GDnBwfth41EvJI1WdAzY (1)
GDnBwfth41EvJI1WdAzY (1)
GDnBwfth41EvJI1WdAzY (1)
21 + 1
37
15
10.15 10.15 10.30
Please check that this question paper contains 21 printed pages +1 Map.
Please check that this question paper contains 37 questions.
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m.,
the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.
gm_m{OH$ {dkmZ
SOCIAL SCIENCE
:3 : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
(i) 37
(ii) :
(iii) 1 20 1
(iv) 21 24 2
40
(v) 25 29 3
60
(vi) 30 33 5
120
(vii) 34 36
4
(viii) 37 37 a
2 37 b 3 5
(ix)
IÊS> H$$
(~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ) (20 1=20)
1.
______________
(A) (B)
(C) - (D)
2. ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
32/S/2 Page 2 of 23
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General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 37 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Question paper is divided into six sections Section A, B, C, D, E and F.
(iii) Section A Questions no. 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question
carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 40 words.
(v) Section C Questions no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer type questions. Each question
carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 60 words.
(vi) Section D Questions no. 30 to 33 are Long Answer (LA) type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words.
(vii) Section E Questions no. 34 to 36 are Case-based /Source-based questions with three
sub-questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(viii) Section F Question no. 37 is Map skill-based question with two parts 37(a) from
History (2 marks) and 37(b) from Geography (3 marks). This question carries total
5 marks.
(ix) In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually
Impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions
are to be attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only.
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions) (20 1=20)
6. -
? 1
(A)
(B)
(C) -
(D)
7. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
8. - ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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3. Choose the correct pair regarding the sectors of economy. 1
(A) Primary Mining
(B) Secondary Flower cultivation
(C) Tertiary Fishing
(D) Secondary Bee-keeping
4. Which one of the following sources meets the needs of loan of rural households in
India to the maximum extent ? 1
(A) Commercial Bank (B) Cooperative Societies
(C) Moneylender (D) Businessman
5. Which one of the following is the main source of a b 1
(A) Money obtained from Reserve Bank
(B) Money received from demand deposit
(C) Money obtained as interest on loan from the borrower
(D) Money received from the property of a defaulting borrower
6. Which one of the following orders has been passed by the Supreme Court to
reform political parties in India ? 1
(A) It is mandatory for all parties to hold organizational elections.
(B) It is mandatory for all parties to file income tax returns.
(C) It is mandatory for all the candidates to give details of criminal cases on
affidavit.
(D) Issuing orders to regulate the internal working of parties.
7. Choose the correct option regarding the Concurrent List of legislative rights in
India. 1
(A) Currency, Irrigation, Adoption and Computer Software
(B) Defense, Foreign Affairs, Banking and Communication
(C) Police, Business, Commerce and Agriculture
(D) Education, Forest, Marriage and Adoption
8. Which one of the following is the majority community in Sri Lanka ? 1
(A) Sinhalas (B) Indian Tamils
(C) Sri Lankan Tamils (D) Christians
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9.
1
I. II.
III. IV.
:
(A) I II (B) II III
(C) III IV (D) I IV
10. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
:
(A) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(B) (A) (R) , (R), (A)
(C) (A) (R)
(D) (A) (R)
12. - - ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D) -
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9. Refer to the following countries with federal political system and choose the
correct option : 1
I. United States of America II. China
III. Japan IV. India
Options :
(A) Only I and II are correct. (B) Only II and III are correct.
(C) Only III and IV are correct. (D) Only I and IV are correct.
10. Vertical division of power is : 1
(A) Power is shared among different organs of government.
(B) Power is shared among different social groups.
(C) Power is shared among different pressure groups.
(D) Power is shared among different levels of governments.
11. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
both the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A) : Power sharing is the spirit of democracy.
Reason (R) : A legitimate government is one where all the groups connect
with the government through their participation.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
14. ? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
16.
___________ 1
(A) 1878 (B) 1968
(C) 1887 (D) 1778
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13. Read the following features of plantation agriculture and choose the correct option : 1
I. A single crop is grown on a large area.
II. It is capital intensive farming.
III. It is practised in areas of high population pressure on land.
IV. Food grain crops are the major crops of this type of farming.
Options :
(A) Only I and II are correct. (B) Only II and III are correct.
(C) Only III and IV are correct. (D) Only I and IV are correct.
15. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
both the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A) : We need to protect forests and wildlife.
Reason (R) : Conservation maintains ecological diversity.
Options :
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
:
? 1
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
18. 1
I.
II. -
III.
IV.
:
(A) I, II, III IV (B) II, I, III IV
(C) III, I, II IV (D) IV, I, II III
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17. Study the given picture. The work being done in the picture comes under which of
the following sectors of the economy ? 1
Note : The following question is for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of
Q.No. 17.
Animal husbandry comes under which of the following sectors of the economy ? 1
(A) Primary (B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary
18. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct
option 1
I. Establishment of Depressed Classes Association
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Formation of the Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
IV. Second Round Table Conference in London
Options :
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, I, III, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV (D) IV, I, II, III
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19. 1
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
20. : 1
(A) -
(B)
(C) -
(D)
- (4 2=8)
21.
22. 2
23.
? 2
24. a ?
b - ?
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19. Choose the correct option regarding the Axis powers in the Second World War. 1
(A) Germany, Italy and China
(B) Britain, France and Germany
(C) Germany, France and Italy
(D) Germany, Japan and Italy
20. Choose the correct option from the following regarding nineteenth century
liberalism : 1
(A) Monarchy, social hierarchy and property must be maintained.
(B) The abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and
capital.
