plastic
2. Which type of solid consists of atoms or ions arranged in a repeating
pattern over a long distance?
a) Amorphous solid
b) Crystalline solid
c) Molecular solid
d) Ionic solid
3. Which of the following types of solids is characterized by long-range order
of particles?
a) Liquid
b) Crystalline solids
c) Amorphous solids
d) Gas

Ionic Solids
4. Ionic solids are held together by:
a) Covalent bonds
b) Metallic bonds
c) Ionic bonds
d) Hydrogen bonds
5. Which of the following properties is characteristic of ionic solids?
a) Low melting points
b) High electrical conductivity in solid state
c) High melting points
d) Ability to dissolve in nonpolar solvents
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6. Which of the following is an example of an ionic solid?

a) Diamond
b) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
c) Graphite
d) Iodine
7. The melting point of ionic solids is generally:
a) Low
b) Moderate
c) High
d) Very low

Molecular Solids
8. Molecular solids are characterized by:
a) Strong ionic bonds between molecules
b) Weak intermolecular forces between molecules
c) Covalent bonds forming a lattice structure
d) Metallic bonds between atoms
9. Which of the following is an example of a molecular solid?
a) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
b) Diamond
c) Ice (H2O)
d) Copper
10.The bonds holding molecular solids together are generally:
a) Metallic bonds
b) Ionic bonds
c) Van der Waals forces or hydrogen bonds
d) Covalent bonds

Crystal Lattice
11.A crystal lattice refers to:
a) The random arrangement of atoms in a solid
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b) The repeating arrangement of atoms, ions, or molecules in a solid

c) The energy required to break bonds in a solid
d) The surface arrangement of a solid
12.In a crystal lattice, each point represents a:
a) Atom
b) Ion
c) Molecule
d) All of the above
13.The three-dimensional arrangement of atoms or ions in a crystal is called:
a) Amorphous structure
b) Lattice structure
c) Molecular structure
d) Crystal symmetry
14.The repeating unit in a crystal lattice is known as the:
a) Unit cell
b) Atomic orbital
c) Electron cloud
d) Molecule
15.Which of the following types of solids exhibits a crystal lattice structure?
a) Ionic solids
b) Molecular solids
c) Covalent network solids
d) All of the above

Additional Questions on Types of Solids

16.Which of the following solids does NOT have a crystal lattice structure?
a) Graphite
b) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
c) Quartz
d) Rubber
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17.The lattice energy in ionic solids is directly related to:

a) The size of the ions and the charge
b) The number of molecules in the solid
c) The size of the crystals
d) The temperature at which the solid melts
18.The physical state of matter characterized by a rigid structure and a
repeating pattern of particles is:
a) Gas
b) Liquid
c) Solid
d) Plasma
19.Molecular solids tend to have:
a) High electrical conductivity
b) High melting points
c) Low melting points
d) Hard, rigid structures
20.Which of the following best describes the structure of metallic solids?
a) Atoms held together by covalent bonds
b) Atoms arranged in a fixed pattern with no movement
c) Delocalized electrons and positively charged ions in a regular pattern
d) Atoms or molecules connected by hydrogen bonds

LIQUIDS
Properties of Liquids
1. Which of the following is a property of liquids?
a) Definite shape
b) Definite volume
c) Low density
d) Ability to expand and fill any container
2. Liquids are considered to be:
a) Compressible
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b) Incompressible
c) Both compressible and incompressible
d) None of the above
3. Which of the following is true about the viscosity of a liquid?
a) Viscosity decreases with increasing temperature
b) Viscosity increases with increasing temperature
c) Viscosity does not change with temperature
d) Viscosity is inversely proportional to the mass

Intermolecular Forces
4. The strength of intermolecular forces is responsible for which of the
following properties of liquids?
a) Density
b) Viscosity
c) Surface tension
d) All of the above
5. The intermolecular forces responsible for the high boiling points of water
are primarily:
a) London dispersion forces
b) Hydrogen bonds
c) Dipole-dipole interactions
d) Covalent bonds
6. Which of the following is a characteristic of liquids with strong
intermolecular forces?
a) High vapor pressure
b) Low viscosity
c) High surface tension
d) Low boiling point
7. The type of intermolecular force that exists between polar molecules is:
a) London dispersion forces
b) Hydrogen bonding
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c) Dipole-dipole interactions
d) Ionic bonds

Hydrogen Bonding
8. Hydrogen bonding occurs when hydrogen is bonded to which of the
following elements?
a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine
c) Chlorine
d) Sulfur
9. Which of the following liquids exhibits hydrogen bonding?
a) Methane (CH4)
b) Water (H2O)
c) Chlorine (Cl2)
d) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
10.Hydrogen bonds are stronger than:
a) Van der Waals forces
b) Ionic bonds
c) Covalent bonds
d) Metallic bonds
11.Which property of water is mainly attributed to hydrogen bonding?
a) High melting point
b) High surface tension
c) High vapor pressure
d) High density

