1.Which is the least frequent site of an ectopic pregnancy?

A. Fallopian tube

B. Cervix

C. Ovary

D. Abdominal cavity

E. Between the leaves of broad ligament

2. Perforation tends to occur earliest when an ectopic pregnancy is located in

which portion of fallopian tube ?

A. Isthmic

B. Interstitial

C. Ampullary

D. Infundibular

E. No difference

3. Which of the following does not occur in post partum pituitary necrosis :

A. signs of hypoglycaemia

B. Asthenia

C. Amenorrhoea

D. Galactorrhoea

E. Decreased libido

4. The most dangerous symptom during pregnancy is:

A. PV bleeding

B. Ankle swelling

C. Hyperemesis
D. Cramps

E. none

5.The Arius-Stella reaction may be seen with all except :

A. Ectopic pregnancy

B. Birth control pills

C. Abortion

D. Trophoblastic disease

E. none

6. The passage of decidual cast in cases of ectopic pregnancy usually means :

A. Impending tubal rupture

B. Reabsorption of embryo

C. Pregnancy was intrauterine

D. Death of embryo

E. none

7. What is the most common side effect with MTX therapy for ectopic
pregnancy

A. Transient pelvic pain 3 - 7 days after starting treatment

B. Stomatitis

C. Bone marrow suppression

D. Gastritis

E. none

8. Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of

the following, except:
A. Amniotic fluid

B. Maternal blood

C. Chorionic villi

D. Fetal blood

E. none

9. A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 weeks gestation with acute pain

abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She
should be managed by;

A. Immediate cesarean section

B. Immediate induction of labor

C. Tocolytic therapy

D. Magnesium sulphate therapy

E. none

10.Placenta previa, all true except :

A. Shock out of proportion of bleeding

B. Malpresentation

C. Head not engaged

D. Painless bleeding

E. none

11. A 34wk GA lady presented with vaginal bleeding of an amount more of that
of her normal cycle. O/E uterine contracts every 4 min, bulged membrane, the
cervix is 3 cm dilated, fetus is in a high transverse lie and the placenta is on the
posterior fundus. US showed translucency behind the placenta and the CTG
(Cardiotocography) showed FHR of 170, the best line of management is:

A. C/S immediately.

B. give oxytocin.
C. do rupture of the membrane.

D. amniocentisis

E. none

12. Most important cause of immediate post partum hemorrhage:

A. laceration of cervix

B. laceration of v*gina

C. uterine atony

D. placental fragment retention

E. none

13. Factors favoring long anterior rotation include all except

A. Correction of the deflexion

B. Adequate pelvis

C. good pelvic floor

D. rupture of membranes

E. none

14. All following are indications for CS in OP except

A. Persistent oblique op

B. Long anterior rotation

C. Deep transverse arrest

D. Contracted pelvis

E. none

15. Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who
is on phenytoin therapy for epilepsy?

A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B12

C. Vitamin A

D. Folic acid

E. none

16. Uterine inertia is due to EXCEPT?

A. Over distension of uterus

B. Presence of fibroid uterus

C. Fetal malpresentations

D. Abruptio placenta

E. repeated interautrine manipulation

17. Exposure of female fetus to androgens may arrest differentiation of :

A. Mullerian duct

B. Ovary

C. Urogenital sinus

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

18. The risk for development of fetal macrosomia is increased in the following,
EXCEPT:

A. Primiparity.

B. Diabetes with pregnancy.

C. Post-term pregnancy.

D. Prior macrosomic infants.

E. none

19. Complications of the third stage of labor include all of the following except :
A. Rupture uterus.

B. Postpartum hemorrhage.

C. Puerperal sepsis.

D. Retained placenta.

E. Obstetric shock.

20. Shock is out of proportion to the amount of bleeding in :

A. 1ry postpartum haemorrhage

B. Retained placenta

C. Acute puerperal inversion of uterus

D. Hypofibrinogenemia

E. none

21. The gold standard in diagnosing ectopic pregnancy

A. Laparoscopy

B. Culdocenteris

C. Beta HCG

D. US

E. Progesterone

22. Which method of terminating a molar gestation is never indicated

A. Suction curettage

B. Prostaglandic

C. Hypertonicsaline

D. Hysterotomy

E. Hyterectomy
23. Invasive molar tissue is most commonly found in

A. Myometrium

B. Vaginal wall

C. Ovary

D. Liver

E. Lungs

24. A 31-year-old, HIV-positive woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 32-weeks'

gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is
significant for the fact that she has taken zidovudine throughout the pregnancy.
Otherwise, her prenatal course has been unremarkable. She has no history of
mental illness. She states that she has been weighing the benefits and risks of
cesarean delivery in preventing transmission of the virus to her baby. After much
deliberation, she has decided that she does not want a cesarean delivery and
would like to attempt a vaginal delivery. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in management?

A. Contact psychiatry to evaluate the patient

B. Contact the hospital lawyers to get a court order for cesarean delivery

C. Perform cesarean delivery at 38 weeks

D. Perform cesarean delivery once the patient is in labor

E. Respect the patient's decision and perform the vaginal delivery

25. A 19-year-old primigravid woman at 42 weeks' gestation comes the labor

and delivery ward for induction of labor. Her prenatal course was uncomplicated.
Examination shows her cervix to be long, thick, closed, and posterior. The fetal
heart rate is in the 140s and reactive. The fetus is vertex on ultrasound.
Prostaglandin (PGE2) gel is placed intravaginally. One hour later, the patient
begins having contractions lasting longer than 2 minutes. The fetal heart rate falls
to the 70s. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in
management?

