PW- Rajasthan APO MCQ Marathon

RAJASTHAN APO
MCQ MARATHON
750 + Questions
By – KARAN SANGWAN Sir

HOW’S THE JOSH!
Question
#Q1. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1973 is divided
into:
A. Chapter 37, Sections 481
B. Chapter 39, Sections 484
C. Chapter 38, Sections 481
D. Chapter 37, Sections 484

Question
#Q1. The Code of Criminal Procedure of 1973 is divided
into:
A. Chapter 37, Sections 481
B. Chapter 39, Sections 484
C. Chapter 38, Sections 481
D. Chapter 37, Sections 484

Question
#Q2. The term 'victim' has been defined by the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 in
A. Section 2(r)
B. Section 2(wa)
C. Section 2(t)
D. Section 2(b)
Question
#Q2. The term 'victim' has been defined by the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 in
A. Section 2(r)
B. Section 2(wa)
C. Section 2(t)
D. Section 2(b)
Question
#Q3. Public Prosecutor means a person
A. Appointed under Section 24 of Cr.PC
B. Who wants to act as Public Prosecutor
C. Appointed under Section 24 of Cr.P.C and includes

any person acting under the direction of a Public
Prosecutor
D. None of the above

Question
#Q3. Public Prosecutor means a person

Prosecutor

Question
#Q4. Warrant case relates to an offence punishable
with:
A. More than one year imprisonment
B. More than three years imprisonment
C. Death penalty, life imprisonment or imprisonment

more than two years
D. More than five years imprisonment

Question
with:

more than two years

Question
#Q5. Inquiry under Criminal Procedure Code is
conducted by:
A. Magistrate only
B. Police Officer
C. Sessions Court
D. Magistrate or Court
Question
conducted by:
A. Magistrate only
B. Police Officer
C. Sessions Court
Question
#Q6. Non-cognizable offence means offence where
A. Police officer can arrest without warrant
B. Police officer cannot arrest without warrant
C. Police officer can grant bail
D. Only court can grant bail

Question
#Q6. Non-cognizable offence means offence where
A. Police officer can arrest without warrant
B. Police officer cannot arrest without warrant
C. Police officer can grant bail
D. Only court can grant bail

Question
#Q7. A refusal to answer questions put to a witness
under Section 161 of the Cr.P.C is an offence under
A. Section 176 of IPC
B. Section 179 of IPC
C. Section 187 of IPC

Question
#Q7. A refusal to answer questions put to a witness
under Section 161 of the Cr.P.C is an offence under

Question
#Q8. Investigation, under the Code of Criminal
Procedure 1973, is conducted by:
A. The police only
B. Both the police and the court
C. The court only
D. The police under the discretions of the Session's

Court or the High Court
Question
#Q8. Investigation, under the Code of Criminal
Procedure 1973, is conducted by:
A. The police only
B. Both the police and the court
C. The court only
D. The police under the discretions of the Session's

Court or the High Court
Question
#Q9. Every warrant of arrest shall remain in force until:
A. It is executed
B. Cancelled by court which issued it
C. It expires on its own
D. Only (A) and (B) are correct

Question
#Q9. Every warrant of arrest shall remain in force until:
A. It is executed
B. Cancelled by court which issued it
C. It expires on its own
D. Only (A) and (B) are correct

Question
#Q10. When is an Investigating Officer bound to video-
graph the proceeding during investigation?
A. Identification of the driver of the offending vehicle

by the physically disabled victim of a road accident
B. Recording the statement of a rape victim, under a

mental trauma
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Question
#Q10. When is an Investigating Officer bound to video-
graph the proceeding during investigation?
A. Identification of the driver of the offending vehicle

by the physically disabled victim of a road accident
B. Recording the statement of a rape victim, under a

mental trauma
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Question
#Q11. A person can be summoned as a witness under
Section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, by:
A. Any police officer
B. The station police officer
C. The police officer investigating the case

Question
#Q11. A person can be summoned as a witness under
Section 160 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, by:
A. Any police officer
B. The station police officer
C. The police officer investigating the case

Question
#Q12. Which one of the following is not correct in
respect of recording of confession under Section 164 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A. It must be voluntary
B. It must be recorded by the Magistrate
C. It must be recorded by the Judicial or Metropolitan

Magistrate
D. Accused must be told of his freedom not to speak

against himself
Question
#Q12. Which one of the following is not correct in
respect of recording of confession under Section 164 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A. It must be voluntary
B. It must be recorded by the Magistrate
C. It must be recorded by the Judicial or Metropolitan

Magistrate
D. Accused must be told of his freedom not to speak

against himself
Question
#Q13. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Information in Cognizable Cases—Section 154

Cr.P.C.
B. Arrest by Magistrate—Section 44 C.P.C
C. Contents of charge—Section 211 Cr.P.C
D. Trial of more than one offence - Section 218 Cr.P.C.

Question
#Q13. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A. Information in Cognizable Cases—Section 154

Cr.P.C.
B. Arrest by Magistrate—Section 44 C.P.C
C. Contents of charge—Section 211 Cr.P.C
D. Trial of more than one offence - Section 218 Cr.P.C.

Question
#Q14. Which is not content of charge?
A. Description of family background d the accused
B. Specific name of the offence as per the law which

provides the offence
C. In case of unspecific name of the offence, definition

of the offence
D. Particulars of time and place of the alleged offence

Question
#Q14. Which is not content of charge?
A. Description of family background d the accused
B. Specific name of the offence as per the law which

provides the offence
C. In case of unspecific name of the offence, definition

of the offence

Question
#Q15. When a case is instituted under section 199(2) of
Cr.P.C, the procedure of trial adopted in such a case is
A. Session trial
B. Trial of warrant case instituted on police report
C. Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise than a

police report
D. Summons trial
Question
#Q15. When a case is instituted under section 199(2) of
Cr.P.C, the procedure of trial adopted in such a case is
A. Session trial
B. Trial of warrant case instituted on police report
C. Trial of warrant case instituted on otherwise than a

police report
D. Summons trial
Question
#Q16. If the accused pleads guilty, the Judge has:
A. No discretion to convict him
B. The discretion to convict him
C. The discretion to convict him after recording his

plea
D. The discretion to convict him depending upon

corroboration of evidence
Question
#Q16. If the accused pleads guilty, the Judge has:
A. No discretion to convict him
B. The discretion to convict him
C. The discretion to convict him after recording his

plea
D. The discretion to convict him depending upon

corroboration of evidence
Question
#Q17. An order of discharge :
A. Is not a judgement
B. Is not defence against the proceedings without fresh

facts and better evidence
C. Take place after formal framing of charges
D. Establishes innocence of accused

Question
#Q17. An order of discharge :
A. Is not a judgement
B. Is not defence against the proceedings without fresh

facts and better evidence
C. Take place after formal framing of charges
D. Establishes innocence of accused

Question
#Q18. In a summons case, when the accused appears or
is brought before the Magistrate, it shall not be
necessary to:
A. State the particulars of the offence of which he is

accused
B. Ask whether he pleads guilty
C. Ask whether he has any defence to make
D. Frame a formal charge

Question
#Q18. In a summons case, when the accused appears or
is brought before the Magistrate, it shall not be
necessary to:
A. State the particulars of the offence of which he is

accused
B. Ask whether he pleads guilty
C. Ask whether he has any defence to make
D. Frame a formal charge

Question
#Q19. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has the
power to try a summons case as a warrant case,
wherein the offence to be tried thereunder is punishable
with the imprisonment
A. Exceeding 6 months
B. Exceeding 4 months
C. Exceeding 1 year

Question
#Q19. In the interest of justice a Magistrate has the
power to try a summons case as a warrant case,
wherein the offence to be tried thereunder is punishable
with the imprisonment
A. Exceeding 6 months
B. Exceeding 4 months
C. Exceeding 1 year

Question
#Q20. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a
matter of right
A. By the police officer
B. By the court
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. Either (a) or (b)

Question
matter of right
B. by the court
C. Both (a) and (b)

Question
#Q21. Maximum period for which under-trial can be
detained
A. Is decided by the court
B. Not exceeding the maximum period of punishment

for the said offence
C. Not more than half of the maximum period of

punishment for the said offence

Question
detained



Question
#Q22. Three offences of the same kind within ________
may be charged together. Fill in the blanks in
accordance with the provisions of Section 219 of CrPC.
A. A year
B. Two Years
C. Three Years

Question
#Q22. Three offences of the same kind within ________
may be charged together. Fill in the blanks in
accordance with the provisions of Section 219 of CrPC.
A. A year
B. Two Years
C. Three Years

Question
#Q23. When investigation cannot be completed within
24 hours, the maximum period for which an accused can
be remanded to police custody is
A. Ten days
B. Fifteen days
C. Thirteen days
D. Thirty days
Question
24 hours, the maximum period for which an accused can
be remanded to police custody is
A. Ten days
B. Fifteen days
C. Thirteen days
D. Thirty days
Question
24 hours, the largest period for which an accused can be
remanded to police custody is
A. Ten days
B. Fifteen days
C. Thirteen days
D. Thirty days
Question
24 hours, the largest period for which an accused can be
remanded to police custody is
A. Ten days
B. Fifteen days
C. Thirteen days
D. Thirty days
Question
#Q25. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the
Court after the commencement of the trial, the
prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall
their witnesses. This is provided under _________ of CrPC.
A. Section 217
B. Section 218
C. Section 216
D. Section 215
Question
#Q25. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the
Court after the commencement of the trial, the
prosecutor and the accused shall be allowed to recall
their witnesses. This is provided under _________ of CrPC.
A. Section 217
B. Section 218
C. Section 216
D. Section 215
Question
#Q26. Maintenance of a case diary by an investigating
officer is
A. Directory
B. Mandatory
C. Discretionary
D. Neither (a) nor (b)

Question
#Q26. Maintenance of a case diary by an investigating
officer is
A. Directory
B. Mandatory
C. Discretionary
D. Neither (a) nor (b)

Question
#Q27. Under which of the following sections of Cr.P.C.
provisions relating to police report is given?
A. Section 173(2)(i)
B. Section 177
C. Section 174(2)(i)
D. Section 175
Question
#Q27. Under which of the following sections of Cr.P.C.
provisions relating to police report is given?
A. Section 173(2)(i)
B. Section 177
C. Section 174(2)(i)
D. Section 175
Question
#Q28. Which one of the following propositions of law is
correct as per the law laid down in Lalita Kumari v.
Government of UP and Others, (2014)?
A. Police has discretion to register FIR
B. Police can hold a preliminary enquiry before

registering FIR
C. It is mandatory for the police to register FIR unless

the case falls in the exceptions
D. It is absolutely mandatory for the police to register

FIR without exception
Question
#Q28. Which one of the following propositions of law is
correct as per the law laid down in Lalita Kumari v.
Government of UP and Others, (2014)?
A. Police has discretion to register FIR
B. Police can hold a preliminary enquiry before

registering FIR
C. It is mandatory for the police to register FIR unless

the case falls in the exceptions
D. It is absolutely mandatory for the police to register

FIR without exception
Question
#Q29. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. the attachment of
property of the person absconding is made?
A. Section 12
B. Section 83
C. Section 64
D. Section 85
Question
#Q29. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. the attachment of
property of the person absconding is made?
A. Section 12
B. Section 83
C. Section 64
D. Section 85
Question
#Q30. A proclamation under Section 82 of Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall specify time for not less
than 30 days from the date of ____________ of such
proclamation
A. Issuing
B. Receiving
C. Publishing
D. Returning
Question
#Q30. A proclamation under Section 82 of Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall specify time for not less
than 30 days from the date of ____________ of such
proclamation
A. Issuing
B. Receiving
C. Publishing
D. Returning
Question
#Q31. Fill in the blanks in accordance with Section 265
of CrPC with the appropriate option
Language of record and judgment - Every such record
and judgment shall be written in the ___________.
A. English Language
B. Hindi Language
C. Language of the Court
D. Vernacular Language
Question
#Q31. Fill in the blanks in accordance with Section 265
of CrPC with the appropriate option
Language of record and judgment - Every such record
and judgment shall be written in the ___________.
A. English Language
B. Hindi Language
D. Vernacular Language
Question
#Q32. Under Section 439 of the CrPC, which courts have
the power to grant bail in non-bailable cases?
A. Only the Magistrate's Court
B. Only the Sessions Court
C. Only the High Court
D. Both the Sessions Court and the High Court

Question
#Q32. Under Section 439 of the CrPC, which courts have
the power to grant bail in non-bailable cases?
A. Only the Magistrate's Court
B. Only the Sessions Court
C. Only the High Court
D. Both the Sessions Court and the High Court

Question
#Q33. Which of the following courts can summarily try
offences mentioned in Section 260 of Criminal
Procedure Code?
A. Any Chief Judicial Magistrate
B. Any Metropolitan Magistrate
C. Any magistrate of the first class specially

empowered by the High Court in this behalf
D. All the above

Question
Procedure Code?

D. All the above

Question
#Q34. Under which provision of Cr.P.C, a court may
convert a summons case into a warrant case?
A. Section 259
B. Section 260
C. Section 258
D. All the above

Question
#Q34. Under which provision of Cr.P.C, a court may
convert a summons case into a warrant case?
A. Section 259
B. Section 260
C. Section 258
D. All the above

Question
#Q35. An accused can be discharged by the :
A. Magistrate who takes the cognizance
B. Court which has competence to try the case
C. Police
D. Chief Judicial Magistrate or Court of Sessions

Question
#Q35. An accused can be discharged by the :
A. Magistrate who takes the cognizance
B. Court which has competence to try the case
C. Police
D. Chief Judicial Magistrate or Court of Sessions

Question
#Q36. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure
defines the term
A. Investigation
B. Charge
C. Inquiry
D. Offence
Question
#Q36. Section 2(h) of the Code of Criminal Procedure
defines the term
A. Investigation
B. Charge
C. Inquiry
D. Offence
Question
#Q37. The most essential ingredient of the ‘complaint’
is:
A. An allegation of wrongful act
B. An allegation of breach of right
C. An allegation of some physical injury
D. An allegation of an offence with a view to take action

Question
#Q37. The most essential ingredient of the ‘complaint’
is:
A. An allegation of wrongful act
B. An allegation of breach of right
C. An allegation of some physical injury
D. An allegation of an offence with a view to take action

Question
#Q38. How many classes of criminal courts shall be in a
district?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Question
#Q38. How many classes of criminal courts shall be in a
district?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Question
#Q39. State Government may, by notification. declare
any area to be a metropolitan area fer the purposes of
the Code of Criminal Procedure whose population
exceeds:
A. Ten lakhs
B. Five lakh
C. Seven lakhs
D. Three lakh
Question
#Q39. State Government may, by notification. declare
any area to be a metropolitan area fer the purposes of
the Code of Criminal Procedure whose population
exceeds:
A. Ten lakhs
B. Five lakh
C. Seven lakhs
D. Three lakh
Question
#Q40. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr.P.C., after
the words "Public Prosecutor" the words inserted are:
A. One or more additional public prosecutors
B. Two or more additional public prosecutors
C. At least five additional public prosecutors

Question
#Q40. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr.P.C., after
the words "Public Prosecutor" the words inserted are:
A. One or more additional public prosecutors
B. Two or more additional public prosecutors
C. At least five additional public prosecutors

Question
#Q41. Summons of Court can be served by:
A. Only a police officer
B. An officer of the court
C. Public servant
D. Any of them
Question
#Q41. Summons of Court can be served by:
A. Only a police officer
B. An officer of the court
C. Public servant
D. Any of them
Question
#Q42. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. the summons may
be served by leaving it with some adult member of the
family of the concerned person?
A. Section 62
B. Section 63
C. Section 64
D. Section 65
Question
#Q42. Under which Section of Cr.P.C. the summons may
be served by leaving it with some adult member of the
family of the concerned person?
A. Section 62
B. Section 63
C. Section 64
D. Section 65
Question
#Q43. An arrest warrant in a criminal case shall be
signed by:
A. Chief Ministerial Officer
B. Authorized Office
C. Presiding Officer of the Court
D. Authorized Officer
Question
#Q43. An arrest warrant in a criminal case shall be
signed by:
A. Chief Ministerial Officer
B. Authorized Office
C. Presiding Officer of the Court
D. Authorized Officer
Question
#Q44. The FIR gives information of
A. Report to the Magistrate about the inquiry

conducted by a police officer
B. Report submitted to the court by the investigation

officer in a criminal case
C. The commission of a cognizable crime

Question
#Q44. The FIR gives information of



Question
#Q45. What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR
A. Within 24 hours
B. Within 48 hours
C. Within 14 days of the offence
D. No time limit is specified

Question
#Q45. What is the time prescribed for filing an FIR
A. Within 24 hours
B. Within 48 hours
C. Within 14 days of the offence
D. No time limit is specified

Question
#Q46. A report made by a police officer in a case which
discloses, after investigating the commission of a non-
cognizable offence, shall be deemed to be a:
A. Police report
B. Complaint
C. Final report
D. Charge sheet
Question
#Q46. A report made by a police officer in a case which
discloses, after investigating the commission of a non-
cognizable offence, shall be deemed to be a:
A. Police report
B. Complaint
C. Final report
D. Charge sheet
Question
#Q47. Accused ‘A’ is under police custody for 10 days.
On the 9th day, he is brought before the Magistrate to
record his confession, where he refuses to confess. The
correct procedure under the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 is
A. He will remain in police custody for 01 more day
B. The Magistrate may extend his judicial remand till

the 15th day
C. The Magistrate will send him to judicial custody

immediately
D. None of the above.

Question
#Q47. Accused ‘A’ is under police custody for 10 days.
On the 9th day, he is brought before the Magistrate to
record his confession, where he refuses to confess. The
correct procedure under the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 is
A. He will remain in police custody for 01 more day
B. The Magistrate may extend his judicial remand till

the 15th day
C. The Magistrate will send him to judicial custody

immediately

Question
#Q48. First Information Report is not a substantive
evidence, it can be used during trial for the following:
A. Only to corroborate the evidence of the informant
B. Only to contradict the evidence of the informant
C. For both (A) and (B) above
D. For neither (A) nor (B)

Question
#Q48. First Information Report is not a substantive
evidence, it can be used during trial for the following:
A. Only to corroborate the evidence of the informant
B. Only to contradict the evidence of the informant
C. For both (A) and (B) above
D. For neither (A) nor (B)

Question
#Q49. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge
shall be written in the
A. Language which accused understands
B. Language which witnesses understands
D. Hindi language
Question
#Q49. Under Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, a charge
shall be written in the
A. Language which accused understands
B. Language which witnesses understands
D. Hindi language
Question
#Q50. When does a trial commence in warrant cases
instituted on police report?
A. With issuance of process against accused
B. With submission of police report
C. On framing of formal charge by court
D. On the appearance of the accused pursuant to

process issued by court
Question
#Q50. When does a trial commence in warrant cases
instituted on police report?
A. With issuance of process against accused
B. With submission of police report
C. On framing of formal charge by court
D. On the appearance of the accused pursuant to

process issued by court
Question
#Q51. What is not true?
“Magistrate may discharge the accused If complainant is
absent on date of hearing" if offence is
A. Compoundable or
B. Non-cognizable
C. Before charge has been framed
D. Provision would be applicable for complaint case

and police case both
Question
#Q51. What is not true?
“Magistrate may discharge the accused If complainant is
absent on date of hearing" if offence is
A. Compoundable or
B. Non-cognizable
C. Before charge has been framed
D. Provision would be applicable for complaint case

and police case both
Question
#Q52. Which of the following is not correct regarding
provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences ?
A. Bail may be granted, if the count concerned comes to
the conclusion that prosecution has failed to establish
a prima-facie case
B. Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in
spite of the existence of a prima-facie case there is
need to release such person on bail in view of facts
and circumstances of the case.
C. Bail cannot be granted to accused who may be
required and being identified by witness during
investigation.
D. If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment
for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more no person
can be released on bail without giving an opportunity
of hearing to the public prosecutor
Question
#Q52. Which of the following is not correct regarding
provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences ?
A. Bail may be granted, if the count concerned comes to
the conclusion that prosecution has failed to establish
a prima-facie case
B. Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in
spite of the existence of a prima-facie case there is
need to release such person on bail in view of facts
and circumstances of the case.
C. Bail cannot be granted to accused who may be
required and being identified by witness during
investigation.
D. If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment
for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more no person
can be released on bail without giving an opportunity
of hearing to the public prosecutor
Question
#Q53. Under which Sections of Cr.P.C. Provision
regarding summary trials given?
A. Sections 360-365
B. Sections 260-265
C. Sections 256-258
D. Section 180-190
Question
A. Sections 360-365
B. Sections 260-265
C. Sections 256-258
D. Section 180-190
Question
#Q54. Match list one with list two and give the correct
answer by using the Codes:
List - I List - II
A. Complaint 1. Sec 2(wa)
B. Investigation 2. Sec 2(d)
C. Enquiry 3. Sec 2(h)
D. Victim 4. Sec 2(g)
CODES:
A B C D
A. 3 2 4 1
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 4 1 2 3
D. 1 2 3 4
Question
#Q54. Match list one with list two and give the correct
answer by using the Codes:
List - I List - II
A. Complaint 1. Sec 2(wa)
B. Investigation 2. Sec 2(d)
C. Enquiry 3. Sec 2(h)
D. Victim 4. Sec 2(g)
CODES:
A B C D
A. 3 2 4 1
B. 2 3 4 1
C. 4 1 2 3
D. 1 2 3 4
Question
#Q55. Warrant case does not mean a case relating to an
offence punishable with
A. Imprisonment for a term exceeding 10 years
B. Imprisonment for life
C. Death
D. Imprisonment for 2 years

Question
#Q55. Warrant case does not mean a case relating to an
offence punishable with
A. Imprisonment for a term exceeding 10 years
C. Death
D. Imprisonment for 2 years

Question
#Q56. Who can appoint a public officer as an Assistant
Public Prosecutor for courts of magistrates?
A. Superintendent of police
B. District and session judge
C. District magistrate
D. High Court on the request of the state government

Question
#Q56. Who can appoint a public officer as an Assistant
Public Prosecutor for courts of magistrates?
A. Superintendent of police
B. District and session judge
C. District magistrate
D. High Court on the request of the state government

Question
#Q57. Police officer can be appointed as assistant Public
Prosecutor, provided
A. He is below the rank of inspector
B. He has taken part in investigation
C. He is in the rank of Superintendent of Police
D. He is not below the rank of Inspector and has not

been part of Investigation
Question
#Q57. Police officer can be appointed as assistant Public
Prosecutor, provided
A. He is below the rank of inspector
B. He has taken part in investigation
C. He is in the rank of Superintendent of Police
D. He is not below the rank of Inspector and has not

been part of Investigation
Question
#Q58. Under section 27 of The Criminal Procedure Code
the age of Juvenile is
A. 16 years
B. 18 years
C. 12 years
D. 14 years
Question
#Q58. Under section 27 of The Criminal Procedure Code
the age of Juvenile is
A. 16 years
B. 18 years
C. 12 years
D. 14 years
Question
#Q59. Assistant sessions judge is empowered to pass
sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding-
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 3 years
D. 7 years
Question
#Q59. Assistant sessions judge is empowered to pass
sentence of imprisonment for a term not exceeding-
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 3 years
D. 7 years
Question
#Q60. Under section 83(1)(a )of the code of criminal
procedure the court mayor order-
A. Proclamation for person absconding before

attaching property
B. Attachment of property of person absconding after

proclamation
C. Proclamation and attachment simultaneously
D. Proclamation and attachment by separate order

Question
#Q60. Under section 83(1)(a )of the code of criminal
procedure the court mayor order-
A. Proclamation for person absconding before

attaching property
B. Attachment of property of person absconding after

proclamation
C. Proclamation and attachment simultaneously
D. Proclamation and attachment by separate order

Question
#Q61. Report of police officer on completion of
Investigation under section 173 of the code of criminal
procedure is called
A. Police diary
B. Case diary
C. Charge sheet
D. Closure report
Question
Investigation under section 173 of the code of criminal
procedure is called
A. Police diary
B. Case diary
C. Charge sheet
D. Closure report
Question
#Q62. Maximum period for which an accused can be
reminded in police custody is-
A. One week
B. 15 days
C. 1 month
D. Three months
Question
#Q62. Maximum period for which an accused can be
reminded in police custody is-
A. One week
B. 15 days
C. 1 month
D. Three months
Question
#Q63. Offences of the same kind committed by a person
accused of more than one offence within the space of 12
months, whether in respect of the same person or not,
may be charged with and tried one trial under code of
criminal procedure, for how many offences?
A. Two
B. Five
C. Four
D. Three
Question
#Q63. Offences of the same kind committed by a person
accused of more than one offence within the space of 12
months, whether in respect of the same person or not,
may be charged with and tried one trial under code of
criminal procedure, for how many offences?
A. Two
B. Five
C. Four
D. Three
Question
#Q64. The court may alter the charge-
A. Before the Evidence of the prosecution is taken
B. Before the accused enters upon his defence
C. When the evidence of prosecution and defence both

is taken
D. Before the judgement is pronounced

Question
#Q64. The court may alter the charge-
A. Before the Evidence of the prosecution is taken
B. Before the accused enters upon his defence
C. When the evidence of prosecution and defence both

is taken
D. Before the judgement is pronounced

Question
#Q65. In which sections of the code of criminal
procedure the trial procedure of warrant cases is given?
A. Sec 238 to 250
B. Sec 251 to 259
C. Sec 260 to 265
D. Sec 225 to 237

Question
#Q65. In which sections of the code of criminal
procedure the trial procedure of warrant cases is given?
A. Sec 238 to 250
B. Sec 251 to 259
C. Sec 260 to 265
D. Sec 225 to 237

Question
#Q66. Under the code of criminal procedure, 1973 In a
warrant case instituted on police report the trial begins
when?
A. Charges are framed
B. Accused appears
C. Witnesses are examined

Question
#Q66. Under the code of criminal procedure, 1973 In a
warrant case instituted on police report the trial begins
when?
A. Charges are framed
B. Accused appears
C. Witnesses are examined

Question
#Q67. Warrant can be Executed :
A. In any place in India
B. In limits of jurisdiction of the court
C. Both a & b

Question
#Q67. Warrant can be Executed :
A. In any place in India
B. In limits of jurisdiction of the court
C. Both a & b

Question
#Q68. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect
of those offences for which punishment of
imprisonment is up to the period of:
A. 7 years
B. 2 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
Question
#Q68. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect
of those offences for which punishment of
imprisonment is up to the period of:
A. 7 years
B. 2 years
C. 10 years
D. 5 years
Question
#Q69. In which of the following cases the Supreme
Court held that FIR was not substantive evidence and
could only be used to corroborate its maker?
A. Anil Kumar v. B.S. Neelakanta
B. Viveta Gazra v. State
C. UOI v. A. Kumar
D. C. Magesh v. State of Karnataka

Question
Court held that FIR was not substantive evidence and
could only be used to corroborate its maker?
A. Anil Kumar v. B.S. Neelakanta
B. Viveta Gazra v. State
C. UOI v. A. Kumar
D. C. Magesh v. State of Karnataka

Question
#Q70. When any person who, in the presence of police
officer has committed or has been accused of
committing a __________refuses on demand of such
officer, to give his name and residence or gives a name
or residence which such officer has reason to believe to
be false he may be arrested by such officer in order that
his name or residence may be ascertained.
A. Cognizable Offence
B. Non- Cognizable Offence
C. Any offence
D. Or both
Question
#Q70. When any person who, in the presence of police
officer has committed or has been accused of
committing a __________refuses on demand of such
officer, to give his name and residence or gives a name
or residence which such officer has reason to believe to
be false he may be arrested by such officer in order that
his name or residence may be ascertained.
A. Cognizable Offence
B. Non- Cognizable Offence
C. Any offence
D. Or both
Question
#Q71. Chapter XXI A in CrPC was inserted by:
A. Act 12 of 2006
B. Act 02 of 2009
C. Act 12 of 2009
D. Act 02 of 2006
Question
#Q71. Chapter XXI A in CrPC was inserted by:
A. Act 12 of 2006
B. Act 02 of 2009
C. Act 12 of 2009
D. Act 02 of 2006
Question
#Q72. Section 41B is inserted into the Criminal
Procedure Code on the basis of which among the
following decisions:
A. Nandini satpathy v. P.L. Dhani
B. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
C. Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
D. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

Question
#Q72. Section 41B is inserted into the Criminal
Procedure Code on the basis of which among the
following decisions:
A. Nandini satpathy v. P.L. Dhani
B. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration
C. Prem Shankar Shukla v. Delhi Administration
D. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal

Question
#Q73. Where the High Court has, on appeal, reversed an
order of acquittal of an accused person and convicted
him and sentenced him to death or to imprisonment for
life or to imprisonment for a term of ten years or more,
he may appeal to the ______________.
A. Other high court
B. Supreme court
C. Same high court

Question
#Q73. Where the High Court has, on appeal, reversed an
order of acquittal of an accused person and convicted
him and sentenced him to death or to imprisonment for
life or to imprisonment for a term of ten years or more,
he may appeal to the ______________.
A. Other high court
B. Supreme court
C. Same high court

Question
#Q74. Which are is correct in relation to non- cognizable
offence:
A. Investigation of such offence can be only by order of

magistrate
B. Investigation can be conducted by Police officer any

time in any manner
C. Investigation can only be done with the permission

of the State Government.
D. All the above

Question
#Q74. Which are is correct in relation to non- cognizable
offence:
A. Investigation of such offence can be only by order of

magistrate
B. Investigation can be conducted by Police officer any

time in any manner
C. Investigation can only be done with the permission

of the State Government.
D. All the above

Question
#Q75. Delay in examining witnesses by investigating
officers does not ipso facto make the prosecution
version suspicious, Investigating officer should be
categorically questioned in aspect of delayed
examination” was held in which of the following cases:
A. Megha Singh v. State of Haryana
B. State of UP v. Satish
C. State of NCT Delhi v. Ravikant Sharma
D. Balkrishna v. State of Orissa

Question
#Q75. Delay in examining witnesses by investigating
officers does not ipso facto make the prosecution
version suspicious, Investigating officer should be
categorically questioned in aspect of delayed
examination” was held in which of the following cases:
A. Megha Singh v. State of Haryana
B. State of UP v. Satish
C. State of NCT Delhi v. Ravikant Sharma
D. Balkrishna v. State of Orissa

Question
#Q76. Under which section of the Crpc can a police
officer conduct a search without a warrant?
A. Section 47
B. Section 165
C. Section 166
D. Section167
Question
#Q76. Under which section of the Crpc can a police
officer conduct a search without a warrant?
A. Section 47
B. Section 165
C. Section 166
D. Section167
Question
#Q77. Procedure when investigation cannot be
completed in twenty-four hours is provided under
___________ of CrPC.
A. Section 165
B. Section 166
C. Section 167
D. Section 168
Question
#Q77. Procedure when investigation cannot be
completed in twenty-four hours is provided under
___________ of CrPC.
A. Section 165
B. Section 166
C. Section 167
D. Section 168
Question
#Q78. Contents of charge does not include :
A. The offence with which the accused is charged.
B. Law which creates the offence
C. Charge shall be written in the English language.
D. Law and section of the law against which the offence

is said to have been committed
Question
#Q78. Contents of charge does not include :
A. The offence with which the accused is charged.
B. Law which creates the offence
C. Charge shall be written in the English language.
D. Law and section of the law against which the offence

is said to have been committed
Question
#Q79. Anticipatory bail can be granted by the Sessions
court:
A. When the offence committed is bailable.
B. When the accused has committed a non-bailable

offence and has been arrested.
C. When the accused has committed a non-bailable

offence and is yet to be arrested.
D. When the First Information Report has not been

registered
Question
#Q79. Anticipatory bail can be granted by the Sessions
court:
A. When the offence committed is bailable.
B. When the accused has committed a non-bailable

offence and has been arrested.
C. When the accused has committed a non-bailable

offence and is yet to be arrested.
D. When the First Information Report has not been

registered
Question
#Q80. Under which provision of Cr.P.C. On receipt of
First Information Report for the commission of an
offence, the officer in-charge of the police station sends
the copy to the concerned Magistrate?
A. Under section 154 Cr.P.C.
B. Under section 159 Cr.P.C.
C. Under section 156 Cr.P.C.
D. Under section 157 Cr.P.C

Question
#Q80. Under which provision of Cr.P.C. On receipt of
First Information Report for the commission of an
offence, the officer in-charge of the police station sends
the copy to the concerned Magistrate?
A. Under section 154 Cr.P.C.
B. Under section 159 Cr.P.C.
C. Under section 156 Cr.P.C.
D. Under section 157 Cr.P.C

Question
#Q81. In which Section of the Cr.P.C. is it provided that a
male child below the age of 6 years to 15 years cannot
be called at the police station?
A. Section 160(1)
B. Section 161(2)
C. Section 160(2)
D. Section 163
Question
#Q81. In which Section of the Cr.P.C. is it provided that a
male child below the age of 6 years to 15 years cannot
be called at the police station?
A. Section 160(1)
B. Section 161(2)
C. Section 160(2)
D. Section 163
Question
#Q82. Hearing on sentence by a Magistrate is required,
on conviction ____
A. In a summons trial case under Section 255(2) of

Cr.P.C.
B. In a warrant trial case under Section 248(2) of

Cr.P.C.
C. Both (A) & (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)

Question
#Q82. Hearing on sentence by a Magistrate is required,
on conviction ____
A. In a summons trial case under Section 255(2) of

Cr.P.C.
B. In a warrant trial case under Section 248(2) of

Cr.P.C.
C. Both (A) & (B)
D. Neither (A) nor (B)

Question
#Q83. Procedure for summary trials is mentioned under
__________ of CrPC.
A. Section 261
B. Section 262
C. Section 263
D. Section 264
Question
#Q83. Procedure for summary trials is mentioned under
__________ of CrPC.
A. Section 261
B. Section 262
C. Section 263
D. Section 264
Question
#Q84. What is the purpose of committal proceedings?
A. To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused
B. To transfer cases from lower courts to higher courts
C. To decide on the admissibility of evidence
D. To ascertain if there is enough evidence to warrant a

trial
Question
#Q84. What is the purpose of committal proceedings?
A. To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused
B. To transfer cases from lower courts to higher courts
C. To decide on the admissibility of evidence
D. To ascertain if there is enough evidence to warrant a

trial
Question
#Q85. What is meant by original jurisdiction in the
context of the CrPC?
A. The jurisdiction of a court to hear cases for the first

time
B. The jurisdiction of a court to review lower court

decisions
C. The jurisdiction of a court to appeal to higher courts
D. The jurisdiction of a court to issue arrest warrants