Vapor Pressure
12.Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by a gas in equilibrium with its
liquid phase. As temperature increases, the vapor pressure of a liquid:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
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c) Remains constant
d) Fluctuates randomly
13.Liquids with weak intermolecular forces tend to have:
a) Low vapor pressure
b) High vapor pressure
c) High boiling point
d) Low freezing point
14.Which of the following factors directly affects the vapor pressure of a
liquid?
a) Temperature
b) Volume of the liquid
c) Color of the liquid
d) Density of the liquid
15.At equilibrium, the rate of evaporation of a liquid equals the rate of:
a) Condensation
b) Freezing
c) Boiling
d) Sublimation

Boiling Point and External Pressure

16.The boiling point of a liquid is defined as the temperature at which:
a) The vapor pressure of the liquid equals the atmospheric pressure
b) The liquid freezes
c) The liquid condenses
d) The liquid solidifies
17.Which of the following affects the boiling point of a liquid?
a) External pressure
b) Intermolecular forces
c) Molecular size
d) All of the above
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18.If the external pressure is lowered, the boiling point of a liquid:

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Becomes negative
19.Which of the following is true about the relationship between boiling
point and atmospheric pressure?
a) As atmospheric pressure decreases, the boiling point increases
b) As atmospheric pressure increases, the boiling point decreases
c) Boiling point is independent of atmospheric pressure
d) Boiling point decreases with increasing atmospheric pressure
20.The boiling point of water at sea level is 100°C. If the atmospheric
pressure is reduced to half, the boiling point of water will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain the same
d) Become zero

Additional Questions on Liquids

21.The property of a liquid that causes it to resist changes in its shape is:
a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Vapor pressure
d) Capillary action
22.Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension?
a) Water
b) Mercury
c) Ethanol
d) Acetone
23.A liquid with high viscosity:
a) Flows easily
b) Has strong intermolecular forces
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c) Has weak intermolecular forces

d) Evaporates quickly
24.Which of the following increases with increasing temperature in a liquid?
a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Vapor pressure
d) Boiling point
25.The relationship between the boiling point and intermolecular forces is
that:
a) Stronger intermolecular forces result in a lower boiling point
b) Stronger intermolecular forces result in a higher boiling point
c) Weaker intermolecular forces result in a higher boiling point
d) Intermolecular forces have no effect on boiling point
Additional MCQS (for basics concepts)
Solids
1. Which of the following is the characteristic of crystalline solids?
a) Atoms are arranged randomly
b) They do not have a definite melting point
c) They have a well-defined, orderly arrangement of atoms
d) They are isotropic in nature
2. The property of a solid to return to its original shape after deforming is
known as:
a) Elasticity
b) Plasticity
c) Rigidity
d) Ductility
3. The type of bond present in a metal solid is:
a) Covalent bond
b) Ionic bond
c) Metallic bond
d) Hydrogen bond
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4. In a crystalline solid, the atoms are arranged in:

a) An amorphous structure
b) A fixed and repeating pattern
c) Random positions
d) A disordered manner
5. Which of the following substances is an example of a covalent solid?
a) Sodium chloride
b) Diamond
c) Iron
d) Copper
6. Which of the following has a fixed volume but no fixed shape?
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma
7. The property of a material that allows it to be hammered into thin sheets
is called:
a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Conductivity
d) Elasticity
8. Which of the following is an example of an amorphous solid?
a) Diamond
b) Salt
c) Glass
d) Iron
9. The physical state of matter that has both a definite volume and a
definite shape is:
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma
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10.The arrangement of particles in a solid is:

a) Disordered and free to move
b) Ordered and tightly packed
c) Random and loosely arranged
d) Organized in layers

Liquids
11.Which of the following properties is characteristic of liquids?
a) Fixed shape and volume
b) Definite volume but no definite shape
c) Easily compressible
d) High kinetic energy
12.The force of attraction between molecules in a liquid is called:
a) Gravitational force
b) Cohesion
c) Adhesion
d) Tension
13.Which of the following liquids has the highest viscosity?
a) Water
b) Honey
c) Alcohol
d) Oil
14.The property that allows water to climb up in a narrow tube is known as:
a) Viscosity
b) Surface tension
c) Capillarity
d) Osmosis
15.Which of the following factors does NOT affect the viscosity of a liquid?
a) Temperature
b) Density
c) Molecular structure
d) Pressure
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16.The resistance of a liquid to flow is known as:

a) Viscosity
b) Density
c) Fluidity
d) Diffusion
17.Which of the following is a characteristic of water in its liquid state?
a) It has a definite shape and volume
b) It has a definite volume but no definite shape
c) It expands when cooled
d) It does not exhibit surface tension
18.In liquids, the molecules move:
a) Randomly with high energy
b) Slowly with high energy
c) In an orderly fashion with low energy
d) Randomly with moderate energy
19.Which of the following explains why water has a higher boiling point
compared to hydrogen sulfide (H2S)?
a) Water molecules are larger than H2S molecules
b) Water molecules form hydrogen bonds, while H2S does not
c) Water molecules are more polar than H2S molecules
d) H2S molecules are heavier than water molecules
20.The ability of a liquid to flow through a narrow space, such as in capillary
tubes, is known as:
a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Capillarity
d) Osmosis

