INSTA SUBJECT TEST -23 2023[www.upscmaterial.online]

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Test-23 (Subject)
( Insta Prelims Test Series 2023 ) Total Marks : 200.00
1. Consider the following statements regarding Centre -State relations

1. A law applicable to property of Indian citizens can be enacted by the Parliament only.
2. No State legislature can amend a parliamentary law on a state subject, that has been enacted
on request of two or more States.
3. A state law on a subject enumerated in the concurrent list, that was reserved for presidential
assent and has received the same, can not be overriden by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements regarding 74th Amendment Act of 1992

1. It provides for constitution of Nagar Panchayat for small urban areas in a state.
2. The manner of representation of members of both houses of parliament in a municipality is
decided by the State Election Commission .
3. It provides for formation of Ward committees within a municipality having population of at least
three lakhs.
4. The provisions of the act is not applicable in scheduled areas of a state.

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Consider the following statements regarding Vice President of India

1. To be eligible for the office of Vice President, an individual should be qualified for election as a
member of the Rajya Sabha , but should not be a member of that House.
2. He can be removed from office by the president based on a resolution passed by the Rajya
Sabha by a simple majority.
3. In case of vacancy in the President’s office, the Vice president can act as the President for a
maximum period of six months.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 only
4. The President of India is elected by members of an electoral college; who among the
following are members of that college?
1. Elected members of legislative assemblies of States
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Test-23 (Subject)
2. Nominated members of Delhi legislative assembly

3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
4. Elected members of legislative councils
5. Elected member of legislative assembly of Puducherry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1, 3 and 5 only
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
5. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Protection of

Child Rights
1. It was set up under Commission for Protection of Child Rights act 2005.
2. It is mandated to ensure that child welfare programs and policies are in consonance with United
Nations Convention on the Rights of the child.
3. The Right to Information Act 2009 empowers the commission to file a writ petition directly in
the Supreme Court.
4. Children in Street Situations application has been launched by it under the Baal Swaraj portal.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
6. Consider the following statements

1. An individual is required to be a member of either House of the Parliament for being appointed
as a minister by the president
2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978 provided that the president may request the
Council of ministers to reconsider any advice provided by them.
3. The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act 1975 restricted powers of the court to enquire into any
advice tendered by the ministers to the president.

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 2 only
7. Consider the following statements regarding Appropriation Bill

1. It deals with withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India
2. It can be introduced in either House of the Parliament
3. The ‘vote on account’ for a financial year forms part of the Appropriation bill
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Test-23 (Subject)

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only

1. The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept any recommendation of the Rajya Sabha regarding a
Money bill, even if the bill is returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
2. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha cannot authorise the Parliament to create new All India
Services common to both centre and States.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Any of the executive functions of the centre can be entrusted to a state by the parliament only
on consent of the State governor.
2. Under provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, the constitution of India empowers only
the Parliament, to levy residuary taxes.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following statements regarding Veto power of the President
1. Suspensive veto of the president can be overridden by re-passage of a bill by an ordinary
majority in both Houses of the Parliament.
2. An Absolute veto can be utilised by the president only in case of private members' bills .
3. The Pocket veto system empowers the President to keep a Bill passed by the Parliament,
pending for an indefinite period of time.
4. The president cannot direct the governor to return a state money bill that was reserved for his
consideration.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
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Test-23 (Subject)
11. Regarding Pressure Groups, which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The origin of the term ‘pressure groups' can be traced back to the Russian revolution.
B. These groups do not involve in contesting elections.
C. They are involved in influencing implementation of various socio-economic policies by the
government through legal and legitimate methods.
D. Formation of pressure group in India is a fundamental right under article 19 of the
constitution.
12. Consider the following statements regarding Tenth Schedule of the Constitution
1. A nominated member of a House can avoid disqualification if he joins any political party within
six months from which he takes seat in that House.
2. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 provided that disqualification on grounds of defection does
not apply in case of split in the political party.
3. The presiding officer of a House can take up a defection case only when a resolution on the
same is passed by half of the members of the House and is submitted to him.
4. Decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification on grounds of defection cannot be
questioned in a court of law.

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 4 only
13. A Political party can be recognised as a national party if
A. It is recognised as a state party in at least ten states.

B. It wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha having the candidates elected from three states at
any general election.
C. It obtains 4% of valid votes in six or more States at a generally election to the Lok Sabha
or legislative assembly
D. It wins 4% of the seats in Lok Sabha from any state or states
14. The Constitutional One hundred and Fourth Amendment Act 2019 provided for
A. Discontinuation of special grants for Anglo- Indian educational institutions by the centre.
B. Lowering the standards of evaluation for reservation of seats for scheduled tribes in
matters of promotion to the public services in the states.
C. Discontinuation of the nomination based representation of Anglo- Indian community in the
Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
D. Continuation of nomination based representation of Anglo- Indian community in the state
legislative assembly for 10 years.
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Test-23 (Subject)
15. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Backward
Classes
1. It is a statutory body set up under National Commission for Backward Classes act 2018.
2. It was constituted under recommendations of the Kaka Kalekar Committee on backward classes.
3. The condition of service of members of the commission are notified by Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

1. Under the 44th Amendment Act 1978, a state government is not obliged to pay compensation
when it acquires property of a minority educational institution.
2. No state can claim jurisdiction over things of value under ocean water within territorial waters
of India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Returning Officer of a parliamentary constituency is nominated by the state government in
consultation with District Election Officer.
2. Presiding Officers are appointed by the Chief Electoral Officer of a state.
3. All nominations forwarded by electoral candidates are scrutinized by Returning Officer.

A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. The president can exercise his pardoning power based on guidelines laid down by the Supreme
Court of India and hence it is beyond judicial review.
2. An individual not having majority in the Lok Sabha cannot be appointed as prime minister.

A. 1 only
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Test-23 (Subject)
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. The Constitution empowers the governor to specify which tribe in a state shall be included in
the list of Scheduled Tribes.
2. A presidential notification is required for exclusion of a tribe from the list of STs of a state.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Immunity from criminal proceedings is available to the governor only during his term of office.
2. A 14 days’ advance notice is required to be given to the President to initiate civil proceedings
against him, during his term of office.
3. The Constitution empowers only the Parliament to discuss conduct of High Court judges.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
21. Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
1. He is elected by members of Rajya Sabha amongst themselves and is directly responsible to the
house.
2. Like the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Chairman also cannot vote in the first
instance.
3. He can be removed by a resolution passed by majority of all members of the House.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
22. Consider the following statements regarding Leader of Opposition

1. Leader of the largest opposition party having at least one-tenth seats of the total strength of a
house is recognised as the Leader of opposition.
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Test-23 (Subject)
2. It is a statutory office that is entitled to facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
23. Consider the following statements regarding Financial bills

1. Financial bill I can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only on recommendation of the President.
2. Financial bill II can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
3. In case of disagreement between two Houses of the Parliament, joint sitting can be held for
both Financial bills I and II.
4. Like Money bill, both Financial bills I and II cannot be returned by the president for
reconsideration of the Houses when either of them is presented to him for his assent.

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
24. The expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India includes
1. Expenditure of President’s office
2. Pension of High Court judges
3. Interest payments of the Government of India
4. Allowances of members of UPSC
5. Salary of Chief Justice of India

A. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. All of the above

1. Excess Grant can be voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year.
2. No demand for excess Grant can be submitted to the Parliament until it is approved by the
Public Accounts Committee.
3. The Public Accounts Committee consists of members from both houses of the Parliament
selected by principal of proportional representation.

A. 1 and 2 only
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B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
26. Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister of India
1. The President cannot remove the Prime Minister from his office as long as he enjoys majority
support in the Lok Sabha although the Prime Minister is to serve his office till pleasure of the
president.
2. The president can summon a session of the Parliament only on advise of the Prime minister.
3. Any matter related to administration of the affairs of the Union or proposals for legislation are
required to be communicated to the president by the Prime Minister.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. The Third judges case made it compulsory to appoint the seniormost judge of the supreme
court as the Chief Justice of India.
2. A retired High Court judge can act as a judge of the supreme court for a temporary period only
with previous consent of the president.
3. A judge of the high court can be appointed as an ad hoc judge of the supreme court only with
previous consent of the State governor.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
28. Regarding Departmental Standing Committees, which of the following statements is

correct?
A. All the committees work under the Lok Sabha following provisions of Rules Committee of
the Lok Sabha.
B. Members of these committees are elected from amongst members of the Lok Sabha.
C. The primary function of the committees is to consider matters of day-to-day
administration of concerned ministries under which they function.
D. The recommendations of the committees are not binding on the parliament.
29. Which of the following upholds independence of the Supreme Court in India?
1. Power of the Chief Justice of India to appoint officers of the supreme court without interference
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Test-23 (Subject)
from executive.
2. Although the allowances of a judge are determined by parliamentary law, but no such law can
adversely affect a judge during his tenure of office.
3. Parliament can neither extend nor curtail jurisdiction of the supreme court.
4. The conduct of a judge of Supreme Court can never be discussed in any house of the Parliament
except during impeachment process

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
30. Regarding Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, which of the following statements is
correct?
A. Areas inhabited by socio- economically backward aboriginals can be demarcated by the

governor in consultation with the President.
B. Tribes Advisory Councils are set up with representatives of scheduled tribes in the state
legislative assembly as members to advise on welfare and advancement of scheduled
tribes in the state.
C. The executive authority of state government or any law enacted by the state legislature
are not applicable to Scheduled Areas without permission of of the president .
D. Any regulation regarding transfer of land between members of schedule tribes in such
area can be made by the Parliament only.
31. The term Per incuriam applies when
A. A court judgement that has been pronounced without following statutory provision
B. A situation when the Chief Justice of India provides his opinion to the president regarding
appointment of judges of supreme court without consulting collegium and that opinion is
declared void.
C. When an electoral college for appointment of vice president is declared void due to
absence of adequate number of members.
D. A member of a political party does not follow the instructions given by the Whip
32. Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council

1. It was established as a constitutional body under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution in
pursuance of recommendations of Punchhi Commission.
2. The council is supposed to meet whenever dispute arises between two or more states and is
usually chaired by chief ministers of the states in dispute.
3. A Standing committee of the Council has been set up with Union Home minister as the chairman
for the purpose of processing of matters for consideration of the Council.
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Test-23 (Subject)

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 only

1. A petition for redressal of grievances can be presented to the Lok Sabha only with consent of
the Speaker.
2. A member can present a petition in any of the languages in the Eighth schedule of the
Constitution.
3. It is the duty of the Lok Sabha speaker to constitute Committee on Petitions annually consisting
of 15 members.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
34. District Good Governance Index, often seen in news, is prepared by
A. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

B. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
C. Department of Consumer Affairs
D. Department of Economic Affairs

1. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor when the state legislature is not in session has the
same force and effect as an act of the state legislature.
2. Reservation of a state bill for consideration of the president is a discretionary power of the
Governor provided by the Constitution.
3. A demand for a grant can be made in the state legislature only on recommendation of the
governor.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. According to Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha, a person elected to two seats in a House shall
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loose both his seats, unless he opts for one.

2. A person elected to both Houses of the Parliament loses his seat in the Rajya Sabha unless he
specifies his choice of House he wants to serve within ten days.
3. Any question of disqualification of a member according to provisions of Representation of
People Act 1951 is to be decided by presiding officer of the House, whose decision is final.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
37. Consider the following regarding state legislature

1. Money bills as well as ordinary bills can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly only.
2. An ordinary bill can be held by the Legislative Council for a maximum period of four months
after which the bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses.
3. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative Council is not authorised to make any recommendation
or return a money bill to the Legislative Assembly.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
38. The Original jurisdiction of High Courts extends to

1. Disputes involving the Centre and two or more States or between two States.
2. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
3. Disputes relating to election of members of both Houses of state legislature as well as the
Parliament
4. Any matter relating to contempt of court.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
39. Consider the following statements regarding Consultative jurisdiction of Supreme

Court
1. The supreme court is bound to provide its opinion to the president when the latter seeks opinion
regarding an issue related to any pre-Constitution treaty.
2. Any advice tendered by the supreme court to the President non binding in nature unless it is
related to Centre-state relations.
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Test-23 (Subject)
3. The Supreme Court has not utilised its consultative jurisdiction in any case, till now.

A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. District judges are appointed by the governor in consultation with state High Court.
2. A sessions judge possesses both original and appellate jurisdiction in case of criminal matters
within the state.
3. A Sessions judge can impose any sentence except capital punishment.
4. An appeal against judgements of district judge can be made to the state High Court.

A. 1 , 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

1. The Attorney General is allowed to continue his private legal practice but cannot join any
company or operation as a director without permission of Government of India.
2. A person eligible to be appointed as a judge of the supreme court can be appointed as the
advocate general of a state.

A. 1 only
B. 2only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
42. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Polity

1. A Private Member’s Resolution can be taken up on any day from Monday to Friday.
2. A Statutory resolution dealing with a provision in the constitution can be moved only by a
Minister.
3. All resolutions are required to be put to vote of the Parliament.

A. 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
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Test-23 (Subject)
43. The purpose of Closure motion is to
A. Curtail the debate on a matter before a House of the Parliament

B. Discuss the presidential address related to policies and programmes of the government
related to a particular year.
C. Draw attention of the members to a matter related to breach of parliamentary privileges
by a Minister.
D. To censure any particular policy or action of an individual Minister or a group of ministers.
44. With reference to the Family Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Family Courts Act of 1984, the setting up of these courts comes under the purview of
the Central government.
2. Cases under the Hindu Marriage Act relating to the Restitution of Conjugal Rights are tried
exclusively by the Family Courts.
3. The Family Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was passed to allow State governments to establish
family courts to settle the disputes related to family affairs.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
45. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission (EC) of India:
1. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the tenure of the ECs shall be subject to provisions
of any law made in that behalf by Parliament be made by the President.
2. The Justice Tarkunde Committee recommended that the ECs be appointed on the advice of a
Committee comprising the Prime Minister and Lok Sabha Opposition Leader.
3. As per Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the ‘subject to’ clause under Article 324 was introduced to prevent a
person who is likely to be under the thumb of the Executive.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
46. Which one of the following Organisations released the Rule of Law Index 2022?
A. Amnesty International
B. Oxfam International
C. The World Justice Project
D. The National Legal Services Authority of India
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Test-23 (Subject)
47. Consider the following statements regarding the Preventive Detentions:

1. The Supreme Court has held that preventive detention can only be used to counter ordinary law
and order situations.
2. It is an exceptional power of the State which affects the personal liberty of the individual.
3. Preventive detention must fall within the ambit of Article 21 and the statute in question.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following statements regarding the North Eastern Council:
1. It is the nodal agency for the social development of the North Eastern States excluding the state
of Tripura.
2. It includes the Chief Ministers of the Member States and three Members nominated by the
President.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
49. With reference to the Government of India Act of 1935, consider the following
statements:
1. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and replaced it with provincial autonomy.
2. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the
provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
3. It introduced bicameralism in all the provinces and provided separate electorates for women.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
50. Before the term ‘Socialist’ was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the
Constitution had a socialist content in the form of-
A. The Fundamental Rights

B. The Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Fundamental Duties
D. The Preamble
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Test-23 (Subject)
51. Consider the following statements regarding the Freedom of Assembly in India:
1. Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably without arms and this right can be exercised
only on the public land.
2. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, a magistrate can restrain an assembly if there is a risk of
disturbance of the public tranquillity.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
52. With reference to the writ of Habeas Corpus, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It protects individual liberty against arbitrary detention.
2. It can be issued against both public as well as private authorities.
3. It can be issued where the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
53. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliamentary system of government is responsible for the dictatorial tendencies of the
executive.
2. In the parliamentary system, the cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the
executive.
3. The parliamentary system is more conducive to administrative efficiency as compared to any
other system.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
54. Consider the following:

