Rbts Test-1 (e+h) (21-Nov-23) Paper

All India Rank Booster Test Series (RBTS–1) [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 21-Nov-2023
ALL INDIA RANK BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24
RANK BOOSTER TEST (RBTS)–1

TEST-ID : 601
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 21-11-2023 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : Units and Measurement, Kinematics, Experimental Skills
Chemistry : Some Basic Concept in Chemistry, Atomic Structure
Biology : The Living World, Biological Classification
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2023-24 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
NLI / 1
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NLI / 3
TOPIC : Units and Measurement, Kinematics, Experimental Skills

SECTION-A -A
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
1. Measurement of a physical quantity is essentially 1.

the
(1)
(1) process of comparing with a standard using an
instrument
(2)
(2) process of observing the physical quantity
(3)
(3) process of taking readings on an instrument
(4) process of subdividing the physical quantity (4)
2. A verner callipers has 1 mm marks on the main 2. 1 mm

scale. It has 20 equal divisons on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For
this vernier callipers, the least count is :
(1) 0.02 mm (1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.05 mm (2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.1 mm (3) 0.1 mm
(4) 0.2 mm (4) 0.2 mm
3. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are 3. a, b, c d 1%, 2%, 3%

measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% P
4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as
follows:
P
P
P %
% error in P is
(1) 14% (1) 14%
(2) 10% (2) 10%
(3) 4% (3) 4%
(4) 7% (4) 7%
4. ML1T 2  are dimensions of : 4. ML 1T  2 

   
(1) pressure (1)
(2) force (2)
(3) momentum (3)
(4) power (4)
NLI / 4
5. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote 5. 3.55 cm
it as 3.55 cm. Which instrument did he use to
measure it :
(1)
(1) A meter scale of least cound 1 cm
(2)
(2) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier
scale matches with 9 divisions in main scale and
main scale has 5 divisions in 1 cm
(3)
(3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions in the circular
scale and pitch as 1 mm
(4)
(4) A screw gauge having 10 divisons in the circular
scale and pitch as 1 mm.
L L
6. Assertion (A) : and CR both have same dimensions 6. CR
R R
L L
Reason (R) : and CR both have dimension of time. CR
R R
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1)

explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (2)
explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false (3) A R
(4) A is false but R is true (4) A R

7. If momentum (p), area (A) and time (T) are taken 7. (p) (A) (T)
to be fundamental quantities, then energy has
the dimensional formula.
(1) P2A1T1
2 1 1
(1) P A T
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4) PA T
(4) P A T
d
8. The velocity v of a particle depends upon the time 8. v v = a + bt +
c+t
d
t according to the equation v = a + bt + . t a, b, c d :
c+t
Write the dimensions of a, b, c and d : (1) [2LT–1], [LT–2] , [L] & [T]
(1) [2LT–1], [LT –2] , [L] & [T]
(2) [LT–1], [2LT–2] , [L] & [T]
(2) [LT–1], [2LT –2] , [L] & [T]
(3) [LT–1], [LT–2] , [L] & [T] (3) [LT–1], [LT –2] , [L] & [T]
(4) [LT–1], [LT–2] , [T] & [L] (4) [LT–1], [LT –2] , [T] & [L]
NLI / 5
9. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 9. (A)

as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R).
(A)
Assertion (A) :
The error in the measurement of radius of the 0.3%
sphere is 0.3%. The permissible error in its surface 0.6%
area is 0.6%.
(R)
Reason (R) :
The permissible error is calculated by the formula Δ A 4 Δr
=
Δ A 4 Δr A r
= .
A r
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below: (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (2) (A) (R) (R) (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (4) (A) (R)
10. If the unit of force is 1 kilonewton, the length is 10.

1 km and time 100 s, what will be the unit of mass?
(1) 1, 000 kg (1) 1, 000 kg

(2) 10, 000 kg (2) 10, 000 kg
(3) 100 kg (3) 100 kg
(4) 1 kg (4) 1 kg
11. When C, R and L represent general identity, then 11. C, R L
2
dimensions of C RL are: 2
C RL
(1) (1)
(2) MLTA (2) MLTA
(3) None of these (3)
(4) (4)
12. The area of acceleration time graph gives : 12.
(1) Displacment (1)
(2) Distance (2)
(3) Velocity (3)
(4) Change in velocity (4)
NLI / 6
13. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same 13. P Q
time in a straight line and their positions are xp (t) = at + bt2
represented by xp (t) = at + bt2 and xq (t) = ft – t2. xq (t) = ft – t2.
At what time do the cars have the same velocity :
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
 
14. The magnitude of the vector product of two vectors 14. A B
 
A and B may be : (a) AB
(a) Greater than AB (b) AB
(b) Equal to AB
(c) AB
(c) Less than AB
(d)
(d) Equal to zero
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, d (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, d
15. The modulus of the vector product of two vectors 15.
1 1
is times their scalar product. The angle
3 3
between vectors is :
(1) /6 (2) /4 (1) /6 (2) /4
(3) /2 (4) /3 (3) /2 (4) /3
       
16. Given, a + b + c + d = 0 , which of the following 16. a +b + c + d = 0 ,
statement is correct : 
  
    (a) a, b, c d
(a) a, b, c and d must each be a null vector
     
(b) The magnitude of (a + c) equals the (b) (a + c) (b + d)
 
magnitude of (b + d) 
 (c) a b, c d
(c) The magnitude of a can never be greater than
the sum of magnitude of b, c and d. 
  
    (d) b + c , a d
(d) b + c must lie in the plane of a and d
(1) a b
(1) a and b
(2) b c
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c (3) a, b c
(4) b, c and d. (4) b, c d.
NLI / 7
     
17. If A = 2i 3j + 7k , B = iˆ + 2jˆ and C = j k . Find 17. A = 2i 3j + 7k , B = iˆ + 2jˆ C= j k,
     
A.(B × C) : A.(B × C)
(1) – 21 (1) – 21
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) – 10 (3) – 10
(4) 0 (4) 0
      
18. The resultant of two vectors P and Q is R . If the 18. P Q R Q
  
magnitude of Q is doubled, the new resultant P R

becomes perpendicular to P , then the magnitude

of R is :
(1) Q (2) P/Q
(1) Q (2) P/Q
PQ P2  Q2 PQ P2  Q2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
PQ 2PQ PQ 2PQ
19. The velocity of a body moving along a straight 19.
line with uniform acceleration a reduces by 3/4 t0
of its initial velocity in time t0. The total time of
motion of the body till its velocity becomes zero
is
4
(1) t0
4 3
(1) t0
3 3
(2) t0
3 2
(2) t0
2
5
5 (3) t0
(3) t0 3
3
8
8 (4) t0
(4) t0 3
3
20. If y denotes the displacement and t denotes the 20. y t
time and the displacement is given by y  a sin t , y  a sin t
the velocity of the particle is

(1) acos t
(1) acos t
(2) acos t
(2) acos t
(3) a cos t
(3) a cos t
(4) (a cos t) /  (4) (a cos t) / 
NLI / 8
21. A particle is thrown vertically upward. Its velocity 21.
at half of the height is 10 m/s, then maximum
height attained by it - [g = 10 m/s2] [g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 8 m (1) 8
(2) 20 m (2) 20
(3) 10 m (3) 10
(4) 16 m (4) 16
22. The speed of a body moving with uniform 22. u S

acceleration is u. This speed is doubled while
covering a distan ce S. When it covers an
S
additional distance S, its speed would become
(1) 3u
(1) 3u
(2) 5u
(2) 5u
(3) (3) 11u

11u
(4) 7u (4) 7u
23. From the following v-t graph, find the 23. v-t t=3 t = 12 s
displacement for time interval t = 3 to t = 12 s.
20 20
v v
(m/s) (m/s)
5 15 5 15
t(s) t(s)
(1) 123 m (2) 140 m (1) 123 m (2) 140 m

(3) 120 m (4) 135 m (3) 120 m (4) 135 m
24. A particle is moving so that its displacement s is 24. s = t3 –6t2 + 3t+4

given as s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 meter. Its velocity at the
instant when its acceleration is zero will be
(1) 3 m/s (1) 3 m/s
(2) –12 m/s (2) –12 m/s
(3) 42 m/s (3) 42 m/s
(4) –9 m/s (4) –9 m/s
NLI / 9
25. A particle is moving such that its position 25.

coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (x, y) t=0 (2 m, 3 m) t = 2s
(6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2s, and (13 m, 14 m) at time
(6 m, 7 m) t = 5s (13 m, 14 m)

t = 5s. Average velocity vector (v av ) from t = 0 to 
(v av ) , t = 0 t = 5s
t = 5s is
7 ˆ ˆ
7 ˆ ˆ (1) (i  j)
(1) (i  j) 3
3
11 ˆ ˆ
11 ˆ ˆ (2) (i  j)
(2) (i  j) 5
5
1
1 (3) (13iˆ  14ˆj)
(3) (13iˆ  14ˆj) 5
5
(4) 2(iˆ  ˆj) (4) 2(iˆ  ˆj)
26. Component of acceleration which changes the 26.

speed.  
  (1) a.v
(1) a.v
 
  (2) a  v
(2) a  v

 ˆ vˆ
(3) (a.v)
ˆ vˆ
(3) (a.v)
     
(4) (a  v) v (4) (a  v) v
  
27. Two particle A and B starts from position vector 27. B rA rB vA
    
rA and rB with velocities v A and vB respectively.. vB
If they meet same where then
   
    (1) (rB  rA )  k .(v A  v B )
(1) (rB  rA )  k .(v A  v B )
 
  (2) v A  v B  0
(2) v A  v B  0
   
(3) v A . vB  0 (3) v A . vB  0
(4) None of the above (4)
28. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v0 at an 28.  v

angle of projection . From the same point and at
the same instant a person starts running with a v0/2
constant speed v0/2 to catch the ball. Will the
person be angle to catch the ball? If yes, what
should be the angles of projection :
(1) yes, 600 (1) , 600
(2) yes, 300 (2) , 300
(3) no (3)
(4) yes, 450 (4) , 450

NLI / 10
29. When a man is standing, raindrops appear to him 29.

falling at 60° from the horizontal from his front
side. When he is travelling at 5 km/h on a
horizontal road, they appear to him falling at 30°
from the horizontal from his front side. The actual
speed of the rain in km/h is
(1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 5
(2) 5
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 6 (4) 6
30. A swimmer wishes to cross a 500 m wide river 30.
flowing at 5 km/hr. His speed with respect to water
is 3 km/hr. If he heads in the direction making an 
angle  with the flow, find the time he takes to
cross the river?
10
10 (1)
(1) minutes cos
cos
10
10 (2)
(2) seconds sin
sin
10
10 (3)
(3) minutes sin
sin
10 10
(4) seconds (4)
cos cos
31. On a long horizontal belt, a child runs to and fro 31.

with a speed of 9 km/h (with respect to the belt)
between his father and mother located 50 m apart
on the moving belt. The belt moves with a speed
of 4 km/h. The time taken by the child to go from
mother to father and then father to mother is
(1) 25 s (1) 25 s
(2) 20 s (2) 20 s
(3) 15 s (3) 15 s
(4) 40 s (4) 40 s
32. The speed of a projectile when it is at its greatest 32.
2 2
height is times its speed at half the maximum
5 5
height. What is the angle of projection?
(1) 60o (1) 60o

(2) 90o (2) 90o
(3) 15o (3) 15o
(4) 45o (4) 45o
NLI / 11
33. Ram and Shyam are at A and B as shown in figure 33. A B
and simultaneously starts moving with aiˆ and bjˆ AB aiˆ bjˆ
along and perpendicular to line AB, then
L L
(a) They will meet after time t  (a) t
a b2 2
a  b2
2
(b) They can not meet each other (b)

La La
(c) They will be be closest at t  (c) t
a  b2
2
a2  b 2
(1) all a, b, c are correct
(1) a, b, c
(2) b and c are correct (2) b c
(3) only b is correct (3) b
(4) only c is correct (4) c
34. The maximum height attained by a projectile is 34.
increased by 10% by increasing its speed of
10%
projection, without changing the angle of
projection. The percentage of increase in the time
of flight of the projectile will be (1) 5%
(1) 5%
(2) 15%
(2) 15%
(3) 20%
(3) 20%
(4) 10% (4) 10%
Reason (R).
(A)
Assertion (A) :
In projectile motion, the angle between the
instantaneous velocity and acceleration at the
highest point is 180o.
(R)
Reason (R) :
At the highest point, velocity of projectile will be
in horizontal direction only.
(1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
below:
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (A) (R)
NLI / 12
SECTION-B -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can

15 15
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking. 10
36. The number of significant digits in 6.032 N m-2 36. 6.032 N m-2
is
(1) 6
(1) 6
(2) 3
(2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 5 (4) 5
37. A wire of length  12 0.06 cm and radius 37.  12 0.06 cm,
r 1 0.005 cm and mass m  0.3  0.003 gm. r 1 0.005 cm m  0.3  0.003 gm
Maximum percentage error in density is :
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 2.5 (2) 2.5
(3) 1 (3) 1
(4) 7 (4) 7
Reason (R).
(A)
Assertion (A) :
In projectile motion, the vertical velocity of the
particle is continuously uniformly decreased
during its ascending motion.
(R)
Reason (R) :
In projectile motion near earth surface, vertical
downward constant acceleration is present in
vertical direction.
below: (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R) (R) (A)
exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) (R)
NLI / 13
39. The ratio of magnitudes of angular velocity of the 39.
hour hand of a watch to that of earth’s rotation
about its own axis is :
(1) 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
40. A particle makes ‘f’ revolutions per sec in a circular 40. ‘f’ r
path of radius r. Its centripetal acceleration is :
(1) 4f2 r2 (1) 4f2 r2
(2) 4f2 r (2) 4f2 r

(3) 4f2 r (3) 4f2 r
(4) 4f2 r2 (4) 4f2 r2
41. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25 cm at 41.

two revolutions per second. The acceleration
of the particle in metre per seond 2 is
(1) 
(1) 
(2) 82
(2) 82
(3) 22 (3) 22
(4) 42 (4) 42
42. A particle moves in a circle of radius 30 cm. Its 42. 30

linear speed is given by v = 2t where t in sec & vin v = 2t t=3
m/s. Find out its radial & tangential acceleration
at t = 3 sec.
2
(1) 120, 2
(1) 120, 2 m/s2
2
(2) 120, 20
(2) 120, 20 m/s2
2
(3) 100, 2 m/s2 (3) 100, 2
2
(4) 420, 2 m/s2 (4) 420, 2
43. A fan is making 600 revolutions per minute. If 43. 600

after some time it makes 1200 revolutions per 1200
minute, then increase in its angular velocity is:
(1) 10  rad/sec
(1) 10  rad/sec
(2) 20  rad/sec (2) 20  rad/sec
(3) 40  rad/sec (3) 40  rad/sec
(4) 60  rad/sec (4) 60  rad/sec
NLI / 14
44. A particle moves in a circle of radius 4 cm 44.

clockwise at constant speed of 2 cm/s. If x̂ and ŷ x̂ ŷ
are unit acceleration vectors along x and y x y
2
directions respectively in cm/sec . The acceleration
P Q
of the particle at the instant half way between P
and Q is given by
(1) 4(xˆ  y)
ˆ (2)  4(xˆ  y)
ˆ
(1) 4(xˆ  y)
ˆ (2)  4(xˆ  y)
ˆ
 (xˆ  y)
ˆ (xˆ  y)
ˆ
 (xˆ  y)
ˆ (xˆ  y)
ˆ (3) (4)
(3) (4) 2 4
2 4
45. Assertion (A) : The time period of a pendulum is given 45.
by the formula, T = 2 T= 2
Reason (R) : According to the principle of homogeneity

of dimensions, only that formula is correct in which L.H.S. R.H.S.
the dimensions of L.H.S. equal to dimensions of R.H.S.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1)

explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (2)
explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false (3) A R
(4) A is false but R is true (4) A R
46. The length of a cylinder is measured with a metre 46.

rod having least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is 0.1 cm
measured with vernier callipers having least count 0.01 cm
0.01 cm. Given that length is 5.0 cm and radius is 5.0 cm 2.0 cm
2.0 cm. The percentage error in the calculated
value of the volume will be :
(1) 3%
(1) 3%
(2) 1.5%
(2) 1.5%
(3) 3.5% (3) 3.5%
(4) 4% (4) 4%
NLI / 15
47. In an experiment of measurement of diameter of 47.
wire observaton of standard screwgauge is given:
The diameter of wire wll be :
(1) 4.24  0.01 mm (1) 4.24  0.01 mm
(2) 2.12  0.01 mm (2) 2.12  0.01 mm
(3) 5.24  0.01 mm (3) 5.24  0.01 mm
(4) 4.76  0.01 mm (4) 4.76  0.01 mm
48. If zero error of a standard Vernier calliperse is 48. –0.2 mm

