Self-Assessment or MCQs Questions

Unit 01: Introduction to Human Resource Management

Question 1:
__________ is the art of procuring, developing, and maintaining a competent workforce to achieve the goals of
the organization.
a) Labour Management
b) Human Resource Management
c) Personnel Management
d) General Management
Answer: b) Human Resource Management �

Question 2:
__________ is part of managerial functions.
a) Procurement
b) Directing
c) Integration
d) Maintenance
Answer: b) Directing �

Question 3:
Which of the following is concerned with employees' working conditions and provision of other facilities to
them?
a) Behavioural aspect
b) Personnel aspect
c) Industrial relation aspect
d) Welfare aspect
Answer: d) Welfare aspect �

Question 4:
__________ focuses on all the aspects of the human workforce in an organization starting with manpower
planning to employee separation.
a) Operative functions
b) Managerial functions
c) Human relations
d) Procurement
Answer: a) Operative functions �

Question 5:
Which among the following hold true for Human Resource functions?

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 1. Procurement is an operative function.

2. Integration refers to the balancing of time and integrating activities.

3. Organizing refers to giving directions to the subordinates.

4. Integration deals with employees as a social group.

a) Options 1 and 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 and 4 �

Question 6:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. HR manager should have the ability to understand the business process cycle.

2. Managerial functions are focused on all the aspects of the human workforce in an organization starting
with manpower planning to employee separation.
State true or false:
a) 1-True, 2-False
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: d) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 7:
Which among the following options give the benefits of HRM to an organization at an individual level?

1. Helps in developing teamwork and team spirit in employees

2. Identifies potential and provides excellent growth opportunities

3. Increases loyalty and commitment through a proper reward system

4. Helps in utilizing the natural and physical resources adequately.

a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: d) Options 2 & 3 �

Question 8:
Which of the following options specify the main objectives of HRM?

1. To make use of the skills and abilities of the workforce effectively.

2. To resolve grievances and disputes between management and workers.

3. To train and motivate employees of the organization.

4. Ensuring regular attendance of employees.

a) Options 1 & 4

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 b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 2 & 4
d) Options 1 & 3
Answer: d) Options 1 & 3 �

Question 9:
Which of the following functions of HRM includes identifying future human resource requirements and
forecasting personnel needs?
a) Organizing
b) Planning
c) Directing
d) Staffing
Answer: b) Planning �

Question 10:
Directing is one of the important functions of HRM which comes under:
a) Managerial Function
b) Operative Function
c) Technical Function
d) Behavioral function
Answer: a) Managerial Function �

Question 11:
Which function of HRM involves measuring and rectifying activities to ensure they conform to plans?
a) Planning
b) Directing
c) Organizing
d) Controlling
Answer: d) Controlling �

Question 12:
What role does an HR executive play when they are helping facilitate employee growth and development?
a) Auditor
b) Facilitator
c) Consultant
d) Employee advocate
Answer: b) Facilitator �

Question 13:
Which of the following is a challenge in managing people for an HR executive?
a) Uniform values and attitudes
b) Similar beliefs and culture
c) Differing values, attitudes, beliefs, and culture
d) Standardized motivational factors
Answer: c) Differing values, attitudes, beliefs, and culture �

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Question 14:
What is the primary function of Human Resource Management (HRM)?
a) Managing the production process
b) Managing the financial resources
c) Managing the people within an organization
d) Managing the marketing activities
Answer: c) Managing the people within an organization �

Question 15:
Which of the following is NOT a function of HRM?
a) Recruitment and selection
b) Employee training and development
c) Financial accounting
d) Performance appraisal
Answer: c) Financial accounting �

Unit 02 : HRM and Personnel Management

Question 1:
__________ is the art of procuring, developing, and maintaining a competent workforce to achieve the goals of
the organization.
a) Labour Management
b) Human Resource Management
c) Personnel Management
d) General Management
Answer: b) Human Resource Management �

Question 2:
What is the primary focus of Personnel Management?
a) Strategic alignment of human resources
b) Administrative tasks and employee welfare
c) Long-term workforce planning
d) Change management and organizational development
Answer: b) Administrative tasks and employee welfare �

Question 3:
Which type of management emphasizes a more strategic, integrative approach to managing people within
organizations?
a) Personnel Management
b) Financial Management
c) Human Resource Management
d) Operational Management
Answer: c) Human Resource Management �

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Question 4:
Which approach views employees as valuable assets and invests in their development?
a) Personnel Management
b) Human Resource Management
c) Financial Management
d) Operational Management
Answer: b) Human Resource Management �

Question 5:
In terms of decision-making, HRM is generally more:
a) Reactive and compliance-focused
b) Proactive and integrative
c) Focused on maintaining the status quo
d) Administrative and routine-oriented
Answer: b) Proactive and integrative �

Question 6:
Which of the following statements is true regarding Personnel Management?
a) It is highly strategic and focused on integrating HR with business goals.
b) It primarily handles routine administrative tasks and employee relations.
c) It invests heavily in the continuous development of employees.
d) It focuses on aligning human resources with organizational strategy.
Answer: b) It primarily handles routine administrative tasks and employee relations �

Question 7:
Which of the following is NOT typically a focus of Personnel Management?
a) Employee welfare
b) Administrative efficiency
c) Strategic workforce planning
d) Compliance with labor laws
Answer: c) Strategic workforce planning �

Question 8:
Who recommended the appointment of labor officers in 1931 to protect workers from evils of jobbery and
indebtedness?
a) Bombay Mill Owners Association
b) Jute Mills Association in Bengal
c) The Royal Commission of Labour
d) The Factories Act of 1948
Answer: c) The Royal Commission of Labour �

Question 9:
Which of the following was NOT a function of Labour Welfare Officers?
a) Resolving grievances and disputes

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b) Formulating welfare and personnel policies
c) Ensuring the functioning of the Works Committee
d) Developing financial plans for the organization
Answer: d) Developing financial plans for the organization �

Question 10:
What was one of the primary responsibilities of Labour Welfare Officers regarding the working conditions of
workers?
a) Providing financial advice
b) Limiting the working hours to 8 hours a day
c) Increasing production targets
d) Implementing marketing strategies
Answer: b) Limiting the working hours to 8 hours a day �

Question 11:
Who defined personnel management as "extension of general management, that of promoting and stimulating
every employee to make his fullest contribution to the purpose of a business"?
a) C.H. NorthCott
b) Richard Calhoon, Harper and Row Calhoon
c) Thomas G. Spates
d) Institute of Personnel Management of India
Answer: a) C.H. NorthCott�

Question 12:
__________ supports employee empowerment and engages the employees in the major decisions of the
organization.
a) General management
b) HRM
c) Personnel Management
d) Production and Operations Management
Answer: b) HRM �

Question 13:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. Personnel management provides for the welfare of the workers by providing canteen, rest rooms, etc.