A. Administer general anesthesia

B. Administer terbutaline

C. Perform amnioinfusion

D. Start oxytocin

E. Perform cesarean delivery

26. Which one of the following is a risk factor for developing DVT?

A. Family history of thromboembolic disease.

B. Factor V Leiden.

C. Antiphospholipid syndrome.

D. Sepsis.

E. All of the above.

27. Premature labour.

A. is associated with an increased risk of breech presentation.

B. is associated with uterine anomaly.

C. asymptomaticbacteruria is a proven risk factor.

D. is associated with genital tract infection.

E. All of the above

28. A 22-year-old woman in labor progresses to 7 cm dilation, and then has no

further progress. She therefore undergoes a primary cesarean section.
Examination 2 days after the section shows a temperature of 39.1 C (102.4 F),
blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, pulse of 90/min, and respirations of 14/min.
Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her abdomen is moderately tender.
The incision is clean, dry, and intact, with no evidence of erythema. Pelvic
examination demonstrates uterine tenderness. Which of the following is the most
appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A. Ampicillin

B. Ampicillin-gentamicin

C. Clindamycin-gentamicin
D. Clindamycin-metronidazole

E. Metronidazole

29. A 19-year-old nulliparous woman in her 35th week of pregnancy presents

with nausea, blurred vision and a weight gain of 4.5 kg per week. Her blood
pressure is 160/110 mmHg. Which of the following tests is the most suitable for
the assessment of fetal status?

A. amniocentesis for the measurement of the lecithin/ sphingomyelin (L/S)

ratio

B. amniocentesis for the measurement of the creatinine level of the amnotic

fluid

C. sonographiccephalometry

D. a non-stress test (NST)

E. an oxytocin challenge test (OCT)

30. All of the following can be used in hypertension in Pregnancy except

A. Hydralazine

B. Labetolol

C. Captopril

D. Alpha methyl DOP

E. none

31. All are complications of illegal /Septic abortion except

A. Cerebral Hemorrhage

B. DIC

C. ARF

D. Bacterial Shock

E. none
32. A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician for follow-up after an
abnormal Pap test and cervical biopsy. The patient's Pap test showed a high-grade
squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL). This was followed by colposcopy and
biopsy of the cervix. The biopsy specimen also demonstrated HGSIL. The patient
was counseled to undergo a loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP). Which
of the following represents the potential long-term complications from this
procedure?

A. Abscess and chronic pelvic inflammatory disease

B. Cervical incompetence and cervical stenosis

C. Constipation and fecal incontinence

D. Hernia and intraperitoneal adhesions

E. Urinary incontinence and urinary retention

33. Female patient with history of irregular vaginal bleeding tender right iliac
fossa , CBC normal , B-HCG positive , most likely to be :

A. corpus luteum cyst

B. appendicitis

C. ectopic pregnancy

D. none of the above

E. none

34. Cervical lesion (ectopy):

A. It is an ulcer of the cervix.

B. Should be treated in pregnant females.

C. Pap smear is advisable before management.

D. Commonly cause pain, dyspareunia & low back pain.

E. none
35.Which of the following is the most common complication of pregnancy?

o A) Preeclampsia
o B) Gestational diabetes
o C) Hyperemesis gravidarum
o D) Anemia
o Answer: D) Anemia

36.What is the recommended management for a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation?

o A) Immediate cesarean section

o B) External cephalic version (ECV)
o C) Vaginal breech delivery
o D) Bed rest
o Answer: B) External cephalic version (ECV)

37.What is the most common cause of early pregnancy bleeding?

o A) Ectopic pregnancy
o B) Miscarriage
o C) Placental abruption
o D) Molar pregnancy
o Answer: B) Miscarriage

38.At what gestational age is the fetal heartbeat typically detectable via ultrasound?

o A) 5-6 weeks
o B) 10-12 weeks
o C) 15-16 weeks
o D) 20-24 weeks
o Answer: A) 5-6 weeks

39.Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gestational diabetes?

o A) History of preeclampsia
o B) Obesity
o C) Advanced maternal age
o D) History of multiple pregnancies
o Answer: B) Obesity

40.The most common cause of preterm labor is:

o A) Uterine anomaly
o B) Infection
o C) High blood pressure
o D) Multiple gestation
o Answer: B) Infection

41.Which of the following is the first-line treatment for hypertension in pregnancy?

o A) Methyldopa
o B) Labetalol
 o C) Nifedipine
o D) Furosemide
o Answer: B) Labetalol
2. What is the most accurate method for diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy?
o A) Serum hCG levels
o B) Transvaginal ultrasound
o C) Physical examination
o D) Pelvic MRI
o Answer: B) Transvaginal ultrasound

42.In a patient with preeclampsia, which of the following is a concerning sign of severe
disease?

o A) Headache
o B) Mild swelling of the ankles
o C) Proteinuria of 1+ on dipstick
o D) Elevated liver enzymes
o Answer: D) Elevated liver enzymes

43.Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptive pills
(OCPs)?

o A) History of migraine with aura

o B) History of asthma
o C) Hypertension
o D) Lactation
o Answer: A) History of migraine with aura

44.What is the most common fetal presentation at term?

o A) Breech
o B) Transverse lie
o C) Cephalic
o D) Compound presentation
o Answer: C) Cephalic

45.What is the recommended weight gain for a woman with a normal BMI during
pregnancy?

o A) 11-15 pounds
o B) 15-25 pounds
o C) 25-35 pounds
o D) 35-45 pounds
o Answer: C) 25-35 pounds

46.Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of a cesarean section?

o A) First-time pregnancy
o B) Breech presentation
o C) Age < 18 years
o D) Healthy BMI
o Answer: B) Breech presentation
47.What is the most common complication in the third trimester of pregnancy?

o A) Preeclampsia
o B) Placenta previa
o C) Placental abruption
o D) Gestational diabetes
o Answer: A) Preeclampsia
3. What is the most common indication for cesarean section?
o A) Breech presentation
o B) Fetal distress
o C) Failure to progress in labor
o D) Multiple gestation
o Answer: C) Failure to progress in labor

48.What is the optimal time for a woman to undergo Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM)

administration during pregnancy?