–0.2 mm and observation is shown in diagram
the true reading wll be :
(1) 8.0  0.1 mm

(1) 8.0  0.1 mm
(2) 5.0  0.1 mm
(2) 5.0  0.1 mm
(3) 8.4  0.1 mm
(3) 8.4  0.1 mm
(4) 5.4  0.1 mm (4) 5.4  0.1 mm
49. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Assuming the 49.

air resistance to be constant and considerable :
(1) the time of ascent  the time of desent
(1) 
(2) the time of ascent < the time of desent (2) <
(3) the time of ascent > the time of desent (3) >
(4) the time of ascent = the time of desent (4) =
50. A body is released from the top of a tower of 50. h

height h. It takes t sec to reach the ground. Where t t/2
will be the ball after time t/2 sec?
(1) at h/2 from the ground (1) h/2
(2) at h/4 from the ground (2) h/4
(3) depends upon the mass and volume of the body (3)
(4) at 3h/4 from the ground (4) 3h/4
NLI / 16
TOPIC : Some Basic Concept in Chemistry, Atomic Structure
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207
SECTION-A -A
51. Calculate the mass percentage of sodium element 51.
and sulphur element respectively in sodium
sulphate :
(1) 34.39%, 20.53%
(1) 34.39%, 20.53%
(2) 32.39%, 22.53%
(2) 32.39%, 22.53%
(3) 38.39%, 25.53%
(3) 38.39%, 25.53%
(4) 23.39%, 32.53% (4) 23.39%, 32.53%
52. 10 mole each of KI and HgI2 are mixed and react 52. 10 KI 10 HgI2
according to KI + HgI2  K2[HgI4]
KI + HgI2  K2[HgI4]
The moles of product formed during the reaction
will be:
(1) 2.5
(1) 2.5
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 7.5 (3) 7.5
(4) 0.50 (4) 0.50
53. The total no. of nitrate ions present in 10 lit. of 53. 10 0.001 M Ca(NO3)2 NO3–
0.001 M calcium nitrate solution is :
(1) 10-2 NA (1) 10-2 NA
(2) 2 x 10-2 NA (2) 2 x 10-2 NA
(3) 3 x 10-2 NA (3) 3 x 10-2 NA
(4) 2 x 10-3 NA. (4) 2 x 10-3 NA.
54. 4g NaOH is present in 100 ml of its aqueous 54. 4g NaOH 100 ml
solution. What is the molarity :
(1) 2 M (1) 2 M
(2) 1 M (2) 1 M
(3) 10 M (3) 10 M
(4) 0.1 M (4) 0.1 M
55. Assertion (A) : The empirical mass of ethene is half of 55. (A)
its molecular mass.
(R)
Reason (R) : The empirical formula represents the
simplest whole number ratio of various atoms present
in a compound. (1)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. (2)
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3)
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are false. (4)
NLI / 17
56. Assertion (A) : 10 moles of CO2(g) and 10 moles of 56. 10 CO2(g)

H2(g) have equal volumes under the same conditions of 10 H2(g)
temperature and pressure.
Reason (R) : Equal volumes of all gases under the

same conditions of temperature and pressure contain
equal number of molecules ( or moles). (1)
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.
(2)
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(3)
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4)
(4) Both A and R are false.
57. How many grams of concentratd nitric acid 57. 250 mL, 2 M, HNO3
solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2 M 70 %
HNO3 ? The concentrated nitric acid is 70 % HNO3:
(1) 45 gm HNO3 (2) 90 gm HNO3
(1) 45 gm conc. HNO3 (2) 90 gm conc. HNO3
(3) 70 gm conc. HNO3 (4) 54 gm conc. HNO3 (3) 70 gm HNO3 (4) 54 gm HNO3
58. What is the weight percentage of NaCl solution in 58. NaCl 20 gm NaCl,
which 20 g NaCl is dissolved in 60 g of water: 60 gm
(1) 10 % (1) 10 %
(2) 5 % (2) 5 %
(3) 25 % (3) 25 %
(4) 15 % (4) 15 %
59. What is weight/volume percentage of a solution 59. 7.5 g KCl, 100

in which 7.5g of KCl is dissolved in 100mL of the
solution:
(1) 7.5%
(1) 7.5%
(2) 95.5%
(2) 95.5%
(3) 50% (3) 50%
(4) none (4)
60. If a water sample contains 6.02×1023 electrons, the 60. 6.02×10

volume of sample will be :(Density of water 1.0
1.0 gm/ml):
gm/ml):
(1) 1.8 ml
(1) 1.8 ml
(2) 0.18 ml (2) 0.18 ml
(3) 0.018 ml (3) 0.018 ml
(4) 0.0018 ml (4) 0.0018 ml
NLI / 18
61. In three moles of ethane (C 2 H6 ) calculate the 61. 3 (C2H6)
Number of hydrogen atoms and Number of carbon
atoms respectively :
(1) 2N0 and 16 N0 (1) 2N0 16 N0
(2) 18N0 and 6 N0 (2) 18N0 6 N0
(3) 6N0 and 6 N0 (3) 6N0 6 N0
(4) 6N0 and 18 N0 (4) 6N0 18 N0

62. What is the weight of oxygen required for the 62. 2.8
complete combution of 2.8 g of ethylene :
(1) 2.8 g (1) 2.8 g
(2) 6.4 g (2) 6.4 g
(3) 9.6 g (3) 9.6 g
(4) 96 g (4) 96 g
63. 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10g of 63. CaCO3 1000 10
calcium carbonate. Concentration of solution is :
(1) 10 ppm (1) 10 ppm

(2) 100 ppm (2) 100 ppm
(2) 1000 ppm (2) 1000 ppm
(4) 10000 ppm (4) 10000 ppm
64. 10g HCl is dissolved in 250 mL of its aqueous 64. 10g HCl 250
solution. If density of the solution is 1.2g/mL. The 1.2g/mL
molality of the solution will be :
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 0.34
(2) 0.34
(3) 0.945 (3) 0.945
(4) 3.4 (4) 3.4
65. Two element X and Y combined to form a molecule 65. X Y X2Y

of X2Y type. If mass of 0.1 mole of X weighted 2.3 X 0.1 2.3 Y 3.01×1020
20
gm and weight of 3.01×10 atom of Y is 0.008 gm. 0.008 X2Y
Molar mass X2Y will be :
(1) 62 (1) 62
(2) 31 (2) 31
(3) 55 (3) 55
(4) 39 (4) 39
66. On combustion of 25 ml liquid CH3COOH whose 66. 25 CH3COOH 1.2
specific gravity is 1.2, gives all gaseous product,
voluemof product at STP will be : STP
(1) 11.2 lit (2) 22.4 lit (1) 11.2 lit (2) 22.4 lit
(3) 44.8 lit (4) 33.6 lit (3) 44.8 lit (4) 33.6 lit
NLI / 19
67. The molecular weight of O2 and SO2 are 32 and 64 67. O2 SO2 32 64 150C
respectively. At 150C and 150 mmHg pressure, 1 L 150 mmHg 1 L O2 ‘N’
of O 2 contains ‘N’ molecules. The number of
2 L SO2
molecules in 2 L of SO2 under the same conditions
of temperature and pressure will be: (1) N/2
(1) N/2 (2) N
(2) N
(3) 2N
(3) 2N
(4) 4N (4) 4N
68. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m 68. 1.00
aqueous solution :
(1) 1.770
(1) 1.770
(2) 0.0354
(2) 0.0354
(3) 0.0177 (3) 0.0177
(4) 0.177 (4) 0.177

69. The mole fraction of solvent in a solution of H2SO4 69. H2SO4 0.6
is 0.6. The molality is :
(1) 14 (1) 14
(2) 28 (2) 28
(3) 1.4 (3) 1.4
(4) 37 (4) 37
70. The reaction, C + O2  CO2 is carried out by taking 70. The reaction, C + O2  CO2 is carried out by taking
24 g carbon and 96g O 2. Which one is limiting 24 g carbon and 96g O2. Which one is limiting
reagent: reagent:
(1) C (1) C
(2) O2 (2) O2
(3) CO2 (3) CO2
(4) None of these. (4) None of these.
71. 4 g of NaOH are dissolved in 90 mL of water. The 71. 4 g of NaOH are dissolved in 90 mL of water. The
mole fraction of NaOH in water is : mole fraction of NaOH in water is :
(1) 0.0444 (1) 0.0444
(2) 0.0196 (2) 0.0196

