Test Pattern

English (1001CMD303362240039) *1001CMD303362240039*

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2024 - 2025) 25-12-2024
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE, PHASE - ALL
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025

 2 English

SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : SYLLABUS-5

1. The wave function (in S.I. unit) for an electromagnetic 6. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is
wave is given as ψ(x,t) = 103 sinπ(3 × 106x –9 × 1014t). given by By = 3 × 10 – 7 sin(103 x + 3 × 1011t),
The speed of the wave is :- where x in meter and t in second. The wavelength
of the electromagnetic wave is :
(1) 9 × 1014 m/s (2) 3 × 108 m/s
(1) 6.28 cm
(3) 3 × 106 m/s (4) 3 × 107 m/s
2. Total average energy density of electromagnetic
(2) 3.14 cm
waves in vacuum is given by the relation :- (3) 0.63 cm
E2 B2 (4) 0.32 cm
(1) +
2ε0 2μ0
7. Consider below statements
1 1
(2) ε 0E 2 + μ 0 B2 I
2 2 (A) Radiation pressure for pure absorbing surface =
C
E 2 + B2 2I
(3) (B) Radiation pressure for pure reflecting surface =
c C
1 B2 (C) Radiation pressure for practical surface,
(4) ε 0E 2 +
2 2μ0 I 2I
3. Ultra high frequency (UHF) band stand for :- C
<P <
C
True statements are :
(1) [0 – 300]KHz (2) [3 – 30] MHz
(3) [300 – 3000] KHz (4) [300 – 3000] MHz (1) A, B

4. Light wave is travelling along y-direction. If the

(2) B, C
corresponding E→ vector at any time is along the x-axis, (3) A, B, C
→ vector at that time is along :-
then the direction B (4) All are false
8. For an EM Wave,
N
E = E0 sin 12 × 106 [Z - 2 × 108t]
C
in a medium, then its refractive index is
(1) 2/3 (2) 3/2
(1) y-axis (2) x-axis (3) 4/3 (4) 5/3
(3) z-axis (4) – z-axis 9. → = −2 cos( ω t − kz)i^ in an EMW propagating
If H
5. A point source of electro magnetic radiation has
along +z axis then electric field is given by :-
an average power output of 1540 W. Then the (1) → = 753 cos( ω t − kz)j^
E
intensity of electro magnetic radiation at a → = 387 sin( ω t − kz)j^
(2) E
distance of 7 meter will be :-
(3) → = 753 cos( ω t + kz)j^
E
(1) 250 W/m2 (2) 2.5 W/m2
(4) → = −753 sin( ω t + kz)j^
(3) 0.25 W/m2 (4) 25 W/m2 E

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10. Electromagnetic wave of intensity I is incident on 14. A 500 Ω resistor and a capacitor C are connected
lower surface of square plate held horizontally in in series across 50 Hz AC supply mains. The r.m.s.
equilibrium in air on earth. If plate area is A and potential difference recorded on voltmeter V1 and
plate is perfectly reflecting, then find mass of plate :- V2 are V1 = 120 V and V2 = 160 V. The power
2Ig IA Ig 2IA taken from the mains is :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
CA gC CA gC
11. What will be r.m.s. value of given voltage over
one cycle.

(1) 480 W (2) 240 W

(3) 28.8 W (4) 14.4 W
15. A bulb and a capacitor are in series with an AC
source. On increasing frequency how will glow
V0 V0 V0
(1) V0 (2) (3) (4) of the bulb change
√ 2 2 4
12. Match the following : (1) The glow decreases
Current r.m.s. values (2) The glow increases
(a) x0 sin ω t (i) xo (3) The glow remain the same
x0 (4) The bulb will not glow at all
(b) x0 sin ω t cos ω t (ii)
√ 2
x0
16. Match List-I with List-II.
(c) x0 sin ω t + x0 cos ω t (iii) List-I List-II
( 2 √2 )
Phase difference between
(a) current and voltage in a (i) π ; current leads voltage
(1) a.(i), b.(ii), c.(iii) (2) a.(ii), b.(iii), c.(i) 2
purely resistive AC circuit
(3) a.(i), b.(iii), c.(ii) (4) None of these Phase difference between
13. In a series RC circuit shown in figure, the (b)
current and voltage
in a pure inductive
(ii) zero
applied voltage is 10 V and the voltage across
AC circuit
capacitor is found to be 8 V. The voltage across
R, and the phase difference between current and Phase difference between
the applied voltage will respectively be :- (c) current and voltage in a pure (iii) π ; current lags voltage
2
capacitive AC circuit
Phase difference between X C − XL
(d) current and voltage in an (iv) tan – 1 (
R
)

LCR series circuit

Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) (a) – (i),(b) – (iii),(c) – (iv),(d) – (ii)
–1 4 –1 3 (2) (a) – (ii),(b) – (iv),(c) – (iii),(d) – (i)
(1) 6V, tan (
3
) (2) 3V, tan (
4
)

(3) (a) – (ii),(b) – (iii),(c) – (iv),(d) – (i)

–1 3
(3) 6V, tan ( ) (4) None of these (4) (a) – (ii),(b) – (iii),(c) – (i),(d) – (iv)
4
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17. The north and south poles of two identical 20. A conducting ring is placed around the core of
magnets approach a coil, containing a condenser, an electromagnet as shown in fig. When key K is
with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then pressed, the ring

(1) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive

(2) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
(1) Remain stationary
(3) Both the plates will be positive
(2) Is attracted towards the electromagnet
(4) Both the plates will be negative
(3) Jumps out of the core
18. Pure inductor of 3.0 H is connected as shown
(4) None of the above
below. The equivalent inductance of the circuit
between A and B is 21. During current growth in L - R circuit, match the
following table :-

(1) 1 H
(2) 2 H
Table - 1 Table - 2
(3) 3 H
(A) VL (P) Graph - 1
(4) 9 H (B) VR (Q) Graph - 2
19. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R (C) Source e. m. f. (R) Graph - 3
is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal (D) Current in circuit (S) None
magnetic induction B. At the position MNQ, the
speed of the ring is v and the potential difference (1) A-R, B-R, C-P, D-R
developed across the ring is (2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-R
(3) A-P, B-R, C-R, D-R
(4) A-R, B-R, C-R, D-R
22. Find time constant of given circuit :

(1) Zero
(2) Bv π R2/2 and M is at higher potential
(3) π RBv and Q is at higher potential
4 3L L 4L
(4) 2RBv and Q is at higher potential (1) (2) (3) (4)
3R 4R R R
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23. The magnetic field strength due to a bar magnet at a 28. A point charge of 4 coulomb and 10 – 11 kg mass
point P along its axial line is B. If the distance between ^
moving with a velocity →v = (2i^ − j^ + 3k) m/s in a
the centre of the magnet and point P is double, the ^
→ = (2i^ − j^ + 3k)
new magnetic field strength at P is B'Then - magnetic field B T . The magnetic
force on the point charge :
(1) B = B' (2) B = 0.25 B' ^
(1) 12i N (2) 0 N
(3) B = 8B' (4) B = 2B'
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
24. The magnetic field strength due to a short bar magnet
(3) (2i − j + k) N (4) (i − j + k) N

directed along its axial line at a distance r is B. What 29. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic
is its value at the same distance the equatorial line? energy K enters a uniform magnetic field of
induction B→ . After 5 seconds the kinetic energy
(1) B (2) B/4 (3) B/2 (4) None
25. The magnitude of magnetic field due to a dipole
of particle will be :-
of magnetic moment 1.2 Am2 at a point 1m away (1) 4 K (2) K (3) 2 K (4) 3 K
from it, in a direction making an angle of 60°
with the dipole axis is :-
30. An infinitely long, straight conductor AB is fixed
and a current i1 is passed through it. Another
(1) 1.6 × 10 – 6 T (2) 3.2 × 10 – 7 T movable straight wire CD of finite length and
(3) 3.2 × 10 – 6 T (4) 1.6 × 10 – 7 T carrying current i2 is held perpendicular to it and
26. What is the net magnetic force on the rectangular
released. Neglect weight of the wire
coil due to long current carrying wire of 2A :

(1) The wire CD will move upwards parallel to

(1) 25 × 10 – 7 N towards wire
itself
(2) 25 × 10 – 7 N away from wire
(3) 35 × 10 – 7 N towards wire (2) The wire CD will move downward parallel
(4) 35 × 10 – 7 N away from wire to itself
27. For a current carrying solid cylindrical conductor (3) The wire CD will move upward and turn
of infinite length find correct graph :- clockwise at the same time
(4) The wire CD will move upward and turn
anti -clockwise at the same time
(1) (2)
31. An electron having mass m and momentum P enter
in uniform magnetic field B perpendicularly, then
its frequency will be :
eP 2πm
(3) (4) (1) qvB
(2)
eB
eB 2m
(3) (4)
2πm eBP

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32. Helmholtz coil arrangement is used to produce 35. Curie temperature is the temperature above which :
magnetic field of :- (1) A paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic.
(1) Long range
(2) Short range (2) A ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.
(3) Both long and short range (3) A paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(4) None (4) A ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
33. A rigid wire consists of a semicircular portion of
36.
radius R and two straight sections. The wire is
partially immerged in a perpendicular magnetic
field B = B0k^ as shown in figure. The magnetic
force on the wire if it has a current i is :

If magnetic field at point 'O' is 1 μ T, then find I.

(1) 7.5 A
(2) 6.28 A
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
(1) −iBR j (2) 2iBR j (3) iBR j (4) −2iBR j (3) 9.5 A
34. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. (4) 20 A
They carry steady equal current flowing out of the
plane of the paper, as shown. The variation of the 37. Find magnetic field at O
magnetic field B along the line XX', is given by -

(1)

5 μ 0i θ
(2) (1) (2) μ 0 i θ
24 π r 24 π r
11 μ 0 i θ (4) Zero
(3)
24 π r
38. A square loop is carrying a steady current I and the
(3) magnitude of its magnetic dipole moment is M. If
this square loop is changed to a circular loop and it
carries the same current then magnetic moment
will be :-
(4) (1) 4M (2) 3M
π π
(3) 2M (4) M
π π
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39. The magnetic field due to current carrying 43. If magnetic field passing through the coil of area
circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis
at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54 μ T. 0.1 m2 is changing according to the equation
What will be its value of centre of the loop ( μ T) 2πt
B = 10 sin( )T . Find magnitude of induced
(1) 500 3
emf at t = 0.5 sec.
(2) 250
(3) 200 π
(1) volt
2
(4) 750 π
40. An electron having kinetic energy K is moving (2) 3
volt
in a circular orbit of radius R perpendicular to a 2π
uniform magnetic induction B. If kinetic energy (3) volt
3
is doubled and magnetic induction is tripled, the
radius will become. π
(4) volt
4
(1) 3R
2
44. A steady current I goes through a wire loop
3 PQR having shape of a right angle triangle with
(2) √
R
2
√ 2 PQ = 3x, PR = 4x, QR = 5x. If magnitude of
(3) R
3 the magnetic field at P due to this loop is
4
(4) √ R μ 0I
3 K( ) then K will be :

41. Which of the following statements is correct for

(1) 2
48 π x

diamagnetic materials :-
(1) μ r < 1 (2) 3
(2) 𝛘 m is negative and low (3) 5
(3) 𝛘 m does not depends on temperature (4) 7
(4) All of the above 45. An inductor of 1mH, a condenser of 10 μ F and
42. The magnetic field in a region is given by a resistance of 50 Ω are connected in series
x ^
B = B0 1 +( k. A square loop of edge length
) with 110 V. The reactance of inductor and
a
d is placed with its edge along x and y axis. The condenser are same, the reactance of either of
loop moves with constant velocity →v = v0 ^i . The them will be :-
emf induced in the loop is :
V0 B 0 d 2 (1) 100 Ω
(1)
a
V0 B 0 d 2 (2) 30 Ω
(2)
2a
V 0 B 0 a2 (3) 3.2 Ω
(3)
d
(4) 10 Ω
(4) None
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SUBJECT : BIOLOGY
Topic : SYLLABUS-5

46. Match the following column - 49. Match list-I with list-II :-
(1) Flower position (a) Yellow Dominant List-I List-II
(2) Seed colour (b) Axial Dominant Cross of F1 progeny with
(A) homozygous dominant I. Allele
(3) Seed shape (c) Wrinkled recessive parent.
(4) Height of stem (d) Tall Dominant Two or more alternative
(B) II. Ploidy
(1) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d forms of a gene
(2) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c Cross of F1 progeny with Out
(C) III.
(3) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c any of the parents. cross
(4) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a Number of chromosomes Back
(D) IV.
47. Which contributed to Mendel's success?
set in plants. cross
I. Selection of pea plant.
II. Knowledge of genetic material DNA. Choose the correct answer from the options
III. One character at one time given below :-
IV. His statistical knowledge. (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Choose the correct option :
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(1) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(2) (II) and (III) (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(3) (I), (III) and (IV) (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) (IV), (III) and (II) 50. The law of independent assortment state that
48. Statement-I :- A true-breeding line shows the when ___A___ of traits are combined in a
stable trait inheritance and expression for several
hybrid, segregation of ____B____ of character is
generations.
Statement-II :- Mendel's work suggested that ___C___ of the other pair of character.
factors (genes) were discrete unit. Select the correct option for A, B and C.
(1) Both Statement I and II are correct (1) A-one pair B-two pair C-independent
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect (2) A-two pair B-one pair C-dependent
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) A-one pair B-two pair C-dependent
correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect (4) A-two pair B-one pair C-independent

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51. Parent generation : 54. Phenylketonuria manifests itself through
phenotypic expression characterised by _____.
(1) Increase in hair and skin pigmentation
(2) Mental retardation and a reduction in hair
and skin pigmentation.
(3) Increase in mental capacity
(4) No effect
55. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) Polygenic traits are controlled by three or
Fill in the blanks w.r.t inheritance of flower more genes.
colour in snapdragon : (2) The phenotype of a polygenic trait reflects
(1) A - Red, B - rr, C - Pink the contribution of each allele.
(2) A - Pink, B - Rr, C - Red (3) In polygenic inheritance, the effect of each
(3) A - Red, B - Rr, C - Pink allele is subtractive.

(4) A - Pink, B - rr, C - Red (4) Human height is an example of a polygenic

trait.
52. Which of the following statements are correct
56.
regarding multiple allele (ABO blood group) : Match the list-I with list-II :-
(A) Gene I has three alleles IA, IB and i. List-I List-II
(B) The allele IA and IB produce same type of sugar.
(C) In ABO blood group six different phenotypes Chromosomal theory
A I Correns
are possible. of inheritance
(D) In human, each person possesses any two of the
three I gene alleles. Unequivocal proof of
B II Gamow
(1) A and D only triplet nature of codon
(2) A, B and C only Sutton &
C Incomplete dominance III
(3) A, B, C and D Boveri
(4) B and C only
D Independent assortment IV Mendel
53. As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood
group of father is AB, mother is A and child is (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. Parents respective genotype can be :-
A. IAIB/IAIO B. IAIO/IAIO (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C. IAIB/IOIO D. IOIO/IOIO (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) A only (2) B only
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) C and B (4) D and B
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57. Match the column I with column II and choose the 60. Experimental verification of the chromosomal
correct answer from the codes given below. theory of inheritance was done by ___a___.
Column-I Column-II X-chromosome was discovered by __b__.
(1) a-Henking, b- Mendel
(A) Drone (i) Morgan
(2) a-Mendel, b-Morgan
Colour
(B) (ii) Queen victoria (3) a-Sutton, b-Henking
Blindness
(4) a-Morgan, b-Henking
Occurs in about 8%
(C) Haemophilia (iii) of males and only about 61. Blood grouping in humans is controlled by I-gene
which is example of :-
0.4% of females
(1) Multiple allelism
Unfertilised egg develop
(D) Linkage (iv) (2) Pleiotropism
as a male in honey bee.
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) Incomplete dominance
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-i, D-ii
62. A plant with genotype AaBbcc will produce
___'X'___ type of gamete.
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i Choose the correct option regarding fill in the
58. Which of the following represent consanguineous blanks 'X' :-
marriage? (1) X = Four
(1) (2) X = Two
(3) X = Elight
(2)
(4) X = Sixteen
(3) 63. Homozygous parents produces __A__ gametes.
While heterozygous parents produces __B__ gametes.
Final out A and B in given statement ?
(4) (1) A-Dissimilar, B-Similar
(2) A-Similar, B-Similar
59. It was found that Mendel's law of independent (3) A-Similar, B-Dissimilar
assortment does not hold true for the genes that (4) A-Dissimilar, B-Dissimilar
were :-
64. How many types of genotypes and phenotypes
(1) Located on different chromosomes will be produced by below given cross?
(2) Closely located on the same chromosomes
(3) Located on sex chromosomes of human-male (1) 8 & 8 (2) 8 & 16
(4) Located on the non homologous chromosomes (3) 8 & 27 (4) 27 & 8
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65. Select the correct option w.r.t sickle-cell anaemia :- 70. The beads-on-string structure in chromatin is
(1) This is an autosome linked recessive trait packaged to form chromatin fibres that are
further coiled and condensed at_________stage
(2) The disease is controlled by a single pair of of cell division to form chromosomes.
allele, HbA and HbS
(1) Prophase
(3) The defect is caused by the substitution of
glutamic acid by valine at the 6th position of the (2) Metaphase
alpha globin chain of haemoglobin molecule. (3) Interphase
(4) (1) and (2) both (4) Anaphase
66. What is the probability of affected child when both 71. Protein digesting enzymes ___A____ and RNA
the parents are carrier for sickle cell anaemia? digesting enzyne ___B___ did not affect
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 100% (4) 0% transformation but digestion with ___C___ did
inhibit transformation.
67. In F2 generation of dihybrid cross, F2 ratio is Select the correct option for A,B and C
deviated from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 this is because :-
A B C
(1) two genes are independent
(1) Proteases RNAses DNAses
(2) two genes are closely located on same
(2) Peptidases RNAses DNAses
chromosome
(3) Chitinase RNAses DNAses
(3) 2 genes are distantly located on same chromosome
(4) RNAses Proteases DNAses
(4) two genes segregate independently
68. When genes were grouped on same chromosome,
72. Match List-I with List-II.
some genes were tightly linked, they show :- Experimentally proved
semi-conservative
(1) very high recombination (A) Frederick Griffith I.
mode of DNA
(2) very low parental replication in E.coli.
(3) few recombination Developed chemical
Francois Jacob
(4) equal proportion of parental and recombination (B) II. Methods to decipher
and Jacque Monod
69. Select the incorrect statement :
the genetic code.

(C) Har Gobind Khorana III. Transforming principle

(1) DNA as an acidic substance present in
nucleus was first identified by Fredrich First to elucidate a
Meischer in 1869 (D) Meselson and Stahl IV transcriptionally
regulated system.
(2) The two chains of DNA have anti-parallel
polarity (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) Guanine is bonded with cytosine with two (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
H-bonds
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) The two chains of DNA are coiled in a
right handed fashion. (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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73. Read the statement carefully - 76. RNA can act as a

I. DNA replication is now proven that DNA I. Genetic material
replicates semi conservatively. II. Messenger
III. Adapter
II. In E.coli, the average rate of polymerisation has
IV. Structural material
to be approximately 2000 bps per second. V. Catalyst
III. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
(1) I, II, III (2) III, IV, V
performed the experiment on vicia faba for
semiconservative DNA replication. (3) I, II, III, IV, V (4) I, II, V
How many of the above statements is/are correct ? 77. Which RNA brings amino acids and reads the
(1) One genetic code ?
(2) Two (1) mRNA (2) rRNA
(3) Three (3) tRNA (4) snRNA
(4) None of these 78. Assertion : In transcription only a segment of DNA and
74. Which of the following statement is correct
only one of the strands is copied into RNA.
Reason : If both the strands are copied during
regarding the process of replication in E.coli ? transcription then the two RNA molecule produced
(1) On one strand (the template with polarity simultaneously would be complementary to each other
3'→5') the replication is continuous while and hence they would form a double stranded RNA.
on the other (the template with polarity (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
5'→3') it is discontinuous. is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) On one strand (the template with polarity
3'→5') the replication is discontinuous
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
while on the other (the template with (3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
polarity 5'→3'), it is continuous. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
(3) It is continuous in both strands i.e. the is the correct explanation of Assertion.
template with polarity 3'→5' or with 79. Which of the following statement is incorrect
polarity 5'→3'. regarding the process of transcription in E. coli ?
(4) It is discontinuous in both strands i.e. the (1) A transcription unit in DNA is defined
template with polarity 3'→5' or with primarily by three regions in the DNA →
polarity 5'→3' Promoter, Structural gene, Terminator.
75. In living cells, such as E.coli. the process of (2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyse
replication requires a set of catalysts (enzymes). the polymerisation in only one direction
that is 5' → 3', the strand that has the
The main enzyme is referred to as _____ polarity 5' → 3' act as a template.
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (3) The promoter and terminator flank the
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase structural gene in a transcription unit.
(3) RNA polymerase (4) Inheritance of a character is also affected
by promoter and regulatory sequence of a
(4) DNA ligase structural gene.
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80. Given diagram represents the components of 83. Which of the following is not the characteristic
transcription unit. Select the correct answer features of genetic code ?
regarding it :- [A] Triplet in nature
[B] Doublet in nature
[C] Nearly universal
[D] Non overlapping
A B C
[E] Commaless
Structural [F] Code has punctuations
(1) Terminator Promoter
gene Choose the incorrect options :
Structural (1) B and F (2) C and D
(2) Promoter Terminator
gene
(3) B and E (4) F and A
(3) Promoter Terminator
Structural
84. Two statements are given below :-
gene
Statement I :- The z gene codes for
Structural beta - galactosidase enzyme which is primarily
(4) Terminator Promoter
gene responsible for the hydrolysis of the disaccharide,
81. Match column-I & column-II :
lactose into its Monomeric unit galactose &
glucose.
Column-I Column-II Statement II :- The Y-gene code for permease
enzyme which increase permeability of the cell to
RNA polymerase + ρ
(i) Initiation (a) beta-galactoside.
factor
(1) Both statement I & II are correct
RNA polymerase + σ
(ii) Elongation (b) (2) Both statement I & II are incorrect
factor
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(iii) Termination (c) RNA polymerase
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c
85. Match the list-I with list-II.
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-c, (iii)-b List-I List-II
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-c, (iii)-a A. Lac operon I. Permease
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c B. Z-gene II. Inhibitor
82. Some amino acids are coded by more than one C. y-gene III. Jacob & Monod
codon, hence the code is ______ . The codon is D. i-gene IV. Beta-galactosidase
read in mRNA in a _____ fashion.
Fill in the blanks, respectively :- Choose the correct option :
(1) non ambiguous ; universal (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) ambiguous ; universal (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) degenerate ; overlap (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) degenerate ; contiguous (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

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86. The correct order of steps in DNA fingerprinting is :- 89. Match List-I with List-II :
(A) Separation of DNA by electrophoresis. List-I List-II
A Aspergillus Niger I Streptokinase
(B) Isolation of DNA
B Streptococcus II Acetic acid
(C) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases.
C Penicillium Notatum III Citric acid
(D) Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by
D Acetobacter acetic IV Penicillin
autoradiography. Choose the correct answer :
(E) Transferring of separated DNA to nitrocellulose (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
membrane. (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(F) Hybridising using labelled VNTR probe.
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) A, B, C, D, E, F
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) B, A, C, E, D, F
90. Match list-I with list-II :-
(3) B, C, A, E, F, D List-I List-II
(A) Antibiotic (I) Citric acid
(4) D, C, A, F, E, B
87. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(B) Organic acid
Blood cholesterol
(II) Statin

(C) (III) Penicillin

(1) The ribosome binds to the mRNA at the lowering agent
Immuno suppressive
start codon (AUG) that is recognised only (D)
agent
(IV) Cyclosporin A
by the initiator tRNA. Choose the correct answer from the option given
below :-
(2) A translational unit in mRNA is the
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
sequence of RNA that is flanked by the
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
start codon (AUG) and the stop codon and
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
codes for a polypeptide.
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) The ribosome also acts as a catalyst for the
91. Match List-I with List-II :-
formation of peptide bond. List-I List-II
(4) 28S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme- Bacillus attack insects and other
A i
thuringiensis arthropods
ribozyme.
B Baculoviruses ii root of leguminous plants
88. Cyclosporin-A, that is used as an immunosuppressive C Genus-Glomus iii Control butterfly caterpillars
agent in organ-transplant patients is produced by the : D Rhizobium iv Mycorrhiza

(1) Aspergillus Niger Choose the correct option given below -

(1) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
(2) Monascus purpuras
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C- iv, D - i
(3) Trichoderma polysporum
(3) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(4) Acetobacter Aceti
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
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92. Given below are two statements - 96. Read the following statements carefully.
Statement-I : The main sources of biofertilisers are (a) Eradication of pests is undesirable as it
bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria disturb ecological balance.
Statement-II : The ladybird and dragonflies are useful (b) An important part of the biological farming
approach is to become familiar with various life
to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes respectively. forms that inhabit the field.
Choose the correct answer from the option given (c) Trichoderma species are free living fungi that
below : are very common in the root ecosystem.
How many statements are incorrect ?
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) Zero (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect 97. Which of the following is not a biofertiliser ?
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) Mycorrhiza
correct (2) Cyanobacteria
(4) Both statement I and statement II are (3) Symbiotic association of Rhizobium with
incorrect legume plants
93. Majority of baculoviruses used as biological (4) Baculoviruses
control agents belong to which genus ?
98. Which of the following are excellent candidates
(1) Glomus for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal
(2) Cyanobacteria applications ?
(3) Bacillus (1) Bacteria (2) Baculoviruses
(4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus (3) Fungus (4) None of these
94. Choose the incorrect statement from the following 99. Select the correct sequence of PCR :-
(1) In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an (1) Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
important biofertiliser. (2) Annealing → Denaturation → Extension
(2) Ladybirds are useful to get rid of aphids (3) Extension → Denaturation → Annealing
(3) Trichoderma are pathogens that attack insects (4) Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
100. How many statements are incorrect ?
and arthropods
(4) Many members of the genus Glomus form (i) First process of polymerase chain reaction is
mycorrhiza annealing.
95. Which of the following is true for Mycorrhiza :- (ii) In PCR multiple copies of the gene (or DNA)
of interest is synthesised in vitro using two sets
(1) Symbiotic association between fungi and lichen of primers.
(2) Fungal symbiont in these association absorbs (iii) Primers are small chemically synthesized
phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant oligonucleotides that are complementary to the
regions of DNA.
(3) Fungal symbiont in these association (iv) DNA polymerase isolated from human can
provide resistance to insect pathogen be used in PCR.
(4) It is an example of parasitism (1) Two (2) Four (3) Three (4) One
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101. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 104. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(1) By microinjection method, recombinant (1) The extraction of desired DNA fragments
DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of from gel is called elution.
an animal cell. (2) Blue coloured bands of DNA can be seen in
(2) In PCR, two sets of primers are used that a ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to
are complementary to the regions of DNA. UV light.

(3) Alpha-lactalbumin is used to treat (3) DNA is a hydrophobic molecule and it

emphysema. cannot pass through cell membrane.
(4) Bacteria cells are made competent to take
(4) GM has been used to create tailor-made
up DNA by treating with divalent anion.
plants to supply alternative resources to
industries in the form of starches, fuels and 105. Bacterial cells are made 'competent' to take up
DNA by treating them with specific
pharmaceuticals.
concentration of ____.
102. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) Monovalent cation
(1) The recognition sequence of EcoRI is of
(2) Divalent cation
eight base pairs.
(2) DNA polymerase is used in PCR. (3) Monovalent anion

(3) cry IAb controls corn borer. (4) Divalent anion

(4) Adenosine deaminase is crucial for the 106. In a method known as _____, recombinant DNA
immune system to function. is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal
cell.
103. Given below are the two statements.
(1) Biolistics
Statement I : The downstream processing and
(2) Gene gun
quality control testing vary from product to
product. (3) Micro-injection
Statement II : Today transgenic models exist for (4) Heat shock
many human disease such as cancer, cystic 107. In a continuous culture system :-
fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and alzheimer's. (I) The used medium is drained out from one
In the light of the above statement, choose the side while fresh medium is added from the other
correct answer from the options given below : side.
(II) To maintain the cells in their physiologically
(1) Both statement I and statement II is false most active log/exponential phase.
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) I and II both are correct
false
(2) Only I is correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
true (3) Only II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true (4) I and II both are incorrect

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108. Match the columns and choose correct option : 111. Choose the correct option based on given statements.
Column I Column II Assertion (A) : The plasmid DNA can act as a vector
to transfer the piece of DNA attached to it.
Recombinant
Large volumes
(100-1000 litres)
Reason (R) : Plasmid is found in all organisms.
a i (1) Both A & R are true and R is the correct
technologies of culture can be
processed explanation of A.

The ultimate aim (2) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct
Continuous explanation of A.
b ii is to produce a
culture system (3) A is false but R is true.
desirable protein
Used to produces a (4) A is true but R is false.

c Bioreactors iii
larger biomass leading 112. Select the incorrect statement :-
to higher yields of
(1) Over 95 percent of all existing transgenic
desired products animals are rabbit
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii (2) Transgenic mice are being developed for
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i use in testing the safety of vaccines
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii (3) 27 documented varieties of basmati are
grown in India
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
109. _____ is the genetic material of all living
(4) ELISA is based on the principle of antigen
antibody interaction
organism.
Fill in the blank with correct option :- 113. The amount of human protein present in milk of
transgenic cow Rosie ?
(1) Carbohydrate
(1) 2.4 gram per litre (2) 4.2 gram per litre
(2) Protein
(3) 5.0 gram per litre (4) 10.2 gram per litre
(3) Nucleic acid
114. Given below are two statement-
(4) (2) and (3) both Statement-I : Genetic modification of organisms
110. Statement I :- Primers are small chemically can have unpredictable results when such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
synthesised oligonucleotides that are complementary
Statement-II : Transgenic animals are made that
to the region of DNA. carry genes which make them more sensitive to
Statement II :- Thermostable DNA polymerase is toxic substances than non-transgenic animals.
isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus. (1) Both the statements are incorrect.
(1) Statement I & II both are correct (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(3) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect correct
(4) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct (4) Both the statements are correct.
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115. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 118. Fill in the blanks
(1) Indian Government has set up an "A __(i)___ DNA or RNA, tagged with a radio-
organisation known as GEAC (Genetic active molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridize
Engineering Approval committee). to its ___(ii)____DNA is a clone of cells"
(2) Genetic modification of organism can have (1) Single stranded ; non-complementary
unpredictable results when such organisms (2) Single stranded ; complementary
are introduced in the ecosystem.
(3) double stranded ; Complementary
(3) There are an estimated 2000 varieties of
(4) double stranded ; clone
rice in India.
(4) The presence of rice goes back thousands
119. Identify the correct statements from the
of years in Asia's agricultural history. following :
116. Correctly match column I and column II.
(A) Transgenic animal carry genes which make
them less sensitive to toxic substances.
Column-I Column-II (B) Toxicity testing in transgenic animals allow
Treatment of us to obtain result in more time.
a Transgenic mice i
emphysema (C) Rosie produced human protein-enriched milk
containing 2.4 mg protein/litre.
b α -1-antitrypsin ii alpha-lactalbumin
(D) Transgenic animals helps to study how genes
c Rosie cow iii Polio vaccine testing effect complex factors involved in growth.
d Indian patent bill iv Second amendment (E) Over 95% of all existing transgenic animal
are mice.
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(1) Only A and C
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(2) A, B, C, D and E
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) Only D and E
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
117. Select the correct option -
(4) Only B, C, D and E

Statement-I – In mammals including humans insulin 120. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
is synthesised as a pro-hormone. (1) Genetic modification in plants has helped
Statement-II – Gene therapy is a collection of
to reduce post harvest loss.

methods that allow correction of a gene defect that (2) Bt-toxin is produced by a fungus called
Bacillus thuringiensis.
has been diagnosed in a child / embryo.
(3) In 1983, genetically engineered human
(1) Statement I & II both are correct
insulin was made using E.coli.
(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect
(4) The first clinical gene therapy was given
(3) Statement I is correct & II is incorrect for adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
(4) Statement I is incorrect & II is correct disease.
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121. Adenosine deaminase deficiency disorder is 125. Fill in the blank with the correct option –
caused due to the _________ of the gene Sieving effect is associated with __________.
responsible for adenosine deaminase enzyme. (1) Gel electrophoresis
(1) Addition (2) Deletion (2) Transformation
(3) Duplication (4) Inversion (3) Selection of recombinant
122. Assertion (A) : Lactobacillus and lactic acid (4) Insertional inactivation
bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd.
Reason (R) : During growth LAB produce acids 126. Choose the correct option based on the given
that coagulate and partially digest the milk protein. statements below –
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason Statement – I : Restriction endonuclease cuts at
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion. palindromic DNA sequence only.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Statement – II : Restriction endonuclease enzyme
breaks the hydrogen bonds of sugar- phosphate
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true. backbone of DNA.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. incorrect
123. Statement – I : The puffed up appearance of (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
dough is due to the production of CO2 gas. correct
Statement – II : "Toddy" a traditional drink of (3) Both, statement I and statement II are
some part of Western India is made by incorrect
fermenting sap from grapes. (4) Both, statement I and statement II are
(1) Both Statement I Statement II correct
and are
incorrect. 127. Given below are the two statements
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Statement 1 : DNA is a hydrophilic molecule.
incorrect. Statement 2 : DNA cannot pass through cell
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is membranes.
In the light of the above statements select the
correct
(4) Both Statement I Statement II correct option.
and are
correct. (1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
124. Which of the following is effective biocontrol
correct.
agent of several plant pathogen ? (2) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is
incorrect
(1) Trichoderma
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is
(2) Cyanobacteria
correct
(3) Nostoc
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
(4) Rhizobium incorrect
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128. The recognition site for BamHI in pBR322 is 132. Statement 1 : Choice of cry genes depends upon
present in : the crop and the targeted pest.
(1) ampicillin resistant site Statement 2 : Correction of genetic defect
involves delivery of a normal gene into the
(2) tetracycline resistant site individual / embryo.
(3) ori site (1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(4) rop site (2) Both Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
129. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a (3) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is
recombinant DNA molecule is ........... incorrect.

(1) Formation of phosphodiester bond between (4) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is
correct.
two DNA fragments
133. Choose incorrect statements-
(2) Formation of hydrogen bonds between (a) Bt toxins are insect - group specific.
sticky ends of DNA fragments (b) Using retroviral vectors, nematode specific
genes were introduced into host plant.
(3) Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases
(c) Recombinant therapeutics induce unwanted
(4) None of the above immunological responses.
130. Choose incorrect match :- (d) Functional ADA cDNA is introduced into
lymphocytes by pBR322 vector.
(1) Nematode resistant tobacco – Gene silencing
(1) a, b, c (2) a, c, d (3) b, c, d (4) a, b, d
(2) Bt cotton – Insecticidal cry protein 134. Who are being used to test the safety of the polio
vaccine ?
(3) Golden rice – Vitamin 'A' enriched
(1) Transgenic pig (2) Transgenic rabbit
(4) Transposons – Viruses having RNA genome (3) Transgenic cow (4) Transgenic mice
131. To prevent the early exhaustion of fertility of 135. Given below are two statements :
soil, genetic modification in plants should be Statement-I : Many important food plants like
tomato, banana, etc have been produced on
done in such a way that -
industrial scale using micropropagation.
(1) They show more tolerance to abiotic stresses. Statement-II : Plants produced by micropropagation
are genetically identical to the original plant from
(2) They become pest - resistant. which they were grown.
Select the correct option.
(3) They have increased efficiency of mineral
(1) Only Statement-I is correct.
usage.
(2) Only Statement-II is correct.
(4) They have decreased efficiency of mineral (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
usage. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
Topic : SYLLABUS-5

136. Which of the following is planar due to back 141. 2P

− H2 O
−−−→ Q −−−
→R
−[ O]

bonding :- If P is phosphoric acid then according to given

(1) CH4 information the incorrect statement is :-
(2) N(CH3)3 (1) Q is pyro form and R is hypo form of given
present oxy acid P.
(3) N(SiH3)3
(2) Number of H-atoms present in each given
(4) PF3 oxy acid is equal to its basicity.
137. Correct statement would be- (3) In P, Q, R oxy acids, oxidation state of
(1) P(SiH3)3 is planar. central atom remains same.
(2) P(SiH3)3 > N(SiH3)3 Lewis basic strength (4) All given oxy acids have p π -d π bond(s) in
their structure.
(3) BF2OH > BF2NH2 B-F bond length order
(4) p π -d π effective back bond is present in NCl3
142. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to :

138. Which of the following statement is not correct

(1) High oxidation state of phosphorus
(2) Presence of two – OH groups and one P – H
for B2H6.
bond
(1) B is sp3 hybridised
(3) Presence of one – OH group and two P – H
(2) There are only 12 bonding electrons available bonds
(3) All atoms lie in same plane (4) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
(4) B – HB bond length > B – HT bond length 143. Which of the following halides cannot be
where (HB = Bridging hydrogen), hydrolysed ?
(i) TeF6 (ii) SF6 (iii) NCl3 (iv) NF3
(HT = Terminal hydrogen)
Choose the correct code
139. Correct order of stability is :-
(1) iii and iv
(1) PbCl2 > PbCl4
(2) i, ii and iii
(2) SnCl2 > SnCl4
(3) i, ii and iv
(3) SnCl4 < PbCl4
(4) ii and iv
(4) PbCl4 > PbCl2
144. The product obtained by the hydrolysis of Al4C3,
140. Correct order of stability- Mg2C3 and CaC2 respectively.
(1) B+1 > Al+1 > Ga+1 > In+1 > Tl+1 (1) Acetylene, Methane, Propyne
(2) B+1 < Al+1 < Ga+1 < In+1 < Tl+1 (2) Methane, Propyne, Acetylene
(3) B+1 < Al+1 < Ga+1 > In+1 > Tl+1 (3) Propyne, Methane, Acetylene
(4) B+1 > Al+1 > Ga+1 < In+1 < Tl+1 (4) Methane, Acetylene, Propyne
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145. Match List-I with List-II. 151. Coordination compounds have great importance
List-I List-II in biological systems. In this context which of
the following statement is incorrect ?
A Coke I. Carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised
(1) Chlorophyll is a green pigment in plants
B Diamond II. Used as a dry lubricant
and contains calcium
C Fullerene III. Used as a reducing agent
(2) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood
D Graphite IV. Cage like molecules and contains iron
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Cyanocobalamin is B12 and contains cobalt
below:
(4) Carboxypeptidase-A is an enzyme and
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III contains zinc
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 152. Identify the incorrect statement from the following :
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (1) Zirconium and Hafnium have identical
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III radii of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively as
146. Calculate the effective atomic number of
a consequence of lanthanoid contraction.
[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (2) Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state.
(1) 37 (2) 47 (3) 36 (4) 35 (3) The lanthanoid ions other than the f0 type
and the f14 type are all paramagnetic.
147. The C – O distances in V(CO)6 and [V(CO)6] –
are respectively (in pm) :- (4) The overall decrease in atomic and ionic
radii from lanthanum to lutetium is called
(1) 200, 200 (2) 193, 200 lanthanoid contraction.
(3) 200, 193 (4) 193, 193 153. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the
148. If P > Δ 0 then electronic configuration of d in 5 spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
octahedral complex :- Column II and assign the correct
code :
(1) t52g eg 0 (2) t32g eg 2 (3) t42g eg 1 (4) eg 5 t2g
Coloum I Coloum II
149. The color of the coordination compounds a. Co3+ i. √ 8 B.M.

depends on the crystal field splitting. What will b. Cr3+ ii. √ 35 B.M.
be the correct order of absorption of wavelength c. Fe3+ iii. √ 3 B.M.
of light in the visible region :
d. Ni2+ iv. √ 24 B.M.
(1) [Co(CN)6]3 – > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+
v. √ 15 B.M.
(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3 –
(3) [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3 – a b c d
(4) [Co(CN)6]3 – > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ 1 iv v ii i
150. The formula of potassium ferricyanide is :- 2 i ii iii iv
(1) K3[Fe(CN)6] (2) K4[Fe(CN)6] 3 iv i ii iii
(3) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (4) K[Pt η 2-(C 2H4)Cl3] 4 iii v i ii
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154. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, Pm 157. Which one of the following does not correctly
and Yb in +3 oxidation state is :- represent the correct order of the property indicated
against it ?
(1) La+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < Yb+3
(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting
(2) La+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < Yb+3 points
(2) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd
(3) Yb+3 < Ce+3 < Pm+3 < La+3
ionization enthalpy
(4) Yb+3 < Pm+3 < Ce+3 < La+3 (3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of
155. KMnO4 is a strong oxidizing agent in acidic
oxidation states
(4) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : increasing
medium. To provide acidic medium dil. H2SO4
magnetic moment
is used not HCl. This is due to :-
158. Statement-I : When H2S gas is passed through
(1) H2SO4 is stronger acid than HCl sodium-nitroprusside solution it gives purple
(2) HCl is oxidised by KMnO4 to Cl2 colour.
(3) H2SO4 is a dibasic acid
Statement-II : When K2CrO4 solution is treated
with barium acetate it gives red precipitate.
(4) Rate of reaction is faster in presence of H2SO4 (1) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
156. Match List-I with List-II : (2) Both statement-I and II are false
List-I List-II (3) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
Element which exhibits +3 (4) Both statement-I and II are true
(a) (i) Mn
oxidation state only 159. A mixture of salt give rotten egg smell when
treated with dilute H2SO4 and which turns lead
Element which exhibits more
(b) (ii) Zn acetate paper black, then salt contain .
number of oxidation states
(1) SO−2
3
Element which is a reducing (2) S – 2
(c) (iii) Sc
agent in its +2 oxidation state
(3) CH3COO –
Element which is not considered (4) NO−3
(d) (iv) Cr
as a transition element 160. Conc. H2 SO4
Salt + MnO2 −−−−−−−−→ X (greenish yellow
Choose the correct answer from the options given colour gas)
below : Incorrect statement :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (1) Released gas is Cl2
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (2) X has pungent smell
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (3) X does not show bleaching property
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) X has oxidising property

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161. K2Cr2O7 + NaCl + H2SO4 → A + other product 166. Match List-I with List-II :
A + NaOH → B + other product
List-I List-II
CH3 COOH
B + lead acetate −−−−−−−→ Yellow ppt (C)
(Test/reagent) (Radical
A,B,C respectively : identified)
(1) CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4,PbCrO4 A. Lake Test I. NO−3
(2) Na2CrO4, PbCrO4, CrO2Cl2 B. Nessler's Reagent II. Fe3+
(3) PbCrO4, CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4 Potassium
(4) CrO2Cl2, PbCrO4, Na2CrO4 C. sulphocyanide III. Al3+
thiocyanate
162. Assertion : In the group II, the function of HCl is D. Brown Ring Test IV. NH4+
to decrease the concentration of S – 2 ions.
Reason : This decrease in the concentration of Choose the correct answer from the options
S – 2 is due to odd ion effect of H+. given below :
(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Reason is correct for the Assertion (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Reason is not correct for the Assertion
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
167. Which of following is not considered as
(4) Assertion and Reason are incorrect organometallic compound ?
163. (1) Ferrocene (2) Ziese's salt
(3) Grignard reagent (4) Cis-platin
(A) is. 168. Consider the following statements
(1) Fe+2 (2) Zn+2 (3) Fe+3 (4) Ni+2 S1 : [Cr (NH3)6]3+ is a inner orbital complex with
164. Which of the following will give chocolate brown crystal field stabilization energy equal to – 1.2 Δ 0
precipitate on adding potassium ferrocyanide S2 : The complex formed by joining the CN –
(K4[Fe(CN)6]) ? ligands to Fe3+ ion has theoretical value of ‘spin
(1) ZnCl2 (2) FeCl3 (3) CuSO4 (4) AgCl only’ magnetic moment equal to 1.73 B.M.
165. Assertion (A) : Aqueous+ solution
S3 : Na2S + Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS],
of Mohr's salt
In reactant and product the oxidation states of iron
exhibits the test for NH4 , Fe and SO4 – 2 ions.
+2

Reason (R) : Mohr's salt is a double salt. are same

arrange in the order of true/false.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (1) F T F (2) T T F (3) T T T (4) F F F
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 169. Which of the following complex can show both
geometrical and optical isomerism ?
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(1) [NiF.ClBr.I] – 2 (2) [Fe(OX)3] – 3
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (3) [Ni(dmg)2] (4) [Fe(OX)2.Cl2] – 3
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170. Select incorrect match :- 174. Match the following
(1) [Co(NO2)(H2O) (en)2]Cl2, List-I List-II
[CoCl(NO2) (en)2]Cl. H2O Hydrate isomerism (Compound) (Hybridisation of
(2) [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4], [CuCl(NH3)3] [PtCl3(NH3)] :
central metal)
Coordination isomerism (A) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (1) sp3
(3) [Ni(CN)(H2O)(NH3)4]Cl, [NiCl(H2O)(NH3)4]CN (B) [PtCl4]2 – (2) sp3d2
: Ionization isomerism (C) [Ni(CO)4] (3) dsp2
(4) [Cr(NO3)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4], (D) [Co(ox)3]3 – (4) d2sp3
[Cr(NO3)(NH3)4Cl] [Zn(NH3)Cl3]
(1) A-2; B-1; C-3; D-4
: Linkage isomerism
171. Select incorrect statement :- (2) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4

(1) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field (3) A-4; B-1; C-3; D-2
ligands have very high magnetic moments. (4) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
(2) When Δ 0 < P, then d6 electron configuration 175. Which of the following is hybridisation of metal
is t2g4 eg2 ion and shape of Wilkinson's catalyst ?
(3) Complex [Co(OX)3]–3 has zero magnetic moment (1) sp3d, Trigonal bi pyramidal
(4) If the Δ 0 for a Co(III) complex is 18000 cm – 1 (2) sp3, tetrahedral
then Δ t for Co(III) complex with same ligand (3) dsp2, square planar
will be 8000 cm – 1 (4) d2sp3, octahedral
172. What is colour change in 176. Correct option for the following columns after
[Ni(H2O)6]2+ [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ ? matching is
(1) Green to light blue (2) Light blue to violet Column-I Column-II
(3) Green to violet (4) Pink to violet Maximum Moles of
173. Correct match is : Formula AgCl can be precipitated
Complexes No. of unpaired electron with excess AgNO3
A [CrF6] – 4 P 5 (I) PdCl2.4NH3 (A) 4
B [MnF6] – 4 Q 2 (II) PtCl4.6H2O (B) 2
C [Cr(CN)6] – 4 R 1 (III) CoCl3.4NH3 (C) 0
–4
D [Mn(CN)6] S 4 (IV) PtCl4.2HCl (D) 1
(1) (A – S), (B – Q), (C – P), (D – R) (1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(2) (A – P), (B – R), (C – Q), (D – S) (2) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(3) (A – S), (B – P), (C – Q), (D – R) (3) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(4) (A – R), (B – S), (C – Q), (D – P) (4) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
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177. K3[Fe(CN)6] is :- 179. Which is correct :-

(a) Potassium hexacyano ferrate (II)
(b) Potassium hexacyano ferrate (III) Complex No. of Rings
(c) Potassium ferri-cyanide (1) [Co(ox)2Cl2] – 3 4
(d) Hexacyano ferrate (III) potassium
(2) [Ni(dmg)2] 4
Correct answer is :-
(3) [Ca(EDTA)] – 2 6
(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (b) and (c)
(4) Brown ring complex 1
(3) Only (a) and (c) (4) Only (b) and (d)
178. Which of the following complex is not a chelate 180. The oxidation and coordination number of Pt in
complex ? [Pt(C2H4)Cl3] – is respectively :-
(1) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II) (1) + 1, 3
(2) potassium (2) + 2, 4
ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(3) + 3, 6
(3) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(4) + 2, 5
(4) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)

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