IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

NEET – CT - 3
Date : 30-12-2020 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII - NEET Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of three parts (Physics, Chemistry

Chemistry,, Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 45 questions.

Part – A (Physics):
(Physics): Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT
CORRECT.

Part – B (Chemistry) : Contains 45 Questions. Each question has four

choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Part – C (Botany & Zoology) : Contains 90 Questions. Each question has

four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS CORRECT

Marking Scheme : For each question in every part you will be awarded 4

Marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark

if no bubbles are darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect

answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

SUBJECT SYLLABUS PAPER SETTER

PHYSICS FULL TEST ON XII
X CLASS Mr.Upendra
CHEMISTRY FULL TEST ON XII
X CLASS Mr. PS
BOTANY FULL TEST ON XII
X CLASS Mr.Ramesh
ZOOLOGY FULL TEST ON X
XII CLASS Dr.S.Basha
CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020 .2020
PHYSICS
1. Charge q2 of mass m revolves around a stationary charge q1 in a circular orbit of

radius r . The orbital periodic time of q2 would be

1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
 4 3 mr 2   kq q   4 2 mr 4   4 2 mr 3 
1)   2)  31 2 2  3)   4)  
 kq1q2   4 mr   kq1q2   kq1q2 
2. The electric
ctric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by
E  Ar . A charge contained in a sphere of radius a centred at the origin of the
field will be given by
1) 4 0 Aa 2 2) A 0 a 2 3) 4 0 Aa 3 4)  0 Aa 3

3. A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R1 and outer radius R2 . A charge Q
is placed at the centre of the spherical
spherical cavity. What will be surface charge density
on the outer surface?
Q Q Q Q
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 R12 4 R12 4 R22 4 R22

4. If a point charge   q  is taken along two different paths say AMB (path 1) and

ACB (path 2) such that A, M and B lie on the circle and  q (another charge) is
placed at the centre, then which the given statements holds true for work done
along the two paths.

1) WAMB  WACB 2) WACB  WAMB 3) WACB  WAMB 4) None of these

5. le of length 1cm is placed with the axis making an angle of 30o to

An electric dipole

an electric field of strength 10 4 N / C . If it experiences a torque of 10 2 Nm, the

potential energy of the dipole is
1) 0.245 J 2) 2.45 J 3) 24.5 J 4) 245.0 J
6. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10cm has potential V at a point
distant 5cm from its centre, then the potential at a point distant 15cm from the
centre will be
1 2 3
1) V 2) V 3) V 4) V
3 3 2
7. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200V supply. Then, it is disconnected from
the supply and is connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much
electrostatic energy is lost in the process?
1) 12 × 10–6 J 2) 8 × 10–6 J 3) 6 × 10–66 J 4) 4 × 10–6 J

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
.2020
8. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a
 3
parallel plate capacitor
capa but has thickness   d , where d is the separation of the
 4
plates. How is the capacitance changed when the slab is inserted between the
plates?(where C0 = Capacitance without dielectric)
4K K 3 K 3 4K
1) C0 2) C0 3) C0 4) C0
K 3 4K 4K K 3
9. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1 , is charged by a source of

potential difference 4V . When another parallel combination of n2 capacitors each

of value C2 , is charged by a source of potential difference V , it has the same

(total) energy stored in it, as the first combination has. The value of C2 in terms

of C1 is
2C1 n1 n2 16C1
1) 2) 16 3) 2 C1 4)
n1n2 n2 n1 n1n2

10. The figure below shows a 2.0 V potentiometer used for the determination of
internal resistance of a 2.5 V cell. The balance point of the cell in the open circuit
is 75cm. When a resistor of 10  is used in the external circuit of the cell, the
balance point shifts to 65cm length of potentiometer wire. The internal resistance
of the cell is

1) 2.5  2) 2.0  3) 1.54  4) 1.0 

11. The resistances of the four arms P , Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are
10  , 30 , 30 and 90  , respectively. The emf and internal resistance of the cell
are 7V and 5  respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50  , the current
drawn from the cell will be
1) 1.0 A 2) 0.2 A 3) 0.1 A 4) 2.0 A
12. As the switch S is closed in the circuit shown in figure, current passed through it
is

1) zero 2) 1 A 3) 2 A 4) 1.6 A

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
13. Two wires of same metal have the same length but areas of their cross-sections
are in the ratio 3 : 1. They are joined in series. The resistance of the thicker wire
is 10  . The total resistance of the combination is
5 40
1)  2)  3) 40  4) 100 
2 2
14. A steady current i flows in a small square loop of wire of side L in a horizontal
plane. The loop is now folded about its middle such that half of it lies in a vertical
plane. Let 1 and 2 respectively denote the magnetic moments due to the
current loop before and after folding. Then,
1) 2  0 2) 1 and 2 are in the same direction

1 1  1 
3)  2 4) 
2 2  2 
15. A proton and an  -particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B ,
moving at right angles to the field B . If the radius of circular orbits for both the
particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy
acquired by the  -particle will be
1) 4 MeV 2) 0.5 MeV 3) 1.5 MeV 4) 1 MeV
16. Two long parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 4.0 A and 5.0 A in
same direction separated by a distance of 4 × 10–2 m. The force on a 0.20m
section of wire A is
1) 2 × 10–5 N towards B 2) 2 × 10–5 N away from B
3) 2 × 10–5 N perpendicular to B 4) 2 × 10–5 N parallel to B
17. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12  and meter shows full scale deflection
for a current of 3 mA. To convert galvanometer into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18
V,
1) a resistance of 5988  in series is required
2) a resistance of 5988  in parallel is required
3) a resistance of 5.988  in series is required
4) a resistance of 5.988  in parallel is required
18. If a magnet is suspended at an angle of 30 o to the magnetic meridian, the dip
needle makes an angle of 45o with the horizontal. The real dip is
 3  3
1) tan 1   2) tan 1  3 3) tan 1  
 2 
4) tan 1  
 2  2   3
19. The length of a magnetised steel wire is l and the magnetic moment is m . It is
bent into the shape of L with two sides equal. The magnetic moment now will be
m m
1) 2) 2m 3) 2m 4)
2 2
20. If a coil of 40 turns and area 4.0 cm2 is suddenly removed from a magnetic field,
it is observed that a charge of 2.0 × 10–4 C flows into the coil. If the resistance of
the coil is 80  , the magnetic flux density (in Wbm–2) is
1) 0.5 2) 1.0 3) 1.5 4) 2.0