2. Personnel management focuses on building the abilities and knowledge of the employees so that they
are capable of taking up future roles and responsibilities.
State true or false:
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: b) 1-True, 2-False �

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Question 14:
Which among the following are the characteristics of personnel management?

1. Operational function

2. De-emphasizes conflicts

3. Provides for fringe benefits

4. Focuses on bargaining and negotiating

a) Options 1 & 3
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 3 �

Question 15:
Which act paved the way for the appointment of a labour welfare officer?
a) The Factories Act, 1948
b) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
c) The Trade Unions Act, 1926
d) The Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976
Answer: a) The Factories Act, 1948 �

Unit 03: Human Resource Planning

Question 1:
Which of the following is an internal factor that affects HRP?
a) Business environment
b) Level of technology
c) Trade unions
d) Outsourcing
Answer: c) Trade unions �

Question 2:
____________ addresses the needs to retain an organization’s valuable staff by providing adequate salary,
training facilities, and promotions.
a) Training and development plan
b) Retention Plan
c) Redundancy and retrenchment plan
d) Recruitment plan
Answer: b) Retention Plan �

Question 3:
Which among the following are part of demographic factors?
a) Age and gender
b) Laws and administrative rules
c) Human rights

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d) New technologies and machines
Answer: a) Age and gender �

Question 4:
Which of the following identifies the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a particular job and helps in putting
the right candidate with the right competencies in the right job?
a) Human resource policies
b) Company’s production and operations policy
c) Government guiding principles
d) Job analysis
Answer: d) Job analysis �

Question 5:
Which among the following forecasting techniques determines the future HR demand by computing an exact
ratio between the specific business factor and the number of employees needed?
a) Ratio analysis
b) Trend analysis
c) Regression analysis
d) Workload analysis
Answer: a) Ratio analysis �

Question 6:
__________ looks into the number of trainees or apprentices required for the future.
a) Retraining and redeployment plan
b) Recruitment plan
c) Training and development plan
d) Retention Plan
Answer: c) Training and development plan �

Question 7:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. Job analysis is a part of external factors of human resource planning.

2. The human resource plan must be integrated with the organization’s strategic business plan.
State true or false:
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: d) 1-False, 2-True �

Question 8:
Which among the following are estimated through HR demand forecasting?

1. Future quantity of people.

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 2. Production levels.

3. Economic & legal climate.

4. Quality of people.
a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 4 �

Question 9:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. HRP is concerned about recruiting and retaining the human resources of the required quantity and
quality.

2. Demand forecasting measures the number of people likely to be available from within and outside the
organization to fill up the estimated employee requirements.
State true or false:
a) 1-True, 2-False
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: a) 1-True, 2-False�

Question 10:
Which among the following are objectives of human resource planning?

1. To minimize imbalance due to the non-availability of human resources of the right kind

2. To meet the needs of organizational diversification

3. To maintain a comprehensive computerized human resource information system

4. To ensure the support of top management

a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 4
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2�

Question 11:
As a human resource planner of a company, you have to ensure fewer lay-offs and less recruitment during a
recession. What are the steps that you will take to ensure these requirements?

1. Promote or train the existing employees to suit the project requirement

2. Provide fringe benefits that may not be monetary such as petrol allowance, telephone allowance, etc.

3. Redeploy employees to sister organizations if there is a surplus in the current organization and a deficit
in the sister organization

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 4. Identify suitable candidates much before any eminent executive retires so that the candidates can be
provided with the required knowledge, skill, ability, and exposure
a) Options 1, 2 & 3
b) Options 1, 2 & 4
c) Options 2, 3 & 4
d) Options 1, 3 & 4
Answer: d) Options 1, 3 & 4 �

Question 12:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. Managerial judgment forecasts are reviewed and agreed upon with departmental heads.

2. HR demand forecast is the process of estimating the availability of stock.

3. Due to changing wages, employees are getting redundant at a fast pace.

4. Human resource planning helps in identifying redundancies and also in providing alternative
employment.
State true or false:
a) Statements 1 and 2 are true
b) Only statement 2 is false
c) Statements 2 and 3 are false
d) Statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are false
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 3 are false �

Question 13:
______ is the process of estimating the quantity and quality of people required to meet the future needs of the
organization.
a) Demand forecasting
b) Supply forecasting
c) Environmental forecasting
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Demand forecasting �

Question 14:
Human Resource Planning is crucial for:
a) Adapting to changing market conditions
b) Increasing product prices
c) Reducing customer complaints
d) Enhancing supplier relationships
Answer: a) Adapting to changing market conditions �

Question 15:
What is the first step in the Human Resource Planning process?
a) Analyzing the current workforce
b) Forecasting future HR needs
c) Developing action plans

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d) Conducting a job analysis
Answer: a) Analyzing the current workforce �

Unit 04: Job Analysis and Design

Question 1:

___________________ is the systematic way to gather and analyse information about the content and
human requirement of jobs and the context in which jobs are performed.
a) Job analysis
b) Job design
c) Job specification creation
d) Job description creation
Answer: a) Job analysis �

Question 2:

In the ___________ of writing a job description, the job analyst writes down the title of the job and clearly
identifies to whom the job holder will be accountable.
a) Final step
b) Second step
c) First stage
d) Job analysis phase
Answer: c) First stage �

Question 3:

______________________ includes ability to perform mathematical calculations, interpret data, reading

abilities, decision-making and planning abilities, general intelligence, memory, scientific abilities etc.
a) Physical Specifications
b) Cognitive Specifications
c) Behavioural Specifications
d) Emotional/Social Specifications
Answer: b) Cognitive Specifications �

Question 4:

In _____________, a given job is divided into small sub-parts and each part is assigned to one individual
employee to bring specialisation.
a) Job engineering
b) Job enrichment
c) Job enlargement
d) Job simplification
Answer: d) Job simplification �

Question 5:

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Which among the following must also include rest schedules?
a) Task allotment
b) Job description
c) Task analysis
d) Compensation package
Answer: b) Job description �

Question 6:

______________ lists the number of people who directly report to the job holder.
a) Job summary
b) Conditions of work
c) Span of control
d) Degree of supervision
Answer: c) Span of control �

Question 7:

Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Provision for training must be included in job design.

2. Trainers will supervise and guide the performance of employees and can provide information on the job
content and time scales.
State true or false:
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: c) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 8:

Which among the following are the features of critical incident method?

1. The employee is supposed to write the resultant behaviour as either effective or ineffective.

2. A list of duties performed by the worker and the qualities required to perform those duties is prepared.

3. This technique gives better results when supplemented with interviews.

4. It gives an idea about the job and its importance.

a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: b) Options 1 & 3 �

Question 9:

Consider the below mentioned statements:

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 1. An effective and accurate process of analysing a particular job relieves the HR manager from many
crucial issues.