(3) 0.222 (3) 0.222
(4) 0.0392 (4) 0.0392
72. 20 gm H2SO4 present in 400 ml aqueous solution of 72. H2SO4 H2SO4

H2SO4. Find % W/V and strength respectively : W/V
(1) 5% W/V, 50 gm/lit

(1) 5% W/V, 50 gm/lit
(2) 0.5% W/V, 25 gm/lit
(2) 0.5% W/V, 25 gm/lit
(3) 1.5% W/V, 25 gm/lit (3) 1.5% W/V, 25 gm/lit
(4) 1.5% W/V, 50 gm/lit (4) 1.5% W/V, 50 gm/lit
NLI / 20
73. Calculate the amount of water (g) produced by 73. 16
the combustion of 16 g of methane :
(1) 16 g H2O (1) 16 g H2O
(2) 36 g H2O (2) 36 g H2O
(3) 12 g H2O (3) 12 g H2O
(4) 8 g H2O (4) 8 g H2O
74. What is the mass of an atom of Ag (At. Wt. = 108 74. Ag = 108
amu): amu):
(1) 2.79×10–25 Kg (1) 2.79×10–25 Kg
(2) 1.79×10–25 Kg (2) 1.79×10–25 Kg
(3) 2.97×10–20 Kg (3) 2.97×10–20 Kg
(4) 1.79×10–20 Kg (4) 1.79×10–20 Kg
75. If N0 is Avogadro's number, then number of valence 75. 4.2 (N3–)

electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ions N3– is : N0 = :
(1) 2.4 N0 (1) 2.4 N0
(2) 4.2 N0 (2) 4.2 N0
(3) 1.6 N0 (3) 1.6 N0
(4) 3.2 N0
(4) 3.2 N0
76. The no.of unpaired electrons in Cr+3 ion will be 76. Cr+3
(At. no. of Cr = 24) : Cr = 24) :
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 5 (4) 5
77. An object absorbs a photon of wavelength 2400 Å 77. 2400 Å

and emits two photons. If wavelength of first
photon is 6000 Å, the wavelength of second photon 6000 Å
will be : (1) 3600 Å
(1) 3600 Å
(2) 4000 Å
(2) 4000 Å
(3) 5500 Å
(3) 5500 Å
(4) 8400 Å (4) 8400 Å
78. Which of the following is incorrect about de Broglie 78.

relationship :
h
h (1) h =  × p (2)
(1) h =  × p (2) v
v
(3) Ekinetic (4) Ekinetic

(3) Ekinetic (4) Ekinetic
NLI / 21
79. The anion X–3 has 16 neutrons in its nucleus, If this 79. X–3 16
anion contains 18 electrons, then what will be the Í . kk; u esa18 X
number of nucleons in its molecule X4? ?
(1) 64 (1) 64
(2) 93 (2) 93
(3) 124 (3) 124
(4) 60 (4) 60
80. The radius of third shell of Be+3 ion R, then radius 80. Be+3 R 6th
of its 6th shell will be: :
(1) 2R (1) 2R
R R
(2) (2)
2 2
(3) 4R (3) 4R
R (4)
R
(4)
4 4
81. 450 waves of an energy radiation passes in one 81. 450 1
minute from a point, then what will be the
:
wavelength of radiation:
(1) 6.66 × 10 5m (1) 6.66 × 10 5 m
(2) 4.10 × 10 7m (2) 4.10 × 10 7m
(3) 2.25 × 10 9m (3) 2.25 × 10 9m
(4) 2.25 × 10 -8m (4) 2.25 × 10 -8m
82. Third excitation energy of Li+2 ion is: 82. Li+2 :
(1) 108.81 eV (1) 108.81 eV
(2) 114.75 eV (2) 114.75 eV
(3) 51 eV (3) 51 eV
(4) 48.36 eV (4) 48.36 eV
83. Match the column I and Column II 83. I II
Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(A) Total values of m (P) 0, 1, 2....(n – 1)
(A) m (P) 0, 1, 2....(n–1)
in a shell
(B) l (Q) 2l + 1
(B) Values of l in a shell (Q) 2l + 1
(C) Values of m in a (R) +l.....+2, +1, (C) m (R) +l.....+2, +1,
subshell 0, –1....–l 0,–1....–l
2
(D) Total values of m (S) n (D) m (S) n2
in a subshell
The correct relationship is
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R (2) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R (2) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(3) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q (4) None of these (3) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q (4)
NLI / 22
84. According to the Bohr theory, which of the 84.

following transitions in the hydrogen atom will
give rise to the least energetic photon :
(1) n=6 to n=1
(1) n=6 to n=1
(2) n=5 to n=4
(2) n=5 to n=4
(3) n=6 to n=5
(3) n=6 to n=5
(4) n=5 to n=3 (4) n=5 to n=3
85. The difference of nth and (n+1)th Bohr’s radius of 85. nth (n+1)th
hydrogen atom is equal to its (n–1)th Bohr’s radius. (n–1)th n
The value of n is:
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(3) 3
(4) 4
(4) 4
SECTION-B -B

15 15
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 10
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
86. Which of the following orbit has the same radius 86. Be+3
as that of second Bohr's orbit radius of Be+3 ion :
(1) H+ (n=1) (1) H+ (n=1)
(2) Li+2 (n=2) (2) Li+2 (n=2)
(3) He+ (n=2) (3) He+ (n=2)
(4) H (n=1) (4) H (n=1)
87. How many electrons in an atom may have the 87.
following quantum numbers
i. n=4, s = –1/2, ii. n=3, l=0 i. n=4, s = –1/2, ii. n=3, l=0
(1) 32, 2 (1) 32, 2
(2) 16, 9 (2) 16, 9
(3) 32, 9 (3) 32, 9
(4) 16, 2 (4) 16, 2
88. For sodium atom number of electrons with m = 0 88. m=0 :
will be:
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 7
(2) 7
(3) 9 (3) 9
(4) 8 (4) 8
NLI / 23
89. The atomic number of the electron having 89. 3p
maximum number of unpaired 3p-electrons is: :
(1) 15 (1) 15
(2) 13 (2) 13
(3) 12 (3) 12
(4) 8 (4) 8
90. If in Bohr's model for unielectronic atom, the time 90.

period of revolution is represented as Tn,z, where T n
n represents shell number and z represents atomic z T1,2: T2,1
number, then the value of T1,2: T2,1 will be: :
(1) 8:1 (1) 8:1
(2) 1:8 (2) 1:8
(3) 1:8 (3) 1:8

(4) 1:32 (4) 1:32
91. Which is not in accordance to Aufbau principle : 91.
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
92. 3d-orbitals having electron density in all the three 92. :

axes is:
(1) 3dxy
(1) 3dxy
(2) 3dz2
2
(2) 3d z
(3) 3dyz
(3) 3dyz
(4) 3dzx (4) 3dzx
93. The first emission line of hydrogen atomic 93.

spectrum in Balmer series will have wave number
(R=Rydberg constant)
5R
5R (1) cm
(1) cm 36
36
3R 3R
cm (2) cm
(2) 4
4
7R 7R
(3) cm (3) cm
144 144
9R 9R
(4) cm (4) cm
400 400
NLI / 24
94. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers 94. 4f-

is correct for an electronin 4f-orbital :
1 1
(1) n=3, l=2, m=–2, s=+ (1) n=3, l=2, m=–2, s=+
2 2
1 1
(2) n=4, l=4, m=–4, s=– (2) n=4, l=4, m=–4, s=–
2 2
1 1
(3) n=4, l=3, m=+1, s=+ (3) n=4, l=3, m=+1, s=+
2 2
1 1
(4) n=4, l=3, m=+4, s=+ (4) n=4, l=3, m=+4, s=+
2 2
95. Which of the following set of quantum numbers 95.
represents the highest energy of an atom :
1 1
(1) n=3, l=0, m=0, s=+ (1) n=3, l=0, m=0, s=+
2 2
1 1
(2) n=3, l=1, m=1, s=+ (2) n=3, l=1, m=1, s=+
2 2
1 1
(3) n=3, l=2, m=1, s=+ (3) n=3, l=2, m=1, s=+
2 2
1 1
(4) n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+ (4) n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+
2 2
96. An nf-orbital can accomodate upto: 96. ________
(1) 14 electron (1) 14
(2) Six aelectrons (2) 6
(3) Two electrons with parallel spin (3) 2
(4) Two electrons with opposite spin (4) 2
97. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an 97.