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020.2020
21. A 220V input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of
2.0A at 440V. If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by
the primary windings of the transformer is
1) 5.0 A 2) 3.6 A 3) 2.8 A 4) 2.5 A
22. In the given circuit, the readings of voltmeters V1 and V2 are 300 V each. The

readings of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter A are respectively

1) 100 V , 2.0 A 2) 150 V , 2.2 A 3) 220 V , 2.2 A 4) 220 V , 2.0 A

23. During the propagation of
o electromagnetic waves in a medium.
1) Electric energy density is double of the magnetic energy density
2) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic energy density
3) Electric energy density is equal to the magnetic energy density
4) Both electric and magnetic energy densities are zero
24. The de-Brogle particle of K.E, K is  . What will be the
Brogle wavelength of a particle
K
wavelength of the particle, if it’s kinetic energy is ?
9
1)  2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
25. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E . The ratio of de-Broglie
Broglie
wavelengths associated with them is (c
( being velocity of light)
1 1 1
 E 2 1
1  2m
m 2 1  E 2
1)   2) c  2mE  2 3)   4)  
 2m  c E  c  2m 
26. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength  , the
stopping potential is V . If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of
V
wavelength 2 , the stopping potential is . The threshold wavelength for the
4
metallic surface is
5
1) 5 2)  3) 3 4) 4
2
27. If v1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series, v2 is the frequency of the

first line of Lyman series and v3 is the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer

series. Then,
1 1 1 1 1 1
1) v1  v2  v3 2) v1  v2  v3 3)   4)  
v2 v1 v3 v1 v2 v3

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020 .2020
28. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition n1  n2 , where n1 and n2 are
principal quantum numbers of these two states. Assuming Bohr’s model to be
valid, if the time period of electron
electron in the initial state is eight times of that in the
final state, the possible values of n1 and n2 are

1) n1  4, n2  2 2) n1  8, n2  2 3) n1  8, n2  1 4) n1  6, n2  5
29. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5 and  ,
respectively. At t  0 , they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number
2
1
of nuclei of A to those of B will be   after a time interval.
e
1 1
1)  2) 4 3) 2 4)
4 2
30. Which of these graphs shows potential difference between p-side and n-side
side of a
p-n junction in equilibrium?

1) 2)

3) 4)
31. For a Zener regulated power supply, a Zener diode with Zener voltage Vz  6.0V is
used for regulation. The load current is to be 4.0 mA and the unregulated input
10.0V. The value of series resistor Rs must be, if I z / I L  5

1) 167  2) 120  3) 250  4) 20 

32. The current through an ideal p-n junction shown in the following circuit diagram
will be

1) zero 2) 1 mA 3) 10 mA 4) 30 mA

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
33. The current gain for a transistor working as common base amplifier is 0.96. If the
emitter current is 7.2 mA, then the base current is
1) 0.29 mA 2) 0.35 mA 3) 0.39 mA 4) 0.43 mA
34. Figure shows a standard two slit arrangement with slits S1 , S2 ; P1 , P2 are the two
minima points on either side of P as shown in figure.

At P2 on the screen, there is a hole and behind P2 is a second 2-slit arrangement

with slits S3 , S4 and a second screen behind them

1) There would be no interference pattern on the second screen but it would be

lighted
2) The second screen would be totally dark
3) There would be a single bright point on the second screen
4) There would be a regular two slit pattern on the second sreen
35. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by
o o
photons of two wavelength 1  12000 A and 2  10000 A . At what minimum
distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit
will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe
from the other?
1) 8mm 2) 6mm 3) 4mm 4) 3mm
36. A beam unpolarized light of intensity I 0 is passed through another polaroid B

which is oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle of 45o relative to that
of A . The intensity of the emergent light is
1) I 0 2) I 0 / 2 3) I 0 / 4 4) I 0 / 8

1 

37. A ray of light travelling in the direction  i  3 j  is incident on a plane mirror.
2 
1 

After reflection, it travels along direction  i  3 j  . The angle of incidence is
2 
1) 30 o 2) 45o 3) 60o 4) 75o
38. Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce a combination of power +10D. When
they are 0.25 m apart, the power is reduced to +6D. The power of the lenses in
dioptres, are
1) 1 and 9 2) 2 and 8 3) 4 and 6 4) 5 each
39. An astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40cm and
4cm respectively. To view an object 200cm away from the objective, the lenses
must be separated by a distance
1) 46.0cm 2) 50.0cm 3) 54.0cm 4) 37.3cm