Question
#Q85. What is meant by original jurisdiction in the
context of the CrPC?
A. The jurisdiction of a court to hear cases for the first

time
B. The jurisdiction of a court to review lower court

decisions
C. The jurisdiction of a court to appeal to higher courts
D. The jurisdiction of a court to issue arrest warrants

Question
#Q86. “Police report” is defined under ___________
A. Section 2(q)
B. Section 2(r)
C. Section 2(p)
D. Section 2(t)
Question
#Q86. “Police report” is defined under ___________
A. Section 2(q)
B. Section 2(r)
C. Section 2(p)
D. Section 2(t)
Question
#Q87. What does "taking cognizance" mean under the
CrPC?
A. Filing an FIR
B. Issuing a summons
C. Commencing the trial
D. Applying judicial mind to the contents of the

complaint or police report
Question
#Q87. What does "taking cognizance" mean under the
CrPC?
A. Filing an FIR
B. Issuing a summons
C. Commencing the trial
D. Applying judicial mind to the contents of the

complaint or police report
Question
#Q88. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the object
of investigation is
A. To arrest the accused
B. To punish the accused
C. To collect evidence against the accused

Question
#Q88. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 the object
of investigation is
A. To arrest the accused
B. To punish the accused
C. To collect evidence against the accused

Question
#Q89. What is the purpose of a charge sheet in the
investigation process?
A. To request additional time for further investigation
B. To initiate legal proceedings against the accused
C. To dismiss the case if there is insufficient evidence

Question
#Q89. What is the purpose of a charge sheet in the
investigation process?
A. To request additional time for further investigation
B. To initiate legal proceedings against the accused
C. To dismiss the case if there is insufficient evidence

Question
#Q90. A conditional order for removal of public
nuisance Cr. P.C. may be passed by—
A. District Magistrate only
B. Sub-Divisional Magistrate only
C. Executive Magistrate only
D. Any of the above Magistrates

Question
#Q90. A conditional order for removal of public
nuisance Cr. P.C. may be passed by—
A. District Magistrate only
B. Sub-Divisional Magistrate only
C. Executive Magistrate only
D. Any of the above Magistrates

Question
#Q91. The acts of child constituting general exceptions
under IPC are mentioned in: —
A. Sections 81-82
B. Sections 82-83
C. Sections 83-84
D. Sections 84-85
Question
#Q91. The acts of child constituting general exceptions
under IPC are mentioned in: —
A. Sections 81-82
B. Sections 82-83
C. Sections 83-84
D. Sections 84-85
Question
#Q92. Under which of the following sections of the
Cr.P.C. the magistrate shall dismiss the complaint?
A. Section 202
B. Section 201
C. Section 203

Question
#Q92. Under which of the following sections of the
Cr.P.C. the magistrate shall dismiss the complaint?
A. Section 202
B. Section 201
C. Section 203

Question
#Q93. After dismissal of a complaint, a fresh similar
complaint on the same facts
A. Is banned
B. Is not banned but will be entertained only in

exceptional circumstances
C. Is not banned and will be entertained in all

circumstances

Question
#Q93. After dismissal of a complaint, a fresh similar
complaint on the same facts
A. Is banned
B. Is not banned but will be entertained only in

exceptional circumstances
C. Is not banned and will be entertained in all

circumstances

Question
#Q94. Which of the following sections deals with the
provisions relating to maximum period for which an
undertrial prisoner can be detained:
A. 436
B. 436A
C. 437A
D. 437
Question
#Q94. Which of the following sections deals with the
provisions relating to maximum period for which an
undertrial prisoner can be detained:
A. 436
B. 436A
C. 437A
D. 437
Question
#Q95. What is the minimum period of imprisonment for
releasing on bail under section 436A of Criminal
Procedure of Code?
A. ¼ of maximum imprisonment
B. ½ of maximum period imprisonment
C. ⅓ of maximum imprisonment
D. No period is prescribed
Question
#Q95. What is the minimum period of imprisonment for
releasing on bail under section 436A of Criminal
Procedure of Code?
A. ¼ of maximum imprisonment
B. ½ of maximum period imprisonment
C. ⅓ of maximum imprisonment
D. No period is prescribed
Question
#Q96. Bail to a person apprehending arrest
A. Can be granted by the High Court or the Court of

Session
B. Can be granted by a Metropolitan Magistrate
C. Is a matter of right
D. Cannot be considered by any Court

Question
#Q96. Bail to a person apprehending arrest
A. Can be granted by the High Court or the Court of

Session
B. Can be granted by a Metropolitan Magistrate
C. Is a matter of right
D. Cannot be considered by any Court

Question
#Q97. A proclaimed person whose property has been
attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds on
appearance within
A. 6 months of attachment
B. 2 years of attachment
C. 3 years of attachment
D. 1 year of attachment
Question
appearance within
Question
#Q98. Period of appearance for proclamation issued
under Section 82 of Cr.P.C. is not less than —
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 960 days
D. 90 days
Question
#Q98. Period of appearance for proclamation issued
under Section 82 of Cr.P.C. is not less than —
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 960 days
D. 90 days
Question
#Q99. ‘A’ going to pilgrimage, entrusts ten gold coins to
‘B’ for keeping in safe custody till his return. ‘B’ sells
those gold coins to a goldsmith.
A. ‘B’ is guilty of theft of gold coins
B. ‘B’ is guilty of criminal breach of trust
C. Both (a) & (b)

Question
#Q99. ‘A’ going to pilgrimage, entrusts ten gold coins to
‘B’ for keeping in safe custody till his return. ‘B’ sells
those gold coins to a goldsmith.
A. ‘B’ is guilty of theft of gold coins
B. ‘B’ is guilty of criminal breach of trust
C. Both (a) & (b)

Question
#Q100. When the additional evidence is taken
by___________, it or he shall certify such evidence to the
Appellate Court, and such Court shall thereupon
proceed to dispose of the appeal.
A. Court of Session
B. The Magistrate
C. Court of Session or the Magistrate

Question
#Q100. When the additional evidence is taken
by___________, it or he shall certify such evidence to the
Appellate Court, and such Court shall thereupon
proceed to dispose of the appeal.
A. Court of Session
B. The Magistrate
C. Court of Session or the Magistrate

Question
#Q101. Which one of the following cases is directly
related to Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Pulukuri Kottayya and others v. Emperor
B. Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor
C. State of Maharashtra v. Damu Gopinath Sinde
D. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab

Question
#Q101. Which one of the following cases is directly
related to Section 32(1) of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Pulukuri Kottayya and others v. Emperor
B. Pakala Narayan Swami v. King Emperor
C. State of Maharashtra v. Damu Gopinath Sinde
D. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab

Question
#Q102. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set
out in the preamble is:
A. To define and amend the law of evidence
B. To consolidate, define and amend the law of

evidence
C. To highlight define and consolidate the law of

evidence
D. To highlight consolidate, define and amend the law

of evidence
Question
#Q102. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set
out in the preamble is:
B. To consolidate, define and amend the law of

evidence
C. To highlight define and consolidate the law of

evidence
D. To highlight consolidate, define and amend the law

of evidence
Question
#Q103. As per section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act
came into force on
A. March 15, 1872
B. September 1, 1872
C. September 15, 1872
D. October 1, 1872
Question
#Q103. As per section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act
came into force on
A. March 15, 1872
B. September 1, 1872
C. September 15, 1872
D. October 1, 1872
Question
#Q104. The fact sought to be proved is called
A. Factum probans
B. Factum probandum
C. Lex Fori
D. Lex Loci
Question
#Q104. The fact sought to be proved is called
A. Factum probans
B. Factum probandum
C. Lex Fori
D. Lex Loci
Question
#Q105. “Fact” under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence
Act means:
A. The truth as proved in the court of law with the help

of witnesses.
B. Facts as narrated by the client to the lawyer.
C. Belief of a person in the existence of certain things.
D. Anything state of things, or relation of things,

capable of being perceived by the senses
Question
#Q105. “Fact” under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence
Act means:
A. The truth as proved in the court of law with the help

of witnesses.
B. Facts as narrated by the client to the lawyer.
C. Belief of a person in the existence of certain things.
D. Anything state of things, or relation of things,

capable of being perceived by the senses
Question
#Q106. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a court has no
discretion regarding proof of a fact in context of
A. May presume
B. Shall presume
C. Conclusive proof
D. Judicial Notice
Question
#Q106. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a court has no
discretion regarding proof of a fact in context of
A. May presume
B. Shall presume
C. Conclusive proof
D. Judicial Notice
Question
#Q107. Which one of the following sections of the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that evidence may
be given of facts in issue and relevant facts?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides that evidence may
be given of facts in issue and relevant facts?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
#Q108. A fact is said to be “not proved”
A. Court either believe it does not exist
B. Court considers its non existence so provable that a

prudent man under the circumstance of the
particular case, to act upon the it does not
supposition that exist
C. Court believes its existence
D. When the facts are neither proved nor disproved

Question
#Q108. A fact is said to be “not proved”
A. Court either believe it does not exist
B. Court considers its non existence so provable that a

prudent man under the circumstance of the
particular case, to act upon the it does not
supposition that exist
C. Court believes its existence
D. When the facts are neither proved nor disproved

Question
#Q109. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means
and includes:
A. Documentary evidence
B. Ocular evidence
C. Both, the ocular and documentary evidence
D. Ocular evidence based on documents only

Question
#Q109. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means
and includes:
A. Documentary evidence
B. Ocular evidence
C. Both, the ocular and documentary evidence
D. Ocular evidence based on documents only

Question
#Q110. Which statement is correct in the light of Section
27 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A. A person who gives information must be accused of

an offence.
B. He must be in custody of police
C. A relevant fact must be discovered from the

information which is given by that person.
D. None of these
Question
#Q110. Which statement is correct in the light of Section
27 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
A. A person who gives information must be accused of

an offence.
B. He must be in custody of police
C. A relevant fact must be discovered from the

information which is given by that person.
D. None of these
Question
#Q111. Only such facts are made relevant by the
Evidence Act as are encompassed by:
A. Section 5 to Section 55 of the Evidence Act
B. Section 3 to Section 32 of the Evidence Act
C. All the Sections of the Evidence Act
D. Only such facts which can be proved as per Section

59 and Section 60 of the Evidence Act
Question

Question
#Q112. The case of R. v. Bedingfield is related to
A. Plea of Alibi
B. Rule of Res-gestae
C. Rule of Estoppel
D. Rule of Res-judicata
Question
#Q112. The case of R. v. Bedingfield is related to
A. Plea of Alibi
B. Rule of Res-gestae
C. Rule of Estoppel
D. Rule of Res-judicata
Question
#Q113. Proof is the result of:
A. Inquiry
B. Evidence
C. Investigation
D. Statement
Question
A. Inquiry
B. Evidence
C. Investigation
D. Statement
Question
#Q114. The Law of evidence under the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 is
A. Substantive Law
B. Procedural Law
C. Substantive and Procedural Law

Question
#Q114. The Law of evidence under the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872 is
A. Substantive Law
B. Procedural Law
C. Substantive and Procedural Law

Question
#Q115. Extra Judicial confession means a confession
made?
A. Before judicial Magistrate in court
B. Before Doctor
C. Before Friend
D. Both before Doctor & before Friend

Question
#Q115. Extra Judicial confession means a confession
made?
A. Before judicial Magistrate in court
B. Before Doctor
C. Before Friend
D. Both before Doctor & before Friend

Question
#Q116. ‘A’ tried for the murder of ‘B’ by beating with a
club with the intention of causing his death. At A’s trial,
which one of the following is not fact in issue?
A. A’s beating ‘B’ with the club
B. A’s conversation with ‘C
C. A’s causing ‘B’s death with the
D. A’s intention to cause B’s death

Question
#Q116. ‘A’ tried for the murder of ‘B’ by beating with a
club with the intention of causing his death. At A’s trial,
which one of the following is not fact in issue?
A. A’s beating ‘B’ with the club
B. A’s conversation with ‘C
C. A’s causing ‘B’s death with the
D. A’s intention to cause B’s death

Question
#Q117. Provision of Section 6 of the Evidence Act
relating to relevancy of facts forming part of same
transaction, is based doctrine of:
A. Res subjudice
B. Estoppel
C. Res gestae
D. Hearsay evidence
Question
#Q117. Provision of Section 6 of the Evidence Act
relating to relevancy of facts forming part of same
transaction, is based doctrine of:
A. Res subjudice
B. Estoppel
C. Res gestae
D. Hearsay evidence
Question
#Q118. Which of the following section(s) of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 makes confession of co-accused
admissible?
A. 30
B. 25
C. 18
D. Both (B) and (C)

Question
#Q118. Which of the following section(s) of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 makes confession of co-accused
admissible?
A. 30
B. 25
C. 18
D. Both (B) and (C)

Question
#Q119. Principle of “ALIBI” is indirectly covered in
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A. Section 6
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 11
Question
#Q119. Principle of “ALIBI” is indirectly covered in
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A. Section 6
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 11
Question
#Q120. The case Dudhnath Pandey v. State of U.P. is
related to
A. Res Gestae
B. Plea of alibi
C. Admission
D. Accomplice
Question
#Q120. The case Dudhnath Pandey v. State of U.P. is
related to
A. Res Gestae
B. Plea of alibi
C. Admission
D. Accomplice
Question
#Q121. Which one of the following is NOT mentioned
under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872?
A. Intention
B. Good faith
C. Rashness
D. Conduct
Question
#Q121. Which one of the following is NOT mentioned
under Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872?
A. Intention
B. Good faith
C. Rashness
D. Conduct
Question
#Q122. A is tried for the murder of B by intentionally
shooting him dead. The fact that A, on other occasions
shot at B is relevant as it shows ____________
A. Intention to shoot B
B. Motive to shoot B
C. Preparation to shoot B

Question
#Q122. A is tried for the murder of B by intentionally
shooting him dead. The fact that A, on other occasions
shot at B is relevant as it shows ____________
A. Intention to shoot B
B. Motive to shoot B
C. Preparation to shoot B

Question
#Q123. Handwriting of ‘A’ on document ‘B’ can be
proved by:
A. The digital signature of A
B. A person who claims to have received document

purported to have been signed and written by A
C. A person who in ordinary course of business has

habitually received documents purported to have
been written by A
D. A person who states that he is a friend of A

Question
#Q123. Handwriting of ‘A’ on document ‘B’ can be
proved by:
A. The digital signature of A
B. A person who claims to have received document

purported to have been signed and written by A
C. A person who in ordinary course of business has

habitually received documents purported to have
been written by A
D. A person who states that he is a friend of A

Question
#Q124. A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing
them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to
sell them below their value. Which of the following is
correct?
A. A may prove the statements, though in the nature of

admission, because they are explanatory of conduct
influenced by facts in issue.
B. A may not prove the statements because they are
self-serving admissions.
C. A may not prove the statement because as accused
he cannot be a witness in his own defence
D. All these are incorrect
Question
#Q124. A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing
them to be stolen. He offers to prove that he refused to
sell them below their value. Which of the following is
correct?
A. A may prove the statements, though in the nature of

admission, because they are explanatory of conduct
influenced by facts in issue.
B. A may not prove the statements because they are
self-serving admissions.
C. A may not prove the statement because as accused
he cannot be a witness in his own defence
D. All these are incorrect
Question
#Q125. Confession caused by inducement, threat or
promise, when irrelevant in criminal proceeding is
covered by
A. Section 24 of Evidence Act
B. Section 26 of Evidence Act
C. Section 21 of Evidence Act
D. Section 28 of Evidence Act

Question
#Q125. Confession caused by inducement, threat or
promise, when irrelevant in criminal proceeding is
covered by
B. Section 26 of Evidence Act
C. Section 21 of Evidence Act
D. Section 28 of Evidence Act

Question
#Q126. A puts jewels of her into a box belonging to B
with the intention that the circumstances may cause B
to be convicted of theft. What offence has been
committed?
A. Fraud
B. Giving False evidence
C. Fabricating False evidence

Question
#Q126. A puts jewels of her into a box belonging to B
with the intention that the circumstances may cause B
to be convicted of theft. What offence has been
committed?
A. Fraud
B. Giving False evidence
C. Fabricating False evidence

Question
#Q127. A relevant confession will become irrelevant
when
A. Made to a police officer
B. Made under a promise of secrecy
C. When the accused was drunk
D. In consequence of a deception practised on the

accused
Question
#Q127. A relevant confession will become irrelevant
when
A. Made to a police officer
B. Made under a promise of secrecy
C. When the accused was drunk
D. In consequence of a deception practised on the

accused
Question
#Q128. The term Judicial confession means
A. It is made before a Police Officer
B. It is caused by inducement, threat or promise
C. It is made before any court Officer
D. It is made before a Magistrate

Question
#Q128. The term Judicial confession means
A. It is made before a Police Officer
B. It is caused by inducement, threat or promise
C. It is made before any court Officer
D. It is made before a Magistrate

Question
#Q129. For recording a confession, the Magistrate
should
A. Get that person arrested
B. Summon the complainant
C. Inform such person about the accusation against him
D. Inform such person that he is not bound to make a

confession
Question
#Q129. For recording a confession, the Magistrate
should
A. Get that person arrested
B. Summon the complainant
C. Inform such person about the accusation against him
D. Inform such person that he is not bound to make a

confession
Question
#Q130. In joint trial, the evidentiary value of confession
of a co-accused affecting himself and others, has been
discussed by the Supreme Court in
A. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P.
B. State of UP v. Deorman Upadhyay
C. Ram Bharose v. State of U.P.
D. Rameshwar v. State of Rajasthan

Question
#Q130. In joint trial, the evidentiary value of confession
of a co-accused affecting himself and others, has been
discussed by the Supreme Court in
A. Kashmira Singh v. State of M.P.
B. State of UP v. Deorman Upadhyay
C. Ram Bharose v. State of U.P.
D. Rameshwar v. State of Rajasthan

Question
#Q131. According to the Indian Evidence Act 1872,
information received from an accused person by a
police officer is relevant if:
A. Directly received by a police officer in his presence
B. Received while the accused was in the custody of a

police officer.
C. A fact is discovered in consequence of it
D. It amounts to admitting commission of offence by

him
Question
#Q131. According to the Indian Evidence Act 1872,
information received from an accused person by a
police officer is relevant if:
A. Directly received by a police officer in his presence
B. Received while the accused was in the custody of a

police officer.
C. A fact is discovered in consequence of it
D. It amounts to admitting commission of offence by

him
Question
#Q132. A person, after committing a crime, confesses
while intoxicated to the commission of crime. Under
Indian Evidence Act, this confession is relevant and
admissible in
A. Section 29
B. Section 30
C. Section 31
D. Section 32
Question
#Q132. A person, after committing a crime, confesses
while intoxicated to the commission of crime. Under
Indian Evidence Act, this confession is relevant and
admissible in
A. Section 29
B. Section 30
C. Section 31
D. Section 32
Question
#Q133. The illustration that, "A and B are jointly tried
for the murder of C. It is proved that A said, 'B and I
murdered C’,” relates
A. Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 24 of the Indian Evidence
C. Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
D. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act

Question
#Q133. The illustration that, "A and B are jointly tried
for the murder of C. It is proved that A said, 'B and I
murdered C’,” relates
A. Section 30 of the Indian Evidence Act
B. Section 24 of the Indian Evidence
C. Section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act
D. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act

Question
#Q134. Which of the statements is true? Admission of a
party:
A. Is conclusive proof
B. Is irrelevant
C. May operate as estoppel
D. Has no probative value

Question
#Q134. Which of the statements is true? Admission of a
party:
A. Is conclusive proof
B. Is irrelevant
C. May operate as estoppel
D. Has no probative value

Question
#Q135. A dying declaration is relevant
A. Only if it is in writing
B. If it is recorded by a Doctor
C. Even if oral, and it relates to the cause of death

Question
#Q135. A dying declaration is relevant
A. Only if it is in writing
B. If it is recorded by a Doctor
C. Even if oral, and it relates to the cause of death

Question
#Q136. Dying declaration may be made to a
A. Doctor
B. Magistrate
C. Any other person
D. All of the above

Question
#Q136. Dying declaration may be made to a
A. Doctor
B. Magistrate
C. Any other person
D. All of the above

Question
#Q137. The case, ‘Queen Empress v. Abdullah’ is related
with
A. Burden of proof
B. Privileged communication
C. Confession
D. Dying declaration
Question
#Q137. The case, ‘Queen Empress v. Abdullah’ is related
with
A. Burden of proof
C. Confession
D. Dying declaration
Question
#Q138. Rigor mortis means
A. Dying declaration
B. Post-mortem
C. Time of death
D. Death certificate
Question
#Q138. Rigor mortis means
B. Post-mortem
C. Time of death
D. Death certificate
Question
#Q139. Which of the following provisions of Indian
Evidence Act permits evidence recorded in one case to
be considered relevant in a subsequent proceeding?
A. Section 32
B. Section 37
C. Section 38
D. Section 33
Question
#Q139. Which of the following provisions of Indian
Evidence Act permits evidence recorded in one case to
be considered relevant in a subsequent proceeding?
A. Section 32
B. Section 37
C. Section 38
D. Section 33
Question
#Q140. The principle of "Res Judicata" has been
incorporated under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A. Section 39
B. Section 40
C. Section 139
D. Section 140
Question
#Q140. The principle of "Res Judicata" has been
incorporated under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
A. Section 39
B. Section 40
C. Section 139
D. Section 140
Question
#Q141. Opinion of an expert under Section 45 of
Evidence Act
A. Is a conclusive proof
B. Is not a conclusive proof
C. Is supportive and corroborative in nature
D. Is not admissible
Question
#Q141. Opinion of an expert under Section 45 of
Evidence Act
A. Is a conclusive proof
B. Is not a conclusive proof
C. Is supportive and corroborative in nature
D. Is not admissible
Question
#Q142. Opinion of experts is relevant under—
B. Section 46 of Evidence
C. Both (A) and (B)

Question
#Q142. Opinion of experts is relevant under—
B. Section 46 of Evidence
C. Both (A) and (B)

Question
#Q143. The opinion of expert may be obtained
Evidence Act in relation to
A. Science, Art, Law, Finger impression and

handwriting/signature
B. Science including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger

impression and handwriting
C. Science including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger

impression handwriting and signatures
D. Science, Art, Foreign Law, Finger Impression and

Question
#Q143. The opinion of expert may be obtained
Evidence Act in relation to
A. Science, Art, Law, Finger impression and

B. Science including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger

impression and handwriting
C. Science including medical matters, Art, Law, Finger

impression handwriting and signatures
D. Science, Art, Foreign Law, Finger Impression and

Question
#Q144. The ‘relationship’ in Section 50 of the Evidence
Act means:
A. Relationship by blood only
B. Relationship by blood or marriage
C. Relationship by blood or marriage or adoption
D. One of the above

Question
#Q144. The ‘relationship’ in Section 50 of the Evidence
Act means:
A. Relationship by blood only
B. Relationship by blood or marriage
C. Relationship by blood or marriage or adoption
D. One of the above

Question
#Q145. Character of a person for purposes of the law of
evidence is not relevant in one of the following
situations —
A. Previous good character of the accused in criminal

cases
B. Previous bad character is reply to evidence of good

character in criminal cases
C. Character as affecting the amount damages in civil

cases
D. Character to prove conduct imputed in civil cases

Question
#Q145. Character of a person for purposes of the law of
evidence is not relevant in one of the following
situations —
A. Previous good character of the accused in criminal

cases
B. Previous bad character is reply to evidence of good

character in criminal cases
C. Character as affecting the amount damages in civil

cases
D. Character to prove conduct imputed in civil cases

Question
#Q146. Under which Section of the Indians Evidence Act
bad character of an accused is not relevant?
A. Section 54
B. Section 52
C. Section 53
D. Section 118
Question
#Q146. Under which Section of the Indians Evidence Act
bad character of an accused is not relevant?
A. Section 54
B. Section 52
C. Section 53
D. Section 118
Question
#Q147. Evidence of ‘character’ includes evidence of
A. Reputation only
B. Disposition only
C. General disposition and general reputation both

Question
#Q147. Evidence of ‘character’ includes evidence of
A. Reputation only
B. Disposition only
C. General disposition and general reputation both

Question
#Q148. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab relates to
which of the following?
A. Confession
B. Dying declaration
C. Entries in the books of account
D. Relevancy of judgments
Question
#Q148. Palvinder Kaur v. State of Punjab relates to
which of the following?
A. Confession
C. Entries in the books of account
D. Relevancy of judgments
Question
#Q149. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided
into ............ Parts and ............... Chapters.
A. 2, 10
B. 3, 11
C. 4, 12
D. 3, 12
Question
#Q149. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided
into ............ Parts and ............... Chapters.
A. 2, 10
B. 3, 11
C. 4, 12
D. 3, 12
Question
#Q150. Leading questions can be asked during
A. Examination-in-chief
B. Cross-examination
C. Re-examination
D. All of the above

Question
#Q150. Leading questions can be asked during
A. Examination-in-chief
B. Cross-examination
C. Re-examination
D. All of the above

Question
#Q151. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his
evidence by writing in open Court.
Evidence so given shall be deemed to be—
A. Oral evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Primary evidence
D. Secondary evidence
Question
#Q151. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his
evidence by writing in open Court.
Evidence so given shall be deemed to be—
A. Oral evidence
C. Primary evidence
D. Secondary evidence
Question
#Q152. Under which of the following Sections of the
Indian Evidence Act, the evidence of a dumb witness is
taken into consideration?
A. Section 116
B. Section 117
C. Section 118
D. Section 119
Question
#Q152. Under which of the following Sections of the
Indian Evidence Act, the evidence of a dumb witness is
taken into consideration?
A. Section 116
B. Section 117
C. Section 118
D. Section 119
Question
#Q153. Which Section of Evidence Act removes the bar
of doctrine that ‘husband and wife were one person’ in
law?
A. Section 118
B. Section 119
C. Section 120
D. Section 121
Question
#Q153. Which Section of Evidence Act removes the bar
of doctrine that ‘husband and wife were one person’ in
law?
A. Section 118
B. Section 119
C. Section 120
D. Section 121
Question
#Q154. How many minimum numbers of witnesses are
required to proof any fact?
A. No particular number of witnesses required for the

proof of any fact
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
Question
#Q154. How many minimum numbers of witnesses are
required to proof any fact?
A. No particular number of witnesses required for the

proof of any fact
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
Question
#Q155. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is
based on the maxim "Salus populi est suprema lex"?
A. Section 123
B. Section 118
C. Section 119
D. Section 130
Question
#Q155. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act is
based on the maxim "Salus populi est suprema lex"?
A. Section 123
B. Section 118
C. Section 119
D. Section 130
Question
#Q156. Which one of the following Sections of the
Indian Penal Code defines its intra-territorial
jurisdiction?
A. Section 4(1)
B. Section 4(2)
C. Section 2
D. Section 3
Question
#Q156. Which one of the following Sections of the
Indian Penal Code defines its intra-territorial
jurisdiction?
A. Section 4(1)
B. Section 4(2)
C. Section 2
D. Section 3
Question
#Q157. Criminal trespass has been defined in which
section of Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 441
B. Section 440
C. Section 452
D. Section 457
Question
#Q157. Criminal trespass has been defined in which
section of Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 441
B. Section 440
C. Section 452
D. Section 457
Question
#Q158. In Rex v. Govinda the points of distinction
between the provisions of the following sections of the
IPC were explained:
A. 34 and 149
B. 302 and 304
C. 403 and 405
D. 299 and 300

Question
#Q158. In Rex v. Govinda the points of distinction
between the provisions of the following sections of the
IPC were explained:
A. 34 and 149
B. 302 and 304
C. 403 and 405
D. 299 and 300

Question
#Q159. An unlawful assembly constituted under the
meaning of Section 141 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is
comprises of:
A. Two or more persons
B. Five or more persons
C. Three or more persons

Question
#Q159. An unlawful assembly constituted under the
meaning of Section 141 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is
comprises of:
A. Two or more persons
B. Five or more persons
C. Three or more persons

Question
#Q160. Abettor is a person:
A. Who commits the offence
B. Who is innocent
C. Against whom the offence is committed
D. Who instigates the commission of offence

Question
#Q160. Abettor is a person:
A. Who commits the offence
B. Who is innocent
C. Against whom the offence is committed
D. Who instigates the commission of offence

Question
#Q161. In a scuffle between A and B, two teeth of B got
knocked down. A has committed the offence of:
A. Grievous hurt
B. Simple hurt
C. Culpable homicide
D. Assault
Question
#Q161. In a scuffle between A and B, two teeth of B got
knocked down. A has committed the offence of:
A. Grievous hurt
B. Simple hurt
C. Culpable homicide
D. Assault
Question
#Q162. ‘A’ makes an attempt to pick the pocket of B by
thrusting his hand into ‘B’s pocket. ‘A’ fails in the
attempt as a consequence of B's having nothing in the
pocket. ‘A’ is guilty of:
A. No offence
B. Theft
C. Attempt to theft
D. Using criminal force

Question
#Q162. ‘A’ makes an attempt to pick the pocket of B by
thrusting his hand into ‘B’s pocket. ‘A’ fails in the
attempt as a consequence of B's having nothing in the
pocket. ‘A’ is guilty of:
A. No offence
B. Theft
C. Attempt to theft

Question
#Q163. In which of the following cases did the Supreme
Court issue directions in the favour of acid attack
victims?
A. Devika Biswas v. Union of India (2016)
B. Laxmi v. Union of India (2016)
C. Swaraj Abhiyan v. Union of India (2016)
D. Ashiq Hussain Faktoo v. Union of India (2016)

Question
#Q163. In which of the following cases did the Supreme
Court issue directions in the favour of acid attack
victims?
A. Devika Biswas v. Union of India (2016)
B. Laxmi v. Union of India (2016)
C. Swaraj Abhiyan v. Union of India (2016)
D. Ashiq Hussain Faktoo v. Union of India (2016)

Question
#Q164. Under which section of IPC, the offence of
trafficking of person is defined?
A. Section 362
B. Section 370
C. Section 380
D. Section 363A
Question
#Q164. Under which section of IPC, the offence of
trafficking of person is defined?
A. Section 362
B. Section 370
C. Section 380
D. Section 363A
Question
#Q165. When a person with intent to cause damage
other to person causes destruction of property is said to
have committed
A. Mischief
B. Rioting
C. Robbery
D. Nuisance
Question
#Q165. When a person with intent to cause damage
other to person causes destruction of property is said to
have committed
A. Mischief
B. Rioting
C. Robbery
D. Nuisance
Question
Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines the word "Act”?
A. Section 32
B. Section 33
C. Section 23
D. Section 24
Question
Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines the word "Act”?
A. Section 32
B. Section 33
C. Section 23
D. Section 24
Question
#Q167. Section 511 of IPC is not applicable to
A. Attempt to commit suicide
B. Attempt to commit rape
C. Attempt to hurt
D. Attempt to theft
Question
#Q167. Section 511 of IPC is not applicable to
A. Attempt to commit suicide
B. Attempt to commit rape
C. Attempt to hurt
D. Attempt to theft
Question
#Q168. A sees B drowning in the river, but does not save
him. B is drowned. A has committed:
A. The offence of murder
B. The offence of abetment of suicide
C. The offence of culpable homicide not amounting to

murder
D. No offence
Question
#Q168. A sees B drowning in the river, but does not save
him. B is drowned. A has committed:
A. The offence of murder
B. The offence of abetment of suicide
C. The offence of culpable homicide not amounting to

murder
D. No offence
Question
#Q169. Doctrine of necessity is given under
_______________ of IPC.
A. Section 80
B. Section 81
C. Section 82
D. Section 83
Question
#Q169. Doctrine of necessity is given under
_______________ of IPC.
A. Section 80
B. Section 81
C. Section 82
D. Section 83
Question
#Q170. A child who doesn't understand or distinguish
between the right and the wrong is called a doli incapax.
This is defined under which section of the IPC ?
A. Section 86
B. Section 87
C. Section 84
D. Section 82
Question
#Q170. A child who doesn't understand or distinguish
between the right and the wrong is called a doli incapax.
This is defined under which section of the IPC ?
A. Section 86
B. Section 87
C. Section 84
D. Section 82
Question
#Q171. Right to private defence extends to
A. Defence of body only
B. Defence of property only
C. Defence of body and property both

Question
#Q171. Right to private defence extends to

Question
#Q172. Commutation of sentence of imprisonment for
life is done under IPC in:
A. Section 52
B. Section 53
C. Section 54
D. Section 55
Question
#Q172. Commutation of sentence of imprisonment for
life is done under IPC in:
A. Section 52
B. Section 53
C. Section 54
D. Section 55
Question
#Q173. Under which of the following Sections of the IPC
‘harbouring’ has been defined?
A. Section 52A
B. Section 60
C. Section 212
D. All of the above

Question
#Q173. Under which of the following Sections of the IPC
‘harbouring’ has been defined?
A. Section 52A
B. Section 60
C. Section 212
D. All of the above

Question
#Q174. In which Section of IPC, ‘public servant’ is
defined?
A. Section 14
B. Section 20
C. Section 21
D. Section 24
Question
#Q174. In which Section of IPC, ‘public servant’ is
defined?
A. Section 14
B. Section 20
C. Section 21
D. Section 24
Question
#Q175. A person acts dishonestly when he does
anything:
A. With mens rea
B. With wrong motive
C. With intention to cause wrongful gain to one person

or wrongful loss to another
D. With intent to defraud

Question
#Q175. A person acts dishonestly when he does
anything:
A. With mens rea
B. With wrong motive
C. With intention to cause wrongful gain to one person

or wrongful loss to another
D. With intent to defraud

Question
#Q176. Counterfeit under IPC is defined in:
A. Section 30
B. Section 28
C. Section 29
D. Section 27
Question
A. Section 30
B. Section 28
C. Section 29
D. Section 27
Question
#Q177. A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z's
jewels. What offence A has committed?
A. Theft
B. Robbery
C. Extortion
D. Dacoity
Question
#Q177. A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z's
jewels. What offence A has committed?
A. Theft
B. Robbery
C. Extortion
D. Dacoity
Question
#Q178. ‘K’ telephonically threatens ‘M’ to publish a
defamatory statement unless he gives him Rs. 20.000.
‘M’ consequently gives Rs. 20,000 to ‘K’. ‘K’ has
committed the offence of:
A. Theft
B. Criminal intimidation
C. Extortion
D. Robbery
Question
#Q178. ‘K’ telephonically threatens ‘M’ to publish a
defamatory statement unless he gives him Rs. 20.000.
‘M’ consequently gives Rs. 20,000 to ‘K’. ‘K’ has
committed the offence of:
A. Theft
C. Extortion
D. Robbery
Question
#Q179. When a criminal act is done by several persons
in furtherance of common intention of all:
A. Each of such person is liable for that act
B. Each of such person is liable for that act in the same

manner as if it were done by him alone
C. Each of such person is liable according to his guilt
D. None of the above is correct

Question
#Q179. When a criminal act is done by several persons
in furtherance of common intention of all:
A. Each of such person is liable for that act
B. Each of such person is liable for that act in the same

manner as if it were done by him alone
C. Each of such person is liable according to his guilt
D. None of the above is correct

Question
#Q180. ‘A’ enters into the house of ‘B’ with the intention
to commit theft. ‘B’ along with other members of his
family surround and attack ‘A’ with wooden sticks . A
finding his life in danger fires with a pistol causing death
to ‘B'. Here ‘A’ has committed:
A. No offence, as he acted in self-defence
B. Theft
C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
D. Murder
Question
#Q180. ‘A’ enters into the house of ‘B’ with the intention
to commit theft. ‘B’ along with other members of his
family surround and attack ‘A’ with wooden sticks . A
finding his life in danger fires with a pistol causing death
to ‘B'. Here ‘A’ has committed:
A. No offence, as he acted in self-defence
B. Theft
C. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
D. Murder
Question
#Q181. ‘A’ intentionally causes ‘Z's death partly by
illegally omitting to give ‘Z’ food and partly by beating
‘Z', ‘A’ is liable for murder by virtue of which one of the
following sections of the Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 36
B. Section 37
C. Section 34
D. Section 35
Question
#Q181. ‘A’ intentionally causes ‘Z's death partly by
illegally omitting to give ‘Z’ food and partly by beating
‘Z', ‘A’ is liable for murder by virtue of which one of the
following sections of the Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 36
B. Section 37
C. Section 34
D. Section 35
Question
#Q182. X with a view to murder Y enters Y's bedroom at
night when Y is out of station. X is guilty of
A. Murder
B. House-trespass
C. Attempt to murder
D. No offence
Question
#Q182. X with a view to murder Y enters Y's bedroom at
night when Y is out of station. X is guilty of
A. Murder
B. House-trespass
C. Attempt to murder
D. No offence
Question
#Q183. X and Y both drank and began quarrelling. X
started beating and dragging Y. Y becomes unconscious,
then X hits on the head of Y with a stone causing his
death. Can drunkenness of X be his defense
A. No as both X and Y were drunk
B. Yes as both X and Y were drunk
C. Drunkenness of X is a defense
D. Voluntary drunkenness of X is no defense

Question
#Q183. X and Y both drank and began quarrelling. X
started beating and dragging Y. Y becomes unconscious,
then X hits on the head of Y with a stone causing his
death. Can drunkenness of X be his defense
A. No as both X and Y were drunk
B. Yes as both X and Y were drunk
C. Drunkenness of X is a defense
D. Voluntary drunkenness of X is no defense

Question
#Q184. Acts against which the right of private defence is
not available have been laid down in Section of the IPC
A. 101
B. 100
C. 99
D. 98
Question
#Q184. Acts against which the right of private defence is
not available have been laid down in Section of the IPC
A. 101
B. 100
C. 99
D. 98
Question
#Q185. Which Sections of Indian Penal Code provides
for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air
Force?
A. Sections 171A to 171-1
B. Sections 124 to 129
C. Sections 131 to 140
D. Sections 165 to 171

Question
#Q185. Which Sections of Indian Penal Code provides
for the offences relating to the Army, Navy and Air
Force?
A. Sections 171A to 171-1

Question
#Q186. A meets B on the high road, shows him a
revolver and demands B's purse. B in consequence
surrenders his purse. The guilt of A is
A. A is guilty of committing dacoity
B. A is guilty of committing extortion
C. A is guilty of committing robbery
D. A is guilty of committing theft.