1. Single Constitution
2. Rigid Constitution
3. Independent Judiciary
Which of the above-mentioned features reflect(s) the federal features of the Indian
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Constitution?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
55. With reference to Centre’s control over state legislation, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The president enjoys absolute veto over the bills which are reserved by the Governor for the
consideration of the President.
2. Bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade can be introduced in the state legislature
only with the previous sanction of the president.
3. The Centre can direct the states to reserve the financial bills except the money bills during any
form of emergency.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. As per Article 352 of Indian Constitution, the President can declare a national emergency when
the security of India is threatened by an armed rebellion.
2. The President of India can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of
war.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Substantive Motion is an independent proposal that only deals with the impeachment of the
President.
2. The Substitution Motion proposes an alternative to the original motion but if adopted by the
House it supersedes the original motion.
3. The Substitution Motion by itself has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the House
without reference to the original motion.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
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Test-23 (Subject)
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 only
58. Consider the following statement:

It is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the
appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be
insufficient for that year.
Which one of the following Grants is best described in the statement given above?
A. Excess Grant
B. Supplementary Grant
C. Vote of Credit
D. Token Grant
59. Consider the following statements regarding Child Welfare Committee

1. These are set up under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) act 2015.
2. The Central Government provides for formation of such a committee for every state.
3. It is a four member committee with two members being eminent personalities associated with
protection of child rights.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only

1. The governor is not obliged follow advice of his Council of Ministers while performing the duties
as an administrator of an Union Territory.
2. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the State list for Union territories with
legislative assemblies.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory authority under Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension.
2. Aadhaar authentication is mandatory for availing benefits that are financed from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Aadhaar Mitra portal has been launched by UIDAI to track fraud cases associated with
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Test-23 (Subject)
Aadhar enrollment.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. The Official Language Act 1963 made it compulsory to use English for notices and licences
issued by the central government.
2. All proceedings in a High Court should be done in English only.
3. A state High Court can use official language of the state for decrees and orders only with prior
permission of the Parliament.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only
63. Consider the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal

1. It is a statutory authority under the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
2. The members are appointed by the president for a period of 5 years.
3. It does not have jurisdiction over members of defence forces.
4. Appeals against the order of CAT cannot be made directly to the supreme court.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
64. Consider the following statements regarding Transfer of High Court judges
1. The Constitution empowers the Chief Justice of India to initiate transfer of a High Court judge
after consulting governor of the respective state.
2. The Chief justices of both the high courts from where the transfer is being made and where the
transfer is being made should be consulted before such transfer.
3. It is beyond judicial review.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
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Test-23 (Subject)
D. 1 only

1. The right of the Parliament to publish its precedings is a privilege provided by the constitution.
2. No member of the Parliament can be arrested for either civil or criminal cases before and after
one week of a parliamentary session.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
66. With reference to the G20 ‘Group of Twenty’, consider the following statements:
1. The G20 Summit is held under the leadership of a rotating presidency focusing on broad
macroeconomic issues.
2. G20 comprises 20 countries which include, Australia, China and United States.
3. India’s G20 Presidency can represent an opportunity to globalise India’s LiFE initiative.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
67. Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD):
1. Members of OECD are typically democratic countries that support free-market economies.
2. The OECD maintains a blacklist of nations that are considered as uncooperative tax havens.
3. The Development Co-operation Report and the Global Competitiveness Report, both are
released by OECD.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
68. Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA):
1. In Iran, the IAEA has played a key role in enforcing the 2015 Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action
(JCPOA).
2. The IAEA is entrusted with the task of upholding the principles of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation
Treaty.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
3. India is not a signatory to the Non-Proliferation treaty but is a ‘designated Member’ of the IAEA.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
69. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the International Criminal
Police Organization?
1. It is also known as Interpol which is a network comprising 192 member nations, including India.
2. In each member nation, the National Central Bureau is the designated contact point for the
organisation.
3. It issues a ‘Red Notice’ to help locate missing persons or to help identify persons who are
unable to identify themselves.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
70. Consider the following statements regarding the Permanent Court of Arbitration
(PCA):
1. The organizational structure of PCA consists of Members of the Court who oversee its policies
and budgets.
2. Its Secretariat is known as the International Bureau headed by Secretary-General.
3. It maintains experts in connection with its specialized rules of procedure for environmental and
outer space disputes.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
71. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(SCO):
1. It was founded by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan.
2. It is mainly aimed at military cooperation between the members and involves counter-terrorism
operations in Central Asia.
3. India and Pakistan signed the memoranda for becoming a permanent member of the SCO in
2016.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
72. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the North Atlantic Treaty
Organisation, or NATO?
1. It was set up by the several western European nations to ensure their collective security against
the Soviet Union.
2. It was the United States’s first peacetime military alliance outside the western hemisphere.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
73. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB)?
1. It is a regional initiative and therefore challenges the existence of the New Development Bank
set up by the BRICS nations.
2. The voting shares are based on the size of each member country’s economy and not
contribution to the Bank’s authorised capital.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
74. Consider the following statements regarding the terms “TRAFFIC” and “CITES”:
1. Both are international agreements among the governments and control the international trade
in wild animals and plants.
2. Both were drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of
IUCN/The World Conservation Union.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
.
Test-23 (Subject)
75. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the International Court of
Justice (ICJ)?
A. The court is the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice

B. It is the only one of the six principal organs of the United States that is not located in New
York.
C. All members of the UN are automatically parties to the ICJ statute which automatically
gives ICJ the jurisdiction over disputes involving them.
D. The judgment of the ICJ is final and technically binding on the parties to a case.
76. With reference to Kalanamak Rice, consider the following statements:

1. It is saltwater-tolerant variety of paddy and is endemic to Sunderbans.
2. It is cultivated with aquaculture including two crops in one farmland.
3. It is protected under the Geographical Indication (GI) tag system.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
77. The species Deinococus radiodurans has been talked about in context of-
A. India’s first dragon blood-oozing tree found in Assam.

B. World’s toughest bacterium that can survive radiation exposures.
C. New cicada species belonging to the eastern Himalayas.
D. Newly discovered creature belonging to the family of Protecetids.
78. With reference to the Indian Telecommunication Bill, 2022, which one of the
statements given above is not correct?
A. The bill looks to repeal the Indian Telegraph Act enacted in 1885.
B. The Bill includes Over-the-top communication services under the definition of
telecommunication services.
C. The Bill obligates license holders to identify the users of its service through a verifiable
mode of identification.
D. The Bill empowers the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India to be an independent
regulator for the telecom sector.
79. The Mangarh Dham has been talked about in news because-
A. It has been declared as a national monument.

B. It has been declared as a heritage site by UNESCO.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
C. It has been declared as one of major Neolithic Sites in India.

D. It has been declared as a memorial of King Jaichand of Kannauj.
80. The World Energy Outlook Report, 2022 has been released by-
A. The International Energy Agency

B. The International Renewable Energy Agency
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)

1. India is the world’s third-biggest emitter of planet-warming gases.
2. The Just Energy Transition Partnership helps developing countries to reduce their reliance on
fossil fuels.
3. India was the first country to join the Just Energy Transition Partnership.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
82. Which one of the following nations engaged with India in Maritime Bilateral Exercise
‘Simbex’-2022?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Singapore
C. United States of America
D. United Arab Emirates
83. With reference to the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS), which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Only Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) can participate as sellers in TReDS.
2. Only a non-banking financial company permitted by the Reserve Bank of India can participate
as financier in TReDS.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
84. With reference to the Blue flag certification, consider the following statements:
.
Test-23 (Subject)
1. The Blue Flag is a tag given exclusively to environment-friendly beaches with hygienic facilities.
2. The accreditation is only given to sites that can manage visitors and host recreational activities.
3. The public must have access to Blue Flag certified places without being a client of a certain
hotel or club.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
85. With reference to the Peatlands, consider the following statements:

1. These are a class of wetlands which are ecosystems of scarce water.
2. Some of the peatlands are buried under frozen ground or permafrost.
3. They store twice as much carbon as all the world’s forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
86. The Pal-Dhadhav Massacre in Indian history is associated with-
A. Ahrar movement
B. Paika rebellion
C. Eki movement
D. Rampa Rebellion

The PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana-
1. Is a National Action Plan for skilling of marginalized persons.
2. Includes sanitation workers including the waste pickers.
3. Does not include persons belonging the de-notified tribes.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
88. The initiative ‘Wings India 2022’ has been recently talked about in context of-
A. A scholarship scheme for Polar Science and Cryosphere Research.

.
Test-23 (Subject)
B. Young Scientist Programme for School Children started by ISRO.

C. An event with a theme ‘India@75: New Horizon for Aviation Industry’.
D. An air defence exercise between India and the BIMSTEC Nations.

1. The Bosporus and Dardanelles straits connect the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea through the
Sea of Marmara.
2. The Montreux Convention allows both Turkey and Greece to have control over the Bosporus
strait and Dardanelles straits respectively.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
90. With reference to the One Health Approach, consider the statements:
1. It is an initiative of Food and Agriculture Organization coming under the ambit of Minimata
Convention.
2. The areas of work in this approach is particularly relevant in combatting antibiotic resistance.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
91. Consider the following statements regarding Raising and Accelerating MSME
Performance (RAMP) Scheme:
1. It is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme supporting COVID resilience and recovery
interventions.
2. It aims at improving access to market and credit and strengthening governance at both the
centre and state level.
3. It works as policy provider but lacks the technology provision which hinders the technological
transformation of MSMEs.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
92. The recently launched ‘FASTER’ seen in news is-
.
Test-23 (Subject)
A. The first web portal of a neobank in India with fast banking services.
B. A digital platform to communicate interim orders of the Supreme Court.
C. An industry-led initiative for digital processing of passengers at airports.
D. A small satellite project envisaged to provide platform for stand-alone payloads for earth
imaging.
93. Which of the following country in Asia has recently proposed the Global Security
Initiative?
A. Japan
B. India
C. Russia
D. China
94. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Standing Deposit Facility
(SDF)?
1. The main purpose of SDF is to reduce the excess liquidity in the system but has no role in the
control of inflation.
2. The SDF strengthens the operating framework of monetary policy by removing the binding
collateral constraint on the RBI.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
95. The Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) scheme recently mentioned in news is associated
with-
A. The Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) scheme recently mentioned in news is associated with-
B. The Coral Reefs Conservation Programme
C. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
D. Arth Ganga’ Project focussing on economic activities in Ganga.
96. The Kuno National Park that recently welcomed the Namibian Cheetahs is located in-
A. Western edge of the Deccan tableland.

B. Western edge of the Deccan tableland.
C. Satpura Range of central India.
D. Southernmost end of Eastern Ghats
97. With reference to the hybrid securities, consider the following statements:
.
Test-23 (Subject)
1. These are single financial securities that can combine both debt and equity characteristics.
2. These securities give investors only a fixed rate of return and pay returns as interest or as
dividends.
3. The most common type of hybrid security is a convertible bond that has features of an ordinary
bond but is heavily influenced by the price movements of the stock.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
98. The CAPSTONE (Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System Technology Operations and
Navigation Experiment) Mission is developed by-
A. The European Space Agency

B. The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
C. The Indian Space Research Organisation
D. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
99. With reference to REN21, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. REN21 creates an enabling environment to support renewables and is the only global renewable
energy community of members of governments, NGOs and industry.
2. REN21 was created in 2004 as an outcome of the Bonn 2004 International Conference on
Renewable Energy.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
100. The process of ‘Nixtamalization’ was recently mentioned in news in context of-
A. Cryopreservation Technique
B. Coral Restoration Technique
C. Water Desalination technique
D. Food Fortification Technique
.
Total Marks : 200.00
Test-23 (Subject)
( Insta Prelims Test Series 2023 )
1. Consider the following statements regarding Centre -State relations

1. A law applicable to property of Indian citizens can be enacted by the Parliament only.
2. No State legislature can amend a parliamentary law on a state subject, that has been enacted
on request of two or more States.
3. A state law on a subject enumerated in the concurrent list, that was reserved for presidential
assent and has received the same, can not be overriden by the Parliament.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The constitution provides that the Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of
the territory of India
The territory of India includes the States, union territories and any other area for the time
being included in the territory of India
The Parliament alone can make extra territorial legislation
Thus the laws of the Parliament are also applicable to Indian citizens and their
property in any part of the world.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The constitution provides for situations when the parliament can make law on any matter
enumerated in the state list.
When legislatures of two or more States pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to
enact laws on a matter in the state list, then the Parliament can make law on that matter
A law, so enacted, applies only to those States which have passed the resolution.
Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by
legislatures of the concerned States.
In case of conflict between the central law and State Law on a subject enumerated in the
concurrent list the central law prevails over the State Law.
But there is an exception ;
if the state law has been reserved for consideration of the president and has received his
assent, then the State Law prevails in that state.
But It would still be competent for the parliament to override such a law by subsequently
making a law on the same matter.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
2. Consider the following statements regarding 74th Amendment Act of 1992

1. It provides for constitution of Nagar Panchayat for small urban areas in a state.
2. The manner of representation of members of both houses of parliament in a municipality is
decided by the State Election Commission .
3. It provides for formation of Ward committees within a municipality having population of at least
three lakhs.
4. The provisions of the act is not applicable in scheduled areas of a state.

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added part IXA to the constitution entitled the Municipalities;
it deals with articles 243P to 243ZG. The act provides for constitution of three types of
municipalities in every state :
Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area that is an area in transition from a rural to an
urban area
Municipal Council for smaller urban area
Municipal Corporation for larger urban area.
The act provides that the state legislature will provide for representation of members of
Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly representing constituencies that comprise
wholly or partly the municipal area
Members of Rajya Sabha and state legislative council registered as electors within the
municipal area.
The act provides for constitution of a wards committee consisting of one or more wards
within the territorial area of a municipality having population of 3 lakh or more.
The state legislature may make provisions with respect to composition and territorial area
of a ward committee and the manner in which seats in such a committee shall be filled.
The Act does not apply to the scheduled areas and tribal areas in the states.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
3. Consider the following statements regarding Vice President of India

1. To be eligible for the office of Vice President, an individual should be qualified for election as a
member of the Rajya Sabha , but should not be a member of that House.
2. He can be removed from office by the president based on a resolution passed by the Rajya
Sabha by a simple majority.
3. In case of vacancy in the President’s office, the Vice president can act as the President for a
maximum period of six months.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : B
To be eligible for election as vice president a member should fulfill satin criteria
He should be a citizen of India aged 35 years or above

He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha
He should not hold any office of profit
He should not be a member of either House of the Parliament or state legislature
For the purpose of removal of the Vice President, a formal impeachment is not required
he can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority ( a
majority of the total members of the house ) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
but such a resolution can be moved after giving a 14 days’ advance notice to the Vice
President.
The Vice President acts as the president when a vacancy occurs in the office of the
President due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise
He can act as the President only for a maximum period of 6 months within which a new
president has to be elected.
4. The President of India is elected by members of an electoral college; who among the
following are members of that college?
.
Test-23 (Subject)
1. Elected members of legislative assemblies of States

2. Nominated members of Delhi legislative assembly
3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha
4. Elected members of legislative councils
5. Elected member of legislative assembly of Puducherry.