(C) Criticised the glorification of reason and science.
(D) Not tolerating dissent and imposing censorship.
SECTION B
(Very Short Answer Type Questions) (4 2=8)
22.
examples. 2
23. How did measures taken by the Sri Lankan Government increase the feeling of
alienation among the Tamils ? Explain. 2
24. (a) How did the Silk Route connect the world ? Explain with any two
examples. 2
OR
(b) How did our foods facilitate cultural exchanges between distant countries ?
Explain with any two examples. 2
32/S/2 Page 13 of 23 P.T.O.
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- (5 3=15
25.
26. 3
27. 3
28. (a)
(b)
29.
3
- (4 5=20
30. (a) 5
(b)
? 5
31. (a) 5
(b) 5
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SECTION C
(Short Answer Type Questions) (5 3=15)
25. Explain any three challenges before Indian political parties in the present time. 3
29.
s. 3
SECTION D
(Long Answer Type Questions) (4 5=20)
31. (a) Explain the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India. 5
OR
(b) Explain the difference between organized and unorganized sectors. 5
(b)
? 5
33. (a) 5
(b) ?
2+3=5
>>
- / - (3 4=12)
34.
(34.1) ? 1
(34.2) ? 1
(34.3)
? 2
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32. (a) How does democracy help in economic growth and development of a
country ? Explain with an example. 5
OR
(b) How does democracy stand much superior to any other form of
government, in respect of women dignity ? Explain with examples. 5
SECTION E
(Source-Based/Case-Based Questions) (3 4=12)
34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Social and Religious Diversity
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian after every
ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits every household and
records the religion of each member of that household exactly the way each
(35.1) 1
(35.2) ? 1
(35.3) ? 2
36.
-
-
-
-
(3 .1) 1
(3 .2) - 1
(3 .3) -
2
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35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Jikji
The Jikji
movable metal type. It contains the essential features of Zen Buddhism. About
150 monks of India, China and Korea are mentioned in the book. It was printed in
late 14th century. While the first volume of the book is unavailable, the second
one is available in the National Library of France. This work marked an important
technical change in the print culture. That is why it was inscribed on the
UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001.
(35.1) Mention the significance of the Jikji in the history of printing 1
(35.2) Why was the Jikji inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World
Register in 2001 ? 1
(35.3) How does the Jikji contribute to the understanding of Zen Buddhism ? 2
36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
Sustainability of Development
Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of
overuse in many parts of the country. About 300 districts have reported a water
level decline of over 4 metres during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the
country is overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60 per cent
of the country would be doing the same if the present way of using this resource
continues. Groundwater overuse is particularly found in the agriculturally
prosperous regions of Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau areas of central
and south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban settlements.
(36.1) Explain the meaning of Sustainability of Development. 1
(36.2) Describe the serious threat caused by overuse of underground water. 1
(36.3) Mention any two suggestions for the farmers to reduce the overuse of the
groundwater in agriculture. 2
32/S/2 Page 19 of 23 P.T.O.
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- (2+3=5)
37. (a) - , A B
A. 1
B. 1
(b) - ,
: 3 1=3
(i)
(ii) : -
(iii) :
(iv)
:
5 1=5
(37.1)
(37.2)
(37.3)
(37.4) -
(37.5)
(37.6)
32/S/2 Page 20 of 23
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SECTION F
(Map Skill-Based Questions) (2+3=5)
37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline
map of India (on page 23). Identify them with the help of the following
information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
A. The place where Gandhiji organized Satyagraha to help the
peasants. 1
B. The place where the session of the Indian National Congress was
held in 1927. 1
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the
following with suitable symbols : 3 1=3
(i) Leading Coffee-producing State
(ii) Durg : Major iron-ore mines
(iii) Kochi : Major sea port
(iv) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
Note : The following questions are only for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in
lieu of Q.No. 37.
Attempt any five questions. 5 1=5
(37.1) Name the place where Gandhiji organised Satyagraha to help the peasants.
(37.2) Name the place where the session of the Indian National Congress was
held in 1927.
(37.3) Name the leading Coffee-producing State of India.
(37.4) Name the state where Durg iron-ore mines are located.
(37.5) Name the state where Kochi sea port is located.
(37.6) Name the place where Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is located.
1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of the
candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of the
candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting
evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done according
to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and
religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or
knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks
be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to
understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.These are in the nature of Guidelines
only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own expression and if the
expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the first day,
to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is
any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant
for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual
evaluators.
6. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked. Evaluators will
not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded.
This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for different
parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be
followed strictly.
8. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may
also be followed strictly.
1
9. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be retained
and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11. A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question Paper) has
to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day and evaluate
20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in
Spot Guidelines).
13. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in the past:-
Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly and clearly
indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked as cross
(X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15. Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by the candidate
shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in
order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously
and judiciously.
16. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot Evaluation”
before starting the actual evaluation.
17. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title page,
correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18. The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the prescribed
processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they
must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the Marking
Scheme.