o A) 6-8 weeks
o B) 12-14 weeks
o C) 28 weeks
o D) 36 weeks
o Answer: C) 28 weeks

49.Which of the following is a potential complication of gestational diabetes?

o A) Preterm labor
o B) Macrosomia
o C) Fetal growth restriction
o D) Oligohydramnios
o Answer: B) Macrosomia

50.Which test is most commonly used to screen for gestational diabetes?

o A) 24-hour urine test

o B) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
o C) Fasting blood glucose
o D) A1C level
o Answer: B) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

51.Which is the first-line treatment for severe preeclampsia?

o A) Magnesium sulfate
o B) Methyldopa
o C) Labetalol
o D) Anticonvulsants
o Answer: A) Magnesium sulfate

52.Which of the following is a major risk factor for placental abruption?

o A) Advanced maternal age

o B) Hypertension
o C) Multiple gestation
 o D) Previous cesarean section
o Answer: B) Hypertension

53.Which of the following is the most common cause of oligohydramnios?

o A) Maternal hypertension
o B) Placental insufficiency
o C) Premature rupture of membranes
o D) Fetal anomalies
o Answer: C) Premature rupture of membranes
4. Which of the following is a characteristic sign of hyperemesis gravidarum?
o A) Nausea with no vomiting
o B) Dehydration and weight loss
o C) Mild abdominal discomfort
o D) Vomiting after meals
o Answer: B) Dehydration and weight loss

54.What is the best test to screen for fetal aneuploidy?

o A) Serum AFP
o B) Amniocentesis
o C) Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)
o D) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
o Answer: C) Noninvasive prenatal testing (NIPT)

55.Which of the following is a common symptom of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during
pregnancy?

o A) Fever
o B) Abdominal pain
o C) Dysuria
o D) Vaginal bleeding
o Answer: C) Dysuria

56.Which of the following is a sign of fetal distress during labor?

o A) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid

o B) Mild uterine contractions
o C) Normal fetal heart rate
o D) Absence of fetal movement
o Answer: A) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid

57.A positive "nuchal translucency" result at 11-14 weeks indicates:

o A) Risk for Down syndrome

o B) Risk for preterm labor
o C) Normal fetal development
o D) Fetal growth restriction
o Answer: A) Risk for Down syndrome

58.The most common site for an ectopic pregnancy is:

 o A) Ovary
o B) Uterine cornua
o C) Fallopian tube
o D) Cervix
o Answer: C) Fallopian tube

59.What is the definition of preeclampsia?

o A) Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation

o B) High blood pressure and edema in early pregnancy
o C) Severe headaches and vision changes
o D) Abdominal pain and back pain in the third trimester
o Answer: A) Hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation

60.Which of the following is the most common maternal complication of cesarean section?

o A) Hemorrhage
o B) Uterine rupture
o C) Infection
o D) Thromboembolism
o Answer: C) Infection
5. What is the first-line treatment for hyperemesis gravidarum?
o A) Antihistamines
o B) IV fluids and antiemetics
o C) Oral glucose solution
o D) Bed rest
o Answer: B) IV fluids and antiemetics

61.Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy during the first
trimester?

o A) Estrogen
o B) Progesterone
o C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
o D) Prolactin
o Answer: B) Progesterone

62.What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia?

o A) To lower blood pressure

o B) To prevent seizures
o C) To induce labor
o D) To improve fetal circulation
o Answer: B) To prevent seizures

63.Which of the following is a complication of amniocentesis?

o A) Premature rupture of membranes

o B) Miscarriage
o C) Placental abruption
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
64.What is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

o A) Retained placenta
o B) Uterine atony
o C) Uterine rupture
o D) Lacerations
o Answer: B) Uterine atony

65.What is the optimal timing for the administration of antenatal corticosteroids in a preterm
pregnancy?

o A) 23-24 weeks
o B) 24-34 weeks
o C) 34-37 weeks
o D) 37-40 weeks
o Answer: B) 24-34 weeks

66.Which of the following conditions is associated with a "snowstorm" appearance on

ultrasound?

o A) Ectopic pregnancy
o B) Molar pregnancy
o C) Placental abruption
o D) Fetal demise
o Answer: B) Molar pregnancy
6. Which medication is commonly used to induce labor?
o A) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
o B) Magnesium sulfate
o C) Betamethasone
o D) Nifedipine
o Answer: A) Misoprostol (Cytotec)

67.A woman with a history of one prior cesarean section is considered at higher risk for:

o A) Preterm birth
o B) Uterine rupture
o C) Placenta previa
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

68.Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gestational hypertension?

o A) Smoking
o B) Obesity
o C) Multiparity
o D) History of gestational diabetes
o Answer: B) Obesity

69.The presence of fetal movement typically starts between:

o A) 6-8 weeks
o B) 12-14 weeks
 o C) 16-20 weeks
o D) 24-28 weeks
o Answer: C) 16-20 weeks

70.The most common indication for a second-trimester ultrasound is:

o A) Fetal growth monitoring

o B) Checking fetal heart rate
o C) Assessing amniotic fluid levels
o D) Screening for fetal anomalies
o Answer: D) Screening for fetal anomalies

71.What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a patient diagnosed with postpartum
depression?

o A) Antidepressant medications
o B) Psychotherapy
o C) Hospitalization
o D) Light therapy
o Answer: B) Psychotherapy

72.Which of the following is considered a risk factor for placenta previa?

o A) History of cesarean delivery

o B) Multiparity
o C) Advanced maternal age
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
7. What is the recommended timing for the first prenatal visit in an uncomplicated
pregnancy?
o A) Within the first 4 weeks
o B) 6-8 weeks
o C) 10-12 weeks
o D) 14-16 weeks
o Answer: B) 6-8 weeks

73.Which condition is characterized by increased fetal blood flow to the brain, causing a
large head size and possible developmental delays?