A. 1, 3 and 5 only
B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Articles 52 to 78 in part V of the constitution deal with the union executive. The president is
elected not directly by the people but by members of an electoral college consisting of
Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament

Elected members of legislative assemblies of the states
Elected members of legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and
Puducherry
Hence options 1, 3 and 5 are correct.
The members who do not take part in presidential election include
Nominated members of both Houses of the Parliament

Nominated members of state legislative assemblies
Both elected and nominated members of state legislative councils in case of a bicameral
legislature
Nominated members of legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry
Hence options 2 and 4 are incorrect.
5. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Protection of

Child Rights
1. It was set up under Commission for Protection of Child Rights act 2005.
2. It is mandated to ensure that child welfare programs and policies are in consonance with United
Nations Convention on the Rights of the child.
3. The Right to Information Act 2009 empowers the commission to file a writ petition directly in
the Supreme Court.
4. Children in Street Situations application has been launched by it under the Baal Swaraj portal.
.
Test-23 (Subject)

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : D
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights is a statutory body that
was set up in 2007 under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights act
2005
It works under the administrative control of Ministry of Women and Child Development.
The commission’s mandate is to ensure that all policies laws, programs and
administrative mechanisms are in line with the child rights perspective as enshrined in
the Constitution of India as well as United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child.
Under the Right to Information Act 2009, the commission can
Inquire into complaints about violation of the law

Summon an individual and demand evidence
Seek a majesticidal enquiry
file a writ petition in the High Court or Supreme Court
approach the concerned government for prosecution of the offender
recommend interim relief for the affected
The NCPCR has launched Children in Street Situations application under its Baal
Swaraj portal to help in the rehabilitation process of such children.
Bal Swaraj is a portal launched by the commission for online tracking and digital real time
monitoring mechanism of children in need of care and protection.

1. An individual is required to be a member of either House of the Parliament for being appointed
as a minister by the president
2. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978 provided that the president may request the
Council of ministers to reconsider any advice provided by them.
3. The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act 1975 restricted powers of the court to enquire into any
.
Test-23 (Subject)
advice tendered by the ministers to the president.

A. 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Usually members of the Parliament (either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) are appointed as
ministers
a person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can also be appointed as
a minister but he has to become a member of either House either by Election or
nomination within 6 months otherwise he ceases to be a minister.
Article 74 provides for a Council of ministers with the prime minister at the head to aid
and advise the president in exercise of his functions
the 44th Constitutional Amendment act 1978 provided that the president may require the
Council of ministers to reconsider such advice and the president shall act in accordance
with the advise tendered after such reconsideration.
The nature of the advice provided by the Council of ministers to the president cannot be
enquired by any Court
The 42nd amendment act 1976 amended article 74 of the constitution to provide that the
president, in the exercise of his functions, shall act in accordance with the advice
tendered by the Council of ministers.
7. Consider the following statements regarding Appropriation Bill

1. It deals with withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India
2. It can be introduced in either House of the Parliament
3. The ‘vote on account’ for a financial year forms part of the Appropriation bill

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Correct Answer : C
The constitution provides that no money can be withdrawn from the consolidated fund of
India except under appropriation made by law
Accordingly, an appropriation bill is introduced for withdrawal of money out of
consolidated fund of India.
The bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha

After discussions on the budget proposals and voting on demand for grants, the
government introduces appropriation bill in the Lok Sabha
it is intended to give authority to the government to withdraw money from the
consolidated fund.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect
No money can be withdrawn until appropriation act is passed by the government

This takes time but the government requires money to carry on normal activities
to overcome this functional difficulty, the constitution has authorised the Lok Sabha to
make any grant in advance with respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the
financial year pending the completion of voting of demand for grants and enactment of
the appropriation bill
this provision is known as Vote on account
it is passed after general discussion on budget is over
it is generally granted for 2 months for an amount equivalent to 1/6th of the total
estimation.

1. The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept any recommendation of the Rajya Sabha regarding a
Money bill, even if the bill is returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
2. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha cannot authorise the Parliament to create new All India
Services common to both centre and States.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Regarding a Money bill, the Rajya Sabha has restricted powers :
It can neither reject nor amend a money bill, but can make recommendations only.
It must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days with or without
recommendations.
If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendation, the bill is said to have been passed by
both Houses in the modified form.
If the Lok Sabha does not accept any of the recommendations, the bill is said to have
been passed in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha without any change.
If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, the
bill is said to have been passed by both Houses in the original form passed by
the Lok Sabha.
Due to its federal character the Rajya Sabha has been given two exclusive or Special
powers that are not enjoyed by the Lok Sabha :
It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the state list
(article 249)
It can authorise the Parliament to create new all India services common to both centre
and States (article 312)

1. Any of the executive functions of the centre can be entrusted to a state by the parliament only
on consent of the State governor.
2. Under provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, the constitution of India empowers only
the Parliament, to levy residuary taxes.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
The constitution provides for intergovernment delegation of executive functions in order
to mitigate rigidity and avoid a situation of deadlock.
The president, with consent of the state Government, can entrust any of the
.
Test-23 (Subject)
executive functions of the centre to that government

The constitution also provides for entrustment of executive functions of the
centre to a state without consent of the state; but in this Case, the delegation is
to be done by the Parliament and not by the president.
The Government of India Act 1935 provided for three fold enumeration viz., Federal,
provincial and concurrent
the present constitution of India follows the scheme of the act but with one difference;
under this act, the residuary powers were given neither to the federal
legislature nor to the provincial legislatures but to the governor General of
India
On the other hand, the constitution empowers only the Parliament to levy residuary taxes.
Hence in this respect, India follows the Canadian precedent.
10. Consider the following statements regarding Veto power of the President
1. Suspensive veto of the president can be overridden by re-passage of a bill by an ordinary
majority in both Houses of the Parliament.
2. An Absolute veto can be utilised by the president only in case of private members' bills .
3. The Pocket veto system empowers the President to keep a Bill passed by the Parliament,
pending for an indefinite period of time.
4. The president cannot direct the governor to return a state money bill that was reserved for his
consideration.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : D
Suspensive veto power can be exercised by the president when he returns a bill for
reconsideration of the Parliament
But if the bill is again passed by the parliament, the president has to give his assent to
the bill.
The re- passage of the bill does not require a higher majority and can be passed
by the same ordinary majority.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
The Absolute veto power refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent to a
Bill passed by the Parliament.
such a bill then ends and does not become an act
it is exercised in the two cases viz., with respect to private members bills and with
respect to government bills when the cabinet resigns
In case of Pocket Veto, the president neither ratifies, nor rejects, nor returns
the bill but simply keeps the bill pending for an indefinite period
this power of the president not to take an action on a bill is known as pocket veto
he can exercise this veto power as the Constitution does not prescribe any time limit
within which he has to take decision with respect to a bill presented to him for his assent.
When a state Bill is reserved by the governor for consideration of the President, he has three
alternatives
He may give his assent to the bill

he may withhold his assent to the bill
he may direct the governor to return the bill
But the president cannot direct the governor to return a money bill.
11. Regarding Pressure Groups, which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The origin of the term ‘pressure groups' can be traced back to the Russian revolution.
B. These groups do not involve in contesting elections.
C. They are involved in influencing implementation of various socio-economic policies by the
government through legal and legitimate methods.
D. Formation of pressure group in India is a fundamental right under article 19 of the
constitution.
Correct Answer : A
The term pressure group originated in the USA.
It refers to a group of people who are organised actively for promoting and defending
their common interest.
They are also called interest groups or vested groups.
Hence statement a is incorrect.
The pressure groups are different from political parties in that they neither
.
Test-23 (Subject)
contest elections nor try to capture political power

they are concerned with specific programmes and issues
their activities are confined to the protection and promotion of the interest of their
members by influencing the government.
Hence statement b is correct.
The pressure groups involve policy making and policy implementation in the government
through legal and legitimate methods like correspondence, publicity, propaganda,
petitioning, public debates, maintaining contacts with their legislators, lobbing and so on
However, sometimes they also follow illegitimate and illegal methods likes strikes and
corruption which ultimately damages Public interest
Hence statement c is correct.
There is no explicit provision in the constitution of India regarding formation of pressure

groups.
Yet various pressure groups exist in India because of Article 19 of the
Constitution of India under which citizens have the right to form associations
and Unions.
Hence statement d is correct.
12. Consider the following statements regarding Tenth Schedule of the Constitution
1. A nominated member of a House can avoid disqualification if he joins any political party within
six months from which he takes seat in that House.
2. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 provided that disqualification on grounds of defection does
not apply in case of split in the political party.
3. The presiding officer of a House can take up a defection case only when a resolution on the
same is passed by half of the members of the House and is submitted to him.
4. Decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification on grounds of defection cannot be
questioned in a court of law.

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 provided for disqualification of members
of parliament and state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to
another ; it added the Tenth schedule in the constitution.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Under the Tenth schedule, a nominated member of a house becomes disqualified for
being a member of the house if he joins any political party after expiry of 6 months from
the date on which he takes his seat in the house.

st
91 Amendment Act of 2003 made a change in the provisions of the Tenth schedule
it omitted an exception provision i.e., disqualification on ground of defection does not
apply in case of split.
Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is decided by presiding

officer of a house
The presiding officer can take up a defection case only when he receives a complaint from
a member of the house
before taking a final decision, he must give the member (against whom the complaint has
been made), a chance to submit his explanation.
The matter can be referred to the committee of privileges for enquiry also.
Originally the decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification on grounds of

defection was final and cannot be questioned in a court
however in Kihoto Holohan case 1993, the supreme court declared this provision as
unconstitutional and held that it is subjected to judicial review.
13. A Political party can be recognised as a national party if
A. It is recognised as a state party in at least ten states.

B. It wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha having the candidates elected from three states at
any general election.
C. It obtains 4% of valid votes in six or more States at a generally election to the Lok Sabha
or legislative assembly
D. It wins 4% of the seats in Lok Sabha from any state or states
Correct Answer : B
The Election Commission of India registers political parties for the purpose of elections and
grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance.
A political party is recognised as a national party if any of the following conditions is fulfilled:
.
Test-23 (Subject)
It secures 6% of the valid votes polled in any four or more States at a generally election to
the Lok Sabha or to the legislative assembly and in addition, it wins 4 seats in the Lok
Sabha from any state or States.
it wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election and these candidates are
elected from three states
it is recognised as a state party in four or more states.
Hence option B is correct.
14. The Constitutional One hundred and Fourth Amendment Act 2019 provided for
A. Discontinuation of special grants for Anglo- Indian educational institutions by the centre.
B. Lowering the standards of evaluation for reservation of seats for scheduled tribes in
matters of promotion to the public services in the states.
C. Discontinuation of the nomination based representation of Anglo- Indian community in the
Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly.
D. Continuation of nomination based representation of Anglo- Indian community in the state
legislative assembly for 10 years.
Correct Answer : C
The Constitutional One hundred and Fourth Amendment Act 2019 removed the
nomination based representation of Anglo- Indian community in Lok Sabha and legislative
assembly in States.
However the act has extended the reservations for scheduled caste and scheduled Tribes
for up to 10 years.
The constitution has defined the persons who belong to the Anglo Indian community.
Accordingly, an Anglo Indian means ‘a person whose father or any of whose other male
progenitors in the male line is or was of European decent but who is domiciled within the
territory of India and is or was born within such territory or parents habitually resident
there in and not established there for temporary purposes only’ .
Originally the president was to nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to
the Lok Sabha if the community was not adequately represented in the House.
Similarly the governor of a state could nominate one member of the community to the
state legislative assembly.
Hence statement C is correct
15. Consider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Backward
Classes
1. It is a statutory body set up under National Commission for Backward Classes act 2018.
2. It was constituted under recommendations of the Kaka Kalekar Committee on backward classes.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
3. The condition of service of members of the commission are notified by Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
The National Commission for Backward Classes was initially constituted by the
government by the National Commission for Backward Classes act 1993
the National Commission for Backward Classes act 1993 has been repealed through
National Commission for Backward Classes (repeal) act 2018.
The present Commission has been accorded constitutional status and has been
constituted through the Constitution 102nd amendment act 2018.
The constitution provides that the president may appoint a Commission to investigate
conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.
The first such Commission was set up by the president in 1953 under the
chairmanship of Kaka Kalekar
But none of its recommendations were considered by the government.
The commission consists of a chairperson, a vice chairperson and three other members
The condition of service and tenure of office of all the members has been
notified vide Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment notification of 2018.

1. Under the 44th Amendment Act 1978, a state government is not obliged to pay compensation
when it acquires property of a minority educational institution.
2. No state can claim jurisdiction over things of value under ocean water within territorial waters
of India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
.
Test-23 (Subject)
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
The Parliament and state legislatures are empowered to make laws for compulsory
acquisition and requisitioning of private property by the government.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the constitutional obligation of
paying compensation in this regard except when the government acquires the
property of a minority educational institution and when the government aquires the
land held by a person under his personal cultivation and the land is within the statutory
ceiling limit.
All lands, minerals and other things of value under the waters of the ocean and
within territorial waters of India the continental shelf of India and the exclusive
economic zone of India vests in the union.
Hence a state near the ocean cannot claim jurisdiction over these things.

1. Returning Officer of a parliamentary constituency is nominated by the state government in
consultation with District Election Officer.
2. Presiding Officers are appointed by the Chief Electoral Officer of a state.
3. All nominations forwarded by electoral candidates are scrutinized by Returning Officer.

A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
The Returning Officer of a parliamentary or assembly constituency is responsible for the
conduct of elections in the parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned
The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the government or
a local authority as Returning Officer in consultation with State government or Union
territory administration.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
The Presiding Officer with assistance of polling officers, conducts pole at a polling station
The presiding officer is appointed by the District Election Officer.
Candidates for election are given a week to forward their nominations

these nominations are scrutinised by Returning Officers and if found not to be in order,
can be rejected after a summary hearing
validly nominated candidates can withdraw within two days after nominations have been
scrutinized.

1. The president can exercise his pardoning power based on guidelines laid down by the Supreme
Court of India and hence it is beyond judicial review.
2. An individual not having majority in the Lok Sabha cannot be appointed as prime minister.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Article 72 of the constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to person who
have been tried and convicted of any offence
The president can examine his pardoning power on advise of the Union cabinet
He is not bound to give reasons for his order
Also, there is no need for the supreme court to lay down specific guidelines for
exercise of the pardoning power by the president
the this power of the president is not subject to judicial review except when the
Presidential decision is irrational, arbitrary or discriminatory.
In 1980 the Delhi high court ruled that the Constitution does not required that a
person must prove his majority in the Lok Sabha before he is appointed as the
prime minister of India.
The president may first appoint him the prime minister and then ask him to prove his
majority in the Lower House within a reasonable period.
.
Test-23 (Subject)

1. The Constitution empowers the governor to specify which tribe in a state shall be included in
the list of Scheduled Tribes.
2. A presidential notification is required for exclusion of a tribe from the list of STs of a state.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be known as SC or STs
it leaves to the president the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state
and union territory are to be treated as SC and ST.
Hence the list of SCs and STs vary from one state to another and one union territory to
another.
The president issues notification to that effect after consulting governor of a state
concerned.
Any inclusion or exclusion of any caste or tribe from presidential notification can be done
only by the parliament
A subsequent Presidential notification is not required for that purpose.

1. Immunity from criminal proceedings is available to the governor only during his term of office.
2. A 14 days’ advance notice is required to be given to the President to initiate civil proceedings
against him, during his term of office.
3. The Constitution empowers only the Parliament to discuss conduct of High Court judges.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
.
Test-23 (Subject)
No criminal proceedings can be started against the president and state governors in
respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned
However, this immunity is limited to the period of the term of their office only
and does not extend beyond that.
Civil proceedings can be started against President and the governor during their term of
office in respect of their personal acts.
But for both of them, a two months' advance notice should be given.
The constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament or in a state legislature, with

respect to the conduct of judges of a High Court in discharge of their duties except when
an impeachment motion is under consideration of the Parliament.
21. Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
1. He is elected by members of Rajya Sabha amongst themselves and is directly responsible to the
house.
2. Like the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Chairman also cannot vote in the first
instance.
3. He can be removed by a resolution passed by majority of all members of the House.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by the House itself from amongst its
members.
The Deputy chairman is not subordinate to the chairman
He is directly responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
Like the chairman the Deputy chairman while presiding over the house, cannot
vote in the first instance.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
He can only exercise a casting vote in case of a tie.

