OOP

1. Which one of the following statements is not true?

A) Constructors must have the same name as the class.
B) The “this” keyword is used to invoke overloaded constructors of different classes.
C) Static methods can be inherited but cannot be overridden in a subclass.
D) Attempting to invoke a subclass-only method directly on a superclass reference is a
compilation error.
2. How do we access an instance variable from a static method in Java within the same class?
A) Using a variable name by itself.
B) Using the object reference variable followed by a dot (.) and the variable name.
C) Using the class name followed by a dot (.) and the variable name.
D) There is no way to access an instance variable from the context of static method.
3. A class design requires that a particular class member method must be accessible by any
subclasses of this class, but otherwise not by classes which are not members of the same
package. What should be done to achieve this?
A) The method should be declared as public.
B) The method should be declared as protected.
C) The method should use the default access modifier.
D) The method should be declared as private.
4. Which one of the following statements is not true in Java?
A) A default constructor is provided automatically if no constructors are explicitly declared in
the class.
B) A local variable defined in a particular method can be visible anywhere within that
method.
C) A final class cannot be extended to create a subclass.
D) Constructors of a class are not inherited.
5. Which one of the following method header represents a method that cannot be overridden in
a subclass?
A) public int sum(int x, int y) C) public abstract void display(int x)
B) public final void display() D)public voiddisplay(String msg)
6. Which one of the following statements is not true?
 A) IOException (package java.io) is unchecked exception.
B) Call to a static method is always resolved at compile time.
C) Dynamic binding can be applied to abstract methods.
D) Private and static methods are implicitly final methods.
7. Which statements are most accurate regarding the following classes? (Assume that both
classes are defined within the public class Parent { public class Child extends Parent {
same package) private int i; private int k;
protected int j; protected int m;
} }

A) An object of Child contains data fields i, j, k, and m

B) An object of Child contains data fields j, k, and m only.
C) An object of Child contains data fields j and m only.
D) An object of Child contains data fields k and m only.
8. If a private method in a subclass has the same name as a method in its superclass with
different parameter types, then which one of the following is correct?
A) The method is overridden. C) The two methods are completely unrelated.
B) The method is overloaded. D) Compile time error will occur.
9. Which one of the following statements regarding abstract classes and methods is not true?
A) A class that contains abstract methods must be abstract.
B) An abstract method cannot be contained in a non-abstract class.
C) An abstract class can have instances created using the constructor of the abstract
class.
D) It is possible to declare a class as abstract that contains no abstract methods.

10. Does the following code throw an exception? If so, what exception type does it throw?

public class Test {

A)Yes it throws
public static void main(String[] args) {
ArithmeticException
Object o = new String();
B)Yes it throws NullPointerException
String s = (String)o;
}
}
 C)Yes it throws ClassCastException
D)No it does not throw any exception

PM
1. Of the following, which is a factor that measures the quality of the project management
process?
A. Project plan C. Project team
B. Results D. Budget management
2. One of the following components is not part of the scope baseline in project management?
A. Project charter C. Project WBS
B. Project scope statement D. WBS dictionary
3. Suppose that the following estimates for a critical path activity of a project are given: 60 days
most likely, 72 days pessimistic, and 48 days optimistic. What is the weighted average or
expected value?
A. 54 B. 66 C. 60 D. 30
4. If you know the expected value of an activity is 500 and the standard deviation is 12, you can
say with approximately a 95 percent confidence rating which of the following?
A. The activity will take from 488 to 512 days.
B. The activity will take from 464 to 536 days.
C. The activity will take from 494 to 506 days.
D. The activity will take from 476 to 524 days.
5. All of the following are activities of the configuration management system except for which
one?
A. Configuration identification
B. Configuration status accounting
C. Configuration variance analysis
D. Configuration verification and auditing
6. You are the project manager of a web server and web site upgrade. You have assigned Mr. X
the task of creating the web pages and Mr. Y the task of developing the web pages. Mr. X
and Mr. Y can begin work on their assigned tasks at the same time. What type of relationship
do these tasks have?
A. Start-to-start (SS) C. Finish-to-finish (FF)
B. Finish-to-start (FS) D. Start-to-finish (SF)
7. You are the project manager for a health service provider. Your team members exhibit
affection and familiarity with one another and make project decisions jointly. Which of the
following statements is true about your team members?
A. They are in the forming stage of team development or maturity.