o A) Hydrocephalus
o B) Anencephaly
o C) Spina bifida
o D) Microcephaly
o Answer: A) Hydrocephalus

74.What is the definition of oligohydramnios?

o A) Excessive amniotic fluid

o B) Low amniotic fluid volume
o C) Normal amniotic fluid volume
o D) Rupture of membranes
o Answer: B) Low amniotic fluid volume
75.What is the most common cause of intrauterine fetal demise in the third trimester?

o A) Placental abruption
o B) Intrauterine infection
o C) Fetal anomaly
o D) Umbilical cord accident
o Answer: D) Umbilical cord accident

76.Which of the following is a complication of prolonged labor?

o A) Uterine rupture
o B) Postpartum hemorrhage
o C) Fetal distress
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

77.Which maternal condition is most likely to cause intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)?

o A) Hypertension
o B) Hyperthyroidism
o C) Asthma
o D) Diabetes
o Answer: A) Hypertension

79.Which hormone is measured to confirm pregnancy?

o A) Estrogen
o B) Progesterone
o C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
o D) Prolactin
o Answer: C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

1. What is the true pelvis?

o A) The bony pelvis above the pelvic inlet
o B) The area below the pelvic inlet, including the birth canal
o C) The outer rim of the pelvis
o D) The space between the iliac bones
o Answer: B) The area below the pelvic inlet, including the birth canal

80.The pelvic inlet is also referred to as:

o A) The pelvic outlet

o B) The brim of the pelvis
o C) The ischial spine
o D) The sacral promontory
o Answer: B) The brim of the pelvis

81.Which of the following is the narrowest part of the female pelvic cavity?

o A) Pelvic inlet
o B) Midpelvis
o C) Pelvic outlet
 o D) Pelvic floor
o Answer: C) Pelvic outlet

82.The measurement from the pubic symphysis to the sacral promontory is called:

o A) True conjugate
o B) Diagonal conjugate
o C) Obstetric conjugate
o D) Anatomic conjugate
o Answer: A) True conjugate

83.Which pelvic measurement is commonly used to estimate the size of the pelvic inlet
during labor?

o A) Diagonal conjugate
o B) Obstetric conjugate
o C) Sacral promontory
o D) Interspinous diameter
o Answer: B) Obstetric conjugate

84.The diagonal conjugate is measured from:

o A) Pubic symphysis to sacral promontory

o B) Sacral promontory to pubic symphysis
o C) Iliac crest to sacral promontory
o D) Sacrum to coccyx
o Answer: A) Pubic symphysis to sacral promontory

85.What is the average normal measurement of the obstetric conjugate?

o A) 9-10 cm
o B) 10-11 cm
o C) 11-12 cm
o D) 12-13 cm
o Answer: B) 10-11 cm

86.Which pelvic measurement is most useful for determining if a woman can deliver
vaginally?

o A) Interspinous diameter
o B) True conjugate
o C) Sacral promontory
o D) Obstetric conjugate
o Answer: D) Obstetric conjugate

87.Which of the following is true about the interspinous diameter?

o A) It is the distance between the iliac crests

o B) It is the distance between the ischial spines
o C) It is the distance from the pubic symphysis to the sacral promontory
o D) It is the distance from the sacral promontory to the coccyx
o Answer: B) It is the distance between the ischial spines
88.What is the normal range for the interspinous diameter in an adult woman?

o A) 8-10 cm
o B) 10-12 cm
o C) 12-14 cm
o D) 14-16 cm
o Answer: B) 10-12 cm

89.The obstetric conjugate typically measures:

o A) 8-10 cm
o B) 10-12 cm
o C) 12-14 cm
o D) 14-16 cm
o Answer: A) 8-10 cm

90.What measurement reflects the ability of the pelvic outlet to accommodate the baby’s
head during delivery?

o A) True conjugate
o B) Diagonal conjugate
o C) Interspinous diameter
o D) Biischial diameter
o Answer: D) Biischial diameter

91.What is the significance of the sacral promontory during childbirth?

o A) It indicates the size of the uterus

o B) It marks the entrance of the pelvis
o C) It is used to assess pelvic outlet size
o D) It helps determine the angle of the pubic symphysis
o Answer: B) It marks the entrance of the pelvis

92.What is the measurement of the diagonal conjugate?

o A) From the pubic symphysis to the sacral promontory

o B) From the sacral promontory to the pubic symphysis
o C) From the coccyx to the sacrum
o D) From the ischial spines to the sacral promontory
o Answer: A) From the pubic symphysis to the sacral promontory

93.A normal pelvic inlet is classified as:

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: A) Gynecoid
2. Which of the following pelvic types is most favorable for vaginal delivery?
o A) Android
o B) Gynecoid
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
 o Answer: B) Gynecoid

94.The anthropoid pelvis is characterized by:

o A) A wide inlet and a narrow outlet

o B) A narrow inlet and a wide outlet
o C) A heart-shaped inlet
o D) An oval-shaped inlet with a long, narrow sacrum
o Answer: D) An oval-shaped inlet with a long, narrow sacrum

95.In which pelvic shape is the pelvic outlet the most narrow?

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: B) Android

96.A platypelloid pelvis is typically:

o A) Heart-shaped with a wide inlet

o B) Shallow with a wide transverse diameter
o C) Long with a narrow inlet
o D) Round with a narrow outlet
o Answer: B) Shallow with a wide transverse diameter

97.Which of the following pelvic shapes is least favorable for vaginal delivery?