But when the chairman presides over the house, the Deputy Chairman is like any other
member and can vote on any question before the house.
Also when a resolution for his removal is under consideration of the House, he cannot
preside over a sitting of the house though he may be present.
The Deputy Chairman is removed from his office by a resolution passed by majority of all
members of the Rajya Sabha
such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days' advance notice
He can also resign by writing to the chairman.
22. Consider the following statements regarding Leader of Opposition

1. Leader of the largest opposition party having at least one-tenth seats of the total strength of a
house is recognised as the Leader of opposition.
2. It is a statutory office that is entitled to facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
In each house of the Parliament, there is a leader of opposition
the leader of the largest opposition party having not less than one-tenth of the seats of
total strength of the house is recognised as leader of opposition
in a parliamentary form of Government he has a significant role to play
he provides a constructive criticism to policies of the government.
It is a statutory position that is defined in the 1977 Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of
Opposition in Parliament Act.
They are also entitled to the salary, allowances and other facilities equivalent to
a cabinet minister.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
23. Consider the following statements regarding Financial bills

1. Financial bill I can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only on recommendation of the President.
2. Financial bill II can be introduced in either House of the Parliament.
3. In case of disagreement between two Houses of the Parliament, joint sitting can be held for
both Financial bills I and II.
4. Like Money bill, both Financial bills I and II cannot be returned by the president for
reconsideration of the Houses when either of them is presented to him for his assent.

A. 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : B
Financial bill I can be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha
It can be introduced only on recommendation of the president.
Financial bill to contents provisions involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of
India.
It can be introduced in either House of the Parliament without recommendation of the
president.
Both financial bills I and II is governed by the same legislative procedure applicable to an
ordinary bill (except introduction for Financial bill I).
In case of disagreement between two Houses over financial bill I or financial bill
II, the president can summon a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the
deadlock.
When a money bill is presented to the president, he can either give his assent to the bill
or withhold his assent but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of the houses
But in case of financial bills I and II, the president can either give his assent or withhold
his ascent or even return the bills for reconconsideration of the Houses of the Parliament.
24. The expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India includes
.
Test-23 (Subject)
1. Expenditure of President’s office

2. Pension of High Court judges
3. Interest payments of the Government of India
4. Allowances of members of UPSC
5. Salary of Chief Justice of India

A. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : D
The budget consists of two types of expenditure
The expenditure charged upon the consolidated fund of India and

Expenditure made from the consolidated fund of India
The Charged expenditure is non-votable by the Parliament that is it can only be discussed by
the parliament while the other type has to be voted. The list of charged expenditure includes :
Emoluments and allowances of the president and other expenditure relating to his office
Salaries and allowances of Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and speaker
and deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha
Salaries, allowances and pensions of Supreme Court judges
Pensions of judges of High Courts
Salary allowance and pension of controller and Auditor General of India
Salaries, allowances and pension of Chairman and members of UPSC
Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, CAG, UPSC including salaries and
pensions of persons serving in these offices
Debt charges for which the government of India is liable, including interest, sinking fund
charges and redemption charges and other expenditure relating to raising of loans and
the service and redemption of debt
Any sum required to satisfy any judgement or award of any Court or arbitrarl tribunal
Any other expenditure declared by the Parliament to be so charged.
Hence option D is correct.

1. Excess Grant can be voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year.
2. No demand for excess Grant can be submitted to the Parliament until it is approved by the
Public Accounts Committee.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
3. The Public Accounts Committee consists of members from both houses of the Parliament
selected by principal of proportional representation.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Excess grant is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial
year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year
it is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year.
Hence statement 1 is correct
Before demands for Excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must
be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
The Public Accounts Committee was set up first in 1921 under provisions of the
Government of India Act 1919.
at present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the
Rajya Sabha)
the members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its
members according to the principal of proportional representation by means of
single transferable vote
in this way, all parties get due representation in it.
26. Consider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister of India
1. The President cannot remove the Prime Minister from his office as long as he enjoys majority
support in the Lok Sabha although the Prime Minister is to serve his office till pleasure of the
president.
2. The president can summon a session of the Parliament only on advise of the Prime minister.
3. Any matter related to administration of the affairs of the Union or proposals for legislation are
required to be communicated to the president by the Prime Minister.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
.
Test-23 (Subject)
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Prime Minister of India holds office during pleasure of the president.
But this does not imply that he can be dismissed any time by the president.
So long as the prime minister has support of the majority of members in the Lok Sabha,
he cannot be dismissed by the president.
Prime minister is the leader of the Lower House; he enjoys certain powers in this capacity:
He advises the president with regard to summoning and proroguing of sessions

of the Parliament
He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to the president at any time
He announces government policies on the floor of the house.
it is the duty of the prime minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers
relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and any proposal for legislation to
the president
the Prime Minister is also required to furnish such information relating to administration of
the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for

1. The Third judges case made it compulsory to appoint the seniormost judge of the supreme
court as the Chief Justice of India.
2. A retired High Court judge can act as a judge of the supreme court for a temporary period only
with previous consent of the president.
3. A judge of the high court can be appointed as an ad hoc judge of the supreme court only with
previous consent of the State governor.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Correct Answer : C
From 1950 to 1973 the practice was to appoint senior most judge of the supreme court as
the Chief Justice of India
the supreme court in the Second judges case 1993, held that the senior most
judge of the supreme court should alone be appointed to the office of Chief
Justice of India.
At any time, the Chief Justice of India can request a retired judge of the supreme
court or High Court (who is qualified for appointment as a judge of the supreme
court) to act as a judge of the supreme court for a temporary period
This can only be done with prior consent of the president.
When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session
of the supreme court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court
as an ad hoc judge in the supreme court for a temporary period
he can do so only with consultation with the chief justice of the high court
concerned and previous consent of the president.
28. Regarding Departmental Standing Committees, which of the following statements is

correct?
A. All the committees work under the Lok Sabha following provisions of Rules Committee of
the Lok Sabha.
B. Members of these committees are elected from amongst members of the Lok Sabha.
C. The primary function of the committees is to consider matters of day-to-day
administration of concerned ministries under which they function.
D. The recommendations of the committees are not binding on the parliament.
Correct Answer : D
The Departmental Standing Committees were set up on recommendation of Rules
Committee of the Lok Sabha in 1993
At present, there are 24 such committees, out of which 16 work under Lok Sabha
and 8 under the Rajya Sabha.
Hence statement a is incorrect.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Each standing committee consists of 31 members out of which 21 are from Lok Sabha and
10 from the Rajya Sabha.
The members of the Lok Sabha are nominated by speaker from amongst the members
Similarly, members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the chairman from amongst the
members of the House.
Hence statement b is incorrect.
These committees are not allowed to consider matters of day to day administration of
concerned ministries or departments
they also generally do not consider the matters that are considered by other
parliamentary committees.
Hence statement c is incorrect.
The recommendations of these committees are advisory in nature

the parliament is not bound to accept them.
Hence statement d is correct.
29. Which of the following upholds independence of the Supreme Court in India?
1. Power of the Chief Justice of India to appoint officers of the supreme court without interference
from executive.
2. Although the allowances of a judge are determined by parliamentary law, but no such law can
adversely affect a judge during his tenure of office.
3. Parliament can neither extend nor curtail jurisdiction of the supreme court.
4. The conduct of a judge of Supreme Court can never be discussed in any house of the Parliament
except during impeachment process

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : C
The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the supreme court without
any interference from the executive
He can also prescribe their conditions of service.
the salaries, allowances and pensions of judges and the staff and administrative expenses
.
Test-23 (Subject)
of the supreme court are determined from time to time by the parliament.
They are charged on the consolidated fund in India
They are non-votable by the Parliament though can be discussed by it.
Such provisions shall not be varied to the disadvantage of a judge during his term of
office.
Parliament is not authorised to curtail jurisdiction and powers of the supreme court
the constitution has guaranteed to the supreme court jurisdiction of various kinds
however the Parliament can extend the same.
the constitution under Article 121 provides that the conduct of a judge of Supreme Court
or a High Court cannot be discussed in Parliament aur state legislature except upon a
motion for an address to the president for removal of the judge.
30. Regarding Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, which of the following statements is
correct?
A. Areas inhabited by socio- economically backward aboriginals can be demarcated by the

governor in consultation with the President.
B. Tribes Advisory Councils are set up with representatives of scheduled tribes in the state
legislative assembly as members to advise on welfare and advancement of scheduled
tribes in the state.
C. The executive authority of state government or any law enacted by the state legislature
are not applicable to Scheduled Areas without permission of of the president .
D. Any regulation regarding transfer of land between members of schedule tribes in such
area can be made by the Parliament only.
Correct Answer : B
the Scheduled areas in India are inhabited by aboriginals who are socially and
economically backward
special efforts are required to be made to improve their condition.
The president is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area under
the constitution.
He can also increase or decrease or alter boundary lines of such areas in consultation with
governor of the state concerned.
Hence statement a is incorrect
.
Test-23 (Subject)
A state having Scheduled Areas has to establish Tribes Advisory Council to advise on
welfare and advancement of Scheduled Tribes
The council consists of 20 members, three-fourths of whom are to be representatives of
scheduled tribes in the state legislative assembly
Hence statement b is correct.
the executive power of a state extends to schedule areas there in.

But the Governor has to submit a report to the president regarding administration of such
areas annually or whenever required by the president.
The Governor is empowered to direct that any particular act of the Parliament or state
legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or apply with specific modifications and
exceptions.
It is the duty of the State governor to make regulation for the peace and good
government of a scheduled area after consulting the tribes advisory Council
Such regulations may prohibit or restrict the transfer of Land by or among members of
the scheduled tribes, regulate the allotment of land to members of the scheduled tribes
and regulate the business of money lending in relation to the tribes.
Hence statement d is incorrect.
31. The term Per incuriam applies when
A. A court judgement that has been pronounced without following statutory provision
B. A situation when the Chief Justice of India provides his opinion to the president regarding
appointment of judges of supreme court without consulting collegium and that opinion is
declared void.
C. When an electoral college for appointment of vice president is declared void due to
absence of adequate number of members.
D. A member of a political party does not follow the instructions given by the Whip
Correct Answer : A
The term per incuriam literally means ‘through lack of care’.
A judgement can be declared per incuriam if it does not follow statutory
provision or a binding precedent that may have been relevant .
Such judgements can be declared to be without any legal force and are not
considered as a valid precedent.
The significance of a judgement having been decided per incuriam is that it does not then
have to be followed as precedent by a Lower court.
Usually in the common law the rationes of a judgement must be followed thereafter by
.
Test-23 (Subject)
lower courts while hearing similar cases.

But in case a judgement has been decided per incuriam a Lower court is allowed to depart
from such a judgement.
Hence statement A is correct.
32. Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council

1. It was established as a constitutional body under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution in
pursuance of recommendations of Punchhi Commission.
2. The council is supposed to meet whenever dispute arises between two or more states and is
usually chaired by chief ministers of the states in dispute.
3. A Standing committee of the Council has been set up with Union Home minister as the chairman
for the purpose of processing of matters for consideration of the Council.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : D
the establishment of a permanent Inter -State council under article 263 of the constitution
was recommended by Sarkaria Commission on centre state relations.
In pursuance of the recommendations, the Janata Dal government headed by VP Singh
established Inter -State council in 1990.
The Punchhi commission was set up by the government in 2007 to make
recommendations on centre-state relations.
The Inter-State Council works as an instrument for cooperation, coordination and

evolution on common policies.
It is supposed to meet thrice a year.
Prime Minister acts as the chairman of the Council.
The other members are chief ministers of all states, chief ministers of UTs having
legislative assemblies, administrators of UTs, Governors of states under president’s rule,
six central cabinet ministers.
A Standing committee of the Council was set up in 1996 for continuous consultation and
processing of matters for consideration of the Council. The committee consists of the following
members :
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Union Home minister as the chairman

Five Union cabinet ministers
Nine chief ministers

1. A petition for redressal of grievances can be presented to the Lok Sabha only with consent of
the Speaker.
2. A member can present a petition in any of the languages in the Eighth schedule of the
Constitution.
3. It is the duty of the Lok Sabha speaker to constitute Committee on Petitions annually consisting
of 15 members.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
Petitions for grievance ventilation and/or redressal may be presented to the Lok Sabha with
consent of the speaker –
On a bill that has been published or introduced in the house

any matter connected with business pending before the house
any matter of general public interest.
A petition should be presented in respectful language

every petition should be either in Hindi or in English
If any petition in any other language is made, it should be accompanied by a translation
either in Hindi or in English and signed by the petitioner.
Every petition after presentation by a member is referred to the committee on petitions.

The committee is nominated by the speaker and consists of 15 members
The chairperson of the committee is appointed by the speaker from amongst the
members of the committee
the quorum to constitute a sitting of the committee is 5
.
Test-23 (Subject)
the committee holds office in such time as new committee is constituted

however in practice it is generally constituted annually and its time is 1 year.
34. District Good Governance Index, often seen in news, is prepared by
A. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

B. Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances
C. Department of Consumer Affairs
D. Department of Economic Affairs
Correct Answer : B
The District Good Governance Index has been launched by Union Home minister for
Jammu and Kashmir
It is the first union territory to have such an index
The index has been prepared by the Department of Administrative Reforms and
Public Grivances in partnership with administration of the union territory
Under the index policies, schemes and programmes of the central as well as state
governments have been monitored at the district level
The index covered 10 sectors and 58 indicators
th
The 10 sectors are agriculture and allied sectors, Commerce and industry, human
resource development, Public health, civil infrastructure and facilities, Social welfare and
development, financial inclusion, justice and public security, environment and civil central
governance
Hence option B is correct.

1. An ordinance promulgated by the Governor when the state legislature is not in session has the
same force and effect as an act of the state legislature.
2. Reservation of a state bill for consideration of the president is a discretionary power of the
Governor provided by the Constitution.
3. A demand for a grant can be made in the state legislature only on recommendation of the
governor.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Correct Answer : D
the ordinance making power of the Governor is coextensive with legislative power of the
state legislature.
It means that he can issue ordinances only on those subjects on which the state
legislature can make laws
An ordinance issued by him has the same force and effect as an act of state
legislature.
the Governor has constitutional discretion regarding reservation of a bill for

consideration of the president.
The constitution makes it clear that if any question arises whether a matter is included
within governor’s discretion or not, decision of the Governor is final and the validity of
anything done by him cannot be called in question on ground that he ought or ought not
to have acted in his discretion.
The Governor has Constitutional discretion in the following cases-
reservation of bills for consideration of the president
recommendation for imposition of president’s rule in the state
while exercising his function as administrator of an adjoining UT
determining the amount payable by the government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram to an autonomous tribal district Council as royalty acquiring from licence for
mineral exploration
seeking information from the Chief Minister with regard to administrative and legislative
matters of the state.
The Governor possesses certain financial powers and functions.

He can make advances out of contingency fund of the state.
No demand for grant can be made except on his recommendation.
He is empowered to constitute a finance commission to review the financial position of
panchayats and municipalities.