2. Job analysis arises only through the information provided by the HR department.
State true or false:
a) 1-True, 2-False
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: a) 1-True, 2-False �

Question 10:

Which among the following does a job description define in detail?

1. Duties of an employee’s job

2. Requirements for performing a particular job

3. Requirements of an employee’s job

4. Human qualities necessary to perform a job

a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 4
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2 �

Question 11:

As a human resource manager of a manufacturing company, you are given a task of creating a job
description of a marketing manager. What information would you put into the job description?

1. Company name

2. Job information like department, title, etc.

3. Skills

4. Job responsibilities
a) Options 1, 2 & 3
b) Options 1, 2 & 4
c) Options 2, 3 & 4
d) Options 1, 3 & 4
Answer: c) Options 2, 3 & 4 �

Question 12:

Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Job design should consist of a clear set of tasks.

2. Job design describes the knowledge, skills, education, experience, and abilities that are essential for
performing a particular job.

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 3. Job design should be rigid.

4. Job design must be flexible to make adjustments as conditions or tasks change within the organisation.
State True or False:
a) Statements 1 and 2 are true
b) Only statement 2 is false
c) Statements 2 and 3 are false
d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are false
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 3 are false �

Question 13:

Which of the following best describes job design?

a) The determination of the tasks and responsibilities of a job.
b) The process of creating job descriptions and specifications.
c) The method of selecting employees for specific jobs.
d) The structuring or restructuring of job roles and tasks to improve productivity and satisfaction.
Answer: d) The structuring or restructuring of job roles and tasks to improve productivity and satisfaction. �

Question 14:

A job specification is:

a) A detailed statement of job duties.
b) A written statement of the minimum qualifications a person must possess to perform a given job
successfully.
c) A statement of the specific tasks performed in a job.
d) A summary of the job's responsibilities and tasks.
Answer: b) A written statement of the minimum qualifications a person must possess to perform a given job
successfully. �

Question 15:

Which job design approach focuses on increasing job satisfaction and motivation through job
enrichment?
a) Scientific management
b) Job enlargement
c) Job enrichment
d) Job rotation
Answer: c) Job enrichment �

Unit 05: Recruitment

Question 1:

_________________ requires identifying people already working in the organisation to fill up vacancies.
a) E-recruitment
b) External recruitment
c) Internal recruitment

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d) Employment exchange
Answer: c) Internal recruitment �

Question 2:

___________________ is a joining process in which it tries to bring together job seekers and employers.
a) Recruitment
b) Job analysis
c) Job specification
d) Job description
Answer: a) Recruitment �

Question 3:

________________ acts as a bridge between employer and job seeker.

a) HR manager
b) Contractor
c) Competitor
d) Recruitment
Answer: d) Recruitment �

Question 4:

Which among the following types of expertise is expected from potential employees due to changes in
economic environment?
a) Understand functions in international context
b) Age discrimination
c) Flair and style
d) Passion for the fitness business
Answer: a) Understand functions in international context �

Question 5:

Which among the following are elements for good recruitment?

a) Effective personnel management
b) Better career opportunities
c) Human resource planning
d) Effective Job analysis
Answer: a) Effective personnel management�

Question 6:

Which among the following methods of internal recruitment gives opportunity for career shift?
a) Employee referrals
b) Promotions
c) Job posting
d) Transfers
Answer: d) Transfers �
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Question 7:

Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Choosing the sources of recruitment depends on the cost involved.

2. In external recruitment, the cost which occurs in training, orientation, induction, and adaptation of the
new employee can be minimised.
State true or false:
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-True
c) 1-True, 2-False
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: c) 1-True, 2-False �

Question 8:

What is the primary objective of recruitment?

a) To train employees
b) To attract and identify potential candidates for job vacancies
c) To evaluate employee performance
d) To determine employee compensation
Answer: b) To attract and identify potential candidates for job vacancies �

Question 9:

Which of the following is NOT a source of external recruitment?

a) Employee referrals
b) Campus recruitment
c) Employment agencies
d) Promotions
Answer: d) Promotions �

Question 10:

Which recruitment method involves promoting employees from within the organization?
a) External recruitment
b) Internal recruitment
c) Outsourcing
d) Headhunting
Answer: b) Internal recruitment �

Question 11:

What is the first step in the recruitment process?

a) Screening resumes
b) Conducting interviews
c) Identifying the need for hiring

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d) Making a job offer
Answer: c) Identifying the need for hiring �

Question 12:

Which of the following factors can influence an organization's recruitment strategy?

a) Organizational culture
b) Labor market conditions
c) Technological advancements
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above �

Question 13:

Which among the following factors influence the companies to recruit externally?

1. There is a large pool of candidates willing to work.

2. When organisations are looking for fresh talent and new ideas.

3. To reduce the cost incurred in training, orientation, etc.

4. When the organisation is planning to downsize.

a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2 �

Question 14:

Which among the following are demerits of internal recruitment?

1. Prejudice

2. Prevents the entry of external talented candidates

3. Demotivational for the existing employees.

4. Uncertainty in the organisation.

a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2 �

Question 15:

What is a recruitment policy?

a) A statement of the company's values and culture
b) A document outlining the process and criteria for selecting candidates
c) A list of job vacancies

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d) A strategy for employee retention
Answer: b) A document outlining the process and criteria for selecting candidates �

Unit 06: Selection

Question 1

Which among the following is a very general and short interview?

a) Preliminary interview
b) Selection tests
c) Medical examination
d) Intelligence test
Answer: a) Preliminary interview �

Question 2

_________________ measures the ability of the candidate to control emotional outbursts and maintain
emotional stability.
a) Psychomotor tests
b) Spiritual quotient
c) Emotional quotient
d) Personality test
Answer: c) Emotional quotient �

Question 3

Which among the following options are standardised and unbiased methods of selecting the candidate?
a) Selection interviews
b) Selection tests
c) Reference check
d) Hiring decision
Answer: b) Selection tests �

Question 4

Which among the following are used to eliminate those candidates who do not meet the minimum
eligibility criteria laid down by the organisation?
a) Initial interviews
b) Group tests
c) Personality tests
d) Simulation tests
Answer: a) Initial interviews �

Question 5

Which among the following is a process of picking up more competent and suitable employees?
a) Validity

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b) Hiring
c) Recruitment
d) Selection
Answer: d) Selection �

Question 6

Which among the following are carried out where the candidates' etiquette and mannerisms are also
evaluated?
a) Telephonic interviews
b) Stress interview
c) Informal interviews
d) Preliminary interview
Answer: c) Informal interviews�

Question 7

Which of the following is true with regard to recruitment?