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: B) Android

98.Which of the following pelvic measurements is most important for assessing the ability to
deliver vaginally?

o A) True conjugate
o B) Obstetric conjugate
o C) Interspinous diameter
o D) Diagonal conjugate
o Answer: B) Obstetric conjugate

99.The term "pelvic outlet" refers to:

o A) The bony structure above the pelvic inlet

o B) The distance from the sacrum to the coccyx
o C) The opening at the bottom of the pelvis through which the baby passes during
delivery
o D) The space between the iliac bones
o Answer: C) The opening at the bottom of the pelvis through which the baby passes
during delivery
3. What pelvic measurement is used to assess the pelvic outlet?
 o A) Interspinous diameter
o B) Diagonal conjugate
o C) Biischial diameter
o D) Obstetric conjugate
o Answer: C) Biischial diameter

100.What is the significance of the sacrosciatic notch in pelvic anatomy?

o A) It marks the entry of the pelvic cavity

o B) It serves as a reference for measuring pelvic height
o C) It provides support for the pelvic organs
o D) It aids in determining the angle of the pelvic inlet
o Answer: C) It provides support for the pelvic organs

101.Which part of the pelvis is most involved in the process of labor and delivery?

o A) The pelvic floor

o B) The sacrum
o C) The pelvic inlet
o D) The pelvic outlet
o Answer: D) The pelvic outlet

102.Which pelvic diameter is measured across the pelvic inlet?

o A) Transverse diameter
o B) Anteroposterior diameter
o C) Obstetric conjugate
o D) True conjugate
o Answer: A) Transverse diameter

103.A diagonal conjugate measurement that is less than 10 cm may suggest:

o A) A small pelvic inlet

o B) A narrow pelvic outlet
o C) An android pelvic type
o D) A wide pelvic outlet
o Answer: A) A small pelvic inlet

104.Which pelvic type is considered most suitable for a vaginal delivery due to its rounded
shape?

o A) Android
o B) Gynecoid
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: B) Gynecoid

105.The pelvic inlet is typically wider in which of the following types of pelvis?

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
 o Answer: A) Gynecoid

106.In a platypelloid pelvis, which of the following is true?

o A) The pelvis is very deep and narrow

o B) The inlet is round
o C) The inlet is shallow and wide
o D) The sacrum is very long
o Answer: C) The inlet is shallow and wide
4. The true conjugate is typically measured in:
o A) The pelvic outlet
o B) The pelvic inlet
o C) The sacrum
o D) The iliac crest
o Answer: B) The pelvic inlet

107.The average normal anteroposterior diameter of the pelvic inlet in adult women is:

o A) 11 cm
o B) 12 cm
o C) 13 cm
o D) 14 cm
o Answer: B) 12 cm

108.A diagonal conjugate measurement of less than 11 cm may indicate:

o A) A narrow pelvic outlet

o B) The need for a cesarean section
o C) A favorable pelvis for vaginal delivery
o D) No need for further intervention
o Answer: B) The need for a cesarean section

109.What is the significance of a narrow pelvic inlet?

o A) It increases the risk of difficult vaginal delivery

o B) It causes preterm labor
o C) It reduces the chance of successful vaginal delivery
o D) It has no effect on delivery
o Answer: A) It increases the risk of difficult vaginal delivery

110.The term "pelvic floor" refers to:

o A) The roof of the pelvic cavity

o B) The area beneath the pelvic inlet
o C) The floor of the abdominal cavity
o D) The bottom portion of the pelvis that supports organs
o Answer: D) The bottom portion of the pelvis that supports organs

111.Which of the following is a method used to assess pelvic size during a clinical exam?

o A) Measurement of the fundal height

o B) Pelvic imaging
o C) Bimanual pelvic examination
 o D) External abdominal ultrasound
o Answer: C) Bimanual pelvic examination

112.Which pelvic measurement is critical for determining if the fetus can pass through the
birth canal during labor?

o A) True conjugate
o B) Sacral promontory
o C) Biischial diameter
o D) Pelvic width
o Answer: C) Biischial diameter
5. The obstetric conjugate is typically shorter than the diagonal conjugate by approximately:
o A) 2-3 cm
o B) 3-4 cm
o C) 4-5 cm
o D) 5-6 cm
o Answer: A) 2-3 cm

113.Which pelvic type is most commonly seen in women of African descent?

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: C) Anthropoid

114.The obstetric conjugate measurement indicates the smallest diameter through which the
fetal head must pass during delivery. It is typically:

o A) Larger than the diagonal conjugate

o B) Smaller than the diagonal conjugate
o C) The same as the diagonal conjugate
o D) Measured at the pelvic floor
o Answer: B) Smaller than the diagonal conjugate

115.The typical width of the pelvic inlet in women with a gynecoid pelvis is:

o A) 10 cm
o B) 12 cm
o C) 14 cm
o D) 16 cm
o Answer: B) 12 cm

116.Which pelvic type is typically characterized by a heart-shaped inlet?

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: B) Android

117.The interspinous diameter is typically widest during:

 o A) Early pregnancy
o B) The second trimester
o C) The third trimester
o D) After childbirth
o Answer: C) The third trimester

118.Which of the following pelvic types may require a cesarean section due to the narrow
pelvic outlet?

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: B) Android

119.Which of the following pelvic diameters is often evaluated during labor to assess
delivery progress?

o A) True conjugate
o B) Sacral promontory
o C) Interspinous diameter
o D) Diagonal conjugate
o Answer: C) Interspinous diameter

120.Which pelvic type is associated with a deep, narrow inlet and an elongated sacrum?

o A) Gynecoid
o B) Android
o C) Anthropoid
o D) Platypelloid
o Answer: C) Anthropoid

121.The transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet is important for determining:

o A) Pelvic depth
o B) Outlet size
o C) Fetal head engagement
o D) Birth canal size
o Answer: C) Fetal head engagement

122.In women with a platypelloid pelvis, what is often seen regarding the pelvic inlet?

o A) It is shallow and wide

o B) It is narrow and deep
o C) It is round and balanced
o D) It is heart-shaped
o Answer: A) It is shallow and wide

123.A small true conjugate typically indicates a:

o A) High risk for pelvic dystocia

o B) Normal delivery outcome
o C) Larger pelvic outlet
 o D) Wide pelvic inlet
o Answer: A) High risk for pelvic dystocia