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020 .2020
40. Two identical thin plano
plano-convex
convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having
radius of curvature of 20cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at
the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.
1.7.
7. The focal
length of the combination is
1) –20cm 2) –25cm 3) –50cm 4) 50cm
41. If a direct current of value a = 1A is superimposed on an alternatin current
I  b sin t when b = 4A flowing through a wire, what is the effective value of the
resulting current in the circuit?
1) 6 A 2) 3 A 3) 5 A 4) 9 A
42. The half-life
life of a radioactive substance is 20min. The approximate time interval
(t2 – t1) between the time t2 when two-third
third of it has decayed and time t1 when
one-third
third of it had
ha decayed is
1) 28 min 2) 7 min 3) 14 min 4) 20 min

43. The ratio of escape velocity at earth  ve  to the escape velocity at a planet  v p 

whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is

1) 1: 2 2 2) 1: 4 3) 1: 2 4) 1: 2
44. The radius of earth is R.. Height of a point vertically above the earth’s surface at
which acceleration due to gravity becomes 1% of its value at the surface is
1) 8R 2) 9R 3) 10R 4) 20R
45. To get an output Y = 1 from the circuit shown be
below, the input must be

A B C A B C
1) 1 0 0 2) 0 1 0
3) 0 0 1 4) 1 0 1

CHEMISTRY
46. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass
1.0 g?
1) 5.14 1021 2) 1.28 1024 3) 1.711021 4) 2.5 1021
47. In a mixed oxide crystal structure, O 2 ions form ccp la
lattice.
ttice. One eighth of
tetrahedral voids are occupied by X 2 ions and one half of octahedral voids are
occupied by Y 3 ions. What is the formula of the oxide?
1) X 2YO4 2) XYO2 3) XY2O3 4) XY2O4

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
48. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to
1) Frenkel defect 2) Interstitial positions
3) F-centres 4) Shottky defect

49. The weight ratio of non-electrolyte solutes in two isotonic solutions of A and B is
2:3. The ratio of their molecular weights is
2 3 3 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 4 3

50. 2.5 g of benzoic acid dissolved in 25 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing

point of 2.25 K. If K f for benzene is 5.0 K molal–1, the percent association of

benzoic aci is
1) 90% 2) 99% 3) 99.9% 4) 100%

51. A solution of 10 g of non volatile solute in 180 g of water shows a relative

lowering of vapour pressure of 0.005. The molecular weight of the solute is
1) 199 2) 99 3) 190 4) 90

52. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as

(i) A + B → X ( slow ) (ii) X → AB ( fast )
The progress of the reaction can be best described by

1) 2) 3) 4) all are correct

53. In the reaction A  2 B  C  2 D, the initial rate  d  A / dt was found to be

2.6 102 Ms 1 . What is the value of d  B  / dt in Ms-1?

1) 2.6 102 2) 5.2 102 3) 1.0 102 4) 6.5 102

54. The velocity of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10o C rise of temperature. If
the temperature is raised by 50o C , the velocity of the reaction increases nearly by
1) 10 times 2) 20 times 3) 30 times 4) 50 times

55. Calculate  ( HOAc ) using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes

listed below at infinite dilution in water at 25o C

Electrolyte KCl KNO3 HCl NaOAc NaCl

 ( S cm 2 mol 1 ) 149.9 145.0 426.2 91.0 126.5

1) 517.2 2) 552.7 3) 390.7 4) 217.5

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
56. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cell reactions are
given below:
Zn 2 (aq )  2e   Zn( s ) E o  0.762 V

Cr 3 (aq )  3e  Cr ( s ) E o  0.740 V

2 H  (aq )  2e  H 2 ( g ) E o  0.0 V

Fe3 (aq)  e  Fe 2 (aq) E o  0.77 V

The strongest reducing agent is
1) Zn( s) 2) Cr ( s) 3) H 2 ( g ) 4) Fe2 (aq)

57. 4.5 g of aluminium (at. Mass 27 amu) is deposited at cathode from Al 3 solution
by a certain quantity of electric charge. The volume of hydrogen produced at STP
from H  ions in the solution by the same quantity of electric charge will be
1) 44.8 L 2) 11.2 L 3) 22.4 L 4) 5.6 L

58. Addition of 1 ml solution of 10% NaCl to 10 ml of standard gold sol in the

presence of 0.025 g of starch the coagulation is just prevented. The gold number
of starch is
1) 0.025 2) 0.25 3) 2.5 4) 25
59. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Physical adsorption is high at low temperature.
2) Adsorption is a surface phenomenon
3) Smooth surface of a catalyst is more effective than a rough surface.
4) Chemical bonding occurs in chemisorptions.
60. When a catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction, the rate constant
1) increases 2) decreases 3) becomes infinite 4) remains constant
61. Choose the appropriate entry/entries from column II to match each of the entries
of the column I.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Magnetic separation (P) Ultrapure Ge
(B) Floatation process (Q) Pine oil
(C) Electrolytic reduction (R) Extraction of Al
(D) Zone refining (S) Wolframite purification
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) S P Q R 2) S Q R P
3) R Q S P 4) S P R Q

62. Name the metal, M which is extracted based on the following equation.

4M  8CN   2 H 2O  O2  4  M  CN 2   40 H 
 2
2  M  CN  2   Zn   Zn  CN 4   2M

1) Cu 2) Au 3) Hg 4) Ni

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
63. Which of the following statements are true?
1) Cold and very dilute HNO3 forms NH 4 NO3 with Zn.

2) Concentrated HNO3 forms H 2 SnO3 with Sn.

3) Hot and concentrated HNO3 forms NO2 with Zn

4) All the above are correct.

64. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodisulphuric acid produces.
1) two moles of sulphuric acid
2) two moles of peroxomonosulphuric acid
3) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid.
4) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid and one
mole of hydrogen peroxide.
65. When a few drops of chlorine water are added to a sodium halide solution,
followed by some CCl4 and shaken well, the organic layer turns violet. However
this colour is bleached, when further amounts of chlorine water are added.
These observations suggest that the halide ion is of
1) fluorine 2) chlorine 3) bromine 4) iodine
66. Select correct statement(s)
1) There exists van der Waals’ force of attraction in noble gases.
2) Polarisability and interatomic attraction increase down the group.
3) They remain as liquid at 1 atmosphere pressure even at 0.001 K.
4) All of the above are correct statements
67. Due to lanthanide contraction
1) there is continuous increase in the ionic size of lanthanides
2) first and second transition series elements have almost same size.
3) second and third transition series elements have almost same size
4) lanthanide contraction is insignificant and has no effect on the atomic and
ionic radii.

68. The magnetic moment is associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital
angular momentum. Spin only magnetic moment value of Cr 3 ion is
1) 2.87 B.M. 2) 3.87 B.M. 3) 3.47 B.M. 4) 3.57 B.M.
69. KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent in alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is
treated with KI , iodide ion is oxidized to
1) I 2 2) IO  3) IO3 4) IO4

70. The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral complex   0  and tetrahedral

complex  t  are related as

4 9
1) 1  0 2) 1  0.5  0 3) 1  0.33  0 4) 1  0
9 4

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
71. Coordination number and oxidation number of Cr in K 3 Cr  C2O4 3  are,

respectively.
1) 4 and + 2 2) 6 and + 3 3) 3 and + 3 4) 3 and 0
2
Among  Ni  CO  4  ,  Ni  CN  4  ,  NiCl4 
2
72. species, the hybridization states of the Ni

atom are respectively.

1) sp 3 , dsp 2 , dsp 2 2) sp3 , dsp 2 , sp3 3) sp 3 , sp 3 , dsp 2 4) dsp 2 , sp 3 , sp 3

73. Among the following compounds select those which are linkage isomers of each
other?
2 2 2 2
Co  NH 3 5 NO2  , Co  NH 3 5 Br  , Co  NH 3 5 ONO  , Co  NH 3 5 Cl 
I   II   III   III 
1) I and II 2) II and III 3) II and IV 4) I and III

74. Which of the following will have maximum conductivity in solution?

1) K 4  Fe  CN 6  2) Co  NH 3 6  Cl3 3) Cu  NH 3 4  Cl2 4)  Ni  CO 4 

75. Out of Cu 2 , Ni 2 , Co 2 and Mn 2 identify the ion(s) that give precipitate with H2S
and NH4OH.
1) Ni 2 2) Co2 3) Mn 2 4) All the above

76. Match the reagents in column II with reactions of column I.

Column – I Column - II
(A) CH 3COOAg  CH 3COOCH 3 P Br2

(B) CH 3CH  CH 2  BrCHCH  CH 2 Q I2

(C) CH 3CH 2Cl  CH 3CH 2 F R NBS

(D) C6 H 5COOAg  C6 H 5 Br S Hg 2 F2
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) R S P Q 2) Q S R P
3) P R S Q 4) Q R S P

77. The decreasing order of reactivity of the following compounds towards S N 2

reaction is

1) I > II > IV > III 2) III > I > II > IV 3) III > IV > II > I 4) IV > III > I > II

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78. Which one of the following undergoes nucleophilic aromatic substitution at the
fastest rate?

79. Consider the following reactions

Which of the above methods cannot be used in the synthesis of ether?

1) I, IV 2) I, III 3) II, IV 4) II, III

80. Identify the end product (Y) of the following sequence of reactions is

81. Consider the following sequence of reactions

The major product (Z) of the reaction is

82. Consider the following sequenece of reactions.

The product (Y) is

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
83. The reactivity of following aldehydes towards nucleophilic addition reaction is

1) I>II>IV>III 2) III>IV>II>I 3) II>I>IV>III 4) IV>III>I>II

84. Statement-I : Oxidation of ketone by perbenzoic acid gives esters.
Statement-II : Perbenzoic acid oxidizes because of release of nascent oxygen
on dissociation.
1) Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct
explanation of Statement-I
2) Statement-I and Statement-II are true, but Statement-II is not the correct
explanation of Statement-I
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
85. Consider the following sequence of reactions.

The product (Z) of the reaction is

86. Match the reactons of column II with amines of column I.

Column – I Column – II
(Amines) ( Reactions)
(A) Aniline (P) Can be made by Gabriel
phthalinide reaction
(B) N-methylaniline (Q) Undergoes electrophilic
substitution reaction with HNO2
(C) N,N – dimethylaniline (R) Forms yellow oily product with
HNO2
(D) Benzylamine (S) Gives azo dye test
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) S R Q P 2) Q S P R
3) R P S Q 4) P Q R S

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
87. Which of the following polymers is prepared from caprolactam?
1) Nylon-6,6 2) Nylon-6,10 3) Nylon-6 4) Nylon-11
88. The linkage between the two monosaccharide units in lactose is
1) C1 of  - D – glucose and C4 of  - D – galactose
2) C1 of  - D – galactose and C4 of  - D – glucose
3) C1 of  - D – glucose and C4 of  - D – glucose
4) C1 of  - D – galactose and C4 of  - D – glucose
89. The pK a1 and pKa 2 of an amino acid are 2.3 and 9.7 respectively. The isoelectric

point of the amino acid is

1) 12.0 2) 7.4 3) 6.0 4) 3.7
90. Choose the appropriate entry / entries from Column II to match each of the
entries of the Column I.