1. Positive approach

2. Precedes selection

3. Expensive method

4. Complicated process
a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2 �

Question 8

Which among the following describes preliminary interviews?

1. Less formal than the final interviews.

2. Also referred to as screening interviews.

3. Used to evaluate the capabilities of the applicant, behaviour, special qualities, potential to perform that
job effectively, etc.

4. Held depending on the nature of the job and the type of company, such as aptitude test, intelligence
test, reasoning test, personality test, etc.
a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2 �

Question 9
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Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Recruitment attempts at rejecting unsuitable candidates.

2. Interviews can be held for unskilled, skilled, managerial, technical, or professionals.

State true or false:
a) 1-True, 2-False
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: b) 1-False, 2-True �

Question 10

Which among the following is true?

1. Recruitment makes the hiring process more open and fair.

2. Effective selection can be done only when there is effective matching of requirement and potential.
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-False, 2-True
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: d) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 11

As a human resource manager of a mining company, you are asked to recruit employees to work in mines.
Beginning with the process of selection to induction, what steps would you take to contact the right
people?

1. Conduct a preliminary interview to shortlist.

2. Organise selection interviews and medical examination.

3. Conduct graphology tests.

4. Conduct psychomotor and simulation tests to check candidates' ability.

a) Options 1, 2 & 3
b) Options 1, 2 & 4
c) Options 2, 3 & 4
d) Options 1, 3 & 4
Answer: b) Options 1, 2 & 4 �

Question 12

Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. A reliable method is one which produces consistent results when repeated in similar situations.

2. Organisations prefer to spend maximum amount required to get employees.

3. A person who is dressed informally for an interview may be regarded as a professional.

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 4. We still find organisations making preferences for male employees or for employees of certain regional
backgrounds, etc.
State True or False:
a) Statements 1 and 2 are true.
b) Only statement 2 is false.
c) Statements 2 and 3 are false.
d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are false.
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 3 are false �

Question 13

What is the primary purpose of selection tests?

a) To provide job offers
b) To evaluate a candidate's suitability for a job
c) To conduct performance appraisals
d) To terminate employees
Answer: b) To evaluate a candidate's suitability for a job �

Unit 07: Induction

Question 1

What is the primary purpose of induction in an organization?

a) To terminate employees
b) To integrate new employees into the organization
c) To evaluate employee performance
d) To provide job-specific training
Answer: b) To integrate new employees into the organization �

Question 2

What is another term often used for induction?

a) Orientation
b) Recruitment
c) Selection
d) Appraisal
Answer: a) Orientation �

Question 3

During the induction process, new employees typically receive information about:
a) Organizational policies and procedures
b) Exit interview procedures
c) Competitor analysis
d) Job termination processes
Answer: a) Organizational policies and procedures �

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Question 4

Induction programs help new employees by:

a) Reducing their salaries
b) Increasing their workload
c) Easing their transition into the company
d) Delaying their start date
Answer: c) Easing their transition into the company �

Question 5

Which of the following is a benefit of a well-structured induction program?

a) Higher turnover rates
b) Lower employee morale
c) Faster employee integration
d) Decreased productivity
Answer: c) Faster employee integration �

Question 6

An effective induction program can help to:

a) Increase absenteeism
b) Improve employee retention
c) Promote job dissatisfaction
d) Delay employee performance
Answer: b) Improve employee retention �

Question 7

Who is typically responsible for conducting induction programs?

a) Exit interview panel
b) HR department
c) Sales Team
d) External consultants
Answer: b) HR department �

Question 8

Which of the following best describes the goal of induction training?

a) To fill out paperwork
b) To orient new employees to the company culture and expectations
c) To determine employee compensation
d) To review past performance
Answer: b) To orient new employees to the company culture and expectations �

Question 9

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Which of the following is an advantage of a structured induction program?
a) Increased confusion among new employees
b) Reduced clarity about organizational goals
c) Enhanced understanding of organizational culture
d) Delayed employee integration
Answer: c) Enhanced understanding of organizational culture �

Question 10

Which of the following is a key objective of an induction program?

a) To conduct performance appraisals
b) To familiarize new employees with their job roles and responsibilities
c) To negotiate employee benefits
d) To finalize job contracts
Answer: b) To familiarize new employees with their job roles and responsibilities �

Question 11

What is a common feature of an effective induction program?

a) A one-time orientation session
b) Continuous support and feedback during the initial period
c) Limited access to company resources
d) Immediate full workload
Answer: b) Continuous support and feedback during the initial period �

Question 12

Which of the following is a potential outcome of a poorly executed induction program?

a) High employee morale
b) Increased job satisfaction
c) High employee turnover
d) Strong organizational commitment
Answer: c) High employee turnover �

Question 13

In which of the following types of induction, new employees must report to the personnel department for
the explanation of organisation policies before they actually report to their supervisor or senior?
a) Serial induction
b) Individual induction
c) Informal induction
d) Divestiture induction
Answer: b) Individual induction �

Question 14

Which of these problems occur during induction?

a) Information overload

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b) Increase in employee relations
c) Positive approach towards the organisation
d) Socialisation with other employees
Answer: a) Information overload �

Question 15

Which among the following is a disadvantage of individual induction?

a) Expensive and time consuming
b) Collective induction
c) Serial induction
d) Investiture induction
Answer: a) Expensive and time-consuming �

Unit 08: Training

Apologies for that! Here are the answers in the exact format you requested:

Question 1:
Training is the act of increasing the knowledge and skills of an employee for doing a particular job.
a) Flippo
b) Taylor
c) H. John Bernardin
d) Manpower Services Commission
Answer: a) Flippo �

Question 2:
_____ focus on management of people such as conflict-management and decision making skills.
a) Induction programmes
b) Training programmes
c) Development programmes
d) Selection
Answer: c) Development programmes �

Question 3:
______ prepares the employees to perform in the areas other than their regular work.
a) Diversity training
b) Cross functional training
c) Literacy training
d) Team training
Answer: b) Cross functional training �

Question 4:
_______ provides data about a job and the knowledge, skills, ability and aptitude required to achieve maximum
performance.
a) Task analysis

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b) Training need analysis
c) Man analysis
d) Organisational analysis
Answer: a) Task analysis �

Question 5:
_____ is an unplanned, informal way of training where the supervisor gives instructions for the method of doing
a particular job.
a) Job Instruction Training
b) Apprenticeship
c) Coaching
d) Mentoring
Answer: c) Coaching �

Question 6:
Which of the following training methods focuses on emotional issues and involves action, doing and practice?
a) E-Training
b) Programmed instruction
c) Vestibule training
d) Role playing
Answer: d) Role playing �

Question 7:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Off-the-job training improves employee morale.