1. According to Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha, a person elected to two seats in a House shall
loose both his seats, unless he opts for one.
2. A person elected to both Houses of the Parliament loses his seat in the Rajya Sabha unless he
specifies his choice of House he wants to serve within ten days.
3. Any question of disqualification of a member according to provisions of Representation of
People Act 1951 is to be decided by presiding officer of the House, whose decision is final.
.
Test-23 (Subject)

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : B
As per the Representation of People Act 1951, if a person gets elected to two seats
in a House of the Parliament, he should exercise his option for one, otherwise both the
seats become vacant.
As per Representation of People Act 1951, if a person is elected to both Houses

of the Parliament, he must state which House he desires to serve, within 10
days.
Otherwise, his seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant.
on the question whether a member is subject to any of the disqualifications

provided by the Representation of People Act 1951, is decided by the president
whose decision is final.
However, he should obtained opinion of the Election Commission and act accordingly.
37. Consider the following regarding state legislature

1. Money bills as well as ordinary bills can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly only.
2. An ordinary bill can be held by the Legislative Council for a maximum period of four months
after which the bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses.
3. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative Council is not authorised to make any recommendation
or return a money bill to the Legislative Assembly.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : D
.
Test-23 (Subject)
An Ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature (in case of a
bicameral legislature).
It can be introduced either by a minister or by any other member.
A money bill can always be introduced in the Legislative Assembly and not in
Legislative Council (in case of bicameral Legislature)
an ordinary bill after being passed by the Assembly, is transmitted to the council, in case
of bicameral Legislature.
If the Assembly rejects the bill or any of the amendments suggested by the Council or the
Council does not take action for 3 months, then the Assembly may pass the bill and
transmit again it to the Council.
If the Council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to
the Assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is considered to
have been passed by both houses in the form in which it was passed by the Assembly.
Hence the council can detain an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four
months.
Like Rajya Sabha, the state legislative council has limited powers with regard to a money
bill.
It can only make recommendations and must return the bill to the Assembly
within 14 days.
The assembly can either accept or reject the recommendations.
38. The Original jurisdiction of High Courts extends to

1. Disputes involving the Centre and two or more States or between two States.
2. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights
3. Disputes relating to election of members of both Houses of state legislature as well as the
Parliament
4. Any matter relating to contempt of court.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Any dispute between the centre and one or more States or the centre and any state or
states on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States
come under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and not High Courts.
the original jurisdiction of High Court extends to enforcement of fundamental rights of

citizens.
In case of enforcement of fundamental rights the jurisdiction of Supreme Court is not
exclusive.
It is concurrent with jurisdiction of the high court under article 226
It provides original powers in the High Court to issue directions, orders and
writs of all kinds for enforcement of the fundamental rights.
The Original jurisdiction of a High Court extends to disputes related to election of

members of Parliament and state legislatures.
The Original jurisdiction of High Courts extend to matters Matters of admirality, marriage,
divorce, will, company laws and contempt of court.
39. Consider the following statements regarding Consultative jurisdiction of Supreme

Court
1. The supreme court is bound to provide its opinion to the president when the latter seeks opinion
regarding an issue related to any pre-Constitution treaty.
2. Any advice tendered by the supreme court to the President non binding in nature unless it is
related to Centre-state relations.
3. The Supreme Court has not utilised its consultative jurisdiction in any case, till now.

A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
The constitution under article 143 authorises the President to seek opinion of the Supreme
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Court on
any dispute arising out of any pre- Constitution treaty, agreement, engagement and other
similar instruments. In this case, the supreme court must tender its opinion to the
president.
Any any question of law or fact of public importance that has arisen or which is likely to
arise. In this case the Supreme Court may provide or may refuse to provide its opinion to
the president.
the opinion expressed by the supreme court in any case is only advisory and
not a judicial pronouncement
hence it is not binding on the president and he may or may or choose to follow the
opinion.
the supreme court has provided its opinion to the president in a certain number
of cases.
The first case was Delhi laws act in 1951.
Other important cases include Cauvery dispute Tribunal case, Ismail Farooqui vs Union of
India, Kerala education bill, Berubari case, Special Court Reference case and so on.

1. District judges are appointed by the governor in consultation with state High Court.
2. A sessions judge possesses both original and appellate jurisdiction in case of criminal matters
within the state.
3. A Sessions judge can impose any sentence except capital punishment.
4. An appeal against judgements of district judge can be made to the state High Court.

A. 1 , 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Appointments to the position of district judges are made by the State Governor in consultation
with the high court. A person is eligible for the post if
.
Test-23 (Subject)
He is not already in the service of Central or state government

He have been an advocate or a pleader for 7 years
His name has been recommended by the high court for appointment
The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district.

He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both Civil and criminal cases.
He is also the sessions judge.
When he deals with civil cases he is known as district judge and when deals with criminal
cases, he is called the session judge.
A sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life
imprisonment and capital punishment.
However a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the state High
Court whether there is an appeal or not.
A district judge has both judicial and administrative powers.

He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district.
An appeal against Orders and verdict announced by the District Judge can be made to
the state High Court.

1. The Attorney General is allowed to continue his private legal practice but cannot join any
company or operation as a director without permission of Government of India.
2. A person eligible to be appointed as a judge of the supreme court can be appointed as the
advocate general of a state.

A. 1 only
B. 2only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
.
Test-23 (Subject)
the Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the government.

He does not fall in the category of government servant and is not debarred from private
legal practice.
He should not accept appointment as a director in any company or Corporation without
permission of the Government of India .
He should also not defend accused persons in criminal prosecutions without permission of
the government.
The advocate general is appointed by the governor.

He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of a High Court.
In other words, he must be a citizen of India and must have held a judicial office for 10
years or been an advocate of a High Court for 10 years.
42. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Polity

1. A Private Member’s Resolution can be taken up on any day from Monday to Friday.
2. A Statutory resolution dealing with a provision in the constitution can be moved only by a
Minister.
3. All resolutions are required to be put to vote of the Parliament.

A. 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
A Private Member’s Resolution is one that is moved by a private member.
It can be discussed only on alternate Fridays and in the afternoon sitting.
A Statutory Resolution can be moved either by a private member or a Minister.

It is termed statutory because it is always drawn in pursuance of a provision in
the Constitution or an act of the Parliament.
All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions

all motions are not necessarily put to vote but all resolutions are required to be
.
Test-23 (Subject)
voted upon.
Hence statement 3 is correct .
43. The purpose of Closure motion is to
A. Curtail the debate on a matter before a House of the Parliament

B. Discuss the presidential address related to policies and programmes of the government
related to a particular year.
C. Draw attention of the members to a matter related to breach of parliamentary privileges
by a Minister.
D. To censure any particular policy or action of an individual Minister or a group of ministers.
Correct Answer : A
the Closure motion is one which is moved by a member to cut short the debate on a
matter before the House.
If it is approved by the House, the debate is stopped and the matter is put to vote.
There are four kinds of closure motions viz. simple closure, closure by compartment,
Kangaroo closure, guillotine closure.
Hence statement a is correct.
Motion of Thanks
The first session after a general election and the first session of every fiscal year is
addressed by the president, when he outlines policies and programmes of the
government in the preceding year and ensuing year.
This address is discussed in both Houses on a motion called motion of thanks.
Hence statement b is incorrect.
Privilege motion
It is concerned with breach of parliamentary privileges by a Minister.

It is moved by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of
privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by
giving wrong or distorted facts.
Censure motion.
It is moved for censuring the Council of Ministers for specific policies and actions.
It should state the reason for its adoption in the Lok Sabha
.
Test-23 (Subject)
If it is passed in the House, the Council of Ministers is not required to resign from the
office.
Hence statement d is incorrect.
44. With reference to the Family Courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Family Courts Act of 1984, the setting up of these courts comes under the purview of
the Central government.
2. Cases under the Hindu Marriage Act relating to the Restitution of Conjugal Rights are tried
exclusively by the Family Courts.
3. The Family Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was passed to allow State governments to establish
family courts to settle the disputes related to family affairs.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
The Family Courts Act, 1984 and its provisions
Statement 1 is not correct: Under the Act, the setting up of family courts and their
functioning comes under the purview of the State governments in consultation with their
respective high courts.
The Act also lays down provisions for the appointment of judges in family courts.
The law was passed to allow State governments to establish family courts to promote
conciliation and ensure that disputes related to family affairs and marriage are promptly
settled. It came into force on September 14, 1984.
Statement 2 is correct: Cases under the Hindu Marriage Act relating to Divorce, Restitution of
Conjugal Rights and Permanent Alimony etc. are tried exclusively by Family Courts. The courts
are presided by Judicial Officers of the cadre of District Judges.
Statement 3 is correct: Family Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022 was passed to allow State
governments to establish family courts to promote conciliation and ensure that disputes related
to family affairs and marriage are promptly settled.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/explained-the-family-courts-amendment-bil
l-2022-and-how-it-relates-to-only-two-states/article65661589.ece
.
Test-23 (Subject)
https://districts.ecourts.gov.in/chennai/family-courts
45. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission (EC) of India:
1. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the tenure of the ECs shall be subject to provisions
of any law made in that behalf by Parliament be made by the President.
2. The Justice Tarkunde Committee recommended that the ECs be appointed on the advice of a
Committee comprising the Prime Minister and Lok Sabha Opposition Leader.
3. As per Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the ‘subject to’ clause under Article 324 was introduced to prevent a
person who is likely to be under the thumb of the Executive.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
The appointment of ECs falls within the purview of Article 324(2) of the Constitution, which
establishes the institution.
Statement 1 is correct: Pertinently, it contains a ‘subject to’ clause which provides that both
the number and tenure of the ECs shall be “subject to provisions of any law made in that behalf
by Parliament, be made by the President.”
Statement 2 is correct: This ‘subject to’ clause was introduced, in the words of Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar, to “prevent either a fool or knave or a person who is likely to be under the thumb of
the Executive.” It was left to Parliament to enact legislation regarding the appointment of ECs.
Statement 3 is correct: The Justice Tarkunde Committee recommended that ECs be

appointed on the advice of a Committee comprising the Prime Minister, Lok Sabha Opposition
Leader and the Chief Justice.
This was reiterated by the Dinesh Goswami Committee in 1990 and the Law Commission in
2015. The 4th Report (2007) of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission additionally
recommended that the Law Minister and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha be included
in such a Collegium.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/act-now-recast-the-selection-process-of-the
-ecs/article38261210.ece
.
Test-23 (Subject)
46. Which one of the following Organisations released the Rule of Law Index 2022?
A. Amnesty International
B. Oxfam International
C. The World Justice Project
D. The National Legal Services Authority of India
Correct Answer : C
Option (c) is correct: For the fifth year in a row, the rule of law has declined globally,
according to the 2022 World Justice Project (WJP) Rule of Law Index.
The World Justice Project’s analysis of in-depth survey data in 140 countries and
jurisdictions shows that adherence to the rule of law fell in 61% of countries this year.
As the world emerges from the pandemic, the Index finds that rule of law declines are less
widespread and extreme than last year, when Covid shutdowns dramatically disrupted
justice systems and governments exercised emergency powers that curtailed civic
freedoms and bypassed accountability mechanisms.
Source:
https://worldjusticeproject.org/news/wjp-rule-law-index-2022-global-press-release
47. Consider the following statements regarding the Preventive Detentions:

1. The Supreme Court has held that preventive detention can only be used to counter ordinary law
and order situations.
2. It is an exceptional power of the State which affects the personal liberty of the individual.
3. Preventive detention must fall within the ambit of Article 21 and the statute in question.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
The powers to be exercised under the preventive detention law are exceptional powers which
have been given to the government for its exercise in an exceptional situation as it strikes hard
on the freedom and liberty of an individual, and thus cannot be exercised in a routine manner.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Statement 1 is not correct: The Supreme Court has held in an order that preventive
detention cannot be used to counter ordinary law and order situations.
Statement 2 is correct: Preventive detention is an “exceptional power” of the State which

affects the personal liberty of the individual and has to be employed sparingly.
The State should not arbitrarily resort to “preventive detention” to deal with all and sundry “law
and order” problems, which could be dealt with by the ordinary laws of the country.
Statement 3 is correct: Preventive detention must fall within the four corners of Article 21
(due process of law) read with Article 22 (safeguards against arbitrary arrest and detention) and
the statute in question.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/preventive-detention-to-be-used-only-in-ex
ceptional-circumstances-says-supreme-court/article65600500.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/preventive-detention-a-necessary-evil-only-
to-prevent-public-disorder-supreme-
court/article35688565.ece#:~:text=Photo%3A%20Sushil%20Kumar%20Verma%20%2
F%20The%20Hindu%20Preventive,a%20necessary%20evil%20only%20to%20prevent
%20public%20disorder.
48. Consider the following statements regarding the North Eastern Council:
1. It is the nodal agency for the social development of the North Eastern States excluding the state
of Tripura.
2. It includes the Chief Ministers of the Member States and three Members nominated by the
President.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1 is not correct: The North Eastern Council is the nodal agency for the social
development of the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal
Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
The North Eastern Council was constituted in 1971 by an Act of Parliament.
The NEC Act was amended by the Parliament in 2002. The 'North Eastern Areas' now means the
.
Test-23 (Subject)
area comprising the States of Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal
Pradesh, Sikkim and Mizoram.
Statement 2 is correct: The Council now has as its members the Governors of the States
mentioned above, the Chief Ministers of the said States and three Members nominated by the
President.
The President will nominate the Chairman of the Council and he need not be nominated from
amongst the other Members.
Source: https://necouncil.gov.in/welcome-page
49. With reference to the Government of India Act of 1935, consider the following
statements:
1. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and replaced it with provincial autonomy.
2. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the
provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
3. It introduced bicameralism in all the provinces and provided separate electorates for women.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Statement 1 is correct: Government of India Act of 1935: It abolished dyarchy in the

provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place.
The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined
spheres.
Statement 2 is not correct: It was Government of India Act, 1919 that separated, provincial
budgets for the first time, from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to
enact their budgets.
Statement 3 is not correct: It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. Thus,
the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made
bicameral consisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative assembly (lower
house).
It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates

for depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women and labour (workers).
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Historical Background
50. Before the term ‘Socialist’ was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the
Constitution had a socialist content in the form of-
A. The Fundamental Rights

B. The Directive Principles of State Policy
C. The Fundamental Duties
D. The Preamble
Correct Answer : B
Option (b) is correct: Even before the term was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, the
Constitution had a socialist content in the form of certain Directive Principles of State Policy.
In other words, what was hitherto implicit in the Constitution has now been made explicit.
Moreover, the Congress party itself adopted a resolution5 to establish a ‘socialistic
pattern of society’ in its Avadi session as early as in 1955 and took measures accordingly.
Notably, the Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a ‘communistic
socialism’ (also known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the nationalisation of all means
of production and distribution and the abolition of private property.
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-The Preamble
51. Consider the following statements regarding the Freedom of Assembly in India:
1. Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably without arms and this right can be exercised
only on the public land.
2. Under the Criminal Procedure Code, a magistrate can restrain an assembly if there is a risk of
disturbance of the public tranquillity.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Statement 1 is correct: Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
It includes the right to hold public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions.
This freedom can be exercised only on public land and the assembly must be peaceful and
unarmed.
This provision does not protect violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, or one that causes
breach of public peace or one that involves arms.
This right does not include the right to strike.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 144 of Criminal Procedure Code (1973), a magistrate
can restrain an assembly, meeting or procession if there is a risk of obstruction, annoyance or
danger to human life, health or safety or a disturbance of the public tranquillity or a riot or any
affray
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Fundamental Rights
52. With reference to the writ of Habeas Corpus, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. It protects individual liberty against arbitrary detention.
2. It can be issued against both public as well as private authorities.
3. It can be issued where the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Habeas Corpus is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to
produce the body of the latter before it.
The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person
free, if the detention is found to be illegal.
Statement 1 is correct: Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary
detention.
Statement 2 is correct: The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public
authorities as well as private individuals.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Statement 3 is not correct: The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the (a) detention
is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a
competent court, and (d) detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Fundamental Rights

1. The Parliamentary system of government is responsible for the dictatorial tendencies of the
executive.
2. In the parliamentary system, the cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the
executive.
3. The parliamentary system is more conducive to administrative efficiency as compared to any
other system.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : D
The greatest advantage of the parliamentary system is that it ensures harmonious relationship
and cooperation between the legislative and executive organs of the government.
Statement 1 is not correct: Under this system, the executive authority is vested in a group of
individuals (council of ministers) and not in a single person. This dispersal of authority checks
the dictatorial tendencies of the executive.
Statement 2 is correct: In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are
together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.
Statement 3 is not correct: The parliamentary system is not conducive to administrative

efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields.
The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers.
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Systems of Government

1. Single Constitution
2. Rigid Constitution
.
Test-23 (Subject)
3. Independent Judiciary
Which of the above-mentioned features reflect(s) the federal features of the Indian
Constitution?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above
Correct Answer : B
Option (b) is correct:
Single Constitution is a unitary feature. Usually, in a federation, the states have the right to
frame their own Constitution separate from that of the Centre.
In India, on the contrary, no such power is given to the states. The Constitution of India
embodies not only the Constitution of the Centre but also those of the states.
Both the Centre and the states must operate within this single-frame.
Having a rigid constitution and independent judiciary are federal features of the Indian
Constitution.
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Systems of Government
55. With reference to Centre’s control over state legislation, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The president enjoys absolute veto over the bills which are reserved by the Governor for the
consideration of the President.
2. Bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade can be introduced in the state legislature
only with the previous sanction of the president.
3. The Centre can direct the states to reserve the financial bills except the money bills during any
form of emergency.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Besides the Parliament’s power to legislate directly on the state subjects under the exceptional
situations, the Constitution empowers the Centre to exercise control over the state’s legislative
matters in the following ways:
Statement 1 is correct: The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state
legislature for the consideration of the President. The president enjoys absolute veto over them.
Statement 2 is correct: Bills on certain matters enumerated in the State List can be
introduced in the state legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. (For
example, the bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade and commerce).
Statement 3 is not correct: The Centre can direct the states to reserve money bills and other
financial bills passed by the state legislature for the President’s consideration during a financial
emergency.
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Centre state relations.