Question
#Q186. A meets B on the high road, shows him a
revolver and demands B's purse. B in consequence
surrenders his purse. The guilt of A is
A. A is guilty of committing dacoity
B. A is guilty of committing extortion
C. A is guilty of committing robbery
D. A is guilty of committing theft.

Question
#Q187. In IPC punishment for rioting is provided under
A. Section 145
B. Section 146
C. Section 147
D. Section 148
Question
#Q187. In IPC punishment for rioting is provided under
A. Section 145
B. Section 146
C. Section 147
D. Section 148
Question
#Q188. ‘A’ enters Z's house through a window. ‘A’
commits:
A. Trespass
B. House trespass
C. House breaking
D. All the above

Question
#Q188. ‘A’ enters Z's house through a window. ‘A’
commits:
A. Trespass
B. House trespass
C. House breaking
D. All the above

Question
#Q189. ‘A’ and ‘B’ beat each other up and exchange
blows in a cinema hall in the middle of a movie. They are
guilty of:
A. Riot
B. Assault
C. Affray
D. Use of Criminal Force

Question
#Q189. ‘A’ and ‘B’ beat each other up and exchange
blows in a cinema hall in the middle of a movie. They are
guilty of:
A. Riot
B. Assault
C. Affray
D. Use of Criminal Force

Question
#Q190. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is
the non-treatment of a victim by Public or Private
hospitals punishable?
A. Section 166B
B. Section 165A
C. Section 228A
D. Section 376D
Question
#Q190. Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is
the non-treatment of a victim by Public or Private
hospitals punishable?
A. Section 166B
B. Section 165A
C. Section 228A
D. Section 376D
Question
#Q191. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
crime of
A. House breaking
B. Dishonest misappropriation of property
C. Forgery
D. Forgery with cheating

Question
#Q191. Section 463 of Indian Penal Code deals with the
crime of
A. House breaking
B. Dishonest misappropriation of property
C. Forgery
D. Forgery with cheating

Question
#Q192. "Bribery" is defined in:
B. Section 171B of IPC
C. Section 171D of IPC
D. Section 171E of IPC

Question
#Q192. "Bribery" is defined in:
B. Section 171B of IPC
C. Section 171D of IPC
D. Section 171E of IPC

Question
#Q193. ‘A’ the landlord, knowing of the commission of a
murder within the limits of his estate wilfully
misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death
has occurred because of an asthma attack followed with
an attack of epilepsy. In such a situation ‘A’ is:
A. liable for no offence

B. liable for the offence punishable under Section 177
IPC
C. liable for the offence punishable under Section 193
IPC
D. liable for the offence punishable under Section 196
IPC
Question
#Q193. ‘A’ the landlord, knowing of the commission of a
murder within the limits of his estate wilfully
misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death
has occurred because of an asthma attack followed with
an attack of epilepsy. In such a situation ‘A’ is:
A. liable for no offence

B. liable for the offence punishable under Section 177
IPC
C. liable for the offence punishable under Section 193
IPC
D. liable for the offence punishable under Section 196
IPC
Question
#Q194. A person is said to give ‘false evidence', if he
A. Being legally bound by an oath, or by an express

provision of law to state the truth.
B. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any

subject makes any statement which is false
C. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any

subject which he either knows or believes to be
false, or does not believe to be true
D. All of the above

Question
#Q194. A person is said to give ‘false evidence', if he
A. Being legally bound by an oath, or by an express

provision of law to state the truth.
B. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any

subject makes any statement which is false
C. Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any

subject which he either knows or believes to be
false, or does not believe to be true
D. All of the above

Question
#Q195. A makes a false entry in his shop book for the
purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in a court
of justice. ‘A’ is guilty of
A. Fabricating false evidence
B. Giving false evidence
C. Abetment
D. Criminal conspiracy
Question
#Q195. A makes a false entry in his shop book for the
purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in a court
of justice. ‘A’ is guilty of
A. Fabricating false evidence
B. Giving false evidence
C. Abetment
D. Criminal conspiracy
Question
#Q196. A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists B to
hide the body with the intention of screening B from
punishment. A is liable to
A. Imprisonment of either description for seven years

and to fine also
C. Death sentence
D. Fine only
Question
#Q196. A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists B to
hide the body with the intention of screening B from
punishment. A is liable to
A. Imprisonment of either description for seven years

and to fine also
C. Death sentence
D. Fine only
Question
#Q197. Which of the following Section of the IPC was
amended by the Criminal Laws (Amendment) Act, 2018
A. Section 370A
B. Section 354A
C. Section 228A
D. Section 370
Question
#Q197. Which of the following Section of the IPC was
amended by the Criminal Laws (Amendment) Act, 2018
A. Section 370A
B. Section 354A
C. Section 228A
D. Section 370
Question
#Q198. “Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst
crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of
Law". In which case Supreme Court made this remark
A. AK Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. MC Mehta v. Union of India
C. DK Basu v State of Bengal
D. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

Question
#Q198. “Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst
crimes in a civilised society governed by the Rule of
Law". In which case Supreme Court made this remark
A. AK Gopalan v. State of Madras
B. MC Mehta v. Union of India
C. DK Basu v State of Bengal
D. Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

Question
#Q199. Preventing a person from performing religious
worship and ceremonies is punishable under which of
the following sections of Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 295
B. Section 296
C. Section 297
D. Section 295A
Question
#Q199. Preventing a person from performing religious
worship and ceremonies is punishable under which of
the following sections of Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 295
B. Section 296
C. Section 297
D. Section 295A
Question
#Q200. Indian Penal Code, 1860: For an offence of
kidnapping, the age of victim minor male child should
be
A. Under 14 years
B. Under 16 years
C. Under 18 years
D. Under 21 years
Question
#Q200. Indian Penal Code, 1860: For an offence of
kidnapping, the age of victim minor male child should
be
A. Under 14 years
B. Under 16 years
C. Under 18 years
D. Under 21 years
Question
#Q201. Which section of Indian Penal Code, 1860 makes
sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife, during
separation, without her consent, punishable?
A. 376A
B. 376B
C. 376C
D. 376E
Question
#Q201. Which section of Indian Penal Code, 1860 makes
sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife, during
separation, without her consent, punishable?
A. 376A
B. 376B
C. 376C
D. 376E
Question
#Q202. Under Section 320 of IPC which of following
kinds of hurt is not designated as "Grievous Hurt"
A. Emasculation
B. Privation of any joint
C. Permanent disfiguration of the chest
D. Dislocation of tooth
Question
#Q202. Under Section 320 of IPC which of following
kinds of hurt is not designated as "Grievous Hurt"
A. Emasculation
B. Privation of any joint
C. Permanent disfiguration of the chest
D. Dislocation of tooth
Question
#Q203. Which is not the ingredient of offence of Dowry
Death defined under I.P.C
A. Unnatural Death
B. Death within 7 years of marriage
C. Women was subjected to cruelty or harassment by

her husband or by any other person
D. Cruelty or harassment with others should be in

connection with demand for dowry
Question
#Q203. Which is not the ingredient of offence of Dowry
Death defined under I.P.C
A. Unnatural Death
B. Death within 7 years of marriage
C. Women was subjected to cruelty or harassment by

her husband or by any other person
D. Cruelty or harassment with others should be in

connection with demand for dowry
Question
#Q204. While substituting a new section for Section 375
of the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act 2013, how many exceptions are
inserted in it?
A. One exception
B. Two exceptions
C. Three exceptions
D. No exception
Question
#Q204. While substituting a new section for Section 375
of the Indian Penal Code by the Criminal Law
(Amendment) Act 2013, how many exceptions are
inserted in it?
A. One exception
B. Two exceptions
C. Three exceptions
D. No exception
Question
#Q205. The offence of forgery is committed as regards
to
A. Government currency notes
B. GC notes and documents
C. Documents or electronic record
D. Artistic work
Question
#Q205. The offence of forgery is committed as regards
to
A. Government currency notes
B. GC notes and documents
C. Documents or electronic record
D. Artistic work
Question
#Q206. A had a child whom he wanted to kill. For this
purpose, he gave ‘B', who was taking care of the child, a
piece of cake, which had poison in it, and asked B to feed
the child the cake. ‘B’, however, ate the cake himself and
dies as a result. Which of the following statements is
accurate:
A. ‘A’ will be liable for the offence of murder.
B. ‘A’ will not be liable for the offence of murder.
C. ‘A’ will be liable for abetment to murder.
D. ‘A’ will be liable for conspiracy to commit murder.

Question
#Q206. A had a child whom he wanted to kill. For this
purpose, he gave ‘B', who was taking care of the child, a
piece of cake, which had poison in it, and asked B to feed
the child the cake. ‘B’, however, ate the cake himself and
dies as a result. Which of the following statements is
accurate:
A. ‘A’ will be liable for the offence of murder.
B. ‘A’ will not be liable for the offence of murder.
C. ‘A’ will be liable for abetment to murder.
D. ‘A’ will be liable for conspiracy to commit murder.

Question
#Q207. ‘A’ gave B a pen-drive which he knows has files
that were infected with a virus. "A did not inform B of
the same. B inserted the pen-drive into his computer
and opened the files. His computer was infected by the
virus, and most of the files on it were lost. Which of the
following offences can ‘A’ be held guilty of?
A. Criminal Breach of Trust
B. Criminal Trespass
C. Mischief
D. Cheating
Question
#Q207. ‘A’ gave B a pen-drive which he knows has files
that were infected with a virus. "A did not inform B of
the same. B inserted the pen-drive into his computer
and opened the files. His computer was infected by the
virus, and most of the files on it were lost. Which of the
following offences can ‘A’ be held guilty of?
A. Criminal Breach of Trust
B. Criminal Trespass
C. Mischief
D. Cheating
Question
#Q208. Indian Penal Code:-X intended to kill A but
instead killed B whom he had no intention to kill under
which doctrine is X liable for the murder of B.
A. Doctrine of extended malice
B. Doctrine of mens ma
C. Doctrine of diminished responsibility
D. Doctrine of transfer of malice

Question
#Q208. Indian Penal Code:-X intended to kill A but
instead killed B whom he had no intention to kill under
which doctrine is X liable for the murder of B.
A. Doctrine of extended malice
B. Doctrine of mens ma
C. Doctrine of diminished responsibility
D. Doctrine of transfer of malice

Question
#Q209. KM. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra is a leading
case on
A. Exercise of legal powers
B. Grave and sudden provocation
C. Right to private defence
D. Sudden quarrel
Question
#Q209. KM. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra is a leading
case on
A. Exercise of legal powers
B. Grave and sudden provocation
C. Right to private defence
D. Sudden quarrel
Question
#Q210. Police Officer arrested and detained a person in
lock up despite production of a bail order from court.
Police officer is liable—
A. Wrongful restraint
B. Wrongful confinement
C. Kidnapping
D. Abduction
Question
#Q210. Police Officer arrested and detained a person in
lock up despite production of a bail order from court.
Police officer is liable—
A. Wrongful restraint
B. Wrongful confinement
C. Kidnapping
D. Abduction
Question
#Q211. Voyeurism is defined under which Section of the
Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 354A
B. Section 354B
C. Section 354C
D. Section 355
Question
#Q211. Voyeurism is defined under which Section of the
Indian Penal Code?
A. Section 354A
B. Section 354B
C. Section 354C
D. Section 355
Question
#Q212. The mens rea required under Section 299 of the
Indian Penal Code is:—
A. Intention or knowledge
B. Intention or negligence
C. Intention or recklessness
D. Negligence or malice
Question
#Q212. The mens rea required under Section 299 of the
Indian Penal Code is:—
A. Intention or knowledge
B. Intention or negligence
C. Intention or recklessness
D. Negligence or malice
Question
#Q213. Offence of robbery includes
A. Theft only
B. Extortion only
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Question
#Q213. Offence of robbery includes
A. Theft only
B. Extortion only
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Question
#Q214. Where a snake charmer to show his own skill
placed a venomous snake on the head of a spectator
without the intention to cause harm. Spectator is trying
to push of the snake was beaten and died, the snake
charmer is guilty
A. Under clause (1) of Section 300
B. Under clause (3) of Section 299
C. Under clause (1) of Section 299
D. Under clause (2) of Section 300

Question
#Q214. Where a snake charmer to show his own skill
placed a venomous snake on the head of a spectator
without the intention to cause harm. Spectator is trying
to push of the snake was beaten and died, the snake
charmer is guilty
A. Under clause (1) of Section 300
B. Under clause (3) of Section 299
C. Under clause (1) of Section 299
D. Under clause (2) of Section 300

Question
#Q215. Dacoity is committed ......
A. When two or more persons commit or attempt to

commit robbery
B. When five or more persons commit or attempt to

commit robbery
C. When robbery is committed with arms or lethal

weapons fire
D. When seven or more persons are engaged in

extortion with arms
Question
#Q215. Dacoity is committed ......
A. When two or more persons commit or attempt to

commit robbery
B. When five or more persons commit or attempt to

commit robbery
C. When robbery is committed with arms or lethal

weapons fire
D. When seven or more persons are engaged in

extortion with arms
Question
#Q216. A sings obscene songs near the gate of Girls
Degree College. What offence he was committed?
A. Assault
B. Outraging the modesty of a woman
C. Criminal intimidation
D. Obscenity
Question
#Q216. A sings obscene songs near the gate of Girls
Degree College. What offence he was committed?
A. Assault
B. Outraging the modesty of a woman
D. Obscenity
Question
#Q217. Under which one of the following provisions of
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 causing death of child in the
mother's womb is not homicide?
A. Explanation I of Section 299
B. Explanation II of Section 299
C. Explanation III of Section 299
D. Explanation IV of Section 300

Question
#Q217. Under which one of the following provisions of
the Indian Penal Code, 1860 causing death of child in the
mother's womb is not homicide?
A. Explanation I of Section 299
B. Explanation II of Section 299
C. Explanation III of Section 299
D. Explanation IV of Section 300

Question
#Q218. ‘A’ prepares a mark sheet with in intention to
get a job thereby he committed the offence of—
A. Mischief
B. Cheating
C. Forgery
D. Falsification of accounts
Question
#Q218. ‘A’ prepares a mark sheet with in intention to
get a job thereby he committed the offence of—
A. Mischief
B. Cheating
C. Forgery
D. Falsification of accounts
Question
#Q219. A finds a valuable ring, not knowing to whom it
belongs. A sells it immediately without attempting to
discover its owner. A is guilty of offence under section
........... Indian Penal Code.
A. 403
B. 379
C. 406
D. 384
Question
#Q219. A finds a valuable ring, not knowing to whom it
belongs. A sells it immediately without attempting to
discover its owner. A is guilty of offence under section
........... Indian Penal Code.
A. 403
B. 379
C. 406
D. 384
Question
#Q220. Falsification of accounts by clerk, officer or
servant or employed in that capacity is punishable u/s
A. 477 of IPC
B. 476 of IPC
C. 477A of IPC
D. 475 of IPC
Question
#Q220. Falsification of accounts by clerk, officer or
servant or employed in that capacity is punishable u/s
A. 477 of IPC
B. 476 of IPC
C. 477A of IPC
D. 475 of IPC
Question
#Q221. "Possession of forged or counterfeit currency
notes of bank notes" us punishable under—
A. Section 489A
B. Section 4598
C. Section 489C
D. Section 489D
Question
#Q221. "Possession of forged or counterfeit currency
notes of bank notes" us punishable under—
A. Section 489A
B. Section 4598
C. Section 489C
D. Section 489D
Question
#Q222. Which Section of India Penal Code was declared
unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in Mithu v. State
(1983).
A. Section 120B
B. Section 303
C. Section 309
D. Section 307
Question
#Q222. Which Section of India Penal Code was declared
unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in Mithu v. State
(1983).
A. Section 120B
B. Section 303
C. Section 309
D. Section 307
Question
#Q223. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is
punishable with
A. Imprisonment for life
B. Death
C. Imprisonment for life or imprisonment for ten years
D. Imprisonment for ten years

Question
#Q223. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder is
punishable with
A. Imprisonment for life
B. Death
C. Imprisonment for life or imprisonment for ten years
D. Imprisonment for ten years

Question
#Q224. Whoever causes death of a person by cash or
negligent act not amounting to murder is liable to be
punished with—
A. Imprisonment extending up to three years
B. With fine
C. With imprisonment extending to two years and fine
D. With imprisonment extending to two years or fine or

both
Question
#Q224. Whoever causes death of a person by cash or
negligent act not amounting to murder is liable to be
punished with—
A. Imprisonment extending up to three years
B. With fine
C. With imprisonment extending to two years and fine
D. With imprisonment extending to two years or fine or

both
Question
#Q225. Section 304A of Indian Penal Code pertains to
A. Dowry death
B. Abatement of suicide
C. Causing death by negligence
D. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

Question
#Q225. Section 304A of Indian Penal Code pertains to
A. Dowry death
B. Abatement of suicide
C. Causing death by negligence
D. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

Question
#Q226. Any man who monitors the use by a woman of
internet, email or any other form of electronic
communication commits the offence of:
A. Voyeurism
B. Stalking
C. Sexual harassment
D. Assault
Question
#Q226. Any man who monitors the use by a woman of
internet, email or any other form of electronic
communication commits the offence of:
A. Voyeurism
B. Stalking
D. Assault
Question
#Q227. Sexual harassment of women is defined under
Indian Penal Code in
A. Section 354
B. Section 354A
C. Section 354B
D. Section 509
Question
#Q227. Sexual harassment of women is defined under
Indian Penal Code in
A. Section 354
B. Section 354A
C. Section 354B
D. Section 509
Question
#Q228. Taking property dishonestly from the dead body
A. Does not amount to any offence under IPC
B. Amounts to the offence of theft
C. Amounts to the offence of criminal misappropriation
D. Amounts to the offence of criminal breach of trust

Question
#Q228. Taking property dishonestly from the dead body
A. Does not amount to any offence under IPC
B. Amounts to the offence of theft
C. Amounts to the offence of criminal misappropriation
D. Amounts to the offence of criminal breach of trust

Question
#Q229. Voluntarily attempting to throw acid on any
persons is punishable under which section of IPC?
A. 324
B. 326A
C. 326B
D. None of these
Question
#Q229. Voluntarily attempting to throw acid on any
persons is punishable under which section of IPC?
A. 324
B. 326A
C. 326B
D. None of these
Question
#Q230. Which one of the following is a continuing
offence?
A. Abduction
B. Rape
C. Abetment
D. Kidnapping
Question
#Q230. Which one of the following is a continuing
offence?
A. Abduction
B. Rape
C. Abetment
D. Kidnapping
Question
#Q231. The Constitutional validity of Section 497 of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been challenged in which
of the following cases:
A. Shakti Vahini v. Union of India
B. Bonda Prasad v State of MP
C. Joseph Shine v. Union of India
D. Dr. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of

Maharashtra
Question
#Q231. The Constitutional validity of Section 497 of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been challenged in which
of the following cases:
A. Shakti Vahini v. Union of India
B. Bonda Prasad v State of MP
C. Joseph Shine v. Union of India
D. Dr. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of

Maharashtra
Question
#Q232. Which of the following provisions of the Indian
Penal Code defines culpable homicide?
A. Section 302
B. Section 300
C. Section 301
D. Section 299
Question
#Q232. Which of the following provisions of the Indian
Penal Code defines culpable homicide?
A. Section 302
B. Section 300
C. Section 301
D. Section 299
Question
#Q233. How many exceptions are provided in criminal
defamation under Indian Penal Code?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Question
#Q233. How many exceptions are provided in criminal
defamation under Indian Penal Code?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Question
#Q234. The offence of "criminal breach of trust’’ is
described in:
D. Section 379 of IPC

Question
#Q234. The offence of "criminal breach of trust’’ is
described in:

Question
#Q235. The offence of ‘cheating’ under the IPC requires
proof of —
A. Entrustment
B. Deceit
C. Actual loss

Question
#Q235. The offence of ‘cheating’ under the IPC requires
proof of —
A. Entrustment
B. Deceit
C. Actual loss

Question
#Q236. A and B go with intent to kill C. A stood on guard
with a spare gun in hand but did not shoot C. B killed C.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. A and B both are equally liable for murder of C
B. A is not liable as he did nothing
C. Only B is liable for murder of C

Question
#Q236. A and B go with intent to kill C. A stood on guard
with a spare gun in hand but did not shoot C. B killed C.
Which one of the following is correct?
A. A and B both are equally liable for murder of C
B. A is not liable as he did nothing
C. Only B is liable for murder of C

Question
#Q237. The minimum period of imprisonment provided
for an offence under the Indian Penal Code is
imprisonment for
A. Twenty-four hours under section 510
B. Twenty four hours under section 511
C. Twenty hours under section 510
D. Sentence of imprisonment till rising of the court

under section 501
Question
#Q237. The minimum period of imprisonment provided
for an offence under the Indian Penal Code is
imprisonment for
A. Twenty-four hours under section 510
B. Twenty four hours under section 511
C. Twenty hours under section 510
D. Sentence of imprisonment till rising of the court

under section 501
Question
#Q238. A and B are joint owners of a horse, A takes the
horse out of B's possession intending to use it. But after
riding it he has a change of mind, sells the horse and
appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. What
offence, if any, has been committed by A?
A. Criminal breach of trust
B. Criminal misappropriation (dishonest

misappropriation of property)
C. Theft
D. No offence
Question
#Q238. A and B are joint owners of a horse, A takes the
horse out of B's possession intending to use it. But after
riding it he has a change of mind, sells the horse and
appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. What
offence, if any, has been committed by A?
B. Criminal misappropriation (dishonest

misappropriation of property)
C. Theft
D. No offence
Question
#Q239. Murder is defined in the following Section of
Indian Penal Code
A. 299
B. 300
C. 301
D. 302
Question
#Q239. Murder is defined in the following Section of
Indian Penal Code
A. 299
B. 300
C. 301
D. 302
Question
#Q240. ‘A’ threatens ‘B’ to injure the reputation of 'C, a
deceased in whom interested. ‘A’ has committed:—
A. No offence
B. Defamation
D. Both (b) and (c) of these

Question
#Q240. ‘A’ threatens ‘B’ to injure the reputation of 'C, a
deceased in whom interested. ‘A’ has committed:—
A. No offence
B. Defamation
D. Both (b) and (c) of these

Question
#Q241. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her father's
house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied ‘Z’ to various
places. All the travelling as well as Hotel charges were
paid out of the said amount as ‘Z’ had no money. During
the course of their journey ‘Z’ had sexual intercourse
with her thrice with her consent. Here ‘Z’ is liable under
section:—
A. 363 of Indian Penal Code
B. 366 of Indian Penal Code
C. 366A of Indian Penal Code
D. 376 of Indian Penal Code

Question
#Q241. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her father's
house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied ‘Z’ to various
places. All the travelling as well as Hotel charges were
paid out of the said amount as ‘Z’ had no money. During
the course of their journey ‘Z’ had sexual intercourse
with her thrice with her consent. Here ‘Z’ is liable under
section:—
A. 363 of Indian Penal Code
B. 366 of Indian Penal Code
C. 366A of Indian Penal Code
D. 376 of Indian Penal Code

Question
#Q242. Intentional insult with intent to provoke breach
of the peace, is punishable under:—
A. Section 508, IPC
B. Section 507, IPC
C. Section 560, 1PC
D. Section 504, IPC

Question
#Q242. Intentional insult with intent to provoke breach
of the peace, is punishable under:—
A. Section 508, IPC
B. Section 507, IPC
C. Section 560, 1PC
D. Section 504, IPC

Question
#Q243. Believing sugar to be arsenic (a poison), ‘A’
mixes the same into ‘B’s food with the intention of
causing ‘B’s death. ‘B’ eats the food but does not die. ‘A’
is guilty of:
A. Attempt to commit murder
B. No offence
C. Attempt to commit culpable homicide not

amounting to murder

Question
#Q243. Believing sugar to be arsenic (a poison), ‘A’
mixes the same into ‘B’s food with the intention of
causing ‘B’s death. ‘B’ eats the food but does not die. ‘A’
is guilty of:
A. Attempt to commit murder
B. No offence
C. Attempt to commit culpable homicide not

amounting to murder

Question
#Q244. ‘A’ incites his dog to spring upon ‘B’ without ‘B’s
consent. ‘A’ is guilty of:—
A. Assault
C. Criminal force
D. Grievous hurt
Question
#Q244. ‘A’ incites his dog to spring upon ‘B’ without ‘B’s
consent. ‘A’ is guilty of:—
A. Assault
C. Criminal force
D. Grievous hurt
Question
Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines ‘‘Thug’’?
A. Section 307
B. Section 310
C. Section 311
D. Section 312
Question
Indian Penal Code, 1860 defines ‘‘Thug’’?
A. Section 307
B. Section 310
C. Section 311
D. Section 312
Question
#Q246. Wrongful confinement has been defined
under"—
D. None of these
Question
#Q246. Wrongful confinement has been defined
under"—
D. None of these
Question
#Q247. ‘‘Lawful Guardian’’ in the contest of the offence
of kidnapping under Section 361 of the IPC includes:
A. Only parents
B. Only blood relatives
C. Any person lawfully entrusted with the care or

custody of the minor

Question
#Q247. ‘‘Lawful Guardian’’ in the contest of the offence
of kidnapping under Section 361 of the IPC includes:
A. Only parents
B. Only blood relatives
C. Any person lawfully entrusted with the care or

custody of the minor

Question
#Q248. Abduction can be committed against:
A. A person of any age
B. A male of female person below 18 years only
C. Women only

Question
#Q248. Abduction can be committed against:
A. A person of any age
B. A male of female person below 18 years only
C. Women only

Question
#Q249. Kidnapping for ransom etc. is a punishable
offence under IPC under:
A. Section 366A
B. Section 366B
C. Section 370A
D. Section 364A
Question
#Q249. Kidnapping for ransom etc. is a punishable
offence under IPC under:
A. Section 366A
B. Section 366B
C. Section 370A
D. Section 364A
Question
#Q250. Which of the following sections of IPC deals with
Gang Rape?
A. Section 376A
B. Section 376D
C. Section 376C
D. Section 376E
Question
#Q250. Which of the following sections of IPC deals with
Gang Rape?
A. Section 376A
B. Section 376D
C. Section 376C
D. Section 376E
Question
#Q251. Naz Foundation case relates to which of the
following provisions:
A. Section 491 of the IPC
B. Section 377 of the IPC
C. Section 293 of the IPC
D. Section 497 of the IPC

Question
#Q251. Naz Foundation case relates to which of the
following provisions:
A. Section 491 of the IPC
B. Section 377 of the IPC
C. Section 293 of the IPC
D. Section 497 of the IPC

Question
#Q252. In case of criminal misappropriation,
subsequent intention must be
A. Fraudulent
B. Dishonest
C. Innocent
D. Illegal
Question
#Q252. In case of criminal misappropriation,
subsequent intention must be
A. Fraudulent
B. Dishonest
C. Innocent
D. Illegal
Question
#Q253. A cuts down a tree on B's land with the
intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B's
possession, without consent. A has committed which
offence?
A. Criminal misappropriation
B. Criminal breach of trust
C. Extortion
D. Theft
Question
#Q253. A cuts down a tree on B's land with the
intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B's
possession, without consent. A has committed which
offence?
A. Criminal misappropriation
B. Criminal breach of trust
C. Extortion
D. Theft
Question
#Q254. Ramesh intentionally pulls up a woman's veil,
without her consent intending or knowing it to be likely
that he may thereby injure, frighten or annoy her. He
has committed the offence of:
A. Criminal assault
B. Criminal force
C. Grievous hurt

Question
#Q254. Ramesh intentionally pulls up a woman's veil,
without her consent intending or knowing it to be likely
that he may thereby injure, frighten or annoy her. He
has committed the offence of:
A. Criminal assault
B. Criminal force
C. Grievous hurt

Question
#Q255. Extortion is when it is ................... committed
under fear of instant hurt.
A. Theft
B. Attempt to steal property
C. Robbery
D. Wrongful confinement
Question
#Q255. Extortion is when it is ................... committed
under fear of instant hurt.
A. Theft
B. Attempt to steal property
C. Robbery
D. Wrongful confinement
Question
#Q256. Which one of the following Sections of the IPC
defines its intra-territorial jurisdiction?
A. Section 4(1)
B. Section 4(2)
C. Section 2
D. Section 3
Question
A. Section 4(1)
B. Section 4(2)
C. Section 2
D. Section 3
Question
#Q257. ‘A’ who is a citizen of India, commits a murder in
England. He is found in Indore and arrested accordingly.
Where can ‘A’ be tried?
A. At New Delhi, the capital of India
B. At Bhopal, the capital of M.P
C. At Indore, where he was found
D. At any place in India

Question

Question
#Q258. The word "injury" under the Indian Penal Code
denotes:
A. Only physical injury
B. Only physical and mental injury
C. Only harm to body and property
D. Harm to body, mind, reputation or property

Question
denotes:

Question
#Q259. The ‘doctrine of joint liability’ as envisaged by
Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is based on
the decision of the following:
A. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
B. Mulcahy v. R.
C. Pandurang v. State of Hyderabad
D. Reg. v. Cruise
Question
B. Mulcahy v. R.
D. Reg. v. Cruise
Question
#Q260. Which of the following is not a Public Servant?
A. Municipal Commissioner
B. Member of Parliament
C. M.L.A.
D. Examiner of University
Question
B. Member of Parliament
C. M.L.A.
D. Examiner of University
Question
#Q261. ‘Movable property’ under IPC is defined in:
A. Section 21
B. Section 22
C. Section 23
D. Section 24
Question
A. Section 21
B. Section 22
C. Section 23
D. Section 24
Question
#Q262. Section 87 of IPC is based on the legal maxim of:
A. De minimis non curat lex
B. Volenti non fit injuria
C. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea
D. Doli incapax
Question
D. Doli incapax
Question
#Q263. Under which section of IPC, a hangman who
hangs criminals in pursuant to the order of a Judge
under IPC is exempted from criminal liability?
A. Section 76
B. Section 77
C. Section 79

Question
#Q263. Under which section of IPC, a hangman who
A. Section 76
B. Section 77
C. Section 79

Question
#Q264. The term "he" used under Indian Penal Code
relates to a person who is
A. Male only
B. Female only
C. Male or female both
D. Third gender only

Question
A. Male only
B. Female only

Question
#Q265. When a criminal act is done by several persons,
each of such persons is liable for that act in the same
manner as if it were done by him alone if it is done in
furtherance of:
A. Common object
B. Common intention
C. Common motive
D. Common motive as well as common object

Question
furtherance of:
A. Common object
B. Common intention
C. Common motive

Question
#Q266. Indian Penal Code - Give the correct response.
A. Section 34 needs active participation while section

149 does not
B. Section 34 does not create specific offence while

section 149 does
C. Section 34 speaks of common object while section

149 speaks of common intention
D. All of these
Question
#Q266. Indian Penal Code - Give the correct response.