124.The measurement of the sacral promontory is important for evaluating:

o A) Pelvic height
o B) Pelvic width
o C) Pelvic inlet shape
o D) Pelvic outlet diameter
o Answer: C) Pelvic inlet shape

125.Which of the following is the definition of normal labor?

o A) A vaginal delivery without any complications

o B) The process of cervical dilation, effacement, and the birth of the baby
o C) Labor that lasts less than 6 hours
o D) A cesarean section with no complications
o Answer: B) The process of cervical dilation, effacement, and the birth of the baby

126.What is the normal duration of the first stage of labor in a nulliparous woman?

o A) 4-6 hours
o B) 6-12 hours
o C) 12-18 hours
o D) 18-24 hours
o Answer: B) 6-12 hours
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the latent phase of labor?
o A) Gradual cervical dilation
o B) Contractions are mild and irregular
o C) Dilatation from 6 cm to 10 cm
o D) The phase can last several hours
o Answer: C) Dilatation from 6 cm to 10 cm

127.During which phase of labor does the cervix dilate from 6 cm to 10 cm?

o A) Latent phase
o B) Active phase
o C) Transitional phase
o D) Second stage of labor
o Answer: B) Active phase

128.The second stage of labor is characterized by:

o A) Cervical dilation from 0 to 10 cm

o B) The delivery of the placenta
o C) The expulsion of the fetus
o D) The earliest signs of labor onset
o Answer: C) The expulsion of the fetus

129.What is the average duration of the second stage of labor in a nulliparous woman?

o A) 15 minutes to 1 hour
o B) 1 to 2 hours
 o C) 2 to 3 hours
o D) 3 to 4 hours
o Answer: B) 1 to 2 hours

130.What is the third stage of labor?

o A) The period of time when the cervix dilates to 10 cm

o B) The stage when the baby’s head crowns
o C) The expulsion of the placenta
o D) The stage when the uterus contracts to expel the baby
o Answer: C) The expulsion of the placenta

131.What hormone is primarily responsible for initiating uterine contractions during labor?

o A) Estrogen
o B) Progesterone
o C) Oxytocin
o D) Prolactin
o Answer: C) Oxytocin

132.Which of the following is a common sign of the onset of labor?

o A) Rapid increase in blood pressure

o B) Sudden and significant weight gain
o C) Bloody show (mucus plug discharge)
o D) Decreased fetal movement
o Answer: C) Bloody show (mucus plug discharge)

3.
4.
5.
6.

133.Which of the following describes a "good" contraction pattern in the active phase of
labor?

o A) Every 15 to 20 minutes
o B) Every 5 minutes, lasting for 30-40 seconds
o C) Irregular and unpredictable
o D) Every 10 minutes, lasting for 1 minute
o Answer: B) Every 5 minutes, lasting for 30-40 seconds

134.During the first stage of labor, cervical dilation should progress at a rate of:

o A) 1 cm per hour
o B) 2 cm per hour
o C) 0.5 cm per hour
o D) 3 cm per hour
o Answer: A) 1 cm per hour
135.The rupture of the membranes during labor is also known as:

o A) Bloody show
o B) Water breaking
o C) Cervical dilation
o D) Effacement
o Answer: B) Water breaking

136.What is effacement during labor?

o A) The thinning of the cervix

o B) The dilation of the cervix
o C) The descent of the baby’s head
o D) The expulsion of the placenta
o Answer: A) The thinning of the cervix

137.What is the expected fetal heart rate during normal labor?

o A) 100-120 bpm
o B) 120-160 bpm
o C) 160-180 bpm
o D) 180-200 bpm
o Answer: B) 120-160 bpm

138.Which of the following is NOT a common physical sign of the transition phase of labor?

o A) Strong, frequent contractions

o B) Sudden urge to push
o C) Dilation from 8 cm to 10 cm
o D) Feeling of intense fatigue and nausea
o Answer: B) Sudden urge to push

139.What is the primary purpose of the uterine contractions during the second stage of

labor?

o A) To thin the cervix

o B) To push the fetus down into the birth canal
o C) To expel the placenta
o D) To prevent cervical tear
o Answer: B) To push the fetus down into the birth canal

140.Which of the following indicates the baby is in the "crowning" stage during labor?

o A) The baby's head is fully delivered

o B) The baby's head starts to emerge from the vaginal opening
o C) The baby's heart rate increases
 o D) The amniotic sac ruptures
o Answer: B) The baby's head starts to emerge from the vaginal opening

141.Which of the following is a typical complication of normal labor?

o A) Premature rupture of membranes

o B) Uterine rupture
o C) Shoulder dystocia
o D) Postpartum hemorrhage
o Answer: D) Postpartum hemorrhage

142.What is the primary role of the nurse during normal labor?

o A) To make decisions about the delivery method

o B) To assist with the pushing process
o C) To monitor maternal and fetal well-being
o D) To perform cesarean sections if needed
o Answer: C) To monitor maternal and fetal well-being

143.At what point in the second stage of labor is the baby typically delivered?

o A) When the cervix is fully dilated

o B) When the contractions become irregular
o C) When the baby's head is crowning
o D) When the placenta is expelled
o Answer: C) When the baby's head is crowning

144.Which of the following is considered a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy?

o A) Gestational hypertension
o B) Pre-eclampsia
o C) Eclampsia
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

145.What is the main difference between gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?

o A) Presence of proteinuria
o B) Blood pressure readings
o C) Presence of swelling
o D) Timing of onset
o Answer: A) Presence of proteinuria
2. What is the definition of pre-eclampsia?
o A) Elevated blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria
o B) High blood pressure without any symptoms
o C) Blood pressure lower than 120/80 mmHg
o D) Increased blood pressure with hyperglycemia
o Answer: A) Elevated blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy with proteinuria