B. They are in the norming stage of team development or maturity.

C. They are in the storming stage of team development or maturity.
D. They are in the adjourning stage of team development or maturity.
8. What are the five phases of project management lifecycle, in order?
A. Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Initiating, Monitoring and Controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing
C. Initiating, Planning, Monitoring and Controlling, Executing, and Closing
D. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
SAD

1. One of the following is not component of information system

A. Data
B. People
C. Guideline
D. Healthcare
2. One of the following software development method follows predictive, linear sequential
approach that requires clear understanding of the requirements upfront
A. Waterfall
B. Agile
C. Rapid application development
D. Spiral
3. One of the following diagram used to analyze the database requirements of object oriented
system analysis and design
A. ER diagram
B. DFD
C. Use case diagram
 D. Class diagram
4. One of the following health information system uses a non-routine data source
A. eCHIS
B. DHIS
C. EMR
D. DHS
5. One of the following is an international standard for the exchange of health care information?
A. HL7
B. ICD
C. SNOMED
D. DICOM
6. The first step to system development life cycle is
A. Feasibility analysis
B. Requirement analysis
C. Logical design
D. Physical design
7. Acceptability and usability is measured in
A. Technical feasibility
B. Economic feasibility
C. Legal and ethical guideline
D. Operational feasibility
8. One of the following does not show program logic or processing steps
A. Data flow diagram
B. Structured English
C. Decision Tables
D. Decision Trees
9. One of the following is not true about context diagram
A. Zero reference number
B. Name of the process= name of the information system
C. Has data stores
D. All inputs and feedbacks to external entities stated
10. One of the following is the first step to Sequence of Models
A. Physical model of the current system
B. Logical model of the current system
C. Logical model of the new system
D. Physical model of the new system
11. One of the following shows a mandatory relationship
A. 0…1
B. 0…*
C. 1…*
D. *…*
12. One of the following diagram signify the system boundary and the actions taken by the system
for each message from the user
A. Use case model
 B. Class diagram
C. Sequence diagram
D. Activity diagram
13. Which of the following is the primary goal of system analysis?
A. Developing system requirements
B. Creating system prototypes
C. Implementing the system
D. Designing the user interface
14. What is the purpose of a data flow diagram (DFD) in system analysis?
A. To represent the flow of control within a system
B. To visualize the data flow between system components
C. To define the user interface design
D. To identify system requirements
15. Which of the following is an example of a non-functional requirement in system analysis?
A. The system should allow users to create and edit customer profiles.
B. The system should respond to user requests within 2 seconds.
C. The system should generate monthly sales reports.
D. The system should support multiple languages.
16. Which of the following is an advantage of using prototyping during system design?
A. It ensures complete system functionality from the start.
B. It reduces the time and cost of system development.
C. It eliminates the need for system testing.
D. It allows for easy modification of system requirements.
17. What is the purpose of system testing in system development?
A. To ensure the system meets all functional and non-functional requirements.
B. To identify and fix defects in the system.
C. To validate the system design against user requirements.
D. To train users on how to use the system effectively.
18. Which of the following is a key consideration during system implementation?
A. Creating system prototypes
B. Conducting user acceptance testing
C. Defining system requirements
D. Identifying system stakeholders
19. What is the primary purpose of a use case diagram in system analysis and design?
A. To identify system components and their relationships
B. To visualize the flow of data within the system
C. To define the system's functional requirements
D. To represent the interactions between system actors and use cases
20. Which of the following is an example of a system requirement?
A. The system should be user-friendly.
B. The system should have a responsive design.
C. The system should generate weekly sales reports.
D. The system should be accessible from mobile devices.
ADVANCED DATABASE