149 does not

section 149 does

D. All of these
Question
#Q267. The phrase "in furtherance of common intention
of all" used in Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, is
A. In the original draft
B. Added by Amending Act of 1870
C. Not at all there
D. Added by Amending Act of 1986

Question
of all" used in Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, is
C. Not at all there

Question
#Q268. ‘Z', under the influence of madness, attempts to
kill ‘A', ‘A’ has a right of private defence up to the extent
of causing:
A. Death
B. Grievous hurt
C. Hurt
D. Assault
Question
of causing:
A. Death
B. Grievous hurt
C. Hurt
D. Assault
Question
#Q269. Which Section of IPC contains the provision of
causing death in the private defence of the body?
A. Section 99
B. Section 96
C. Section 98
D. Section 100
Question
A. Section 99
B. Section 96
C. Section 98
D. Section 100
Question
#Q270. Which Provision of the Indian Penal Code says,
"nothing is an offence which is done by accident"?
A. Section 79
B. Section 78
C. Section 80

Question
A. Section 79
B. Section 78
C. Section 80

Question
#Q271. Magistrate can invoke power under section
156(3), Cr.P.C. even at the post cognizance stage. It is
held in—
A. Vinubhai Haribhai and others v. State of Gujrat and

another (2019)
B. Alok Verma v. Union of India (2019)
C. BK Pavitra v. Union of India (2015)
D. Pattu Rajan v Union of India (2019)

Question
held in—
A. Vinubhai Haribhai and others v. State of Gujrat and

another (2019)

Question
#Q272. The term 'victim' has been defined by the Code
of Criminal Procedure, 1973 in:
A. Section 2(r)
B. Section 2(wa)
C. Section 2(t)
D. Section 2(b)
Question
A. Section 2(r)
B. Section 2(wa)
C. Section 2(t)
D. Section 2(b)
Question
#Q273. Under CrPC- The accused has indefeasible right
to bail when investigation is not completed within:
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 21 days
D. 90 or 60 days
Question
#Q273. Under CrPC- The accused has indefeasible right
to bail when investigation is not completed within:
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 21 days
D. 90 or 60 days
Question
#Q274. In a cognizable case, the police will have all the
powers to ...............
A. Investigate except the power to arrest without

warrant
B. Investigate including the power to arrest without
warrant
C. Investigate and arrest without warrant only after
seeking permission from the Magistrate
D. Investigate and arrest without warrant only after
informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to
inquire into or try the offence
Question
#Q274. In a cognizable case, the police will have all the
powers to ...............

warrant
warrant
seeking permission from the Magistrate
inquire into or try the offence
Question
#Q275. Public Prosecutor means a person:

Prosecutor

Question

Prosecutor

Question
#Q276. Warrant case means a case:
A. In which a police officer cannot arrest without

warrant
B. In which the court in the first instance, shall issue a
warrant of arrest against the accused
C. Relating to an offence punishable with
imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
D. Relating to an offence punishable with death
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term
exceeding two years
Question

warrant
exceeding two years
Question
#Q277. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of:
A. Concurrent list
B. State list
C. Union list

Question
#Q277. Criminal Procedure Code is a subject of:
A. Concurrent list
B. State list
C. Union list

Question
#Q278. Complaint under Section 2(d) CrPC, can be:
A. Written
B. Oral
C. Written or Oral
D. None of these
Question
#Q278. Complaint under Section 2(d) CrPC, can be:
A. Written
B. Oral
C. Written or Oral
D. None of these
Question
#Q279. Which statement is not true:
A. Summons case means a case which is not warrant

case
B. Summons case means a case through which security

is not required
C. Summons case means a case which is punishable

less than 2 years
D. Summons case means a case in which only summons

can be served during trial
Question

case

is not required

less than 2 years

Question
#Q280. The recording of the statements by a police
officer during investigation provided by:
A. Section 161(1) CrPC
B. Section 161(2)CrPC
C. Section 161(3) CrPC
D. Section 162(1)CrPC
Question
A. Section 161(1) CrPC
B. Section 161(2)CrPC
C. Section 161(3) CrPC
D. Section 162(1)CrPC
Question
#Q281. Point out the correct statement:
A. Crime is necessarily an immoral act.
B. Crime is necessarily an anti-social act.
C. Crime is necessarily an anti-communal act.
D. Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act.

Question

Question
#Q282. The State Government may by notification
declare any city or town for the purposes of Cr.P.C. as a
‘Metropolitan', whose population:
A. Exceeds ten lakhs
B. Below ten lakhs
C. Is five lakhs

Question
‘Metropolitan', whose population:
B. Below ten lakhs
C. Is five lakhs

Question
#Q283. If an accused at one trial is convicted of and
punished with imprisonment in two offences, under
section 31 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973; the
imprisonments in the absence of any specific direction
of the court, will run:
A. Consecutively
B. Concurrently
C. Consecutively as per direction of Jail Authorities
D. Concurrently as per direction of Jail Authorities

Question
A. Consecutively
B. Concurrently

Question
#Q284. As provided under CrPC, how are the summons
served?
A. By a police officer
B. By an officers of the court
C. By any authorised public servant
D. By any of the above

Question
#Q284. As provided under CrPC, how are the summons
served?

Question
#Q285. Under section 436A CrPC, Maximum period for
which under-trial can be detained:



Question
#Q285. Under section 436A CrPC, Maximum period for
which under-trial can be detained:



Question
#Q286. Which of the following is not a “document” as
per provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
A. A map
B. Words lithographed
C. Inscription on a stone
D. A piece of metal with inscription that was used to

cause fatal injury
Question
A. A map

cause fatal injury
Question
#Q287. The case of Kashmira Singh v. State of Madhya
Pradesh relates to—
C. Confession to police officer
D. Confession of a co-accused
Question
Question
#Q288. Factum Probandum means:
A. Conclusive fact.
B. The fact that is probable.
C. The fact that has to be believed.
D. The principal fact to be proved.

Question
#Q288. Factum Probandum means:
A. Conclusive fact.

Question
#Q289. Which one of the following is not included in the
expression ‘Court’ under the Indian Evidence Act?
A. All judges
B. All persons legally authorized to take evidence
C. All Magistrates
D. Arbitrator
Question
expression ‘Court’ under the Indian Evidence Act?
A. All judges
C. All Magistrates
D. Arbitrator
Question
#Q290. A wife had only seen a speeding vehicle, which
had crushed the husband at a little distance. She had not
seen the accident herself. The husband died of a heart
attack a day later. Can wife’s evidence be taken of what
the injured husband said to her after the accident?
A. Yes it being a dying declaration
B. No, it is merely a hearsay evidence
C. No, because it is a privileged communication
D. Yes, it being a part of res gestae

Question

Question
#Q291. A is accused of the murder of B by beating him.
What is not admissible as evidence?
A. Whatever was said by A or B or bystanders at the

time of beating
B. A has intention for murder of B
C. Marks on the ground of struggle between A and B
D. A is a man of bad character

Question

time of beating

Question
#Q292. Which one of the following statements is
correct? A struck B on the neck with a knife and this was
seen by C who exclaimed, “A is killing B”. C’s
exclamation is:
A. Relevant because it was spontaneous
B. Relevant because it forms part of the transaction
C. Relevant because it is negligible to the transaction
D. Relevant because it is a fact in issue

Question
exclamation is:

Question
#Q293. Many rules of ‘Law of Evidence’ are contained
in:
A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
B. Indian Limitation Act, 1963
C. Banker’s Book Evidence Act, 1963
D. All of the above

Question
in:
D. All of the above

Question
#Q294. Appreciation of evidence is a:
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
C. Question of law and fact
D. All of the above

Question
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
D. All of the above

Question
#Q295. Which of the following Section of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 makes an accomplice a competent
witness against the accused?
A. 130
B. 131
C. 132
D. 133
Question
A. 130
B. 131
C. 132
D. 133
Question
Indian Evidence Act applies to the pleaders relating to
professional communications?
A. Section 128 only
B. Sections 129 and 130
C. Sections 133 and 134
D. Sections 126 and 127

Question
A. Section 128 only

Question
#Q297. Which of the following sections of “The SC and
ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989” provides
punishment for offences of atrocities?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989” provides
punishment for offences of atrocities?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
#Q298. Which section of The SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989 defines “economic boycott”?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(ac)
C. Section 2(b)
D. Section (bc)
Question
Atrocities) Act, 1989 defines “economic boycott”?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(ac)
C. Section 2(b)
D. Section (bc)
Question
#Q299. Which of the following sections of the Arms Act,
1959 define “ammunition”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
#Q299. Which of the following sections of the Arms Act,
1959 define “ammunition”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
#Q300. Section 5 of the Arms Act, 1959 is mandatory
provision in view of maintaining public peace as it lays
down:
A. License for manufacture, sale, etc., of arms and

ammunition
B. License for the shortening of guns or conversion of

imitation firearms into firearms
C. Prohibition of sale or transfer of firearms not

bearing identification marks
D. All of the above

Question
#Q300. Section 5 of the Arms Act, 1959 is mandatory
down:

ammunition


D. All of the above

RAJASTHAN APO
MCQ MARATHON
750 + Questions
By – KARAN SANGWAN Sir

Question
#Q301. Which section of the Arms Act, 1959 provides
for power to restrict and prohibit for transport of Arms
and ammunition in India?
A. Section 11
B. Section 12
C. Section 13
D. Section 14
Question
#Q301. Which section of the Arms Act, 1959 provides
for power to restrict and prohibit for transport of Arms
and ammunition in India?
A. Section 11
B. Section 12
C. Section 13
D. Section 14
Question
#Q302. Which of the following sections in the Juvenile
Justice Act prescribes for “begging”?
A. Section 2 (7)
B. Section 2 (8)
C. Section 2 (10)
D. Section 2 (11)
Question
Justice Act prescribes for “begging”?
A. Section 2 (7)
B. Section 2 (8)
C. Section 2 (10)
D. Section 2 (11)
Question
#Q303. Under Juvenile Justice Act, who shall inform the
parents, guardian or probation officer where a child
alleged to be in conflict with law is apprehended?
A. Child Welfare Police Officer of the police station
B. The special juvenile police unit
C. District authorities
D. Only A and B
Question
#Q303. Under Juvenile Justice Act, who shall inform the
parents, guardian or probation officer where a child
alleged to be in conflict with law is apprehended?
D. Only A and B
Question
#Q304. According to section 25 of the Juvenile Justice
Act, all proceedings in respect of a child alleged or found
to be in conflict with law pending before any Board or
court on the date of commencement of this Act, shall be:
A. Continued in that Board or court as if this Act had

not been enacted
B. Not continued in that Board or court as if this Act
had not been enacted
C. Niether (a) nor (b)
D. Only (a) not (b)
Question
#Q304. According to section 25 of the Juvenile Justice
Act, all proceedings in respect of a child alleged or found
to be in conflict with law pending before any Board or
court on the date of commencement of this Act, shall be:
A. Continued in that Board or court as if this Act had

not been enacted
B. Not continued in that Board or court as if this Act
had not been enacted
C. Niether (a) nor (b)
D. Only (a) not (b)
Question
#Q305. According to the preamble of the POCSO Act,
which international standard influences its provisions?
A. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. The Convention on the Rights of the Child
C. The Geneva Convention
D. The International Covenant on Economic, Social and

Cultural Rights
Question

Cultural Rights
Question
#Q306. Which of the following sections prescribe for the
‘Special Court’ under POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(g)
B. Section 2(s)
C. Section 2 (l)
D. Section 2(m)
Question
#Q306. Which of the following sections prescribe for the
‘Special Court’ under POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(g)
B. Section 2(s)
C. Section 2 (l)
D. Section 2(m)
Question
#Q307. The enforcement date of The Rajasthan Excise
Act, 1950 is:
A. 01.07.1950
B. 01.06.1950
C. 01.08.1951
D. 01.09.1952
Question
#Q307. The enforcement date of The Rajasthan Excise
Act, 1950 is:
A. 01.07.1950
B. 01.06.1950
C. 01.08.1951
D. 01.09.1952
Question
#Q308. Under The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950,
Substance which include sale, stout, porter and all other
fermented liquor made from malt is called:
A. Beer
B. Wine
C. Rum
D. All of the following

Question
#Q308. Under The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950,
Substance which include sale, stout, porter and all other
fermented liquor made from malt is called:
A. Beer
B. Wine
C. Rum

Question
#Q309. Which chapter under Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950
prescribes for the Offences and Penalties?
A. Chapter V
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
A. Chapter V
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
#Q310. The enforcement date of the POCSO Act is
prescribed as:
A. 14.10.2012
B. 14.11.2012
C. 14.12.2012
D. 14.01.2013
Question
prescribed as:
A. 14.10.2012
B. 14.11.2012
C. 14.12.2012
D. 14.01.2013
Question
#Q311. Which of the following sections defines “child”
in the POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
in the POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q312. Under POCSO Act, _________ means a household
where the person charged with the offence lives or has
lived at any time in a domestic relationship with the
child.
A. Shared household
B. Domestic household
C. Criminal household
D. All of the above
Question
#Q312. Under POCSO Act, _________ means a household
where the person charged with the offence lives or has
lived at any time in a domestic relationship with the
child.
A. Shared household
D. All of the above
Question
#Q313. Penetrative sexual assault has been prescribed
under which section of the POCSO Act?
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
under which section of the POCSO Act?
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
#Q314. As per POSCO Act- Whoever, with sexual intent
touches the vagina, penis, anus or breast of the child or
makes the child touch the vagina, penis, anus or breast
of such person or any other person, or does any other
act with sexual intent which involves physical contact
without penetration is said to commit:
A. Sexual assault
B. Aggravated sexual assault
C. Penetrative sexual assault
D. All of the above
Question
#Q314. As per POSCO Act- Whoever, with sexual intent
touches the vagina, penis, anus or breast of the child or
makes the child touch the vagina, penis, anus or breast
of such person or any other person, or does any other
act with sexual intent which involves physical contact
without penetration is said to commit:
A. Sexual assault
D. All of the above
Question
#Q315. As per The Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992, it means any
place fixed for holding public examination and includes
the entire premises attached thereto, What is the name
given to such place:
A. Examination center
B. Examination board
C. Public examination board
D. All of the above
Question
D. All of the above
Question
#Q316. Which of the following sections in The Rajasthan
Public Examination (Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act,
1992 prescribe Prevention of leakage by persons
entrusted with examination work ?
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q317. Who has the power to amend the schedule
under The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of
Unfairmeans) Act, 1992?
A. Central Government
B. State Government
C. Municipal Authorities
D. Parliament
Question
B. State Government
D. Parliament
Question
#Q318. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures
for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment Act),
2022 is:
A. Act 06 of 2022
B. Act 07 of 2022
C. Act 08 of 2022
D. Act 09 of 2022
Question
2022 is:
A. Act 06 of 2022
B. Act 07 of 2022
C. Act 08 of 2022
D. Act 09 of 2022
Question
#Q319. Which of the following sections define "conduct
of public examination” under The Rajasthan Public
Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means
in Recruitment Act), 2022?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
of public examination” under The Rajasthan Public
in Recruitment Act), 2022?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
#Q320. Prohibition to enter in the examination center is
given under which section of The Rajasthan Public
in Recruitment Act), 2022:
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
given under which section of The Rajasthan Public
in Recruitment Act), 2022:
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q321. The words and expressions used in Probation of
Offenders Act but not defined in this Act and defined in
the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (5 of 1898), shall
have the meanings respectively assigned to them in that
Code. This declaration is provided in:
A. Section 2 (a) of Probation of Offenders Act

B. Section 2 (b) of Probation of Offenders Act
C. Section 2 (c) of Probation of Offenders Act
D. Section 2 (d) of Probation of Offenders Act
Question
A. Section 2 (a) of Probation of Offenders Act

B. Section 2 (b) of Probation of Offenders Act
C. Section 2 (c) of Probation of Offenders Act
D. Section 2 (d) of Probation of Offenders Act
Question
#Q322. The threshold for the purpose of age in section 6
of Probation of Offenders Act has been given as:
A. Eighteen years
B. Nineteen years
C. Twenty years
D. Twenty one years

Question
#Q323. Which of the following sections of the Probation
of Offenders Act declares that the Report of the
probation officer to be confidential?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Question
#Q324. Procedure in case of offender failing to observe
conditions of bond is provided in:
A. Section 8 of Probation of Offenders Act
B. Section 9 of Probation of Offenders Act
C. Section 10 of Probation of Offenders Act
D. Section 11 of Probation of Offenders Act

Question

Question
#Q325. Where the failure is for the first time under
section 9 of the Probation of Offenders Act, then,
without prejudice to the continuance in force of the
bond, the court may impose upon the offender a penalty
not exceeding:
A. Twenty five rupees

B. Fifty rupees
C. Sixty Rupees
D. Hundred Rupees
Question
not exceeding:

B. Fifty rupees
C. Sixty Rupees
D. Hundred Rupees
Question
#Q326. Which section of The Juvenile Justice (Care And
Protection Of Children) Act deals with Child in conflict
with law:
A. S. 2(14)
B. S. 2(10)
C. S. 2(13)
D. S. 2(15)
Question
#Q326. Which section of The Juvenile Justice (Care And
Protection Of Children) Act deals with Child in conflict
with law:
A. S. 2(14)
B. S. 2(10)
C. S. 2(13)
D. S. 2(15)
Question
#Q327. When did The Juvenile Justice (Care And
Protection Of Children) Act, 2015 came into force?
A. 01 April 2015
B. 15 January 2016
C. 01 January 2015
D. 23 April 2016
Question
#Q327. When did The Juvenile Justice (Care And
Protection Of Children) Act, 2015 came into force?
A. 01 April 2015
B. 15 January 2016
C. 01 January 2015
D. 23 April 2016
Question
#Q328. What does abandoned child mean as per JJ Act
2015?
i) Abandoned child means a child deserted by his
biological or adoptive parents.
ii) It means a child who has been declared as abandoned
by the Committee after due inquiry.
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ii
D. None
Question
#Q328. What does abandoned child mean as per JJ Act
2015?
i) Abandoned child means a child deserted by his
biological or adoptive parents.
ii) It means a child who has been declared as abandoned
by the Committee after due inquiry.
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Both i and ii
D. None
Question
#Q329. Which section of the JJ Act 2015 deals with
“adoption”?
A. S. 2(1)
B. S. 2(2)
C. S. 2(3)
D. S. 2(5)
Question
#Q329. Which section of the JJ Act 2015 deals with
“adoption”?
A. S. 2(1)
B. S. 2(2)
C. S. 2(3)
D. S. 2(5)
Question
#Q330. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with “Child
Welfare Officer”?
A. S. 2(11)
B. S. 2(12)
C. S. 2(16)
D. S. 2(17)
Question
#Q330. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with “Child
Welfare Officer”?
A. S. 2(11)
B. S. 2(12)
C. S. 2(16)
D. S. 2(17)
Question
#Q331. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with
“Relative”?
A. S. 2(51)
B. S. 2(52)
C. S. 2(53)
D. S. 2(55)
Question
#Q331. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with
“Relative”?
A. S. 2(51)
B. S. 2(52)
C. S. 2(53)
D. S. 2(55)
Question
#Q332. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with ‘Special
home’?
A. S. 2(55)
B. S. 2(56)
C. S. 2(57)
D. S. 2(58)
Question
#Q332. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with ‘Special
home’?
A. S. 2(55)
B. S. 2(56)
C. S. 2(57)
D. S. 2(58)
Question
#Q333. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with ‘State
Agency’?
A. S. 2(51)
B. S. 2(52)
C. S. 2(53)
D. S. 2(55)
Question
#Q333. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with ‘State
Agency’?
A. S. 2(51)
B. S. 2(52)
C. S. 2(53)
D. S. 2(55)
Question
#Q334. According to the JJ Act, 2015 which section deals
with the Juvenile Justice Board?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
with the Juvenile Justice Board?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
#Q335. Under section 4 of JJ Act,2015, _____________shall
ensure that induction training and sensitisation of all
members including Principal Magistrate of the Board on
care, protection, rehabilitation, legal provisions and
justice for children, as may be prescribed, is provided
within a period of sixty days from the date of
appointment.
A. The State Government

B. The central government
C. The local authorities
Question
#Q335. Under section 4 of JJ Act,2015, _____________shall
ensure that induction training and sensitisation of all
members including Principal Magistrate of the Board on
care, protection, rehabilitation, legal provisions and
justice for children, as may be prescribed, is provided
within a period of sixty days from the date of
appointment.
A. The State Government

B. The central government
C. The local authorities
Question
#Q336. The powers conferred on the Board by or under
JJ Act may also be exercised by_______________, when the
proceedings come before them under section 19 or in
appeal, revision or otherwise.
A. The High Court
B. The Children's Court
C. Both (a) and (b)

Question
#Q336. The powers conferred on the Board by or under
JJ Act may also be exercised by_______________, when the
proceedings come before them under section 19 or in
appeal, revision or otherwise.
A. The High Court
B. The Children's Court
C. Both (a) and (b)

Question
with the Procedure in relation to Board.
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
with the Procedure in relation to Board.
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q338. Where an inquiry has been initiated in respect
of any child under JJ Act, and during the course of such
inquiry, the child completes the age of_________, then,
notwithstanding anything contained in this Act or in any
other law for the time being in force, the inquiry may be
continued by the Board and orders may be passed in
respect of such person as if such person had continued
to be a child.
A. 14 years
B. 16 years
C. 18 years
D. 20 years
Question
#Q338. Where an inquiry has been initiated in respect
of any child under JJ Act, and during the course of such
inquiry, the child completes the age of_________, then,
notwithstanding anything contained in this Act or in any
other law for the time being in force, the inquiry may be
continued by the Board and orders may be passed in
respect of such person as if such person had continued
to be a child.
A. 14 years
B. 16 years
C. 18 years
D. 20 years
Question
#Q339. Which section of JJ Act 2015 deals with the
Special provision in respect of pending cases?
A. Section 24
B. Section 25
C. Section 26
D. Section 27
Question
Special provision in respect of pending cases?
A. Section 24
B. Section 25
C. Section 26
D. Section 27
Question
#Q340. Where is the Juvenile Justice or children's rights
included in the Constitution?
A. Clause (3) of article 15
B. Clause (f) of article 39
C. Both a & b
D. None
Question
#Q340. Where is the Juvenile Justice or children's rights
included in the Constitution?
B. Clause (f) of article 39
C. Both a & b
D. None
Question
#Q341. Section 12 of The Juvenile Justice Act 2015 deals
with_______?
A. Bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to

be in conflict with the law
B. Preliminary assessment into heinous offenses by
Board
C. Powers of Children’s Court
D. Removal of disqualification on the findings of an
offense
Question
with_______?
A. Bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to

be in conflict with the law
B. Preliminary assessment into heinous offenses by
Board
C. Powers of Children’s Court
D. Removal of disqualification on the findings of an
offense
Question
with_______?
A. Powers, functions, and responsibilities of the Board

B. Placement of persons, who committed an offense,
when the person was below the age of eighteen
years
C. Apprehension of a child alleged to be in conflict with
the law
D. Orders regarding a child not found to be in conflict
with law
Question
with_______?
A. Powers, functions, and responsibilities of the Board

B. Placement of persons, who committed an offense,
when the person was below the age of eighteen
years
C. Apprehension of a child alleged to be in conflict with
the law
D. Orders regarding a child not found to be in conflict
with law
Question
with ?
A. Order that may not be passed against a child in

conflict with the law
B. Special provision in respect of pending cases
C. Mandatory reporting regarding a child found

separated from guardian
D. Penalty for non-registration of child care institutions

Question
with ?
A. Order that may not be passed against a child in

conflict with the law
B. Special provision in respect of pending cases
C. Mandatory reporting regarding a child found

separated from guardian
D. Penalty for non-registration of child care institutions

Question
#Q344. When the child in conflict with the law attains
the age of twenty-one years and is yet to complete the
term of stay, the Children’s Court shall provide for a
follow up by the______________, as required, to evaluate if
such child has undergone reformative changes.
A. Probation officer
B. District Child Protection Unit
C. A social worker
D. All of the above

Question
#Q344. When the child in conflict with the law attains
the age of twenty-one years and is yet to complete the
term of stay, the Children’s Court shall provide for a
follow up by the______________, as required, to evaluate if
such child has undergone reformative changes.
A. Probation officer
B. District Child Protection Unit
C. A social worker
D. All of the above

Question
‘Powers of Children’s Court’?
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 19
D. Section 20
Question
‘Powers of Children’s Court’?
A. Section 17
B. Section 18
C. Section 19
D. Section 20
Question
‘Orders regarding a child not found to be in conflict with
law’?
A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 18
D. Section 19
Question
‘Orders regarding a child not found to be in conflict with
law’?
A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 18
D. Section 19
Question
#Q347. Under which section of the Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act
1989, "Special Public Prosecutor" is defined?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (e)
Question
1989, "Special Public Prosecutor" is defined?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (e)
Question
#Q348. When was the Schedule Castes and Scheduled
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) 1989 Act approved by
the President of India?
A. 15 September 1989
B. 20 September 1989
C. 11 September 1989
D. 10 January 1990
Question
#Q348. When was the Schedule Castes and Scheduled
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) 1989 Act approved by
the President of India?
A. 15 September 1989
B. 20 September 1989
C. 11 September 1989
D. 10 January 1990
Question
1989, "Exclusive special court" is defined?
A. Section 2 b(b)
B. Section 2 b(c)
C. Section 2 b(d)

Question
1989, "Exclusive special court" is defined?
A. Section 2 b(b)
B. Section 2 b(c)
C. Section 2 b(d)

Question
1989, "public servant" is defined?
A. Section 2(b)(d)
B. Section 2(b) (e)
C. Section 2(b) (f)
D. Section 2(b) (g)

Question
1989, "public servant" is defined?
A. Section 2(b)(d)
B. Section 2(b) (e)
C. Section 2(b) (f)
D. Section 2(b) (g)

Question
#Q351. “Victim” means any individual who falls within
the definition of the “Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes” under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 2,
and who has ________________ physical, mental,
psychological, emotional or monetary harm or harm to
his property as a result of the commission of any offence
under SC & ST Act.
A. Suffered
B. Experienced
C. Both (a) and (b)
Question
#Q351. “Victim” means any individual who falls within
the definition of the “Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Tribes” under clause (c) of sub-section (1) of section 2,
and who has ________________ physical, mental,
psychological, emotional or monetary harm or harm to
his property as a result of the commission of any offence
under SC & ST Act.
A. Suffered
B. Experienced
C. Both (a) and (b)
Question
#Q352. OFFENCES OF ATROCITIES provided under
___________ of the SC & ST Act.
A. CHAPTER I
B. CHAPTER II
C. CHAPTER III
D. CHAPTER IV
Question
#Q352. OFFENCES OF ATROCITIES provided under
___________ of the SC & ST Act.
A. CHAPTER I
B. CHAPTER II
C. CHAPTER III
D. CHAPTER IV
Question
#Q353. Whoever, imposes or threatens a social or
economic boycott of any person or a family or a group
belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled
Tribe,_______________________.
A. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than six months but which
may extend to five years and with fine.
B. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than one year but which may
extend to five years and with fine.
C. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than two years but which
D. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term
which shall not be less than five years but which
Question
#Q353. Whoever, imposes or threatens a social or
economic boycott of any person or a family or a group
belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled
Tribe,_______________________.
which shall not be less than five years but which
Question
#Q354. Whoever, being a public servant but not being a
member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe,
wilfully neglects his duties required to be performed by
him under SC & ST Act and the rules made thereunder,
_______________________________.
may extend to one year.
which shall not be less than nine months but which
may extend to one year.
extend to two years.
Question
#Q354. Whoever, being a public servant but not being a member
of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe, wilfully neglects his
duties required to be performed by him under SC & ST Act and
the rules made thereunder, _______________________________.
A. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than six months but which may extend to
one year.
B. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than nine months but which may extend to
one year.
C. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than one year but which may extend to two
years.
D. Shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which
shall not be less than two years but which may extend to
three years.
Question
#Q355. The cognizance in respect of any dereliction of
duty referred to in sub-section (2) by a public servant
shall be taken by ______________ and shall give direction
for penal proceedings against such public servant.
A. The Special Court
B. The Exclusive Special Court
C. Both (a) and (b)

Question
#Q355. The cognizance in respect of any dereliction of
duty referred to in sub-section (2) by a public servant
shall be taken by ______________ and shall give direction
for penal proceedings against such public servant.
A. The Special Court
B. The Exclusive Special Court
C. Both (a) and (b)

Question
#Q356. Which of the following sections of the SC & ST
Act, Punishment for neglect of duties provided?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
#Q356. Which of the following sections of the SC & ST
Act, Punishment for neglect of duties provided?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
#Q357. Whoever, not being a member of a Scheduled
Caste or a Scheduled Tribe, intentionally touches a
woman belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled
Tribe, knowing that she belongs to a Scheduled Caste or
a Scheduled Tribe, when such act of touching is of a
sexual nature and is without the recipient’s consent;
Question
Question
#Q357. Whoever, not being a member of a Scheduled
Caste or a Scheduled Tribe, intentionally touches a
woman belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled
Tribe, knowing that she belongs to a Scheduled Caste or
a Scheduled Tribe, when such act of touching is of a
sexual nature and is without the recipient’s consent;
Question
Question
#Q358. Whoever, having already been convicted of an
offence under Offences of Atrocities is convicted for the
second offence or any offence subsequent to the second
offence, ________________.
extend to the punishment provided for that offence.
which shall not be less than two years but which may
which shall not be less than three years but which may
which shall not be less than seven years but which may
Question
#Q358. Whoever, having already been convicted of an
offence under Offences of Atrocities is convicted for the
second offence or any offence subsequent to the second
offence, ________________.
which shall not be less than two years but which may
which shall not be less than three years but which may
which shall not be less than seven years but which may
Question
#Q359. Forfeiture of property of certain persons
provided under which sections of the SC & ST Act?
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q359. Forfeiture of property of certain persons
provided under which sections of the SC & ST Act?
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q360. Conferment of powers is given under ____________
of the SC & ST Act.
A. Section 8
B. Section 9
C. Section 10
D. Section 11
Question
#Q360. Conferment of powers is given under ____________
of the SC & ST Act.
A. Section 8
B. Section 9
C. Section 10
D. Section 11
Question
#Q361. In which section of the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989
are the provisions of "special court" given?
A. Section 14
B. Section 15
C. Section 16
D. Section 17
Question
#Q361. In which section of the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989
are the provisions of "special court" given?
A. Section 14
B. Section 15
C. Section 16
D. Section 17
Question
#Q362. The Rajasthan Excise Act, may be called
_________________
A. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1949.
B. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950.
C. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1955.
D. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1960.

Question
#Q362. The Rajasthan Excise Act, may be called
_________________
A. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1949.
B. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950.
C. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1955.
D. The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1960.

Question
#Q363. "Beer" includes_________ under the Rajasthan
Excise Act
A. Ale
B. Stout
C. Porter and all other fermented liquors made from

malt
D. All of the above

Question
#Q363. "Beer" includes_________ under the Rajasthan
Excise Act
A. Ale
B. Stout
C. Porter and all other fermented liquors made from

malt
D. All of the above

Question
#Q364. "Excise Commissioner" means the Excise
Commissioner appointed by the _________under the
Rajasthan Excise Act.
A. State Government
B. Central Government
C. Local bodies

Question
#Q364. "Excise Commissioner" means the Excise
Commissioner appointed by the _________under the
A. State Government
C. Local bodies

Question
#Q365. "Excise Revenue" means revenue derived or
derivable from any payment, _________________ (other than
a fine imposed by a Court of law) or confiscation
imposed or ordered under the provisions of this Act or
of any other law for the time being in force relating to
liquor or intoxicating drugs.
A. Duty
B. Fee
C. Tax fine
D. All of the above
Question
#Q365. "Excise Revenue" means revenue derived or
derivable from any payment, _________________ (other than
a fine imposed by a Court of law) or confiscation
imposed or ordered under the provisions of this Act or
of any other law for the time being in force relating to
liquor or intoxicating drugs.
A. Duty
B. Fee
C. Tax fine
D. All of the above
Question
#Q366. "Magistrate" means under the Rajasthan Excise
Act.
A. Any Magistrate of the first class
B. Any Magistrate of the second class
C. Session judge
D. Revenue officers
Question
#Q366. "Magistrate" means under the Rajasthan Excise
Act.
A. Any Magistrate of the first class
B. Any Magistrate of the second class
C. Session judge
D. Revenue officers
Question
#Q367. Offences and Penalties dealt under ___________ of
the Rajasthan Excise Act.
A. Chapter VI
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
A. Chapter VI
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
#Q368. Penalty for certain acts by Licensee or his
servants provided under _____________ of the Rajasthan
Excise Act.
A. Section 58
B. Section 59
C. Section 60
D. Section 61
Question
#Q368. Penalty for certain acts by Licensee or his
servants provided under _____________ of the Rajasthan
Excise Act.
A. Section 58
B. Section 59
C. Section 60
D. Section 61
Question
#Q369. Whoever mixes or permits to be mixed with any
liquor or intoxicating drug any noxious substance or any
substance, which is likely to cause disability or grievous
hurt or death to human beings, shall, on conviction, be
punishable if, as a result of such an act, death is caused
to any person, ________________________
Question
A. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than one year but which may be for life, and
with fine which shall not be less than one lakh
rupees but which may extend to ten lakh rupees
B. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than two years but which may be for life, and
C. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than three years but which may be for life, and
D. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than seven years but which may be for life, and
Question
#Q369. Whoever mixes or permits to be mixed with any
liquor or intoxicating drug any noxious substance or any
substance, which is likely to cause disability or grievous
hurt or death to human beings, shall, on conviction, be
punishable if, as a result of such an act, death is caused
to any person, ________________________
Question
A. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than one year but which may be for life, and
B. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than two years but which may be for life, and
C. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than three years but which may be for life, and
D. With imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than seven years but which may be for life, and
Question
#Q370. "Grievous hurt" under Rajasthan Excise Act shall
have the same meaning as is in _____________of the Indian
Penal Code, 1860.
A. Section 314
B. Section 316
C. Section 318
D. Section 320
Question
#Q370. "Grievous hurt" under Rajasthan Excise Act shall
have the same meaning as is in _____________of the Indian
Penal Code, 1860.
A. Section 314
B. Section 316
C. Section 318
D. Section 320
Question
#Q371. Penalty for unlawfully selling to persons under
eighteen or employing children or women provided
under _________________ of the Rajasthan Excise Act.
A. Section 50
B. Section 55
C. Section 60
D. Section 65
Question
#Q371. Penalty for unlawfully selling to persons under
eighteen or employing children or women provided
under _________________ of the Rajasthan Excise Act.
A. Section 50
B. Section 55
C. Section 60
D. Section 65
Question
#Q372. Whoever renders or attempts to render fit for
human consumption any spirit (wherever
manufactured) which has been denatured or any
denatured spirituous preparation or has to his
possession any denatured spirit or any denatured
spirituous preparation which has been rendered fit for
human consumption or in respect of which any attempt
or in which any alteration has been made to render it so
fit, ______________________________.
Question
A. Shall be punished - with imprisonment for a term [which
shall not be less than one year but which may extend to five
years and with fine of two lakh rupees or five thousand
rupees per bulk liter of denatured spirit or denatured
spirituous preparation involved, whichever is higher.
B. Shall be punished - with imprisonment for a term [which
five years and with fine of two lakh rupees or five thousand
C. Shall be punished - with imprisonment for a term [which
shall not be less than three years but which may extend to
Question
#Q372. Whoever renders or attempts to render fit for
human consumption any spirit (wherever
manufactured) which has been denatured or any
denatured spirituous preparation or has to his
possession any denatured spirit or any denatured
spirituous preparation which has been rendered fit for
human consumption or in respect of which any attempt
or in which any alteration has been made to render it so
fit, ______________________________.
Question
A. Shall be punished - with imprisonment for a term [which
shall not be less than one year but which may extend to five
years and with fine of two lakh rupees or five thousand
B. Shall be punished - with imprisonment for a term [which
C. Shall be punished - with imprisonment for a term [which
shall not be less than three years but which may extend to
Question
#Q373. Whoever being the holder of a licence, permit or
pass granted under Rajasthan Excise Act or being in the
employ of such holder and acting on his behalf fails to
produce such licence, permit or pass on the demand of
__________ or of any other officer duly empowered to
make such demand shall be punished for each such
offence with fine of five thousand rupees.
A. State government
B. Central government
C. Any Excise Officer
Question
#Q373. Whoever being the holder of a licence, permit or
pass granted under Rajasthan Excise Act or being in the
employ of such holder and acting on his behalf fails to
produce such licence, permit or pass on the demand of
__________ or of any other officer duly empowered to
make such demand shall be punished for each such
offence with fine of five thousand rupees.
A. State government
C. Any Excise Officer
Question
A. Chapter VI
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
A. Chapter VI
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
#Q375. Penalty for fraud by Licensed manufacturer or
vendor or his servant provided under ______________ of the
A. Section 61
B. Section 62
C. Section 63
D. Section 65
Question
#Q375. Penalty for fraud by Licensed manufacturer or
vendor or his servant provided under ______________ of the
A. Section 61
B. Section 62
C. Section 63
D. Section 65
Question
#Q376. Power of Excise Officers to compound offences
provided under _________________ of the Rajasthan Excise
Act.
A. Section 50
B. Section 60
C. Section 70
D. Section 80
Question
#Q376. Power of Excise Officers to compound offences
provided under _________________ of the Rajasthan Excise
Act.
A. Section 50
B. Section 60
C. Section 70
D. Section 80
Question
#Q377. "Conduct of public examination" under the
Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for Prevention
of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022 provided
under which section?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2 (c )
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q377. "Conduct of public examination" under the
Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for Prevention
of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022 provided
under which section?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2 (c )
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q378. "Examination authority" means an examination
authority as specified in the _____________.
A. Schedule-I
B. Schedule-II
C. Schedule-III
D. Schedule-IV
Question
#Q378. "Examination authority" means an examination
authority as specified in the _____________.
A. Schedule-I
B. Schedule-II
C. Schedule-III
D. Schedule-IV
Question
#Q379. Prohibition of use of unfair means provided
under __________________ of the Rajasthan Public
in Recruitment) Act, 2022.
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
#Q379. Prohibition of use of unfair means provided
under __________________ of the Rajasthan Public
in Recruitment) Act, 2022.
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
#Q380. All offences specified under the Rajasthan
Public Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair
Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022, shall be
___________________.
A. Cognizable
B. Non-bailable and non–compoundable.
C. Cognizable, non-bailable and non–compoundable.

Question
#Q380. All offences specified under the Rajasthan
Public Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair
Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022, shall be
___________________.
A. Cognizable
B. Non-bailable and non–compoundable.
C. Cognizable, non-bailable and non–compoundable.

Question
#Q381. Power to amend Schedule provided under
________________ of the Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992.
A. Section 6
B. Section 7
C. Section 8
D. Section 9
Question
#Q381. Power to amend Schedule provided under
________________ of the Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992.
A. Section 6
B. Section 7
C. Section 8
D. Section 9
Question
#Q382. "Examination centre" is provided under which
of the following sections of the Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q382. "Examination centre" is provided under which
of the following sections of the Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q383. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention
of Unfair Means) Act, Act may be
called_____________________________.
A. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of

Unfair Means) Act, 1989.
B. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of
C. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of
Question
of Unfair Means) Act, Act may be
called_____________________________.
A. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of

B. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of
C. The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of
Question
#Q384. Whoever contravenes or attempts to contravene
or abets the contravention of the provisions of section 3
or section 4 or section 5 of the Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act shall be
punished _____________________.
Question
A. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
one year or with fine which may extend to two
thousand rupees or with both.
B. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
two years or with fine which may extend to two
C. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
three years or with fine which may extend to two
D. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
seven years or with fine which may extend to two
Question
#Q384. Whoever contravenes or attempts to contravene
or abets the contravention of the provisions of section 3
or section 4 or section 5 of the Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act shall be
punished _____________________.
Question
A. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
one year or with fine which may extend to two
B. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
two years or with fine which may extend to two
C. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
three years or with fine which may extend to two
D. With imprisonment for a term which may extend to
seven years or with fine which may extend to two
Question
#Q385. Whoever uses any arms or ammunition in
contravention of section 5 of Arms Act shall be
punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall
not be less than ____________.
A. Two years but which may extend to seven years and

shall also be liable to fine.
B. Three years but which may extend to seven years
and shall also be liable to fine.
C. Seven years but which may extend to ten years and
Question
#Q385. Whoever uses any arms or ammunition in
contravention of section 5 of Arms Act shall be
punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall
not be less than ____________.
A. Two years but which may extend to seven years and

B. Three years but which may extend to seven years
and shall also be liable to fine.
C. Seven years but which may extend to ten years and
Question
#Q386. Whoever, in contravention of any provision of
Arms Act or any rule or order made or condition of
licence or permit granted or certificate or authorisation
issued thereunder, imports into India or exports from
India or tranships any narcotic drug or psychotropic
substance shall be punishable where the contravention
involves small quantity, ______________________.
Question
A. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to
ten thousand rupees, or with both;
B. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to two years, or with fine which may extend
to ten thousand rupees, or with both;
C. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to three years, or with fine which may extend
D. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to seven years, or with fine which may
extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both;
Question
#Q386. Whoever, in contravention of any provision of
Arms Act or any rule or order made or condition of
licence or permit granted or certificate or authorisation
issued thereunder, imports into India or exports from
India or tranships any narcotic drug or psychotropic
substance shall be punishable where the contravention
involves small quantity, ______________________.
Question
A. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to one year, or with fine which may extend to
ten thousand rupees, or with both;
B. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to two years, or with fine which may extend
C. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to three years, or with fine which may extend
D. With rigorous imprisonment for a term which may
extend to seven years, or with fine which may
extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both;
Question
#Q387. Under the Arms Act, a person may acquire, have
in his possession or carry any firearm or ammunition
A. If he completed the age of 18
B. If he completed the age of 19
C. If he completed the age of 20
D. If he completed the age of 21

Question
#Q387. Under the Arms Act, a person may acquire, have
in his possession or carry any firearm or ammunition
A. If he completed the age of 18
B. If he completed the age of 19
C. If he completed the age of 20
D. If he completed the age of 21

Question
#Q388. A person may acquire, possess or carry any
prohibited arms or ammunitions if specifically
authorized by:
A. The Central Government
B. The State Government
C. The concerned Deputy Commissioner
D. The concerned License Officer with approval of the

State Government
Question
#Q388. A person may acquire, possess or carry any
prohibited arms or ammunitions if specifically
authorized by:
A. The Central Government
B. The State Government
C. The concerned Deputy Commissioner
D. The concerned License Officer with approval of the

State Government
Question
#Q389. “Arms” under the Arms Act, 1959, does not
include:
A. Weapons for defense
B. Deadly weapons
C. Firearms
D. Lathi
Question
#Q389. “Arms” under the Arms Act, 1959, does not
include:
A. Weapons for defense
B. Deadly weapons
C. Firearms
D. Lathi
Question
#Q390. Power to confiscate provided under _____________
of the Arms Act.
A. Section 30
B. Section 31
C. Section 32
D. Section 33
Question
#Q390. Power to confiscate provided under _____________
of the Arms Act.
A. Section 30
B. Section 31
C. Section 32
D. Section 33
Question
#Q391. __________may, by notification in the Official
Gazette, make rules for carrying out the purposes of the
Arms Act.
A. State government
C. High court

Question
#Q391. __________may, by notification in the Official
Gazette, make rules for carrying out the purposes of the
Arms Act.
A. State government
C. High court

Question
#Q392. Whoever makes or attempts to make any use
whatsoever of a firearm or an imitation firearm with
intent to resist or prevent the lawful arrest or detention
of himself or any other person ___________________.

which may extend to two years and with fine.
which may extend to three years and with fine.
which may extend to five years and with fine.
which may extend to seven years and with fine.
Question
#Q392. Whoever makes or attempts to make any use
whatsoever of a firearm or an imitation firearm with
intent to resist or prevent the lawful arrest or detention
of himself or any other person ___________________.

which may extend to two years and with fine.
which may extend to three years and with fine.
which may extend to five years and with fine.
which may extend to seven years and with fine.
Question
#Q393. How many sections are there in the Probation of
Offenders Act,1958?
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
Question
#Q393. How many sections are there in the Probation of
Offenders Act,1958?
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
Question
#Q394. Which section of the Probation of Offenders
Act,1958 deals with the Power of court to release
certain offenders on probation of good conduct?
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
Act,1958 deals with the Power of court to release
certain offenders on probation of good conduct?
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
Act,1958 deals with the “probation officer”?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
Act,1958 deals with the “probation officer”?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q396. Simultaneous direction for releasing the
offender and directing him to pay compensation and
cost is dealt in _________.
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q396. Simultaneous direction for releasing the
offender and directing him to pay compensation and
cost is dealt in _________.
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q397. Procedure in case of an offender failing to
observe conditions of bond is dealt under ________ of the
Probation of Offenders Act.
A. Section 8
B. Section 9
C. Section 10
D. Section 11
Question
#Q397. Procedure in case of an offender failing to
observe conditions of bond is dealt under ________ of the
Probation of Offenders Act.
A. Section 8
B. Section 9
C. Section 10
D. Section 11
Question
#Q398. Which one of the following is not a condition
precedent to the release of an offender on probation
under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
A. Circumstances of the case
B. Nature of the offence
C. Character of the offender
D. Amount of damage caused by the offender

Question
#Q398. Which one of the following is not a condition
precedent to the release of an offender on probation
under Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958?
A. Circumstances of the case
B. Nature of the offence
C. Character of the offender
D. Amount of damage caused by the offender

Question
#Q399. Which section of The Probation of Offenders Act,
1958 deals with Protection of action taken in good faith?
A. Section 14
B. Section 15
C. Section 16
D. Section 17
Question
1958 deals with Protection of action taken in good faith?
A. Section 14
B. Section 15
C. Section 16
D. Section 17
Question
#Q400. Section 19 of The Probation of Offenders Act,
1958 deals with_______?
A. Duties of probation officers
B. Section 562 of the Code not to apply in certain areas
C. Removal of disqualification attaching to conviction
D. Protection of action taken in good faith

Question
#Q400. Section 19 of The Probation of Offenders Act,
1958 deals with_______?
A. Duties of probation officers
B. Section 562 of the Code not to apply in certain areas
C. Removal of disqualification attaching to conviction
D. Protection of action taken in good faith

Question
1958 deals with Removal of disqualification attached to
conviction?
A. Section 11
B. Section 12
C. Section 13
D. Section 14
Question
1958 deals with Removal of disqualification attached to
conviction?
A. Section 11
B. Section 12
C. Section 13
D. Section 14
Question
#Q402. Duties of probation officers are defined under
________ of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958.
A. Section 12
B. Section 13
C. Section 14
D. Section 15
Question
#Q403. Which section of the POCSO Act,2012
incorporates - Use of child for pornographic Purposes?
A. Section 12
B. Section 13
C. Section 14
D. Section 15
Question
incorporates - Use of child for pornographic Purposes?
A. Section 12
B. Section 13
C. Section 14
D. Section 15
Question
incorporates - Obligation of media, studio and
photographic facilities to report cases?
A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Question
incorporates - Obligation of media, studio and
photographic facilities to report cases?
A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Question
incorporates - Reporting of offences?
A. Section 18
B. Section 19
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Question
#Q406. What is the term of imprisonment for using a
child for pornographic purposes?
A. It may extend to five years
B. It may extend to three years
C. It may extend to seven years
D. It may extend to ten years

Question
incorporates - Abetment of an offence?
A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Question
incorporates - Abetment of an offence?
A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Question
incorporates - Punishment for failure to report or
record a case?
A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Question
incorporates - Punishment for failure to report or
record a case?
A. Section 16
B. Section 17
C. Section 20
D. Section 21
Question
#Q409. In case the victim is a girl child, the medical
examination shall be conducted by a
A. Woman doctor
B. Doctor
C. Police

Question
#Q409. In case the victim is a girl child, the medical
examination shall be conducted by a
A. Woman doctor
B. Doctor
C. Police

Question
#Q410. Under section 26 of the POCSO Act, 2012 ,the
statement as spoken by the child in the presence
his/her parents or any other person in whom the child
has trust or confidence is recorded recorded by:
A. Police officer
B. Magistrate
C. Magistrate or police officer

Question
#Q410. Under section 26 of the POCSO Act, 2012 ,the
statement as spoken by the child in the presence
his/her parents or any other person in whom the child
has trust or confidence is recorded recorded by:
A. Police officer
B. Magistrate

Question
#Q411. Under section 25,the statement of the child shall
be recorded by?
A. Police officer
B. Magistrate

Question
#Q411. Under section 25,the statement of the child shall
be recorded by?
A. Police officer
B. Magistrate

Question
#Q412. The preamble to the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 mentions it as :
A. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault,
sexual harassment and provide for establishment of
Special Courts for trial of such offences.
B. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual
harassment and pornography and provide for
establishment of Special Courts for trial of such offences.
C. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault,
and pornography and provide for establishment of
D. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault,
sexual harassment and pornography and provide for
Question
#Q412. The preamble to the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 mentions it as :
A. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault,
sexual harassment and provide for establishment of
B. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual
harassment and pornography and provide for
C. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault,
and pornography and provide for establishment of
D. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault,
sexual harassment and pornography and provide for
Question
#Q413. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences
Act, 2012 came into force on:
A. 14-11-2012
B. 14-11-2013
C. 14-10-2012
D. 14-11-2013
Question
Act, 2012 came into force on:
A. 14-11-2012
B. 14-11-2013
C. 14-10-2012
D. 14-11-2013
Question
#Q414. Section 2(a) of the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 mentions “aggravated
penetrative sexual assault” has the same meaning as
assigned to it in __________ “.
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q414. Section 2(a) of the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 mentions “aggravated
penetrative sexual assault” has the same meaning as
assigned to it in __________ “.
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q415. Who is a child as per the Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?
A. Anyone below 14 years of age
B. Anyone below 16 years of age
C. Anyone below 18 years of age
D. Anyone below 12 years of age

Question
#Q415. Who is a child as per the Protection of Children
from Sexual Offences Act, 2012?
A. Anyone below 14 years of age
B. Anyone below 16 years of age
C. Anyone below 18 years of age
D. Anyone below 12 years of age

Question
#Q416. Section 2(i) of the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 mentions “sexual assault has
the same meaning as assigned to it in _______” .
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q416. Section 2(i) of the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 mentions “sexual assault has
the same meaning as assigned to it in _______” .
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q417. Special Public Prosecutor means a ‘Public
Prosecutor appointed under Section 32’ is provided
under _________ of the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act, 2012.
A. Section 2(d)
B. Section 2(h)
C. Section 2 (m)
D. Section 2 (n)
Question
#Q417. Special Public Prosecutor means a ‘Public
Prosecutor appointed under Section 32’ is provided
under _________ of the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act, 2012.
A. Section 2(d)
B. Section 2(h)
C. Section 2 (m)
D. Section 2 (n)
Question
#Q418. Section 3 of the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 defines:
A. Penetrative sexual assault
B. Sexual assault
D. Aggravated penetrative sexual assault

Question
#Q418. Section 3 of the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences Act, 2012 defines:
A. Penetrative sexual assault
B. Sexual assault
D. Aggravated penetrative sexual assault

Question
#Q419. Sexual Assault is made punishable under Section
8 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act,
2012 with imprisonment of either description for a term
which:
A. Shall not be less than three months but which may

extend to two years, and shall also be liable to fine.
B. Shall not be less than three years but which may
extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine.
C. Shall not be less than five years but which may
D. Shall not be less than three years but which may
extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Question
#Q419. Sexual Assault is made punishable under Section
8 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act,
2012 with imprisonment of either description for a term
which:
A. Shall not be less than three months but which may

extend to two years, and shall also be liable to fine.
B. Shall not be less than three years but which may
C. Shall not be less than five years but which may
D. Shall not be less than three years but which may
extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine.
Question
#Q420. Sexual harassment is made punishable under
Section 12 of the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act, 2012 with imprisonment of either
description for a term which:
A. May extend to three years and shall also be liable to

fine.
B. May extend to five years and shall also be liable to
fine.
C. May extend to seven years and shall also be liable to
fine.
D. May extend to one year and shall also be liable to
fine.
Question
#Q420. Sexual harassment is made punishable under
Section 12 of the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act, 2012 with imprisonment of either
description for a term which:
A. May extend to three years and shall also be liable to

fine.
B. May extend to five years and shall also be liable to
fine.
C. May extend to seven years and shall also be liable to
fine.
D. May extend to one year and shall also be liable to
fine.
Question
#Q421. Domestic relationship under Section 2(e) of the
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
has the same meaning as assigned under:
A. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,

2005
B. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)

Act, 2015
C. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
D. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace

(Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
Question
#Q421. Domestic relationship under Section 2(e) of the
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
has the same meaning as assigned under:
A. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,

2005
B. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)

Act, 2015
C. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
D. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace

(Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013
Question
#Q422. Which of the following are not correctly
matched:
A. Section 6 - Punishment for aggravated penetrative

sexual assault.
B. Section 9 - Aggravated sexual assault
C. Section 10 - Punishment for aggravated sexual

assault.
D. All are correct

Question
#Q422. Which of the following are not correctly
matched:
A. Section 6 - Punishment for aggravated penetrative

sexual assault.
B. Section 9 - Aggravated sexual assault
C. Section 10 - Punishment for aggravated sexual

assault.
D. All are correct

Question
#Q423. What can be the reasons for a child's
interrogation as per the POCSO Act?
A. To establish whether the child needs urgent medical

attention
B. To hear the child's version of the circumstances

leading to the concern
C. To get a picture of the child's relationship with their

parents or family
D. All of the above

Question
#Q423. What can be the reasons for a child's
interrogation as per the POCSO Act?
A. To establish whether the child needs urgent medical

attention
B. To hear the child's version of the circumstances

leading to the concern
C. To get a picture of the child's relationship with their

parents or family
D. All of the above

Question
#Q424. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a
Special Public Prosecutor under Section 32 of the POCSO
Act, 2012 only if he had been in practice for not less
than __________.
A. Seven years
B. Ten years
C. Three years
D. Five years
Question
#Q424. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a
Special Public Prosecutor under Section 32 of the POCSO
Act, 2012 only if he had been in practice for not less
than __________.
A. Seven years
B. Ten years
C. Three years
D. Five years
Question
#Q425. Fill in the blanks in accordance with the
provisions of Section 35 of POCSO Act, 2012. ‘The
evidence of the child shall be recorded within a period
of ________ by the Special Court taking cognizance of the
offence and reasons for delay, if any, shall be recorded
by the Special Court.’
A. Sixty Days
B. Ninety Day
C. Fifteen Days
D. Thirty Days
Question
#Q425. Fill in the blanks in accordance with the
provisions of Section 35 of POCSO Act, 2012. ‘The
evidence of the child shall be recorded within a period
of ________ by the Special Court taking cognizance of the
offence and reasons for delay, if any, shall be recorded
by the Special Court.’
A. Sixty Days
B. Ninety Day
C. Fifteen Days
D. Thirty Days
Question
A. Section 4(1)
B. Section 4(2)
C. Section 2
D. Section 3
Question
A. Section 4(1)
B. Section 4(2)
C. Section 2
D. Section 3
Question

Question

Question
denotes:

Question
denotes:

Question
B. Mulcahy v. R.
D. Reg. v. Cruise
Question
B. Mulcahy v. R.
D. Reg. v. Cruise
Question
A. Judges of Supreme Court
B. Jurors
C. Arbitrator
D. Member of Parliament
Question
A. Judges of Supreme Court
B. Jurors
C. Arbitrator
D. Member of Parliament
Question
A. Section 21
B. Section 22
C. Section 23
D. Section 24
Question
A. Section 21
B. Section 22
C. Section 23
D. Section 24
Question
D. Doli incapax
Question
D. Doli incapax
Question
#Q433. Under which Section of IPC a hangman who
A. Section 76
B. Section 77
C. Section 79

Question
#Q433. Under which Section of IPC a hangman who
A. Section 76
B. Section 77
C. Section 79

Question
A. Male only
B. Female only

Question
A. Male only
B. Female only

Question
furtherance of:
A. Common object
B. Common intention
C. Common motive

Question
furtherance of:
A. Common object
B. Common intention
C. Common motive

Question
#Q436. Give the correct response.

149 does not

section 149 does

D. All of these
Question
#Q436. Give the correct response.

149 does not

section 149 does

D. All of these
Question
of all" used in Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, is:
C. Not at all there

Question
of all" used in Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, is:
C. Not at all there

Question
of causing:
A. Death
B. Grievous hurt
C. Hurt
D. Assault
Question
of causing:
A. Death
B. Grievous hurt
C. Hurt
D. Assault
Question
A. Section 99
B. Section 96
C. Section 98
D. Section 100
Question
A. Section 99
B. Section 96
C. Section 98
D. Section 100
Question

Question

Question
held in—
A. Vinubhai Haribhai and others v. State of Gujarat and

another (2019)

Question
held in—
A. Vinubhai Haribhai and others v. State of Gujarat and

another (2019)

Question
A. Section 2(r)
B. Section 2(wa)
C. Section 2(t)
D. Section 2(b)
Question
A. Section 2(r)
B. Section 2(wa)
C. Section 2(t)
D. Section 2(b)
Question
#Q443. The accused has indefeasible right to bail when
investigation is not completed within:
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 21 days
D. 90 or 60 days
Question
#Q443. The accused has indefeasible right to bail when
investigation is not completed within:
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 21 days
D. 90 or 60 days
Question
#Q444. In a cognizable case, the police under Cr.P.C. will
have all the powers to ...............

warrant.
warrant.
seeking permission from the Magistrate.
inquire into or try the offence.
Question
#Q444. In a cognizable case, the police under Cr.P.C. will
have all the powers to ...............

warrant.
warrant.
seeking permission from the Magistrate.
inquire into or try the offence.
Question

Prosecutor

Question

Prosecutor

Question

warrant
exceeding two years
Question

warrant
exceeding two years
Question
with—

more than two years

Question
with—

more than two years

Question
#Q448. Complaint under section 2(d) can be:
A. Written
B. Oral
C. Written or Oral
D. None of these
Question
#Q448. Complaint under section 2(d) can be:
A. Written
B. Oral
C. Written or Oral
D. None of these
Question

case
is not required
less than 2 years
Question

case
is not required
less than 2 years
Question
A. Section 161(1)
B. Section 161(2)
C. Section 161(3)
D. Section 162(1)
Question
A. Section 161(1)
B. Section 161(2)
C. Section 161(3)
D. Section 162(1)
Question

Question

Question
Metropolitan', whose population:
B. Below ten lakhs
C. Is five lakhs

Question
Metropolitan', whose population:
B. Below ten lakhs
C. Is five lakhs

Question
A. Consecutively
B. Concurrently

Question
A. Consecutively
B. Concurrently

Question
#Q454. How are the summons served?

Question
#Q454. How are the summons served?

Question
detained



Question
detained



Question
A. A map

cause fatal injury
Question
A. A map

cause fatal injury
Question
Question
Question
#Q458. Factum Probandam means:
A. Conclusive fact.

Question
#Q458. Factum Probandam means:
A. Conclusive fact.

Question
expression ‘Court under the Indian Evidence Act?
A. All judges
C. All Magistrates
D. Arbitrator
Question
expression ‘Court under the Indian Evidence Act?
A. All judges
C. All Magistrates
D. Arbitrator
Question

Question

Question

time of beating

Question

time of beating

Question
exclamation is:

Question
exclamation is:

Question
in:
D. All of the above

Question
in:
D. All of the above

Question
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
D. All of the above

Question
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
D. All of the above

Question
A. 130
B. 131
C. 132
D. 133
Question
A. 130
B. 131
C. 132
D. 133
Question
A. Section 128 only

Question
A. Section 128 only

Question
ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act” provides punishment
for offences /atrocities ?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act” provides punishment
for offences /atrocities ?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
Atrocities) Act defines “economic boycott”?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(ac)
C. Section 2(b)
D. Section (bc)
Question
Atrocities) Act defines “economic boycott”?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(ac)
C. Section 2(b)
D. Section (bc)
Question
#Q469. Which of the following sections of the Arms Act
define “ammunition”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
#Q469. Which of the following sections of the Arms Act
define “ammunition”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
#Q470. Section 5 of the Arms Act is mandatory
down:

ammunition


D. All of the above

Question
#Q470. Section 5 of the Arms Act is mandatory
down:

ammunition


D. All of the above

Question
#Q471. Which section provides for power to restrict and
prohibit for transport of Arms?
A. Section 11
B. Section 12
C. Section 13
D. Section 14
Question
#Q471. Which section provides for power to restrict and
prohibit for transport of Arms?
A. Section 11
B. Section 12
C. Section 13
D. Section 14
Question
Justice Act prescribes for “ begging”?
A. Section 2 (7) of Juvenile Justice Act
B. Section 2 (8) of Juvenile Justice Act
C. Section 2 (10) of Juvenile Justice Act
D. Section 2 (11) of Juvenile Justice Act

Question
Justice Act prescribes for “ begging”?
A. Section 2 (7) of Juvenile Justice Act
B. Section 2 (8) of Juvenile Justice Act
C. Section 2 (10) of Juvenile Justice Act
D. Section 2 (11) of Juvenile Justice Act

Question
#Q473. Who shall inform the parents, guardian or
probation officer where a child alleged to be in conflict
with law is apprehended?
D. Only a and b
Question
#Q473. Who shall inform the parents, guardian or
probation officer where a child alleged to be in conflict
with law is apprehended?
D. Only a and b
Question
#Q474. What is the prescribed time limit under section
14 of Juvenile Justice Act for the inquiry to be completed
from the date of first production of the child before the
Board?
A. Three months
B. Four months
C. Five months
D. Six months
Question
#Q474. What is the prescribed time limit under section
14 of Juvenile Justice Act for the inquiry to be completed
from the date of first production of the child before the
Board?
A. Three months
B. Four months
C. Five months
D. Six months
Question

Cultural Rights
Question

Cultural Rights
Question
#Q476. Which of the following sections prescribe for
the special Court under POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(g)
B. Section 2(s)
C. Section 2 (l)
D. Section 2(m)
Question
the special Court under POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(g)
B. Section 2(s)
C. Section 2 (l)
D. Section 2(m)
Question
#Q477. The enforcement date of Rajasthan Excise Act is:
A. 01.07.1950
B. 01.06.1950
C. 01.08.1951
D. 01.09.1952
Question
#Q477. The enforcement date of Rajasthan Excise Act is:
A. 01.07.1950
B. 01.06.1950
C. 01.08.1951
D. 01.09.1952
Question
#Q478. Substance which include sale, stout, porter and
all other fermented liquor made from malt is called:
A. Beer
B. Wine
C. Rum

Question
#Q478. Substance which include sale, stout, porter and
all other fermented liquor made from malt is called:
A. Beer
B. Wine
C. Rum

Question
A. Chapter V
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
A. Chapter V
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter IX
Question
prescribed as:
A. 14.10.2012
B. 14.11.2012
C. 14.12.2012
D. 14.01.2013
Question
prescribed as:
A. 14.10.2012
B. 14.11.2012
C. 14.12.2012
D. 14.01.2013
Question
in the POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
in the POCSO Act?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q482. ________ means a household where the person
charged with the offence lives or has lived at any time in
a domestic relationship with the child
A. Shared household
D. All of the above

Question
#Q482. ________ means a household where the person
charged with the offence lives or has lived at any time in
a domestic relationship with the child
A. Shared household
D. All of the above

Question
under:
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
under:
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
#Q484. Whoever, with sexual intent touches the vagina,
penis, anus or breast of the child or makes the child
touch the vagina, penis, anus or breast of such person or
any other person, or does any other act with sexual
intent which involves physical contact without
penetration is said to commit:
A. Sexual assault
D. All of the above

Question
#Q484. Whoever, with sexual intent touches the vagina,
penis, anus or breast of the child or makes the child
touch the vagina, penis, anus or breast of such person or
any other person, or does any other act with sexual
intent which involves physical contact without
penetration is said to commit:
A. Sexual assault
D. All of the above

Question
D. All of the above

Question
D. All of the above

Question
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
B. State Government
D. Parliament
Question
B. State Government
D. Parliament
Question
2022 is.:
A. Act 06 of 2022
B. Act 07 of 2022
C. Act 08 of 2022
D. Act 09 of 2022
Question
2022 is.:
A. Act 06 of 2022
B. Act 07 of 2022
C. Act 08 of 2022
D. Act 09 of 2022
Question
of public examination”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
of public examination”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
given under:
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
given under:
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (c)
D. Section 2 (d)
Question
A. Eighteen years
B. Nineteen years
C. Twenty years
D. Twenty one years

Question
A. Eighteen years
B. Nineteen years
C. Twenty years
D. Twenty one years

Question
#Q493. Which of the following sections declares that the
Report of the probation officer to be confidential?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Question
#Q493. Which of the following sections declares that the
Report of the probation officer to be confidential?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Question

Question

Question
not exceeding:
B. Fifty rupees
C. Sixty Rupees
D. Hundred Rupees
Question
not exceeding:
B. Fifty rupees
C. Sixty Rupees
D. Hundred Rupees
Question
#Q496. Which of the following statements about Indian
Penal Code is true?
A. The Indian Penal Code applies to every person in

any part of India for every act or omission contrary
to the provisions of the Code
B. The Indian Penal Code applies to any offence
committed by any citizen of India within and beyond
India
C. Every such act committed outside India which if
committed in India, would be punishable under the
Indian Penal Code
D. All of the above
Question
#Q496. Which of the following statements about Indian
Penal Code is true?
A. The Indian Penal Code applies to every person in

any part of India for every act or omission contrary
to the provisions of the Code
B. The Indian Penal Code applies to any offence
committed by any citizen of India within and beyond
India
C. Every such act committed outside India which if
committed in India, would be punishable under the
Indian Penal Code
D. All of the above
Question
#Q497. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side
of the border and a person within the Indian border is
killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and
drag the Pakistani to the border at Indian Police Station.
Can the Indian courts try the accused for murder?
A. No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
B. Yes
C. He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities

for trial in Pakistan

Question
#Q497. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side
of the border and a person within the Indian border is
killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and
drag the Pakistani to the border at Indian Police Station.
Can the Indian courts try the accused for murder?
B. Yes
C. He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities

for trial in Pakistan

Question
#Q498. Admiralty jurisdiction does not extend over:
A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the High seas
B. Offences committed on foreign merchant ships in

Indian territorial water
C. Offences committed on foreign warships in Indian

territorial water
D. Piracy
Question
#Q498. Admiralty jurisdiction does not extend over:
A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the High seas
B. Offences committed on foreign merchant ships in

Indian territorial water
C. Offences committed on foreign warships in Indian

territorial water
D. Piracy
Question
#Q499. The provision relating to extension of Indian
Penal Code to extra-territorial offences is provided in
Section ________ of the Indian Penal Code:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Question
#Q499. The provision relating to extension of Indian
Penal Code to extra-territorial offences is provided in
Section ________ of the Indian Penal Code:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Question
#Q500. In the Indian Penal Code, the word ‘woman’
denotes:
A. A major woman
B. An unmarried woman
C. A woman of any age
D. A married woman
Question
#Q500. In the Indian Penal Code, the word ‘woman’
denotes:
A. A major woman
B. An unmarried woman
C. A woman of any age
D. A married woman
Question
#Q501. Who among the following is not a ‘Public
Servant’ within the meaning of Section 21 of Indian
Penal Code?
B. Municipal Councilor
C. Manager of Nationalized Bank
D. Commissioned Officer in Military

Question
#Q501. Who among the following is not a ‘Public
Servant’ within the meaning of Section 21 of Indian
Penal Code?
B. Municipal Councilor
C. Manager of Nationalized Bank
D. Commissioned Officer in Military

Question
#Q502. Which of the following matches is wrong?
A. Wrongful gain — Section 23 IPC
B. Dishonestly — Section 24 IPC
C. Fraudulently — Section 26 IPC
D. Valuable Security — Section 30 IPC

Question
#Q502. Which of the following matches is wrong?
A. Wrongful gain — Section 23 IPC
B. Dishonestly — Section 24 IPC
C. Fraudulently — Section 26 IPC
D. Valuable Security — Section 30 IPC

Question
#Q503. Which of the following is true regarding Section
34 of the IPC:
A. It creates a substantive offence
B. It lays down a rule of procedure
C. It is a rule of evidence

Question
#Q503. Which of the following is true regarding Section
34 of the IPC:
A. It creates a substantive offence
B. It lays down a rule of procedure
C. It is a rule of evidence

Question
#Q504. What constitutes the gist of an offence under
section 34, IPC?
A. Same intention
B. Similar intention
C. Common object
D. Common intention
Question
#Q504. What constitutes the gist of an offence under
section 34, IPC?
A. Same intention
B. Similar intention
C. Common object
D. Common intention
Question
#Q505. What is the basic difference between Section 34
and Section 149 of IPC?
A. Section 34 creates a principle of joint liability and

does not create a specific offence. Section 149
creates a specific offence
B. Section 149 does not create a specific offence but
Section 34 creates a specific offence
C. Both create specific offences but the principle of
joint liability is created only by Section 34
D. Both create specific offences but the principle of
Question
#Q505. What is the basic difference between Section 34
and Section 149 of IPC?
A. Section 34 creates a principle of joint liability and

does not create a specific offence. Section 149
creates a specific offence
B. Section 149 does not create a specific offence but
Section 34 creates a specific offence
C. Both create specific offences but the principle of
D. Both create specific offences but the principle of
Question
#Q506. The maxim "de minimis non curat lex" is related
to which of the following Sections of the IPC?
A. Section 95
B. Section 89
C. Section 94
D. Section 93
Question
#Q506. The maxim "de minimis non curat lex" is related
to which of the following Sections of the IPC?
A. Section 95
B. Section 89
C. Section 94
D. Section 93
Question
#Q507. Right to private defence extends to:

Question
#Q507. Right to private defence extends to:

Question
Court held that "Doctors cannot be held guilty only
because something has gone wrong"?
A. Maniben v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2010 SC 1261
B. Southern Railway Officer v. Union of India, AIR 2010

SC 1241
C. Tameeswar v. Ramvishai, AIR 2010 SC 1209
D. Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar, AIR 2010 SC 1162

Question
Court held that "Doctors cannot be held guilty only
because something has gone wrong"?
A. Maniben v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2010 SC 1261
B. Southern Railway Officer v. Union of India, AIR 2010

SC 1241
C. Tameeswar v. Ramvishai, AIR 2010 SC 1209
D. Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar, AIR 2010 SC 1162

Question
#Q509. Which of the following is not the essential
ingredient of wrongful confinement?
A. Circumscribing limits
B. Malice
C. Moral force
D. Mistaken exercise of power.