146.What is the most common complication of pre-eclampsia?

o A) Fetal growth restriction

o B) Preterm birth
 o C) Placental abruption
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

147.What blood pressure readings define gestational hypertension?

o A) Systolic BP ≥140 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥90 mmHg after 20 weeks of gestation without
proteinuria
o B) Systolic BP ≥130 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥80 mmHg
o C) Systolic BP ≥160 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥100 mmHg
o D) Systolic BP <120 mmHg or diastolic BP <80 mmHg
o Answer: A) Systolic BP ≥140 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥90 mmHg after 20 weeks of
gestation without proteinuria

148.Which of the following is a key characteristic of eclampsia?

o A) Elevated blood pressure with seizures

o B) High blood sugar and proteinuria
o C) Placental separation and severe headaches
o D) Proteinuria and edema
o Answer: A) Elevated blood pressure with seizures

149.The risk of developing pre-eclampsia is higher in which of the following?

o A) Women over 35 years old

o B) Women who are obese
o C) Women with a history of pre-eclampsia
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

150.What is the recommended treatment for severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia?

o A) Bed rest
o B) Antihypertensive therapy and magnesium sulfate
o C) Early delivery
o D) None of the above
o Answer: C) Early delivery

151.Which medication is commonly used to prevent seizures in women with eclampsia?

o A) Magnesium sulfate
o B) Labetalol
o C) Methyldopa
o D) Aspirin
o Answer: A) Magnesium sulfate
3. Which of the following is a common symptom of pre-eclampsia?
o A) Severe headache
o B) Blurred vision
o C) Upper abdominal pain
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
152.Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing gestational hypertension or
pre-eclampsia?

o A) Multiple gestation
o B) First pregnancy
o C) Advanced maternal age
o D) Regular physical activity
o Answer: D) Regular physical activity

153.What is the most accurate way to diagnose pre-eclampsia?

o A) Clinical symptoms
o B) Measurement of proteinuria
o C) Blood pressure measurements
o D) Combination of blood pressure and proteinuria
o Answer: D) Combination of blood pressure and proteinuria

154.What is the significance of proteinuria in pre-eclampsia?

o A) It is a sign of kidney dysfunction due to poor placental perfusion

o B) It indicates a lack of calcium in the urine
o C) It is a normal part of pregnancy
o D) It indicates hyperglycemia
o Answer: A) It is a sign of kidney dysfunction due to poor placental perfusion

155.How often should blood pressure be checked in women with suspected pre-eclampsia?

o A) Once per week

o B) Every two weeks
o C) Every visit
o D) Once per trimester
o Answer: C) Every visit

156.Which of the following is a potential complication of severe pre-eclampsia?

o A) Organ failure (e.g., liver, kidney)

o B) Stroke
o C) HELLP syndrome
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

157.What does HELLP syndrome stand for?

o A) Hypertension, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count

o B) Hyperglycemia, elevated liver enzymes, low protein levels
o C) Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count
o D) Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low progesterone levels
o Answer: C) Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count

158.Which of the following is a common treatment for gestational hypertension?

o A) Antihypertensive medications like labetalol

o B) Immediate delivery
 o C) Magnesium sulfate for seizure prevention
o D) Antidiabetic medications
o Answer: A) Antihypertensive medications like labetalol
4. What is the goal of antihypertensive therapy in hypertensive disorders of pregnancy?
o A) To lower blood pressure to normal levels immediately
o B) To prevent complications such as stroke or placental abruption
o C) To control blood pressure without lowering it too much
o D) To prevent preterm labor
o Answer: C) To control blood pressure without lowering it too much

159.Which of the following is a recommended strategy for preventing pre-eclampsia in high-

risk pregnancies?

o A) Routine use of low-dose aspirin

o B) Early induction of labor
o C) Strict bed rest
o D) Frequent ultrasounds for fetal monitoring
o Answer: A) Routine use of low-dose aspirin

160.What is the target blood pressure for treatment of pre-eclampsia with severe features?

o A) <140/90 mmHg
o B) <160/110 mmHg
o C) <120/80 mmHg
o D) <130/85 mmHg
o Answer: B) <160/110 mmHg

161.What is the primary purpose of administering magnesium sulfate to a woman with pre-
eclampsia?

o A) To lower blood pressure

o B) To prevent seizures
o C) To promote fetal lung maturity
o D) To reduce proteinuria
o Answer: B) To prevent seizures

162.What is the recommended treatment for a pregnant woman who develops eclampsia?

o A) Immediate delivery and administration of magnesium sulfate

o B) Bed rest and blood pressure monitoring
o C) Administration of antihypertensive medications
o D) Observation and continued pregnancy monitoring
o Answer: A) Immediate delivery and administration of magnesium sulfate

163.What is a common method to assess fetal well-being in cases of hypertensive disorders

of pregnancy?

o A) Non-stress test (NST)

o B) Fetal MRI
o C) Biophysical profile (BPP)
o D) Amniocentesis
o Answer: C) Biophysical profile (BPP)
164.Which of the following is the most serious complication of eclampsia?

o A) Placental abruption
o B) Fetal distress
o C) Maternal stroke
o D) Preterm birth
o Answer: C) Maternal stroke
5. Which of the following conditions is associated with a higher risk of pre-eclampsia?
o A) History of diabetes mellitus
o B) Pre-existing hypertension
o C) Obesity
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

165.When should antihypertensive medications be started in a woman with gestational

hypertension?

o A) As soon as the diagnosis is confirmed

o B) If blood pressure exceeds 160/110 mmHg
o C) At the first sign of edema
o D) After proteinuria is detected
o Answer: B) If blood pressure exceeds 160/110 mmHg

166.How is pre-eclampsia managed in terms of timing of delivery?