atom is determined by following :
(1) 2n2
(1) 2n2
(2) 4l + 2
(2) 4l + 2
(3) 2l + 2
(3) 2l + 2
(4) 4l – 2 (4) 4l – 2
98. The number of waves made by a Bohr electron in 98.
an orbit of maximum magnetic quantum number +2
+2 (1) 3
(1) 3
(2) 4
(2) 4
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 1 (4) 1
NLI / 25
99. In which of the following electronic distribution 99.
(ground state) only Hund’s rule is violated :
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
100. Which of the following is not correct for electronic 100.

distribution in the ground state :
(1) Co = [Ar]
(1) Co = [Ar]
(2) Ni = [Ar] (2) Ni = [Ar]
(3) Cu = [Ar] (3) Cu = [Ar]
(4) Zn = [Ar] (4) Zn = [Ar]
NLI / 26
BIOLOGY : The Living World, Biological Classification

PART-1 (SECTION-A)
101. Match the following and choose the correct 101.
options:
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
(A) (i)
(A) Family (i) tuberosum
(B) Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales (B) (ii)
(C) Order (iii)Solanum (C)

(D) Species (iv) Plantae (D) (iv)
(E) Genus (v) Solanaceae (E) (v)
(1) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(ii), (4)-(i), (E)-(iii) (1) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(ii), (4)-(i), (E)-(iii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), (4)-(ii), (E)-(i) (2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), (4)-(ii), (E)-(i)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), (4)-(i), (E)-(ii) (3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), (4)-(i), (E)-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii1), C-(ii), (4)-(v), (E)-(i) (4) A-(iv), B-(iii1), C-(ii), (4)-(v), (E)-(i)
102. Which one of the following is not a correct 102.
statement:
(1)
(1) Cell wall is present in members of fungi and
planatae.
(2) Mushrooms belongs to basidiomycetes. (2)
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures (3)
in sporozoans.
(4) Protozoans are believed to be primitive relatives of
animals. (4)
103. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in 103.
having:
(1)
(1) Both do not have true nucleus.
(2)
(2) Composition of cell wall.
(3) Composition of cytoplasm. (3)
(4) Composition of genetic material. (4)

104. Given below are two statements : 104.
Statement I : I
Aristotle used simple morphological characters to
classify plants into trees, shrubs and herbs.
Statement II : II
Linnaeus divided animals into two groups, those which

had red blood and those that did not.
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement are correct (4) I II
NLI / 27
105. The colonies of cyanobacteria are generally 105.
surrounded by gelationous sheath. They often
forms -----in polluted water body:
(1) Red sea (1)
(2) Red tide (2)
(3) Blooms (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
106. Which of the following is a parasitic fungi on the 106.

mustard plant :
(1)
(1) Albugo
(2)
(2) Puccinia
(3) Yeast (3)
(4) Ustilago (4)

107. Match the following columns and choose the 107.
correct combination from the given option:
Column-I Column-II -I -II

(Kingdom) (Class) )
(A) Plantae (P) Archaebacteria
(A) (P)
(B) Fungi (Q) Euglenoids
(B) (Q)
(C) Protista (R) Phycomycetes
(C) (R)
(D) Monera (S) Algae
(D) (S)
(1) A-(S), B-(R), C-(Q), (D)-(P)
(1) A-(S), B-(R), C-(Q), (D)-(P)
(2) A-(R), B-(S, C-(Q), (D)-(P) (2) A-(R), B-(S, C-(Q), (D)-(P)
(3) A-(S), B-(Q), C-(R), (D)-(P) (3) A-(S), B-(Q), C-(R), (D)-(P)
(4) A-(Q), B-(R), C-(S), (D)-(P) (4) A-(Q), B-(R), C-(S), (D)-(P)
108. Match the following options : 108.

(A) Monera (i) Chitin (A) (i)
(B) Plantae (ii) Unicellular (B) (ii)
eukaryotic organism
(C) Fungi (iii) Polysacchride and
(C) (iii)
amino acid
(D) Protista (iv) Cellulose (D) (iv)
(1) A-(ii), B-(iv). C-(i), D-(iii) (1) A-(ii), B-(iv). C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) A-(i), B-(ii). C-(iv), D-(iii) (2) A-(i), B-(ii). C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv). C-(i), D-(ii) (3) A-(iii), B-(iv). C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii). C-(ii), D-(i) (4) A-(iv), B-(iii). C-(ii), D-(i)
NLI / 28
Statement I : I
The five kingdom classification systems includes
bacteria, blue, green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns, gymno
sperms and the angiosperms under ‘Plants’.
Statement II :
II
The classification was able to differentiate between the
heterotrophic group-fungi and the autotrophic green
plants.

(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
110. Match the following column I and Column II : 110.

Column I Column II I II
(A) Methanogens (i) Methanogens (A) (i)
(B) Salty area (ii) Nostoc and Anabaena (B) (ii)
(C) Hot springs (iii) Ruminant animals
(C) (iii)
(D) Marshy area (iv) Halophiles
(D) (iv)
(E) Heterocysts (v) Thermoacidophiles
(E) (v)
(1) A-(iii), B- (iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)
(1) A-(iii), B- (iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)
(2) A-(i), B- (v), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(ii) (2) A-(i), B- (v), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(ii)
(3) A-(ii), B- (iv), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii) (3) A-(ii), B- (iv), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B- (i), C-(v), D-(iii), E-(ii) (4) A-(iv), B- (i), C-(v), D-(iii), E-(ii)
Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(A) Cyanobacteria (i) N2 Fixing in legume
(A) (i) N2
(B) Heterotrophic (ii) Well defined
bacteria nucleus (B) (ii)
(C) Protista (iii) Survive without O2 (C) (iii) O2

(D) Mycoplasma (iv) Chlorophyll a (D) (iv) a
(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), (D)-(iii) (1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), (D)-(iii) (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), (D)-(ii) (3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), (D)-(ii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), (D)-(iii) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), (D)-(iii)
NLI / 29
Statement I : I:
In earlier system bacteria and the blue green algae
placed with groups which were eukaryotic.
Statement II : II :
Now bacteria and the blue green algae placed in
separate group monera because of prokaryotes.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
113. Which of the following statemen(s) is/are correct 113.
about Ascomycetes :
i.
i. Neurospora, which is used in biochemical and
genetic work is a member of this class.
ii. They are mostly multicellular, e.g., Yeast, or ii.
rarely unicellular, e.g., Penicillum.
iii. They are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic iii.
or coprophilous.
iv.
iv. Some examples are Aspergillus, Claviceps and
Neurospora.
(1) i ii
(1) Both i and ii
(2) Only ii (2) ii
(3) i, iii and iv (3) i, iii iv

(4) All of these (4)
114. How many kingdoms are represented by 114.
organisms mentioned in the given below w.r.t. five
kingdom system of classification?
Anabeana, Chlorella, Trypanosoma, Rhizopus,
Physarum, Gonyaulx, Plasmodium, Paramoecium.
(1) Three (1)
(2) Two (2)
(3) Four (3)

(4) Five (4)
115. Select the incorrect match : 115.
(1) Morels and truffles – Phycomycetes (1)
(2) Puff balls and toad stools– Basidiomycetes (2)
(3) Early blight of potato – Alternaria solani (3)
(4) Late blight of potato – Phytophthora infestans (4)
NLI / 30
options:
Column-I Column-II -I -II
(A) Diatoms (i) Used in polishing, (A) (i)

filtration of oils and
syrups
(B) Diatomaceous (ii) Gonyaulax
earth (B) (ii)
(C) Red dino (iii)Fresh water organisms (C) (iii)
Flagellatges
(D) (iv)
(D) Euglenoids (iv) Saprophytic protists
(E) Slime molds (v) Chief producer's in (E) (v)
the oceans
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), (D)-(iv), (E)-(v)
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), (D)-(iv), (E)-(v)
(2) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(i), (D)-(iv), (E)-(iii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(i), (D)-(iv), (E)-(iii)
(3) A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), (D)-(iii), (E)-(iv)
(3) A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), (D)-(iii), (E)-(iv)
(4) A-(v), B-(ii), C-(iv), (D)-(iii), (E)-(i) (4) A-(v), B-(ii), C-(iv), (D)-(iii), (E)-(i)
117. Which of the following are true about Deuterio 117.
mycetes:
(a) Also called imperfect fungi (a)
(b) Sex organ absent, but plasmogamy is brought (b)
about by fusion of two vegetative cells of
different genotypes.
(c)
(c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside
the basidium.
(d)
(d) Mycelium is septate and branched.
(1) a b
(1) a and b are correct
(3) a and d are correct (3) a d
(4) a,b,c and d are correct (4) a,b,c d