2. Apprenticeship training was developed during World War II.

State true or false:
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: b) 1-True, 2-False�

Question 8:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Coaching gives the employee an idea about the functioning of the organisation.

2. In job rotation, the employee is moved from one job to another.

State true or false:
a) 1-True, 2-False
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: d) 1-True, 2-True �

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Question 9:
Which of the following options are reasons for training?

1. Organisational sustainability and the transformation process

2. Difficulty in solving actual work problem

3. Change in the job assignment

4. Learning can be controlled.

a) Options 1 & 3
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 3 �

Question 10:
Which among the following are disadvantages of on-the-job training method?

1. Increase in wastage and scrap due to lack of experience.

2. Time constraint due to pressure of production target.

3. Difficult to implement in work place.

4. High travelling cost.

a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2 �

Question 11:
Assume you are a trainer in a software company. You are given a task of training a group of new technical
writers. How would you organise the training program starting from selecting the method of training to
delivering the information?
a) Options 1, 2 & 3.
b) Options 1, 2 & 4.
c) Options 2, 3 & 4.
d) Options 1, 3 & 4.
Answer: b) Options 1, 2 & 4 �

Question 12:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Organisational safety training is one of the most important and regular training given in any
organisation.

2. Development programmes are held for a short period of time.

3. Development programmes focus on imparting knowledge and skills that the managers require for future
job positions.

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 4. Training helps in improving the quality of the product or service.
State True or False:
a) Statements 1 and 2 are true.
b) Only statement 2 is false.
c) Statements 2 and 3 are false.
d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are false.
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 3 are false. �

Question 13:
Which of the following is an example of on-the-job training?
a) Classroom lectures
b) Simulation exercises
c) Job rotation
d) Online courses
Answer: c) Job rotation �

Question 14:
Which training method is most suitable for teaching complex technical skills?
a) Role-playing
b) Lecture method
c) Hands-on training
d) Group discussion
Answer: c) Hands-on training �

Question 15:
Which training method involves employees learning by observing others?
a) Simulation
b) Role-playing
c) Mentoring
d) Self-paced learning
Answer: c) Mentoring �

Unit 09: Performance Appraisal

Question 1:
Which of the following are major issues in performance appraisal?
a) Establish performance standards
b) Compare actual performance with standard
c) Job relatedness
d) Decision making
Answer: c) Job relatedness�

Question 2:
In which of the following plans is the minimum premium is 33.33 per cent of the time saved?
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a) The Bedeaux Point Plan
b) 100 Per Cent Time Premium Plan
c) Rowan Premium Plan
d) Halsey Premium Plan
Answer: d) Halsey Premium Plan�

Question 3:
Which of the following characteristics emphasise that the workers must be informed about the programme and
trained well to ensure smooth working of the plan?
a) Work Standard
b) Approval of Management, Workers and Trade Union
c) No Unwarranted Rate Cutting
d) Grievance Procedure
Answer: b) Approval of Management, Workers and Trade Union �

Question 4:
Which of the following plans provide for two piece rate systems?
a) Taylor's differential piece rate plan
b) Merrie’s Multiple Piece Rate System
c) Gantt Task and Bonus Plan
d) Emerson’s Efficiency plan
Answer: a) Taylor's differential piece rate plan�

Question 5:
Which of the following is a feature of the profit sharing scheme?
a) The system stimulates and sustains the interest of the workers in their work.
b) The payment of a fixed rate of interest on capital
c) The sharing in the control of the business by the representatives of labour
d) Employees should have some minimum qualifications
Answer: d) Employees should have some minimum qualifications�

Question 6:
Which of the following characteristics is necessary to build confidence and trust of workers in the programme?
a) No unwarranted rate cutting
b) Guaranteed base wage
c) Easy calculation of earnings
d) Grievance procedure
Answer: c) Easy calculation of earnings�

Question 7:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. The appraiser should be ready with job description in the first phase of appraisal process.

2. Performance appraisal is used for counselling poor performers.

State true or false:
a) 1-True, 2-False
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 b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: b) 1-False, 2-True�

Question 8:
Which of the following describe the purpose of the performance appraisal?

1. Determining compensation changes.

2. Facilitating layoff or downsizing decisions.

3. Employee access to results.

4. Training of appraisers.
a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 2
d) Options 2 & 4
Answer: c) Options 1 & 2�

Question 9:
Which among the following will the rater consider while preparing the essay on the employee?

1. Job knowledge and potential of the employee.

2. Employees understanding of the company's programmes, policies and objectives.

3. Critical incidents of the workers behaviour.

4. Employees performance in terms of the contribution in the organisation.

a) Options 1 & 2
b) Options 1 & 3
c) Options 1 & 4
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 2�

Question 10:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. The appraiser should be ready with job description in the first phase of appraisal process.

2. Performance appraisal is used for counselling poor performers.

State true or false:
a) 1-True, 2-False
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-True
Answer: b) 1-False, 2-True�

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Question 11:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Appraisal is useful for supporting manpower planning or succession planning.

2. Performance standards can be changed according to the employee's reactions.

3. Free form or essay evaluation is an example of objective measurement.

4. Appraisal confirms good hiring decisions.

State True or False:
a) Statements 1 and 2 are true.
b) Only statement 2 is false.
c) Statements 2 and 3 are false.
d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are false.
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 3 are false. �

Question 12:
Assume you are a manager of a software company. You are given a task of appraising a group of new technical
writers. What combination of methods will you use to appraise the employee?

1. Prepare a checklist of descriptive statements about the employee and employee's behaviour.

2. Record the behaviour of the employee in critical incidents.

3. Appraise the employee based on his recent behaviour.

4. Allow the employee to evaluate his own performance.

a) Options 1, 2 & 3.
b) Options 1, 2 & 4.
c) Options 2, 3 & 4.
d) Options 1, 3 & 4.
Answer: b) Options 1, 2 & 4.�

Question 13:
What is the main purpose of a performance appraisal?
a) To determine employee salaries
b) To assess and improve employee performance
c) To hire new employees
d) To terminate employees
Answer: b) To assess and improve employee performance �

Question 14:
Which appraisal method involves setting specific measurable goals with each employee and then periodically
reviewing the progress made?
a) Graphic rating scale
b) Management by Objectives (MBO)
c) Critical incident technique
d) Forced ranking
Answer: b) Management by Objectives (MBO) �

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Question 15:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of the forced ranking method in performance appraisal?
a) It encourages employee collaboration
b) It may lead to unhealthy competition among employees
c) It provides detailed feedback on employee performance
d) It is easy to administer
Answer: b) It may lead to unhealthy competition among employees �

Unit 10: Compensation

Question 1:
_____________ is the monthly payment made to an employee, despite the number of hours worked.
a) Compensation
b) Wages
c) Incentives
d) Salary
Answer: d) Salary �

Question 2:
Which among the following wage provides the worker with a standard of living which also ensures the
maintenance of good health and access to health facilities for the worker and family?
a) Fair Wage
b) Living Wage
c) Minimum wage
d) Subsistence wage
Answer: b) Living Wage �

Question 3:
Which of the following theory states that wages are influenced by the demand for workers and the ability of
employer to pay?
a) Wages fund theory
b) Residual claimant theory
c) The bargaining theory of wages
d) Marginal productivity theory
Answer: a) Wages fund theory�

Question 4:
Which of the following factors emphasis on equal pay for equal work?
a) Prevailing market rate
b) The cost of living
c) Trade unions bargaining power
d) Job requirements
Answer: a) Prevailing market rate�

Question 5:
In which of the following wage fixations is the quality of work compromised?
a) Time rate
b) Wage and salary survey
c) Incentive wage plan
d) Piece rate
Answer: d) Piece rate �

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Question 6:
_______ is measured in terms of how much output has been given by a single worker in an hour.
a) Productivity
b) Living wage
c) Incentive wage plan
d) Fair wage
Answer: a) Productivity �

Question 7:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. The objective of a comprehensive wage and salary administration plan ensures the expenses for
employees and administrative costs are in balance to the organisation's capacity to pay.

2. The objective of a comprehensive wage and salary administration plan is to be alert to the changes in
the national as well as local environment.
State True or False:
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: c) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 8:
Which of the following is a requisite for a good wage plan?
a. Certainty
b. Psychological and social factors
c. Trade unions bargaining power
d. Relative stability
a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 4 �

Question 9:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. Wage policy should match the needs of all the stakeholders of the organisation such as employer,
employees, consumers and the society.

2. The wage plans should help in simplifying and accelerating other administrative processes.
State True or False:
a) 1-True, 2-True
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-False
Answer: a) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 10:
What is the primary difference between wages and salary?
a) Wages are paid annually, while salary is paid hourly
b) Wages are paid weekly or bi-weekly, while salary is paid monthly or annually
c) Wages are fixed, while salary is variable

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d) There is no difference between wages and salary
Answer: b) Wages are paid weekly or bi-weekly, while salary is paid monthly or annually �

Question 11:
What is the purpose of a job evaluation?
a) To determine the training needs of employees
b) To assess the performance of employees
c) To determine the relative worth of jobs within an organization
d) To conduct employee satisfaction surveys
Answer: c) To determine the relative worth of jobs within an organization �

Question 12:
What is the main objective of wage and salary administration?
a) To increase the workload of employees
b) To ensure fair and equitable pay to employees
c) To reduce the number of employees
d) To determine job descriptions
Answer: b) To ensure fair and equitable pay to employees �

Question 13:
Which of the following characteristics of a good wage and salary administration system?
a) Inconsistency in pay scales
b) Transparency and fairness in pay decisions
c) Lack of clear job descriptions
d) High subjectivity in pay determination
Answer: b) Transparency and fairness in pay decisions �

Question 14:
Which term refers to additional compensation given to employees beyond their base pay to reward
performance?
a) Fringe benefits
b) Base pay
c) Incentives
d) Overtime pay
Answer: c) Incentives �

Question 15:
Which method involves comparing jobs to predetermined standards or benchmarks to determine their relative
worth?
a) Job ranking
b) Job grading
c) Factor comparison
d) Point method
Answer: d) Point method�

Unit 11: Incentives

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Question 1:
In which of the following plans is the minimum premium is 33.33 per cent of the time saved?
a) The Bedeaux Point Plan
b) 100 Per Cent Time Premium Plan
c) Rowan Premium Plan
d) Halsey Premium Plan
Answer: d) Halsey Premium Plan �

Question 2:
Which of the following plans provide for two piece rate systems?
a) Taylor's differential piece rate plan
b) Merrie's Multiple Piece Rate System
c) Gantt Task and Bonus Plan
d) Emerson's Efficiency plan
Answer: a) Taylor's differential piece rate plan�

Question 3:
Which of the following characteristics emphasise that the workers must be informed about the programme and
trained well to ensure smooth working of the plan?
a) Work Standard
b) Approval of Management, Workers and Trade Union
c) No Unwarranted Rate Cutting
d) Grievance Procedure
Answer: b) Approval of Management, Workers and Trade Union �

Question 4:
An incentive scheme is a plan or a programme to motivate individual or group performance is said by
a) Burack and Smith
b) Paul Pigors
c) F.W.Taylor
d) The International Co-operative Congress
Answer: a) Burack and Smith�

Question 5:
Which of the following is a feature of the profit sharing scheme?
a) The system stimulates and sustains the interest of the workers in their work.
b) The payment of a fixed rate of interest on capital
c) The sharing in the control of the business by the representatives of labour
d) Employees should have some minimum qualifications
Answer: d) Employees should have some minimum qualifications�

Question 6:
Which of the following characteristics is necessary to build confidence and trust of workers in the programme?
a) No unwarranted rate cutting
b) Guaranteed base wage
c) Easy calculation of earnings
d) Grievance procedure
Answer: c) Easy calculation of earnings�

Question 7:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. F.W.Taylor introduced 100 Per Cent Time Premium Plan.

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 2. Small increment in earnings is allowed for low and average increases in output below the standard.
State True or False:
a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: d) 1-False, 2-True�

Question 8:
Which of the following are the characteristics of an effective incentive system?

1. No unwarranted rate cutting.

2. Timing, accuracy and frequency are the basis of a successful incentive plan.

3. Employee is given more ownership for the work.

4. Approval of management, workers and trade union.

State True or False:
a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 4�

Question 9:
Consider the below mentioned statement

1. Rowan Premium Plan takes into account the proportion of time saved to time allotted.

2. Halsey premium plan does not create any panic among such workers who are unable to reach the
standard.
State True or False:
a) 1-True, 2-True
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-False
Answer: a) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 10:
Which of the following are the features of an effective incentive plan?

1. The plan should be properly communicated to all employees.

2. Guaranteed base wage

3. Motivates employees to put in their best efforts.

4. Easy calculation of earnings

Answer: c) Options 1 & 3 �

Question 11:
As a manager of a manufacturing company you know that a proper approach to incentive process requires a
proper incentive plan. Therefore, you want to implement a well-structured Halsey premium plan to calculate
the bonus. Assume the standard time is 8 hours, the number of units to be completed is 20 units, and the
hourly pay is Rs.45. Suppose Mr. A completed the 20 units in 5 hours, how would you calculate the bonus as
per the Halsey premium plan?

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 1. Calculate standard wage for 8 hours as 8 x 45 = 360.