Column – I Column - II
(A) Ranitidine P) Tranquilizer
(B) Furacine Q) Antibiotic
(C) Phenelzine R) Antihistamine
(D) Chloramphenicol S) Antiseptic
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) P Q R S 2) Q R S P
3) R S P Q 4) P R S Q

BIOLOGY
91. Match the column and select the correct options.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Gemmule P) Agave
(B) Leaf buds Q) Penicillium
(C) Bulbil R) Water Hyacinth
(D) Offset S) Sponges
(E) Conidia T) Bryophyllum
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) S T P R Q 2) S R Q P T
3) R T S Q P 4) S P T R Q

92. In organism with haplontic life cycle, zygote divides by

1) Mitosis to form haploid spores 2) Meiosis to form gametes
3) Mitosis to force gametes 4) Meiosis to form haploid spores

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93. Match the following and choose the correct combination.
Name Chromosomes Number in Meiocyte (2n)
(A) Housefly (I) 20
(B) Fruitfly (II) 34
(C) Apple (III) 8
(D) Maize (IV) 12
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) I II III IV 2) II III IV I
3) III IV II I 4) IV III II I
94. In angiosperms, the site of sexual reproduction is
1) Seed 2) Fruit 3) Flower 4) Embryo
95. A typical angiosperm anther is
1) Bilobed, monothecous and bisporangiate
2) Bilobed, monothecous and tetrasporangiate
3) Bilobed, dithecous and tetrasporangiate
4) Bilobed, dithecous and bisporangiate
96. When the pollen grain is mature it contains two cells, the vegetative cell and
generate cell. The vegetative ell
a) Is bigger b) Spindle shaped
c) Has abundant food reserve d) Has large irregularly shaped nucleus
1) a, b and c 2) a, c and d 3) a, b, c and d 4) b, c and d
97. Tapetal cells of stamens are
1) Diploid uninucleate 2) Tetraploid binucleate
3) Hexaploid tetranucleate 4) Polyploid multinucleate
98. The following figure shows

1) Microspore 2) Pollen grain 3) Microsporangium 4) Microspore tetrad

99. The following figure shows the

1) Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil of Papaver

2) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia
3) Pentacarpellary syncarpous gynoecium of the Michelia
4) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium of the Papaver

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100. The correct sequence of embryogeny in dicot is
1) Zygote, proembyro, globular, heart-shaped and mature embryo
2) Zygote, globular, proembryo, heart-shaped and mature embryo
3) Zygote, proembryo, heart-shaped, globular and mature embryo
4) Zygote, globular, heart-shaped, proembryo and mature embryo
101. Geitonogamy involves
1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen form a flower of another plant belonging
to a distant population
2) Transfer of pollengrain from one flower to another flower belongs to same
plant.
3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen form the same flower
4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen form a flower of another plant in the same
population
102. In L.S.exmbryo of grass, which one shows correct labeling.

1) a – scutellum, b – coleoptiles, c – shoot apex, d – epiblast, e – radical, f – root

cap, g - coleorhiza
2) a – root cap, b – shoot apex, c -scutellum , d –coleoptiles, e – epiblast, f -radical
, g – coleorhizae
3) a – coleorhizae, b – radical, c – epiblast, d – coleoptile, e – root cap, f –
scutellum, g – shoot apex
4) a – coleoptiles,b – scutellum c – radical, d – shoot apex, e – epiblast, f –
coleorhizae, g – root cap

103. Which of the following features is/are common to both wind and water pollinated
flowers?
I) Pollen grains are long and ribbon – like
II) Stigma is large and feathery
III) Flowers are not colourful
IV) Flowers do not product nector
1) III and IV 2) II and III 3) I and II 4) II
104. Which one of the following statements is not true?
1) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
2) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
3) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
4) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
105. Which of the following correctly represent the labelling of A, B, C and D w.r.t.
given diagram.

1) A – Thalamus , B – Seed, C – Endocarp, D - Mesocarp

2) A – Seed, B – Thalamus, C – Endocarp, D – Mesocarp
3) A – Endocarp, B – Mesocarp, C – Thalamus, D – Seed
4) A – Thalamus, B – Seed, C – Mesocarp, D – Endocarp
106. Formation of an extra embryo from nucellus or integument is
1) Simple polyembryony 2) Adventive polyembryony
3) Vegetative polyembryony 4) Cleavage polyembryony

107. In a grafted plant, Stock has 48 chromosomes while scion has 24 chromosomes.
The chromosome number for root cells and eggs are
1) 48 and 24 2) 24 and 24 3) 24 and 12 4) 48 and 12

108. RNA can acts as

a) Genetic material b) Messenger
c) Adapter molecule d) Structural molecule e) Catalytic molecule
1) b, c and e only 2) a, d and e only 3) a, b and c only 4) a, b, c, d and e

109. Match the column I with II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Bacteriophage Lambda (I) 5386 nucleotides
(B) Bacteriophage  174 (II) 48502 bp
(C) Escherichia coli (III) 4.6 106 bp
(D) Homo sapiens (IV) 6.6  109 bp
Se

Select the correct matching

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) I II III IV 2) II I III IV
3) I II IV III 4) II I IV III

110. There are 20% adenine among the bases in a DNA fragment measuring 6.8 nm in
length. The number of pentose, nitrogen base pairs, phosphate groups and
hydrogen bonds in this DNA fragment are respectively.
1) 52, 20, 20, 40 2) 40, 42, 40, 20 3) 20, 40, 52, 40 4) 40, 20, 40, 52

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111. The following figure represents the