2
iwjd ijh{kk tqykbZ & 2024
vad ;kstuk
d{kk X Lkkekftd foKku
Paper Code: 32/S/2
lsV & 2 iw.kkZad 80
Ikz-la- ewY; fcUnq i`’B vad
la[;k
[k.M d 1x20=20
¼cgq fodYih; iz”u½
1. (A) fodflr 65 E 1
2. (D) dsjy 10 E 1
4. (C) lkgwdkj 48 E 1
6. (C) lHkh mEehnokjksa dks “kiFk & i= }kjk vkijkf/kd ekeyksa dk C;kSjk 60 P 1
nsuk vfuok;Z gSA
7. (D) f”k{kk] ou] fookg vkSj xksn ysuk 16 P 1
8. (A) falagyh 3P 1
11. (A) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k gSA 6P 1
15. (C) (A) vkSj (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (A) dh lgh O;k[;k gSA 13 G 1
3
dsoy n`f’Vckf/kr fo|kfFkZ;ksa gsrq 20 E 1
(A) IkzkFkfed
18. (C) III, I, II, IV 40-42 1
H
19. (D) teZuh] tkiku vkSj bVyh 74 H 1
[k.M [k 4x2=8
¼vfr y?kq&mÙkjh; iz”u½
21. oS”ohdj.k dks laHko cukus esa lwpuk ,oa lapkj izkS|ksfxdh dh Hkwfedk dk 63E 2x1=2
fo”ys’k.k dhft,A
(i) orZeku le; esa nwjlapkj]daI;wVj vkSj baVjusV ds {ks= esa izkS|ksfxdh
nwzr xfr ls ifjofrZr gks jgh gSA
(ii) nwjlapkj lqfo/kkvksa ¼VsyhxzkQ] VsyhQksu] eksckby Qksu ,oa QSDl½
dk fo”o Hkj esa ,d nwljs ls laidZ djus] lwpukvksa dks rRdky
izkIr djus vkSj nwjorhZ {ks=ksa ls laokn djus ds fy, iz;ksx fd;k
tkrk gSA
(iii) ;s lqfo/kk,a lapkj mixzgksa }kjk lqxe gqbZ gSaA
(iv) daI;wVj dk vc izR;sd {ks= esa izos”k gks x;k gSA
(v) baVjusV dh lgk;rk ls lwpukvksa dks izkIr fd;k tk ldrk gS ,oa
mUgsa vkil esa ,d nwljs ds lkFk lk>k fd;k tk ldrk gSaA
(vi) baVjusV ls ge rRdky bysDVªksfud Mkd ¼bZ&esy½ Hkst ldrs gS
vkSj vR;ar de ewY; ij fo”o Hkj esa ckr ¼ok;l esy½ dj ldrs
gSaA
(vii)dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha nks fcUnqvksa dk fo”ys’k.k visf{kr gSA
22. [kfut gekjs thou ds vfr vfuok;Z Hkkx gSaA^^ mnkgj.kksa lfgr dFku dh 42G 2X1=2
iqf’V dhft,A
4
(i) gekjs }kjk mi;ksx dh tkus okyh yxHkx lHkh phtsa] ,d NksVh
fiu ls ysdj Åaph bekjr ;k cM+s tgkt rd] lHkh [kfutksa ls
cuh gSaA
(ii) jsyos ykbusa vkSj lM+dksa dk Mkej] gekjs midj.k vkSj e'khujh Hkh
[kfutksa ls cus gSaA
(iii)dkjsa] clsa] jsyxkfM+;k¡] gokbZ tgkt+ [kfutksa ls fufeZr gksrs gSa vkSj
i`Foh ls çkIr fo|qr lalkèkuksa ij pyrs gSaA
(iv) ge tks Hkkstu [kkrs gSa mlesa Hkh [kfut inkFkZ gksrs gSaA
(v) fodkl ds lHkh pj.kksa esa] ekuo us [kfutksa dk mi;ksx viuh
vkthfodk] ltkoV] mRlo] èkkfeZd vkSj vkSipkfjd vuq"Bkuksa ds
fy, fd;k gSA
(vi) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
5
24. (a) js”ke ekxZ ¼flYd ekxZ½ us fdl izdkj nqfu;k dks tksMk Fkk\ fdUgha 54 H 2X1=2
6
iv. blh rjg ds vkgkj Hkkjr vkSj tkiku esa dHkh ik, tkrs gS blfy,
buds [kk| inkFkksZa ds okLrfod mn~xe Lkzksrksa dk ge dHkh irk Hkh
u yxk ik,A
v. vkyw] lks;k] ew¡xQyh] eDdk] VekVj] fepZ] “kdjdan] vkSj ,sls gh
cgqr lkjs nwljs [kk| inkFkZ yxHkx ik¡p lkS o’kZ iwoZ rd gekjs
iwoZtksa ds ikl ugha FksA
vi. ;s [kk| inkFkZ ;wjksi vkSj ,f”k;k esa rc igq¡ps tc fØLVksQj
dksyEcl xyrh ls vKkr egk}hiksa esa igqp¡ x;k Fkk ftUgsa ckn esa
vesfjdk ds uke ls tkus tkuk yxkA
vii. dbZ u;h Qlyksa ds vkus ls thou esa tehu & vkleku dk QdZ
vk tkrk FkkA lk/kkj.k ls vkyw dk bLrseky “kq: djus ij ;wjksi
ds xjhcksa dh ftanxh vkewy :Ik ls cny xbZA
viii. dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha nks fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
[k.M x 5x3=15
¼y?kq&mÙkjh; iz”u½
25. orZeku le; esa Hkkjrh; jktuhfrd nyksa ds le{k fdUgha rhu pqukSfr;ksa 57P 3x1=3
dh O;k[;k dhft,A
(i) vkarfjd yksdra= dk vHkkoA
(ii) jktuhfrd ny fu;fer vkarfjd pquko ugha djkrs vkSj cSBdsa
ugha djrsA
(iii) oa”kokn dh pqukSrhA
(iv) èku vkSj ckgqcy dh c<+rh HkwfedkA
(v) ernkrkvksa ds fy, og lkFkZd fodYi ds :Ik esa izrhr ugha gksrsA
(vi) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha rhu fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
