MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST

Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

Q.1) While examining a newborn baby in the nursery, a physician notes that
MECONIUM is COMING from the umbilicus. Which of the following
embryonic structures has abnormally persisted in this patient?
a. Allantois
b. Vitellointestinal duct
c. Urachus
d. Mesonephric duct

Q.2) A 68-year-old woman presents in the emergency room with dizziness and
nystagmus. Examination reveals a loss of pain and temperature sensation over the
right side of the face and the left side of the body. The patient exhibits ataxia on
the right in both the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following artery
block would explain the patient’s condition?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Q.3) Which structure is palpated in the given image?

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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
a. Anterior tibial artery
b. Posterior tibial artery
c. Plantar artery
d. Dorsalis pedis artery

Q.4) Which nerve passes through the marked foramen in the given image:

a. Lingual nerve
b. Mandibular nerve
c. Chorda tympani nerve
d. Inferior alveolar nerve

Q.5) A patient having the history of leprosy has presented with the deformity as
shown in the image. Which nerve is involved in this case?

a. Median & ULNAR nerve

b. Radial nerve
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
c. Median nerve
d. Ulnar nerve

Q.6) A 28 years old man complains of difficulty in moving limbs on the right
side, with inability to feel pain, hot and cold sensations from the limbs on the
left side. He also complains of inability to feel the vibration sensation on the
right side. Which structure is involved in this case?
a. Hemisection of spinal cord on right side
b. Hemisection of spinal cord on left side
c. Medial medullary syndrome
d. Occlusion of posterior inferior cerebellar artery

Q.7) A 27-year-old pregnant lady noted some painless vaginal spotting

(bleeding) at 17 weeks. On arrival at the hospital, pelvic examination showed
fetal parts in the cervical os and the patient was told that a miscarriage was
inevitable. The products of conception has congenital defect as shown in the
image. What is the most likely pathogenesis of this condition?

a. Non obliteration of allantois

b. Non reduction of physiological hernia of gut tube
c. Maternal folate deficiency
d. Omphalomesenteric vessel occlusion

Q.8) Which of the following brodmann area involved in Broca s motor aphasia?
a. 44, 45
b. 22
c. 17, 18, 19
d. 4, 6

Q.9) Which muscle is attached to the arrow marked area of the bone?
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

a. Sartorius
b. Adductor longus
c. Psoas major
d. Gluteus medius

Q.10) Dorsal pancreatic bud forms all parts of pancreas except:

a. Upper part of head
b. Body
c. Tail
d. Uncinate process

Q.11) Superficial inguinal ring is present in which muscle?

a. External oblique
b. Internal oblique
c. Transversus abdominis
d. Rectus abdominis

Q.12) Corpus striatum is:

a. Caudate + Putamen + Substantia nigra
b. Caudate + Globus Pallidus + Red nucleus
c. Caudate + Putamen + Globus Pallidus
d. Globus Pallidus + Putamen + Amygdala

Q.13) Superior mesenteric artery lies at the level of:

a. L1
b. L2
c. L3
d. L4

Q.14) Filum terminale is an extension of :

a. Duramater
b. Arachnoid mater
c. Piamater
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
d. Spinal nerve

Q.15) Muscle which helps in protrusion of tongue is?

a. Palatoglossus
b. Hyoglossus
c. Genioglossus
d. Styloglossus

Q.16) Morula reaches uterus on:

a. 3rd day after fertilization
b. 4th day after fertilization
c. 6th day after fertilization
d. 8th day after fertilization

Q.17) Anterior compartment of thigh is supplied by which nerve ?

a. Tibial nerve
b. Obturator nerve
c. Femoral nerve
d. Common peroneal

Q.18) “NO” MOVEMENT of head occurs at which joint?

a. Atlanto-occipital joint
b. Joint between C1 & C2
c. Joint between C2 & C3
d. Joint between C3 & C4

Q.19) Action of cholecystokinin include all of the following except:

a. Contraction of gall bladder
b. Secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
c. Decreased hunger
d. Stimulated gastric emptying

Q.20) The alpha rhythm appearing on an electroencephalogram has which of the

following characteristics?
a. It produces 20 to 30 waves per second
b. It disappears when a patient’s eyes open
c. It is replaced by slower, larger waves during REM sleep
d. It is associated with deep sleep

Q.21) Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of :

a. Estradiol
b. Luteinizing hormone
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
c. Progesterone
d. Follicle stimulating hormone

Q.22) Sensory receptors that adapt rapidly are well suited to sensing:
a. The weight of an object held in the hand
b. The rate at which an extremity is being moved
c. Resting body orientation in space
d. Potentially hazardous chemicals in the environment

Q.23) At which location along the basilar membrane are the highest-frequency
sounds detected?
a. Nearest the oval window
b. Farthest from the oval window, near the helicotrema
c. Uniformly along the basilar membrane
d. At the midpoint of the membrane

Q.24) An increase in the action potential frequency in a sensory nerve usually

signifies:
a. Increased intensity of the stimulus
b. Cessation of the stimulus
c. Adaptation of the receptor
d. A constant and maintained stimulus

Q.25) Activation of the baroreceptor reflex ;

a. Inhibits neurons in Cardiac inhibitory centre
b. Excites neurons in RVLM
c. Is primarily involved in short-term regulation of systemic blood pressure
d. All of the above

Q.26) Dilation of efferent arterioles results in an increase in

a. Glomerular blood flow
b. Glomerular capillary pressure
c. GFR
d. Filtration fraction

Q.27) Identify Phase 1 of Cardiac Muscle Action Potential as shown in the

illustration:
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

a. Rapid depolarization
b. Rapid repolarization
c. Slow repolarization
d. Complete repolarization

Q.28) Identify the graph as shown in the illustration:

a. Nerve action potential

b. Monophasic action potential
c. Cardiac muscle action potential
d. Strength-duration curve

Q.29) Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling?
a. CO2
b. O2
c. NO
d. N2

Q.30) True about Ondine’s curse is

a. Voluntary control of respiration is disrupted
b. Automated control of respiration intact
c. Seen in spinal poliomyelitis
d. Such patients can stay alive by breathing voluntarily

Q.31) Short term BP regulation exerted through kidney by

a. ADH
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
b. ANP
c. Epinephrine
d. Aldosterone

Q.32) A 8 month old child presents to with hypoglycemia in between feeding.

On examination there was hepatomegaly and liver was palpable 1 cm below
subcostal margin. The child also presents with lactic acidosis, ketosis and
xanthomas on the buttocks. What’s the most likely enzyme deficiency leading
to this?
A. Branching enzyme
b. Glucose 6 phosphatase
c. Glycogen synthase
d. Phosphofructokinase

Q.33) Concentration of DNA is measured by

a. Infrared examination
b. Deoxy ribose estimation
c. Absorption at 260 nm
d. Ultrasound examination

Q.34) A 4 months old child presents to the Pediatric OPD with following type
of rash around genitalia. Which of the following mineral deficiency is most
likely to be associated with this?

a. Cobalt deficiency
b. Iron deficiency
c. Copper deficiency
d. Zinc deficiency
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

Q.35) Which is not a function on Nitric oxide?

a. Relaxes smooth muscle

b. Stimulates platelet aggregation
c. Neurotransmitter in brain
d. Mediates bactericidal action of macrophages

Q.36) Niacin sparing amino acid is:

a. Phenylalanine
b. Tryptophan
c. Methionine
d. Tyrosine

Q.37) In Fish eye disease there is deficiency of :

a. Hepatic lipase
b. ATP binding cassette transporter – I
c. Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase
d. Microsomal triglyceride transfer protein

Q.38) Essential fructosuria is due to the deficiency of :

a. Aldolase A
b. Aldolase B
c. Fructokinase
d. Glucokinase

Q.39) Isoform of LDH elevated in COVID-19 in Indian population is:

a. LDH 1
b. LDH 2
c. LDH 3
d. LDH 4

Q.40) Vitamin C dependent synthesis of carnitine in liver and kidney is derived

from :
a. Tyrosine & methionine
b. Lysine & methionine
c. Arginine & glycine
d. Cysteine & glycine

Q.41) A middle aged male patient presented with hepatosplenomegaly and the
following: The finding in the picture is due to subcutaneous deposition of:
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

a. Cholesterol
b. Triglyceride
c. Cholesterol esters
d. Phospholipids

Q.42) A 10 year old boy presents to the OPD with history of multiple fractures
during the different stages of development. On examination he is also having a
blue sclera.

Most likely diagnosis is-

a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b. Marfan syndrome
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Homocystinuria

Q.43) Metachromatic leukodystrophy is due to the deficiency of :

a. Sphingomyelinase
b. Hexosaminidasea
c. Hexosaminidase B
d. Arylsulfatase A

Q.44) Malate – Aspartate shuttle is important in:

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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Fatty acid synthesis
c. Β-oxidation of fatty acid
d. Glycolysis

Q.45) Vibrational spectrum of protein is determined by :

a. Primary structure
b. Secondary structure
c. Tertiary structure
d. Quaternary structure

Q.46) Swimming pool odour in urine is classically seen in:

a. Phenylketonuria
b. Glutaric aciduria
c. Hawkinsinuria
d. Trimethylaminuria

Q.47) A 35 years old male returns back to India from China. On immigration he
was found to have slightly elevated temperature. One of the following screening
tests was used for this?

a. CBNAAT
b. D- Dimer
c. Real time RT-PCR
d. CRP

Q.48) Kwashiorkor is reported in Indian Children mainly due to?

a. Due to decreased intake of carbohydrate
b. Due to decreased intake of protein
c. Due to decreased intake of fat
d. Due to decreased intake of vitamins

Q.49) Serum marker indicating active viral replication in hepatitis-B is:

a. HBsAg
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
b. HBeAg
c. HBcAg
d. HBV DNA

Q.50) Amyloid deposits in liver are initially seen in:

a. Space of disse
b. Hepatic parenchyma
c. Intrahepatic ducts
d. Portal tract

Q.51) Mallory Hyaline bodies are present in all EXCEPT:

a. Alcoholic cirrhosis
b. Indian childhood cirrhosis
c. Primary biliary cirrhosis
d. Secondary biliary cirrhosis

Q.52) Common pathological changes seen in kidney in benign hypertension are

?
a. Fibronoid necrosis
b. Microaneurysm
c. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
d. Thining of walls

Q.53) Most common predisposing factor for aortic dissection is:

a. Atherosclerosis
b. Syphilis
c. Hypertension
d. Smoking

Q.54) All the following are true regarding Wegener’s granulomatosis except:
a. Affects large size blood vessels
b. May affect lungs and kidneys
c. Necrotizing granuloma may be seen n microscopy
d. PR3-ANCAs are present in upto 95% of cases

Q.55) Identify the disease corresponds to this finding on renal biopsy:

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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

a. MPGN
b. HSP
c. MGN
d. PSGN

Q.56) Which is the following is not inherited as X-linked recessive:

a. G-6-PD deficiency
b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Hemophilia

Q.57) True about NK cells are all of the following except:

a. Mediates type IV hypersensitivity
b. Kill viruses
c. They are granular lymphocytes
d. Release small cytoplasmic granules of protein called perforin and
granzyme

Q.58) MHC is important in pathogenesis of:

a. Idiopathic disease
b. Iatrogenic disease
c. Auto-immune disease
d. Tumours

Q.59) SLE is which type of hypersensitivity reaction:

a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity

Q.60) Study the following karyotype and make a diagnosis:

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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Downs syndrome
c. Velocardiofacial defects
d. Edward syndrome

Q.61) Malignancies associated with virus include :

a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Burkitt’s lymphoma
c. Carcinoma of cervix
d. All of the above

Q.62) Schiller Duval Body is seen in :

a. Endodermal sinus tumor
b. Endomtrial carcinoma
c. Granulose cell tumor
d. Multiple tumor

Q.63) In which of the following condition, Cholinomimetics are not used?

a. Glaucoma
b. Postsurgical ileus/atony
c. Myasthenia gravis
d. Bradycardia

Q.64) Which of the following drug is not used for overactive bladder?
a. Duloxetine
b. Darifenacin
c. Oxybutynin
d. Flavoxate

Q.65) A patient in emergency with tachycardia, hyperthermia, bronchial

dilatation and constipation. The person is likely to be suffering from overdose
of:
a. Atropine
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
b. Organophosphorus compound
c. Mushroom
d. Paracetamol

Q.66) Which for the following is an antimuscarinic drug?

a. Duloxetine
b. Oxybutynin
c. Ephedrine
d. Pilocarpine

Q.67) Neostigmine is used in the following EXCEPT:

a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Cobra bite
c. Atony of bladder
d. Glaucoma

Q.68) Function of M2 receptor in heart:

a. SA node hyperpolarization
b. AV node increased velocity of conduction
c. Increased contractility of conduction
d. Increased Ach release from cholinergic nerve endings

Q.69) Treatment of amanita poisoning is:

a. Adrenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Atropine
d. Hydrocortisone

Q.70) Anticholinesterases are used in:

a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Parkinsonism
c. Prostatic hypertrophy
d. Cardiogenic shock

Q.71) Fastest acting mydriatic:

a. Atropine
b. Homatoropine
c. Scopolamine
d. Tropicamide

Q.72) Antagonist of benzodiazepine is:

a. Naltrexone
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b. Flumazenil
c. Naloxone
d. N- acetyl cvsteine

Q.73) Drug contraindicated in acute intermittent porphyria:

a. Thiopentone
b. Ketamine
c. Propofol
d. Etomidate

Q.74) Which among the following is the mechanism of action of

carbamazepine?
a. Prolongation of inactivated state of Na⁺ channels
b. Facilitates GABA
c. Inhibition of Ca²⁺ channels
d. NMDA receptor blockade

Q.75) Cleft lip is caused by which of the following drug?

a. Levatiracetum
b. Phenytoin
c. Sodium valproate
d. Phenobarbitone

Q.76) Which of the following is a mixed alpha and beta agonist?

a. Dobutamine
b. Fenoldopam
c. Epinephrine
d. Phenylephrine

Q.77) Identify the disease caused by virus shown in the image below.

a. Pneumonia
b. Diarrhea
c. Meningitis
d. UTI

Q.78) A patient had dengue fever 2 years back caused by Dengue serotype - 1.
Now he is infected with serotype - 2. Which is correct statement?
a. There is no chance of Dengue hemorrhagic fever
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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
b. Old infection has no relation to new infection
c. There are increased chances of dengue hemorrhagic fever
d. The recent infection will cause mild disease

Q.79) Identify the organism which was stained by Wayson stain?

a. Staph Aureus
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Yersinia Pestis
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Q.80) A farmer who is also having dairy farm with h/o handling cows,
presented to dermatology OPD with ulcer over forearm with central black
eschar. True statement related to organism is :
a. Coagulase +ve
b. Mcfadyeans reaction +ve
c. Naglers reaction +ve
d. Satellism +ve

Q.81) Bacterial vaginosis which is true?

a. Ph < 4.5
b. Clue cells seen
c. Odorless discharge
d. Bacilli with school of fish appearance seen

Q.82) Identify the test :

a. Coagulase test
b. Novobiocin test
c. Catalase test
d. Bacitracin test

Q.83) Weil felix reaction is used for diagnosis of:

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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Chylamydia
c. Rickettsia
d. Bartonella

Q.84) A 6-year-old boy is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by his

parents. He has been experiencing a dry cough with coryzal symptoms. On
examination, there is evidence of conjunctivitis and an erythematous rash on his
forehead and neck which is confluent. Oral examination reveals red spots with a
white centre on the buccal mucosa, adjacent to the lower second molar tooth.
He is currently apyrexial, though his parents state he has been feverish over the
past two days. His heart rate is 80 bpm. No one else in his family is unwell,
though his brother did have chickenpox earlier in the month. What is the most
likely cause for this presentation?
a. HHV-6
b. Mumps
c. Parvovirus B19
d. Measles

Q.85) Which of the following organisms show this pattern of growth?