Question
#Q509. Which of the following is not the essential
ingredient of wrongful confinement?
A. Circumscribing limits
B. Malice
C. Moral force
D. Mistaken exercise of power.

Question
#Q510. ‘X’ instigates ‘Y’ to commit murder of ‘Z', ‘Y’ in
consequence stabs ‘Z’ but ‘Z’ survives the wound. ‘X’ is
guilty of:
A. Murder
B. Attempt to murder
C. Abetment of attempt to murder
D. Abetment of murder
Question
#Q510. ‘X’ instigates ‘Y’ to commit murder of ‘Z', ‘Y’ in
consequence stabs ‘Z’ but ‘Z’ survives the wound. ‘X’ is
guilty of:
A. Murder
B. Attempt to murder
C. Abetment of attempt to murder
D. Abetment of murder
Question
#Q511. Consider the following statement and choose
the correct answer with the help of code given below:
(i) Investigation is conducted by police officer
(ii) Magistrate cannot interfere in investigation
(iii) Investigation is a judicial proceeding
(iv) Investigation is not a judicial proceeding
Codes :
A. (i) and (iv) are correct

B. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
C. (ii) and (iv) are correct
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Question
#Q511. Consider the following statement and choose
the correct answer with the help of code given below:
(i) Investigation is conducted by police officer
(ii) Magistrate cannot interfere in investigation
(iii) Investigation is a judicial proceeding
(iv) Investigation is not a judicial proceeding
Codes :
A. (i) and (iv) are correct

B. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
C. (ii) and (iv) are correct
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Question
#Q512. What is the maximum period an Executive
Magistrate may authorize the detention of an accused in
custody?
A. Not exceeding 24 hours
B. Not exceeding 3 days
C. Not exceeding 7 days
D. Not exceeding 15 days

Question
#Q512. What is the maximum period an Executive
Magistrate may authorize the detention of an accused in
custody?
A. Not exceeding 24 hours
B. Not exceeding 3 days
C. Not exceeding 7 days
D. Not exceeding 15 days

Question
#Q513. Any police officer making an investigation can:
A. Record confessional statement of accused
B. Record statement of witnesses
C. Compel attendance of persons acquainted with facts

and circumstances of a case
D. Both (b) and (c)

Question
#Q513. Any police officer making an investigation can:
A. Record confessional statement of accused
B. Record statement of witnesses
C. Compel attendance of persons acquainted with facts

and circumstances of a case
D. Both (b) and (c)

Question
#Q514. Police report under the Criminal Procedure
Code of 1973 is:
A. A report made to the police
B. Report of police officer on completion of

investigation sent to a competent Magistrate
C. A preliminary report
D. An ad-hoc report
Question
#Q514. Police report under the Criminal Procedure
Code of 1973 is:
A. A report made to the police
B. Report of police officer on completion of

investigation sent to a competent Magistrate
C. A preliminary report
D. An ad-hoc report
Question
#Q515. Which one of the following cases is related to
defective investigation?
A. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
B. Zahira Habibullah Sheikh v. State of Gujarat
C. Sakshi Union of India
D. Dipesh Chandek v. Union of India

Question
#Q515. Which one of the following cases is related to
defective investigation?
A. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
B. Zahira Habibullah Sheikh v. State of Gujarat
C. Sakshi Union of India
D. Dipesh Chandek v. Union of India

Question
#Q516. The FIR gives information of:



Question
#Q516. The FIR gives information of:



Question
#Q517. Permission to investigate into a non cognizable
offence can be granted by a:
A. Magistrate in any part of India
B. Magistrate in any part of State
C. Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case
D. Session Judge
Question
#Q517. Permission to investigate into a non cognizable
offence can be granted by a:
A. Magistrate in any part of India
B. Magistrate in any part of State
C. Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case
D. Session Judge
Question
investigation under Section 173 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure is called:
A. Policy Diary
B. Case Diary
C. Charge Sheet
D. Complaint
Question
investigation under Section 173 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure is called:
A. Policy Diary
B. Case Diary
C. Charge Sheet
D. Complaint
Question
#Q519. ‘A’ is arrested and detained in custody in a case
of murder. The investigating police officer within 24
hours produced the accused before a Metropolitan
Magistrate who has no jurisdiction to try the case,
seeking police custody as investigation is not complete.
The Metropolitan Magistrate has the power and
jurisdiction to:
A. Grant police custody only for two days

B. Grant police custody for fifteen days
C. Discharge the accused
D. Refuse to entertain the application e he has no
jurisdiction to try the case
Question
#Q519. ‘A’ is arrested and detained in custody in a case
of murder. The investigating police officer within 24
hours produced the accused before a Metropolitan
Magistrate who has no jurisdiction to try the case,
seeking police custody as investigation is not complete.
The Metropolitan Magistrate has the power and
jurisdiction to:
A. Grant police custody only for two days

B. Grant police custody for fifteen days
C. Discharge the accused
D. Refuse to entertain the application e he has no
jurisdiction to try the case
Question
#Q520. In which judgment, Hon’ble Supreme Court has
laid down that the Police cannot refuse registration of
an FIR on the ground of lack of jurisdiction:
A. Manish Ratan v. State of M.P., 2007 (1) SCC 336

B. Amrendu Jyoti v. State of Chhattisgarh, 2014 (6)
criminal 719
C. Rasikala Dalpatram Thakkar v. State of Gujarat &
Ors., AIR 2010 SC 715
D. Y. Abraham Ajith & Ors. v. Inspector of Police,
Chennai & Ors., AIR 2004 SC 4286
Question
#Q520. In which judgment, Hon’ble Supreme Court has
laid down that the Police cannot refuse registration of
an FIR on the ground of lack of jurisdiction:
A. Manish Ratan v. State of M.P., 2007 (1) SCC 336

B. Amrendu Jyoti v. State of Chhattisgarh, 2014 (6)
criminal 719
C. Rasikala Dalpatram Thakkar v. State of Gujarat &
Ors., AIR 2010 SC 715
D. Y. Abraham Ajith & Ors. v. Inspector of Police,
Chennai & Ors., AIR 2004 SC 4286
Question
A. Sections 360-365
B. Sections 260-265
C. Sections 256-258
D. Section 180-190
Question
A. Sections 360-365
B. Sections 260-265
C. Sections 256-258
D. Section 180-190
Question
Procedure Code?

D. All the above

Question
Procedure Code?

D. All the above

Question
#Q523. The Indian Evidence Act declares that anything
said, done or written by any one of the conspirators is
relevant to prove conspiracy, if it was in:
A. Pursuance of their common intention
B. Reference to their common intention
C. Prosecution of their common intention
D. Redeeming their common intention

Question
#Q523. The Indian Evidence Act declares that anything
said, done or written by any one of the conspirators is
relevant to prove conspiracy, if it was in:
A. Pursuance of their common intention
B. Reference to their common intention
C. Prosecution of their common intention
D. Redeeming their common intention

Question
#Q524. Which one of the following authorities is not
entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of
Criminal Procedure?
A. Chief Judicial Magistrate
B. Metropolitan Magistrate
C. Judicial Magistrate of the First Class
D. Second Class Judicial Magistrate

Question
#Q524. Which one of the following authorities is not
entitled to try a case summarily under the Code of
Criminal Procedure?
D. Second Class Judicial Magistrate

Question
Court of India opined that “bail is the surety and jail is
an exception”:
A. Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
B. Moti Ram v. State of M.P.
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu

Question
Court of India opined that “bail is the surety and jail is
an exception”:
A. Joginder Kumar v. State of U.P.
B. Moti Ram v. State of M.P.
C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
D. State of W.B. v. D.K. Basu

Question
#Q526. Irrebutable presumptions of law are indicated
by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the expression of:
A. May presume
B. Shall presume
C. Conclusive proof
D. All of these
Question
#Q526. Irrebutable presumptions of law are indicated
by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 by the expression of:
A. May presume
B. Shall presume
C. Conclusive proof
D. All of these
Question
#Q527. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 what has not
been mentioned?
A. Relevancy of evidence
B. Admissibility of evidence
C. Weight of evidence
D. All the above

Question
#Q527. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 what has not
been mentioned?
A. Relevancy of evidence
B. Admissibility of evidence
C. Weight of evidence
D. All the above

Question
#Q528. A fact is said to be “not proved”:
A. When it is disproved
B. When, after considering the matters before it, the

court believes that it does not exist
C. When a prudent man considers that the fact does not

exist
D. When it is neither proved nor disproved

Question
#Q528. A fact is said to be “not proved”:
A. When it is disproved
B. When, after considering the matters before it, the

court believes that it does not exist
C. When a prudent man considers that the fact does not

exist
D. When it is neither proved nor disproved

Question
#Q529. Which one of the following statements is not a
fact in issue under the Evidence Act?
1. The existence of any right which is asserted or
denied by the parties.
2. The existence of any disability asserted or denied by
the parties.
3. The existence of a right admitted by the parties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of these
Question
#Q529. Which one of the following statements is not a
fact in issue under the Evidence Act?
1. The existence of any right which is asserted or
denied by the parties.
2. The existence of any disability asserted or denied by
the parties.
3. The existence of a right admitted by the parties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of these
Question
#Q530. Which section of Indian Evidence Act is based
on English Doctrine of Res Gestae:
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q530. Which section of Indian Evidence Act is based
on English Doctrine of Res Gestae:
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q531. A fact is relevant:
A. If it is mentioned in the pleadings
B. If it is mentioned in the document relied by any of

the parties
C. If it is connected with a fact in issue so as to form

part of the same transaction
D. All of the above

Question
#Q531. A fact is relevant:
A. If it is mentioned in the pleadings
B. If it is mentioned in the document relied by any of

the parties
C. If it is connected with a fact in issue so as to form

part of the same transaction
D. All of the above

Question
#Q532. In the law of evidence, a ‘retracted confession’:
A. Is of no value
B. Is alone sufficient for conviction
C. Can be acted upon, but as a matter of prudence the

court must look for some corroboration from other
facts and evidence.

Question
#Q532. In the law of evidence, a ‘retracted confession’:
A. Is of no value
B. Is alone sufficient for conviction
C. Can be acted upon, but as a matter of prudence the

court must look for some corroboration from other
facts and evidence.

Question
#Q533. A dumb witness given his evidence in writing in
the open court, such evidence would be treated as:
A. Oral evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Primary evidence
Question
#Q533. A dumb witness given his evidence in writing in
the open court, such evidence would be treated as:
A. Oral evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Primary evidence
Question
#Q534. How many witnesses are required to prove a
fact?
A. Two
B. One
C. At least one eye witness and complainant
D. No particular number
Question
#Q534. How many witnesses are required to prove a
fact?
A. Two
B. One
C. At least one eye witness and complainant
D. No particular number
Question
#Q535. Under Section 118 of Indian Evidence Act, who
amongst the following is not a competent witness?
A. Child
B. Accused
C. Lunatic
D. All of these
Question
#Q535. Under Section 118 of Indian Evidence Act, who
amongst the following is not a competent witness?
A. Child
B. Accused
C. Lunatic
D. All of these
Question
#Q536. Which one of the following is not privileged
communication?
A. Matrimonial communication
B. Paternal communication
C. Professional communication
D. Official communication
Question
#Q536. Which one of the following is not privileged
communication?
A. Matrimonial communication
B. Paternal communication
C. Professional communication
D. Official communication
Question
#Q537. Which section deals with Enhanced punishment
for subsequent conviction under The SC and ST
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 8
Question
#Q537. Which section deals with Enhanced punishment
for subsequent conviction under The SC and ST
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act?
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 8
Question
#Q538. The prescribed punishment for “neglect of
duties” in Section 4 of the The SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act is:
A. Imprisonment upto Six months
B. Imprisonment upto One year
C. Imprisonment upto Six months which may extend to

one year

Question
#Q538. The prescribed punishment for “neglect of
duties” in Section 4 of the The SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act is:
A. Imprisonment upto Six months
B. Imprisonment upto One year
C. Imprisonment upto Six months which may extend to

one year

Question
#Q539. The preamble of the Arms Act, 1959 states:
A. Act to consolidate the law relating to Arms and

Ammunition
B. Act to amend the law relating to Arms and

Ammunition
C. Both a and b

Question
#Q539. The preamble of the Arms Act, 1959 states:
A. Act to consolidate the law relating to Arms and

Ammunition
B. Act to amend the law relating to Arms and

Ammunition
C. Both a and b

Question
#Q540. Which of the following chapters prescribe for
Acquisition, Possession, Manufacture, Sale, Import,
Export and Transport of Arms and Ammunition?
A. Chapter I
B. Chapter II
C. Chapter III
D. Chapter IV
Question
#Q540. Which of the following chapters prescribe for
Acquisition, Possession, Manufacture, Sale, Import,
Export and Transport of Arms and Ammunition?
A. Chapter I
B. Chapter II
C. Chapter III
D. Chapter IV
Question
#Q541. Prohibition as to possession of notified arms in
disturbed areas, etc under section 24 of the Arms Act
has been inserted by:
A. Act 25 of 1983
B. Act 26 of 1985
C. Act 49 of 1975
D. Act 67 of 1980
Question
#Q541. Prohibition as to possession of notified arms in
disturbed areas, etc under section 24 of the Arms Act
has been inserted by:
A. Act 25 of 1983
B. Act 26 of 1985
C. Act 49 of 1975
D. Act 67 of 1980
Question
#Q542. Which of the following section of the Juvenile
Justice Act define “Begging” :
A. Section 2 (2)
B. Section 2 (4)
C. Section 2 (6)
D. Section 2 (8)
Question
#Q542. Which of the following section of the Juvenile
Justice Act define “Begging” :
A. Section 2 (2)
B. Section 2 (4)
C. Section 2 (6)
D. Section 2 (8)
Question
#Q543. Who shall ensure that induction training and
sensitisation of all members including Principal
Magistrate of the Board on care, protection,
rehabilitation, legal provisions and justice for children,
as may be prescribed, is provided within a period of
sixty days from the date of appointment under Section
4?
A. State government
C. District Authorities
D. Both a and b
Question
#Q543. Who shall ensure that induction training and
sensitisation of all members including Principal
Magistrate of the Board on care, protection,
rehabilitation, legal provisions and justice for children,
as may be prescribed, is provided within a period of
sixty days from the date of appointment under Section
4?
A. State government
C. District Authorities
D. Both a and b
Question
#Q544. As per section 2(16) of the JJ Act, “child legally
free for adoption” means a child declared as such by the
Committee after making due inquiry under:
A. Section 36
B. Section 38
C. Section 40
D. Section 41
Question
#Q544. As per section 2(16) of the JJ Act, “child legally
free for adoption” means a child declared as such by the
Committee after making due inquiry under:
A. Section 36
B. Section 38
C. Section 40
D. Section 41
Question
bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to be
in conflict with law?
A. Section 10
B. Section 11
C. Section 12
D. Section 13
Question
bail to a person who is apparently a child alleged to be
in conflict with law?
A. Section 10
B. Section 11
C. Section 12
D. Section 13
Question
#Q546. As provided under section 22 of the JJ Act,
proceeding under Chapter VIII of the Code of Criminal
Procedure:
A. Shall not to apply against child
B. May Apply against child
C. Consonance with the JJ Act

Question
#Q546. As provided under section 22 of the JJ Act,
proceeding under Chapter VIII of the Code of Criminal
Procedure:
A. Shall not to apply against child
B. May Apply against child
C. Consonance with the JJ Act

Question
#Q547. Which section of the Rajasthan Excise Act,
prescribes for Penalty for rendering denatured spirit fit
for human consumption?
A. Section 53
B. Section 54
C. Section 55
D. Section 56
Question
#Q547. Which section of the Rajasthan Excise Act,
prescribes for Penalty for rendering denatured spirit fit
for human consumption?
A. Section 53
B. Section 54
C. Section 55
D. Section 56
Question
#Q548. Which of the following sections of the Rajasthan
Excise Act, prescribed for the Power of State
Government to declare a limit of sale by retail?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
#Q548. Which of the following sections of the Rajasthan
Excise Act, prescribed for the Power of State
Government to declare a limit of sale by retail?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 6
Question
#Q549. _______ means fermented or unfermented juice
drawn from any kind of palm tree under the Rajasthan
Excise Act.
A. Todi
B. Tari
C. Wine
D. Beer
Question
#Q549. _______ means fermented or unfermented juice
drawn from any kind of palm tree under the Rajasthan
Excise Act.
A. Todi
B. Tari
C. Wine
D. Beer
Question
#Q550. The punishment for Sexual Assault defined
under section 8 of POCSO Act is:
A. Not less than three years but which may extend to

five years, and fine.
B. Not less than three years but which may extend to
four years, and fine.
C. Not less than three years but which may extend to
five years, or fine.
D. Not less than three years but which may extend to
ten years, and fine.
Question
#Q550. The punishment for Sexual Assault defined
under section 8 of POCSO Act is:
A. Not less than three years but which may extend to

five years, and fine.
B. Not less than three years but which may extend to
four years, and fine.
C. Not less than three years but which may extend to
five years, or fine.
D. Not less than three years but which may extend to
ten years, and fine.
Question
#Q551. Punishment for Sexual harassment has been
provided in:
A. Section 4 of the POCSO Act
B. Section 6 of the POCSO Act
C. Section 8 of the POCSO Act
D. Section 12 of the POCSO Act

Question
#Q551. Punishment for Sexual harassment has been
provided in:
A. Section 4 of the POCSO Act
B. Section 6 of the POCSO Act
C. Section 8 of the POCSO Act
D. Section 12 of the POCSO Act

Question
#Q552. Which chapter of the POCSO Act deals with
sexual offences against children?
A. Chapter I
B. Chapter II
C. Chapter III
D. Chapter IV
Question
#Q552. Which chapter of the POCSO Act deals with
sexual offences against children?
A. Chapter I
B. Chapter II
C. Chapter III
D. Chapter IV
Question
Act, 2012 does not extend to:
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Nagaland areas
C. Ladakh

Question
Act, 2012 does not extend to:
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Nagaland areas
C. Ladakh

Question
#Q554. Which of the following sections of POCSO Act
defines “Child Pornography”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (da)
D. Section 2 (c)
Question
#Q554. Which of the following sections of POCSO Act
defines “Child Pornography”?
A. Section 2 (a)
B. Section 2 (b)
C. Section 2 (da)
D. Section 2 (c)
Question
of Unfair Means) Act, 1992 is an Act of:
A. Act 27 of 1992
B. Act 28 of 1992
C. Act 29 of 1992
D. Act 30 of 1992
Question
of Unfair Means) Act, 1992 is an Act of:
A. Act 27 of 1992
B. Act 28 of 1992
C. Act 29 of 1992
D. Act 30 of 1992
Question
#Q556. In reference to The Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992,
whoever commits an offence punishable under section 6
having made preparation for, causing death of any
person or causing hurt to any person or assaulting any
person or for wrongfully restraining any person or for
wrongful restraint shall be punished with imprisonment
for a term which may extend to:
A. Three years and shall also be liable to fine which
may extend to five thousand rupees.
B. Two years and shall also be liable to fine which may
extend to five thousand rupees.
C. Five years and shall also be liable to fine which may
D. Six years and shall also be liable to fine which may
Question
#Q556. In reference to The Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992,
whoever commits an offence punishable under section 6
having made preparation for, causing death of any
person or causing hurt to any person or assaulting any
person or for wrongfully restraining any person or for
wrongful restraint shall be punished with imprisonment
for a term which may extend to:
A. Three years and shall also be liable to fine which
may extend to five thousand rupees.
B. Two years and shall also be liable to fine which may
C. Five years and shall also be liable to fine which may
D. Six years and shall also be liable to fine which may
Question
#Q557. The schedule under The Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992 is
in reference to:
A. Section 1
B. Section 2
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
Question
#Q557. The schedule under The Rajasthan Public
Examination (Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992 is
in reference to:
A. Section 1
B. Section 2
C. Section 3
D. Section 4
Question
#Q558. Section 9 of The Rajasthan Public Examination
(Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in
Recruitment) Act, 2022 deals with:
A. Offences by Management, Institution or others
B. No place other than examination center shall be

used for public examination
C. Prohibition to enter in examination center

Question
#Q558. Section 9 of The Rajasthan Public Examination
(Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in
Recruitment) Act, 2022 deals with:
A. Offences by Management, Institution or others
B. No place other than examination center shall be

used for public examination
C. Prohibition to enter in examination center

Question
#Q559. Which of the following sections in “The
Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures For
Prevention Of Unfair Means In Recruitment) Act, 2022”
provides for Penalties?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Question
#Q559. Which of the following sections in “The
Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures For
Prevention Of Unfair Means In Recruitment) Act, 2022”
provides for Penalties?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Question
#Q560. Which of the following sections in Rajasthan
Public Examination Act, 2022 declares that “No place
other than examination center shall be used for public
examination”?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Question
#Q560. Which of the following sections in Rajasthan
Public Examination Act, 2022 declares that “No place
other than examination center shall be used for public
examination”?
A. Section 7
B. Section 8
C. Section 9
D. Section 10
Question
#Q561. The Probation of Offenders Act aims to:
A. Provide for the release of offenders on probation or
B. After due admonition
C. Matters connected therewith
D. All of the above

Question
#Q561. The Probation of Offenders Act aims to:
A. Provide for the release of offenders on probation or
B. After due admonition
C. Matters connected therewith
D. All of the above

Question
#Q562. “Code” under The Probation of Offenders Act
means:
A. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (5 of 1898)
B. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974)
C. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (7 of 1898)
D. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1888 (5 of 1888)

Question
#Q562. “Code” under The Probation of Offenders Act
means:
A. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (5 of 1898)
B. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974)
C. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (7 of 1898)
D. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1888 (5 of 1888)

Question
#Q563. For the purpose of satisfying itself whether it
would not be desirable to deal under section 3 or
section 4 of “The Probation of Offenders Act” with an
offender referred to in sub-section (1) of section 6, the
court shall call for a report from:
A. The probation officer

B. Police station of the concerned area
C. The investigation officer
D. All of the above
Question
#Q563. For the purpose of satisfying itself whether it
would not be desirable to deal under section 3 or
section 4 of “The Probation of Offenders Act” with an
offender referred to in sub-section (1) of section 6, the
court shall call for a report from:
A. The probation officer

B. Police station of the concerned area
C. The investigation officer
D. All of the above
Question
#Q564. Whether the substance of a confidential report
under section 7 of The Probation of Offenders Act can be
provided to the offender or not?
A. No, because it is purely confidential
B. Yes, with the discretion of the court in the interests

of justice
C. It depends on the facts of the case
D. A confidential report can never be shared with the

offender
Question
#Q564. Whether the substance of a confidential report
under section 7 of The Probation of Offenders Act can be
provided to the offender or not?
A. No, because it is purely confidential
B. Yes, with the discretion of the court in the interests

of justice
C. It depends on the facts of the case
D. A confidential report can never be shared with the

offender
Question
#Q565. If a penalty imposed under clause (b) of sub-
section (3) of section 9 of “The Probation of Offenders
Act” is not paid within such period as the court may fix,
the court may sentence the offender for the:
A. Concurrent offence
B. Consecutive offence
C. Enhanced offence
D. Original offence
Question
#Q565. If a penalty imposed under clause (b) of sub-
section (3) of section 9 of “The Probation of Offenders
Act” is not paid within such period as the court may fix,
the court may sentence the offender for the:
A. Concurrent offence
B. Consecutive offence
C. Enhanced offence
D. Original offence
Question
#Q566. Under which of the following situations would
the Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
1. Crime committed by an Indian in a foreign country
2. Crime committed by a foreigner in India
3. Crime committed by a person on an Indian ship
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 alone
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q566. Under which of the following situations would
the Indian Courts have jurisdiction?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 alone
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q567. ‘A’ a foreigner stabbed ‘B’ another foreigner in a foreign
vessel on the high seas. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ were brought to Bombay
for treatment where ‘B’ died. ‘A’ is also available in Bombay.
Which one of the following propositions is correct in respect of
applicability of Indian Penal Code (IPC) to the trial of ‘A'?
A. As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign
countries and the occurrence of offence has taken place on
the high seas, IPC is not applicable to ‘A’ and hence he cannot
be prosecuted in India
B. IPC is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence ‘A’
cannot be tried in India
C. As the offence is completed in India territories and accused
‘A’ is available in India. IPC is applicable and he should be
tried at Bombay
D. As IPC is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners ‘A’
must be tried in India
Question
#Q567. ‘A’ a foreigner stabbed ‘B’ another foreigner in a foreign
vessel on the high seas. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ were brought to Bombay
for treatment where ‘B’ died. ‘A’ is also available in Bombay.
Which one of the following propositions is correct in respect of
applicability of Indian Penal Code (IPC) to the trial of ‘A'?
A. As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign
countries and the occurrence of offence has taken place on
the high seas, IPC is not applicable to ‘A’ and hence he cannot
be prosecuted in India
B. IPC is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence ‘A’
cannot be tried in India
C. As the offence is completed in India territories and accused
‘A’ is available in India. IPC is applicable and he should be
tried at Bombay
D. As IPC is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners ‘A’
must be tried in India
Question
#Q568. Who amongst the following is exempted from
the application of Indian Penal Code?
A. President of India
B. Diplomats
C. Alien enemy
D. All of the above

Question
#Q568. Who amongst the following is exempted from
the application of Indian Penal Code?
B. Diplomats
C. Alien enemy
D. All of the above

Question
#Q569. It was held that a Chief Minister or a Minister is
in the pay of the Government and, therefore, public
servant within the meaning of Section 21(2) of IPC in
the case
A. Karunanidhi v. Union of India
B. Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala
C. Kalyan Singh v. Union of India
D. Jayalalitha v. State of Tamil Nadu

Question
#Q569. It was held that a Chief Minister or a Minister is
in the pay of the Government and, therefore, public
servant within the meaning of Section 21(2) of IPC in
the case

Question
#Q570. Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure
Code, the term "Offence" has been defined?
A. Section 40
B. Section 2(n)
C. Section 2(m)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q570. Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure
Code, the term "Offence" has been defined?
A. Section 40
B. Section 2(n)
C. Section 2(m)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q571. Against which of the following offences the right
of private defence of the body does not extend to the
causing of death?
A. Rape
B. Gratifying unnatural lust
C. Causing miscarriage
D. Kidnapping
Question
#Q571. Against which of the following offences the right
of private defence of the body does not extend to the
causing of death?
A. Rape
D. Kidnapping
Question
A. Section 30
B. Section 28
C. Section 29
D. Section 27
Question
A. Section 30
B. Section 28
C. Section 29
D. Section 27
Question
#Q573. The principle of common intention applies only
when
A. At least 5 persons involved
B. At least 2 persons involved
C. At least 1 persons involved

Question
#Q573. The principle of common intention applies only
when

Question
#Q574. Who among the following is liable for
committing an offence?
A. Child between 7 & 10 years of age.
B. Child below 10 years of age.
C. Child between 7 & 12 years of age having maturity of

understanding
D. Child below eight years of age

Question
#Q574. Who among the following is liable for
committing an offence?

understanding

Question
#Q575. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code,
the act of a person of unsound mind is not an offence?
A. Section 82
B. Section 84
C. Section 83
D. Section 85
Question
#Q575. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code,
the act of a person of unsound mind is not an offence?
A. Section 82
B. Section 84
C. Section 83
D. Section 85
Question
#Q576. "A" , under the influence of unsoundness,
attempts to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself
caused grievous hurt to "A". Here:
A. "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable

for causing hurt
B. "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous
hurt
C. "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt
to murder
D. Both "A" and "B" are excused from liability
Question
#Q576. "A" , under the influence of unsoundness,
attempts to kill "B". "B" in attempting to defend himself
caused grievous hurt to "A". Here:
A. "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable

for causing hurt
B. "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous
hurt
C. "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt
to murder
Question
#Q577. A man suddenly murdered his wife and sister in
law and he made no attempt to run away. This case.
A. Falls within Section 84

B. Does fall within Section 84 because of absence of
motive
C. Does not fall within Section 84 because of presence
of motive behind the act
D. Does not fall within Section 84 because absence of
motive does not imply unsoundness of mind
Question
#Q577. A man suddenly murdered his wife and sister in
law and he made no attempt to run away. This case.

B. Does fall within Section 84 because of absence of
motive
C. Does not fall within Section 84 because of presence
of motive behind the act
D. Does not fall within Section 84 because absence of
motive does not imply unsoundness of mind
Question
#Q578. In an offence of criminal breach of trust, what is
necessarily involved?
A. Registered society
B. Registered trust
C. Registered or unregistered trust
D. Property
Question
B. Registered trust
D. Property
Question
#Q579. ‘X, an employee deducts a certain percentage
from the salary of his employees telling that it is their
contribution to the provident found but fails to credit it
in the fund, ‘X’ commits:
B. Criminal misappropriation
C. Theft
D. Cheating
Question
#Q579. ‘X, an employee deducts a certain percentage
from the salary of his employees telling that it is their
contribution to the provident found but fails to credit it
in the fund, ‘X’ commits:
C. Theft
D. Cheating
Question
#Q580. Which of the following offence cannot be tried
summarily-
A. Offence under Section 460 of the Indian Penal Code

1860.
B. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term
not exceeding two years.
C. Theft, under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code
1860 where the value of the property stolen does
not exceed two thousand rupees.
D. Offence under Section 456 of the Indian Penal Code
1860
Question
#Q580. Which of the following offence cannot be tried
summarily-
A. Offence under Section 460 of the Indian Penal Code

1860.
B. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term
not exceeding two years.
C. Theft, under Section 379 of the Indian Penal Code
1860 where the value of the property stolen does
not exceed two thousand rupees.
D. Offence under Section 456 of the Indian Penal Code
1860
Question
#Q581. Point out incorrect response.
In order to avail the defence under Section 89 of the
Indian Penal Code the following conditions must be
fulfilled:
A. Act done for the benefit of a person who is minor

under 12 years of age
B. Act done in good faith
C. The consent must always be express and never
implied
D. Act must be done by the guardian or by the consent
of the guardian
Question
In order to avail the defence under Section 89 of the
Indian Penal Code the following conditions must be
fulfilled:
A. Act done for the benefit of a person who is minor

under 12 years of age
C. The consent must always be express and never
implied
D. Act must be done by the guardian or by the consent
of the guardian
Question
#Q582. The right to private defence against an act done
by a public servant is available:
A. When it is discharged in good faith
B. When it is attempted to be done by him during the

discharge of his office
C. When it was done while he was not in his office
D. When it is strictly to be justifiable by law

Question
#Q582. The right to private defence against an act done
by a public servant is available:
B. When it is attempted to be done by him during the

discharge of his office

Question
#Q583. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below
16 years of age with her consent
A. A has not committed rape
B. A has committed adultery
C. A has committed rape with B
D. Nothing above is correct

Question
#Q583. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below
16 years of age with her consent

Question
#Q584. ‘A’, ‘C’ and ‘O’ commit rape on and are convicted
by Court of law. Subsequently, ‘A’ is found guilty of
having committed the rape of ‘X’ also ‘A’ is liable to be
punished with:
A. Imprisonment for 7 years extendable to 10 years

B. Only imprisonment upto 10 years
C. Imprisonment for life till natural death or death
D. Life imprisonment or 10 years rigorous
imprisonment
Question
#Q584. ‘A’, ‘C’ and ‘O’ commit rape on and are convicted
by Court of law. Subsequently, ‘A’ is found guilty of
having committed the rape of ‘X’ also ‘A’ is liable to be
punished with:

D. Life imprisonment or 10 years rigorous
imprisonment
Question
#Q585. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer by using codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Common Intention 1. Section 34
(b) Good Faith 2. Section 149
(c) Dishonest Intention 3. Theft
(d) Common Object 4. Mistake of fact
Codes:
A. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
B. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Question
answer by using codes given below:
List-I List-II
Codes:
A. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
B. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Question
A. Inquiry
B. Evidence
C. Investigation
D. Statement
Question
A. Inquiry
B. Evidence
C. Investigation
D. Statement
Question
#Q587. Where “A” is accused of the offence of rape and
murder of a girl child. Which of the tests can ‘A’ be
subjected to without his consent for the purposes of
investigation?
A. Brain Electrical Activation Profile Test
B. Narco-analysis test
C. Polygraph test

Question
#Q587. Where “A” is accused of the offence of rape and
murder of a girl child. Which of the tests can ‘A’ be
subjected to without his consent for the purposes of
investigation?
C. Polygraph test

Question
#Q588. Res Gestae is allowed as an exception to:
A. Confession
C. Hearsay evidence
D. Documentary evidence
Question
A. Confession
C. Hearsay evidence
Question
#Q589. Facts alleged by one party and denied by the
other in a case are termed as
A. Positive facts
B. Negative facts
C. Relevant facts
D. Facts in issue
Question
#Q589. Facts alleged by one party and denied by the
other in a case are termed as
A. Positive facts
B. Negative facts
C. Relevant facts
D. Facts in issue
Question

Question

Question
#Q591. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
A. Relevancy of fact forming part of same transaction

B. Admission
C. Opinion of expert
D. Conclusive proof
Question

B. Admission
D. Conclusive proof
Question
#Q592. The criteria for ‘res gestae’
A. Proximity of time and place

B. Community of purpose
C. Continuity of action
D. All of the above
Question
#Q592. The criteria for ‘res gestae’

D. All of the above
Question
#Q593. Which of the following statements is correct for
admissibility in evidence under Section 32(1) of Indian
Evidence Act?
A. Dying declaration must be in writing

B. Dying declaration must be made under the
expectation of death
C. Dying declaration may be verbal
D. Dying declaration must be made to a Magistrate
Question
admissibility in evidence under Section 32(1) of Indian
Evidence Act?

B. Dying declaration must be made under the
expectation of death
Question
#Q594. In criminal cases, which one of the following
statements is correct?
A. The fact that the accused person is of a good
character is relevant
B. The fact that the accused person a good character is
not relevant
C. The fact that the accused person has a bad character
is relevant
D. The fact that the accused person is of a dubious
character is irrelevant if the evidence to the contrary
has been given
Question
#Q594. In criminal cases, which one of the following
statements is correct?
A. The fact that the accused person is of a good
character is relevant
B. The fact that the accused person a good character is
not relevant
C. The fact that the accused person has a bad character
is relevant
D. The fact that the accused person is of a dubious
character is irrelevant if the evidence to the contrary
has been given
Question
answer using the codes given below the Lists:—
List – I List – II
(A) Section 46 IEA 1. Opinion of electronic Signature, when
relevant
(B) Section 47 IEA 2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom,
when relevant
(C) Section 47A IEA 3. Facts bearing upon opinion of experts
(D) Section 48 IEA 4. Opinion as to handwriting, when relevant
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Question
answer using the codes given below the Lists:—
List – I List – II
(A) Section 46 IEA 1. Opinion of electronic Signature, when
relevant
(B) Section 47 IEA 2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom,
when relevant
(C) Section 47A IEA 3. Facts bearing upon opinion of experts
(D) Section 48 IEA 4. Opinion as to handwriting, when relevant
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Question
#Q596. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment)
Act 2005 (25 of 2005) came into force on
A. 22nd June, 2006

B. 21st June, 2005
C. 23rd June, 2006
D. 23rd July, 2006
Question
#Q596. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment)
Act 2005 (25 of 2005) came into force on
A. 22nd June, 2006

B. 21st June, 2005
C. 23rd June, 2006
D. 23rd July, 2006
Question
conducted by
A. Magistrate only
B. Police Officer
C. Sessions Court
Question
conducted by
A. Magistrate only
B. Police Officer
C. Sessions Court
Question
#Q598. Section 25 of the Cr.P.C. makes provision for the
appointment of:
A. Public Prosecutor
B. Assistant Public Prosecutor
C. Public Authority
D. Government representative
Question
appointment of:
C. Public Authority
Question
#Q599. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C, Special Executive
Magistrate may be appointed by:
B. High Court
C. Supreme Court
D. State Government
Question
#Q599. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C, Special Executive
Magistrate may be appointed by:
B. High Court
C. Supreme Court
D. State Government
Question
#Q600. The Presiding Officer of the Magistrate Court is
appointed by the:
A. State Government
B. High Court
C. District Session Judge
D. Chief Judicial Magistrate
Question
appointed by the:
A. State Government
B. High Court
Question
#Q601. A warrant issued in terms of Cr.P.C. may be
executed at
A. Any place in India

B. In home district of accused’s residence
C. Within the jurisdiction of the court issued warrant
D. Within the jurisdiction of same high court
Question
#Q601. A warrant issued in terms of Cr.P.C. may be
executed at

Question
#Q602. Section 6 of Cr.P.C. provides
A. Territorial jurisdiction
B. Classes of criminal courts
C. Jurisdiction of criminal courts
D. Power of magistrate
Question
Question
appearance within:
Question
appearance within:
Question
matter of right:

B. By the court
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. Either (A) or (B)
Question
matter of right:

B. By the court
C. Both (A) and (B)
Question
#Q605. A First Information Report means
A. A complaint made to the High Court

B. A complaint made to a Magistrate
C. A complaint filed under Section 199(1) Cr.P.C.
D. Information relating commission of a cognizable
offence given to an officer in charge of police station
Question

D. Information relating commission of a cognizable
offence given to an officer in charge of police station
Question
#Q606. If an officer-incharge of a police station refuses
to register F.I.R., to whom the substance of it should be
sent as per section 154 of Cr.P.C.
A. District Collector
B. Superintendent of Police
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor
Question
#Q606. If an officer-incharge of a police station refuses
to register F.I.R., to whom the substance of it should be
sent as per section 154 of Cr.P.C.
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor
Question
#Q607. Joinder of charges is permissible under
A. Section 200 of Cr.P.C

B. Section 220 of Cr.P.C
C. Section 221 of Cr.P.C
D. Both (B) and (C)
Question

D. Both (B) and (C)
Question
#Q608. Which Sections of the Code of Criminal
Procedure provide for Trial before a Court of Session?
A. Sections 225 to 237

Question
#Q608. Which Sections of the Code of Criminal
Procedure provide for Trial before a Court of Session?

Question
#Q609. As per section 2(1)(c) of The SC and ST
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 "Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes" shall have the meanings assigned
to them respectively under:
A. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 366 of the

constitution
B. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 365 of the
constitution
C. Clause (22) and clause (25) of article 367 of the
constitution
Question
#Q609. As per section 2(1)(c) of The SC and ST
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 "Scheduled Castes
and Scheduled Tribes" shall have the meanings assigned
to them respectively under:
A. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 366 of the

constitution
B. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 365 of the
constitution
C. Clause (22) and clause (25) of article 367 of the
constitution
Question
#Q610. As per Section 8 (a) of the SC and ST (Prevention
of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused rendered any
financial assistance to a person accused of, or
reasonably suspected of committing, an offence under
this Chapter, the Special Court__________presume, unless
the contrary is proved, that such person had abetted the
offence.
A. May
B. Shall
C. Might
Question
#Q610. As per Section 8 (a) of the SC and ST (Prevention
of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused rendered any
financial assistance to a person accused of, or
reasonably suspected of committing, an offence under
this Chapter, the Special Court__________presume, unless
the contrary is proved, that such person had abetted the
offence.
A. May
B. Shall
C. Might
Question
#Q610. As per Section 23 of the Arms Act, means of
conveyance for arms or ammunition can be stopped by:
A. Any magistrate
B. Any police officer
C. Any other officer specially empowered by the
Central government
D. All of the above
Question
#Q610. As per Section 23 of the Arms Act, means of
conveyance for arms or ammunition can be stopped by:
A. Any magistrate
C. Any other officer specially empowered by the
Central government
D. All of the above
Question
#Q611. What does section 7 of the Arms Act prohibit
without special authorization from the central
Government?
A. Only the sale of prohibited arms or ammunition

B. The acquisition, possession, or carrying of
prohibited arms or ammunition
C. The manufacturing of non – prohibited arms or
ammunition
D. Testing or repairing arms or ammunition for private
use
Question
#Q611. What does section 7 of the Arms Act prohibit
without special authorization from the central
Government?

B. The acquisition, possession, or carrying of
prohibited arms or ammunition
C. The manufacturing of non – prohibited arms or
ammunition
D. Testing or repairing arms or ammunition for private
use
Question
#Q612. As per Arms Act, the Central Government may,
by notification in the Official Gazette, _________the
transport of arms or ammunition unless a licence is held
or __________the transport altogether.
A. Allow; restrict
B. Regulate; permit
C. Direct; prohibit
D. Inspect; approve
Question
#Q612. As per Arms Act, the Central Government may,
by notification in the Official Gazette, _________the
transport of arms or ammunition unless a licence is held
or __________the transport altogether.
A. Allow; restrict
B. Regulate; permit
C. Direct; prohibit
D. Inspect; approve
Question
#Q613. Consider the following statements regarding Juvenile
Justice Act 2015
1. The Act replaced the Juvenile Delinquency Law and the
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000.
2. It allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age
group of 16-21 years as adults.
3. Under this act, Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)
has been given the status of a statutory body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
Justice Act 2015
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2000.
2. It allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the age
group of 16-21 years as adults.
3. Under this act, Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)
has been given the status of a statutory body.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q614.How many total sections and chapters are there under
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015?
A. 112 Sections, 10 Chapters

B. 100 Sections, 11 Chapters
C. 102 Sections, 10 Chapters
D. 120 Sections, 9 Chapters
Question
#Q614.How many total sections and chapters are there under

Question
#Q615. As per the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, which of the
following children can be kept in special homes ?
A. Children in conflict with law

B. Neglected children
C. Abused children
D. Street children
Question

C. Abused children
D. Street children
Question
#Q616. The Child Welfare Officer is defined under section of the
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
A. Section 2(14)
B. Section 2(15)
C. Section 2(16)
D. Section 2(17)
Question
A. Section 2(14)
B. Section 2(15)
C. Section 2(16)
D. Section 2(17)
Question
#Q617. As per section 2 (5) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, the
“aftercare” means:
A. Making provision of support, financial or otherwise, to persons, who have
completed the age of eighteen years and twenty-one years, and have left any
institutional care to join the mainstream of the society
B. Making provision of support, financial or otherwise, to persons, who have
completed the age of twelve years but have not completed the age of eighteen
years, and have left any institutional care to join the mainstream of the society
C. Making provision of support, financial or otherwise, to persons, who have
completed the age of sixteen years but have not completed the age of twenty-one
D. Making provision of support, financial or otherwise, to persons, who have
completed the age of eighteen years but have not completed the age of twenty-one
Question
#Q617. As per section 2 (5) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, the
“aftercare” means:
Question
#Q617. As per Section 2(d) of The Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992, the words and
expressions used herein and not defined, but defined in the
______________, have the meanings respectively assigned to them in
that Code
A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974)

B. Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
C. Code of Civil Procedure
D. All of the above
Question
that Code
A. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)

B. 973 (2 of 1974)
D. All of the above
Question
#Q618. Under the Rajasthan Excise Act, what is the penalty for a
licensed manufacturer or vendor if they sell or expose for sale as
foreign liquor any liquor manufactured from rectified spirit or
country liquor?
A. Imprisonment for up to six months and a fine of up to 1000
rupees
B. Imprisonment for up to one month and a fine of up to 200
rupees
C. Imprisonment for up to three months and a fine of up to 500
rupees
D. Imprisonment for up to one year and no fine
Question
country liquor?
rupees
rupees
rupees
Question
#Q619. Which section of the Rajasthan Excise Act gives power to
the State Government to declare what is to be deemed "liquor"?
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
#Q620. As per Explanation of section 11 of the POCSO Act, 2012,
any question which involves “sexual intent” shall be:
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
C. Mixed question of fact and law
Question
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
Question
#Q621. Which of the following offences constituted as
Aggravated penetrative sexual assault?
A. Whoever being a public servant commits penetrative sexual

assault on a child
B. Whoever commits penetrative sexual assault on a child using
deadly weapons, fire, heated substance or corrosive
substance
C. Whoever commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below
twelve years
D. All of the above
Question

assault on a child
substance
twelve years
D. All of the above
Question
#Q622. What shall be the second or subsequent punishment for
the offence of using a child for pornographic purposes as
provided under section 14 of the POCSO Act?
A. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven

years and also liable to fine
B. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten
C. Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than five
Question

Question
#Q623. ‘X’, a 17 year old boy is sexually assaulted by ‘Y’, a 25 year
old lady. ‘Y’ can be prosecuted under
A. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012

B. Section 376 IPC
C. Under the juvenile justice (care and protection of children)
act, 2000
D. For assault under the IPC
Question
old lady. ‘Y’ can be prosecuted under

B. Section 376 IPC
act, 2000
Question
#Q624. “Religious institution” as defined under section 2(h) of
the POCSO Act, shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in
the:
A. Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1988

B. Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse and Protection)
Act, 1986
C. Religious Institutions (Prevention of Misuse) Act, 1990
Question
the:

Act, 1986
Question
#Q625. . Which of the following sections define “Unfair means”
under The Rajasthan Public Examination (Prevention of Unfair
Means) Act, 1992?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q625. . Which of the following sections define “Unfair means”
Means) Act, 1992?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q626. According to The Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992, who is authorized to
possess or disclose question papers before the time fixed for
distribution?
A. Any teacher in the examination hall

B. The principal of the school
C. Only persons lawfully authorized by their duties
D. Any government official associated with the board
Question
distribution?

Question
#Q626. As per section 7 of The Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 1992, whoever commits an offence
punishable under section 6 having made preparation for, causing death
of any person or causing hurt to any person or assaulting any person
or for wrongfully restraining any person or for wrongful restraint shall
be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to:
A. Five years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees
B. Three years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees
C. Six years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to five
thousand rupees
Question
thousand rupees
thousand rupees
thousand rupees
Question
#Q627. Offences by Management, Institution or others are
punishable under which section of the Rajasthan Public
Examination Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in
Recruitment) Act, 2022?
A. Section 9
B. Section 10
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
A. Section 9
B. Section 10
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q628. How many sections are there in The Rajasthan Public
Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in
Recruitment) Act 2022?
A. 20 Section
B. 25 Section
C. 10 Section
D. 30 Section
Question
A. 20 Section
B. 25 Section
C. 10 Section
D. 30 Section
Question
#Q629. "Examination authority" means an examination authority
as specified in the_________ of the Rajasthan Public Examination
Measures for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act,
2022?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule I
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Question
2022?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule I
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Question
#Q630. As per section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958,
Court may in addition pass a supervision order directing that the
offender shall remain under supervision of a probation officer
named in the order during such period, not being less than-
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Question
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Question
#Q631. In which of the following case Supreme Court has held
that the provisions in section 360 of CrPC are not excluded by the
Probation of Offenders Act, 1958-
A. Sanjay Dutt v. State of Maharashtra (2013)

B. Azhar Ali v. State of West Bengal (2013)
C. Lakhanlal v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2013)
D. State of Himachal Pradesh v. Dharam Pal (2004)
Question

Question
#Q632. Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is an Act of:
A. Act No. 22 of 1958

B. Act No. 20 of 1958
C. Act No. 2 of 1960
Question
#Q632. Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is an Act of:
A. Act No. 22 of 1958

B. Act No. 20 of 1958
Question
#Q633. Restrictions on imprisonment of offenders under twenty-
one years of age are dealt under which section of the Probation
of Offenders Act, 1958?
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
#Q634. Under Section 10 of the Probation of Offenders Act, 1958,
which provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898, apply
in the case of bonds and sureties given under this Act?
A. Sections 126, 126A, 406A, 514, and 514A.

B. Sections 122, 126, 126A, 406A, 514, 514A, 514B, and 515.
C. Sections 406A, 514, 5148, 515, and 122 only.
D. Sections 122, 514A, and 406A only.
Question

Question
#Q635. Under which of the following situations would the Indian
Courts have jurisdiction?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 alone
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q635. Under which of the following situations would the Indian
Courts have jurisdiction?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 alone
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q636. A’ a foreigner stabbed ‘B’ another foreigner in a foreign vessel on the
high seas. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ were brought to Bombay for treatment where ‘B’
died. ‘A’ is also available in Bombay. Which one of the following propositions is
correct in respect of applicability of Indian Penal Code (IPC) to the trial of ‘A'?
A. As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign countries and the
occurrence of offence has taken place on the high seas, IPC is not
applicable to ‘A’ and hence he cannot be prosecuted in India
B. IPC is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence ‘A’ cannot be
tried in India
C. As the offence is completed in India territories and accused ‘A’ is available
in India. IPC is applicable and he should be tried at Bombay
D. As IPC is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners ‘A’ must be tried in
India
Question
#Q636. A’ a foreigner stabbed ‘B’ another foreigner in a foreign vessel on the
high seas. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ were brought to Bombay for treatment where ‘B’
died. ‘A’ is also available in Bombay. Which one of the following propositions is
correct in respect of applicability of Indian Penal Code (IPC) to the trial of ‘A'?
A. As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign countries and the
occurrence of offence has taken place on the high seas, IPC is not
applicable to ‘A’ and hence he cannot be prosecuted in India
B. IPC is absolutely not applicable to a foreigner and hence ‘A’ cannot be
tried in India
C. As the offence is completed in India territories and accused ‘A’ is available
in India. IPC is applicable and he should be tried at Bombay
D. As IPC is applicable to Indians as well as to foreigners ‘A’ must be tried in
India
Question
#Q637. Who amongst the following is exempted from the
application of Indian Penal Code?
B. Diplomats
C. Alien enemy
D. All of the above
Question
#Q637. Who amongst the following is exempted from the
application of Indian Penal Code?
B. Diplomats
C. Alien enemy
D. All of the above
Question
#Q638. It was held that a Chief Minister or a Minister is in the
pay of the Government and, therefore, public servant within the
meaning of Section 21(2) of IPC in the case

Question
#Q638. It was held that a Chief Minister or a Minister is in the
pay of the Government and, therefore, public servant within the
meaning of Section 21(2) of IPC in the case

Question
#Q639. Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, the
term "Offence" has been defined?
A. Section 40
B. Section 2(n)
C. Section 2(m)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q639. Under which Section of the Criminal Procedure Code, the
term "Offence" has been defined?
A. Section 40
B. Section 2(n)
C. Section 2(m)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q640. Against which of the following offences the right of
private defence of the body does not extend to the causing of
death?
A. Rape
D. Kidnapping
Question
#Q640. Against which of the following offences the right of
private defence of the body does not extend to the causing of
death?
A. Rape
D. Kidnapping
Question
A. Section 30
B. Section 28
C. Section 29
D. Section 27
Question
A. Section 30
B. Section 28
C. Section 29
D. Section 27
Question
#Q642. The principle of common intention applies only when

Question
#Q642. The principle of common intention applies only when

Question
#Q643. Who among the following is liable for committing an
offence?
understanding
Question
#Q643. Who among the following is liable for committing an
offence?
understanding
Question
#Q644. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, the act of a
person of unsound mind is not an offence?
A. Section 82
B. Section 84
C. Section 83
D. Section 85
Question
#Q644. Under which Section of the Indian Penal Code, the act of a
person of unsound mind is not an offence?
A. Section 82
B. Section 84
C. Section 83
D. Section 85
Question
#Q645. "A" , under the influence of unsoundness, attempts to kill
"B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to
"A". Here:
A. "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for

causing hurt
B. "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt
C. "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to
murder
Question
#Q645. "A" , under the influence of unsoundness, attempts to kill
"B". "B" in attempting to defend himself caused grievous hurt to
"A". Here:
A. "A" is liable for attempt to murder and "B" is liable for

causing hurt
B. "A" commits no offence and "B" is liable for grievous hurt
C. "B" commits no offence and "A" is liable for attempt to
murder
Question
#Q646. A man suddenly murdered his wife and sister in law and
he made no attempt to run away. This case.

B. Does fall within Section 84 because of absence of motive
C. Does not fall within Section 84 because of presence of motive
behind the act
D. Does not fall within Section 84 because absence of motive
does not imply unsoundness of mind
Question
#Q646. A man suddenly murdered his wife and sister in law and
he made no attempt to run away. This case.

B. Does fall within Section 84 because of absence of motive
C. Does not fall within Section 84 because of presence of motive
behind the act
D. Does not fall within Section 84 because absence of motive
does not imply unsoundness of mind
Question
B. Registered trust
D. Property
Question
B. Registered trust
D. Property
Question
#Q648. ‘X, an employee deducts a certain percentage from the
salary of his employees telling that it is their contribution to the
provident found but fails to credit it in the fund, ‘X’ commits:

C. Theft
D. Cheating
Question
#Q648. ‘X, an employee deducts a certain percentage from the
salary of his employees telling that it is their contribution to the
provident found but fails to credit it in the fund, ‘X’ commits:

C. Theft
D. Cheating
Question
#Q649. Which of the following offence cannot be tried summarily
A. Offence under section 460 of the indian penal code 1860.

B. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not
exceeding two years.
C. Theft, under section 379 of the indian penal code 1860 where
the value of the property stolen does not exceed two
thousand rupees.
D. Offence under section 456 of the indian penal code 1860
Question
#Q649. Which of the following offence cannot be tried summarily
A. Offence under section 460 of the indian penal code 1860.

B. An offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not
exceeding two years.
C. Theft, under section 379 of the indian penal code 1860 where
the value of the property stolen does not exceed two
thousand rupees.
D. Offence under section 456 of the indian penal code 1860
Question
In order to avail the defence under Section 89 of the Indian Penal
Code the following conditions must be fulfilled:
A. Act done for the benefit of a person who is minor under 12

years of age
C. The consent must always be express and never implied
D. Act must be done by the guardian or by the consent of the
guardian
Question
In order to avail the defence under Section 89 of the Indian Penal
Code the following conditions must be fulfilled:
A. Act done for the benefit of a person who is minor under 12

years of age
C. The consent must always be express and never implied
D. Act must be done by the guardian or by the consent of the
guardian
Question
#Q651. The right to private defence against an act done by a
public servant is available:

B. When it is attempted to be done by him during the discharge
of his office
Question
#Q651. The right to private defence against an act done by a
public servant is available:

B. When it is attempted to be done by him during the discharge
of his office
Question
#Q652. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below 16 years
of age with her consent

Question
#Q652. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below 16 years
of age with her consent

Question
#Q653. ‘A’, ‘C’ and ‘O’ commit rape on and are convicted by Court
of law. Subsequently, ‘A’ is found guilty of having committed the
rape of ‘X’ also ‘A’ is liable to be punished with:

D. Life imprisonment or 10 years rigorous imprisonment
Question
#Q653. ‘A’, ‘C’ and ‘O’ commit rape on and are convicted by Court
of law. Subsequently, ‘A’ is found guilty of having committed the
rape of ‘X’ also ‘A’ is liable to be punished with:

D. Life imprisonment or 10 years rigorous imprisonment
Question
#Q654. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using codes given below:
List – I List - II
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Question
#Q654. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by
using codes given below:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Question
A. Inquiry
B. Evidence
C. Investigation
D. Statement
Question
A. Inquiry
B. Evidence
C. Investigation
D. Statement
Question
#Q656. Where “A” is accused of the offence of rape and murder
of a girl child. Which of the tests can ‘A’ be subjected to without
his consent for the purposes of investigation?

C. Polygraph test
Question
#Q656. Where “A” is accused of the offence of rape and murder
of a girl child. Which of the tests can ‘A’ be subjected to without
his consent for the purposes of investigation?

C. Polygraph test
Question
A. Confession
C. Hearsay evidence
Question
A. Confession
C. Hearsay evidence
Question
#Q658. Facts alleged by one party and denied by the other in a
case are termed as
A. Positive facts
B. Negative facts
C. Relevant facts
D. Facts in issue
Question
#Q658. Facts alleged by one party and denied by the other in a
case are termed as
A. Positive facts
B. Negative facts
C. Relevant facts
D. Facts in issue
Question
#Q659. Only such facts are made relevant by the Evidence Act as
are encompassed by:

D. Only such facts which can be proved as per Section 59 and
Section 60 of the Evidence Act
Question
#Q659. Only such facts are made relevant by the Evidence Act as
are encompassed by:

D. Only such facts which can be proved as per Section 59 and
Section 60 of the Evidence Act
Question

B. Admission
D. Conclusive proof
Question

B. Admission
D. Conclusive proof
Question
#Q661. The criteria for ‘res gestae’:

D. All of the above
Question
#Q661. The criteria for ‘res gestae’:

D. All of the above
Question
admissibility in evidence under Section 32(1) of Indian Evidence
Act?

B. Dying declaration must be made under the expectation of
death
Question
admissibility in evidence under Section 32(1) of Indian Evidence
Act?

B. Dying declaration must be made under the expectation of
death
Question
#Q663. In criminal cases, which one of the following statements
is correct?
A. The fact that the accused person is of a good character is

relevant
B. The fact that the accused person a good character is not
relevant
C. The fact that the accused person has a bad character is
relevant
D. The fact that the accused person is of a dubious character is
irrelevant if the evidence to the contrary has been given
Question
#Q663. In criminal cases, which one of the following statements
is correct?
A. The fact that the accused person is of a good character is

relevant
B. The fact that the accused person a good character is not
relevant
C. The fact that the accused person has a bad character is
relevant
D. The fact that the accused person is of a dubious character is
irrelevant if the evidence to the contrary has been given
Question
#Q664. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:
(A) Section 46 IEA 1. Opinion of electronic Signature,
when relevant
(B) Section 47 IEA 2. Opinion as to existence of right or
custom, when relevant
(C) Section 47A IEA 3. Facts bearing upon opinion of
experts
(D) Section 48 IEA 4. Opinion as to handwriting, when
relevant
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Question
#Q664. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:
(A) Section 46 IEA 1. Opinion of electronic Signature,
when relevant
(B) Section 47 IEA 2. Opinion as to existence of right or
custom, when relevant
(C) Section 47A IEA 3. Facts bearing upon opinion of
experts
(D) Section 48 IEA 4. Opinion as to handwriting, when
relevant
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Question
#Q665. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005
(25 of 2005) came into force on
A. 22nd June, 2006

B. 21st June, 2005
C. 23rd June, 2006
D. 23rd July, 2006
Question
#Q665. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005
(25 of 2005) came into force on
A. 22nd June, 2006

B. 21st June, 2005
C. 23rd June, 2006
D. 23rd July, 2006
Question
#Q666. Inquiry under Criminal Procedure Code is conducted by
A. Magistrate only
B. Police Officer
C. Sessions Court
Question
#Q666. Inquiry under Criminal Procedure Code is conducted by
A. Magistrate only
B. Police Officer
C. Sessions Court
Question
appointment of:
C. Public Authority
Question
appointment of:
C. Public Authority
Question
#Q668. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C, Special Executive Magistrate
may be appointed by:
B. High Court
C. Supreme Court
D. State Government
Question
#Q668. Under Section 21 of Cr.P.C, Special Executive Magistrate
may be appointed by:
B. High Court
C. Supreme Court
D. State Government
Question
appointed by the:
A. State Government
B. High Court
Question
appointed by the:
A. State Government
B. High Court
Question
#Q670. A warrant issued in terms of Cr.P.C. may be executed at

Question
#Q670. A warrant issued in terms of Cr.P.C. may be executed at

Question
Question
Question
#Q672. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached
can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance
within:
Question
#Q672. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached
can claim the property or the sale proceeds on appearance
within:
Question
#Q673. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of
right:

B. By the court
C. Both (A) and (B)
Question
#Q673. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of
right:

B. By the court
C. Both (A) and (B)
Question

D. Information relating commission of a cognizable offence
given to an officer in charge of police station
Question

D. Information relating commission of a cognizable offence
given to an officer in charge of police station
Question
#Q675. If an officer-incharge of a police station refuses to
register F.I.R., to whom the substance of it should be sent as per
section 154 of Cr.P.C
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor
Question
#Q675. If an officer-incharge of a police station refuses to
register F.I.R., to whom the substance of it should be sent as per
section 154 of Cr.P.C
C. Chief Minister
D. Governor
Question

D. Both (B) and (C)
Question

D. Both (B) and (C)
Question
#Q677. Which Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure
provide for Trial before a Court of Session?

Question
#Q677. Which Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure
provide for Trial before a Court of Session?

Question
#Q678. As per section 2(1)(c) of The SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989 "Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes"
shall have the meanings assigned to them respectively under:
A. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 366 of the constitution

B. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 365 of the constitution
C. Clause (22) and clause (25) of article 367 of the constitution
Question
#Q678. As per section 2(1)(c) of The SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989 "Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes"
shall have the meanings assigned to them respectively under:
A. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 366 of the constitution

B. Clause (24) and clause (25) of article 365 of the constitution
C. Clause (22) and clause (25) of article 367 of the constitution
Question
#Q679. As per Section 8 (a) of the SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused rendered any financial
assistance to a person accused of, or reasonably suspected of
committing, an offence under this Chapter, the Special
Court__________presume, unless the contrary is proved, that such
person had abetted the offence.
A. May
B. Shall
C. Might
Question
#Q679. As per Section 8 (a) of the SC and ST (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act, 1989, the accused rendered any financial
assistance to a person accused of, or reasonably suspected of
committing, an offence under this Chapter, the Special
Court__________presume, unless the contrary is proved, that such
person had abetted the offence.
A. May
B. Shall
C. Might
Question
#Q680. As per Section 23 of the Arms Act, means of conveyance
for arms or ammunition can be stopped by:
A. Any magistrate
C. Any other officer specially empowered by the Central
government
D. All of the above
Question
#Q680. As per Section 23 of the Arms Act, means of conveyance
for arms or ammunition can be stopped by:
A. Any magistrate
C. Any other officer specially empowered by the Central
government
D. All of the above
Question
#Q681. What does Section 7 of the Arms Act prohibit without
special authorization from the Central Government?

B. The acquisition, possession, or carrying of prohibited arms or
ammunition
C. The manufacturing of non-prohibited arms or ammunition
D. Testing or repairing arms or ammunition for private use
Question
#Q681. What does Section 7 of the Arms Act prohibit without
special authorization from the Central Government?

B. The acquisition, possession, or carrying of prohibited arms or
ammunition
C. The manufacturing of non-prohibited arms or ammunition
D. Testing or repairing arms or ammunition for private use
Question
#Q682. As per Arms Act, the Central Government may, by
notification in the Official Gazette, _________ the transport of arms
or ammunition unless a licence is held or__________ the transport
altogether.
A. Allow; restrict
B. Regulate; permit
C. Direct; prohibit
D. Inspect; approve
Question
#Q682. As per Arms Act, the Central Government may, by
notification in the Official Gazette, _________ the transport of arms
or ammunition unless a licence is held or__________ the transport
altogether.
A. Allow; restrict
B. Regulate; permit
C. Direct; prohibit
D. Inspect; approve
Question
Justice Act 2015
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act)
2000.
2. It allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the
age group of 16-21 years as adults.
3. Under this act, Central Adoption Resource Authority
(CARA) has been given the status of a statutory body.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
Justice Act 2015
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act)
2000.
2. It allowed the trial of juveniles in conflict with law in the
age group of 16-21 years as adults.
3. Under this act, Central Adoption Resource Authority
(CARA) has been given the status of a statutory body.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q684. How many total sections and chapters are there under

Question
#Q684. How many total sections and chapters are there under

Question

C. Abused children
D. Street children
Question

C. Abused children
D. Street children
Question
A. Section 2(14)
B. Section 2(15)
C. Section 2(16)
D. Section 2(17)
Question
A. Section 2(14)
B. Section 2(15)
C. Section 2(16)
D. Section 2(17)
Question
#Q687. As per section 2 (5) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, the “aftercare”
means:
Question
#Q687. As per section 2 (5) of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, the “aftercare”
means:
Question
that Code.
D. All of the above
Question
that Code.
D. All of the above
Question
country liquor?
rupees
rupees
rupees
Question
country liquor?
rupees
rupees
rupees
Question
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
A. Section 4
B. Section 5
C. Section 6
D. Section 7
Question
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
Question
A. Question of fact
B. Question of law
Question

assault on a child
substance
twelve years
D. All of the above
Question

assault on a child
substance
twelve years
D. All of the above
Question

Question

Question
old lady. ‘Y’ can be prosecuted under:

B. Section 376 IPC
act, 2000
Question
old lady. ‘Y’ can be prosecuted under:

B. Section 376 IPC
act, 2000
Question
the:

Act, 1986
Question
the:

Act, 1986
Question
#Q696. Which of the following sections define “Unfair means”
Means) Act, 1992?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q696. Which of the following sections define “Unfair means”
Means) Act, 1992?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c)
D. Section 2(d)
Question
distribution?

Question
distribution?

Question
thousand rupees
thousand rupees
thousand rupees
Question
thousand rupees
thousand rupees
thousand rupees
Question
A. Section 9
B. Section 10
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
A. Section 9
B. Section 10
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
A. 20 Section
B. 25 Section
C. 10 Section
D. 30 Section
Question
A. 20 Section
B. 25 Section
C. 10 Section
D. 30 Section
Question
2022?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule I
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Question
2022?
A. Schedule II
B. Schedule I
C. Schedule III
D. Schedule IV
Question
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Question
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Question

Question

Question
#Q704. Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is an Act of
A. Act No. 22 of 1958

B. Act No. 20 of 1958
Question
#Q704. Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 is an Act of
A. Act No. 22 of 1958

B. Act No. 20 of 1958
Question
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question
A. Section 5
B. Section 6
C. Section 7
D. Section 8
Question

Question

Question
#Q707. The investigating officer shall within 24 hours of arrest of
a person transmit to the nearest Judicial Magistrate a copy of the
entries in the diary relating to that case along with accused, if the
investigation is :
A. Completed within 24 hours

B. Not completed within 24 hours
C. Not required
D. Changed by the competent authority to another investigating
officer
Question
#Q707. The investigating officer shall within 24 hours of arrest of
a person transmit to the nearest Judicial Magistrate a copy of the
entries in the diary relating to that case along with accused, if the
investigation is :
A. Completed within 24 hours

B. Not completed within 24 hours
C. Not required
D. Changed by the competent authority to another investigating
officer
Question
#Q708. The power to direct investigation under Section 156(3)
of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by
A. Magistrate
B. Sessions Judge
C. Both (a) and (b)
Question
#Q708. The power to direct investigation under Section 156(3)
of Cr.P.C. can be exercised by
A. Magistrate
B. Sessions Judge
C. Both (a) and (b)
Question
#Q709. Which is not the content of charge?
A. Description of family background of the accused

B. Specific name of the offence as per the law which provides
the offence
C. In case of unspecific name of the offence, definition of the
offence
Question
#Q709. Which is not the content of charge?
A. Description of family background of the accused

B. Specific name of the offence as per the law which provides
the offence
C. In case of unspecific name of the offence, definition of the
offence
Question
#Q710. Which of the following Court can try a murder case?
A. Magistrate 1st Class

B. Chief Judicial Magistrate
C. Additional Sessions Judge
D. Any of the Courts
Question
#Q710. Which of the following Court can try a murder case?
A. Magistrate 1st Class

B. Chief Judicial Magistrate
C. Additional Sessions Judge
D. Any of the Courts
Question
#Q711. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate is empowered to
pass a sentence of:
A. Imprisonment for seven years

B. Imprisonment for eight years
C. Imprisonment for ten years
D. Death or imprisonment for life
Question
#Q711. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate is empowered to
pass a sentence of:
A. Imprisonment for seven years

B. Imprisonment for eight years
C. Imprisonment for ten years
D. Death or imprisonment for life
Question
#Q711. In which Section of IPC, ‘public servant’ is defined?
A. Section 14
B. Section 20
C. Section 21
D. Section 24
Question
#Q711. In which Section of IPC, ‘public servant’ is defined?
A. Section 14
B. Section 20
C. Section 21
D. Section 24
Question
#Q712. ‘A', a police officer, is directed by the court to arrest ‘B'.
He arrests ‘C’ after reasonable inquiry believing ‘C’ to be ‘B':
A. A has committed the offence of wrongful confinement as he

has arrested ‘C’ instead of ‘B’
B. A has committed the offence of wrongful confinement as he
was negligent in arresting ‘C’
C. "A has committed no offence because he arrested ‘C’ in good
faith believing himself to be bound by law to do so
Question
#Q712. ‘A', a police officer, is directed by the court to arrest ‘B'.
He arrests ‘C’ after reasonable inquiry believing ‘C’ to be ‘B':
A. A has committed the offence of wrongful confinement as he

has arrested ‘C’ instead of ‘B’
B. A has committed the offence of wrongful confinement as he
was negligent in arresting ‘C’
C. "A has committed no offence because he arrested ‘C’ in good
faith believing himself to be bound by law to do so
Question
#Q713. Under CrPC- For how many offences of the same kind
committed within the span of twelve months from the first to the
last of such offences, the accused may be charged with and tried
at one trial?
A. Not exceeding two

B. Not exceeding three
C. Not exceeding four
D. Not exceeding five
Question
#Q713. Under CrPC- For how many offences of the same kind
committed within the span of twelve months from the first to the
last of such offences, the accused may be charged with and tried
at one trial?
A. Not exceeding two

B. Not exceeding three
C. Not exceeding four
D. Not exceeding five
Question
#Q713. Which of the following is true about the First Information
Report (FIR)?
A. It is not a substantive evidence

B. It is a primary evidence
C. It is a documentary evidence
D. It is an important secondary evidence
Question
#Q713. Which of the following is true about the First Information
Report (FIR)?
A. It is not a substantive evidence

B. It is a primary evidence
C. It is a documentary evidence
D. It is an important secondary evidence
Question
#Q713. According to section 167 of the Cr.P.C. an accused person
can be remanded to police custody for not more than:
A. 7 days at one time

B. 30 days at one time
C. 15 days at one time
D. 60 days at one time
Question
#Q713. According to section 167 of the Cr.P.C. an accused person
can be remanded to police custody for not more than:
A. 7 days at one time

B. 30 days at one time
C. 15 days at one time
D. 60 days at one time
Question
#Q714. Section 172 of the Code of Criminal Procedure requires
that statements of witnesses recorded during the course of
Investigation under Section 161 shall be inserted in the
A. Case diary
B. Investigation register
C. Daily diary register
D. With register
Question
#Q714. Section 172 of the Code of Criminal Procedure requires
that statements of witnesses recorded during the course of
Investigation under Section 161 shall be inserted in the
A. Case diary
B. Investigation register
C. Daily diary register
D. With register
Question
#Q715. Which of the following is the correct answer?
1. Provisions of Cr.P.C. do not apply to the State of Jammu and
Kashmir
2. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
D. Both 1 and 2 are correct
Question
#Q715. Which of the following is the correct answer?
1. Provisions of Cr.P.C. do not apply to the State of Jammu and
Kashmir
2. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Only 1 is correct
B. Only 2 is correct
C. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
D. Both 1 and 2 are correct
Question
#Q715. In the trial of summons case by Magistrate:
A. Charges must be framed

B. Charges need not be framed
C. Charges can be framed provided accused does not object
D. Only substance of accusation is to be stated
Question
#Q715. In the trial of summons case by Magistrate:
A. Charges must be framed

B. Charges need not be framed
C. Charges can be framed provided accused does not object
D. Only substance of accusation is to be stated
Question
#Q716. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to
try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure?

D. Judicial Magistrate of the Second Class
Question
#Q716. Which one of the following authorities is not entitled to
try a case summarily under the Code of Criminal Procedure?

D. Judicial Magistrate of the Second Class
Question
#Q717. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the
border and a person within the Indian border is killed. The
relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani
to the border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts try the
accused for murder?

B. Yes
C. He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial
in Pakistan
Question
#Q717. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the
border and a person within the Indian border is killed. The
relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani
to the border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts try the
accused for murder?

B. Yes
C. He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial
in Pakistan
Question
#Q718. Section 13 of IPC which was repealed gave the definition
of:
A. Queen
B. British India
C. Government of India
D. Government servant
Question
#Q718. Section 13 of IPC which was repealed gave the definition
of:
A. Queen
B. British India
C. Government of India
D. Government servant
Question
#Q719. Consider the following statements:
Anything is said to have been done dishonestly if it has been
done with intention to:
1. cause wrongful loss to any person and wrongful gain to
another person
2. cause injury to any person
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Question
#Q719. Consider the following statements:
Anything is said to have been done dishonestly if it has been
done with intention to:
1. cause wrongful loss to any person and wrongful gain to
another person
2. cause injury to any person
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Question
#Q720. Which one of the following defences is related to
McNaghten's Case (1843)?
A. Infancy
B. Insanity
C. Intoxication
D. Consent
Question
#Q720. Which one of the following defences is related to
McNaghten's Case (1843)?
A. Infancy
B. Insanity
C. Intoxication
D. Consent
Question
#Q720. The right to private defence is:
A. Available under all circumstances

B. Available when there is time to have the recourse to the
protection of public authorities
C. Available when there is no time to have recourse of public
authorities
D. All the above
Question
#Q720. The right to private defence is:
A. Available under all circumstances

B. Available when there is time to have the recourse to the
protection of public authorities
C. Available when there is no time to have recourse of public
authorities
D. All the above
Question
#Q721. Which of the following is an offence against body,
property, and reputation and feelings under Indian Penal Code,
1860? The offence of:
A. Kidnapping
B. Abduction
C. Rape
D. Cheating
Question
#Q721. Which of the following is an offence against body,
property, and reputation and feelings under Indian Penal Code,
1860? The offence of:
A. Kidnapping
B. Abduction
C. Rape
D. Cheating
Question
#Q722. A person causes one thing to resemble another thing to
practice deception is said to commit:
A. Deception
B. Fraud
C. Counterfeit
D. Tampering
Question
#Q722. A person causes one thing to resemble another thing to
practice deception is said to commit:
A. Deception
B. Fraud
C. Counterfeit
D. Tampering
Question
#Q723. A music teacher committing sexual intercourse with a
minor girl having obtained her consent on the pretest that the
same is required to improve her voice, was held guilty of rape in:
A. R v. Cathrine
B. Ashby v. White
C. Downghe v. Stevension
D. R v. William
Question
#Q723. A music teacher committing sexual intercourse with a
minor girl having obtained her consent on the pretest that the
same is required to improve her voice, was held guilty of rape in:
A. R v. Cathrine
B. Ashby v. White
C. Downghe v. Stevension
D. R v. William
Question
#Q724. Five persons take illegal possession of a field. The owner
(the complainant party) of the field collects his supporters and
goes to the field for oust the trespassers there from. In the free
fight, which ensues, the trespassers kill one person from the
complainant's side. All the accused can be convicted
A. With the aid of section 34 of IPC

B. With the aid of section 149 of IPC
C. For the individual injuries caused to the members of the
complainant party
Question
#Q724. Five persons take illegal possession of a field. The owner
(the complainant party) of the field collects his supporters and
goes to the field for oust the trespassers there from. In the free
fight, which ensues, the trespassers kill one person from the
complainant's side. All the accused can be convicted
A. With the aid of section 34 of IPC

B. With the aid of section 149 of IPC
C. For the individual injuries caused to the members of the
complainant party
Question
#Q725. Carefully read following statements:
1. According to Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, requirement is of
two persons, whereas under Section 149 of IPC, requirement is
of five persons
2. According to Section 34 of IPC, common intention is required
whereas under Section 149 IPC, common object is required
3. Previous consent is required under Section 34 & 149 of IPC
4. Section 34 of IPC and Section 149 of IPC constitutes a specific
offence
Which of the above statements is true:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 4
Question
#Q725. Carefully read following statements:
1. According to Section 34 of Indian Penal Code, requirement is of
two persons, whereas under Section 149 of IPC, requirement is
of five persons
2. According to Section 34 of IPC, common intention is required
whereas under Section 149 IPC, common object is required
3. Previous consent is required under Section 34 & 149 of IPC
4. Section 34 of IPC and Section 149 of IPC constitutes a specific
offence
Which of the above statements is true:
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 4
Question
#Q726. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the
preamble is:

B. To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
C. To highlight define and consolidate the law of evidence
D. To highlight consolidate, define and amend the law of
evidence
Question
#Q726. The object of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 as set out in the
preamble is:

B. To consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
C. To highlight define and consolidate the law of evidence
D. To highlight consolidate, define and amend the law of
evidence
Question
#Q727. ‘Document’ produced for the inspection of the court
includes:
1. A written document
2. A caricature
3. An electronic record
4. An inscription on stone
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
A. 1 and 4
B. 1. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q727. ‘Document’ produced for the inspection of the court
includes:
1. A written document
2. A caricature
3. An electronic record
4. An inscription on stone
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
A. 1 and 4
B. 1. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
Question
#Q728. The question is whether ‘A’ prime murdered ‘B’ during
the course of a struggle Marks on the ground produced by the
struggle at the place of occurrence is relevant fact under which of
the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 6
B. Section 7
C. Section 8
D. Section 12
Question
#Q728. The question is whether ‘A’ prime murdered ‘B’ during
the course of a struggle Marks on the ground produced by the
struggle at the place of occurrence is relevant fact under which of
the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act?
A. Section 6
B. Section 7
C. Section 8
D. Section 12
Question
#Q729. Question is this, whether A was raped and murdered?
The fact that she said, without making complaint, that she was
raped
A. Will be relevant as conduct

B. Will be relevant as substantial evidence
C. Will be relevant as secondary evidence
D. Can be relevant under section 32(1) or section 157 of the
evidence act
Question
#Q729. Question is this, whether A was raped and murdered?
The fact that she said, without making complaint, that she was
raped
A. Will be relevant as conduct

B. Will be relevant as substantial evidence
C. Will be relevant as secondary evidence
D. Can be relevant under section 32(1) or section 157 of the
evidence act
Question
#Q730. ‘A’ filed a FIR giving details of a crime that he had
committed. There were no exculpatory statements in the FIR and
gave all the details regarding the commission of the crime. Which
of the following statements is accurate:
A. The FIR is hit by section 25 of the Indian evidence act and hence is
inadmissible as evidence. However, the fact that ‘A’ filed the FIR is
admissible under section 8 of the Indian evidence act
B. Since the FIR is confessional in nature, the fact that ‘A’ filed the FIR
is also not admissible in evidence
C. FIR including confession is admissible under the Indian evidence
act as it was voluntary and before arrest.
D. It is admissible under section 32(c) of the Indian evidence act.
Question
#Q730. ‘A’ filed a FIR giving details of a crime that he had
committed. There were no exculpatory statements in the FIR and
gave all the details regarding the commission of the crime. Which
of the following statements is accurate:
A. The FIR is hit by section 25 of the Indian evidence act and hence is
inadmissible as evidence. However, the fact that ‘A’ filed the FIR is
admissible under section 8 of the Indian evidence act
B. Since the FIR is confessional in nature, the fact that ‘A’ filed the FIR
is also not admissible in evidence
C. FIR including confession is admissible under the Indian evidence
act as it was voluntary and before arrest.
D. It is admissible under section 32(c) of the Indian evidence act.
Question
#Q731. A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. Confession
of B recorded long after the murder allegedly committed in
pursuance of a conspiracy between A and B would be:
A. Inadmissible in evidence
B. Admissible in evidence under Section 10 of IEA
C. Admissible in evidence under Section 30 of IEA
D. Admissible in evidence both under Section 10 and 30 of IEA
Question
#Q731. A and B are jointly tried for the murder of C. Confession
of B recorded long after the murder allegedly committed in
pursuance of a conspiracy between A and B would be:
A. Inadmissible in evidence
B. Admissible in evidence under Section 10 of IEA
C. Admissible in evidence under Section 30 of IEA
D. Admissible in evidence both under Section 10 and 30 of IEA
Question
#Q732. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court
rejected the Dying Declaration which was recorded by the
Magistrate but which was not signed by the declarant?
A. Harnam v. State of UP
B. State of UP v. Shishpal Singh
C. State of Punjab v. Bakshish Singh
Question
#Q732. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court
rejected the Dying Declaration which was recorded by the
Magistrate but which was not signed by the declarant?
A. Harnam v. State of UP
B. State of UP v. Shishpal Singh
C. State of Punjab v. Bakshish Singh
Question
#Q733. Which one cannot make admission?
A. Agent of parties
B. Person from whom parties have derived interest
C. Admission by co-defendant
D. Admissions by persons whose position must be proved as
against party to suit
Question
#Q733. Which one cannot make admission?
A. Agent of parties
B. Person from whom parties have derived interest
C. Admission by co-defendant
D. Admissions by persons whose position must be proved as
against party to suit
Question
#Q734. Valuable security is defined in
A. Criminal Procedure Code

B. Civil Procedure Code
C. Evidence Act
D. Indian Penal Code
Question
#Q734. Valuable security is defined in
A. Criminal Procedure Code

B. Civil Procedure Code
C. Evidence Act
D. Indian Penal Code
Question
#Q734. Proof of a fact for the purposes of evidence depends on:
A. Rigid mathematical demonstration

B. Probability of its existence
C. Accuracy of the statement
Question
#Q734. Proof of a fact for the purposes of evidence depends on:
A. Rigid mathematical demonstration

B. Probability of its existence
C. Accuracy of the statement
Question
#Q735. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held
that “any information material that is subsequently discovered
with the help of voluntarily administered test results can be
admitted, in accordance with Section 27 of the Indian Evidence
Act 1872.”?
A. Selvi v. State of Karnataka

B. C. Muniappen v. State of Tamil Nadu
C. Sunderial Kanaryalal v. State of Maharashtra
D. C. Mangesh v. State of Karnataka
Question
#Q735. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held
that “any information material that is subsequently discovered
with the help of voluntarily administered test results can be
admitted, in accordance with Section 27 of the Indian Evidence
Act 1872.”?
A. Selvi v. State of Karnataka

B. C. Muniappen v. State of Tamil Nadu
C. Sunderial Kanaryalal v. State of Maharashtra
D. C. Mangesh v. State of Karnataka
Question
#Q735. What is the meaning of ‘tribal areas’ for the purpose of
Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code?
A. Municipal area of Shillong

B. Municipal area of Mizoram
C. Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution
D. Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Question
#Q735. What is the meaning of ‘tribal areas’ for the purpose of
Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code?
A. Municipal area of Shillong

B. Municipal area of Mizoram
C. Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution
D. Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Question
#Q736. Warrant case has been defined as a case relating to an
offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for a term:
A. Exceeding one year

B. Exceeding two years
C. Exceeding three years
D. Exceeding seven years
Question
#Q736. Warrant case has been defined as a case relating to an
offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for a term:
A. Exceeding one year

B. Exceeding two years
C. Exceeding three years
D. Exceeding seven years
Question
#Q736. Section 97 of IPC expressly states that the right of private
defence is subject to the restrictions contained in:
Question
#Q736. Section 97 of IPC expressly states that the right of private
defence is subject to the restrictions contained in:
Question
#Q736. To invoke successfully the defence of intoxication in
criminal cases, the intoxication
A. Can be self-administered
B. Should be administered against his will or knowledge
C. Should be self-administered
D. May be all the above
Question
#Q736. To invoke successfully the defence of intoxication in
criminal cases, the intoxication
A. Can be self-administered
B. Should be administered against his will or knowledge
C. Should be self-administered
D. May be all the above
Question
#Q737. “Atrocity” has been defined under which section of The
SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c )
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q737. “Atrocity” has been defined under which section of The
SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
A. Section 2(a)
B. Section 2(b)
C. Section 2(c )
D. Section 2(d)
Question
#Q737. Whoever, having already been convicted of an offence
under Chapter II of the SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,
1989, is convicted for the second offence or any offence
subsequent to the second offence, shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which shall not be:
A. Less than one year but which may extend to the punishment
provided for that offence
B. More than one year but which may extend to the punishment
C. Less than two years but which may extend to the punishment
Question
#Q737. Whoever, having already been convicted of an offence
under Chapter II of the SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act,
1989, is convicted for the second offence or any offence
subsequent to the second offence, shall be punishable with
imprisonment for a term which shall not be:
A. Less than one year but which may extend to the punishment
B. More than one year but which may extend to the punishment
C. Less than two years but which may extend to the punishment
Question
#Q737. The provision related to the search and seizure by
Magistrate under the Arms Act is:
A. Section 19
B. Section 20
C. Section 21
D. Section 22
Question
#Q737. The provision related to the search and seizure by
Magistrate under the Arms Act is:
A. Section 19
B. Section 20
C. Section 21
D. Section 22
Question
#Q738. As per Section 4 of the Arms Act, under what condition is
a person allowed to possess or carry arms of a specified class or
description in a regulated area?
A. If they register with the local police

B. If they are a member of the military
C. If they hold a valid licence issued under the Act
D. If they are over 21 years of age
Question
#Q738. As per Section 4 of the Arms Act, under what condition is
a person allowed to possess or carry arms of a specified class or
description in a regulated area?
A. If they register with the local police

B. If they are a member of the military
C. If they hold a valid licence issued under the Act
D. If they are over 21 years of age
Question
#Q739. Which of the following is not included in the definition of
"transfer" as described under Arms Act, 1959 ?
A. Lending
B. Letting on hire
C. Giving
D. Receiving possession
Question
#Q739. Which of the following is not included in the definition of
"transfer" as described under Arms Act, 1959 ?
A. Lending
B. Letting on hire
C. Giving
D. Receiving possession
Question
#Q740. Where is the Juvenile Justice or children's rights included
in the Constitution?

B. Article 15, clause (e)
C. Clause (f) of article 39
D. All of the above
Question
#Q740. Where is the Juvenile Justice or children's rights included
in the Constitution?

B. Article 15, clause (e)
C. Clause (f) of article 39
D. All of the above
Question
#Q741. What does abandoned child mean as per JJ Act 2015?
I) Abandoned child means a child deserted by his biological or
adoptive parents
II) It means a child who has been declared as abandoned by the
Committee after due inquiry
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
Question
#Q741. What does abandoned child mean as per JJ Act 2015?
I) Abandoned child means a child deserted by his biological or
adoptive parents
II) It means a child who has been declared as abandoned by the
Committee after due inquiry
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
Question
#Q742. As per the JJ Act 2015 child not in need of care and
protection means?
I) Child found without any home or settled place of abode and
without any ostensible means of subsistence
II) Child found working in contravention of labour laws for the
time being in force or is found begging
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Question
#Q742. As per the JJ Act 2015 child not in need of care and
protection means?
I) Child found without any home or settled place of abode and
without any ostensible means of subsistence
II) Child found working in contravention of labour laws for the
time being in force or is found begging
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Question
#Q743. Which of the following statements is not correct:
A. One or more Juvenile Justice Boards shall be constituted by the
State Government for every district
B. Each Juvenile Justice Board shall consist of a Metropolitan
Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate and two social workers, of
whom atleast one shall be a woman
C. The order passed by the Juvenile Justice Board in absence of any
Member at any stage of proceedings shall be invalid
D. Power of the Juvenile Justice Board may also be exercised by the
High Court and the Court of Sessions, when the proceedings come
before them in appeal, revision or otherwise
Question
#Q743. Which of the following statements is not correct:
A. One or more Juvenile Justice Boards shall be constituted by the
State Government for every district
B. Each Juvenile Justice Board shall consist of a Metropolitan
Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate and two social workers, of
whom atleast one shall be a woman
C. The order passed by the Juvenile Justice Board in absence of any
Member at any stage of proceedings shall be invalid
D. Power of the Juvenile Justice Board may also be exercised by the
High Court and the Court of Sessions, when the proceedings come
before them in appeal, revision or otherwise
Question
#Q744. Juvenile Justice (Protection and Care of Children) Act,
2000 enable persons of following religions to take a child in
adoption:
A. Hindu only
B. Muslim only
C. Christian only
D. All of the above
Question
#Q744. Juvenile Justice (Protection and Care of Children) Act,
2000 enable persons of following religions to take a child in
adoption:
A. Hindu only
B. Muslim only
C. Christian only
D. All of the above
Question
#Q745. “Order to pay compensation” is provided under which
section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950?
A. Section 54A
B. Section 54B
C. Section 54C
D. Section 56
Question
#Q745. “Order to pay compensation” is provided under which
section of The Rajasthan Excise Act, 1950?
A. Section 54A
B. Section 54B
C. Section 54C
D. Section 56
Question
#Q746. On which day Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures
for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, received
assent of the Governor?
A. 5th April 2022

B. 5th June 2023
C. 10th April 2019
Question
#Q746. On which day Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures
for Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, received
assent of the Governor?
A. 5th April 2022

B. 5th June 2023
C. 10th April 2019
Question
#Q747. Under The Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for
Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022, what is
prohibited for a person entrusted with examination work?
A. Assisting candidates with the syllabus

B. Indirectly divulging any information about the question
paper
C. Monitoring candidates during the exam
D. Attending the exam center
Question
#Q747. Under The Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for
Prevention of Unfair Means in Recruitment) Act, 2022, what is
prohibited for a person entrusted with examination work?
A. Assisting candidates with the syllabus

B. Indirectly divulging any information about the question
paper
C. Monitoring candidates during the exam
D. Attending the exam center
Question
#Q748. The police are required to report the matter of child
sexual abuse to the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) within
A. 24 hours of the act being done

B. 24 hours of the report being received
C. 18 hours of the crime
D. 48 hours of the report being received
Question
#Q748. The police are required to report the matter of child
sexual abuse to the Child Welfare Committee (CWC) within
A. 24 hours of the act being done

B. 24 hours of the report being received
C. 18 hours of the crime
D. 48 hours of the report being received
Question
#Q749. The Preamble of the POCSO Act states as follows:
A. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault, sexual
harassment and pornography and provide for establishment of Special
Courts for trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto
B. An Act to protect children and adults from offences of sexual assault,
sexual harassment and pornography and provide for establishment of
Special Courts for trial of such offences and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto
C. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault, sexual
harassment and pornography and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto
Question
#Q749. The Preamble of the POCSO Act states as follows:
A. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault, sexual
harassment and pornography and provide for establishment of Special
Courts for trial of such offences and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto
B. An Act to protect children and adults from offences of sexual assault,
sexual harassment and pornography and provide for establishment of
Special Courts for trial of such offences and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto
C. An Act to protect children from offences of sexual assault, sexual
harassment and pornography and for matters connected therewith or
incidental thereto
Question
#Q750. Chapter II of the POCSO Act deals with
A. Special courts
B. Sexual offences against children
C. Procedures for recording statement of the child
D. Using child for pornographic purposes and punishment
therefor
Question
#Q750. Chapter II of the POCSO Act deals with
A. Special courts
B. Sexual offences against children
C. Procedures for recording statement of the child
D. Using child for pornographic purposes and punishment
therefor
Question
#Q751. Under Section 2(l) of POCSO Act "Special Court" means a
court designated as such under :
A. Section 26
B. Section 27
C. Section 28
D. Section 29
Question
#Q751. Under Section 2(l) of POCSO Act "Special Court" means a
court designated as such under :
A. Section 26
B. Section 27
C. Section 28
D. Section 29
Question
#Q752. Under POCSO, a sexual assault committed on a child
becomes an aggravated sexual assault if it is committed by :
A. Police officer in course of his duties

B. Another child
C. Brother or sister of the child
Question
#Q752. Under POCSO, a sexual assault committed on a child
becomes an aggravated sexual assault if it is committed by :
A. Police officer in course of his duties

B. Another child
C. Brother or sister of the child
Question
#Q753. Who is authorized to open or handle question papers
before their official distribution according to Section 4 of the
2022 Act?
A. Any invigilator
B. Only persons lawfully authorized by their duties
C. Any staff member at the exam center
D. The examinee themselves, under supervision
Question
#Q753. Who is authorized to open or handle question papers
before their official distribution according to Section 4 of the
2022 Act?
A. Any invigilator
B. Only persons lawfully authorized by their duties
C. Any staff member at the exam center
D. The examinee themselves, under supervision
Question
#Q754. According to the 2022 Act, who is prohibited from
entering an exam center?
A. Only examinees are allowed

B. Anyone not an examinee or entrusted with duties
C. Candidates late by more than 15 minutes
D. Anyone failing to provide ID proof
Question
#Q754. According to the 2022 Act, who is prohibited from
entering an exam center?
A. Only examinees are allowed

B. Anyone not an examinee or entrusted with duties
C. Candidates late by more than 15 minutes
D. Anyone failing to provide ID proof
Question
#Q755. Which section of the Under Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992, deals with the prevention
of leakage of information by persons entrusted with exam-
related work?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 7
Question
#Q755. Which section of the Under Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992, deals with the prevention
of leakage of information by persons entrusted with exam-
related work?
A. Section 3
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 7
Question
#Q756. The nature of the definition of “conduct of public
examination” under section 2(a) of the Rajasthan Public
Recruitment) Act, 2022, is:
A. Inclusive
B. Exclusive
C. Comprehensive
Question
#Q756. The nature of the definition of “conduct of public
examination” under section 2(a) of the Rajasthan Public
Recruitment) Act, 2022, is:
A. Inclusive
B. Exclusive
C. Comprehensive
Question
#Q757. Which of the following is NOT covered under "The
Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair
Means in Recruitment) Act"?
A. Recruitment to any post under the State Government

B. Recruitment to autonomous bodies, authorities, boards, or
corporations under the State Government
C. Private sector recruitment examinations
D. All of the above are covered
Question
#Q757. Which of the following is NOT covered under "The
Rajasthan Public Examination (Measures for Prevention of Unfair
Means in Recruitment) Act"?
A. Recruitment to any post under the State Government

B. Recruitment to autonomous bodies, authorities, boards, or
corporations under the State Government
C. Private sector recruitment examinations
D. All of the above are covered
Question
#Q758. According to the Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992, what is the geographical
scope of the Act?
A. Limited to certain districts of Rajasthan

B. Applicable only to private educational institutions
C. Covers the entire state of Rajasthan
D. Restricted to urban areas of Rajasthan
Question
#Q758. According to the Rajasthan Public Examination
(Prevention of Unfairmeans) Act, 1992, what is the geographical
scope of the Act?
A. Limited to certain districts of Rajasthan

B. Applicable only to private educational institutions
C. Covers the entire state of Rajasthan
D. Restricted to urban areas of Rajasthan
Question
#Q759. How many total sections are there in the Probation of
Offenders Act, 1958?
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
Question
#Q759. How many total sections are there in the Probation of
Offenders Act, 1958?
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. 21
Question
#Q760. Which of the following is classified as prohibited
ammunition under Section 2(h) of the Arms Act, 1959?
A. Bullets
B. Grenades
C. Arrows
D. Swards
Question
#Q760. Which of the following is classified as prohibited
ammunition under Section 2(h) of the Arms Act, 1959?
A. Bullets
B. Grenades
C. Arrows
D. Swards
Question
#Q761. Which section provides power of Courts to release
certain offenders after admonition under Probation of Offenders
Act, 1958?
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
#Q761. Which section provides power of Courts to release
certain offenders after admonition under Probation of Offenders
Act, 1958?
A. Section 2
B. Section 3
C. Section 4
D. Section 5
Question
#Q762. What steps must a court take under Section 6 of "The
Probation of Offenders Act, 1958" before sentencing a person
under the age of twenty-one to imprisonment for an offence that
does not carry a life sentence?
A. The court must sentence the person to imprisonment without
any exceptions.
B. The court must sentence the person to imprisonment only if
it is satisfied that imprisonment is the only suitable option,
considering the nature of the offence and the character of the
offender.
C. The court must consult with the offender's family before
sentencing them to imprisonment.
D. The court must seek a report from the probation officer and
consider the offender's character and physical and mental
condition before deciding on imprisonment.
Question
#Q762. What steps must a court take under Section 6 of "The
Probation of Offenders Act, 1958" before sentencing a person
under the age of twenty-one to imprisonment for an offence that
does not carry a life sentence?
A. The court must sentence the person to imprisonment without
any exceptions.
B. The court must sentence the person to imprisonment only if
it is satisfied that imprisonment is the only suitable option,
considering the nature of the offence and the character of the
offender.
C. The court must consult with the offender's family before
sentencing them to imprisonment.
D. The court must seek a report from the probation officer and
consider the offender's character and physical and mental
condition before deciding on imprisonment.
Question
#Q763. Under "The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958," which of
the following statements is correct regarding the Act's territorial
extent and commencement?
A. The Act extends to the whole of India, including the State of

Jammu and Kashmir, from its inception in 1958.
B. The Act does not extend to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
C. The Act extends to the whole of India, and it shall come into
force in a State on such date as the Central Government may
appoint by notification.
D. The Act extends to the whole of India, and it shall come into
force in a State on such date as the State Government may
appoint by notification
Question
#Q763. Under "The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958," which of
the following statements is correct regarding the Act's territorial
extent and commencement?
A. The Act extends to the whole of India, including the State of

Jammu and Kashmir, from its inception in 1958.
B. The Act does not extend to the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
C. The Act extends to the whole of India, and it shall come into
force in a State on such date as the Central Government may
appoint by notification.
D. The Act extends to the whole of India, and it shall come into
force in a State on such date as the State Government may
appoint by notification
TWO MINUTES SUMMARY
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RAJASTHAN APO

By – KARAN SANGWAN Sir

A. Chapter 37, Sections 481

B. Chapter 39, Sections 484

C. Chapter 38, Sections 481

D. Chapter 37, Sections 484

A. Chapter 37, Sections 481

B. Chapter 39, Sections 484

C. Chapter 38, Sections 481

D. Chapter 37, Sections 484

A. Appointed under Section 24 of Cr.PC

B. Who wants to act as Public Prosecutor

C. Appointed under Section 24 of Cr.P.C and includes

D. None of the above

A. Appointed under Section 24 of Cr.PC

B. Who wants to act as Public Prosecutor

C. Appointed under Section 24 of Cr.P.C and includes

D. None of the above

A. More than one year imprisonment

B. More than three years imprisonment

C. Death penalty, life imprisonment or imprisonment

D. More than five years imprisonment

A. More than one year imprisonment

B. More than three years imprisonment

C. Death penalty, life imprisonment or imprisonment

D. More than five years imprisonment

A. Police officer can arrest without warrant

B. Police officer cannot arrest without warrant

C. Police officer can grant bail

D. Only court can grant bail

A. Police officer can arrest without warrant

B. Police officer cannot arrest without warrant

C. Police officer can grant bail

D. Only court can grant bail

A. Section 176 of IPC

B. Section 179 of IPC

C. Section 187 of IPC

D. None of the above

A. Section 176 of IPC

B. Section 179 of IPC

C. Section 187 of IPC

D. None of the above

A. The police only

B. Both the police and the court

C. The court only

D. The police under the discretions of the Session's

A. The police only

B. Both the police and the court

C. The court only

D. The police under the discretions of the Session's

B. Cancelled by court which issued it

C. It expires on its own

D. Only (A) and (B) are correct

B. Cancelled by court which issued it

C. It expires on its own

D. Only (A) and (B) are correct

A. Identification of the driver of the offending vehicle

B. Recording the statement of a rape victim, under a

C. Both (A) and (B)

A. Identification of the driver of the offending vehicle