118. Which of the following is/are not characteristics 118.
features of euglenoids
(a)
(a) Have well defined cell wall
(b)
(b) Have a protein rich layer called pellicle.
(c) Photosynthetic in presence of sun light, when

(c)
deprived Sunlight, behave like heterotrophs
(d) Predating (heterophic) on other smaller

(d)
organism
(1) a b
(1) a and b are correct
(2) a d
(2) a and d are correct
(3) Only a is correct (3) a
(4) a,b,c,d all are correct (4) a,b,c,d
NLI / 31
119. Plasmodium stage represented by: 119.
(1) Chrysophyte (1)
(2) Dinoflagellates (2)
(3) Euglenoids (3)
(4) Slime moulds (4)

120. Which of the following statements with respect to 120.
classification is correct :
(1)
(1) Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra were placed
together under algae in five kingdom system
classification
(2)
(2) Five kingdom classification did not differentiate
between the heterotrophic group animalia and the
autotrophic green plants (3)
(3) Cell walls composition of the fungi is chitin and
polysaccharides
(4)
(4) Green plants had a cellulosic cell wall but placed
separetely from fungi by Linneous
121. Identify the given diagram and its class: 121.
(1) Penicillium – Ascomycetes (1) –

(2) Agaricus – Basidiomycetes (2) –
(3) Agaricus – Ascomycetes (3) –
(4) Penicillium – Basidiomycetes (4) –

122. In comparison to many other organisms bacteria 122.
as a group show:
(1) Most extensive reproductive diversity (1)

(2) Most extensive metabolic diversity (2)
(3) Most supressive metabolic diversity (3)
(4) Most extenssive dividing activity (4)

123. Mucor and Rhizopus are the example of : 123.
(1) Ascomycetes (1)
(2) Basidiomycetes (2)
(3) Deuteromycetes (3)
(4) Phycomycetes (4)
NLI / 32
:
Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(a) Agaricus (i) Phycomycetes
(a) (i)
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Ascomycetes
(b) (ii)
(c) Neurospora (iii)Basidiomycetes
(c)
(d) Rhizopus (iv)Deuteromycetes
(d) (iv)
(1) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), (d)-(iii)
(1) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), (d)-(iii) (3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), (d)-(i)
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): (A) :
Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in

nature.
(R):
Reason (R):
They are helpful in making curd from milk,
production of antibiotics, fixing N2 legume roots.
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
correct exaplanation of (A)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) (R)
as Assertion(1) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R).
Assertion (A): (A) :
Bacteria as a group show the most extensive

metabollic diversity.
Reason (R):
(R):
They may be autotrophic (chemosynthetic and
photosynthetic) and heterotrophic (saprophytic
and parasitic).
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R) (A)
correct exaplanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) (R)
NLI / 33
127. How many of the following are not correct 127.
statements among Gonyaulax, Euglena and Slime
moulds:
(a) All are photosynthetic (a)
(b) All are flagellated organism (b)

(c) These are belongs to different kingdom. (c)
(d) All are unicellular organism (d)
(1) 4 (2) 1 (1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
128. The correct scientific name of wheat is : 128.
(1) Triticum aestivum (1) Triticum aestivum
(2) triticum aestivum (2) triticum aestivum
(3) Triticum Aestivum (3) Triticum Aestivum
(4) triticum Aestivum (4) triticum Aestivum
129. Which taxonomic catagory is having least 129.
similarity from following given:
(1)
(1) Family
(2)
(2) Genus
(3) Species (3)
(4) Order (4)

options:
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
(A) (i)
(A) Potato (i) Felidae
(B) (ii)
(B) Leopard (ii) Solanum tuberosum
(C) Dog (iii) Panthera pardus (C) (iii)
(D) Cat (iv) Canidae (D) (iv)
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), (D)-(i) (1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), (D)-(i)
(2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), (D)-(ii) (2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), (D)-(iii) (3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), (D)-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), (D)-(ii) (4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), (D)-(ii)
options:
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
)
(Common name) (Family)
(A) Wheat (i) Hominidae (A) (i)
(B) Mango (ii) Muscidae (B) (ii)

(C) House fly (iii) Anacardiaceae (C) (iii)
(D) Man (iv) Poaceae (D) (iv)
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), (D)-(i) (1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), (D)-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), (D)-(ii) (3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), (D)-(ii)
(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), (D)-(iv) (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), (D)-(iv)
NLI / 34
132. Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in 132.
which order :
(1)
(1) Primata
(2)
(2) Diptera
(3) Carnivora (3)
(4) Polymoniales (4)

133. There are many species of Panthera genus, which 133.
of the following is/are the species of Panthera
genus:
(1) leo (2) pardus (1) (2)
(3) tigris (4) All (3) (4)

134. Which scientist gave two kingdom system of 134.
classification:
(1)
(1) Aristotle
(2)
(2) Linnaeus
(3) Huxley (3)
(4) Ernst mayr (4)

Column-I Column-II
-I -II
(a) Virus (i) Mad cow disease
(a) (i)
(b) Bacteria (ii) Potato spindle tuber
disease (b) (ii)
(c) Viroids (iii)Typhoid (c)
(d) Prions (iv) Small pox (d) (iv)
(1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), (d)-(i) (1) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), (d)-(iv) (2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), (d)-(iii) (4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), (d)-(iii)
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can 15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
136. Ernst mayr was awarded by the Balzan prize in : 136.

(1) 1994 (1) 1994
(2) 1983 (2) 1983
(3) 1999 (3) 1999
(4) 1883 (4) 1883
137. Members of group chrysophyte : 137.
(1) Are found only in fresh water (1)
(2) Are the chief producers in the oceans (2)
(3) Are microscopic and float activily in water current (3)
(4) Are only parasitic (4)
NLI / 35
138. Heterocyst is a structure which is associated with: 138.
(1) Reproduction (1)
(2) Respiration (2)
(3) Nitrogen fixation (3)
(4) Locomotion (4)

139. Match List - I with List - II : 139. -I - II
List - I List - II -I - II
(a) Prokaryotic (i) Which were
(a) (i)
earlier placed
organism
in the animal kingdom
which lack cell wall
(b) (ii)
(b) Unicellular (ii) Earlier placed in
eukaryotes organism
Algae within Plants
(c) Chlamydomonas (iii) Organisms were placed (c) (iii)
in kingdom Protista.
(d) Paramoecium (iv) Organisms were
grouped (d) (iv)
together under
Kingdom Monera
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) (3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
140. The cell walls form two thin overlapping shells, 140.
which fit together as in soap box, is characteristic
of:
(1)
(1) Chrysophytes
(2) Euglenoids (2)
(3) Dinoflagellates (3)
(4) Slime moulds (4)

141. Who had written Systema Nature : 141.
(1) Ernst Mayr (1)
(2) RH Whittaker (2)
(3) Carolus Linnaeus (3)
(4) WM Stanley (4)
142. Solanum and Panthera are : 142.
(1) Genus and species (1)
(2) Genus and genus (2)
(3) Species and species (3)
(4) Only species (4)
NLI / 36
143. The order carnivora includes family: 143.
(1) Felidae (1)
(2) Convolvulaceae (2)
(3) Canidae and Felidae (3)
(4) Canidae (4)

144. Bacteria are grouped under four categories based 144.
on their shape. Based on the given figure, identify A, B, C D
A,B,C and D.
(1) A-Vibrio, B-Bacilli, C- Spirilla, D-Cocci

(1) A- , C-
(2) A- Cocci, B-Bacilli, C- Spirilla, D-Vibrio
(2) A- , C-
(3) A- Cocci, B-Spirilla, C- Bacilli, D-Vibrio (3) A- , C-
(4) A-Spirilla, B-Cocci, C- Bacilli, D-Vibrio (4) A- , C-
145. Identify the given diagram and select the incorrect 145.
option regarding it.
(1) It belongs to kingdom - Protista and is a

dinoflagellate. (1)
(2) It is mostly marine and photosynthetic. (2)
(3) They have two flagella, a short and a long one.
(3)
(4) These organisms release toxins in large number
which kill other marine animals. (4)
146. Dikaryo phase of fungus occurs in : 146.
(1) Phycomycetes and ascomycetes (1)
(2) Phycomycetes and basidiomycetes (2)
(3) Basidiomycetes and dauteromycetes (3)
(4) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes (4)
NLI / 37
147. Identify the label A,B,C and D in the following 147. A,B,C D
figure:
(1) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-