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Haemophilus Influenzae
c. Yersinia pestis
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Q.86) A 35-year-old intravenous drug user with history of RHD is admitted

with fever, cough, (SOB), Splinter haemorrhages, Clubbing, Osler nodes. An
echocardiogram shows evidence of severe tricuspid regurgitation and there are
two vegetations on the valve. The organism was found to be Catalase +ve and
Beta-hemolytic. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be grown in
blood culture?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Candida albicans
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Q.87) Wool-Sorter disease is caused by :

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Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
a. Pseudomonas
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Vibrio parahemolyticus
d. Spirillus minor

Q.88) Which of the following is not associated with streptococcus pyogenes?

a. Rheumatic fever
b. Scarlet fever
c. Acute GN
d. Scalded skin syndrome

Q.89) An 88-year-old woman who lives in a nursing home has recently had a
chest infection and is treated with amoxicillin for one week. Shortly after the
antibiotic course is complete, the woman develops abdominal pain, watery
diarrhea and a temperature of 39.2°C. All other residents in the home are well.
A stool sample is taken and endoscopy is performed. What is the most likely
causative organism in this scenario?
a. Norwalk virus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Salmonella
d. Clostridium difficile

Q.90) Identify the fugal organism in this slide stained with Gomori
methenamine silver stain:

a. Acute angle branching, Rhizopus

b. Right angle branching , Aspergillus
c. Acute angle branching , Aspergillus
d. Right angle branching, Mucor

Q.91) Tailing of wound suggests:

a. Direction of injury
b. Weapon used
c. Type of wound
d. Surface of weapon

Q.92) Lightening injuries are :

a. Rboroscent burn
b. Filigree burn
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c. Litchenburg burn
d. All

Q.93) Tattoing is due to -

a. Smoke of burnt particle
b. Flame
c. Impregnation of unburnt particle
d. Heat

Q.94) Fish tailing is seen in :

a. Incised wound
b. Stab wound
c. Laceraled wound
d. Chop wound

Q.95) Tentative cuts are :

a. Suicidal
b. Homicidal
c. Accidental
d. None

Q.96) Epidural Haemorhhage in due to rupture of:

a. Middle cerebral artery
b. Middle meningeal artery
c. Bridging veins
d. Auterior communicating artery

Q.97) Calibre term is applied for :

a. Smooth bore gun
b. Shot gun
c. Rifled fire arm
d. None

Q.98) Artificial bruise is seen in ?

a. Cannabis
b. Semicarpus
c. Calotropis
d. 2 and 3

Q.99) Injury that comes under sec 320 IPC is:

a. Abrasion over face
b. Nasal bone fracture
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c. Epistaxis
d. Lacerated wound over scalp

Q.100) Which of the following is not seen in black gun powder of bullet?
a. Sulphur
b. Charcoal
c. Potassium
d. Nitrocellulose

Q.101) Given scientist is Known as:

a. Father of public health

b. Father of epidemiology
c. Father of vaccination
d. Father of infection

Q.102) Sampling method is:

a. Simple Random
b. Cluster random
c. Systematic random
d. Stratified random

Q.103) All vaccines stored here except:

a. Polio
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b. DPT
c. Vitamin A
d. Diluent

Q.104) Main beneficiary of the Programme with given logo:

a. 0-6 year
b. 6 month -6 years
c. Pregnant women
d. Reproductive women

Q.105) Identify given device .

a. IUCD
b. Oral hormonal tablet
c. Oral non hormonal tablet
d. Contraceptive injection

Q.106) A study was done to know about protective effect of covid vaccine on
lung pneumonia and it was noted that only 20 % of patient admitted with
pneumonic consolidation are giving H/O covid vaccine while its was up to 90
% in healthy person. Identify type of study:
a. Case control
b. Cohort
c. Cross sectional
d. Clinical Trial

Q.107) Vaccine contra-indicated in pregnancy -

a. Influenza
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b. Yellow fever
c. Tetanus.
d. Rabies

Q.108) Activities are related to MCH care :

a. Janani suraksha yojna
b. Catchup – Keep up – Follow up
c. AFP Surveillance
d. GOBI-FFF

Q.109) Period included in peri-natal mortality rate-

a. Early neo natal
b. Late neonatal
c. Neonatal
d. Post- Neonatal

Q.110) Under anaemia mukt bharat’ program, dose of IFA tablet for pregnant
lady-
A. 60mg iron, 100 mcg FA daily
B. 60mg iron, 500 mcg FA daily
C. 60mg iron, 500 mcg FA weekly
D. 60mg iron, 100 mcg FA weekly

Q.111) Identify Vector of endemic typhus.

D
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Q.112) If a lady gives history of surgery done 2 years back for ectopic pregnancy,
which contraception, should be avoided?
a. Condom
b. IUCD
c. OCP
d. Saheli

Q.113) Correct statement for left skewed deviation.

a. Mean= Mode
b. Mode > Mean
c. Mean > Median
d. Mean =Median

Q.114) In the middle of night a pregnant women starts labour pains. Which health
worker is called by relatives to take patient to hospital?
a. Asha
b. Doctor
c. MPW-F
d. Anganwadi

Q.115) Sustainable developmental goals.

a. WHO, 2000-2015
b. WHO, 2016-2030
c. UNITED NATION, 2000-2015
d. UNITED NATION, 2016-2030

Q.116) IQ level of 45 is?

a. Normal
b. Moron
c. Imbecile
d. Idiot

Q.117) ‘modified kupuswammy scale’ is classification of:

a. Socio economic status(rural)
b. Socio economic status(urban)
c. Literacy (rural)
d. Literacy (urban)

Q.118) Preventive methods for covid-19 as surface dis infectant:

a. Social distancing
b. 1% hypochlorite
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c. 70% alcohol
d. All above

Q.119) All are obesity parameters except-

a. Quetlet index
b. Pearl index
c. Ponderal index
d. Waist hip ratio

Q.120) All are diseases included under WHO vision 2020 except :
a. Cataract
b. Onchocerciasis
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Trachoma

Q.121) All are true for tuberculosis except:

a. 500Rs/ month for nutrition
b. Dots-99
c. Nishchay
d. Fixed dose combination therapy

Q.122) If agent is undergoing both multiplication and maturation in vector: the

bio-logical cycle known as:
a. Propogative
b. Cyclo propogative
c. Developmental
d. Cyclo developmental

Q.123) Vector of ‘Q’ fever:

a. Mite
b. Tick
c. Mosquito
d. None

Q.124) All are true for Japanese encephalitis except:

a. Pigs—amplifiers
b. Causative agent—arbovirus
c. Vector—culex
d. JE - killed vaccine given under universal immunization program

Q.125) Schedule for rabies vaccination after dog bite in non vaccinated person.
a. 0,3,7,14,28
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b. 2-2-2-0-2
c. 2-0-1-0-1
d. Any of above

Q.126) A 30 year non pregnant lady reported to AIIMS, DELHI OPD with
history of high grade fever and chills and diagnosed as a case of vivex malaria,
treatment advised—
a. Artemether-lumifentrine
b. Artesunate-sulfadoxine-pyremethamine
c. Chloroquine
d. Chloroquine with primaquine

Q.127) Most important step in controlling malaria.

a. Indoor residual spray
b. Avoid mosquito breeding places
c. Denga vaxia
d. Out door fogging

Q.128) A test with 70% sensitivity and 80% specificity applied on population
with disease prevalence of 20%. Same test applied on a different population
with disease prevalence of 10% . Parameters affected are:
a. Sensitivity decreases
b. Specificity decreases
c. Positive predictive value decrease
d. Negative predictive value decrease

Q.129) Under national health and family welfare programme ,what will be
preferred method of contraception for a woman who had just delivered first
baby vaginally in a hospital ?
a. IUCD
b. Tubal ligation- mini laparotomy
c. Tubal ligation- laparoscopic
d. Oral pills

Q.130) A very common disease in Bihar which causes blackish skin

discoloration with massive hepato splenomegaly. What could be vector
responsible?
a. Mosquito
b. Sand fly
c. Tick
d. Mite
 MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST
Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
Q.131) An 18 year old man attends the emergency department with severe
testicular pain. He feels generally unwell and has a history of swelling of the
scrotum for two days. On examination, the scrotum is oedematous, particularly
on the left side, and extremely tender. He has a pyrexia of 38.4 oc and is
tachycardic at 114 bpm. On general examination swelling and tenderness at
both angles of the jaw are noted. What is the most likely cause for this
presentation?
a. Chlamydia orchitis
b. Mumps
c. Seminoma
d. Testicular torsion

Q.132) A 30 year old person reported to emergency OPD with symptoms of

fever with chills with maculopapular rash 2 week after louse bite. Most
probable cause of infection-
a. Epidemic typhus
b. Endemic typhus
c. Scrub typhus
d. Measle

Q.133) Following a train accident, emergency response team members reach to

the site of accident and they tried to separate patients as per triage guidelines.
Which colour tag is treated as last referral in triage system.
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Green
d. Black

Q.134) A worker who has been diagnosed as a case of asbestosis, is at a higher

risk of developing which cancer
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
b. Bronchogenic carcinoma of lung
c. Squamous cell carcinoma of skin
d. Leukemia

Q.135) A25 year lady diagnosed with 8 week pregnancy with MDR TB , best
way to manage:
a. Start ATT. Continue pregnancy
b. First MTP, then start ATT
c. Start ATT after delivery
d. Start modified ATT, continue pregnancy
 MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST
Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
Q.136) A 46 year old Trumpet player has developed a neck swelling on right
side of neck X ray of Neck is shown in the picture.

What is the possible diagnosis?

a. Laryngocele
b. Thyroglossal cyst
c. Branchial cyst
d. Ranula

Q.137) A young male was hit with iron rod on face during a street fight 2 days
ago. He has developed nasal swelling and x- ray picture given in image.

What is the ideal treatment of this patient?

a. Immediate fracture reduction
b. Immediate aspiration of septal haematoma
c. Fracture reduction after 7 days
d. Anterior Nasal packing

Q.138) A 12 year old boy has presenting with recurrent episodes of profuse
epistaxis and reddish nasal mass is seen filling nasal cavity .
What is investigation best avoided in this patient?
a. Angiography
 MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST
Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
b. Contrast enhanced CT
c. Biopsy
d. MRI

Q.139) What is the commonest presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

a. Unilateral Conductive hearing loss
b. Cervical lymphadenopathy
c. Nasal obstruction
d. Epistaxis

Q.140) Which of the following is best description of Pott’s puffy tumour?

a. Tuberculosis of nose
b. Mucocele of frontal sinus
c. Subperiosteal abscess of frontal bone
d. Osteoma of frontal sinus

Q.141) A 29 year old HIV positive individual presents to emergency in a

critical state with deranged vitals. The examination shows a blackish necrotic
debris in the nasal cavity with necrosed skin of external nose. What is the best
treatment of this patient?

a. Fluconazole
b. Tetracycline+streptomycin
c. Dapsone
 MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST
Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
d. Amphotericin B

Q.142) A 5 year old child presents with voice change and stridor .
Identify the abnormality marked on the fiberoptic laryngoscopy :

a. Hemangioma
b. Juvenile repiratory papillomatosis
c. Carcinoma larynx
d. Respiratory nodules

Q.143) A 5 year old patient presents with the history of hearing loss. On
examination he is found to have a pearly white mass behind the intact tympanic
membrane.

What is the most possible diagnosis?

a. Congenital cholesteatoma
b. Otomycosis
c. Otosclerosis
d. Exosteosis

Q.144) Which of the following arteries of the Kiesselbach’s plexus is not a

branch of external carotid artery?
a. Sphenopalatine artery
b. Greater Palatine artery
c. Anterior ethmoidal arteries
d. Septal branch of the superior labial artery
 MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST
Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022
Q.145) Target sign is seen in a blot test from nasal discharge in which of these
conditions?
a. Traumatic CSF leak
b. Fracture mastoid
c. Spontaneous CSF leak
d. Meningoencephalocele

Q.146) Which of the following is the diagnosis on the audiogram shown

below?

a. Otosclerosis
b. Ototoxicity
c. Meniere disease
d. Noise induced hearing loss

Q.147) A 3month old baby presents with inspiratory stridor almost since
birth. The cry of baby is normal. The stridor decreases in prone position. What
is the possible diagnosis?
a. Vocal cord palsy
b. Acute epiglottitis
c. Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
d. Laryngomalacia

Q.148) While surgical removal of Impacted fish bone, the surgeon has
accidentally injured internal laryngeal nerve. What is the possible site of
impaction of fish bone?
a. Base of Tongue
b. Tonsil
c. Esophagus
d. Pyriform sinus
 MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST
Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

Q.149) What is the exact anatomical site of formation of Zenker’s

diverticulum (=Pharyngeal Pouch)
a. Between superior and middle constrictor Muscles
b. Between inferior and middle constrictor Muscles
c. Between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus Muscles
d. Between stylopharyngeus and palatopharyngeus Muscles

Q.150) A patient of t3nomo carcinoma larynx has undergone total

laryngectomy. He has permanent tracheostomy following this surgery. The
surgeon has created a fistula between trachea and esophageus to place a valve
like device for vocal rehabilitation.
What is the name of this device?

a. Electrolarynx device
b. Blom Singer prosthesis
c. Esophageal speech device
d. Artificial larynx device
 MIST- MEDICAL INSTITUTE FOR SCREENING TEST
Mock Test - 2 Paper - 1 on 29th May 2022

Answer key
1-B 2-D 3-B 4-D 5-D 6-A 7-B 8-A 9-C 10-D
11-A 12-C 13-A 14-C 15-C 16-B 17-C 18-B 19-D 20-B
21-B 22-B 23-A 24-A 25-C 26-A 27-B 28-D 29-C 30-D
31-C 32-B 33-C 34-D 35-B 36-B 37-C 38-C 39-C 40-B
41-A 42-C 43-D 44-D 45-C 46-C 47-C 48-B 49-B 50-A
51-D 52-C 53-C 54-A 55-A 56-C 57-A 58-C 59-C 60-C
61-D 62-A 63-D 64-A 65-A 66-B 67-D 68-A 69-C 70-A
71-D 72-B 73-A 74-A 75-B 76-C 77-B 78-C 79-C 80-B
81-B 82-C 83-C 84-D 85-B 86-A 87-B 88-D 89-D 90-C
91-A 92-D 93-C 94-B 95-A 96-B 97-C 98-D 99-B 100-D
101-B 102-D 103-C 104-A 105-D 106-A 107-B 108-A 109-A 110-B
111-B 112-B 113-B 114-A 115-D 116-C 117-B 118-B 119-B 120-C
121-C 122-B 123-D 124-D 125-D 126-D 127-A 128-C 129-A 130-B
131-B 132-A 133-D 134-B 135-B 136-A 137-C 138-C 139-B 140-C
141-D 142-B 143-A 144-C 145-A 146-A 147-D 148-D 149-C 150-B