Both Solids and Liquids

21.Which of the following is true about both solids and liquids?
a) Both have definite shape and volume
b) Both have no definite shape but have definite volume
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c) Both can easily be compressed

d) Both are incompressible
22.Which of the following properties is common to both solids and liquids?
a) Definite shape
b) Definite volume
c) Ability to expand freely
d) Both have high compressibility
23.In which of the following states of matter does the intermolecular force
dominate the least?
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma
24.The process by which a solid turns directly into a gas is called:
a) Sublimation
b) Evaporation
c) Condensation
d) Freezing
25.Which of the following is responsible for the compressibility of gases and
not solids or liquids?
a) Low intermolecular forces
b) High intermolecular forces
c) High molecular density
d) Low molecular density

WAVES…(PHYSICS)

1. What is the term used for the highest point of a wave?

A) Trough
B) Crest
C) Wavelength
D) Amplitude
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2. The lowest point of a wave is called the:

A) Crest
B) Frequency
C) Trough
D) Amplitude

3. The maximum displacement of a particle from its equilibrium position in a

wave is known as:
A) Crest
B) Frequency
C) Amplitude
D) Wavelength

4. The distance between two consecutive crests or troughs in a wave is called

the:
A) Frequency
B) Wavelength
C) Amplitude
D) Period

5. The time taken to complete one full cycle of a wave is called the:
A) Frequency
B) Wavelength
C) Time period
D) Amplitude

6. The number of complete oscillations made by a particle per unit time is

called:
A) Amplitude
B) Frequency
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C) Wavelength
D) Time period

7. Which of the following is a type of progressive wave?

A) Standing wave
B) Transverse wave
C) Stationary wave
D) All of the above

8. Which of the following waves involves the vibration of particles in the same
direction as the wave's motion?
A) Transverse wave
B) Longitudinal wave
C) Both transverse and longitudinal wave
D) None of the above

9. A wave in which the particles of the medium move perpendicular to the

direction of wave propagation is called a:
A) Longitudinal wave
B) Transverse wave
C) Both longitudinal and transverse wave
D) None of the above

10. A wave where particles of the medium vibrate in the same direction as the
wave is propagating is called a:
A) Longitudinal wave
B) Transverse wave
C) Periodic wave
D) Stationary wave
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11. What type of wave is produced by the vibration of particles in a periodic

motion?
A) Transverse wave
B) Longitudinal wave
C) Periodic wave
D) Stationary wave

12. A sound wave is an example of a:

A) Longitudinal periodic wave
B) Transverse periodic wave
C) Stationary wave
D) None of the above

13. Which of the following refers to the speed of sound in air at 20°C?
A) 1000 m/s
B) 340 m/s
C) 1500 m/s
D) 0 m/s

14. The principle that states the resultant displacement of two or more waves
is the sum of their individual displacements is known as:
A) Doppler effect
B) Superposition principle
C) Simple harmonic motion
D) Wave interference

15. When two sound waves of the same frequency and amplitude interfere,
and the resultant wave has a higher amplitude, the interference is called:
A) Destructive interference
B) Constructive interference
C) Standing wave formation
D) Doppler effect
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16. A stationary wave or standing wave is formed when:

A) Two waves of different frequencies collide
B) Two waves of the same frequency and amplitude travel in opposite directions
C) A wave undergoes reflection
D) A wave is moving through a medium

17. The lowest frequency at which a standing wave can be formed in a

stretched string is called:
A) First harmonic
B) Second harmonic
C) Fundamental frequency
D) Tension frequency

18. The phenomenon where the frequency of a wave changes due to the
motion of the source or the observer is called:
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Doppler effect
D) Superposition

19. When the observer moves towards a stationary sound source, the observed
frequency will:
A) Remain the same
B) Decrease
C) Increase
D) Become zero

20. When the source of a sound is moving towards a stationary observer, the
frequency of the sound will:
A) Increase
B) Decrease
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C) Remain the same

D) Become zero

21. The condition when the observer is moving away from a stationary source,
the frequency of the sound will:
A) Decrease
B) Increase
C) Remain unchanged
D) Be zero

22. When the source of sound moves away from a stationary observer, the
frequency of the sound will:
A) Decrease
B) Increase
C) Remain constant
D) Become infinite

23. Simple harmonic motion (SHM) can be described as a type of motion

where the restoring force is proportional to the:
A) Velocity
B) Displacement
C) Frequency
D) Amplitude

24. In SHM, the time taken to complete one full oscillation is called the:
A) Frequency
B) Wavelength
C) Time period
D) Amplitude
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25. The amplitude of a simple harmonic oscillator represents the:

A) Maximum velocity
B) Maximum acceleration
C) Maximum displacement
D) Time taken to complete one cycle

26. The vibration of an object in simple harmonic motion is best described as:
A) A random motion
B) A back-and-forth motion around a fixed point
C) A motion with no restoring force
D) A circular motion

27. The number of complete oscillations per unit time in simple harmonic
motion is known as the:
A) Frequency
B) Time period
C) Wavelength
D) Amplitude

28. In SHM, the restoring force is directed towards the:

A) Maximum displacement
B) Minimum displacement
C) Equilibrium position
D) None of the above