1. As per Article 352 of Indian Constitution, the President can declare a national emergency when
the security of India is threatened by an armed rebellion.
2. The President of India can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of
war.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency
when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed
rebellion.
Statement 2 is correct: It may be noted that the president can declare a national emergency
even before the actual occurrence of war or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is
satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
The President can also issue different proclamations on grounds of war, external aggression,
armed rebellion, or imminent danger thereof, whether or not there is a proclamation already
issued by him and such proclamation is in operation.
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Emergency Provisions

.
Test-23 (Subject)

1. Substantive Motion is an independent proposal that only deals with the impeachment of the
President.
2. The Substitution Motion proposes an alternative to the original motion but if adopted by the
House it supersedes the original motion.
3. The Substitution Motion by itself has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the House
without reference to the original motion.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : D
The motions moved by the members to raise discussions on various matters fall into three
principal categories:
Statement 1 is not correct: Substantive Motion is a self-contained independent proposal

dealing with a very important matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief
Election Commissioner.
Statement 2 is correct: Substitute Motion is moved in substitution of an original motion and

proposes an alternative to it. If adopted by the House, it supersedes the original motion.
Statement 3 is not correct: Subsidiary Motion is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and
cannot state the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings
of the House
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Parliament
58. Consider the following statement:

It is granted when the amount authorised by the Parliament through the
appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be
insufficient for that year.
Which one of the following Grants is best described in the statement given above?
A. Excess Grant
B. Supplementary Grant
C. Vote of Credit
.
Test-23 (Subject)
D. Token Grant
Correct Answer : B
Option (a) is not correct: Excess Grant is granted when money has been spent on any
service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for
that year. It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year.
Option (b) is correct: Supplementary Grant is granted when the amount authorised by the
Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is
found to be insufficient for that year.
Option (c) is not correct: Vote of Credit is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon
the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the
service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget.
Option (d) is not correct: Token Grant is granted when funds to meet the proposed
expenditure on a new service can be made available by reappropriation.
Source: Indian polity by M. Laxmikant, Chapter-Parliament
59. Consider the following statements regarding Child Welfare Committee

1. These are set up under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) act 2015.
2. The Central Government provides for formation of such a committee for every state.
3. It is a four member committee with two members being eminent personalities associated with
protection of child rights.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Child Welfare Committees were established under Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) act 2015.
These are set up for children who are in need of protection.
Recently the government has notified Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection Amendment)
Model Amendment Rules 2022 that prohibit a person associated with an organisation
receiving foreign funds to be a part of CWC.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
These committees are constituted for every district or a group of districts by the
state government.
They are aimed at care and protection of children who are abused, exploited, abandoned
or orphaned.
The committee consists of a chairperson and four other members.

It is mandatory that at least one of the members shall be a woman and another
expert on child matters.

1. The governor is not obliged follow advice of his Council of Ministers while performing the duties
as an administrator of an Union Territory.
2. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the State list for Union territories with
legislative assemblies.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Every union territory is administered by the president acting through an administrator
appointed by him
the administrator is an agent of the president and not head of state like a governor.
However, the president can also appoint governor of a state as the administrator
of an adjoining union territory
in that capacity, the governor is to act independently of his Council of
ministers.
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three list (including state list) for the
union territories.
This power of the Parliament is also applicable for Delhi and Puducherry, union territories
having their own local legislatures
Hence the legislative power of Parliament for union territories on subjects of
.
Test-23 (Subject)
state list remain unaffected even after establishment of a local legislature for
them.

1. Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory authority under Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension.
2. Aadhaar authentication is mandatory for availing benefits that are financed from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
3. The Aadhaar Mitra portal has been launched by UIDAI to track fraud cases associated with
Aadhar enrollment.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : A
The UIDAI is a statutory authority that was established under provisions of Aadhaar
(Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies ,Benefits and Services) act 2016, also
known as Aadhar act 2016.
It works under administrative control of Ministry of Electronics and Information
Technology.
It was created to issue unique identification number or Aadhaar to all residents of India.
It is responsible for Aadhaar enrollment and authentication including operation and
management of all stages of Aadhaar life cycle, developing the policy, procedure and
system for issuing Aadhaar number to individuals and perform authentication and the
security of Identity information and authentication records of individuals.
The Aadhaar act makes it clear that Aadhaar authentication is necessary for availing
subsidies, benefits and services that are financed from the Consolidated Fund of India.
The Aadhaar Mitra is a artificial intelligence based chatbox launched by UIDAI

It is aimed to enhance residents' experience as it comes with enhanced features like
checking Aadhaar enrollment, updating status, tracking Aadhar PVC card status and so
on.
.
Test-23 (Subject)

1. The Official Language Act 1963 made it compulsory to use English for notices and licences
issued by the central government.
2. All proceedings in a High Court should be done in English only.
3. A state High Court can use official language of the state for decrees and orders only with prior
permission of the Parliament.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 3 only
Correct Answer : C
The Official Language act 1963 provided for continued use of English in addition to Hindi
for all official purposes of the Union and transaction of business in Parliament.
The Act was amended in 1967, which made the use of English in addition to Hindi,
compulsory in cases of contracts and agreements executed, licenses, permits, notices
issued by Central Government or by a corporation or a company owned by the central
government.
The constitution provides that until the Parliament provides otherwise, all
proceedings in the supreme court and in every high court should be done in
English language only.
The governor of a State, with previous consent of the President, can authorise
the use of Hindi or any other official language of the state in the proceedings in
a high court of the state.
But no language other than English can be used with respect to judgements,
decrees and orders passed by High Court.
63. Consider the following statements regarding Central Administrative Tribunal

1. It is a statutory authority under the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
2. The members are appointed by the president for a period of 5 years.

3. It does not have jurisdiction over members of defence forces.
4. Appeals against the order of CAT cannot be made directly to the supreme court.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer : B
The 42nd amendment act of 1976 added part XIVA to the constitution entitled as
tribunals
it added to articles 323A dealing with administrative tribunals and article 323 B dealing
with tribunals for other matters
article 323A empowers the Parliament to provide for establishment of Administrative
tribunals for adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of
persons appointed to public services of centre, States, local bodies, public corporation
and other public authorities.
The Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in 1985 under the Administrative Tribunals
act 1985.
CAT is not bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of
1908
it is guided by principals of natural justice.
CAT consists of one Chairman and 65 other members

the members are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams
They are appointed by the president
they hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years in
case of chairman and 62 years in case of members whichever is earlier.
CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of
public servants covered by it
Its jurisdiction extends to all India Services, the central services, civilian post under the
centre in civilian employees of defence Services.
But members of defence forces, officers and servants of the supreme court and
secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
In the Chandra Kumar case 1997, the supreme court declared that that appeals against
.
Test-23 (Subject)
orders of CAT shall Iie before division bench of concerned High Court
Hence it is not possible for an aggrieved public servant to approach the
supreme court directly against an order of the Tribunal without first going to
the concerned High Court.
64. Consider the following statements regarding Transfer of High Court judges
1. The Constitution empowers the Chief Justice of India to initiate transfer of a High Court judge
after consulting governor of the respective state.
2. The Chief justices of both the high courts from where the transfer is being made and where the
transfer is being made should be consulted before such transfer.
3. It is beyond judicial review.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
Correct Answer : A
the president can transfer a judge from one high court to another.
He can do so only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Such a proposal for transfer should be made by the Chief Justice of India.
The State governor has no role in such a process.
In the Third Judges case 1998, the supreme court provided that in case of transfer of
High Court Judges, the Chief Justice of India should consult in addition to the Collegium of
four seniormost judges of the supreme court, the chief justice of two High Courts (one
from which the judge is being transferred and the other receiving him).
Thus the sole opinion of the chief justice does not constitute the consultative process.
In 1994 the supreme court ruled that judicial review is necessary to check
arbitrariness in transfer of judges
but only the judge who is transferred can challenge it.
.
Test-23 (Subject)

1. The right of the Parliament to publish its precedings is a privilege provided by the constitution.
2. No member of the Parliament can be arrested for either civil or criminal cases before and after
one week of a parliamentary session.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Originally the constitution under article 105 mentioned to privileges of the Parliament
viz., freedom of speech in Parliament and the right of publication of its precedings.
With regard to other privileges, it provided that they were to be same as those of the
British House of Commons, it’s committees and its members on the date of it’s
commencement (January 26, 1950) untill defined by the parliament.
The members of the Parliament also enjoy certain individual privileges.

They cannot be arrested during the session of the Parliament 40 days before the
beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.
This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal traces or
preventive detention cases.
66. With reference to the G20 ‘Group of Twenty’, consider the following statements:
1. The G20 Summit is held under the leadership of a rotating presidency focusing on broad
macroeconomic issues.
2. G20 comprises 20 countries which include, Australia, China and United States.
3. India’s G20 Presidency can represent an opportunity to globalise India’s LiFE initiative.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
.
Test-23 (Subject)
The G20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for Finance Ministers
and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues.
Statement 1 is correct: The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating
Presidency.
The G20 initially focused largely on broad macroeconomic issues, but it has since expanded its
agenda to inter-alia include trade, climate change, sustainable development,
Statement 2 is not correct: The Group of Twenty (G20) comprises 19 countries (Argentina,
Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of
Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Türkiye, United Kingdom and United States)
and the European Union.
The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and
about two-thirds of the world population.
Statement 3 is correct: India’s G20 Presidency represents a unique opportunity to globalise

the LiFE initiative.
India’s new Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative is an important platform that could help
lower energy costs, carbon dioxide emissions, air pollution and inequalities in energy
consumption.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/indias-g20-presidency-life-lessons-
for-global-markets-8420771/
https://www.g20.org/en/about-g20/#overview
67. Consider the following statements regarding the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD):
1. Members of OECD are typically democratic countries that support free-market economies.
2. The OECD maintains a blacklist of nations that are considered as uncooperative tax havens.
3. The Development Co-operation Report and the Global Competitiveness Report, both are
released by OECD.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
.
Test-23 (Subject)
The OECD was established on Dec. 14, 1960, by 18 European nations, plus the United States
and Canada.
Statement 1 is correct: Members of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and

Development (OECD) are typically democratic countries that support free-market economies.
It has expanded over time to include members from South America and the Asia-Pacific region.
It includes most of the world's highly developed economies.
Statement 2 is correct: The OECD maintains a so-called "black list" of nations that are
considered uncooperative tax havens, although there are not any nations currently on the list
since by 2009, all nations on the original list had made commitments to implement the OECD
standards of transparency.
Statement 3 is not correct: Over the years, the Development Co-operation Report is
released by OECD but Global Competitiveness Report is released by World Economic Forum.
Source:
https://www.oecd-ilibrary.org/development/development-co-operation-report-2023_f
6edc3c2-en
https://www.weforum.org/reports/the-global-competitiveness-report-2020
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/o/oecd.asp
68. Consider the following statements regarding the International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA):
1. In Iran, the IAEA has played a key role in enforcing the 2015 Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action
(JCPOA).
2. The IAEA is entrusted with the task of upholding the principles of the Nuclear Non-Proliferation
Treaty.
3. India is not a signatory to the Non-Proliferation treaty but is a ‘designated Member’ of the IAEA.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
The IAEA is an autonomous intergovernmental body to promote safe, secure and peaceful
.
Test-23 (Subject)
nuclear technologies and has a relationship agreement with the United Nations.
In North Korea, the IAEA was the first agency to announce that the country’s nuclear
programme was not peaceful.
Statement 1 is correct: In Iran, the agency has played a key role in enforcing the original
nuclear deal or the 2015 Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (JCPOA), from which Donald Trump
withdrew in 2018.
Statement 2 is correct: The IAEA is entrusted with the task of upholding the principles of the
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1970.
Statement 3 is correct: As for India, while it is not a signatory to the NPT, it is a ‘designated
Member’ of the IAEA and has served on its Board of Governors. India signed a CSA with IAEA in
2009 and also subscribed to more scrutiny by the body entering into an “Additional Protocol” for
the Application of Safeguards to Civilian Nuclear Facilities in 2014.
Source: Explained | What is the IAEA, the agency seeking permanent presence at
Ukraine’s Zaporizhzhia nuclear plant? - The Hindu
69. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the International Criminal
Police Organization?
1. It is also known as Interpol which is a network comprising 192 member nations, including India.
2. In each member nation, the National Central Bureau is the designated contact point for the
organisation.
3. It issues a ‘Red Notice’ to help locate missing persons or to help identify persons who are
unable to identify themselves.

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1 is correct: Interpol is the shorter and better known name of the International
Criminal Police Organization, a network comprising 192 member nations, including India. The
agency, with its headquarters in Lyon, France, was established in 1923.
Statement 2 is correct: India has been a member since 1956. Like any member nation, India
maintains a National Central Bureau which serves as the national platform for cooperation
between domestic law enforcement units and the international police community.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
The NCB is the designated contact point for the Interpol.
Statement 3 is not correct: A Red Notice is a request to locate and provisionally arrest an
individual pending extradition.
It is issued by the General Secretariat at the request of a member country or an international

tribunal based on a valid national arrest warrant.
However, the arrest of the fugitive is based on the rule of the member nation where he or she is
located.
A Yellow Notice is issued to help locate missing persons, often minors, or to help identify
persons who are unable to identify themselves.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/the-hindu-explains-the-interpol-and-its
-functions/article61518023.ece
https://www.interpol.int/Who-we-are/INTERPOL-100/1923-how-our-history-started
70. Consider the following statements regarding the Permanent Court of Arbitration
(PCA):
1. The organizational structure of PCA consists of Members of the Court who oversee its policies
and budgets.
2. Its Secretariat is known as the International Bureau headed by Secretary-General.
3. It maintains experts in connection with its specialized rules of procedure for environmental and
outer space disputes.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Established in 1899 to facilitate arbitration and other forms of dispute resolution between
states, the PCA has developed into a modern, multi-faceted arbitral institution perfectly situated
to meet the evolving dispute resolution needs of the international community.
The PCA is an intergovernmental organization dedicated to serving the international community

in the field of dispute resolution. It recruits and employs staff based on the highest standards of
competence, integrity, and efficiency.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Statement 1 is not correct: The PCA has a three-part organizational structure consisting of
an Administrative Council that oversees its policies and budgets, a panel of independent
potential arbitrators known as the Members of the Court.
Statement 2 is correct: Its Secretariat is known as the International Bureau, headed by the
Secretary-General.
Statement 3 is correct: In addition to the Members of the Court, the PCA also maintains
various specialized panels of arbitrators and experts in connection with its specialized rules of
procedure for environmental and outer space disputes.
Source: https://pca-cpa.org/en/about/
71. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(SCO):
1. It was founded by the leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia and Tajikistan.
2. It is mainly aimed at military cooperation between the members and involves counter-terrorism
operations in Central Asia.
3. India and Pakistan signed the memoranda for becoming a permanent member of the SCO in
2016.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Statement 1 is correct: The SCO was founded by leaders of China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
Russia and Tajikistan in 2001. Uzbekistan joined the group later.
Statement 2 is correct: It is mainly aimed at military cooperation between the members and
involves intelligence-sharing, counter-terrorism operations in Central Asia.
The presence of China and India, the world’s most populous countries, would make the SCO the
organisation with the largest population coverage.
Statement 3 is correct: India and Pakistan signed the memoranda for becoming a permanent
member of the SCO in 2016.
The inclusion of India and Pakistan into the SCO would mean the addition of another 1.45 billion
people which would make the grouping cover around 40 per cent of the global population.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/what-does-shanghai-cooperation-organisati
on-membership-mean-for-india/article62067951.ece
http://eng.sectsco.org/cooperation/20170110/192193.html#
72. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the North Atlantic Treaty
Organisation, or NATO?
1. It was set up by the several western European nations to ensure their collective security against
the Soviet Union.
2. It was the United States’s first peacetime military alliance outside the western hemisphere.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation, or NATO, is a political and military alliance of 28
European countries and two countries in North America (United States and Canada).
At the end of WWII, as battered European nations started to rebuild their economies, the US,
which believed that an economically strong, re-armed, and integrated Europe was critical to
prevent the westward expansion of communist USSR, embarked on a programme to supply
economic aid to the continent on a massive scale.
Both the statements are correct: Thirty countries are currently members of NATO, which is
headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. The headquarters of the Allied Command Operations is
near Mons, also in Belgium.
It was set up in 1949 by the US, Canada, and several western European nations to ensure their
collective security against the Soviet Union. It was the US’s first peacetime military alliance
outside the western hemisphere.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-nato-talks-explained-significance-c
ommon-ground-china-
pakistan-8085582/#:~:text=The%20North%20Atlantic%20Treaty%20Organisation%2
C%20or%20NATO%2C%20is,December%2012%2C%202019%2C%20The%20Indian%20
Express%20has%20learnt.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
73. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB)?
1. It is a regional initiative and therefore challenges the existence of the New Development Bank
set up by the BRICS nations.
2. The voting shares are based on the size of each member country’s economy and not
contribution to the Bank’s authorised capital.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
The AIIB is an example of constructive cooperation among emerging economies to increase the
space available for infrastructure financing.
Statement 1 is not correct: It is a regional initiative and, therefore, fully complements global
initiatives such as the New Development Bank [set up by the BRICS nations],
Statement 2 is correct: The voting shares are based on the size of each member country’s
economy and not contribution to the Bank’s authorised capital.
China’s shareholding is 30.34 per cent and it has retained 26.06 per cent of the voting rights
with veto powers for certain key decisions.
Apart from China and India, some of the countries which signed the agreement include
Australia, Bangladesh, Brazil, Cambodia, Finland, France, Germany, Italy, Jordan, Nepal,
Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Pakistan, Portugal, Republic of Korea, Russia, Saudi Arabia,
Singapore, Spain, Sri Lanka, Sweden, Switzerland, and the U.K.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/India-signs-articles-that-determine-each-co
untry%E2%80%99s-share-in-Asian-Infrastructure-Investment-
Bank/article60348971.ece
74. Consider the following statements regarding the terms “TRAFFIC” and “CITES”:
1. Both are international agreements among the governments and control the international trade
in wild animals and plants.
2. Both were drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of
IUCN/The World Conservation Union.
.
Test-23 (Subject)

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : D
Statement 1 is not correct: CITES is the main international agreement that controls
international trade in wild animals and plants.
CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is
an international agreement between governments.
Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not
threaten the survival of the species.
183 governments are currently signatories, working together to ensure that trade in wildlife
specimens does not endanger their survival.
TRAFFIC is a leading non-governmental organisation working globally on trade in wild animals

and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
Statement 2 is not correct: CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at
a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union). TRAFFIC plays a unique and
leading role as a global wildlife trade specialist.
Source: https://www.traffic.org/about-us/our-mission/
https://cites.org/eng/disc/what.php
https://www.iucn.org/about-iucn/iucn-governance
75. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the International Court of
Justice (ICJ)?
A. The court is the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice

B. It is the only one of the six principal organs of the United States that is not located in New
York.
C. All members of the UN are automatically parties to the ICJ statute which automatically
gives ICJ the jurisdiction over disputes involving them.
D. The judgment of the ICJ is final and technically binding on the parties to a case.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Correct Answer : C
Option (a) is correct: The ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was
established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946.
The court is the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ).
Option (b) is correct: The ICJ is based at the Peace Palace in The Hague. It is the only one of
the six principal organs of the UN that is not located in New York City.
(The other five organs are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social
Council, the Trusteeship Council, and the Secretariat.)
Option (c) is not correct: All members of the UN are automatically parties to the ICJ statute,
but this does not automatically give the ICJ jurisdiction over disputes involving them. The ICJ
gets jurisdiction only if both parties consent to it.
Option (d) is correct: The judgment of the ICJ is final and technically binding on the parties to
a case. There is no provision of appeal; it can at the most, be subject to interpretation or, upon
the discovery of a new fact, revision.
Source:
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/international-court-
of-justice-russia-ukraine-7795024/
76. With reference to Kalanamak Rice, consider the following statements:

1. It is saltwater-tolerant variety of paddy and is endemic to Sunderbans.
2. It is cultivated with aquaculture including two crops in one farmland.
3. It is protected under the Geographical Indication (GI) tag system.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Statement 1 is not correct: Kalanamak is a traditional variety of paddy with a black husk and
a strong fragrance, which is considered a gift from Lord Buddha to the people of the Sravasti
when he visited the region after enlightenment.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Statement 2 is not correct: Kalanamak rice does not include aquaculture or fish-farming.
Other rice varieties like Pokalli Rice includes aquaculture.
Statement 3 is correct: It is protected under the Geographical Indication (GI) tag system.
Source: Kalanamak rice, ‘Buddha’s gift to people’, is now small, strong - The Hindu
77. The species Deinococus radiodurans has been talked about in context of-
A. India’s first dragon blood-oozing tree found in Assam.

B. World’s toughest bacterium that can survive radiation exposures.
C. New cicada species belonging to the eastern Himalayas.
D. Newly discovered creature belonging to the family of Protecetids.
Correct Answer : B
Option (a) is not correct: India’s first dragon blood-oozing tree Researchers discovered
Dracaena cambodiana in Assam’s West Karbi Anglong.
Option (b) is correct: Deinococcus Radiodurans is the “world’s toughest bacterium” as per
the Guinness book of world record.
It is the most radiation-resistant bacterium ever known. It can withstand severe dehydration,
cold, vacuum, acid,lack of nutrition, and survive to the radiation dose, a fraction of which is
sufficient to kill the human being.
Option (c) is not correct: New cicada species, Platylomia kohimaensis belonging to the
Platylomia radha group is described from the Naga Hills in the eastern Himalayas. It is a dusk
singing, large-sized cicada that calls for a short window during the evening twilight.
Option (d) is not correct: It is not any newly discovered creature belonging to the family of
Protecetids.
Source:
https://www.researchgate.net/publication/340850784_Deinococcus_Radiodurans_The_
World's_Toughest_Bacterium_A_Review
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/16261171/
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indias-first-dragon-blood
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/34811007
.
Test-23 (Subject)
78. With reference to the Indian Telecommunication Bill, 2022, which one of the
statements given above is not correct?
A. The bill looks to repeal the Indian Telegraph Act enacted in 1885.
B. The Bill includes Over-the-top communication services under the definition of
telecommunication services.
C. The Bill obligates license holders to identify the users of its service through a verifiable
mode of identification.
D. The Bill empowers the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India to be an independent
regulator for the telecom sector.
Correct Answer : D
Option (a) is correct: The Indian Telecommunication Bill looks to repeal the Indian Telegraph
Act enacted in 1885, the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act enacted in 1933 and the Telegraph
Wires (Unlawful) Possession Act in 1950 and “restructure the legal and regulatory framework”
for the telecommunications sector.
Option (b) is correct: The current draft of the Bill expands the definition of
“telecommunication services” to include OTT communication services.
To curtail the ever-increasing incidence of spam calls and frauds, the draft Bill proposes that the
identity of the person communicating using any form of telecommunication services shall be
available to the user receiving such communication.
Option (c) is correct: The draft Bill obligates licence holders to identify the users of its service
through a verifiable mode of identification.
The draft Bill also provides that commercial communications which are advertising and
promotional in nature should be made only with the prior consent of a subscriber.
Option (d) is not correct: TRAI was set up in 1997 as an independent and specialised
regulator for the telecom sector. However, the current draft considerably dilutes TRAI’s position
in a number of ways reducing it from a regulatory to a recommendatory body.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/explained-the-draft-telecommunication-
bill-2022/article65952169.ece
79. The Mangarh Dham has been talked about in news because-
A. It has been declared as a national monument.

B. It has been declared as a heritage site by UNESCO.
.
Test-23 (Subject)
C. It has been declared as one of major Neolithic Sites in India.

D. It has been declared as a memorial of King Jaichand of Kannauj.
Correct Answer : A
Option (a) is correct: The Mangarh Dham in Banswara district has been declared the
memorial a national monument.
The Mangarh dham is a memorial for around 1,500 tribals massacred by the British army in
1913, is located in the district on the Gujarat-Rajasthan border, a region with a large tribal
population.
The gathering of tribals and forest dwellers in 1913 in Mangarh against the British Raj was being
led by social reformer Govind Guru.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1872742
80. The World Energy Outlook Report, 2022 has been released by-
A. The International Energy Agency

B. The International Renewable Energy Agency
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer : A
Option (a) is correct: With the world in the midst of the first global energy crisis triggered by
Russia's invasion of Ukraine the World Energy Outlook 2022 (WEO) provides indispensable
analysis and insights on the implications of this profound and ongoing shock to energy systems
across the globe.
Based on the latest energy data and market developments, this year’s WEO explores key
questions about the crisis: Will it be a setback for clean energy transitions or a catalyst for
greater action?
Its objective data and dispassionate analysis provide critical insights into global energy
supply and demand in different scenarios and the implications for energy security, climate
targets and economic development.
The International Energy Agency/IEA works with governments and industry to shape a
secure and sustainable energy future for all
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Source: https://www.iea.org/about/mission

1. India is the world’s third-biggest emitter of planet-warming gases.
2. The Just Energy Transition Partnership helps developing countries to reduce their reliance on
fossil fuels.
3. India was the first country to join the Just Energy Transition Partnership.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1 is correct: India is the world’s third-biggest emitter of planet-warming gases.
Statement 2 is correct: An agreement was announced on the sidelines of the Group of 20

summit in Bali, Indonesia called a Just Energy Transition Partnership, or JETP, it is meant to help
developing countries reduce their reliance on fossil fuels such as coal and gas that cause carbon
emissions that contribute to climate change.
Participating governments — the United States, Japan, Canada, Denmark, the European Union,
France, Germany, Italy, Norway and the United Kingdom are to provide a total of about $10
billion in concessionary lending, grants and equity.
Statement 3 is not correct: South Africa was the first country to sign a JETP deal, during last
year’s climate conference, COP26, in Glasgow.
Other coal-rich developing economies are watching how the deals with South Africa and
Indonesia progress.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/g20-summit-indonesia-signs-deals-to-a
ccelerate-clean-energy-transition/article66139908.ece
82. Which one of the following nations engaged with India in Maritime Bilateral Exercise
‘Simbex’-2022?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Singapore
.
Test-23 (Subject)
C. United States of America

D. United Arab Emirates
Correct Answer : B
Option (b) is correct: SIMBEX-2022 was conducted in two phases.
SIMBEX series of exercises began in 1994 and were initially known as Exercise Lion King.
The scope and complexity of the exercise has risen substantially over the past two decades to
include advanced naval drills covering a wide spectrum of maritime operations.
The exercise exemplifies the high level of cooperation between India and Singapore in the
maritime domain.
It also highlights the commitment and contribution of the two nations towards enhancing
maritime security in the Indian Ocean Region
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1871467
83. With reference to the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS), which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Only Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) can participate as sellers in TReDS.
2. Only a non-banking financial company permitted by the Reserve Bank of India can participate
as financier in TReDS.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : A
Option (a) is correct: TReDS is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing /
discounting of trade receivables of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) through
multiple financiers.
These receivables can be due from corporates and other buyers, including Government
Departments and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
.
Test-23 (Subject)
The participants in TReDS: Sellers, buyers and financiers are the participants on a TReDS
platform.
Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS.
Corporates, Government Departments, PSUs and any other entity can participate as
buyers in TReDS.
Banks, NBFC - Factors and other financial institutions as permitted by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI), can participate as financiers in TReDS.
Source: https://m.rbi.org.in/scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=132
84. With reference to the Blue flag certification, consider the following statements:
1. The Blue Flag is a tag given exclusively to environment-friendly beaches with hygienic facilities.
2. The accreditation is only given to sites that can manage visitors and host recreational activities.
3. The public must have access to Blue Flag certified places without being a client of a certain
hotel or club.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Statement 1 is correct: The Blue Flag is a voluntary tag given to environment-friendly and
clean beaches with hygienic facilities.
The tag is part of an eco-tourism model that promotes sustainability in the tourism sector
through environmental awareness, protection and sustainable development practices.
It is accorded by Denmark-based non-profit Foundation for Environmental Education, or FEE, as

part of its Blue Flag Programme.
A Blue Flag beach should have “excellent” bathing water quality, for which regular sampling
and testing need to be carried out.
Statement 2 is correct: As a general rule, Blue Flag accreditation is only given to sites that
can manage visitors and host recreational activities without causing damage to the
environment.
Statement 3 is correct: The public must have access to Blue Flag beaches without being a
client of a certain hotel or club.
Blue Flag sites are reviewed annually and awarded for an operating season, which can last up to
.
Test-23 (Subject)
a full year.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/blue-flag-beach-award-lakshadweep-certific
ate-explain/article66064624.ece
85. With reference to the Peatlands, consider the following statements:

1. These are a class of wetlands which are ecosystems of scarce water.
2. Some of the peatlands are buried under frozen ground or permafrost.
3. They store twice as much carbon as all the world’s forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Statement 1 is not correct: Peatlands are a class of wetlands, which are ecosystems flooded
with water.
Statements 2 is correct: Some peatlands are buried under frozen ground or permafrost and
exist as permafrost peatlands. They are found in the northern parts of Alaska, Canada, Russia
and parts of northern Europe
Statement 3 is correct: Peatlands, which occupy only 3 per cent of the global land surface,
store twice as much carbon as all the world’s forests, according to the United Nations
Environment Programme.
Source: Permafrost peatlands in Europe, western Siberia nearing tipping point:

Study (downtoearth.org.in)
86. The Pal-Dhadhav Massacre in Indian history is associated with-
A. Ahrar movement
B. Paika rebellion
C. Eki movement
D. Rampa Rebellion
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Correct Answer : C
Option (c) is correct: The Pal-Dadhvav massacre took place on March 7, 1922, in the Pal-
Chitariya and Dadhvaav villages of Sabarkantha district, then part of Idar state.
The day was Amalki Ekadashi, which falls just before Holi, a major festival for tribals. Villagers
from Pal, Dadhvav, and Chitariya had gathered on the banks of river Heir as part of the ‘Eki
movement’, led by one Motilal Tejawat.
The movement was to protest against the land revenue tax (lagaan) imposed on the peasants
by the British and feudal lords.
Source: What was the Pal-Dadhvav massacre? (indianexpress.com)

The PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Yojana-
1. Is a National Action Plan for skilling of marginalized persons.
2. Includes sanitation workers including the waste pickers.
3. Does not include persons belonging the de-notified tribes.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Option (b) is correct: PM-DAKSH (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi)
Yojana is a National Action Plan for skilling of marginalized persons covering SCs, OBCs, EBCs,
DNTs, Sanitation workers including waste pickers.
Objectives:
To improve all-round competency & adeptness of 2.7 lakh persons, over the next 5 years,
beginning with nearly 0.5 lakh youth in the first year i.e. 2021-22, from the following sections of
the target group:
1. Artisans–may be able to improve their revenue generation capacities within their

practicing vocations,
2. Women - may be able to enter into self-employment thereby financially empowering
themselves without neglecting their domestic activities; and
.
Test-23 (Subject)
3. Youth from the target groups - may acquire long-term training and specialization in
employable vocations giving them better standing in the job market.
Source: PM DAKSH ONLINE TRAINING (dosje.gov.in)
88. The initiative ‘Wings India 2022’ has been recently talked about in context of-
A. A scholarship scheme for Polar Science and Cryosphere Research.

B. Young Scientist Programme for School Children started by ISRO.
C. An event with a theme ‘India@75: New Horizon for Aviation Industry’.
D. An air defence exercise between India and the BIMSTEC Nations.
Correct Answer : C
Option (c) is correct: Wings India 2022, Asia’s largest event on Civil Aviation, got underway
in Hyderabad.
It was organized by the Ministry of Civil Aviation of India (MoCA) and Federation of Indian
Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) jointly,
The theme of the event this year is ‘India@75: New Horizon for Aviation Industry’.
Wings India 2022 is being organized in the backdrop of the fact that India's Civil Aviation
is among the fastest-growing aviation markets globally and will be a major growth engine
to make India a $5 trillion economy.
In terms of domestic air passenger traffic, India is the 3rd largest aviation market which
stood at 274.05 million in FY20.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1809334

1. The Bosporus and Dardanelles straits connect the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea through the
Sea of Marmara.
2. The Montreux Convention allows both Turkey and Greece to have control over the Bosporus
strait and Dardanelles straits respectively.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
.
Test-23 (Subject)
Correct Answer : A
Statement 1 is correct: The Bosporus and Dardanelles straits, also known as the Turkish
Straits or the Black Sea Straits, connect the Aegean Sea and the Black Sea via the Sea of
Marmara.
It is the only passage through which the Black Sea ports can access the Mediterranean and
beyond.
Statement 2 is not correct: According to the 1936 Montreux Convention Regarding the
Regime of the Straits, often referred to simply as the Montreux Convention, Turkey has control
over both the Bosporus and Dardanelles straits.
In the event of a war, the pact gives Ankara the right to regulate the transit of naval warships
and to block the straits to warships belonging to the countries involved in the conflict.
Source: What is the Montreux Convention and can Turkey use it to block Russian
warships? | Explained News,The Indian Express
90. With reference to the One Health Approach, consider the statements:
1. It is an initiative of Food and Agriculture Organization coming under the ambit of Minimata
Convention.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
One Health' is an approach to designing and implementing programmes, policies, legislation

and research in which multiple sectors communicate and work together to achieve better public
health outcomes.
Statement 1 is not correct: WHO works closely with the Food and Agriculture Organization of
the United Nations (FAO) and the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) to promote multi-
sectoral responses to food safety hazards, risks from zoonoses, and other public health threats

Test-23 (Subject)
at the human-animal-ecosystem interface and provide guidance on how to reduce these risks.
The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a multilateral environmental agreement that addresses

specific human activities which are contributing to widespread mercury pollution is not in line
with One Health Approach.
Statement 2 is correct: The areas of work in which a One Health approach is particularly
relevant include food safety, the control of zoonoses (diseases that can spread between animals
and humans, such as flu, rabies and Rift Valley Fever), and combatting antibiotic resistance
(when bacteria change after being exposed to antibiotics and become more difficult to treat).
Statement 3 is correct: The application of a One Health approach is critical for achieving the
UN 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the related Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs).
Source: One health (fao.org)
www.epa.gov/international-cooperation/minamata-convention-mercury
91. Consider the following statements regarding Raising and Accelerating MSME
Performance (RAMP) Scheme:
1. It is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme supporting COVID resilience and recovery
interventions.
2. It aims at improving access to market and credit and strengthening governance at both the
centre and state level.
3. It works as policy provider but lacks the technology provision which hinders the technological
transformation of MSMEs.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1 is correct: “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP) is a World

Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme, supporting various Corona Virus Disease 2019 (COVID)
Resilience and Recovery Interventions of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(MoMSME).
Statement 2 is correct: The programme aims at improving access to market and credit,
strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre-State

Test-23 (Subject)
linkages and partnerships, addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs.
Further, the programme will bolster the inadequately addressed blocks of capacity building,
handholding, skill development, quality enrichment, technological upgradation, digitization,
outreach and marketing promotion, amongst other things.
RAMP would thus be a:
‘’Policy Provider’’ through the enhanced capacity for evidence-based policy and program
design, to enable the delivery of more effective and cost-efficient MSME interventions to
improve competitiveness and business sustainability.
“Knowledge Provider” through bench-marking, sharing and demonstrating best
practices/success stories by leveraging international experiences, and
Statement 3 is not correct: “Technology Provider” providing access to high-end
technology resulting in the digital and technological transformation of MSMEs through
state of art Artificial Intelligence, Data Analytics, Internet of things (IoT), Machine Learning
etc.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1811362
92. The recently launched ‘FASTER’ seen in news is-
A. The first web portal of a neobank in India with fast banking services.
B. A digital platform to communicate interim orders of the Supreme Court.
C. An industry-led initiative for digital processing of passengers at airports.
D. A small satellite project envisaged to provide platform for stand-alone payloads for earth
imaging.
Correct Answer : B
Chief Justice of India launched FASTER (Fast and Secured Transmission of Electronic Records) —
a digital platform to communicate interim orders, stay orders, bail orders etc., of the Supreme
Court to authorities concerned through a secured electronic communication channel.
The court had hit upon the concept after coming across a newspaper report about delay
in release of prisoners owing to the delay in physical orders reaching the prison
authorities.
A Bench headed by the CJI had taken suo motu cognisance of the delayed release of
convicts lodged in the Agra central jail even three days after the court had granted them
bail.
The court then directed the SC Secretary General to submit a proposal suggesting the
modalities to implement the FASTER system.
The cell will transmit digitally signed record of proceedings or orders related to bail and

Test-23 (Subject)
release passed by the court to the nodal officers and duty holders concerned through
email.
Source: CJI N V Ramana launches software to transmit court orders swiftly | India
News,The Indian Express
93. Which of the following country in Asia has recently proposed the Global Security
Initiative?
A. Japan
B. India
C. Russia
D. China
Correct Answer : D
A new Global Security Initiative put forward by Chinese President will look to counter the U.S.
Indo-Pacific strategy and the Quad.
A new Global Security Initiative put forward by China will look to counter the U.S. Indo-
Pacific strategy and the Quad, the India, U.S., and Australia, Japan grouping.
Global Security Initiative of China warned against “hegemonism, power politics and bloc
confrontation”.
The members of the Quad have rejected the notion that it is an Asian NATO or a military
alliance, and pointed to its broad-based cooperation, including on vaccines and
technology.
Chinese President called on Asian nations to keep the future of the region in their hands
and proposed a Global Security Initiative respecting the sovereignty of all countries
amidst Russia’s invasion of Ukraine, in a veiled attack on the United States’ forays into
the region with the Indo-Pacific strategy.
Source: Xi’s “Global Security Initiative” looks to counter Quad - The Hindu
94. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Standing Deposit Facility
(SDF)?
1. The main purpose of SDF is to reduce the excess liquidity in the system but has no role in the
control of inflation.
2. The SDF strengthens the operating framework of monetary policy by removing the binding
collateral constraint on the RBI.

Test-23 (Subject)
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : B
Statement 1 is not correct: Role of SDF: The main purpose of SDF is to reduce the excess
liquidity in the system, and control inflation.
The amended Section 17 of the RBI Act empowered the Reserve Bank to introduce the SDF as
an additional tool for absorbing liquidity without any collateral.
Statement 2 is correct: By removing the binding collateral constraint on the RBI, the SDF
strengthens the operating framework of monetary policy. The SDF is also a financial stability
tool in addition to its role in liquidity management.
The SDF rate will be 25 bps below the policy rate (Repo rate), and it will be applicable to
overnight deposits at this stage.
It would, however, retain the flexibility to absorb liquidity of longer tenors as and when the need
arises, with appropriate pricing.
Source: What is Standing Deposit Facility (SDF)? (indianexpress.com)
95. The Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) scheme recently mentioned in news is associated
with-
A. The Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) scheme recently mentioned in news is associated with-
B. The Coral Reefs Conservation Programme
C. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
D. Arth Ganga’ Project focussing on economic activities in Ganga.
Correct Answer : C
MSME Sustainable (ZED) Certification is an extensive drive to create awareness amongst MSMEs
about Zero Defect Zero Effect (ZED) practices and motivate and incentivise them for ZED
Certification while also encouraging them to become MSME Champions.
The scheme aims at enabling MSMEs towards manufacturing quality products by inculcating
Zero Defect & Zero Effect practices, to safeguard the continuous improvement thereby

Test-23 (Subject)
supporting the Make in India initiative.
Source: ZED Certification Scheme (investindia.gov.in)
96. The Kuno National Park that recently welcomed the Namibian Cheetahs is located in-
A. Western edge of the Deccan tableland.

B. Western edge of the Deccan tableland.
C. Satpura Range of central India.
D. Southernmost end of Eastern Ghats
Correct Answer : B
Option (b) is correct: India brought back the world’s fastest animal, Cheetah which has been
extinct in the country since 1952, with an agreement that was signed between the government
Namibia and India.
The relocation of the first batch of cheetahs is completed from southern Africa to Madhya
Pradesh’s Kuno National Park is situated on the northern side of Vidhyachal mountains and is
spread across 344 sq km.
Cheetah translocations to Kuno are in compliance with the IUCN’s guidelines, with
particular focus on the forest site quality, prey density.
Kuno’s geography consists of vast grasslands, open forest patches and hills, perfect for
the big cats.
First established in 1981 as a wildlife sanctuary, and later in 2018 as a national park, is a
part of the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion.
Source:
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cheetah-returns-to-india-september-17-2022/article65
901790.ece
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-inks-pact-with-namibia-for-ch
eetah-reintroduction-first-batch-likely-to-arrive-before-august-15/article65661468.ece
97. With reference to the hybrid securities, consider the following statements:
1. These are single financial securities that can combine both debt and equity characteristics.
2. These securities give investors only a fixed rate of return and pay returns as interest or as
dividends.
3. The most common type of hybrid security is a convertible bond that has features of an ordinary
bond but is heavily influenced by the price movements of the stock.

Test-23 (Subject)

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Statement 1 is correct: A hybrid security is a single financial security that combines two or
more different financial instruments.
Hybrid securities, often referred to as "hybrids," generally combine both debt and equity
characteristics.
Statement 2 is not correct: Hybrid securities are bought and sold on an exchange or through
a brokerage.
Hybrids may give investors a fixed or floating rate of return and may pay returns as interest or
as dividends. Some hybrids return their face value to the holder when they mature and some
have tax advantages.
Statement 3 is correct: The most common type of hybrid security is a convertible bond that
has features of an ordinary bond but is heavily influenced by the price movements of the stock
into which it is convertible.
Source: Hybrid Security Definition (investopedia.com)
98. The CAPSTONE (Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System Technology Operations and
Navigation Experiment) Mission is developed by-
A. The European Space Agency

B. The Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
C. The Indian Space Research Organisation
D. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Correct Answer : D
Option (d) is correct: NASA has partnered with Advanced Space to develop and build the
Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System Technology Operations and Navigation Experiment
(CAPSTONE) mission.

Test-23 (Subject)
It will serve as a pathfinder for Near Rectilinear Halo Orbit (NHRO) operations around the Moon.
The CAPSTONE mission will validate simulations and confirm operational planning for Gateway
while also validating performance of navigation and station-keeping requirements for the Power
and Propulsion Element.
Thus, this mission will provide operational experience to NASA, commercial, and international
missions for operations in a demanding orbital regime.
Source: Cislunar Autonomous Positioning System Technology Operations and

Navigation Experiment (CAPSTONE) - NASA Technical Reports Server (NTRS)
99. With reference to REN21, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. REN21 creates an enabling environment to support renewables and is the only global renewable
energy community of members of governments, NGOs and industry.
2. REN21 was created in 2004 as an outcome of the Bonn 2004 International Conference on
Renewable Energy.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : C
Statement 1 is correct: REN21 is the only global renewable energy community of

actors from science, governments, NGOs and industry.
REN21 creates an enabling environment to support renewables.

It provides up-to-date and peer-reviewed facts, figures and analysis of global
developments in technology, policies and markets.
Its goal: enable decision-makers to make the shift to renewable energy happen now.
It offers a platform for a variety of stakeholders to engage and collaborate. Armed with
knowledge and tools, supported by a culture of dialogue and debate, and augmented by
new ecosystems.
This community of change strategically drives the deep transformations needed to make
renewables the norm.
Statement 2 is correct: REN21 was created in 2004 as an outcome of the Bonn2004

International Conference on Renewable Energy. This “coalition of the willing” came
together with one objective in mind: to support and accelerate the development of renewable
energy.

Test-23 (Subject)
Source: Who we are - REN21 Renewable energy for the 21st Century
100. The process of ‘Nixtamalization’ was recently mentioned in news in context of-
A. Cryopreservation Technique
B. Coral Restoration Technique
C. Water Desalination technique
D. Food Fortification Technique
Correct Answer : D
Option (d) is correct: The nixtamalization process is commonly utilized in the production of
tortillas and other related maize-based food products.
The maize kernels are cooked with alkali (i.e. lime) and steeped in the cooking water with
subsequent washing, at least twice, ensuring the removal of any remaining organic
components and excess alkali.
Nixtamal is the product obtained after this process, and it is subsequently ground to
produce soft dough named masa.
The nixtamalization process significantly affects the nutritional profile of tortillas and
related foods.
Tortillas are considered an excellent source of energy due to their high starch content but
lack good-quality protein and adequate levels of key micronutrients such as iron, zinc,
and vitamins A, D, E, and B12.
The consumption of tortillas without the supplementation of high-quality protein foods can
lead to Kwashiorkor in infants. This is due to the lack of two essential amino acids: lysine
and tryptophan.
Source: Nixtamalization - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

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1. Consider the following statements regarding Centre -State relations

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2. Consider the following statements regarding 74th Amendment Act of 1992

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

3. Consider the following statements regarding Vice President of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2. Nominated members of Delhi legislative assembly

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

5. Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Protection of

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

6. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

7. Consider the following statements regarding Appropriation Bill

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

8. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

9. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

11. Regarding Pressure Groups, which of the following statements is incorrect?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

13. A Political party can be recognised as a national party if

A. It is recognised as a state party in at least ten states.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

16. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

17. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

18. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

19. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

20. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

22. Consider the following statements regarding Leader of Opposition

2. It is a statutory oﬃce that is entitled to facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

23. Consider the following statements regarding Financial bills

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

25. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

27. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

28. Regarding Departmental Standing Committees, which of the following statements is

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. Areas inhabited by socio- economically backward aboriginals can be demarcated by the

31. The term Per incuriam applies when

32. Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

33. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

34. District Good Governance Index, often seen in news, is prepared by

A. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

35. Consider the following statements

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

36. Consider the following statements