2. Calculate the number of hours saved as 8 - 5 = 3.

3. Bonus payable to Mr. A is 33.33% x 3 x 45 = Rs. 44.99.

4. Bonus payable to Mr. A is 3/8 x 5 x 45 = Rs. 84.375

a) Options 1, 2 & 3
b) Options 1, 2 & 4
c) Options 2, 3 & 4
d) Options 1, 3 & 4
Answer: a) Options 1, 2 & 3�

Question 12:
Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. The primary advantage of incentives is to motivate workers for higher efficiency and outputs.

2. If the incentive system is kept too low, it will be an injustice to the employees and securing acceptance
by trade union would be difficult.

3. The drive to perform one's maximum is not motivated with a fixed income.

4. Fixed remuneration removes the fear of job insecurity and feeling of competition.
State True or False:
a) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are true
b) Only statement 4 is false
c) Statements 2 and 4 are false
d) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are true
Answer: d) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are true�

Question 13:
Which of the following is a financial incentive?
a) Job enrichment
b) Recognition
c) Bonus
d) Participation in decision-making
Answer: c) Bonus �

Question 14:
Non-financial incentives include:
a) Profit sharing
b) Salary increments
c) Job security
d) Stock options
Answer: c) Job security �

Question 15:
Which of the following best describes 'piece-rate pay'?
a) Fixed salary regardless of output
b) Payment based on the number of units produced
c) Hourly wage
d) Annual Bonus
Answer: b) Payment based on the number of units produced �

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 Unit 12: Employee Relations
Question 1:
Which of the following forms of discipline encourages employees to follow rules and regulations?
a) Corrective discipline
b) Positive discipline
c) Negative discipline
d) Preventive discipline
Answer: d) Preventive discipline�

Question 2:
Which of the following strategies ensures that personal biases and prejudices must not influence while making
crucial decisions about employees?
a) Involvement of the team members
b) Fair treatment
c) Fair disciplinary actions
d) Clarity of organisational principles
Answer: b) Fair treatment �

Question 3:
Which of the following problems emphasize the need for employee counseling?
a) Alcoholism, substance abuse
b) Inadequacy of health, safety, and welfare services
c) Unsatisfactory rules and policies of the organisation
d) Unsatisfactory conditions of work and inadequate materials and equipment
Answer: a) Alcoholism, substance abuse �

Question 4:
Who among the following defined discipline as the orderly conduct of affairs by the members of an organisation
who adhere to its necessary regulations?
a) Jucius
b) David Farnham
c) Dr. Spriegel
d) Ordway Tead
Answer: d) Ordway Tead �

Question 5:
The state of dissatisfaction which is orally made by one employee to another is known as a _______________.
a) Complaint
b) Grievance
c) Counseling
d) Employee relations
Answer: a) Complaint �

Question 6:
Which of the following are the pre-requisites for a grievance procedure?

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a) Simple and expeditious
b) Equal treatment
c) Written mode of communication
d) Recognition of employee associations
Answer: a) Simple and expeditious �

Question 7:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. If an employee is to be punished for not producing the standard number of units, then the supervisor
should first determine whether such a standard was attainable or not.

2. Complaints against a particular employee or supervisor or subordinate is an objective for employee

counseling.

State True or False:

a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True
d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: c) 1-True, 2-True�

Question 8:
Which among the following are the consequences of McGregor's Red hot stove rule?

1. Immediacy

2. Clarity

3. Promptness

4. Impersonality

a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 4�

Question 9:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. A counselor or a therapist can never enforce views on the client.

2. The major players of employee relations are individual employees, individual employers, employee
unions, employers associations, and voluntary organisations.

State True or False:

a) 1-True, 2-True
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-False
Answer: a) 1-True, 2-True �

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Question 10:
Which among the following are the basic ingredients of sound disciplinary action?

1. Rules and regulations should be reasonable.

2. Enabling control over emotions.

3. Gathering the facts.

4. Conformity with existing legislation.

a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: c) Options 1 & 3�

Question 11:
As a manager of a product manufacturing company, you have to deal with a subordinate who is always late and
irregular to work. As a result, his part of the work is delayed. How would you convey the employee of his
responsibilities and the consequences of his behavior?

1. Face-to-face communication in order to know the employee grievances.

2. Directive counseling to motivate the employee to do his duties.

3. Educating him on the rules and policies of the organisation.

4. Irrational action should be taken.

a) Options 1, 2 & 3
b) Options 1, 2 & 4
c) Options 2, 3 & 4
d) Options 1, 3 & 4
Answer: a) Options 1, 2 & 3 �

Question 12:
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. Policies, rules, and regulations must be communicated through written documents.

2. Corrective discipline is that part of organisational discipline which is based on rewards and
punishments for employee behavior.

3. Once the offence is punished for, the organisation must ensure that the employee is not harassed any
further by others.

4. Location of responsibility is a strategy to improve employee relations.

State True or False:

a) Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true
b) Only statement 2 is false
c) Statements 2 and 4 are false

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d) Statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are false
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 4 are false �

Question 13:
Which of the following best defines employee relations?
a) The relationship between the company's shareholders
b) The formal and informal relationships between employees and employers
c) The relationship between different departments in an organization
d) The relationship between employees and customers
Answer: b) The formal and informal relationships between employees and employers �

Question 14:
Which of the following is a primary goal of effective employee relations?
a) Reducing the number of employees
b) Increasing company profits
c) Enhancing employee engagement and satisfaction
d) Implementing stricter workplace policies
Answer: c) Enhancing employee engagement and satisfaction �

Question 15:
Which act provides employees with the right to form and join trade unions?
a) Fair Labor Standards Act
b) Occupational Safety and Health Act
c) National Labor Relations Act
d) Family and Medical Leave Act
Answer: c) National Labor Relations Act �

Unit 13: Employee Empowerment

Question 1
In which among the following stages, self-efficacy information is provided to the employees for improving their
self-confidence and self-control?
a) Stage-1
b) Stage-4
c) Stage-5
d) Stage-3
Answer: d) Stage-3 �

Question 2
Which among the following elements of empowerment emphasises that the employee must be provided with a
complete set of capabilities to successfully perform the assigned task?
a) Proficiency and competence
b) Command over work environment
c) Information
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d) Accountability
Answer: a) Proficiency and competence �

Question 3
In which among the following stages of degree of empowerment, the workers become partners in decision-
making with managers?
a) Domination
b) Participation
c) Consultation
d) Delegation
Answer: b) Participation �

Question 4
In which among the following countries, workers never take orders from their managers?
a) USA
b) UK
c) Communist countries
d) Scandinavian countries
Answer: d) Scandinavian countries �

Question 5
In which of the following phases, the consequences of self-efficacy are obtained and workers experience
empowerment?
a) Stage 4
b) Stage 3
c) Stage 2
d) Stage 1
Answer: a) Stage 4 �

Question 6
Who among the following explained the degree of empowerment stages?
a) Kreitner and Kinicki
b) Frederick Taylor
c) Prof. Ishikawa
d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: a) Kreitner and Kinicki �

Question 7
Which among the following are the stages of degree of empowerment?