7
26. uohdj.k ;ksX; ,oa vuhodj.k ;ksX; lalk/kuksa essa varj Li’V dhft,A 2G 3X1=3
8
28. (a) vlg;ksx vkanksyu ds vkfFkZd izHkkoksa dk fo”ys’k.k dhft,A 34H 3x1=3
vFkok
(b) ^^Hkkjr esa vk/kqfud jk’Vªokn ds mn; dh ifj?kVuk mifuos”kokn 29H 3x1=3
fojks/kh vkanksyu ds lkFk xgjs rkSj tqM+h gqbZ FkhA^^ bl dFku dk fo”ys’k.k
dhft,A
(i) vkSifuosf”kd “kkldksa ds f[kykQ la?k’kZ ds nkSjku yksx vkilh ,drk
dks igpkuus yxsA
(ii) mRihM+u vkSj neu ds lk>k Hkko us fofHkUu lewgksa dks ,d nwljs
ls ck¡/k fn;k FkkA
(iii) egkRek xka/kh ds usr`Ro esa dkaxzsl us bu lewgksa dks bdêk djds ,d
fo”kky vkanksyu [kM+k fd;kA
(iv) Hkkjr ekrk ,oa oans ekr~je jk’Vªokn ds izrhd cu x,A
(v) fczfV”k ljdkj fojks/kh vkanksyu tSls & vlg;ksx vkanksyu] lfou;
voKk vkanksyu vkfn mifuos”kokn fojks/k dk izrhd cu x,A
(vi) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha rhu fcUnqvksa dk fo”ys’k.k visf{kr gSA
9
29. ^^Ik;kZoj.k esa fxjkoV dk ifj.kke jk’Vªh; vkSj jkT; lhekvksa dk [;ky 16E 3x1=3
30. (a) 1815 esa fo;uk laf/k ds mÌs”;ksa dh O;k[;k dhft,A 11 H 5x1=5
10
viii. usiksfy;u }kjk LFkkfir 39 jkT;ksa dk teZu ifjla?k vNwrk jg x;k
FkkA
ix. eq[; mís'; usiksfy;u }kjk m[kkM+ Qsadh xbZ jkt'kkgh dks cgky
djuk vkSj ;wjksi esa ,d ubZ :f<+oknh O;oLFkk cukuk FkkA
x. dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
vFkok
(b) ;wuku ds Lora=rk laxzke us fdl izdkj iwjs ;wjksi esa f”kf{kr vfHktkr 13 H 5x1=5
oxZ esa jk’Vªh; Hkkoukvksa dk lapkj fd;k\ O;k[;k dhft,A
(i) ,d ?kVuk ftlus iwjs ;wjksi esa f'kf{kr vfHktkr oxZ ds chp
jk"Vªoknh Hkkoukvksa dks tkx`r fd;k og ;wuku dk Lora=rk laxzke
FkkA
(ii) ;wuku iaægoha 'krkCnh ls v‚Vkseu lkezkT; dk fgLlk jgk FkkA
;wjksi esa Økafrdkjh jk"Vªokn ds fodkl us ;wukfu;ksa ds chp
Lora=rk ds fy, la?k"kZ dh Hkkouk dks tUe fn;kA
(iii) ;wuku esa jk"Vªokfn;ksa dks fuokZlu esa jg jgs vU; ;wukfu;ksa vkSj
dbZ if'peh ;wjksih; yksxksa ls Hkh leFkZu feyk] ftudh çkphu
;wukuh laL—fr ds çfr lgkuqHkwfr FkhA
(iv) dfo;ksa vkSj dykdkjksa us ;wjksih; lH;rk ds mn~xe LFky ds :i
esa ;wuku dh ljkguk dh vkSj eqfLye lkezkT; ds f[kykQ mlds
la?k"kZ dk leFkZu djus ds fy, tuer tqVk;kA
(v) vaxzsth dfo y‚MZ ck;ju us èku dh O;oLFkk dh vkSj ckn esa ;q)
esa yM+us x,] tgka 1824 esa cq[kkj ls mudh e`R;q gks xbZA
(vi) varr%] 1832 dh dqLrqurqfu;k dh lafèk us ;wuku dks ,d Lora=
jk"Vª ds :i esa ekU;rk nhA
(vii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
(i) fdlh Hkh ns'k esa dbZ lsokvksa tSls vLirky] 'kS{kf.kd laLFkku] Mkd
vkSj rkj lsok,a] iqfyl LVs'ku] vnkyrsa] xzke ç'kklfud dk;kZy;]
uxj fuxe] j{kk] ifjogu] cSad] chek daifu;ka vkfn dh vko';drk
gksrh gSA bUgsa cqfu;knh lsok,¡ ekuk tk ldrk gSA
11
(ii) fodkl'khy ns'k esa ljdkj dks bu lsokvksa ds çkoèkku dh ftEesnkjh
ysuh gksxhA
(iii) —f"k vkSj m|ksx ds fodkl ls ifjogu] O;kikj] HkaMkj.k vkSj blh
rjg dh lsokvksa dk fodkl gksrk gSA
(iv) çkFkfed vkSj f}rh;d {ks=dksa dk fodkl ftruk vfèkd gksxk] bl
izdkj dh lsokvksa dh ekax mruh gh vfèkd gksxhA
(v) tSls&tSls vk; dk Lrj c<+rk gS] dqN oxZ ds yksx ckgj dk [kkuk]
i;ZVu] [kjhnkjh] futh vLirky] futh Ldwy] is'ksoj çf'k{k.k vkfn
tSlh dbZ vkSj lsokvksa dh ekax djus yxrs gSaA
(vi) fiNys yxHkx ,d n'kd esa] lwpuk vkSj lapkj çkS|ksfxdh ij
vkèkkfjr dqN ubZ lsok,¡ egRoiw.kZ vkSj vko';d gks xbZ gSaA bu
lsokvksa dk mRiknu rsth ls c<+ jgk gSA
(vii) dksbZ vU; izklafxd fcUnqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k fd;k tkuk visf{kr gSA
vFkok
(b) laxfBr ,oa vlaxfBr {ks=dksa esa varj Li’V dhft,A 30E 5x1=5
12
crk, ukSdjh ls fudkyk tk
ldrk gSA
V muds dk;Z ds ?kaVs fuf”pr gksrs V muds dk;Z ds ?kaVs fuf”pr