1) Central dogma 2) Lac operon 3) Sequence Annotation 4) DNA fingerprinting

112. Choose the correct statement.
1) Haploid content of human DNA is 4.6 106 bp
2) A nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar through ester bond
3) X-ray diffraction data of Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin was the basis
of Watson and Cricks DNA model
4) Ratios between adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine are not constant
113. In DNA segment of six coils, 22 bp are linked by two hydrogen bonds. How many
cytosine would be present?
1) 22 2) 38 3) 44 4) 76
114. Information flow or central dogma of modern biology is
1) RNA – Protein – DNA 2) DNA – RNA – Protein
3) RNA – DNA – Protein 4) DNA – Protein – RNA
115. Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given.
Column – I Column - II
(A) F - Griffith (I) E.Coli
(B) Hershey and Chase (II) Bacteriophage
(C) Meselson and Stahl (III) Faba beans
(D) Taylor etal (IV) Pneumococcus
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) IV I II III 2) IV II I III
3) II I III IV 4) IV III II I

116. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

1) a – promoter, b – terminator c – template strand, d – coding strand

2) b – promoter, a – terminator, c – template strand, d – coding strand
3) a- promoter, b – terminator, d – template strand, c – coding strand
4) b – promoter, a – terminator, d – template strand, c – coding strand

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117. Study the lists and find the correct match.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Exon (I) Site for binding of RNA polymerase
(B) Capping (II) Coding sequence
(C) Tailing (III) Lagging strand
(D) Promoter (IV) MGPPP
(V) Adenylate residue
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) II IV V I 2) II IV I V
3) III I II IV 4) IV II III I
118. What does the following signify?
Amino acid + ATP → Aminoacyl AMP + PPi
1) Chain termination 2) Activation of amino acids
3) Elongation of chain 4) None of the above
119. Match the columns and choose the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Taylor and colleagues (I) Lac operon
(B) Hershey and Chase (II) DNA replicates
semiconservatively
(C) Griffith (III) Transfrming principle
(D) Jacob (IV) DNA is genetic material
(V) Transcription
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) II V I III 2) III IV II I
3) II IV III I 4) I V IV II

120. Lac operon consists of

1) Four regulatory genes only
2) Two regulatory genes and two structural genes
3) Three regulatory genes and three structural genes
4) One regulatory gene and three structural genes

121. Select the correct option.

Direction of RNA synthesis Direction of reading of the template
DNA strand
1) 3'  5' 3'  5 '
2) 5 '  3' 3'  5 '
3) 3'  5' 5 '  3'
4) 5 '  3' 5 '  3'

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020

122.

A B C D
Parents

K L
Children

On the basis of given DNA fingerpring, match the children’s (K and L) with their
respective parent (A, B, C and )
1) K – A, L – A 2) K – A, L – D 3) K – A, L – C 4) K – B, L – A
123. Transgenic models exist for which of the following human disease.
a) Cancer b) Cystic fibrosis c) Rhemotied arthritis
d) Alzheimers e) Emphysema
1) a, b and c 2) a, b, c and d 3) b, c, d and e 4) a, b, c, d and e
124. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options
given.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Himgiri (I) White rust
(B) Pasa Swarnim (II) Hill bunt
(C) Pasa shubhra (III) Leaf curl
(D) Pasa Sadabahar (IV) Black rot
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) II I IV III 2) I II III IV
3) II I III IV 4) I II IV III

125. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Diphtheria (I) Kali Khansi
(B) Leprosy (II) Gal ghotu
(C) Whoopig cough (III) Black death
(D) Plague (IV) Kushtarog
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) I II III IV 2) II III IV I
3) II IV I III 4) II I IV III

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126. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Aspergillus niger (I) Ethanol
(B) Clostridium butylicum (II) Statins
(C) Saccharomyces Cerevisize (III) Citric acid
(D) Trichoderma polysporum (IV) Butyric acid
(E) Monascus purpureus (V) Cyclosporin - A
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) IV III II I III 2) V III IV II III
3) III IV I V II 4) III IV V I II

127. Sewage treatment process in which part of decomposer bacteria is recycled into
starting of the process is called
1) Cyclic treatment 2) Primary treatment
3) Tertiary treatment 4) Activated sludge treatment

128. Match the following list of microbes and importance.

Column – I Column - II
(A) Saccharmyces cerevisiae (I) Production of
immunosuppressive agents
(B) Monascus purpureus (II) Ripenig of Swiss cheese
(C) Trichoderma polysporum (III) Commercial production of
ethanol
(D) Propionibacterium (IV) Production of blood – cholesterol
sharmanii lowering agents
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) IV III II I 2) IV II I III
3) III I IV II 4) III IV I II

129. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

A B C
1) Streptcoccus Streptokinase Removal of clot from blood vessel
2) Clostridium butylicum Lipase Removal of oil stains
3) Trichoderma polysporum Cyciosporine A Immunosuppressvive drug
4) Monascus purpurcus Statins Lowering of blood choleserol

130. Among the follow select the tools of recombinant DNA techonology.
a) Restriction enxymes b) Polymerase enymes
c) Ligases d) Vectors e) Host organisms
1) a, b, c, d ad e 2) a, c, d and e 3) a, b, c and d 4) a, b, c and e

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131. DNA is a …1… molecule having …2…. Charge.
1) 1 – Hydrophobic, 2 – negative 2) 1 – Hydrophilic, 2 – positive
3) 1 – Hydrophilic, 2 – negative 4) 1 – Hydrophobic, 2 – positive
132. A typical bioreactor has
a) An agitator system b) An oxygen delivery system
c) A foam control system d) A temperature control system
e) ApH control system f) Sampling ports
1) a, b and c 2) a, b, c and d 3) a, b, b, d and e 4) a, b, c, d, e and f
133. Geinitically modified organisms are used for
1) Reducing reliance on chemical pesticides
2) Developing pest-resistant crops
3) Increasing efficiency of mineral usage by plants that prevents early exhaustion
of fertility of soli
4) All of the above
134. Find the correct match.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Army worm (I) Dipteran
(B) Flies (II) Lepidopterans
(C) Beetles (III) Coelopterans
(D) Mosquitoes
(E) Tobacco budworm
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
1) I III II I III 2) II I III I I
3) III II I III II 4) II I III I II