(1) A - Head, B - Tail Fibres, C - Sheath, D - Collar
(2) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-
(2) A - Tail Fibres, B - Collar, C - Sheath, D - Head
(3) A - Sheath, B - Collar, C - Head, D - Tail Fibres (3) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-
(4) A - Head, B - Collar, C - Sheath, D - Tail Fibres (4) A - ,B- ,C- ,D-
148. Study the following statements and identify the 148.
correct option given below :
(I) Viruses that infect plants have single - stranded (I)
RNA and viruses that infect animals have
either single or double stranded RNA or double
stranded DNA
(II) Bacterial viruses or bacteriophages are (II)
usually single stranded RNA viruses.
(1) I is true, but II is false (1) I , II
(2) I is false, but II is true (2) I , II
(3) I and II both are true (3) I II
(4) I and II both are false (4) I II
options:
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
( )
(Categories) (Common name)
(A) Phycomycetes (i) Algal fungi (A) (i)
(B) Ascomycetes (ii) Imperfect fungi (B) (ii)
(C) Basidio mycetes (iii)Bracket fungi (C)
(D) Dentero mycetes (iv)Sac fungi (D) (iv)
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), (D)-(i) (1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), (D)-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), (D)-(iv) (4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), (D)-(iv)
NLI / 38
options:
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
)
(Scientists) (Related to)
(A) D.Ivanowsky(1982) (i) Viroids (A) (1982) (i)
(B) MW Beijerinek(1898) (ii) First crystallised TMV (B) (ii)
(C) WM stanley (1935) (iii) Contagium vivum fluidum (1898)
(D) TO Diener(1971) (iv) Mosaic disease of (C) (1935) (iii)

tobacco (D) (1971) (iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), (D)-(iv) (4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), (D)-(iv)
PART-2 (SECTION-A)
151. All living organisms can be classified into different 151.
taxa, This process of classification is :
(1) Taxonomic category (1)

(2) Taxonomic hierarchy (2)
(3) Systematics (3)
(4) Taxonomy (4)

152. Group of related genera is included in : 152.
(1) Family (2) Order (1) (2)
(3) Class (4) Species (3) (4)
153. Life may exist in : 153.
(1) Cold Mountain (1)
(2) Hot springs (2)
(3) Deserts (3)

154. Identify Incorrect statement about life : 154.
(1) Self replicating (1)
(2) Self organising (2)
(3) Evolving (3)
(4) None (4)

155. Identify family of Housefly: 155.
(1) Arthopoda (1)
(2) Canidae (2)
(3) Felidae (3)
(4) Muscidae (4)
NLI / 39
156. In binomial nomenclature, every organism has: 156.
(1) Two names, one latin, other Greek (1)
(2) Two names, one scientific other common (2)
(3) Two names by two scientists (3)
(4) One scientific name with two words, a generic and (4)
specific.
157. Select the correct statement in the following 157.
universal rules of Nomenclature :
a.
a. Biological names are generally in Latin and
written in italics. They are Latinised or derived
from Latin irrespective of their origin.
b. The first word in a biological name represents b.
the genus while the second component
denotes the specific epithet.
c.
c. Both the words in a biological name, when
handwritten, are not separately underlined,
or printed in italics to indicate their Latin
origin.
d. The first word denoting the genus starts with d.
a capital letter while the specific epithet starts
with a small letter.
(1) a, b
(1) a, b are correct
(2) a, b and d are correct (2) a, b d
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct (3) a, b, c d

(4) a, b and c are correct (4) a, b c
158. Plant Brinjal is placed in which family : 158.
(1) Cruciferae (1)
(2) Convolvulaceae (2)
(3) Solanaceae (3)
(4) Leguminaceae (4)
159. Branch of biology which takes into account 159.
evolutionary relationship between organisms :
(1) Systematics (1)
(2) Taxa (2)
(3) Specific epithets (3)
(4) Genetics (4)
160. which scientist used morphological characters to 160.
classify plants :
(1) Aristotle (1)

(2) Bentham and Hooker (2)
(3) Huxley (3)
(4) Mayr (4)

NLI / 40
161. Read the following statements carefully : 161.
i. Virus also contain genetic material i.
ii. Both RNA and DNA is present in a virus ii.
iii. Virus could either RNA or DNA iii.
iv. Virus that infect the plants have single stranded
iv.
RNA
Which one is incorrect:
(1) i (2) ii (1) i (2) ii
(3) iii (4) iv (3) iii (4) iv
162. How many of these belongs to kingdom protista 162.
Anabeana, Chlorella, Trypanosoma, Rhizopus,
Gonyaulx, Plasmodium, Paramoecium.
(1) Five (2) Two (1) (2)

(3) Four (4) Three (3) (4)
163. Linnaeus Two Kingdom system, did not distinguish 163.
between the
(1) Chlamydomonas and Chlorella (1)

(2) Bacteria and Chlorella like organism (2)
(3) Rhizopus and Mucor (3)
(4) Chara and Polysiphonia (4)

164. Which of the following criteria not used by R H 164.
Whittaker in their classification.
(1) Cell structure & body organisation, (1)

(2) Mode of nutrition & reproduction (2)
(3) Phylogenetic relationships & thallus organisation (3)
(4) Flagellation & Phylogenetic relationships. (4)

165. Naming system proposed by Linnaeus was : 165.
(1) Common system (1)
(2) Vernacular system (2)
(3) Binomial system (3)
(4) Trinomial system (4)

166. The process by which anything is grouped into 166.
convenient categories :
(1) Identification (1)

(2) Classification (2)
(3) Nomenclature (3)
NLI / 41
167. Unit of classfication is called : 167.
(1) Taxon (1)
(2) Key (2)
(3) Species (3)
(4) Order (4)
168. Species is : 168.
(1) Lowest rank of taxonomical hierarchy (1)
(2) Group of individuals which can interbreed and (2)
produce fertile offsprings
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Group of individuals which can not interbreed (4)
169. Read the statements and pick the correct 169.
statements
(a) Sapindales has the same status as primata in (a)
terms of rank (b)
(b) Biodiversity is known as the number and types
of organisms present on earth
(c) classification is the process by which anything (c)
is grouped into convenient categaries based
on some easily observable characters
(d) Properties of acellular organelles are not (d)
present in the molecular constituent of the or-
ganelle but arise as a result of interactions
among the molecular components comprising
the organelle (1) a, b, c
(1) Only a, b, c (2) a
(2) Only a
(3) Only a, d (3) a, d
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
170. Asexual reproduction can takes place by which 170.
spores :
(1)
(1) Conidia
(2)
(2) Sporangiospores
(3) Zoospores (3)
171. What kind of growth is exhibited by non-living 171.
ogranisms :
(1)
(1) Accumulation of material on surface
(2)
(2) Accumulation of material inside
(3) Growth from inside (3)
(4) None of these (4)

172. Sexual cycle in fungi involves : 172.
(1) Plasmogamy and then karyogamy (1)
(2) Mitosis in zygote (2)
(3) Only 1 and 2 (3) 1 2
NLI / 42
173. Halophiles are present in : 173.
(1) Marshy areas (1)
(2) Salty areas (2)
(3) Hot springs (3)
(4) Lakes and Streams. (4)
174. The Spores of slime moulds possess true walls 174.
and dispersed by :
(1) Water current (1)
(2) Air current (2)
(3) Animals (3)
(4) Bat. (4)
175. Which is correct : 175.
(1) Heterotrophic bacteria are helpful in curd making (1)
and production of antibiotics
(2) Mycoplasma has no cell wall (2)

(3) Dinoflagellates are of many coloured (3)

176. Most extensive metabolic diversity is found in the 176.
group:
(1) Animalia (1)

(2) Plantae (2)
(3) Fungi (3)
(4) Monera (4)

177. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 177. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
Over time, an attempt has been made to evolve a
classification system which reflects not only the
morphological, physiological and reproductive
similarities but is also phylogenetic
Reason (R) : (R) :
This kind of changes will take place in future too

depending on the improvement in our understanding of
characteristics
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) (A) (R) (R)
correct explanation of (A) (A)
(3) (A) (R)
NLI / 43
178. Following are some characteristics of a specific 178.
group. Considered the characters and identify the
respective group :
i.
i. Can survive without O2
ii.
ii. Cell wall not present
iii.
iii. Pathogenic in plants and animals
(1)
(1) Chrysophyta
(2)
(2) Slime moulds
(3) Euglenoids (3)
(4) Mycoplasma (4)
179. Biogas is produced by : 179.
(1) Eubacteria (1)
(2) Archaebacteria (2)
(3) Cyanobacteria (3)
(4) Mycoplasma (4)
180. Which of the following is not a bacterial disease 180.

(1) White rust of cruciferae (1)
(2) Early blight of potato (2)
(3) Citrus canker (3)
(4) 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
181. Sporozoans causes : 181.

(1) Sleeping sickness (1)
(2) Typhoid (2)
(3) Cholera (3)
(4) Malaria (4)
182. Nostoc and Anabaena are the example of : 182.

(1) Nitrogen fixers (1)
(2) Disease causing bacteria (2)
(3) Disease causing cyanobacteria (3)
(4) Protista (4)

183. Methanogens are present in : 183. :
(1) Several ruminant animals (1)
(2) Marshy areas (2)
(3) Cows and Buffaloes (3)
NLI / 44
184. Match List - I with List - II 184. I
List - I List - II II
(a) Nomenclature (i) Acceptable to -I -II
biologists all over the
world. (a) (i)
(b) Identification (ii) Vary from place to

place, even within a (b) (ii)
country.
(c) Local names (iii) Possible on basis of
(c) (iii)
characterization
(d) (iv)
(d) Scientific name (iv) confusion that would
be created are solved
by this
Chose the correct answer from the option given below
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
185. Name of the author appears : 185.
(1) Before the specific epithet (1)
(2) Mid of the genus and species (2)
(3) After the specific epithet. (3)
(4)
(4) Only in litrature of author
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
186. Pseudopodia are found in : 186.
(1) Amoeboid protozoans (1)
(2) Cilliated protozoans (2)
(3) Flagellated protozoans (3)
187. Yeast are not used commercially in : 187.
(1) Butter industry (1)
(2) Beer and bread industry (2)
(3) Tobacco industry (3)
(4) 1 and 3 Both (4) 1 3

NLI / 45
188. Which of the following is true about 188.
basidiomycetes:
(a)
(a) Also called bracket fungi
(b)
(b) Sex organs absent, but plasmogamy is
brought about by fusion of two vegetative cells
of different genotypes
(c)
(c) Karyogamy and meiosis takes place outside
the basidium
(d)
(d) Basidiospores are produced exogenously
(1) a and b are correct (1) a b
(3) a, b, c and d all are correct (3) a, b, c d
(4) a, b and d are correct (4) a, b d

189. Match the different types of spores listed under 189. I
column-I with the names of the organisms given II
under column-II
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
(Spores) (Organisms)
a. Ascospores i. Agaricus a. i.
b. Basidiospores ii. Yeast b. ii.

c. Zygospores iii. Rhizopus c. iii.
d. Conidia iv. Pencillium d. iv.
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
Statement I : I:
Presence of notochord and dorsal hollow neural system.
are included in phylum Chordata
Statement II : II :
In case of plants classes with a few similar characters

are assigned to a higher category called Phylum.
Choose the correct answer from the options given

below

NLI / 46
191. Which of the following is incorrectly matched : 191.
(1) Order – Solanaceae (1) –
(2) Class – Mammalia (2) –
(3) Phylum – Chordata (3) –
(4) Kingdom – Plantae (4) –

Statement I : I:
Classification is the process by which anything is
grouped into convenient categories based on some
easily observable characters
Statement II : II :
Taxa can indicate categories at very different levels.


193. In binomial nomenclature : 193.
p) Biological name always in italics and written p)
in Latin
q)
q) Generic name starts with small letter.
r)
r) Author name is given after species name in
abbreviated form in itelic
s)
s) Both the words in a biological name, when
handwritten, are separately underlined
(1) p and q are correct (1) p q
(2) p, q and r are incorrect (2) p, q r
(3) All are incorrect (3)
(4) r and s are correct (4) r s

194. Felidae and Canidae are the two different 194.
(1) Genus (2) Classes (1) (2)
(3) Families (4) Orders (3) (4)
195. What form of basis of modern taxonomic studies. 195.
(1) External and internal structure along with structure (1)
of cell
(2) Development process (2)
(3) Ecological information of organisms (3)

(4) All of the above (4)
NLI / 47
Statement I : I:
Classification is not a single step process but involves
hierarchy of steps.
Statement II : II :
Each category, referred to as a unit of classification, in
fact, represents a rank.

(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II
197. What processes are basic to taxonomy : 197.

(1) Morphology and evolution (1)
(2) Nomenclature and systematics
(2)
(3) Characterisation and systematics
(3)
(4) Characterisation, identification, classification and
nomenclature (4)
198. Several genera resembling one another in their 198.
major anatomical and reproductive characters are
placed together in
(1)
(1) Species
(2) Genus (2)
(3) Family (3)
(4) Order. (4)

199. Read the following statement and find the correct 199.
one :
a)
a) Plant families like Convolvulaceae,
Solanaceae are included in the order
Polymoniales
b)
b) Order. Carnivora includes families like Felidae
and Canidae.
c) Animals like tiger. cat and dog belongs to c)
same order
d) Order being a higher category. is the d)
assemblage of class
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: (1) (a) (d)
(1) (a) and (d) Only
(2) (b) (c)
(2) (b) and (c) Only
(3) (a) (b) and (c) Only (3) (a) (b) (c)
(4) (a) (b) and (d) Only (4) (a) (b) (d)
NLI / 48
200. Match List - I with List - II : 200. -I - II :
List - I List - II
-I - II
a) Kingdom i) This category includes
related orders like a) i)
Primata
b) Phylum ii) This categories b) ii)
includes species.
genus & families
c) Class iii) All animals belonging c) iii)
to various phyla are
assigned to the highest
category
d) Order iv) Classes comprising d) iv)
animals like fishes.
amphibians. reptiles.
birds along with
mammals
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
NLI / 49

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All India Rank Booster Test Series (RBTS–1) [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 21-Nov-2023

ALL INDIA RANK BOOSTER TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24

RANK BOOSTER TEST (RBTS)–1

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TOPIC : Units and Measurement, Kinematics, Experimental Skills

Attempt All 35 Questions 35

1. Measurement of a physical quantity is essentially 1.

2. A verner callipers has 1 mm marks on the main 2. 1 mm

(1) 0.02 mm (1) 0.02 mm

(2) 0.05 mm (2) 0.05 mm

(3) 0.1 mm (3) 0.1 mm

(4) 0.2 mm (4) 0.2 mm

3. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are 3. a, b, c d 1%, 2%, 3%

(1) 14% (1) 14%

(2) 10% (2) 10%

4. ML1T 2  are dimensions of : 4. ML 1T  2 

(1) pressure (1)

(2) force (2)

(3) momentum (3)

(4) power (4)

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1)

(3) A is true but R is false (3) A R

(4) A is false but R is true (4) A R

9. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 9. (A)

10. If the unit of force is 1 kilonewton, the length is 10.

(1) 1, 000 kg (1) 1, 000 kg

(2) MLTA (2) MLTA

(3) None of these (3)

12. The area of acceleration time graph gives : 12.

(1) Displacment (1)

(2) Distance (2)

(3) Velocity (3)

(4) Change in velocity (4)

(3) a, b and c (3) a, b c

(4) b, c and d. (4) b, c d.

19. The velocity of a body moving along a straight 19.

line with uniform acceleration a reduces by 3/4 t0

of its initial velocity in time t0. The total time of

motion of the body till its velocity becomes zero

20. If y denotes the displacement and t denotes the 20. y t

time and the displacement is given by y  a sin t , y  a sin t

the velocity of the particle is

(4) (a cos t) /  (4) (a cos t) / 

22. The speed of a body moving with uniform 22. u S

(3) (3) 11u

(1) 123 m (2) 140 m (1) 123 m (2) 140 m

24. A particle is moving so that its displacement s is 24. s = t3 –6t2 + 3t+4

(1) 3 m/s (1) 3 m/s

(2) –12 m/s (2) –12 m/s

(3) 42 m/s (3) 42 m/s

(4) –9 m/s (4) –9 m/s