gSA ugha gksrs gSaA
VI ;fn os vfèkd dke djrs gS ]
a rks VI vksojVkbe dk dksbZ izko/kku
mUgsa fu;ksäk }kjk vksojVkbe dk ugha gksrk gSA
Hkqxrku djuk gksxkA
VII bUgsa fu;ksDrk ls dbZ vU;@fo”ks’k VI bUgsa fu;ksDrk ls dksbZ
HkÙksa izkIRk gksrs gSA I vU;@fo”ks’k HkÙkk izkIRk ugha
gksrk gSA
VIII mUgsa loSrfud Nqêh] Nqfê;ksa ds VI Jfedksa dks loSrfud vodk'k]
nkSjku Hkqxrku] Hkfo"; fufèk] xzsP;qVh II Nqfê;k¡] chekjh vkfn ds dkj.k
vkfn feyrk gSA Nqêh ugha feyrh gSA
32. (a) yksdrkaf=d “kklu O;oLFkk fdl izdkj ns”k dh vkfFkZd lao`f) ,oa 67P 5x1=5
13
(b) efgykvksa dh xfjek vkSj vktknh ds ekeysa esa yksdrkaf=d O;oLFkk
71P 5x1=5
fdl izdkj fdlh vU; “kklu iz.kkyh ls dkQh vkxs gS\ mnkgj.k lfgr
Li’V dhft,A
(i) ySafxd lekurk ds fy, laosnu'khyrk dk Hkko mRiUu fd;k
fd;k gSA
(ii) yksdra= efgykvksa ds fy, lekurk ds volj ljyrk ls miyC/k
djok jgk gSaA
(iii)yksdrkaf=d O;oLFkk esa ySafxd HksnHkko dkuwuh vkèkkj ij lekIr
fd;k x;k gSA
(iv) yksdra= esa efgykvksa dks oksV nsus ds vfèkdkj lfgr leku
vfèkdkj çkIr gksrs gSA
(v) dqN yksdrkaf=d ns'kksa esa foèkkf;dkvksa esa efgykvksa ds fy, lhVsa
vkjf{kr gSaA
(vi) dksbZ vU; izlkafxd fcUnqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
33. (a) Hkkjrh; vFkZO;oLFkk esa m|ksxksa ds egÙo dh O;k[;k dhft,A 58 G 5x1=5
(i) m|ksx —f"k dks vkèkqfud cukus esa enn djrs gSa] tks gekjh
vFkZO;oLFkk dh jh<+ gSA
(ii) os yksxksa dks f}rh;d vkSj r`rh;d {ks=dksa esa ukSdfj;k¡ çnku djds
—f"k vk; ij mudh Hkkjh fuHkZjrk dks de djrs gSaA
(iii) gekjs ns'k ls csjkstxkjh vkSj xjhch mUewyu ds fy, vkS|ksfxd
fodkl ,d iwoZ 'krZ gSA
(iv) bldk mís'; vkfnoklh vkSj fiNM+s {ks=ksa esa m|ksx LFkkfir djds
{ks=h; vlekurkvksa dks de djuk Hkh gSA
(v) fofufeZr oLrqvksa ds fu;kZr ls O;kikj vkSj okf.kT; dk foLrkj gksrk
gS] ftlls gesa vko”;d fons'kh eqæk izkIr gksrh gSA
(vi) tks ns'k vius dPps eky dks fofHkUu çdkj ds mPp ewY; ds rS;kj
eky esa cnyrs gSa os le`) gksrs gSaA Hkkjr dh le`f) vius fofuekZ.k
m|ksxksa dks ;Fkk'kh?kz c<+kus vkSj fofoèkrk ykus esa fufgr gSA
(vii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha ik¡p fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA
vFkok
14
(b) m|ksx ok;q iznq’k.k ds fy, fdl izdkj mÙkjnk;h gSa\ bldh
66 G 2+3=5
jksdFkke ds fy, fdUgha rhu mik;ksa dks lq>kb,A
(i) ok;q çnw"k.k lYQj Mkbv‚DlkbM vkSj dkcZu eksuksv‚DlkbM tSlh
vokaNuh; xSlksa dh mPp ek=k dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
(ii) ok;q esa fuyafcr d.kh; inkFkksZa esa èkwy] Lçs èkqaèk vkSj èkqvka tSls
Bksl vkSj rjy nksuksa çdkj ds d.k gksrs gSaA
(iii) èkqvka jklk;fud vkSj dkxt dkj[kkuksa] bZaV Hkêksa] rsy “kks/ku
“kkykvksa vkSj xykus okys la;a=ksa }kjk mRlftZr gksrk gSA
(iv) cM+s vkSj NksVs dkj[kkuksa esa thok'e bZaèku tykuk tks çnw"k.k
ekunaMksa dh vuns[kh djrs gSaA
(v) tgjhyh xSl dk fjlko nh?kZdkfyd çHkko ds lkFk cgqr
[krjukd gks ldrk gSA
(vi) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
fdUgha nks fcUnqvksa dh O;k[;k visf{kr gSA (2x1=2)
Okk;q iznw’k.k dh jksdFkke ds mik;%
(i) bysDVªksLVSfVd çhflfiVsVlZ dks yxkukA
(ii) QSfczd fQYVj dk mi;ksx djuk
(iii) LØcj vkSj tM+Roh; foHkktdA
(iv) dkj[kkuksa esa dks;ys ds LFkku ij rsy ;k xSl dk mi;ksx djds
èkq,¡ dks de fd;k tk ldrk gSA
(v) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
15
Hkh bls oSls gh ntZ dj fn;k tkrk gSA bl dkj.k ns”k ds fofHkUu /keksZa
dks ekuus okys yksxksa dh la[;k vkSj muds vuqikr esa vk, fdlh cnyko
ds ckjs esa gekjs ikl fo”oluh; lwpuk,¡ gSaA fjdkMZ ls ns”k ds Ng izeq[k
/kkfeZd leqnk;ksa dh vkcknh ds vuqikr dk irk pyrk gSA vktknh ds
ckn ls izzR;sd /kkfeZd leqnk; dh vkcknh esa dkQh o`f) gqbZ gSA
¼34-1½ Hkkjr dh tux.kuk fdl varjky ij dh tkrh gS\ (1)