135. The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured
permanently by
1) Introducing bone marrow cells producing (ADA) into cells at an early
embryonic stages.
2) Administrating adenosine deaminase activation
3) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA
cDNA
4) Enzyme replacement therapy

136. In Polygenic inheritance trait which controlled by three pairs of genes,two

individuals which are heterozygous for three alleles were crossed. Find the
phenotypic ratio of the offspring formed?
1)1 : 6 : 15 : 20 : 15 : 6 : 1 2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 4) 1 : 2 : 1

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137. A woman with colourblidnessmarries a man with normal vision.What is the
probability of her children having the abnormality.
1)50%sonscolourblind,50%daughterscolourblind
2) All sons colour blind and daughters carrier
3) All daughterscolour blind and sons normal
4) 50% sons colour blind , all daughters normal.
138. The population reaches carrying capacity exhibits.
1) Mortality Rate < Birth Rate 2) Mortality Rate > Birth Rate
3) Mortality Rate = Birth Rate 4) None of these
139. Identify the possible link A in the following food chain
Plant→insect→frog→ A→Eagle
1) Wolf 2) Parrott 3) Rabbit 4) Cobra
140. Alpha thalassemia is contolled by two closely linked genes on chromosome
1) 9 2) 12 3) 11 4) 16
141. Placental mammals and Australian marsupials together exhibit.
1) Divergent evolution 2) Convergent evolution
3) Genetic drift 4) Homology
142. Find the correct statement.
1) The genes which show 50% recombinantion frequency show independent
assortment.
2) The F1 hybrid of incomplete dominance resembles both the parents.
3) Offspring formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit variations.
4) Linkage refers to genes on different chromosome.
143. The amount of living material and nutrients present in different trophic levels and
soils at any given time are called respectively,
1) Standing state and standing crop 2) Biomass and standing crop
3)Standing crop and standing state 4) Standing state and biomass
144. The Government of India,through a new automobile policy roadmap to reduce
sulphur content in petrol and diesel to
1) 50 ppm 2) 150 ppm 3) 350 ppm 4) 42 ppm
145. Blue revolution is mainly related with
1) Agriculture 2) Aquaculture 3) Apiculture 4) Sericulture
146. Find the gas which was not present in the glass chamber in Miller’s experiment.
1) CH4 2) NH3 3) O2 4) H2
147. This scientist can be quoted as the co-author of the book ‘the origin of species’.
1) Oparin 2) Haldane 3) Lamarck 4) Alfred Russels Wallace
148. The ozone depleting substances that causes ozone hole above
1) Montreal 2) Kyoto 3) Helsinki 4) Antarctica
149. The second trophic level in a lake is occupied by .
1)Phytoplankton 2) Zooplankton 3)Phantham larvae 4) Fishes

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150. The pedigree given below,if depicts X linked recessive trait, find the incorrect
option w.r.t II/4 offspring,
offspring if the child is -

1) Female
emale the chances of her becoming carrier is 50%
2) Male the chances of his becoming affected is 50%
3) Male
ale the chances of his becoming normal is 50%
4) Female
emale the chances of her becoming affected is 0%
151. Correct percentage of two green house gases is
1) N2 O  6%, CO2  86% 2) CH4  20%, N2 O  18%

3) CO2  40%, CFC  30% 4) CFC  14%, CH4  20%,

152. The infective stage of Plasmodium
1)Tetranucleated
Tetranucleated cyst 2) Sporozoite 3) Oocyst 4)Trophozite
153. Select
elect the incorrect option.
1) progesterone is called pregnancy hormone.
2) pregnancy
egnancy confirmation can be done by tracing the hCG in the blood sample of
thewomen.
3) Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of progesterone
4) The source of oestrogen is corpus luteum, theca of the ovary and placenta.
154. The time period for a follicular phase and luteal phase in normal menstrual cycle.
1) 10 days & 14 days 2) 15 days and 10 days
3) 20 days and 5 days 4) 18 days and 7 days.
155. Select the incorrect statement
1) Birth canal is formed by vagina and cervical
cervical canal
canal.
2) The site of fertilization in oviduct is ampulla.
3) thehCG,
hCG, hPL and relaxin hormones are produced in woman only during
pregnancy.
4) Secondary follicle contains a fluid filled cavity called antrum.
156. The set of sexually transmitted infections ( STIs) can’t be cured
1) Hepatitis-B,
B, AIDS 2) Syphilis,gonorrohea
3) Genital warts, syphillis 4) Gonorrohea, genitalwarts
157. Interstitial cells produce testosterone by the influence of
1) LH 2) FSH 3) TSH 4) ACTH
158. The highly effective contraceptivetechnique
cont technique / method is
1) Implant 2) Natural methods 3) Barriers 4) Sterilization