• Consultation

• Innovation

• Accountability

• Delegation

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a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 4 �

Question 8
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. An empowered employee is self-disciplined, self-controlled, and self-directed.

2. Employee empowerment aims at providing industrial democracy essential for promoting justice for
organisational employees.

State True or False:

a) 1-True, 2-True
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-False
Answer: a) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 9
Which among the following are the elements of employee empowerment?

• Command over work environment

• Creating intrinsic feedback mechanisms

• Belief system and trust

• Delegation of authority

a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: c) Options 1 & 3�

Question 10
As a manager of a product manufacturing company, you have to manage a number of employees. You are given
a task of empowering the employees. What are the challenges that you might have to face to implement
employee empowerment?

• Employee literacy rate

• Lack of initiatives and innovative ideas

• Existence of group dominance

• Existence of trusteeship

a) Options 1, 2 & 3
b) Options 1, 2 & 4
c) Options 2, 3 & 4

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d) Options 1, 3 & 4
Answer: a) Options 1, 2 & 3 �

Question 11
Consider the below-mentioned statements:

1. Each council is to have 50 percent representation from employees' side.

2. Informal approaches are fearsome, discomforting, ritualistic, and suppressing.

3. Workers have become better involved in the affairs of the organisation by being shareholders in the
company.

4. Consultation is an ideal stage where, at their respective level, workers have the power to make their
own decisions.

State True or False:

a) Statements 1, 2, and 4 are true
b) Only statement 2 is false
c) Statements 2 and 4 are false
d) Statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are false
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 4 are false�

Question 12
What is the primary goal of employee empowerment?
a) To increase management control
b) To give employees more authority and responsibility in their work
c) To reduce employee workload
d) To implement stricter workplace policies
Answer: b) To give employees more authority and responsibility in their work �

Question 13
Employee empowerment often involves:
a) Limiting employee decision-making power
b) Increasing layers of management
c) Delegating decision-making authority to employees
d) Centralizing control
Answer: c) Delegating decision-making authority to employees �

Question 14
What is a common outcome of empowering employees in an organization?
a) Increased employee turnover
b) Reduced employee morale
c) Enhanced employee engagement and productivity
d) Greater dependency on management
Answer: c) Enhanced employee engagement and productivity �

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Question 15
Which of the following tools can be used to empower employees?
a) Performance appraisals
b) Authoritative management styles
c) Training and development programs
d) Strict hierarchical structures
Answer: c) Training and development programs �

Unit 14: International HRM

Question 1
Who among the following stated that international HRM is a strategic process of managing a global and diverse
pool of talented people in such a way as to achieve aims and objectives of the organisation both at parent and
subsidiary levels successfully?
a) Morgan
b) Kreitner and Kinicki
c) F W Taylor
d) Tapomoy Deb
Answer: d) Tapomoy Deb �

Question 2
In which of the following activities is the domestic HR engaged?
a) Host government relation
b) Selects candidates based on experience or qualification
c) International taxation
d) Language Translation
Answer: b) Selects candidates based on experience or qualification �

Question 3
Which among the following can lead to dissatisfaction among employees?
a) Promotions and transfers
b) Currency conversion
c) Cultural Differences
d) Terrorist activities
Answer: a) Promotions and transfers�

Question 4
Which among the following is an objective of international HRM?
a) Nature of business is becoming dynamic
b) Organisational costs must be reduced
c) Implement global business strategies
d) To make the organisation competitive throughout the world
Answer: d) To make the organisation competitive throughout the world �

Question 5
What is International Human Resource Management (IHRM)?
a) Managing employees in a single country
b) Managing human resources in multinational companies
c) Managing non-human resources globally

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d) Managing only expatriate employees
Answer: b) Managing human resources in multinational companies �

Question 6
What does the term 'expatriate' refer to in IHRM?
a) A local employee
b) An employee who is sent to work in a foreign country
c) A part-time worker
d) A contractor
Answer: b) An employee who is sent to work in a foreign country �

Question 7
What is a common method used for compensating expatriates?
a) Domestic salary structures
b) Piece-rate pay
c) Balance sheet approach
d) Hourly wage
Answer: c) Balance sheet approach �

Question 8
What is one of the key advantages of adopting a geocentric staffing policy in IHRM?
a) Reducing training costs
b) Promoting a unified global corporate culture
c) Simplifying visa processes
d) Increasing reliance on home country nationals
Answer: b) Promoting a unified global corporate culture �

Question 9
Which strategy involves transferring company culture and practices to international subsidiaries?
a) Ethnocentric approach
b) Polycentric approach
c) Regiocentric approach
d) Geocentric approach
Answer: a) Ethnocentric approach �

Question 10
Which among the following is one of the criteria on which the selection is based in International HRM?
a) Willingness to relocate often
b) Qualification
c) Experience
d) Job requirements
Answer: a) Willingness to relocate often �

Question 11
Consider the below mentioned statements:

• Managing people at international level is more difficult than managing them at domestic front.

• Bringing sensitivity in the organisation by being locally responsive emphasises the importance of
international HRM.

State True or False:

a) 1-False, 2-False
b) 1-True, 2-False
c) 1-True, 2-True

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d) 1-False, 2-True
Answer: c) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 12
Which among the following are challenges in international HRM?

• Managing human resources

• Risk exposure

• More External Influences

• Maintaining Uniformity and Fairness

a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: a) Options 1 & 4�

Question 13
Which among the following are the major differences between domestic and international HRM?

• More involvement in employees' personal lives

• Adapt and modify functions according to the country

• The need for a broader perspective

• Maintaining parent to off-shore relationships

a) Options 1 & 4
b) Options 1 & 2
c) Options 1 & 3
d) Options 2 & 3
Answer: c) Options 1 & 3 �

Question 14
Consider the below mentioned statements:

• Communication is the most important facilitator of information in any organisation.

• Attitude towards work differs from nation to nation.

State True or False:

a) 1-True, 2-True
b) 1-False, 2-True
c) 1-False, 2-False
d) 1-True, 2-False
Answer: a) 1-True, 2-True �

Question 15
Consider the below mentioned statements:

• Providing pre-departure training is also a part of International Human Resource Management.

• In domestic human resource management, the training and development programmes are planned as
per international standards.

• Organisations cannot remove employees solely based on the productivity of the employees.

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 • In international business the company has to follow only the domestic rules and regulations.

State True or False:

a) Statements 1, 2 and 4 are true
b) Only statement 2 is false
c) Statements 2 and 4 are false
d) Statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are false
Answer: c) Statements 2 and 4 are false�

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