10 o’kZ
¼34-2½ Hkkjr esa tux.kuk ds vk¡dM+ksa dks fo”oluh; D;ksa ekuk tkrk gS\
(1)
(i) tux.kuk Q‚eZ Hkjus okyk O;fä çR;sd ?kj dk nkSjk djrk gS
vkSj çR;sd lnL; dk fjd‚MZ Lo;a ntZ djrk gSA
(ii) dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
(i) tux.kuk ns'k esa fofHkUu lkekftd leqnk;ksa ds vuqikr vkSj fiNys
dqN o"kksZa esa blesa dSls cnyko vk;k gS] bl ij foÜoluh; tkudkjh
nsrh gSA
(ii) vkadMs ns'k esa Ng çeq[k èkkfeZd leqnk;ksa ds tula[;k vuqikr dks
n'kkZrs gSaA
(iii)dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
ftDth
dksfj;k dh ftDth (Jikji) ewoscy esVy Vkbi (Movable metal type)
ds lkFk eqfnzr nqfu;k dh lcls iqjkuh ekStwnk iqLrdksa esa ls gSA blesa t+Su
(Zen) ckS) /keZ dh eq[; fo”ks’krk,¡ gSaA iqLrd esa Hkkjr] phu vkSj dksfj;k
ds yxHkx 150 ckS) fHk{kqvksa dk mYYks[k fd;k x;k gSA bls 14oha “krkCnh
ds var esa eqfnzr fd;k x;k FkkA iqLrd dk igyk [kaM miyC/k ugha gS]
16
nwljk [kaM Ýkal dh us”kuy ykbczsjh esa miyC/k gSA ;g dk;Z eqnz.k laLd`fr
esa ,d egRoiw.kZ rduhdh ifjorZu lkfcr gqvkA ;gh dkj.k gS fd 2001
esa ;wusLdksa eseksjh vkWQ n oYMZ jftLVj eas vafdr fd;k x;kA
fodkl dh /kkj.kh;rk
^^gky ds izek.kksa ls irk pyrk gS fd ns”k ds dbZ Hkkxksa esa Hkwfexr ty
dk vfr&mi;ksx gksus dk xaHkhj ladV gSA yxHkx 300 ftyksa ls lwpuk
17
feyh gS fd ogk¡ fiNys 20 lkyksa esa ikuh ds Lrj esa 4 ehVj ls vf/kd
dh fxjkoV vkbZ gSA ns”k ds yxHkx ,d & frgkbZ Hkkx] Hkwfexr ty
Hk.Mkjksa dk vfr mi;ksx dj jgk gSA ;fn bl lk/ku ds iz;ksx djus dk
orZeku rjhdk tkjh jgk rks vxys 25 o’kksZa essa ns”k dk 60 izfr”kr Hkkx
bl lk/ku dk vfr & mi;ksx dj jgk gksxkA Hkwfexr ty dk vfr&
mi;ksx fo”ks’k :Ik ls iatkc vkSj if”peh mÙkj izns”k ds d`f’k dh n`f’V ls
le`) {ks=ksa] e/; vkSj nf{k.k Hkkjr ds Pkêkuh iBkjh {ks=ksa] dqN rVorhZ
{ks=ksa vkSj rsth ls fodflr gksrh “kgjh cfLr;ksa esa ik;k tkrk gSA^^
¼36-1½ fodkl dh /kkj.kh;rk dk vFkZ Li’V dhft,A (1)
(i) gky ds lk{;ksa ls irk pyrk gS fd ns'k ds dbZ fgLlksa esa Hkwty
ds vR;fèkd mi;ksx ls xaHkhj [k+rjk gSA
(ii) fiNys 20 o"kksZa ds nkSjku yxHkx 300 ftyksa esa ty Lrj esa 4
ehVj ls vfèkd dh fxjkoV ntZ dh xbZ gSA
(iii)dksbZ vU; çklafxd fcanqA
18
[k.M p 2+3=5
fd;kA
1
ii. og LFkku tgk¡ 1927 esa Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; dk¡xzsl dk vfèkos'ku gqvk
FkkA-
layXu ekufp= dks nsf[k,A
Hkkjr ds blh jktuhfrd js[kk&ekufp= esa] fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdUgha rhu 3X1=3
LFkku ij gSa&
fdUgha ik¡p ç'uksa ds mÙkj fyf[k,A
¼37-1½ ml LFkku dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ xk¡èkhth us fdlkuksa dh lgk;rk
ds fy, lR;kxzg fd;kA
19
[ksMk@paikj.k
¼37-2½ ml LFkku dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ 1927 esa Hkkjrh; jk"Vªh; d‚xzsl
dk vfèkos'ku gqvk FkkA
enzkl ¼psUUkbZ½
¼37-3½ dkWQh mRiknu esa vxz.kh Hkkjrh; jkT; dk uke fyf[k,A
dukZVd
¼37-4½ ml jkT; dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ nqxZ ykSg&v;Ld dh [kkusa fLFkr
gSA
Nrhlx<+
¼37-5½ ml jkT; dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ dksfPp leqæ & Ikru fLFkr gSA
dsjy
¼37-6½ ml LFkku dk uke fyf[k, tgk¡ jktho xka/kh varjkZ’Vªh; ok;q iÙku
fLFkr gSA
gSnjkckn
20
1X5=5
21
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Supplementary Examination, July-2024
SUBJECT NAME: Social Science SUBJECT CODE: 087 PAPER CODE: 32/S/2
General Instructions: -
1. You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct assessment of
the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the
future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is
requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation
guidelines carefully.
2. “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of the
examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in
any manner could lead to derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future
of millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine
and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of the Board
and IPC.”
3. Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should not be done
according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly
adhered to and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on
latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for their
correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two
competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not
from marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4. The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.These are in the nature of
Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer. The students can have their own
expression and if the expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5. The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each evaluator on the
first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking
Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The
remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6. Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be marked.
Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that answer is correct
and no marks are awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7. If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks awarded for
different parts of the question should then be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and
encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8. If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin and encircled.
This may also be followed strictly.
9. If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more marks should be
retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra Question”.
10. No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized only once.
11. A full scale of marks _____80_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in Question
Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12. Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours every day
and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other
subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).
13. Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the Examiner in
Page 1 of 17
the past:- Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark is correctly
and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks awarded.
14. While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should be marked
as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15. Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling error detected by
the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also
of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16. The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines for spot
Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17. Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over to the title
page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18. The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on payment of the
prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once
again reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for
each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.
Page 2 of 17
CBSE SUPPLEMENTARY EXAMINATION – JULY 2024
Marking Scheme
Class X -Social Science (087)
SET-32/S/2
SET-2 MM: 80
Page 3 of 17
20 (B) The abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movement 9H 1
of goods and capital.
Section B (4X2=8)
Very Short Answer Type Questions
21 Analyse the role Information and Communication Technology in 63 E 2X1=2
making globalisation possible.
Page 4 of 17
23 How did measures taken by the Sri Lankan Government increase 3 P 2X1=2
the feeling of alienation among the Tamils? Explain.
24 (a) How did the silk route connect the world? 54 H 2X1=2
(i) The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade
and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
(ii) Historians have identified several silk routes, over land and by
sea, knitting together vast regions of Asia, and linking Asia
with Europe and northern Africa.
(iii) Chinese pottery also travelled the same route, as did textiles
and spices from India and Southeast Asia. In return, precious
metals – gold and silver – flowed from Europe to Asia.
(iv) Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand. Early
Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to
Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later.
(v) Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several
directions through intersecting points on the silk routes.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained)
Page 5 of 17
OR
Section C (5X3=15)
Short Answer Type Questions
25 Explain any three challenges before Indian political parties in the 57 P 3X1=3
present time.
(i) Lack of internal democracy.
(ii) Political parties do not conduct regular internal election and do
not hold meetings.
(iii) Dynastic succession
(iv) Money and muscle power
(v) They do not seem to offer a meaningful choice to the voters.
(vi) Any other relevant point
(Any three points to be explained.)
Page 6 of 17
26 Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources. 2G 3X1=3
Renewable Resources Non Renewable Resources
(i) These resources are (i) These resources get
replenished by nature. exhausted after a few
years of use and cannot
be replenished
(ii) They do not have a fixed (ii) There is a fixed stock on
stock. earth
(iii) These are be non (iii) These are usually
conventional sources of conventional sources of
energy energy
(iv) Wind, water, solar, (iv) Fossil fuels like
plants, animals Coal, petroleum, etc
(v) These are pollution free. (v) Its usage creates
pollution.
Page 7 of 17
(b) “In India, the growth of modern nationalism was intimately
connected to the anti-colonial movement.” Analyse the statement. 29-H
3X1=3
(i) People began discovering their unity in the process of their
struggle with colonialism.
(ii) The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a
shared bond that tied many different groups together.
(iii) The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi tried of forge these
groups together within one movement.
(iv) Symbols of nationalism like Bharatmata and Vandemataram
(v) Anti-colonial movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil
Disobedience etc were directed against the British rule
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be analysed.)
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set up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the
south.
(v) Prussia was given important new territories on its western
frontiers
(vi) Austria was given control of northern Italy.
(vii) Russia was given part of Poland while Prussia was given a
portion of Saxony.
(viii) German confederation of 39 states that had been set up by
Napoleon was left untouched.
(ix) The main intention was to restore the monarchies that had
been overthrown by Napoleon and create a new conservative
order in Europe.
(x) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
OR
(b) How did the Greek war of independence mobilise
nationalist feelings among the educated elite across
13 H 5X1=5
Europe? Explain.
(i) An event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the
educated elite across Europe was the Greek war of
independence.
(ii) Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the
fifteenth century. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in
Europe sparked off a struggle for independence amongst the
Greeks.
(iii) Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in
exile and also from many West Europeans who had sympathies
for ancient Greek culture.
(iv) Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European
civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle
against a Muslim empire.
(v) The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to
fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824.
(vi) Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised
Greece as an independent nation.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
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31 (a) Explain the rising importance of the tertiary sector in India. 24 E 5X1=5
(i) In any country several services such as hospitals, educational
institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts,
village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defense,
transport, banks, insurance companies, etc. are required. These
can be considered as basic services.
(ii) In a developing country the government has to take
responsibility for the provision of these services.
(iii) The development of agriculture and industry leads to the
development of services such as transport, trade, storage and
the like.
(iv) Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors,
more would be the demand for such services.
(v) As income levels rise, certain sections of people start
demanding many more services like eating out, tourism,
shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional
training etc.
(vi) Over the past decade or so, certain new services such as those
based on information and communication technology have
become important and essential. The production of these
services has been rising rapidly.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
OR
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has some formal processes and large number of people who
procedures. are employed on their own
doing small jobs such as
selling on the street or doing
repair work. They do not
follow any formal
procedure.
(iv) Workers in the organised (iv) Jobs are low-paid and
sector enjoy security of often not regular.
employment Employment is not secure.
People can be asked to leave
without any reason
(v) They are expected to work only (v) There are not fixed
a fixed number of hours working hours
(vi) If they work more, they have to (vi) There is no provision for
be paid overtime by the employer. overtime
(vii) They also get several other (vii) No extra benefits are
benefits from the employers given
(viii) They get paid leave, payment (viii) The workers do not get
during holidays, provident fund, paid leave, holidays, leave
gratuity etc due to sickness etc
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OR
(b) How does democracy stand much superior to any other form
of government, in respect of women dignity? Explain with 5X1=5
71 P
examples.
(i) Sensitivity towards gender equality in a democratic society is
created.
(ii) Democracy makes it easier for women to get equality.
(iii) In a democratic set up, gender discrimination does not have
any legal basis.
(iv) In a democracy, women enjoy equal rights, including the Right
to vote.
(v) In some democratic countries, seats are reserved for women in
legislatures.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained)
33 (a) Explain the significance of industries in the Indian economy. 58 G 5X1=5
OR
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(b) How are industries responsible for air pollution? Suggest any 66 G 2+3=5
three measures to control it.
(i) Air pollution is caused by the presence of high proportion of
undesirable gases, such as sulphur dioxide and carbon
monoxide.
(ii) Airborne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid
particles like dust, sprays mist and smoke.
(iii) Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns,
refineries and smelting plants
(iv) Burning of fossil fuels in big and small factories that ignore
pollution norms.
(v) Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained) (2X1=2)
Section E (3X4=12)
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
34 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 39 P 1+1+2=4
Social and Religious Diversity
The Census of India records the religion of each and every Indian
after every ten years. The person who fills the Census form visits
every household and records the religion of each member of that
household exactly the way each person describes it. If someone
says she has ‘no religion’ or that he is an ‘atheist’, this is exactly
how it is recorded. Thus we have reliable information on the
proportion of different religious communities in the country and
how it has changed over the years. The record shows the
population proportion of six major religious communities in the
country. Since Independence, the total population of each
community has increased substantially.
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(34.1) At what interval is census conducted in India? (1)
10 Years
(34.2) Why are India census data considered reliable? (1)
(i) The person who fills the Census form visits every household and
records the religion of each member.
(ii) Any other relevant point.
(Any one point to be explained.)
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(35.3) How does the Jikji contribute to the understanding of Zen
Buddhism? (2x1=2)
(i)Jikji contains the essential features of Zen Buddhism.
(ii) About 150 monks of India, China and Korea are mentioned in the
book.
(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be explained.)
36 Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: 14 E 1+1+2=4
Sustainability of Development
“Recent evidence suggests that the groundwater is under serious
threat of overuse in many parts of the country. About 300
districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters
during the past 20 years. Nearly one-third of the country is
overusing their groundwater reserves. In another 25 years, 60
percent of the country would be doing the same if the present way
of using this resource continues. Groundwater overuse is
particularly found in the agriculturally prosperous regions of
Punjab and Western U.P., hard rock plateau area of central and
south India, some coastal areas and the rapidly growing urban
settlements.”
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(iii) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be mentioned.)
Section F (2+3=5)
Map Based Questions
37 (a) Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political
outline map of India (on page 23). Identify these places with the
help of the following information and write their correct names
on the lines drawn near them:
(i) The place where Gandhiji organized Satyagraha to help the 1
peasants.
(ii) The place where the session of the Indian National
1
Congress was held in 1927.
(PLEASE SEE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)
(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any 3x1=3
three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) Leading Coffee-producing State
(ii) Durg: Major iron ore mines
(iii) Kochi: Major sea port
(iv) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(PLEASE SEE ATTACHED MAP FOR ANSWERS)
Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired 5x1=5
Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 37.
Attempt any five questions.
(37.1) Name the place where Gandhi Ji organized Satyagrah to help
the peasants. – KHEDA/ CHAMPARAN 1
(37.2) Name the place where the session of the Indian National
Congress was held in 1927. – MADRAS (CHENNAI) 1
(37.3) Name the leading Coffee-producing state of India. -
KARNATAKA 1
(37.4) Name the state where Durg iron-ore mines are located.-
CHATTISGARH 1
(37.5) Name the state where Kochi sea port is located.- KERALA 1
(37.6) Name the place where Rajiv Gandhi International Airport is
located.- HYDERABAD 1
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