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159. The realistic population growth curve depicts in shape
1) J shape 2) Linear 3) Hyperbola 4) Sigmoid
160. The male parent breed of Hissardale sheep
1) Bikaneri 2) Kashmiri 3) Murrah 4) Marino
161. The number of spermatids and spermatozoa produced from one primary
spermatocyte respectively are
1) 10& 20 2) 2& 4 3) 4&4 4) 8& 16
162. All succession whether taking place in water or land,proceeds to a similar climax
community – the
1) Xeric 2) Lichens 3) Mesic 4) Scrube
163. Which marsupial might have evolved around the same time as the Lemur?
1) Tasmanian wolf 2) Flying phalanger 3) Numbat 4) Spotted cuscus
164. Landfills are for the disposal of
1) Solid wastes 2) Particulate matter 3) e- wastes 4) All
165. Which of the following is referred to as chemosynthesis powered ecosystem?
1) Grass land ecosystem 2) Deep sea ecosystem
3) Forest ecosystem 4) Inter-tidal ecosystem
166. Study of inter-relationship between a species / individuals and its environment is
1) Synecology 2) Forest Ecology 3) Autecology 4) Ethology
167. The universal donar blood group
1) AB - negative 2) AB - positive
3) O -positive 4)O- negative
168. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Law of segregation is also called law of purity of gametes
2) Non linked genes get separated during gametogenesis
3) Gene for eye colour in fruit fly is located on ‘X’ chromosome
4) Law of dominance has universal applicability
169. Fig plants need no other insects except wasps for pollination. whereas wasps need
only fig fruits for oviposition. This can be an example for
1) Mutualism & parasitism 2) Commensalism & ammensalism
3) Mutualism & co-extinction 4) Predation & resource partition
170. The hominid with 650-800 cc brain capacity is
1) Homo erectus 2) Homo habilis 3) Austalopithecines 4) Homo sapiens
171. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
ColoumnI Column II
A. 12 mega diversity countries I. Poles of the world
B. Greatest biodiversity on II. Equator the earth
C. Maximum species diversity III. India
D. Maximum species diversity IV. South America
(Amazon rain forest )
1) A – (III), B – (IV), C – (III), D – (I) 2) A – (IV), B – (III), C – (II), D – (I)
3) A – (IV), B – (I) , C- (II), D – (III) 4) A – (IV), B – (III), C – (II), D – (III)

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
172. Assertion : Solids are relatively easy to remove from domestic sewage.
Reason : Dissolved salts such as nitrates and phosphates and toxic
metal ions are most difficult to remove.
1) Both assertion & reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.
2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

173. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
ColoumnI ( State ) Column II (Sacred grooves )
A. Maharashtra I. Aravalli hills
B. Meghalaya II. Western ghat region
C. Madhhya Pradesh III. Khasi hills
D. Rajasthan IV. Sarguja area
1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV 2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
3) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I 4) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I

174. Kangaroo rats live in North American deserts is capable of meeting of all its water
requirements through
1) Regular liquid intake 2) Diluted copiusurination
3) Stopingmetabolism 4) Internal fat oxidation
175. Pick the odd one out
1) Rabbit 2) Eagle 3) Grasshopper 4) Sparrow
176. Climate of the world is threatened by
1) Decreasing amount of atmospheric oxygen
2) Increasing concentration of incoming solar radiation.
3) Increasing amount of atmospheric carbon dioxide
4) Increasing concentration of atmospheric oxygen.
177. Plasmodium reproduces by ________ in man and by ________ in mosquito.
1) Sexual reproduction, asexual reproduction
2) Asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction
3)Cyst formation, sexual reproduction
4) Sexual reproduction, spore formation
178. Symptoms like internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of
intestinal passage occur in which disease?
1) Typhoid 2) Ascariasis 3) Malaria 4) Pneumonia
179. The coke or crack has a potent
1) Inhibitory action on GIT 2) Stimulating action on GIT
3) Inhibitory action on central nervous system
4)Stimulating action on central nervous system

180. The set of disease having same mode of tansmission

1) Amoebiasis & Ascariasis 2) Malaria & Amoebiasis
3) Filariasis & Amoebiasis 4) Pneumonia & Ascariasis

******

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CT – 3 CODE-A XII_NEET MODEL_30.12.2020
: ANSWER KEY :
STD : XII - NEET CT - 3 DATE : 30-12-2020
SUB: PHYSICS
S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key S.NO. Key
1 4 11 2 21 1 31 1 41 2
2 3 12 3 22 3 32 1 42 4
3 3 13 3 23 3 33 1 43 1
4 3 14 3 24 3 34 4 44 2
5 3 15 4 25 4 35 2 45 4
6 2 16 1 26 3 36 3
7 3 17 1 27 1 37 1
8 1 18 3 28 1 38 2
9 4 19 4 29 4 39 3
10 3 20 2 30 3 40 3
SUB:CHEMISTRY
Q.No Key Q. No Key Q. No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
46 4 56 1 66 4 76 4 86 1
47 4 57 4 67 3 77 2 87 3
48 3 58 4 68 2 78 1 88 2
49 1 59 3 69 3 79 4 89 3
50 1 60 1 70 1 80 2 90 3
51 1 61 2 71 2 81 2
52 2 62 2 72 2 82 2
53 2 63 4 73 4 83 1
54 3 64 3 74 1 84 3
55 3 65 4 75 4 85 1
SUB : BOTANY
Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
91 1 101 2 111 1 121 2 131 3
92 4 102 1 112 3 122 2 132 4
93 4 103 1 113 2 123 4 133 4
94 3 104 3 114 2 124 1 134 4
95 3 105 1 115 2 125 3 135 1
96 2 106 2 116 1 126 3
97 2 107 4 117 1 127 4
98 4 108 4 118 2 128 4
99 1 109 2 119 3 129 2
100 1 110 4 120 4 130 1

Topic: SUB : ZOOLOGY

Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key Q.No Key
136 1 146 3 156 1 166 3 176 3
137 2 147 4 157 1 167 4 177 2
138 3 148 4 158 4 168 4 178 2
139 4 149 2 159 4 169 3 179 4
140 4 150 1 160 4 170 2 180 1
141 2 151 4 161 3 171 1
142 3 152 2 162 3 172 2
143 3 153 4 163 4 173 3
144 1 154 1 164 1 174 4
145 2 155 4 165 2 175 4

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY