Vajiram PowerUp Test-8 Prelims 2023 @Cse_updates

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Prelims – 2023
GS Test – 08 – Science and Technology (V4338)
(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check
that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or
items etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks.
5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
6. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate. For each wrong
answer, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
7. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer,
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct.
8. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be
no penalty for that question.
9. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
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1. Consider the following: Select the correct answer using the code
1. Weak nuclear force given below:
2. Gravitational force (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Electromagnetic force (b) 2 only
4. Strong nuclear force (c) 3 only
Which of the following is the correct (d) 1, 2 and 3
ascending order of relative strengths of the
above forces of nature? 5. Which of the following phenomena can be
(a) 1-2-3-4 attributed to the formation of a rainbow?
(b) 2-1-3-4
1. Refraction of sunlight
(c) 1-2-4-3
2. Reflection of sunlight
(d) 2-1-4-3
3. Dispersion of sunlight
2. With reference to the atomic clocks, consider Select the correct answer using the code
the following statements: given below:
1. These are used to measure the distance (a) 1 and 2 only
between two objects in space. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. These use resonance frequencies of (c) 1 and 3 only
atoms to keep time with extreme (d) 1, 2 and 3
accuracy.
3. These are used on-board GPS satellites 6. With reference to Alternating Current (AC)
that orbit the Earth. and Direct Current (DC), consider the
4. These are radioactive as they rely on following statements:
atomic decay. 1. Unlike DC, AC reverses its direction
Which of the statements given above are periodically.
correct? 2. In India, the frequency of AC is 100 Hz.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. The current that flows in appliance
(b) 3 and 4 only running on batteries is DC.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Spontaneous symmetry breaking’ can be best
(b) 2 and 3 only
defined as a break in symmetry as a result of:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) an increase in the density of the object
(b) a change in atmospheric pressure (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) transition from high temperature to low
temperature 7. Consider the following statements:
(d) instability created due to the motion of the 1. Microwaves are found at the higher
object frequency end of the radio spectrum.
2. Microwaves are employed in Doppler
4. Which of the following statements are correct radars for air-traffic control.
with reference to Laser Communications 3. Human body cannot detect infrared
Relay Demonstration (LCRD)? radiation in any form.
1. It is the first two-way, end-to-end optical 4. Cool and faint objects in the universe can
relay launched by European Space be detected in the infrared.
Agency (ESA). Which of the statements given above are
2. The digital data will be translated into correct?
laser signals and then transmitted via (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
encoded beams of infrared light. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Unlike radio frequency communications, (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
optical signals can penetrate cloud (d) 3 and 4 only
coverage.
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Vajiram and Ravi PowerUp Prelims Test Series (2023)
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Test No.08 – Science and Technology (V4338)
8. Which of the following are the applications of 5. Carbon

a concave mirror? Select the correct answer using the code
1. Shaving mirrors given below:
2. Telescopes (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. Rear-view mirrors in vehicles (b) 1, 3 and 5 only
4. Street light reflectors (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
5. Production of heat in solar furnaces (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only 12. With reference to black holes, consider the
(b) 3 and 4 only following statements:
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 1. Supermassive black hole are formed
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 when the centre of a very massive star
collapses in upon itself.
9. Consider the following statements with 2. The sun does not have enough mass to
reference to Gravitational waves: collapse into a black hole.
1. They are produced by collisions between Which of the statements given above is/are
ultra-dense neutron stars and merging correct?
black holes. (a) 1 only
2. They travel at the speed of light. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 only
13. With reference to the electric current,
(b) 2 only
consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. A stream of electrons moving through a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
conductor constitutes an electric current.
2. In liquids and gases, electric current is
10. Whenever one object exerts a force on transported by ions and electrons.
another object, the second object exerts an 3. Electrolysis can cause decomposition of
equal and opposite on the first. However, a matter.
massive truck parked along the roadside will Which of the statements given above are
probably not move after application of force correct?
by a person. Which of the following is the (a) 1 and 2 only
reason behind this phenomena? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Truck will exert equal force on person and (c) 1 and 3 only
balance the original force (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Force applied by the person will be
transferred to the tyres of the truck 14. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) Gravity will cancel the perpendicular force correct with reference to 5G technology?
applied by the person 1. It mainly works in 3 bands viz. low, mid
(d) Force applied by the person is not enough and high frequency spectrum.
to overcome the friction between the 2. Its high-band spectrum offers the highest
surface and tyres of the truck coverage and signal penetration strength.
3. 5G devices have higher power
11. Which of the following substances can be requirements as compared to 4G devices.
classified as insulators? Select the correct answer using the code
1. Aluminium given below:
2. Glass (a) 1 only
3. Bakelite (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Rubber (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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15. Which of the following reasons accounts for 19. With reference to the Doppler Effect, consider
the use of alloys rather than pure metals as the following statements:
the conductors in electric heating devices? 1. It works on both light and sound waves.
(a) Pure metals are not easy to mould into 2. It can be used to measure the speed of
shapes moving vehicles.
(b) Alloys cost less as compared to the pure Which of the statements given above is/are
metals correct?
(c) Pure metals have low tensile strength (a) 1 only
(d) Alloys do not oxidise readily at high (b) 2 only
temperatures (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Consider the following statements:
1. An electric current always produces a 20. With reference to diffraction, consider the
magnetic field. following statements:
2. Brain is the only organ inside human body 1. It is the slight bending of light as it passes
that produces magnetic field. around the edge of an object.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Silver lining found around the edges of
correct? clouds is result of diffraction.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
17. Which one of the following statements is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct with reference to ‘Sonic Boom’?
(a) These are waves with a frequency of 21. Consider the following statements with
more than 20 kHz and cannot be heard by reference to Communication Systems:
humans. 1. Noise refers to the loss of strength of a
(b) These are sounds associated with the signal while propagating through a medium.
shockwaves when object travels in air 2. Attenuation is the process of increasing the
faster than the speed of light. strength of a signal using an electronic
(c) These are shock waves produced when circuit.
the sound producing source moves with a Which of the statements given above is/are
speed higher than that of sound. correct?
(d) These sounds are produced by (a) 1 only
rhinoceroses, whales and elephants for (b) 2 only
communication.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Free Space Optical Communication
(FSOC) is the wireless transmission of data 22. Consider the following statements:
through free space without fibre optics. 1. Sky wave communication can be achieved
2. Wi-MAX can provide both Non-line-of-sight by ionospheric reflection of radio waves
and Line-of-sight wireless service. back towards the earth.
3. Unlike Wi-Fi which runs on radio waves, Li- 2. Space waves are used for line-of-sight
Fi uses visible light to transmit data. (LOS) communication as well as satellite
Which of the statements given above is/are communications.
correct? 3. Electromagnetic waves of frequencies
(a) 1 and 2 only lower than 30 MHz penetrate and escape
(b) 2 only the ionosphere.
(c) 3 only Which of the statements given above are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
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(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) 2 and 3 only correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
23. Which one of the following statements best (d) 1, 2 and 3
describes ‘Baryonic Matter’?
(a) Heavily decomposed Particulate Matter 27. Consider the following statements:
(b) Invisible matter with opposite electrical 1. X-rays do not pass as through soft tissue
charges such as organs and muscles.
(c) Matter released from failed stars 2. Both Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
(d) Visible matter consisting of subatomic and Computed Tomography (CT) Scan use
particles ionizing radiations including x-rays.
3. MRI scans produce more detailed images
24. Tungsten is almost exclusively used for than CT scans.
filament of electric lamps mainly because: Which of the statements given above are
(a) it is cheaper in cost compared to other correct?
substitutes (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) it has high melting point and high (b) 2 and 3 only
resistivity
(c) 3 only
(c) it has a very low melting point and can
(d) 1, 2 and 3
avoid short circuit
(d) it has low resistance and a high melting
28. Which of the following are the applications of
point
multiple reflections of sound?
1. Megaphones
25. Which of the following statements are correct
2. Stethoscope
with reference to Semiconductors?
3. Curved ceilings of cinema halls
1. They have conductivity properties
Select the correct answer using the code given
between a conductor and insulator.
below:
2. Silicon is the most common
(a) 1 and 2 only
semiconductor material used in solar
cells. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. A Light Emitting Diode (LED) is a (c) 2 and 3 only
semiconductor device, which can emit (d) 1, 2 and 3
light when an electric current passes
through it. 29. With reference to allotropes of carbon,
Select the correct answer using the code consider the following statements:
given below: 1. Graphite is insoluble in water and has
(a) 1 and 2 only high melting point.
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. Q-Carbon exhibits high-temperature
(c) 2 and 3 only superconductivity.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Diamond is a good conductor of electricity
but bad conductor of heat.
26. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to Sound: correct?
1. Speed of sound is less than the speed of (a) 1 and 2 only
light. (b) 2 only
2. The speed of sound increases when we (c) 1 and 3 only
go from solid to gaseous state. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Increase in temperature leads to
decrease in the speed of sound.
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30. Consider the following statements: 2. It exhibits diamagnetism where a substance

1. The transfer of heat by radiation does not repels an external magnetic field.
require any medium. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Wool being a good conductor of heat correct?
helps keep people warm during the (a) 1 only
winters. (b) 2 only
3. Convection is a mode of heat transfer that (c) Both 1 and 2
is possible in gases only. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above are not
correct? 34. Which of the following are the applications of
(a) 1 and 2 only Ultrasound?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Cleaning of electronic components
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Detection of cracks and flaws in metal
(d) 1, 2 and 3 blocks
3. Treatment for kidney stones
31. Consider the following statements: 4. Observation of growth abnormalities in
1. Fermions are the particles that make up foetus
matter while bosons are the particles that Select the correct answer using the code
carry forces. given below:
2. Unlike bosons, an unlimited number of (a) 1, 2 and 3
fermions can collect into same energy (b) 2 and 3 only
state at low temperature. (c) 1 and 4 only
3. Fermions include electrons, protons and (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
neutrons while bosons include photons
and gluons. 35. During sunrise and sunset, the sun appears
Which of the statements given above are reddish in colour than during the day time.
correct? Which one of the following is the reason
(a) 1 and 2 only behind this?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Light of longer wavelength scatters more
(c) 1 and 3 only than the light of shorter wavelengths
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Refraction of sunlight by the water and
dust particles in the troposphere
32. Which of the following statements are correct (c) Light of shorter wavelength scatters more
regarding supercritical matter? than the light of longer wavelengths
1. It is the state of matter that exists between (d) Refraction of light by the stratospheric
the liquid and gaseous phases. clouds
2. It does not have any definite shape or
volume. 36. With reference to Raman scattering or effect,
3. It is denser than solid substance. consider the following statements:
4. It is not found in nature and is created 1. It is based upon the interaction of light
artificially. with the chemical bonds within a material.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The blue colour of the sky is caused due
given below: to Raman scattering.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Raman spectroscopy can be used for
(b) 2 and 4 only screening COVID-19 cases.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above are
(d) 3 and 4 only correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
33. Consider the following statements with (b) 2 and 3 only
reference to a superconductor: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is a material that shows absolutely zero (d) 1, 2 and 3
resistance to electric current.
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37. When an image looks different from the real 40. With reference to the Gravitational Force,
one, it is called 'optical illusion'. Which of the consider the following statements:
following are examples of optical illusions? 1. It is higher at the equator and lower near
1. Red colour of the halo around the sun poles.
2. Moon being visible at dawn 2. It is the same at different altitudes on the
3. Stick half immersed in water appears bent earth.
4. Polestar being visible in the sky 3. It varies depending on the mass of the
Select the correct answer using the code material.
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
38. In which one of the following groups are all (d) 1, 2 and 3
the three Primary colours present?
(a) Red, Yellow and Green 41. Consider the following statements:
(b) Red, Orange and Blue Statement 1: Multiple layers of thin blankets
(c) Red, Green and Blue joined together are warmer than a thick
(d) Red, Yellow and Blue blanket.
Statement 2: Air trapped between multiple
layers of the blankets acts as an insulator of
39. Consider the following Pairs: heat.
Which one of the following is correct in
Sl. Technology Scientific respect of the above statements?
No. principle (a) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct and Statement 2 is the correct
1. Electron : Faraday’s laws of explanation for statement 1
microscope electromagnetic (b) Both statement 1 and Statement 2 are
induction
correct but Statement 2 is not the correct
explanation for Statement 1
2. Aeroplane : Bernoulli’s principle
in fluid dynamics
(c) Statement 1 is correct But Statement 2 is
not correct
3. Hydroelectric : Conversion of (d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement
power gravitational 2 is correct
potential energy
into electrical 42. With reference to the space internet, consider
energy the following statements:
4. Fusion test : Magnetic
1. Most of these systems use satellites in
reactor confinement of geostationary orbit.
(Tokamak) plasma 2. Space based internet is much faster than
cable internet as there are no obstacles.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the pairs given above are correctly correct?
matched? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
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43. Consider the following statements: 46. Consider the following statements:
1. Silicon is the second most abundant 1. Matter and antimatter behave the same way
element in the Earth’s crust. under the influence of gravity.
2. Asbestos is a naturally occurring silicate 2. Dark matter interacts only via
mineral. electromagnetic force.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Negative matter is a hypothetical type of
correct? matter that has a negative gravitational
(a) 1 only charge and negative energy.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
1. Gravitational force is attractive in nature (c) 1 and 3 only
while electromagnetic force can be (d) 1, 2 and 3
attractive or repulsive.
2. Gravitational force and satellite's 47. Why does the dust come out when a carpet is
momentum from its launch into space cause beaten with a stick?
the satellite to go into orbit above Earth. (a) Dust exerts equal and opposite force to the
Which of the statements given above is/are force applied by the stick
correct? (b) Dust gains momentum due to the energy
(a) 1 only transfer between the stick and the dust
(b) 2 only particle
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Force applied by the stick sets carpet into
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 motion while dust particles remain in rest
due to inertia
45. Consider the following pairs: (d) Force applied by the stick is equal to the
static friction of the carpet
Sl. Newton’s law Example
No. of motion 48. Which of the following is the best possible
reason behind the phenomenon of twinkling of
1. Newton’s First : Motion of a ball stars?
Law falling through (a) Atmospheric refraction of starlight
the atmosphere (b) Reflection of the light
at terminal (c) Dispersion of the starlight
velocity (d) Scattering of light
2. Newton’s : It is easier to 49. Consider the following statements with

Second Law push an empty respect to the Oil Filled Radiator (OFR):
cart than a 1. It warms the surroundings via convection
loaded one and radiation.
2. It is an environment friendly method of
3. Newton’s Third : A gun recoils
Law when a bullet is heating as it does not involve any fuel
fired from it burning.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly correct?
matched? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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50. The cord of an electric heater does not glow Which of the statements given above is/are
while the heating element does because: correct?
(a) there is an insulating material outside the (a) 1 only
cord (b) 2 only
(b) the heating element is packed with (c) Both 1 and 2
luminescent substances (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) resistance of the cord is very low
compared to the heating element 54. Coal tar is used in the manufacturing of which
(d) current flowing through the cord is of of the following products?
alternating nature 1. Synthetic dyes
2. Drugs
51. Consider the following statements: 3. Explosives
1. Acid reacts with active metals to yield 4. Perfumes
hydrogen. 5. Plastics
2. Acid tastes sour and changes blue litmus 6. Paints
into red. Select the correct answer using the code
3. Base has a bitter taste and changes red given below:
litmus into blue. (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. Bases react with acids to producesaltand (b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
water. (c) 1, 5 and 6 only
Which of the statements given above are (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 55. Consider the following:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Coal
(c) 2 and 4 only 2. Biogas
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. Wood
4. Petrol
52. With reference to Compressed Natural Gas 5. Hydrogen gas
(CNG), consider the following statements: 6. Methane
1. Its energy density is greater than that of Which of the following is the correct sequence
of the above fuels in order of their decreasing
Liquified Natural gas (LNG).
calorific values?
2. It’s burning leads to the emission of
(a) 5-6-4-2-1-3
carbon nanoparticles that can cause
(b) 2-1-3-4-5-6
cancer. (c) 1-3-4-2-5- 6
3. It is used as raw material in the production (d) 1-2-3-4-5-6
of chemicals and fertilizers.
Which of the statements given above 56. Consider the following statements with
arecorrect? reference to Noble gases:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. All inert gases are noble gases but all
(b) 1 and 3 only noble gases are not inert gases.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. All noble gases are monoatomic in nature.
(d) 1, 2and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
53. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Galvanisation is the process of applying (b) 2 only
zinc coating to iron in order to prevent (c) Both 1 and 2
rusting. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Crystallisation is a method of purifying an
impure compound by using solvents.
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57. During fermentation, the volume of Idli batter

increases due to: 62. Consider the following pairs:
(a) the presence of microorganisms that Sl. Principle Description
release carbon dioxide during respiration No.
(b) endothermic reaction by the yeast present
inside the batter 1. Law of : Matter can neither
conservation be created nor
(c) multiplying of microorganisms that break
of mass destroyed in a
down the complex batter chemical reaction.
(d) production of alcohol by the yeast
contained inside the batter 2. Law of definite : A given compound
proportions always contains
exactly the same
58. Pauling scale, Mulliken-Jaffe scale and
proportion of
Allred-Rochow scale are used to measure elements by
the: weight
(a) atomic radius of an atom
(b) electronegativity of an element 3. Law of : Ratio of the
(c) ionization enthalpy of a compound multiple weights of two
proportions elements which
(d) electron gain enthalpy of an element
combine to form
different
59. In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water compounds is
are converted into: always same
(a) glycogen and starch Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) glucose and carbon dioxide correctly matched?
(c) glycogen and oxygen (a) 1 only
(d) glucose and oxygen (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
60. Which one of the following phenomena (d) 2 and 3 only
occurs when you light a match stick?
63. With reference to Electromagnetic Radiation
(a) Oxygen is produced as a chemical (EMR), consider the following statements:
reaction of chlorate in the stick 1. It can act both as a wave and a particle.
(b) Reaction of oxygen and potassium 2. It does not need a medium to travel.
chloride produces potassium chlorate 3. Colder objects emit EMR with a very low
(c) Sodium gets oxidised in the presence of frequency than hotter objects.
air Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(d) Antimony trisulphide gets ignited due to
(a) 1 and 2 only
the heat of friction (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
61. The terms ‘Cisplatin’ and ‘Taxol’ are (d) 1, 2 and 3
mentioned in the context of:
(a) drugs for diseases like typhoid 64. Which one of the following is the correct order
(b) treatment of cervical cancer of electromagnetic waves based on their
increasing wavelengths?
(c) manufacturing of COVID-19 vaccine (a) X-ray - Ultraviolet - Visible - Infrared
(d) psychotropic substances (b) Ultraviolet - Visible - X-ray - Infrared
(c) X-ray - Ultraviolet - Infrared - Visible
(d) Ultraviolet - X-Ray - Visible - Infrared
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(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

65. Consider the following pairs: 68. Consider the following statements:
Sl. Term Description Statement 1: All the isotopes of a given
No. element show the same chemical behaviour.
Statement 2: Chemical properties of an atom
1. Avogadro : Number of units in one are controlled by the number of electrons.
Constant mole of any substance Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the above statements?
2. Rydberg : Helps to describe (a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
Constant wavelengths of light correct and the Statement 2 is the correct
explanation of Statement 1
3. Planck : Defines the amount of
Constant energy that a photon can (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
carry correct but the Statement 2 is not the
correct explanation of Statement 1
Which of the pairs given above is/are (c) Statement 1 is correct but the Statement
correctly matched? 2 is not correct
(a) 1 only (d) Statement 1 is not correct but the
(b) 1 and 3 only Statement 2 is correct
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 69. It is a phenomenon in quantum mechanics
where the particles are connected in such a
66. Consider the following statements: way that one of the particles cannot be
1. Atomic number is the total number of perfectly described without including all of the
protons in the nucleus of the atom. information about the other one. Which one of
2. The number of electrons in all atoms is the following terms best reflects the above
equal to the number of protons statement?
irrespective of their charge. (a) Superposition
3. Isotopes are atoms of the same element (b) Wave function
having the same atomic number but (c) Entanglement
different mass numbers. (d) Symmetrisation
Which of the statements given above are
correct? 70. Which of the following is not correct with
(a) 1 and 2 only respect to the Modern Periodic Table?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) The elements are arranged on the basis
(c) 1 and 3 only of increasing mass numbers.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) In a particular period, the atomic radius
decreases moving from left to right.
67. With reference to the alpha, beta and gamma (c) The metallic character of the elements
particles, consider the following statements: increases from top to down in a group.
1. Gamma particles have a greater mass (d) In a particular group, the elements have
than both alpha and beta particles. an identical outer shell electronic
2. Alpha particles cannot penetrate through configuration.
even a thick sheet of paper.
3. The ionizing power of beta particles is 71. Which of the following are Rare Earth
more than that of alpha particles. Elements (REEs)?
4. In Radiotherapy, alpha particles are used 1. Lithium
to kill cancerous cells. 2. Ytterbium
Which of the statements given above are 3. Samarium
correct? 4. Cerium
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 5. Yttrium
(b) 2 and 4 only 6. Nickel
(c) 1 and 3 only
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Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only
given below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 75. Which of the following statements are correct
with reference to Hydrogen Peroxide?
72. With reference to thermodynamics, consider 1. It reduces the biological oxygen demand
the following statements: of industrial wastewater.
1. It deals with the study of the rates at which
2. It is used to reduce the air pollution.
energy transformations are carried out.
3. It is non-corrosive and decomposes to
2. The law of thermodynamics states that
oxygen and water.
energy can neither be created nor
destroyed. 4. It functions effectively at below freezing
3. Heat always flows from a body at a higher temperatures.
temperature to a body at a lower Select the correct answer using the code
temperature. given below:
4. Laws of thermodynamics apply when a (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
system is in equilibrium. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are (c) 2 and 4 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 76. Consider the following:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Calcium Oxide
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Tin Oxide
3. Aluminium Oxide
4. Carbon Dioxide
73. Consider the following statements: 5. Zinc Oxide
1. Hydrogenation of vegetable oil that leads Which of the above oxides react with both
to the production of vanaspati ghee is a acids and bases?
reduction reaction.
(a) 1 and 4 only
2. Breakdown of water into oxygen and
(b) 2 and 4 only
hydrogen compounds is a redox reaction.
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 77. Which of the following are the uses of Borax?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Stiffening agent for candle wicks
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Softening of water
3. Preparation of medicinal soaps
4. Flame retardant
74. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. Rain water, distilled water and given below:
demineralised water are soft water. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Permanent hardness of water can be (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
removed by boiling the water. (c) 3 and 4 only
3. Heavy water is prepared by exhaustive (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
electrolysis of water.
correct?
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78. Which one of the following is an example of a 82. Consider the following statements with
Combination Reaction? reference to Hydrogen Fuel Cell (HFC):
1. Heating of limestone 1. It converts chemical energy into electric
2. Burning of hydrocarbons in fossil fuels energy.
3. Burning of coal 2. Its by-products are heat and water only.
4. Heating of lead nitrate 3. It does not store energy and relies on a
constant supply of fuel and oxygen.
79. With reference to hydrogenation process, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. It is a reaction in which the addition of (a) 1 only
hydrogen results in breaking up of the (b) 1 and 3 only
molecule. (c) 2 only
2. Metals like nickel, platinum and (d) 1, 2 and 3
palladium are used as catalysts in
hydrogenation. 83. The term ‘‘AlphaFold’’ is talked about in the
3. It is used to preserve foods and increase context of:
their shelf life. (a) a data processing technology
Which of the statements given above are (b) an exoplanet revolving around the Sun
correct? (c) an AI-based protein structure prediction
(a) 1 and 2 only tool
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) a drug used in animals to treat hand, foot
(c) 1 and 3 only and mouth disease
(d) 1, 2 and 3
84. With reference to ‘‘Quarks’’, consider the
80. Consider the following statements: following statement:
1. Organocatalysis is the use of organic 1. They are the fundamental constituents of
molecules to speed up chemical matter.
reactions. 2. Electrons are made up of quarks particles.
2. Chirality means that a molecule can be 3. They are not observed independently but
superimposed on its mirror image and always in combination with other quarks.
both can be identical. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
85. Which of the following are synthetic
81. Consider the following statements: polymers?
1. At constant temperature, the pressure of 1. Polyethylene
a fixed amount of gas varies inversely with 2. Nylon
its volume. 3. Teflon
2. At constant pressure, the volume of a 4. Rayon
fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional 5. Cellulose
to its absolute temperature. 6. Polyester
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
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86. Isotopes are used in which of the following (a) 1 and 2 only
fields? (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Fuel in nuclear reactors (c) 3 and 2 only
2. Treatment of cancer (d) 1 and 4 only
3. Treatment of Goitre
4. Detection of explosives 90. Consider the following statements with
Select the correct answer using the code reference to ‘‘Chemosynthesis’’:
given below: 1. It is the synthesis of organic compounds
(a) 1 and 4 only by bacteria using energy derived from
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only inorganic chemical processes.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Chemosynthetic organisms use the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 energy released from chemical reactions
to produce sugar.
87. Potassium and Sodium are kept immersed in 3. Unlike in photosynthesis, organisms
kerosene oil because they: carrying out chemosynthesis do not have
chlorophyll.
(a) get corroded easily in the presence of
oxygen
correct?
(b) undergo a reduction reaction with the
(a) 1 only
hydrogen present in the two mediums
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) react vigorously with oxygen present in
(c) 1 and 2 only
the water and air and catch fire (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) occupy the last two positions in the
reactivity series causing spontaneous a 91. Consider the following pairs:
reaction
Sl. Metal Use
No.
1. Iron does not burn on heating but iron 1. Copper- : High strength
filings burn vigorously. Beryllium springs
2. Copper does not react with steam and
water. 2. Magnesium- : Aircraft
3. Gold and silver are highly reactive to Aluminium alloy construction
oxygen at high temperatures.
3. Barium : To remove air from
vacuum tubes
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 4. Radium salts : Cancer treatment
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
89. Consider the following statements with
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
reference to Nuclear reactors:
1. It works on the principle of nuclear fission. 92. With reference to ‘Fullerene’, consider the
2. Controllers are used to slow down the following statements:
fast-moving neutrons. 1. It is the only pure form of carbon formed
3. Moderators can manage the reaction rate by the heating of graphite in presence of
in nuclear fission. inert gases.
4. Water acts as both a coolant and 2. It can be used to treat HIV infection.
moderator in a reactor. 3. A two-dimensional Fullerene cannot be
Which of the statements given above is/are synthesized.
correct?
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Which of the statements given above is/are 96. Consider the following pairs:
correct?
SI. Gas/Chemical Chemical
(a) 1 and 2 only
No. Constituents
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. Laughing Gas : Sulphur Dioxide
(d) 3 only
2. Water Gas : Carbon Monoxide
93. Consider the following statements: and Hydrogen
1. Electroplating uses electric current for metal
coating and metal deposition. 3. Tear Gas : Chloroacetophenone
2. Electrolysis uses electric current to run a
non-spontaneous chemical reaction. 4. Aqua Regia : Potassium and
3. Electroplating uses direct current while Sulphuric Acid
electrolysis uses alternating current.
4. Unlike electrolysis, electroplating doesn't How many pairs given above is/are correctly
require an electrolyte solution. matched?
Which of the statements given above are (a) Only one pair
correct? (b) Only two pairs
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Only three pairs
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) All four pairs
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only 97. In an airplane, Ethylene Glycol is added to
Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) because:
94. Which one of the following statements correctly (a) it enhances anti-knocking properties of fuel
describes the term ‘‘Isomerism’’? (b) it increases octane number of fuel
(a) More than one compound has the same (c) it prevents the freezing of fuel
chemical structures and same chemical (d) it improves consumption efficiency of fuel
formulae
(b) More than one compound has the same 98. Which one of the following polymers has the
chemical structures but different chemical strongest intermolecular force?
formulae
(a) Elastomers
(c) More than one compound has different
chemical structures and different chemical
(b) Fibers
formulae (c) Thermoplastic Polymers
(d) More than one compound has the same (d) Thermosetting Polymers
chemical formulae but different chemical 99. Consider the following pairs:
and physical properties SI. Compound of Application
No. Calcium
95. Consider the following statements with
reference to ‘Graphyne’: 1. Quick Lime : Drying Agent
1. It is an allotrope of Carbon.
2. It always has a honeycomb structure 2. Bleaching : Disinfectant
formed of repeating hexagonal benzene Powder
rings.
3. It can be used as nanofillers in composite 3. Calcium : Pesticide
materials. Carbide
correct? 4. Calcium : Strengthening
(a) 1 and 2 only Phosphate of bones and
(b) 2 and 3 only teeth
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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How many pairs given above is/are correctly

matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

1. Muscle fatigue in the body is caused by
the accumulation of carbolic acid.
2. Powder used to prevent bacterial and
fungal growth contains boric acid.
3. The main constituent of vinegar is citric
acid.
4. Phosphoric acid present in soft drinks
make them acidic in nature.
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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PowerUP Prelims GS Test – 08 (V4338) - Answer Key

1. (b) 11. (c) 21. (d) 31. (c) 41. (a) 51. (d) 61. (b) 71. (b) 81. (c) 91. (d)
2. (c) 12. (b) 22. (a) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (c) 62. (b) 72. (c) 82. (d) 92. (a)
3. (c) 13. (d) 23. (d) 33. (c) 43. (c) 53. (c) 63. (d) 73. (c) 83. (c) 93. (a)
4. (b) 14. (a) 24. (b) 34. (d) 44. (c) 54. (d) 64. (a) 74. (c) 84. (c) 94. (d)
5. (d) 15. (d) 25. (d) 35. (c) 45. (d) 55. (a) 65. (d) 75. (a) 85. (c) 95. (c)
6. (c) 16. (a) 26. (a) 36. (c) 46. (c) 56. (c) 66. (c) 76. (c) 86. (d) 96. (b)
7. (a) 17. (c) 27. (c) 37. (b) 47. (c) 57. (a) 67. (b) 77. (d) 87. (c) 97. (c)
8. (a) 18. (d) 28. (d) 38. (c) 48. (a) 58. (b) 68. (a) 78. (c) 88. (a) 98. (b)
9. (c) 19. (c) 29. (a) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (d) 69. (c) 79. (d) 89. (d) 99. (c)
10. (d) 20. (c) 30. (b) 40. (c) 50. (c) 60. (d) 70. (a) 80. (a) 90. (d) 100. (b)
Q1.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• There are four fundamental forces at
work in the universe: the strong nuclear
force, the weak nuclear force, the
electromagnetic force and the
gravitational force. They work over
different ranges and have different
strengths.
• The correct order is Gravitational force
< Weak nuclear force < Electromagnetic
force < Strong nuclear force.
o Gravitational Force is the weakest force but has infinite range.
o Weak Nuclear Force is the next weakest but has short range.
o Electromagnetic Force is a stronger force with infinite range.
o The Strong Nuclear Force is the strongest but has short range.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q2.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Atomic clocks are used to measure the distance between two objects in space by
measuring very stable and precise frequencies of light emitted by specific atoms.
These clocks remain ultra-stable for decades, however, their design is too bulky,
power-hungry and sensitive to environmental variations. Due to their enormity, they
have to be condensed for spaceflight operations and deep space explorations. So,
statement 1 is correct.
• Atomic clock is a type of clock that uses certain resonance frequencies of atoms
(usually cesium or rubidium) to keep time with extreme accuracy. The electronic
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components of atomic clocks are regulated by the frequency of the microwave

electromagnetic radiation. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Without atomic clocks, GPS navigation would be impossible, the Internet would not
synchronize, and the position of the planets would not be known with enough
accuracy for space probes and landers to be launched and monitored. Atomic clocks
are used onboard GPS satellites that orbit the Earth, but even they must be sent
updates two times per day to correct the clocks' natural drift. So, statement 3 is
correct.
• Atomic clocks are not radioactive because they do not rely on atomic decay. Simply,
they have an oscillating mass and spring like an ordinary clock. The big difference
between a standard clock in one’s home and an atomic clock is that the oscillation in
an atomic clock is between the nucleus of an atom and the surrounding electrons. So,
statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q3.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Spontaneous symmetry breaking often
occurs when there is a phase transition
between a high-temperature,
symmetric phase and a low-
temperature one in which the symmetry
is spontaneously broken.
• For example: Freezing. If there is a round
bowl of water sitting on a table, it looks the same from every direction; it has
rotational symmetry. But when it freezes, the ice crystals form in specific orientations,
breaking the symmetry.
Relevance: Time-Reversal Symmetry-Breaking Magnetic Fields have been discovered inside a
Kagome superconductor.
Q4.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• NASA launched its new Laser Communications Relay Demonstration (LCRD) — the
agency’s first two-way, end-to-end optical relay. So, statement 1 is not correct.
o With relays, missions are not required to have direct line-of-sight to antennas
on Earth, increasing communications coverage. LCRD creates a continuous
path for data flowing from missions in space to ground stations on Earth,
making a complete end-to-end system. Additionally, LCRD’s ability to both
send and receive data from missions and the ground stations makes the
system two-way. Together, these capabilities make LCRD NASA’s first two-way,
end-to-end optical relay.
• LCRD has two optical terminals – one to receive data from a user spacecraft, and the
other to transmit data to ground stations. The modems will translate the digital data
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into laser signals. This will then be transmitted via encoded beams of infrared light.
So, statement 2 is correct.
• Unlike radio frequency communications, optical signals cannot penetrate clouds.
LCRD will transmit data received from missions to two ground stations, located in
Table Mountain, California, and Haleakalā, Hawaii. These locations were chosen for
their minimal cloud coverage. So, statement 3 is not correct.
• Optical communications systems are smaller in size, weight, and require less power
compared with radio instruments.
o A smaller size means more room for science instruments. Less weight means a
less expensive launch. Less power means less drain on the spacecraft’s
batteries. With optical communications supplementing radio, missions will
have unparalleled communications capabilities.
Relevance: Recently, NASA launched its new Laser Communications Relay Demonstration
(LCRD), the agency’s first-ever laser communications system, from Cape Canaveral Space
Force Station in Florida.
Q5.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• The rainbow is caused due to the combined effect of dispersion, refraction and
reflection of sunlight by spherical water droplets of rain. It is an example of the
dispersion of sunlight by the water drops in the atmosphere. So, points 1, 2 and 3 are
correct.
• The conditions for observing a rainbow are that the sun should be shining in one part
of the sky (say near western horizon) while it is raining in the opposite part of the sky
(say eastern horizon). Rainbows caused by sunlight always appear in the section of
sky directly opposite the Sun.
• Sunlight is first refracted as it enters a raindrop, which causes the different
wavelengths (colours) of white light to separate. Longer wavelength of light (red) are
bent the least while the shorter wavelength (violet) are bent the most. Next, these
component rays strike the inner surface of the water drop and get internally reflected
if the angle between the refracted ray and normal to the drop surface is greater than
the critical angle. The reflected light is refracted again as it comes out of the drop
• The colours on a primary rainbow are always in order of their wavelength, from
longest to shortest: red, orange, yellow, green, blue, and violet.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q6.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• The difference between the direct and alternating currents is that the Direct Current
always flows in one direction, whereas the Alternating Current reverses its direction
periodically. So, statement 1 is correct.
• In India, the AC changes direction after every 1/100 second, that is, the frequency of
AC is 50 Hz. The standard frequency for AC in the United States is 60 Hz. So, statement
2 is not correct.
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• An important advantage of AC over DC is that electric power can be transmitted over

long distances without much loss of energy.
• The current that flows in a flashlight or another appliance running on batteries is
direct current. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q7.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Microwaves:
• Microwaves are a portion or "band" found at the higher frequency end of the radio
spectrum but they are commonly distinguished from radio waves because of the
technologies used to access them. So, statement 1 is correct.
• An important application of microwaves is radar. Doppler radar, which often employs
microwaves, is used for air-traffic control and vehicular speed-limit enforcement. So,
• Infrared waves, or infrared light, are part of the electromagnetic spectrum. People
encounter Infrared waves every day; the human eye cannot see it, but humans can
detect it as heat. So, statement 3 is not correct.
• Many objects in the universe are too cool and faint to be detected in visible light but
can be detected in the infrared. Infrared waves have longer wavelengths than visible
light and can pass through dense regions of gas and dust in space with less scattering
and absorption. Thus, infrared energy can also reveal objects in the universe that
cannot be seen in visible light using optical telescopes. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q8.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• A spherical mirror that has its reflecting surface curved inwards, that is, it faces
towards the centre of the sphere, is called a concave mirror. Concave mirrors are
called “converging” because they tend to collect light that falls on them, refocusing
parallel incoming rays toward a focus.
• Applications of concave mirror:
o Torches, search-lights and vehicles headlights to get powerful parallel beams
of light.
o Shaving mirrors to see a larger image of the face.
o Used by dentists to see large images of the teeth of patients.
o Large concave mirrors are used to concentrate sunlight to produce heat in
solar furnaces.
o Used in satellite dishes, telescopes, in electron microscopes and magnifying
glasses.
o Visual bomb detectors and in marine lighthouses that are found at the marine
ports. So, points 1, 2 and 5 are correct.
• A spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved outwards, is called a convex
mirror. Applications of the convex mirror:
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o Used as a side-view mirror on the passenger’s side of a car because it forms

an erect and smaller image for the way behind the car. Also, they have a wider
field of view as they are curved outwards.
o Can be used as street light reflectors because they can spread the light over a
bigger area. So, points 3 and 4 are not correct.
Q9.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in the otherwise tough, stiff fabric of space-time
produced by the most powerful processes in the universe—like exploding stars and
collisions between ultra-dense neutron stars, merging black holes and supernovae
(massive stars exploding at the end of their lifetimes). So, statement 1 is correct.
• A gravitational wave is an invisible (yet incredibly fast) ripple in space. Gravitational
waves travel at the speed of light (186,000 miles per second). These waves squeeze
and stretch anything in their path as they pass by. So, statement 2 is correct.
Knowledge Box
• In 2015, scientists detected gravitational waves for the very first time using an
instrument called LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory).
• When a gravitational wave passes by Earth, it squeezes and stretches space. LIGO
can detect this squeezing and stretching.
Q10.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• A stationary truck generates greater friction force between its tires and the ground
than the force applied. As friction is directly proportional to the mass of the body, so
heavier the truck larger is the friction.
• The force applied by the person is not enough to overcome the friction between the
surface and tyres of the truck. Hence, the truck will only move if a force greater than
the friction force is applied to it.
• Friction is a force that resists the sliding or rolling of one solid object over another.
Frictional forces, such as the traction needed to walk without slipping, may be
beneficial, but they also present a great measure of opposition to motion. About 20
percent of the engine power of automobiles is consumed in overcoming frictional
forces in the moving parts.
Q11.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Insulators are the materials which do not allow electricity to flow through them
freely. Rubber, glass and bakelite are some of the many insulators. So, points 2, 3 and
4 are correct.
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• Conductors are the materials which allow the electric current to flow through them
quite freely. Metals like silver, copper and aluminium are conductors. So, point 1 is
not correct.
• Carbon is an electrical conductor, even though it is not a metal. Water also conducts
electricity, which is why electrical objects should not be used near water. So, point 5
is not correct.
Q12.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• A black hole is a region in space where the pulling force of gravity is so strong that light
is not able to escape. The strong gravity occurs because matter has been pressed into
a tiny space.
• Stellar black holes are formed when the centre of a very massive star collapses in
upon itself. This collapse also causes a supernova, or an exploding star, that blasts part
of the star into space. On the contrary, supermassive black holes are the result of
hundreds or thousands of tiny black holes that merge together. It will also result from
the collapse of a stellar cluster, a group of stars all falling together. Further, they could
also arise from large clusters of dark matter. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• The sun does not have enough mass to collapse into a black hole. In billions of years,
when the sun is at the end of its life, it will become a red giant star. Then, when it has
used the last of its fuel, it will throw off its outer layers and turn into a glowing ring of
gas called a planetary nebula. Finally, all that will be left of the sun is a cooling white
dwarf star. So, statement 2 is correct.
Q13.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• A stream of electrons moving through a conductor constitutes an electric current.
• Conventionally, the direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of flow of
electrons. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Electrons are not consumed in an electric circuit. Electrons circulate around in a circuit
and carry energy. In liquids and gases, electric current is not transported only by
electrons as it is in solids, but also by positive and negative ions. So, statement 2 is
correct.
• The process of electrolysis uses electricity to break bonds, causing decomposition of
matter. In electrolysis, a chemical change is caused by electricity flowing through a
chemical compound. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q14.
Answer: a
Explanation:
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• 5G or fifth generation is the latest upgrade in the long-term evolution (LTE) mobile
broadband networks. 5G mainly works in 3 bands, namely low, mid and high
frequency spectrum. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Low band spectrum has shown great promise in terms of coverage and speed of
Internet and data exchange, the maximum speed is limited to 100 Mbps (Megabits per
second). It may not be optimal for specialised needs of the industry.
• The mid-band spectrum, on the other hand, offers higher speeds compared to the low
band, but has limitations in terms of coverage area and penetration of signals.
• The high-band spectrum offers the highest speed of all the three bands, but has
extremely limited coverage and signal penetration strength. So, statement 2 is not
correct.
• According to the MIT Technology Review, 5G devices will have low power
requirement that will boost the battery life of devices multiple times. So, statement
3 is not correct.
Q15.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Alloys have atomic components of multiple elements. Therefore, they have a
chemical structure different from pure metals.
• Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals. They also
have higher melting point than pure metals.
• Alloys do not oxidise (burn) readily at high temperatures. For this reason, they are
commonly used in electrical heating devices, like electric iron, toasters etc.
Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• An electric current always produces a magnetic field. Even weak ion currents that
travel along the nerve cells in human body produce magnetic fields. So, statement 1
is correct.
• Two main organs in the human body where the magnetic field produced is significant,
are the heart and the brain. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• The magnetic field inside the body forms the basis of obtaining the images of different
body parts. This is done using a technique called Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI).
Analysis of these images helps in medical diagnosis.
Q17.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• When a sound producing source moves with a speed higher than that of sound, it
produces shock waves in air. These shock waves carry a large amount of energy. The
air pressure variation associated with this type of shock waves produces a very sharp
and loud sound called the “sonic boom”.
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o The shock waves produced by a supersonic aircraft have enough energy to

shatter glass and even damage buildings.
• Frequencies higher than 20 kHz are called ultrasonic sound or ultrasound. The audible
range of sound for human beings extends from about 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.
• Rhinoceroses communicate using infrasound of frequency as low as 5 Hz. Whales
and elephants produce sound in the infrasound range.
Q18.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Free Space Optical Communication (FSCOC) is the wireless transmission of data via a
modulated optical beam directed through free space, without fibre optics or other
optical systems guiding the light. FSOC links use beams of light to deliver high-speed,
high-capacity connectivity over long distances. So, statement 1 is correct.
• WiMAX, the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access, is a standard based
technology aimed at providing wireless data over long distances in a variety of ways,
from point-to-point links to full mobile cellular type access.
o WiMAX can provide two types of wireless service. They are Non-line-of-sight
and Lineof-sight. WiMAX can provide two types of wireless service. They are
Non-line-of-sight and Lineof-sight. In Non-line-of-sight service (WiFi Sort of
service) a small antenna on computer connects to the WiMAX tower. In this
mode, WiMAX uses a lower frequency range2 GHz to 11 GHz. In Line- of-sight
service, a fixed dish antenna points straight at the WiMAX tower from a
rooftop. The line-of- sight connection is stronger and more stable, so its able
to send a lot of data with fewer errors. In this mode WiMAX uses higher
frequencies, with ranges reaching a possible of 66 GHz.
• Li-Fi, Light Fidelity, is a visible light communications system transmitting wireless
internet communications at very high speeds. It accommodates a photo-detector to
receive light signals and a signal processing element to convert the data into ‘stream-
able’ content. Unlike Wi-Fi, which uses radio waves, Li-Fi runs on visible light. The
technology makes a LED light bulb emit pulses of light that are undetectable to the
human eye and within those emitted pulses, data can travel to and from receivers.
Then, the receivers collect information and interpret the transmitted data. So,
Q19.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• It refers to the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave
source and its observer. Doppler Effect works on both light and sound waves. So,
• When an object moves towards an observer, the frequency of the sound waves
increases, leading to a higher pitch.
• The Doppler Effect is the driving principle behind the radar gun. Radar guns emit radio
waves of particular frequencies in a specific direction. If there is an object in its path,
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some of the radio waves and electromagnetic energy will bounce back. The gun then
measures the frequencies of the returning waves. It determines the speed of the
moving vehicle by computing the difference between the emitted frequency and the
reflected frequency. So, statement 2 is correct.
Q20.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Diffraction is the slight bending of light as it passes around the edge of an object.
Diffraction takes place with sound, electromagnetic radiation, such as light, X-rays,
and gamma rays; and with very small moving particles such as atoms, neutrons, and
electrons, which show wavelike properties. So, statement 1 is correct.
• The amount of bending depends on the relative size of the wavelength of light to the
size of the opening or object. For diffraction to take place, the size of the obstacle or
the opening should be of the order of the wavelength of the incident wave.
• Diffracted light can produce fringes of light, dark or coloured bands. An optical effect
that results from the diffraction of light is the silver lining sometimes found around
the edges of clouds or coronas surrounding the sun or moon. So, statement 2 is
correct.
Q21.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Noise refers to the unwanted signals that tend to disturb the transmission and
processing of message signals in a communication system. The source generating the
noise may be located inside or outside the system. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• The loss of strength of a signal while propagating through a medium is known as
attenuation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Amplification is the process of increasing the amplitude (and consequently the
strength) of a signal using an electronic circuit called the amplifier. Amplification is
necessary to compensate for the attenuation of the signal in communication systems.
• The original low frequency message/information signal cannot be transmitted to long
distances. Therefore, at the transmitter, information contained in the low frequency
message signal is superimposed on a high frequency wave, which acts as a carrier of
the information. This process is known as modulation.
Q22.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• In the frequency range from a few MHz up to 30 to 40 MHz, long distance
communication can be achieved by ionospheric reflection of radio waves back
towards the earth. This mode of propagation is called sky wave propagation. So,
o Sky wave propagation is used by short wave broadcast services.
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• The degree of ionisation varies with the height. The density of atmosphere decreases
with height. At great heights the solar radiation is intense but there are few molecules
to be ionised. Close to the earth, even though the molecular concentration is very
high, the radiation intensity is low so that the ionisation is again low. However, at
some intermediate heights, there occurs a peak of ionisation density. The ionospheric
layer acts as a reflector for a certain range of frequencies (3 to 30 MHz).
Electromagnetic waves of frequencies higher than 30 MHz penetrate the ionosphere
and escape. So, statement 3 is not correct.
• A space wave travels in a straight line from transmitting antenna to the receiving
antenna. Space waves are used for line-of-sight (LOS) communication as well as
satellite communication. At frequencies above 40 MHz, communication is essentially
limited to line-of-sight paths. So, statement 2 is correct.
• In space wave communication, the antennas are relatively smaller and can be placed
at heights of many wavelengths above the ground.
• Television broadcast, microwave links and satellite communication are some
examples of communication systems that use space wave mode of propagation.
Q23.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Baryonic matter, also called as visible matter, consists of baryons — an overarching
name for subatomic particles such as protons, neutrons and electrons.
• Antimatter consists of particles that are essentially the same as visible matter
particles but with opposite electrical charges. These particles are called antiprotons
and positrons (or antielectrons). When antiparticles meet particles, an explosion
ensues that leads to the two types of matter cancelling each other out.
• Brown dwarfs are failed stars that didn't accumulate enough material to kick-start
nuclear fusion in their cores.
Q24.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• Tungsten is used almost exclusively for filaments of electric bulbs, whereas copper
and aluminium are generally used for electrical transmission lines.
• Tungsten is strong metal with high melting point (3380°C) and has high resistivity
(5.20 × 10–8).
• These properties help it reach higher temperatures without melting and can emit
brighter light.
Q25.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• A semiconductor is a material that has conductivity properties between a conductor
and a non-conductor or insulator. This means that, under certain conditions,
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semiconductors have the ability to act either as a conductor or an insulator.

Semiconductors can be pure elements such as the most commonly used silicon, or
compounds such as gallium arsenide. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Silicon is also the most commonly used semiconductor in the production of solar
panel cells. So, statement 2 is correct.
• A Light Emitting Diode (LED) is a semiconductor device, which can emit light when
an electric current passes through it. To do this, holes from p-type semiconductors
recombine with electrons from n-type semiconductors to produce light. The
wavelength of the light emitted depends on the bandgap of the semiconductor
material. Harder materials with stronger molecular bonds generally have wider
bandgaps. Aluminum Nitride semiconductors are known as ultra-wide bandgap
semiconductors. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q26.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Sound is produced when matter vibrates, and like light, travels in the form of waves.
Sound waves are composed of a series of high and low points, much like the crest and
trough of an ocean wave. Sound travels as a longitudinal wave through a material
medium like air, water or steel.
• Sound propagates through a medium at a finite speed. Sound travels with a speed
which is much less than the speed of light. The sound of a thunder is heard a little
later than the flash of light is seen. The longer it takes to hear the thunder, the farther
the distance its sound had to travel and the farther away the storm is. So, statement
1 is correct.
• In sound propagation, it is the energy of the sound that travels and not the particles
of the medium.
• The speed of sound decreases when we go from solid to gaseous state. So, statement
2 is not correct.
• In any medium as we increase the temperature, the speed of sound increases. So,
Q27.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation. They pass easily through soft tissue
such as organs and muscles. They don’t pass as easily through hard tissue such as
bones and teeth, so they produce images of skeletal structures. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
• A Computed Tomography (CT) Scan is a diagnostic imaging exam that uses X-ray
technology to produce images of the inside of the body.
• Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a medical imaging procedure for making images
of the internal structures of the body.
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• During a CT scan, a person receives a very small dose of radiation, but doctors usually
do not consider this harmful. An MRI does not use ionizing radiation (such as X-rays.
They do, however, use strong magnetic fields. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• CT scans are more common and less expensive, but MRI scans produce more detailed
images. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q28.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Megaphones or loudhailers, horns, musical instruments such as trumpets and
shehanais, are all designed to send sound in a particular direction without spreading
it in all directions. In these instruments, a tube followed by a conical opening reflects
sound successively to guide most of the sound waves from the source in the forward
direction towards the audience. So, point 1 is correct.
• Stethoscope is a medical instrument used for listening to sounds produced within the
body, chiefly in the heart or lungs. In stethoscopes the sound of the patient’s
heartbeat reaches the doctor’s ears by multiple reflections of sound. So, point 2 is
correct.
• Generally the ceilings of concert halls, conference halls and cinema halls are curved
so that sound after reflection reaches all corners of the hall. Sometimes a curved
soundboard may be placed behind the stage so that the sound, after reflecting from
the sound board, spreads evenly across the width of the hall. So, point 3 is correct.
Q29.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Diamond, graphite and fullerenes (substances that include nanotubes and
‘buckyballs’, such as buckminsterfullerene) are three allotropes of pure carbon. In all
three allotropes, the carbon atoms are joined by strong covalent bonds, but in such
different arrangements that the properties of the allotropes are very different.
• Graphite contains layers of carbon atoms. It is black, shiny and opaque. It is not
transparent. It is also a very slippery material. It is used in pencil leads because layers
easily slide onto the paper, leaving a black mark. In comparison to diamond, Graphite
is thermodynamically more stable. It is insoluble in water. It has a high melting point
and is a good conductor of electricity, which makes it a suitable material for the
electrodes needed in electrolysis. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Q-carbon, short for quenched carbon, is claimed to be a type of amorphous carbon
that is ferromagnetic and is able to exhibit high-temperature superconductivity. It is
created by rapidly cooling a sample of elemental carbon whose temperature has been
raised to 3,727 °C. It is harder than diamond, and can be used to manufacture
diamond structures (such as diamond films and micro-needles) within its matrix. So,
• A diamond is one giant molecule of carbon atoms. Diamonds are colourless and
transparent. They sparkle and reflect light, which is why they are described as
lustrous. Diamond is extremely hard and has a high melting point. For this reason, it
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is very useful in cutting tools. Heavy-duty drill bits – such as those used in the oil
exploration industry to drill through rocks – are made with diamonds so that they stay
sharp for longer. Diamond is insoluble in water. It does not conduct electricity. Every
atom in a diamond is bonded to its neighbours by four strong covalent bonds, leaving
no free electrons and no ions. This explains why diamond does not conduct electricity.
However, they are good conductor of heat and have higher density than graphite.
So, statement 3 is not correct.
Q30.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• There are three ways in which heat can flow from one object to another. These are
conduction, convection and radiation.
• From the sun the heat comes to us by a process known as radiation. The transfer of
heat by radiation does not require any medium. So, statement 1 is correct.
• The process by which heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an
object is known as conduction.
• Wool is a poor conductor of heat. Moreover, there is air trapped in between the wool
fibres. This air prevents the flow of heat from our body to the cold surroundings. So,
we feel warm. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• When water is heated, the water near the flame gets hot. Hot water rises up. The cold
water from the sides moves down towards the source of heat.
• Convection is a mode of heat transfer by actual motion of matter. It is possible only
in fluids. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Q31.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Particles come in two types: the particles that make up matter, known as 'fermions',
and the particles that carry forces, known as 'bosons'. One essential parameter for
classification of particles is their "spin" or intrinsic angular momentum. Fermions are
particles which have half-integer spin while particles with integer spin are called
bosons. So, statement 1 is correct.
• The difference between fermions and bosons is that fermions take up space, while
bosons can pile on top of one another.
• At low temperatures, bosons can behave very differently than fermions because an
unlimited number of them can collect into the same energy state. The collection into
a single state is called condensation, or Bose-Einstein condensation. It is responsible
for the phenomenon of super fluidity in liquid helium. Coupled particles can also act
effectively as bosons. In the Bardeen–Cooper–Schrieffer (BCS) theory of
superconductivity, coupled pairs of electrons act like bosons and condense into a state
which demonstrates zero electrical resistance. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Fermions include electrons, protons, and neutrons while bosons include photons,
gluons etc. So, statement 3 is correct.
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Q32.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Supercritical matter is a state of matter that occurs when the temperature and
pressure of a substance exceed a certain point. Above this point, the substance
becomes a supercritical fluid, meaning it can no longer be classified as a liquid or a
gas. Supercritical substance is a material that is in a state between liquid and gas. It
has properties of both states and can be manipulated to act like either one. So,
• Supercritical fluids have no definite shape or volume, and they can flow through
other materials like a gas but also dissolve them like a liquid. This makes it extremely
difficult to measure or predict their behaviour. Additionally, supercritical fluids are
often unstable and can change state abruptly and without warning. So, statement 2
is correct.
• Supercritical matter is denser than either liquid or gas, but less dense than solid. It is
also more compressible than either liquid or gas, but less compressible than solid.
The strange and extreme properties of supercritical matter make it useful for many
applications. For example, supercritical fluids are used in power plants to extract heat
from coal and other fossil fuels. They are also used in medicine to dissolve and deliver
drugs to the body. So, statement 3 is not correct.
• Supercritical matter is also found in nature. For example, water becomes supercritical
at high pressures found deep in the ocean. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Knowledge
Applications of supercritical fluids:
• Food and beverage industry, where they are used to decaffeinate coffee beans.
• Used in medicine, for example to dissolve kidney stones.
• Proposed as a way to clean up oil spills, as they can break down oil into its
component parts without harming the environment.
• Allow continuous extraction, using economical and remarkably non-toxic materials.
Q33.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Superconductivity is a state in which a material shows absolutely zero electrical
resistance. While resistance is a property that restricts the flow of electricity,
superconductivity allows unhindered flow. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Two fundamental properties of a superconductor is zero resistance to electrical
current, and diamagnetism. A diamagnetic substance repels an external magnetic
field, in sharp contrast to normal magnetism, or ferromagnetism, under which a
substance is attracted by an external magnetic field. A superconducting material kept
in a magnetic field expels the magnetic flux out of its body when cooled below the
critical temperature and exhibits perfect diamagnetism. It is also called the Meissner
effect which simply means that magnetic lines do not pass through superconductors
in a magnetic field.
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• A new study shows that nickel oxide superconductors contain a type of quantum
matter called charge density waves, or CDWs, that can accompany superconductivity.
Nickel oxide superconductors conduct electricity with no loss at higher
temperatures than conventional superconductors do. So, statement 2 is correct.
Q34.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Ultrasound is generally used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places, for
example, spiral tube, odd shaped parts, electronic components etc. Objects to be
cleaned are placed in a cleaning solution and ultrasonic waves are sent into the
solution. Due to the high frequency, the particles of dust, grease and dirt get
detached and drop out. The objects thus get thoroughly cleaned. So, point 1 is
correct.
• Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks. The cracks or
holes inside the metal blocks, which are invisible from outside reduces the strength of
the structure. Ultrasonic waves are allowed to pass through the metal block and
detectors are used to detect the transmitted waves. If there is even a small defect, the
ultrasound gets reflected back indicating the presence of the flaw or defect. So, point
2 is correct.
• Ultrasound may be employed to break small ‘stones’ formed in the kidneys into fine
grains. These grains later get flushed out with urine. So, point 3 is correct.
• Ultrasonography which is based on ultrasound is also used for examination of the
foetus during pregnancy to detect congenial defects and growth abnormalities. So,
point 4 is correct.
Q35.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• The light from the Sun travels through Earth’s atmosphere and it undergoes scattering
before it reaches us. The extent of scattering is not uniform for all colours.
• Light of shorter wavelengths, such as violet, blue, green and yellow undergoes greater
scattering than those of longer wavelengths, such as orange and red.
• Because of the spherical geometry of the earth, the sunlight travels a longer distance
in the thick of the earth’s atmosphere during sunset and sunrise when the Sun is at
the horizon than when the Sun is at the zenith (midday).
• Thus, there is more probability for shorter wavelength light to get more scattered
than for the longer wavelength light. Hence, the Sun (and sunrise and sunset) appears
reddish orange during sunset and sunrise.
• The scattering is also related to the size and quantity of the scattering particles.
During the night time the atmosphere is cool and the aerial particles and dust particles
settle by morning whereas by evening they get dispersed. Thus, the scattering is more
by evening than in the morning.
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Q36.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Raman Scattering is the phenomenon of inelastic scattering of photons where the
frequency of the scattered photon is different from the incident photon. Raman
Spectroscopy is a non-destructive chemical analysis technique which provides detailed
information about chemical structure, phase and polymorphy, crystallinity and
molecular interactions. It is based upon the interaction of light with the chemical
bonds within a material. Raman Effect finds applications in various fields like in
nanotechnology to understand the structure of nanowires, in biology and medicine
where the low-frequency DNAs and proteins are studied and chemistry to understand
the structure of molecules and their bonds. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Rayleigh Scattering: The blue colour of the sky is caused by the scattering of sunlight
off the molecules of the atmosphere. This scattering, called Rayleigh scattering, is
more effective at short wavelengths (the blue end of the visible spectrum). Therefore
the light scattered down to the earth at a large angle with respect to the direction of
the sun's light is predominantly in the blue end of the spectrum. So, statement 2 is
not correct
• Researchers have turned to Raman spectroscopy to detect RNA viruses present in
saliva samples. However, in case of COVID-19 pandemic, it can be used only for
screening. Because, the RNA virus detected could be a common cold virus as well as
any other RNA virus such as HIV. So, statement 3 is correct
Relevance: The Raman Effect and one of Its Key Applications were discussed on the National
Science day in detail.
Q37.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• When images look different from the Real one, it is called 'optical illusion' (or visual
illusion). In this process, any object or image seen by the human eye is interpreted by
the brain in such a way that it appears different from the actual image. Optical Illusion
can be of three main types - Verbal, physical and cognitive. They are often used as
mental exercises for adults and children.
Phenomenon of optical illusions:
• Optical illusions, as well as multi-sensory illusions involving visual perception, can also
be used in the monitoring and rehabilitation of some psychological disorders,
including phantom limb syndrome and schizophrenia.
o Colour of the Sun at Dawn: A halo is a ring around the moon or sun produced
by refraction of light through a thin cloud of ice crystals. The halo has red
colours on the inside of the ring shifting to blue on the outside. The colour
effects such as red colours of halo, the reddish coloured sun pillars etc. are
optical illusions. So, point 1 is correct.
o The classical example of a physical illusion is when a stick that is half immersed
in water appears bent. This phenomenon was discussed by Ptolemy and was
often a prototypical example for an illusion. So, point 3 is correct.
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• Moon being visible at Dawn: Two things contribute to the moon being visible in
daylight. First, it is bright enough that its light penetrates the scattered blue light of
the sky. Secondly, the moon must be high enough in the sky to be visible. This is not
an optical illusion. So, point 2 is not correct
• Polestar being visible in the sky: Polestar is visible in the sky from northern latitudes.
Polestar appears in North or South Pole which completely depends on earth rotation.
There is apparent motion of all stars in the night except Pole star. This is not an optical
illusion. So, point 4 is not correct.
Relevance: Optical illusion was found in the Airavatesvara temple in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu
where the image of a Bull and an elephant merged into one.
Q38.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Primary colours of light:
• The three additive primary colours are red, green, and blue; this means that, by
additively mixing the colours red, green, and blue in varying amounts, almost all other
colours can be produced, and, when the three primaries are added together in equal
amounts, white is produced.
• They can be combined in different proportions to make all other colours. For example,
red light and green light added together are seen as yellow light. This additive colour
system is used by light sources, such as televisions and computer monitors, to create
a wide range of colours. When different proportions of red, green, and blue light enter
your eye, your brain is able to interpret the different combinations as different
colours.
Q39.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Electron microscopes are used to investigate the ultrastructure of a wide range of
biological and inorganic specimens including microorganisms, cells, large molecules,
biopsy samples, metals, and crystals. Industrially, electron microscopes are often used
for quality control and failure analysis. They use the principle of wave nature of
electrons (not Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction). So, pair 1 is not
correctly matched.
• Aeroplanes work on the principle of Bernoulli’s principle in fluid dynamics. Optical
fibres inculcate the principle of Total Internal Reflection of light. So, pair 2 is correctly
matched.
• Hydroelectric power is based on the principle of conversion of gravitational potential
energy into electrical energy. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
• ‘Tokamak’ is an acronym for Russia term which translates into ‘Toroidal chamber
with magnetic coils’. The Soviet scientists theorised that if one can create a magnetic
field in the shape of a torus (doughnut shape) then the scorching plasma could be
contained. The scalding of the walls of the container from the intense heat of plasma
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could be prevented. It is based on the principle of magnetic confinement of plasma.

So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Relevance: Recently, the Scientists in the United Kingdom said they have achieved a new
milestone in producing nuclear fusion energy, or imitating the way energy is produced in the
Sun.
Q40.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• The law of gravitation states that the force of attraction between any two objects is
proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square
of the distance between them. The law applies to objects anywhere in the universe.
Such a law is said to be universal.
• Near the poles, the gravitational force is higher, whereas near the equator, it is
lower. This is due to the fact that the distance between the equator and the poles is
higher at the equator than at the poles. So, statement 1 is not correct
• The gravitational force decreases with increase in altitude. So, statement 2 is not
correct
• The value of gravitational force varies depending on the mass of the material. This
number is influenced by the uneven distribution of material mass within the planet.
Many other factors influence the gravity readings at different locations. Gravity
anomaly refers to such a disparity. Gravity anomalies provide information on the mass
distribution of material in the earth's crust. So, statement 3 is correct
Q41.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Insulation means creating a barrier between the hot and the cold object that reduces
heat transfer by either reflecting thermal radiation or decreasing thermal conduction
and convection from one object to the other. The air layer between two thin blankets
is stationary and it acts as thermal barrier for heat transfer across it where
conduction heat transfer is only possible. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Air acts as an insulator of heat, preventing the body heat from escaping in the
surroundings. More layers of clothes allow more air to get trapped between the
layers and as a result the heat does not gets transferred from human body to the
environment. Thus, air trapped between multiple layers of thin blankets keep the
body warm due to insulation. So, statement 2 is correct.
So, both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct
explanation for statement 1.
Q42.
Answer: a
Explanation:
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• Space internet is a wireless communication to bring internet traffic to a consumer's

home/office via a satellite network in space.
• Most of the existing systems use satellites in geostationary orbit. This orbit is located
at a height of 35,786 km over the Earth’s surface, directly above the Equator. The big
advantage of beaming signals from geostationary orbit is that the satellite can cover
a very large part of the Earth. Signals from one satellite can cover roughly a third of
the planet and three to four satellites would be enough to cover the entire Earth. So,
• Cable internet is much faster than satellite internet. Satellite internet isn’t capable of
offering lower latency — a time lag between a user seeking data, and the server
sending that data — compared to cable or fibre connections. This is because the signal
travels a longer distance in space based internet through satellites in geostationary
orbit. This causes a slight delay between giving a command and getting the output.
• There are also several issues associated with space based internet. This includes
increased space debris, increased risk of collisions, and the concern of astronomers
that these constellations of space Internet satellites will make it difficult to observe
other space objects, and to detect their signals. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Q43.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Silicon (Si) is a non-metallic chemical element in the carbon family of the periodic
table. It makes up 27.7% of the Earth’s crust by mass and is the second most
abundant element (oxygen is the first). It is present in nature in the form of silica and
silicates. Silicon is a very important component of ceramics, glass and cement. So,
• Asbestos refers to naturally occurring silicate minerals. There are six common types
of asbestos fibers: crocidolite, amosite, anthophyllite, tremolite, actinolite, and
chrysotile. The first five of them are amphibole types and have short, straight, and stiff
fibers with more durable characteristics. Silicon is non-toxic but some silicates, such
as asbestos, are carcinogenic. Workers, such as miners and stonecutters, who are
exposed to siliceous dust can develop a serious lung disease called silicosis. So,
Q44.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• The gravitational force is the force of mutual attraction between any two objects by
virtue of their masses. It is a universal force. Every object experiences this force due
to every other object in the universe. On the other hand, electromagnetic force is the
force between charged particles.
• Gravity is always attractive, while electromagnetic force can be attractive or
repulsive. All objects on the earth, for example, experience the force of gravity due to
the earth. On the other hand, in the simpler case when charges are at rest, the
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electromagnetic force is given by Coulomb’s law: attractive for unlike charges and
repulsive for like charges. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Gravity governs the motion of the moon and artificial satellites around the earth,
motion of the earth and planets around the sun, and the motion of bodies falling to
the earth. Even when satellites are thousands of miles away, Earth's gravity still tugs
on them. Gravity—combined with the satellite's momentum from its launch into
space—cause the satellite to go into orbit above Earth, instead of falling back down to
the ground.
• On the other hand, matter consists of elementary charged constituents like electrons
and protons. Since the electromagnetic force is so much stronger than the
gravitational force, it dominates all phenomena at atomic and molecular scales. Thus
it is mainly the electromagnetic force that governs the structure of atoms and
molecules, the dynamics of chemical reactions and the mechanical, thermal and other
properties of materials. It underlies the macroscopic forces like ‘tension’, ‘friction’,
‘normal force’, ‘spring force’, etc. So, statement 2 is correct.
Q45.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Newton’s First Law: An object at rest remains at rest and an object in motion remains
in motion at constant speed and in a straight line unless acted on by an unbalanced
force. Examples:
o The motion of an airplane when a pilot changes the throttle setting of an
engine.
o The motion of a ball falling down through the atmosphere at terminal
velocity. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
o A model rocket being launched up into the atmosphere.
o The motion of a kite when the wind changes.
• Newton’s Second Law: The acceleration of an object depends on the mass of the
object and the amount of force applied. Examples:
o In a supermarket it is easier to push an empty cart than a loaded one and an
increase in mass requires more acceleration. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
o An aircraft’s motion resulting from aerodynamic forces, aircraft weight, and
thrust.
• Newton’s Third Law: Whenever one object exerts a force on another object, the
second object exerts an equal and opposite on the first. Example:
o A gun recoils when a bullet is fired from it: When a bullet is fired from a gun,
the gun exerts a force on the bullet in the forward direction. This is the action
force. The bullet also exerts an equal force on the gun in the backward
direction. This is the reaction force. Due to the large mass of the gun it moves
only a little distance backward by giving a jerk at the shoulder of the gunman.
The backward movement of the gun is called the recoil of the gun. So, pair 3 is
correctly matched.
o The motion of a jet engine produces thrust and hot exhaust gases flow out
the back of the engine, and a thrusting force is produced in the opposite
direction helping a plane to fly.
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Q46.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Antimatter is a material composed of so-called antiparticles. It is believed that every
particle known has an antimatter companion that is virtually identical to itself, but
with the opposite charge. For example, an electron has a negative charge. But its
antiparticle, called a positron, has the same mass but a positive charge.
• According to a new study, it is discovered that matter and antimatter behave the
same way under the influence of gravity. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter thought to account for approximately
85% of the matter in the universe. Dark matter only interacts by way of gravity and
the weak atomic force. Dark matter does not interact via either the strong atomic
force or electromagnetism hence dark matter cannot be seen and is hard to detect. It
only interacts via the weak force which is what keeps neutrons and protons inside the
nucleus of atoms together. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Negative matter is a hypothetical type of matter which if it exists will have negative
mass and negative energy. It will in essence have a negative gravitational charge and
repel normal matter. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q47.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Initially due to inertia of rest, the dust particles tend to remain at rest. The inertia of
rest is the tendency of a body to remain in its state of rest or its inability to change its
state of rest by itself.
• When a carpet is beaten with a stick, it is set into motion. It moves back and forth due
to the force exerted by the stick. However, dust particles remain at rest due to inertia
and as a result, the dust particles comes off.
• It is based on Newton’s First Law of Motion.
Q48.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. Atmospheric
refraction is the phenomenon of bending of light on passing through earth’s
atmosphere.
• The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously
before it reaches the earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of
gradually changing refractive index.
• Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of
the star is slightly different from its actual position. The star appears slightly higher
(above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon.
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• Since the stars are very distant, they approximate point-sized sources of light. As the
path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent
position of the star fluctuates and the amount of starlight entering the eye flickers
– the star sometimes appears brighter, and at some other time, fainter, which is the
twinkling effect.
Q49.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Oil Filled Radiators (OFR) are convection room heaters, which work by electrically
heating oil that acts as a heat reservoir. The hot oil heats the metal walls and in turn
the surroundings via convection and radiation. The thin fin columns provide a large
surface area to allow more air to be in contact with the heater and help rapid transfer
of heat into the room. So, statement 1 is correct.
• OFR room heater is a safe environment friendly method of heating that does not
involve any fuel burning. Oil filled radiators do not reduce oxygen nor do they cause
any dryness in the room. So, statement 2 is correct.
Relevance: Oil Filled Heaters are one of the best alternatives available to distribute heat
across the room.
Q50.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• If the electric circuit is purely resistive, then the
electrical energy continually gets dissipated
entirely in the form of heat. This is known as
the heating effect of electric current. This
effect is utilised in devices such as electric
heater, electric iron etc.
• The heater's heating element is made up of a
high resistance material, so when current
flows through the heating element, it converts
the electrical energy into heat and thus glows due to excessive heat.
• But the cord's resistance is very low compared to the heating element, so it does not
become as hot and thus does not glow.
Q51.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Acid:
• It reacts with active metals to yield hydrogen gas and reacts with bases to produce
salt and water. So, statement 1 is correct.
Acid + metal → salt + hydrogen
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• It tastes sour and changes blue litmus into red and phenolphthalein turns colorless in
presence of acid. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Aqueous solutions of acids are electrolytes that conduct an electrical current.
Base:
• It has a bitter taste and changes red litmus into blue and phenolphthalein turns pink
in the presence of a base. So, statement 3 is correct.
• It reacts with acids to produce salt and water. This process is called Neutralisation
Reaction. They can conduct electricity and feel slippery or soapy. So, statement 4 is
correct.
• Bases lose their basicity when mixed with acids.
• Some bases are great conductors of electricity. Bases like sodium hydroxide,
potassium hydroxide, etc. are used as electrolytes.
Q52.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is mainly composed of methane. CNG is produced by
compressing natural gas to less than 1% of its volume at standard atmospheric
pressure.
• CNG vehicles store natural gas in tanks where it remains in a gaseous state under
pressure. More fuel can be stored onboard a vehicle using LNG because the fuel is
stored as a liquid, making LNGs energy density greater than that of CNG. This makes
LNG well suited for trucks requiring a greater range. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• It is a cleaner fuel and a great advantage of CNG is that it can be used directly for
burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipes. However,
scientists at the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) have found that
gases produced while burning CNG contain carbon nanoparticles that are suspected
to cause cancer. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Natural gas is very important fossil fuel because it is easy to transport through
pipes. It is also used as raw material in the production of chemicals and fertilizers.
• LNG is frozen in order to turn it into liquid form, whereas CNG is pressurized to the
point where it is very compact. LNG takes up less storage space on a vehicle than CNG,
and it also offers an energy density that can be compared to diesel fuel.
Q53.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Galvanisation:
• It is the process of applying a protective zinc coating to iron or steel, to prevent
rusting. The most common method is hot dip galvanizing, in which steel sections are
submerged in a bath of molten zinc.
• The iron pipes that are used to supply water are coated with zinc called Galvanised
Iron pipes to protect the iron from rusting. In the process of Galvanization, Zinc is
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coated over iron, zinc coating is the best and durable method for the protection of
iron. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Iron when mixed with certain corrosion-resistant metals forms an alloy that is
resistant to rusting. Electroplating the surface of the iron particles with corrosion-
resistant metal protects them from rusting.
Crystallisation:
• It is one of the techniques for the purification of an impure compound particularly
when the original crude material obtained after a reaction is in a very impure
condition.
• First step of the process involves choosing a single solvent or a mixture of solvents,
which dissolves the crude material readily when hot, but only to a small extent when
cold.
• The crude substance is then dissolved in the minimum amount of boiling solvent to
obtain a saturated solution. Insoluble impurities are removed by filtering the hot
solution. It is then checked for crystallisation point and then cooled slowly when the
solute crystallises out leaving the greater part of impurities in the solution. The crop
of crystals is collected by filtration. So, statement 2 is correct.
Q54.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Coal Tar:
• It is a black, thick liquid with an unpleasant smell. It is a mixture of about 200
substances. Products obtained from coal tar are used as starting materials for
manufacturing various substances that are used in everyday life and in industry.
• Products like synthetic dyes, drugs, explosives, perfumes, plastics, paints,
photographic materials, roofing materials, etc. Interestingly, naphthalene balls used
to repel moths and other insects are also obtained from coal tar.
Relevance: Coal tar pitch is increasingly being used in roofing as it is resistant to harsh
chemicals, ultraviolet (UV) rays.
Q55.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• The calorific values of some of the important fuels are given below:
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• Thus, the fuels in the order of decreasing calorific values are - Hydrogen gas > Methane
> Petrol > Biogas > Coal > Wood
Q56.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Noble gases include Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon, Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), and
Radon (Rn).
• In the past, chemists thought that noble gases could not react with other elements
that’s why they were called inert or unreactive gases. He, Ne and Ar are inert gases
due to the less shielding effect and have a strong force of attraction of nucleus on
outermost shell electrons. However, scientists today know that some noble gases can
indeed react to form stable compounds. Kr, Xe, and Rn react with oxygen and fluorine
under extreme conditions. so, all inert gases are noble gases but all noble gases are
not inert. So, statement 1 is correct.
• All noble gases are monoatomic. They are colourless, odourless and tasteless. They
are sparingly soluble in water. As we move from top to bottom in a group, molecular
weight increases, therefore melting point and boiling point also increases. They have
a very low melting point and boiling point because the only type of interatomic
interaction in these elements is weak dispersion forces. Helium has the lowest boiling
point of any known substance. It has an unusual property of diffusing through most
common laboratory materials such as rubber, glass or plastic. So, statement 2 is
correct.
Q57.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Overnight fermentation of idli batter allows the rapid growth of the naturally
occurring microorganisms viz. Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Streptococcus
thermophilus in grains/legumes/utensils. These microorganisms divide and produce
lactic acid and carbon dioxide that make the batter anaerobic. Bubbles of carbon
dioxide form a froth on top of the fermentation mixture. Adding a small amount of
yeast also helps in fermentation and the batter comes out very nice resulting in the
best idlis.
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Q58.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• A qualitative measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract
shared electrons to itself is called electronegativity. Unlike ionization enthalpy and
electron gain enthalpy, it is not a measurable quantity. However, a number of
numerical scales of electronegativity of elements viz., Pauling scale, Mulliken-Jaffe
scale, and Allred-Rochow scale have been developed. The one which is the most
widely used is the Pauling scale. Linus Pauling, an American scientist, 1922 assigned
arbitrarily a value of 4.0 to fluorine, the element considered to have the greatest
ability to attract electrons.
Q59.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Most life on Earth depends on photosynthesis. The process is carried out by plants,
algae, and some types of bacteria, which capture energy from sunlight to produce
oxygen (O2) and chemical energy stored in glucose (a sugar). Herbivores then obtain
this energy by eating plants, and carnivores obtain it by eating herbivores.
• During photosynthesis, plants take in carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) from the
air and soil. Within the plant cell, the water is oxidized, meaning it loses electrons,
while the carbon dioxide is reduced, meaning it gains electrons. This transforms the
water into oxygen and the carbon dioxide into glucose. The plant then releases the
oxygen back into the air, and stores energy within the glucose molecules.
Q60.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• A mixture of antimony trisulphide, potassium chlorate and white phosphorus with
some glue and starch is applied to the head of a match made of suitable wood. When
struck against a rough surface, white phosphorus gets ignited due to the heat of
friction. This starts the combustion of the match. However, white phosphorus proved
to be dangerous both for the workers involved in the manufacturing of matches and
for the users. These days the head of the safety match contains only antimony
trisulphide and potassium chlorate. The rubbing surface has powdered glass and a
little red phosphorus (which is much less dangerous). When the match is struck against
the rubbing surface, some red phosphorus gets converted into white phosphorus. This
immediately reacts with potassium chlorate in the matchstick head to produce
enough heat to ignite antimony trisulphide and start the combustion.
Q61.
Answer: b
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Explanation:
• Cisplatin and paclitaxel, also known as “cis/taxol,” is given to shrink tumors and
decrease symptoms from cervical cancer.
• Taxol is used as a cytotoxic drug that kills cancer cells. It is used to treat breast cancer,
ovarian cancer & pancreatic cancer. Cisplatin is an antineoplastic agent that interferes
with the growth of cancer cells, which are eventually destroyed by the body.
• Combination chemotherapy of cis/taxol has shown synergistic efficacy and safety for
ovarian cancer, head and neck cancer.
Q62.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• Law of conservation of mass states that in a chemical reaction mass is neither created
nor destroyed. For example, the carbon atom in coal becomes carbon dioxide when it
is burned. The carbon atom changes from a solid structure to gas but its mass does
not change. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Law of definite proportions, also known as the law of constant proportions, states
that a given chemical compound always contains the same elements in the exact same
proportions by mass irrespective of the source of the chemical compound or the
method through which it was prepared. Water (H20), is made up of atoms of hydrogen
and oxygen. If one oxygen atom is combined with two hydrogen atoms, water is
created. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Law of multiple proportions, states that when two elements combine with each other
to form more than one compound, the weights of one element that combine with a
fixed weight of the other are in a ratio of small whole numbers. There are compounds
made up of the same elements, like carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2).
Both compounds are made of carbon (C) atoms and oxygen (O) atoms; however, the
ratios of carbon and oxygen in each compound are different. This illustrates the law
of multiple proportions. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q63.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Electromagnetic Radiations (EMR) are synchronized oscillations of electric and
magnetic fields. These oscillating electrical and magnetic fields are perpendicular to
each other and to the direction of propagation of the wave. These waves show dual
nature. It can act as a wave and a particle as well. Its wave nature is represented by
its velocity, frequency and wavelength. So, statement 1 is correct.
• The waves travel at the speed of light while in a vacuum. These are not like sound
waves because they do not need molecules to travel. This means that
electromagnetic waves can travel through air, solid objects and even space. So,
• All objects emit EMR according to their temperature. Colder objects emit waves with
very low frequency (such as radio or microwaves), while hot objects emit visible light
or even ultraviolet and higher frequencies. So, statement 3 is correct.
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Q64.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Electromagnetic spectrum consists of various types of Electromagnetic radiation
which differ from one another in wavelength or frequency. The electromagnetic
spectrum includes radio waves (FM and AM), microwaves, infrared lights, ultraviolet
lights, X – rays, gamma rays and visible light.
• The correct order of electromagnetic waves based on their increasing wavelengths is
– X-ray - Ultraviolet - Visible - Infrared
Q65.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Avogadro's number or Avogadro's constant is the number of units in one mole of any
substance. It is equal to 6.022140857×1023. Depending on the character of the
reaction and the nature of the substance, the units may be electrons, ions, atoms, or
molecules. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• The Rydberg constant is a physical constant relating to atomic spectra. It helps to
describe the wavelengths or frequencies of light in various series of related spectral
lines, most notably those emitted by hydrogen atoms in the Balmer series. The value
of this constant is based on the premise that the nucleus of the atom emitting light is
exceedingly massive compared with a single orbiting electron. It is denoted by R∞ for
heavy atoms and RH for Hydrogen. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Planck's constant is defined as a fundamental constant, equal to the energy of a
quantum of electromagnetic radiation divided by its frequency. Planck's
constant defines the amount of energy that a photon can carry, according to the
frequency of the wave in which it travels. The SI unit of Planck's constant is joule
second. And the MKS unit is in eV second. It is represented by h. So, pair 3 is correctly
matched.
Q66.
Answer: c
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Explanation:
• Atomic number is defined as the total number of protons present in the nucleus of
an atom. It is denoted by ‘Z’. Elements are defined by the number of protons they
possess. For hydrogen, Z = 1, because in a hydrogen atom, only one proton is present
in the nucleus. So, statement 1 is correct.
• The number of electrons in a neutral atom is equal to the number of protons. If the
atom is positively charged, then the number of protons is more than electrons. If the
atom is negatively charged, then the number of electrons is more than protons. So,
• Isotopes are defined as the atoms of the same element, having the same atomic
number but different mass numbers. For example, the three isotopes of the hydrogen
atom are protium, deuterium and tritium. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q67.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• Radioactivity is the process of unstable nuclei spontaneously decomposing to attain a
more stable nuclear status. Alpha, beta, and gamma are three such processes.
• An alpha particle consists of two neutrons and two protons bound together. The alpha
particle later got identified as the helium-4 nucleus. Alpha particles carry a positive
charge. Alpha particles have the greatest mass among the three types of radioactive
emissions. The mass of an alpha particle is about 8000 times more than the mass of a
beta particle. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Order of penetration – Gamma > Beta > Alpha. Alpha particles have the poorest
penetration power. They can cause little harm from the outside. The outer layer of
dead skin in humans, a thick sheet of paper, or a layer of clothes can resist alpha
penetration. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Beta particles are smaller and have less tissue-damaging power when inside an
organism. From the outside, beta particles can burn human skin. Gamma rays have
the highest penetration power.
• Order of ionizing potential – Alpha > Beta > Gamma. Alpha particles also have the
greatest mass, which implies that they have the greatest ionizing power. So,
• The travel speed of alpha particles is 5 to 7% of the speed of light. Radiotherapy in
cancer treatment uses alpha particles to kill cancerous cells. Because of their low
penetration power, they cannot damage the healthy cells surrounding the cancerous
part. So, statement 4 is correct.
Relevance: A new cancer treatment can stop the disease advancing in patients who are
resistant to immunotherapy.
Q68.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Isotopes are defined as atoms of the same element, having the same atomic number
but different mass numbers. Thus, they have the same number of electrons and
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different number of neutrons. All the Isotopes of an element have identical chemical
properties. So, Statement 1 is correct.
• Chemical properties of atoms are controlled by the number of electrons, which are
determined by the number of protons in the nucleus. The number of neutrons present
in the nucleus has very little effect on the chemical properties of an element. So,
• The different number of neutrons affects the mass number. The mass number
determines the physical properties while the atomic number determines the chemical
properties. Therefore, isotopes have similar chemical properties but different physical
properties.
Q69.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Entanglement is when two separate particles bond so strongly that what happens to
one affects the other, even if they become separated by thousands of miles.
• Two particles in quantum mechanics are said to be entangled when one of the
particles cannot be perfectly described without including all of the information
about the other one. Thus, the particles are “connected” in such a way that they are
not independent of one another.
• Quantum entanglement allows two or more quantum particles to become
entangled. When these particles become entangled, they become a single system.
This means that all of the quantum particles within that entanglement are described
as one unit.
Relevance: Alain Aspect, John Clauser and Anton Zeilinger have won the 2022 Nobel Prize in
Physics for experiments that proved the quantum nature of reality.
Q70.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Elements when arranged in order of increasing atomic number, lead us to the
classification known as the Modern Periodic Table.
• The atomic radius decreases in moving from left to right along a period. This is due
to an increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus
and reduces the size of the atom.
• The atomic size increases down the group. This is because new shells are being added
as we go down the group.
• As the effective nuclear charge acting on the valence shell electrons increases across
a period, the tendency to lose electrons will decrease. Down the group, the effective
nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons is decreasing because the
outermost electrons are farther away from the nucleus. Therefore, these can be lost
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easily. So, the metallic character decreases across a period and increases down a
group.
• The elements present in any one group have the same number of valence electrons.
So, we can say that groups in the Periodic Table signify an identical outer shell
electronic configuration. On the other hand, the number of shells increases as we go
down the group.
Q71.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• The Rare Earth Elements (REEs) are a set of seventeen metallic elements. These
include the fifteen lanthanides on the periodic table plus scandium and yttrium.
• The 17 Rare Earths are cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium (Eu),
gadolinium (Gd), holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd),
praseodymium (Pr), promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm), scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb),
thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb), and yttrium (Y).
• Lanthanum, Cerium, Neodymium, Praseodymium and Samarium, etc are available
in India. Others such as Dysprosium, Terbium and Europium are not available in India
largely.
• China is the leading producer of REEs with an estimated 70 per cent share of the
global production.
Relevance: A group of western nations are cooperating to develop alternatives to China to
ensure key industrial supplies including rare earth elements via Minerals Security
Partnership Agreement.
Knowledge Box
Applications of rare earth elements:
• High-tech consumer products, like cellular telephones, computer hard drives,
electric and hybrid vehicles, and flat-screen monitors and televisions (illuminated
screens on electronic devices).
• Used as catalysts, phosphors, and polishing compounds.
• Used in networks, communications, clean energy, advanced transportation,
healthcare, environmental mitigation, and national defence, among others.
• Scandium is used in televisions and fluorescent lamps, and yttrium is used in drugs
to treat rheumatoid arthritis and cancer.
• Used in space shuttle components, jet engine turbines, and drones. Cerium, the
most abundant Rare Earth element, is essential to NASA’s Space Shuttle
Programme.
Q72.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Thermodynamics is a branch of science that deals with the study of heat and
temperature and their relation with other forms of energy. The laws of
thermodynamics deal with energy changes of macroscopic systems involving a large
number of molecules rather than microscopic systems containing a few molecules.
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Thermodynamics is not concerned about how and at what rate these energy
transformations are carried out, but is based on the initial and final states of a system
undergoing the change. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• According to the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of an isolated system
is constant. Energy can be transformed from one form to another, but can neither
be created nor destroyed. Example: A person sweats when he feels warm because
the body tries to cool off. Heat transfers from the body in the form of sweat. So,
• According to the second law of thermodynamics, heat always flows from a body at
a higher temperature to a body at the lower temperature. This law is applicable to
all types of heat engine cycles including Otto, Diesel, etc. for all types of working fluids
used in the engines. It implies that the heat energy cannot transfer from a body at a
lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature without the addition of energy.
Example, Running of Air Conditioner. The air conditioner removes heat from the
room and maintains it at a lower temperature by throwing the absorbed heat into the
atmosphere. So, Statement 3 is correct.
• Laws of thermodynamics apply when a system is in equilibrium or moves from one
equilibrium state to another equilibrium state. Macroscopic properties like pressure
and temperature do not change with time for a system in equilibrium state. So,
Q73.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• An oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction is a type of chemical reaction that involves a
transfer of electrons between two species. An oxidation-reduction reaction is any
chemical reaction in which the oxidation number of a molecule, atom, or ion change
by gaining or losing an electron. Redox reactions are common and vital to some of the
basic functions of life, including photosynthesis, respiration, combustion, and
corrosion or rusting.
• Oils (such as vegetable, olive, sunflower) are liquids at room temperature. In the food
industry, hydrogen is added to oils (in a process called hydrogenation) to make them
more solid, or 'spreadable'. Hydrogenation is a reduction reaction. The process is
used in the production of vanaspati ghee. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Decomposition reaction is a type of redox reaction that involves the breakdown of a
compound into different compounds. For example, the breakdown of water into
hydrogen and oxygen. Combination Reactions, Displacement Reactions and
Disproportionation Reactions are the other different types of redox reactions. So,
Q74.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Soft water produces lather with soap readily. It is because when all the calcium and
magnesium ions present in hard water have been precipitated by addition of sufficient
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amounts of soap, the resulting water becomes soft and thus readily produces lather
with soap. Rain water, distilled water and demineralised water are soft waters. On
the other hand, hardness of water is because of the presence of bicarbonate, chloride
and sulfate of calcium and magnesium in it. Sea water, river water, spring water, lake
water and well water are hard waters. Hard water is highly undesirable in industrial
settings and can pose several major problems. Water hardness is controlled in
industries in order to prevent costly breakdowns in cooling towers, boilers, and other
water handling equipment. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble chlorides and sulphates
of calcium and magnesium. It is because of this reason that, unlike temporary hard
water, the permanent hardness of water cannot be removed simply by boiling the
water. Permanent hardness is also called non-carbonate hardness. It can be removed
by adding sodium carbonate. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• Heavy Water (D2O) is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors and in
exchange reactions for the study of reaction mechanisms. It can be prepared by
exhaustive electrolysis of water or as a by-product in some fertilizer industries. It is
used for the preparation of other deuterium compounds. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q75.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is water (H2O) with an extra oxygen molecule. It is used to
remove pollutants from wastewater and from air. The strong oxidizing power of H2O2
makes it suitable for the destruction of a variety of pollutants. It has been used to
reduce the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand
(COD) of industrial wastewaters for many years. Hydrogen peroxide can reduce
BOD/COD by direct oxidation (either complete or partial) of wastewater
components. Example, in biologically active wastewater, hydrogen peroxide will
readily decompose to water and oxygen. The release of oxygen will help in BOD
reduction by allowing the aerobic bacteria to function more efficiently. So, statement
1 is correct.
• Hydrogen peroxide is an easy-to-handle liquid which is safe to store and loses only a
small percentage of its available oxygen per year when correctly stored. Thus, it is
ideal for effluent and air pollution treatment. So, statement 2 is correct.
• It is highly environment-friendly as it decomposes to oxygen and water easily. It is
also colourless and non-corrosive. Thus, it is a very selective bleaching agent as it
causes less textile fibre damage compared to many bleaching systems and tends to be
less aggressive on fabric dyes, detergent enzymes and optical brighteners. So,
• For hydrogen peroxide to be effective, alkaline conditions and high temperatures of
about 50°C or more are needed. It is because at low temperatures it becomes solid.
Relevance: The prices for hydrogen peroxide in India have increased recently.
Q76.
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Answer: c
Explanation:
• Metal oxides which react with both acids as well as bases to produce salts and water
are known as amphoteric oxides. Many metals such as copper, zinc, tin, lead,
Aluminium, and beryllium form amphoteric oxides or hydroxides.
• Amphoteric depends on the oxidation states of the oxide. Tin Oxide, Aluminium Oxide
& Zinc Oxide react with acid as well as the base. So, they are amphoteric in nature.
So, points 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
• Calcium Oxide is basic in nature and Carbon Dioxide is acidic in nature. They are not
amphoteric in nature. So, points 1 and 4 are not correct.
Q77.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Borax, also known as Sodium Borate or disodium tetraborate, is an important boron
compound and the salt of boric acid found in arid regions.
• The mineral is made up of Sodium, Oxygen and Boron to create Sodium Tetraborate.
It is usually a white powder consisting of soft colourless crystals that dissolve easily in
water. Borax has a wide variety of uses.
o As a flux in soldering
o Preparation of medicinal soaps
o As a stiffening agent for candle wicks
o In softening of water
o Dry & preserve cut flowers
o As a flame retardant
o As a food additive
o As an ingredient in vitamin supplements
Q78.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known
as a combination reaction. Burning of coal is a combination reaction.
• Example:
o Burning of coal - C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
• Fossil fuels are composed primarily of hydrocarbons, which are converted into
carbon dioxide and water during a combustion reaction.
• Decomposition reaction: In this reaction, a single compound breaks down to give
simpler products. Heating of limestone and heating of lead nitrate are
decomposition reactions.
• Oxidation reaction is defined as the addition of an oxygen/electronegative element
to a substance or removal of a hydrogen/ electropositive element from a substance.
Q79.
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Answer: d
Explanation:
• Hydrogenation is a chemical reaction between molecular hydrogen and an element
or compound, ordinarily in the presence of a catalyst. The reaction may be one in
which hydrogen simply adds to a double or triple bond connecting two atoms in the
structure of the molecule or one in which the addition of hydrogen results in
dissociation (breaking up) of the molecule (called hydrogenolysis, or destructive
hydrogenation). So, statement 1 is correct.
• The catalysts most commonly used for hydrogenation reactions are the metals nickel,
platinum and palladium and their oxides. For high-pressure hydrogenations, copper
chromite and nickel supported on kieselguhr (loose or porous diatomite) are
extensively used. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Hydrogenation is used to solidify, preserve or purify many products, raw materials, or
ingredients. Ammonia, fuels (hydrocarbons), alcohols, pharmaceuticals, margarine,
polyols, various polymers and chemicals (hydrogen chloride and hydrogen peroxide)
are products treated using a hydrogenation process. Oxidation of fats & oils result in
rancidity in food items. Therefore, hydrogenation is used by the food industry to
preserve foods and increase their shelf life. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q80.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Organocatalysis is the use of organic molecules to speed up chemical reactions. It is
a new and ingenious tool for molecule building, which is applied in developing new
pharmaceuticals and also to capture light in solar cells. It has an important role in
making chemistry greener. So, statements 1 is correct.
• Chirality essentially means 'mirror-image, non-superimposable molecules', and to say
that a molecule is chiral is to say that its mirror image (it must have one) is not the
same as itself. Whether a molecule is chiral or achiral depends upon a certain set of
overlapping conditions. Chirality means that an object or molecule cannot be
superimposed on its mirror image by any translations or rotations. Achiral (not chiral)
objects are those objects that are identical to their mirror image. So, statement 2 is
not correct.
Knowledge Box
• In pharmaceutical companies, organocatalysis is used to produce important
medicines like paroxetine, which is used to treat anxiety and depression, and the
antiviral medication oseltamivir, used to treat respiratory infections.
• Organocatalysis has also made molecular constructions more efficient. One such
example is strychnine synthesis, which has become 7,000 times more efficient.
Q81.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Boyle’s Law (Pressure-Volume Relationship):
t.me/cse_updates
• At constant temperature, the pressure of a fixed amount (i.e., number of moles n) of

gas varies inversely with its volume. So, statement 1 is correct.
Charles’ Law (Temperature - Volume Relationship):
• At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to its
absolute temperature. So, statement 2 is correct.
Gay Lussac’s Law (Pressure-Temperature Relationship):
• At constant volume, the pressure of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with the
temperature.
Avogadro Law (Volume - Amount Relationship):
• It states that equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature
and pressure contain an equal number of molecules.
• This means that as long as the temperature and pressure remain constant, the volume
depends upon the number of molecules of the gas or in other words amount of the
gas.
Q82.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Hydrogen fuel cells combine hydrogen and oxygen to generate an electric current.
Like conventional batteries, Hydrogen fuel cells convert chemical energy into
electrical energy. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Hydrogen is a clean fuel that, when consumed in a fuel cell, produces only heat and
water as a by-product. Hydrogen can be produced from a variety of domestic
resources, such as natural gas, nuclear power, biomass, and renewable power like
solar and wind. So, statement 2 is correct.
• While the fuel cells generate electricity through an electrochemical process, unlike a
battery-electricity vehicle, it does not store energy and, instead, relies on a constant
supply of fuel and oxygen — in the same way that an internal combustion engine relies
on a constant supply of petrol or diesel, and oxygen. In that sense, it may be seen as
being similar to a conventional internal combustion engine. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q83.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• AlphaFold is an AI-based protein structure prediction tool. It is based on a computer
system called a deep neural network. Inspired by the human brain, neural networks
use a large amount of input data and provide the desired output exactly like how a
human brain would.
• AlphaFold is fed with protein sequences as input. When protein sequences enter
through one end, the predicted three-dimensional structures come out through the
other. It uses processes based on “training, learning, retraining and relearning.”
• Proteins carry out all the functions inside a living cell. Therefore, knowing protein
structure and function is essential to understanding human diseases.
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• AlphaFold is neither flawless nor the only AI-based protein structure prediction tool.
RoseTTaFold, developed by David Baker, is another tool. Although less accurate than
AlphaFold, it can predict the structure of protein complexes.
Relevance: DeepMind’s AlphaFold system predicted the 3D structure of proteins based on
their amino acid sequences.
Q84.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• A quark is one of the fundamental particles in physics. They are fundamental
constituents of matter. They join to form hadrons, such as protons and neutrons,
which are components of the nuclei of atoms. The antiparticle of a quark is the
antiquark. Quarks and antiquarks are the only two fundamental particles that interact
through all four fundamental forces: gravitation, electromagnetism, and the strong
and weak interactions. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Protons and neutrons are made of quarks, but electrons aren't. As far as we can tell,
quarks and electrons are fundamental particles, not built out of anything smaller. So,
• A quark exhibits confinement, which means that the quarks are not observed
independently but always in combination with other quarks. This makes determining
the properties (mass, spin, and parity) impossible to measure directly; these traits
must be inferred from the particles composed of them. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q85.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• A polymer is any class of natural or synthetic substances composed of very large
molecules, called macromolecules, which are multiples of simpler chemical units
called monomers. Polymers are both found in nature and manufactured in
laboratories.
• There are two types of polymers: Natural and Synthetic
• Natural Polymers: They occur in nature and can be extracted. They are often
water-based. Wool, leather, and flax were processed into fibers to make
clothing.
• Natural polymers include: Proteins, Cellulose (in paper and trees), Wool (a
protein made by animals), Silk (a protein made by insects), Natural rubber
(proteins from trees)
• Synthetic Polymers were first manufactured by people seeking substitutes for
natural ones, in particular, rubber and silk.
• Fully synthetic polymers include: Nylon, Polyester, Rayon, Polyethylene,
Polystyrene, Teflon, Epoxy resins, and Silicone.
Q86.
Answer: d
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Explanation:
• Isotopes are defined as the atoms of the same element, having the same atomic
number but different mass numbers. Many elements consist of a mixture of isotopes.
Each isotope of an element is a pure substance. The chemical properties of isotopes
are similar but their physical properties are different. Since the chemical properties of
all the isotopes of an element are the same, normally we are not concerned about
taking a mixture. But some isotopes have special properties which find them useful in
various fields. Some of them are:
o An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors. So, point 1 is
correct.
o An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer. So, point 2 is correct.
o An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre. So, point 3 is correct.
o Multiple isotopes are vital to protecting the nation from physical threats. For
example, neutron detectors contain lithium-6, a scintillation material, to
detect the illegal transport of nuclear materials at airports, border crossings,
and ports. Similarly, nickel-63 offers an inexpensive method for airport
security officials to detect explosives as well as hazardous chemicals and
vapours. So, point 4 is correct.
Q87.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Different metals show different reactivities towards oxygen. Metals such as potassium
and sodium react so vigorously that they catch fire if kept in the open. Hence, to
protect them and to prevent accidental fires, they are kept immersed in kerosene oil.
• Potassium and sodium are electrolytes that help your body maintain fluid and blood
volume so it can function normally. However, consuming too little potassium and too
much sodium can raise your blood pressure. Though the words “salt” and “sodium”
are often used interchangeably, they do not mean the same thing.
Q88.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• At ordinary temperatures, the surfaces of metals such as magnesium, aluminium, zinc,
lead, etc., are covered with a thin layer of oxide. The protective oxide layer prevents
the metal from further oxidation. Iron does not burn on heating but iron filings burn
vigorously when sprinkled in the flame of the burner. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Copper does not burn, but the hot metal is coated with a black-coloured layer of
copper oxide. On heating, it forms a black solid. Slowly forms a surface oxide at room
temperature. It shows no reaction with both steam and water. So, statement 2 is
correct.
• Silver and gold do not react with oxygen even at high temperatures. So, statement 3
is not correct.
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Q89.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• A Nuclear Reactor works on the principle of nuclear fission process where atoms split
and release energy. Reactors use uranium for nuclear fuel. The uranium is processed
into small ceramic pellets and stacked together into sealed metal tubes called fuel
rods. So, statement 1 is correct.
• The neutrons unless slowed down will escape from the reactor without interacting
with the uranium nuclei unless a very large amount of fissionable material is used for
sustaining the chain reaction. This needs to be slowed down by elastic scattering with
light nuclei. Therefore, in reactors, light nuclei called moderators (and not
Controllers) are provided along with the fissionable nuclei for slowing down fast
neutrons. The moderators commonly used are water, heavy water (D2O) and
graphite. So, statement 2 is not correct.
• The reaction rate is controlled through control rods (and not moderators) made out
of neutron-absorbing material such as cadmium. Control rods can then be inserted
into the reactor core to reduce the reaction rate or withdrawn to increase it. In
addition, to control rods, reactors are provided with safety rods which, when required,
can be inserted into the reactor and K can be reduced rapidly to less than unity. So,
• Inside the reactor vessel, the fuel rods are immersed in water which acts as both a
coolant and moderator. The moderator helps slow down the neutrons produced by
fission to sustain the chain reaction. So, statement 4 is correct.
Q90.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Chemosynthesis is the synthesis of organic compounds by bacteria or other living
organisms using energy derived from reactions involving inorganic chemicals, typically
in the absence of sunlight. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Chemosynthetic organisms use the energy released by chemical reactions to make
sugars or food. Hydrogen sulphide is abundant in the extremely hot water erupting
from hydrothermal vents. Hydrothermal vent bacteria oxidize hydrogen sulphide
(H2S), add carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2) and produce sugar (CH2O), sulphur
(S), and water (H2O). So, statement 2 is correct.
• Organisms or living things that carry out this chemosynthesis process are those that
do not have chlorophyll. For example, nitrifying bacteria such as Nitrosomonas,
Nitrobacter and iron bacteria such as cladotrix. So, statement 3 is correct.
Q91.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Beryllium is used in the manufacture of alloys. Copper-beryllium alloys are used in the
preparation of high-strength springs. Metallic beryllium is used for making windows
of X-ray tubes. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
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• Magnesium forms alloys with aluminium, zinc, manganese and tin. Magnesium-
aluminium alloys being light in mass are used in aircraft construction. Magnesium
(powder and ribbon) is used in flash powders and bulbs, incendiary bombs and signals.
• Calcium and barium metals, owing to their reactivity with oxygen and nitrogen at
elevated temperatures, have often been used to remove air from vacuum tubes. The
most important use of elemental barium is as a scavenger removing the last traces of
oxygen and other gases in television and other electronic tubes. So, pair 3 is correctly
matched.
• Radium salts are used in radiotherapy, for example, in the treatment of cancer. So,
pair 4 is correctly matched.
Q92.
Answer: a
Explanation:
• Fullerene is an allotrope of Carbon. They are made by the heating of graphite in an
electric arc in the presence of inert gases such as helium or argon. Fullerenes are the
only pure form of carbon because they have smooth structure without having
‘dangling’ bonds. Fullerenes are cage like molecules. Carbon 60 (C60) molecule has a
shape like soccer ball and called Buckminsterfullerene. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Fullerene and its derivatives have potential antiviral activity and are of great
significance for the treatment of HIV infection. The antiviral activity of fullerene
derivatives is based on a variety of biological properties, including their unique
molecular structure and antioxidant activity. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Beijing National Laboratory for Molecular Sciences, Chinese Academy of Sciences, and
colleagues have synthesized 2D polymeric fullerene (C60), i.e., a two-dimensional
material with covalent bonds between buckyballs. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Q93.
Answer: a
Explanations:
• Electroplating is the process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another
material by means of electricity. It is one of the most common applications of the
chemical effects of electric current. It is widely used in industries for coating metal
objects with a thin layer of a different metal. The layer of metal deposited has some
desired properties, which the metal of the object lacks. So, statement 1 is correct.
• Electrolysis is the process that uses electric current to run a non-spontaneous
chemical reaction. It is commonly used to recover useful resources from waste
materials. So, statement 2 is correct.
• Both electrolysis and electroplating processes use direct current because a
unidirectional chemical reaction and an electrochemical deposition will not be
possible with alternating current. So, statement 3 is not correct.
• Both electrolysis and electroplating processes involve an electrolyte. In the case of
electroplating, the coating metal solution is the electrolyte. So, statement 4 is not
correct.
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Knowledge Box
• Uses of electroplating:
o Jewellery (Gold and Silver coatings)
o Kitchenware coating (prolonged endurance and aesthetics)
o Mobile Phones and its parts coating (prevent corrosion and any
possible chemical-reaction)
o Vehicle parts and wheel rims coating (sustained performance and
endurance)
o Building and Bridges coating (to avoid wear and tear from rain, sun, wind
and storm)
• Uses of electrolysis:
o Metal extraction from its ores and metal refining
o Industrial production of chemicals
o Electroplating
o Electro-Typing to form metal parts
o Electro-forming or Electro-deposition process
o Electro-cleaning of metal surfaces
Q94.
Answer: d
Explanation:
• Isomerism is the phenomenon in which more than one compound has the same
chemical formula but different chemical structures. They have the same number of
the same kinds of atoms but differ in chemical and physical properties due to
different chemical structures, which is the arrangement of the atoms in the molecule.
• Compounds that exhibit isomerism are known as isomers. The term was coined by the
Swedish chemist Jacob Berzelius in the year 1830.
• Uses and Importance:
o Air pollution chemistry, even slightly different structures can evoke dramatic
differences in chemical and physical properties
o Drug and pharmaceutical industries
o Food (Carbohydrate isomers)
o Nutrients (Vitamin C)
o Pleasant smell from Roses.
Q95.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Graphyne is an allotrope of Carbon. Carbon allotropes can be constructed in different
ways depending on how hybrids of carbons and their corresponding bonds are
utilised. The most well-known such allotropes include Graphite (used in pencil),
Diamonds, Fullerene and Graphene. So, statements 1 is correct.
• Graphyne is similar to graphene in that it is also a two-dimensional structure of
carbon. Unlike graphene, though, graphyne contains double and triple bonds and its
atoms do not always have a hexagonal arrangement. Graphene has a honeycomb
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structure formed of repeating hexagonal benzene rings. On the other hand, the
structure of graphyne is one atom thick planar sheet of sp and sp2 bonded carbon
atoms and arranged in a crystal lattice or crystal structure. So, statement 2 is not
correct.
• It is speculated to have unique electrical, mechanical and optical properties. Graphene
conducts electrons exceptionally quickly, but does so in all directions, whereas
graphyne's conductivity is expected to be able to be controlled to go only in the
direction desired.
• Its properties are promising for several applications, such as nano fillers for
composite materials, transistors, sensors, semiconductor metal hybrids, anisotropic
conductors and desalinators. So, statement 3 is correct.
Relevance: Scientists have successfully synthesized graphyne, which has been theorized for
decades but never successfully produced.
Q96.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• Nitrous Oxide, sometimes called “laughing gas” is a safe and effective sedative agent.
It is mixed with oxygen and inhaled through a small mask that fits over your nose to
help you relax. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• The mixture of Carbon Monoxide (CO) and Hydrogen (H2) is called water gas. As this
mixture of CO and H2 is used for the synthesis of methanol and a number of
hydrocarbons, it is also called synthesis gas or 'syngas'. Nowadays 'syngas' is produced
from sewage, saw-dust, scrap wood, newspapers etc. The process of producing
'syngas' from coal is called 'coal gasification'. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
• Riot control agents (sometimes referred to as “tear gas”) are chemical compounds
that temporarily make people unable to function by causing irritation to the eyes,
mouth, throat, lungs, and skin. Several different compounds are considered to be riot
control agents. The most common compound is known as Chloroacetophenone (CN).
• Aqua regia (Latin for "Royal Water") is a solution of Nitrohydrochloric Acid. The
traditional solution is a 3:1 mixture of Hydrochloric Acid and Nitric Acid,
respectively. It is commonly used to remove noble metals such as gold, platinum and
palladium from substrates. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
So, only two pairs are correctly matched.
Q97.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Ethylene glycol is a synthetic liquid substance that absorbs water. It is odorless but has
a sweet taste. Ethylene glycol is used to make antifreeze and de-icing solutions for
cars, airplanes, and boats. At high altitudes, the temperature is low. So, to prevent
the freezing of fuel, Ethylene Glycol is added.
• It is also used in hydraulic brake fluids and inks used in stamp pads, ballpoint pens,
and print shops.
t.me/cse_updates
Q98.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• The polymers are classified into four sub-groups on the basis of the magnitude of
intermolecular forces present in them. These subgroups include - 1) Elastomers 2)
Fibres 3) Thermoplastic polymers 4) Thermosetting polymers.
• In elastomeric polymers, the polymer chains are held together by the weakest
intermolecular forces.
• Fibers are thread-forming solids that possess high tensile strength and high modulus.
These characteristics can be attributed to strong intermolecular forces like hydrogen
bonding.
• Thermoplastic and Thermosetting polymers possess intermolecular forces of
attraction intermediate between elastomers and fibers. Some common
thermoplastics are polyethylene, polystyrene, polyvinyl, etc.
• Thus, the correct decreasing order in terms of intermolecular force is Fibres–>
Thermoplastic polymers–> Elastomers.
Q99.
Answer: c
Explanation:
• Lime, in the form of either quicklime or hydrated lime used as a drying agent. It dries
up wet soil quickly. Quicklime has a somewhat greater drying capacity and dries more
rapidly than hydrated lime. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Bleaching powder is nothing but a compound of Lime and Chlorine. The quantity of
Bleaching powder required for disinfection depends on the quantity of water. So, pair
2 is correctly matched.
• Calcium Carbide (CaC2) is the most commonly used chemical for artificial ripening. It
is popularly known as “Masala.” So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
• The maintenance of bone mass and tooth strength are influenced by environmental
factors such as physical activity and nutrition. Among micronutrients, Calcium (Ca)
and Phosphate (P) are the two main constituents to strengthen bone and tooth. So,
pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only three pairs are correctly matched.
Q100.
Answer: b
Explanation:
• Muscle fatigue occurs due to the accumulation of lactic acid. When the supply of
oxygen is less and the requirement of energy is high in the body then a high amount
of lactic acid is formed. So, statement 1 is not correct.
• Boric Acid is a weakly acidic hydrate of boric oxide with mild antiseptic, antifungal,
and antiviral properties. It is used in the treatment of yeast infections and cold sores.
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• Vinegar is a combination of Acetic Acid and water. It also contains trace vitamins,
mineral salts, and amino acids. Today, vinegar is often touted as an all-purpose
treatment for everything from minor ailments to chronic diseases. So, statement 3 is
not correct.
• The three most common acids in soft drinks are Citric, Carbonic and Phosphoric Acids.
Soft-drink makers often add Phosphoric Acid to colas to produce a sharp flavor and to
slow the growth of mold and bacteria. Most of the acidity in colas comes from
Phosphoric Acid. So, statement 4 is correct.
t.me/cse_updates

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

(Time Allowed: 2 hours) (Maximum Marks: 200)

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

8. Which of the following are the applications of 5. Carbon

(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are

30. Consider the following statements: 2. It exhibits diamagnetism where a substance

2. Newton’s : It is easier to 49. Consider the following statements with

57. During fermentation, the volume of Idli batter

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

How many pairs given above is/are correctly

100. Consider the following statements:

PowerUP Prelims GS Test – 08 (V4338) - Answer Key

components of atomic clocks are regulated by the frequency of the microwave

• An important advantage of AC over DC is that electric power can be transmitted over

o Used as a side-view mirror on the passenger’s side of a car because it forms

o The shock waves produced by a supersonic aircraft have enough energy to

semiconductors have the ability to act either as a conductor or an insulator.

could be prevented. It is based on the principle of magnetic confinement of plasma.

• Space internet is a wireless communication to bring internet traffic to a consumer's

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

• At constant temperature, the pressure of a fixed amount (i.e., number of moles n) of

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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