1. Assume you have a database named OrderHistory that should not allow any data to be modified.
How can you ensure, with the least amount of effort, that users can only read data from the
database in SQL Server?
A) Set the database to OFFLINE state. C) Set the database to RESTRICTED_USER
mode.
B) Set the database to READ_ONLY mode. D) Set the database to ONLINE state.
2. One of the following statements is not true?
A) The read committed isolation level allows only committed data to be read.
B) Read uncommitted transaction isolation level doesn’t hold locks when updating data.
C) A transaction must have exclusive lock to modify a data item.
D) Durability of a transaction ensures changes are still present following a crash or system failure.
3. You have installed a default instance and one named SQL Server instance called SQL1 on a server
(computer) named PC1. How would you connect to each instance using SQL Server Management
Studio respectively in SQL Server?
A) Default, SQL1 B) PC1, SQL1 C) PC1, PC1\SQL1 D)
Default, PC1\SQL1
4. Which of the following can be added as a member to a server-level role in SQL Server?
A) SQL Server logins, Windows group, Windows logins
B) SQL Server logins, Windows group, Windows logins, database users
C) SQL Server logins, database users, dbo schema
D) Database users, Windows logins, dbo schema
5. Which one of the following statements is not true?
A) A trigger is a special kind of stored procedure that may be fired in response to DML or DDL
commands.
B) Transaction log backup is more space efficient than full and differential backups in SQL Server.
C) A database user who is a member of both db_datareader and db_denydatareader roles can
select data from any tables within that database.
D) In a serial schedule, only one transaction is active at a time.
6. Aster needs to be able to run bulk insert operations successfully in SQL Server instance. How would
you accomplish this business requirement?
 A) Grant insert permission to Aster. C) Add Aster to the bulkadmin role and
db_datawriter role.
B) Add Aster to the bulkadmin role. D) Grant select permission to Aster.
7. You want to prevent changes to structure of any tables within any of the databases in your SQL
Server instance since changes to any of the tables can cause the associated client application to stop
functioning. What can be implemented, with the least amount of effort, to accomplish this goal?
A) Stored procedure C) Server scoped DDL trigger
B) Database scoped DDL trigger D) Database scoped DML trigger
8. WW Importers have just implemented a new order inquiry system. All users with access to the
database need to be able to retrieve data from any table within the database. How can you
accomplish this functionality in SQL Server, with the least amount of effort?
A) Add the users to the db_datawriter database role.
B) Grant the users SELECT permission on every schema in the database.
C) Grant the users SELECT permission on every table in the database.
D) Grant the users SELECT permission on the database.
9. You have a team member who needs the ability to manage SQL Server DML operations and you do
not want him to have permissions to perform any other tasks on the server. The team member’s
responsibilities include selecting, inserting, updating and deleting data from all tables within a
database. Which of the following database-level roles best fits the team member’s permissions
requirement?
A) db_ddladmin and db_datareader C) db_owner and db_datareader

B) db_owner and db_datawriter D) db_datareader and db_datawriter

10. University of Gondar has just implemented a new database application for student information
system. The database has a number of tables and views in the default (dbo) schema. All lecturers
need to be able to add and update data in any table but not any view within the database. In
addition, all lecturers should not do any other actions. How can you accomplish this functionality in
SQL Server?
A) Add the lecturers to the db_datareader and db_datawriter database roles.
B) Grant the lecturers SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE permissions on every table in the database.
C) Grant the lecturers SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE permissions on the database.
Grant the lecturers SELECT, INSERT and UPDAT

COMPUTR MAINTENAINCE

1. Assume someone told you that his/her computer is stop working and requesting you to fix the
problem. from the given alternatives which one is your first measure
A. Try to figuring out potential solutions
B. Analyzing the problem and potential causes
C. Asking the user some questions to identify the problem.
D. Test one configuration change at a time
2. _______ Are small circuit board that you attach on the motherboard and used to your computer to do
additional tasks.
A. Expansion slot C. Expansion card
B. Power supply D. VGA port
3. From the following which one is not magnetic storage device
A. CD B. Hard disk C. Flash disk D. Floppy disk
4. Ephrem finds that annoyed former employee decided to disrupt his computer when he left by
putting a password in CMOS that stops the computer from booting. What can Ephrem do to
solve this problem?
A. Ephrem should boot the computer holding the left SHIFT key. This will clear the CMOS
information
B. Ephrem should try various combinations of the former employee’s name. the vast
majority of people use their name or initials for CMOS password
C. Ephrem should find the CMOS clear jumper on the motherboard. Then he can boot the
computer with a move on the jumper to clear the CMOS information.
D. Ephrem should find a replacement motherboard. Unless he knows the CMOS password,
there’s nothing he can do.
5. Form the following power related problems one is caused by increasing of electric power
from its optimum level.
A. Power sag C. blackout
B. Brownout D. Power surge
6. Which one of the following is false about operating system?
A. Operating system is used to communicate with hardware
B. Operating system is used to provide a user interface
C. Operating system is used to provide a structure for accessing applications
D. Operating system is designed to provide direct benefits to the user.
7. From the following alternatives which one is not correct about disk partition?
A. In single hard disk user can prepare four primary partition
B. In a single hard disk user can prepare four extended partitions
C. In a single hard disk user can prepare only one active partition
D. In a single extended partition user can prepare multiple/unlimited logical partitions
8. From the following which one is false statement
A. During computer troubleshooting soft communication skill with the user is important
skill
B. Computer troubleshooting is naturally gifted skill not learned.
C. During computer troubleshooting hypothesis generation is required
D. Occupational health and safety is concerned with protecting the safety, health and welfare
of people engaged in workplace.
9. Which one of the following can’t be source of ESD
A. During file backup C. Buildup of energy with nylon clothes
B. During Lightning D. Dust inside the PC

GIS

1. In arc map table of contents, which drawing order of layers is appropriate to display all
features without hiding each other.(hint: the order is from top to bottom)
A. Point feature Line feature  Polygon feature
B. Line feature Polygon feature Point feature
 C. Polygon feature  Point feature Line feature
D. Polygon feature  Line feature  Point feature
2. Which types of question can’t be answered by map
A. Where B. What C. Who D. When
3. Which spatial feature is the most appropriate to represent household and land marks
A. Point features B. Polygon features C. Line features D. Polyline features
4. Which map element tells the map reader the distance between feature on the map
A. Northing arrow B. Legend C. Map scale D. Title
5. Which angle measurement is important to measure angles from North and South
A. Longitude B. Altitude C. Latitude D. Gravity
6. _________Are a set of connecting Points
A. Polygons C. Lines
B. Metadata D. Attribute data
7. All are the important GIS, except?
A. It is used to determine emergency response like flooding and fire
B. It is used to manage infrastructures like building and streets
C. It allows systematic way of storing spatial data
D. It allows the user to produce electrical current
8. The measurement of latitude range from
A. -360 degrees to +360 degrees.
B. -270 degrees to +270 degrees.
C. -180 degrees to +180 degrees.
D. -90 degrees to +90 degrees.
9. From the given alternatives which one is not ArcGIS file format of features.
A. *.shp B. *.mp3 C. *.dbf D. *.shx
NETWORKING

1. In a Client-Server network, the user data or files are stored on the __?
A. Individual PCs B. Any PC
B. Server PC D. Floppy
2. Which of the following best describes a subnet mask?
C. A unique identifier for each device on a network.
 D. To manage network security.
E. A binary pattern used to divide an IP address into network and host
portions.
F. To translate domain names into IP addresses.
3. What is the difference between a scope and a reservation in DHCP?
A. A scope is a range of IP addresses that can be assigned by DHCP, while a
reservation is a specific IP address that can be reserved for a particular
device.
B. A scope is a unique IP address that are assigned for servers, while a reservation is
a range of IP addresses that can be assigned by a DHCP.
C. A scope is used for monitoring the internal networks traffic, while a reservation is
used for monitoring external network traffic.
D. A scope is a method that is used for monitoring the transmission of data packets
in the internal network, while a reservation is a method that is used for monitoring
the transmission of data packets in the external network
4. Which of the following technology is used to deploy Windows operating system
images to new computers?
A. DNS B. DHCP
B. WDS D. GPO
5. What is the purpose of Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol?
A. To convert domain names to IP addresses.
B. To manage group policies in an Active Directory domain.
C. To provide automatic IP address assignment to network devices.
D. To secure communication between a client and a web server.
6. In networking, what does a default gateway do?
A. To make available wireless network access.
B. To establish or connect two or more local area networks.
C. To filter network traffic.
D. To forward network packets between networks.
7. Which one of these components would you need to secure a web server and enable
HTTPS communication?
 A. FTP B. DHCP
B. SSL/TLS certificate D. GPO
8. Which of the following technology or features is crucial for implementing security
policies and distributing software installations to computers in an Active Directory
domain?
A. HTTPs B. HTTP
B. Group Policy Object (GPO) D. Web Deployment Services
(WDS)
9. Which command is used to display the IP configuration of a window system?
A. ipconfig B. ifconfig
B. configip D. ipdisplay
10. Which of the following is the disadvantage of domain controller?
A. The data and user management are centralized
B. Encryption of user data
C. Network is dependent on DC uptime
D. Federated configuration for redundancy
11. Which of the following is the top-level domain (TLD) of http://www.uog.com?
A. HTTP C. UOG
B. WWW D. COM

Mobile computing
Choose the best answer among the given choices

1) Which of the following is a function of Medium Access Control (MAC)?

A. Buffering
B. Ciphering of the data
C. Segmentation
D. Multiplexing of logical channels into same transport channels
2) Which one of multiplexing technique used to transmit analog signals?

A. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)

B. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)
 C. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

D. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM) and Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)

3) Suppose Mr. Solomon want to send data to his friend but he did not get the assistance router
to transfer his data therefore for getting the assistance router what types of message issued by
Mr. Solomon?

A. Agent advertisement C. Agent discovery

B. Agent solicitation D. Foreign agent

4) Which one of the following component carried the mobility management and the cell out
functions for mobile phone?
A. Operation Support System

B. Network Switching Subsystem

C. Base Station Subsystem

D. General Packet Radio Service Core Network

5) Suppose you are network administrator, so for routing data from sender to receiver you
selected short metrics method for routing data therefor for selecting short metrics you will
not consider what things?
A. All nodes maintain a Route Table Entry
B. Before start communication the pre-established infrastructure is configured
C. Communication should start the nodes want start without pre-established
D. Sequence number of one node should same as the newly same as the corresponding
sequence number

6) Which one of the following is incorrect about mobile ad-hoc network?

A. It used for Shortest path

B. It ensures only authorized user can access the information

C. It have insufficient admission control

D. It used to manage the cooperation between nodes

7) Suppose Ms. Veronica need to transfer data for Ms.Heran .She need to start transfer the data
without use of preexisting infrastructure. So what types of routing protocol must use by Ms.
Veronica?

A. Proactive routing protocols C. Zone Routing Protocol

B. Reactive routing protocols D. Hybrid routing protocols

8) Which of the following computing technology uses wireless as the mode of communication
for transferring or exchanging data between various mobiles over a short-range?

A. Mobile computing C. Grid computing

B. Bluetooth technology D. Distributed computing

9) Suppose Ms.Selamawit communicate with Mr.Andulaem via cell phones. Both

communication goes without delay happen in there communication. So what types of signal
propagation range are used this case?

A. Detection range C. Interference range

B. Transmission range D. Propagation range

10) The single Piconet formed by what? And how many Piconet formed the scatternet?

A. One slave with one master and multiple piconet

B. Multiple slaves with one master and Double piconet

C. One slave with multiple masters and three piconet

D. Multiple slaves with multiple masters and Single piconet

11) Suppose Mr. Abubeker is system administer of UOG and he want to give the unwanted
Radio Frequency (RF) for the users of organization .So by what component Mr. Abubeker
screening the unused Radio Frequency (RF) from all Radio Frequency’s(RF) signals?
A. Antenna C. Mixer

B. Amplifier D. Filter
12) Which one of the following disadvantage of Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA)?
A. Easy addition of more users

B. No sense of handoff when changing cells

C. Self-jamming
D. Electromagnetic radiation is more
13) Which one of the following is correct about Data link layer?
A. It used to control flow of data
B. It used to for routing data
C. It helps to encryption and decryption data
D. It used to compress the data
14) Suppose Ms. Sofiya went to send data from Adiss Ababa to Mr. Samuel in Gonder. But
Samuel is rooming to another location so router could not deliver data to him. In order to
deliver send data from Sofiya to Samuel, what types of message should use?
A. Binding request

B. Binding update

C. Binding acknowledgement

D. Binding warning

15) In which Telecommunications systems for use the technology the mobile phone should
whitelisted from companies?

A. Global System for Mobile Communication(GSM )

B. Code Division Multiple Access (CDMA )

C. Universal Mobile Telecommunication Service (UMTS)?

D. General Packet Radio Service (GPRS)
16) Which one of components not included Network and Switching Subsystem?
A. Base Station Controller (BSC)

B. Mobile Services switching Center (MSC)

 C. Home Location Register (HLR)

D. Visitor Location Register (VLR)

17) Suppose Mr. Dawite is private system provider, he used Bluetooth WLAN technology, he
need Broadcasting billing data to be all customers therefore to achieve this what protocol
Stack should use by him?
A. Baseband

B. Link Manager Protocol

C. Logical Link Control and Adaptation Layer

D. Synchronous Connection-Oriented
18) Which one of the following is incorrect about Universal Mobile Telecommunication Service
(UMTS)?

A. More efficient use of the radio spectrum

B. UMTS not used for broadband.

C. Integration of multiple networks

D. Sharing spectrum resources between network operators

19) Suppose Mr. Mohamed send video to Ms. Saba. At same time, Mr. Henoke want send Voice
message to Ms. Hareg but Henoke wrongly decide for wait Saba until finish. So what
problem happen in both senders this case?
A. Hidden Terminals C. Near and far terminals

B. Exposed terminals D. Collision Detection

RHIS model exit exam

1. Which of the following RHIS components are considered outputs?

A. HIS resources C. Data sources
B. Indicators D. Information products
2. If a country needs to quickly identify gaps in an RHIS system, which would be the best
assessment tool to use?
 A. Data Quality Review
B. RHIS Rapid Assessment Tool
C. Performance of Routine System Management toolkit (PRISM)
D.SCORE for Health Data
3. Which of the following RHIS components are considered inputs?
A. HIS resources B. Indicators C. Data sources D. Information dissemination and use
4. Which one of the following are the building blocks of health system?
A. Indicators C. Information products
B. Data management D. Service delivery
5. Which of the following are non-routine health information system data sources?
A. Administrative records C. Service records
B. Census D. Individual records
6. Which one of the following is true about using information for management purpose?
A. Data collection C. Problem identification
B. Data analysis and presentation D. Data processing
7. Which one of the following is serial register?
A. EPI register C. Delivery register
B.TB register D. PNC register
8. Which one of the following is a data source for nutrition program indicators
A. OPD abstract register C. Therapeutic Food Program Register
B. Pre-ART register D. ART Register
9. Which one of the following reportable data elements could not use delivery register as a
data source
A. Number of live births C. Number of still births
B. Number of institutional maternal deaths D. Protected at birth(PAB)
10. In DHIS2 the location of the data, the geographical context, is represented as
A. Data element B. Organization unit C. Period D. Indicator

11. Which one of the following indicators is not used Infant Immunization & Growth
Monitoring Register as a data source
A. IPV (Inactivated Polio Vaccine) Immunization Coverage (< 1 year)
B. Measles (MCV1) immunization coverage (< 1year)
C. Full immunization coverage (< 1 year)
D. HPV 1 (Human Papilloma Virus vaccine (1st dose) ) Immunization coverage
12. If you want to save your analysis results in Dhis-2, which one you expected to click to
obtain save as option
A. Favorite B. Option C. File D. Layout
13. Which one of the following is true in Dhis-2
A. All data displayed in pivot tables can be converted to charts
B. All data displayed in charts can be converted to pivot tables
 C. We can display all data either in pivot table or chart without any criteria
D. It is impossible to display data in pivot tables in Dhis-2
14. Assume you are working in Gondar zonal health department planning unit and you want
to calculate indicators using the data given at the table

Total Total Total Total new Total Number Number of

population number of estimated acceptors repeat of pregnant
women pregnancy for family acceptors pregnant women that
reproductive planning for family women received
age planning that antenatal
received care at least
antenata four visits
l care at
least
once
20 million 25% 5% 0.5million 1.5 million 1million 0.5 million

15. Calculate contraceptive acceptance rate based on the above table

A. 50% B. 40% C. 70% D.80%
16. Calculate ANC 4 coverage based on the above table (Q14)?
A. 20% B.50% C. 25% D.10%
Health informatics Ethics and standards questions for Exit exam
1. One of the following is true about medical record
A. It is always a property of a pt
B. It should be accessible to any record seeker
C. Pt information can be released from the medical record without the consent of the pt
D. It can be used for research purpose with pt identification
2. One of the following conditions needs to consider medical record as a legal document
A. It may be used in medical malpractice
B. It may be used for monthly report
C. Help to monitor patient health status
D. it may be used for research purpose anonymously

3. In case of pt access to their information, one of the following is not supported in Ethiopian
HMIS regulation
A. Clients have the right to access their own health information by getting copy of it
B. Client can view their information in their medical record
C. If the client believed there is an error in their MR; the doctor can amend it
D. Clients have the right to access their information by getting the original MR
3. When there is a request of release of pt information, the first thing that we consider is
A. Authority of individual to the information
B. Individual right to the information
C. Sensitivity of the information
D. Organization interest on the information
4. A defence mechanism which involves the use of codes to transform information into
unintelligible data

A. Firewall B. Intrusion Detection System

C. Secure Socket Layer D. Cryptographic systems
5. One of the following is false both for Ethics and Law
A. An illegal act by a professional is always unethical
B. Unethical act is not necessarily illegal
C. Moral values are a beginning to the development of legal rules
 D. Ethics statement which is adopted into law is generally unenforceable

6. Form the following one is false statement about computer malicious program.

A. human interaction is necessary for a virus to spread to another user's files

B. A worm doesn't alter or delete files but instead they reside in memory, eat up system
resources, and slow down your computer.
C. A worm is a program that initially appears useful and fools a user into running it. But
while it runs, it could be allowing "back door" access to your computer by hackers
D. Computer virus spread more rapidly than computer warms.
7. One of the following principles of general ethics is basis for all health care providers
A. Integrity B. Non – Maleficence C. Autonomy D. Beneficence

eHealth Exam

1. The following statements are correct about standard except

A. Standards could increase interoperability of components
B. The barriers of communication between different organization are the absence or
fragmented standards
C. One of the challenges and opportunities of e-health standardization is the proliferation
of multitudinous e-health standards by numerous standards-setting institutions
D. Standards make health data less portable and understandable to different computer
2. The use of mobile to input and transmit data that will be used to track disease for
surveillance program is;
A. Health survey
B. Decision Support system
C. Mobile referrals
D. Health surveillance
3. The ability of different information technology systems and software applications to
communicate, to exchange data accurately, effectively and consistently is
A. Standardization
B. Legalization
C. Interoperability
D. Normalization
4. Which one of the following statements is wrong about DHIS2?
A. The purpose of DHIS2is to provide a comprehensive platform for data
collection, validation, reporting and analysis for decision making
B. DHIS2 works either online or offline
C. Data collection in DHIS2 is based on three dimensions
D. All data must be entered into DHIS2 by hand
5. Which one of the following statements is wrong about clinical decision support system?
A. Providing information electronically about protocols and standards for
healthcare professionals to use in diagnosing and treating patients
B. A clinical decision support system is enhancing medical decisions with
targeted clinical knowledge, patient information, and other health information.
C. The main purpose of CDSS is to provide timely information to clinicians,
patients, and others to inform decisions about health care.
D. It is a means of requesting diagnostic tests and treatments electronically and
receiving the results
6. Which one of the following is wrong about draw backs of paper based medical recording
system?
A. Retrieval is quite difficult
B. Indexing is difficult
C. Summarizing, analysing and presenting information is error prone
D. Medical records are written by hand and legible to everyone
7. While considering to implement the EHR system either purchased or developed the software
could include the following features
A. Software could have enough module capability
B. Software vendor could be reputable
C. Software could have interoperability capability
D. Software could not be scalable
8. Prevention of unauthorized data modification of eHealth system could be described as

A. Integrity
B. Anonymous
C. Confidentiality
D. Privacy
9. Which one of the following is wrong about ehealth
A. The application of Internet and other related technologies in the healthcare
industry to improve the access, efficiency, effectiveness of health care
 B. A system which enables for more integration, improved access, and better health
care through better information management and use.
C. Information exchange between providers on secure networks to enable providers to
have timely access to critical information at the point of care
D. A system which enables for less portability of health care information and
minimize communication among physicians.
10. One of the following statements is not the benefit of ehealth policy
A. Ensuring ownership and shared responsibility for successful implementation
B. Provide coordination and collaboration between stakeholders
C. Providing a framework for E-health implementation by all stakeholders
D. Hinder the communication between the health care system and stalk holders
11. Radiographers from primary hospitals in Ethiopia could capture the medical image and send
through the system for interpretation and then radiologists will interpret when he is
comfortable. The telemedicine model being used is described as;
A. Real-Time services
B. Store-and-Forward
C. Remote Patient Monitoring
D. Teleconsultation