o A) Delivery should be delayed until the woman reaches 40 weeks

o B) Delivery should occur as soon as the condition worsens, typically at 37 weeks or
earlier
o C) Delivery should occur at 28 weeks
o D) Delivery is not indicated unless fetal distress occurs
o Answer: B) Delivery should occur as soon as the condition worsens, typically at 37 weeks
or earlier

167.What is a common laboratory finding in a woman with HELLP syndrome?

o A) Elevated blood glucose

o B) Low platelet count
o C) Elevated white blood cell count
o D) High hemoglobin levels
o Answer: B) Low platelet count

168.What is the main cause of hypertension in pregnancy?

o A) Genetic factors
o B) Pregnancy-induced vascular changes
o C) Lack of prenatal care
o D) Inadequate exercise during pregnancy
o Answer: B) Pregnancy-induced vascular changes

169.Which of the following conditions may lead to a diagnosis of chronic hypertension

during pregnancy?
 o A) Hypertension that is diagnosed before 20 weeks of pregnancy and persists after
delivery
o B) Hypertension that develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy and resolves after delivery
o C) High blood pressure that lasts only during the first trimester
o D) Hypertension only seen during labor
o Answer: A) Hypertension that is diagnosed before 20 weeks of pregnancy and persists
after delivery

170.Which of the following can be a result of untreated severe pre-eclampsia?

o A) Maternal death
o B) Fetal death
o C) Placental insufficiency
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

171.What is the purpose of antenatal corticosteroids in pre-eclampsia?

o A) To improve maternal blood pressure

o B) To reduce the risk of preterm birth complications, particularly lung immaturity
o C) To treat fetal growth restriction
o D) To control seizures
o Answer: B) To reduce the risk of preterm birth complications, particularly lung
immaturity

172.Which of the following is a non-pharmacologic management strategy for women with

mild gestational hypertension?

o A) Immediate induction
o B) Bed rest and limited physical activity
o C) High-protein diet
o D) Regular blood pressure monitoring and lifestyle modifications
o Answer: D) Regular blood pressure monitoring and lifestyle modifications

173.What is a key concern in the postpartum period for women with hypertensive disorders
in pregnancy?

o A) Development of postpartum hemorrhage

o B) Risk of chronic hypertension
o C) Risk of further pre-eclampsia in future pregnancies
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

174.Which of the following can contribute to the development of pre-eclampsia?

o A) Abnormal placentation
o B) Overactivity of the renin-angiotensin system
 o C) Endothelial dysfunction
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

175.What is the role of low-dose aspirin in preventing pre-eclampsia in high-risk women?

o A) It reduces the incidence of pre-eclampsia by improving placental blood flow

o B) It directly lowers blood pressure
o C) It acts as a blood thinner to prevent clots
o D) It prevents gestational diabetes
o **Answer: A) It reduces the

176.Which is a sign of worsening pre-eclampsia that requires immediate intervention?

o A) Decreased fetal movement

o B) Headache and visual disturbances
o C) Proteinuria >2g/24h
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
38. Which of the following is a contraindication for using magnesium sulfate?
o A) Severe renal failure
o B) Hypertension greater than 160/110
o C) Normal proteinuria
o D) Severe headache
o Answer: A) Severe renal failure

177.What is the most common antihypertensive drug used during pregnancy?

o A) Methyldopa
o B) Labetalol
o C) Nifedipine
o D) Amlodipine
o Answer: B) Labetalol

178.Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored in a woman with HELLP
syndrome?

o A) Complete blood count (CBC) to assess platelet levels

o B) Liver function tests (LFTs) to check for liver damage
o C) Serum creatinine for kidney function
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

179.What does the "S" in HELLP syndrome stand for?

o A) Sepsis
o B) Swelling
o C) Stroke
o D) Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)
o Answer: D) Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)

180.What is a major concern when using antihypertensive medications in hypertensive

pregnant women?
 o A) Teratogenic effects
o B) Preterm labor
o C) Fetal bradycardia
o D) Fluid retention
o Answer: A) Teratogenic effects

181.At what stage of pregnancy does gestational hypertension typically develop?

o A) First trimester
o B) 20 weeks or later
o C) 28 weeks or later
o D) 37 weeks or later
o Answer: B) 20 weeks or later

182.What is the primary goal of treating hypertensive disorders during pregnancy?

o A) To normalize the mother’s blood pressure immediately

o B) To reduce maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality
o C) To improve maternal immune response
o D) To ensure fetal growth
o Answer: B) To reduce maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality
39. What maternal health problem is most commonly associated with severe pre-eclampsia?
o A) Stroke
o B) Hyperthyroidism
o C) Diabetes mellitus
o D) Asthma
o Answer: A) Stroke

183.What is a potential long-term risk for women who experience pre-eclampsia in

pregnancy?

o A) Development of chronic hypertension

o B) Increased risk of breast cancer
o C) Risk of recurrent miscarriage
o D) Risk of hyperthyroidism
o Answer: A) Development of chronic hypertension

184.Which of the following is a management strategy for women with chronic hypertension
during pregnancy?

o A) Bed rest and regular monitoring

o B) Antihypertensive medications as needed
o C) Urinary catheter placement
o D) Scheduled cesarean delivery
o Answer: B) Antihypertensive medications as needed

185.What should be monitored regularly in women with severe pre-eclampsia?

o A) Fetal heart rate

o B) Maternal liver function tests
o C) Blood pressure
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
186.Which of the following is a sign of impending eclampsia?

o A) Sudden weight gain

o B) Seizure activity
o C) Excessive fetal movement
o D) Insomnia
o Answer: B) Seizure activity

187.Which of the following is a long-term management strategy for women with

hypertensive disorders during pregnancy?

o A) Birth control to prevent future pregnancies

o B) Regular monitoring for chronic hypertension and kidney disease
o C) High-protein diet to improve placental health
o D) Aggressive physical therapy
o Answer: B) Regular monitoring for chronic hypertension and kidney disease

188.What is the most common type of multiple pregnancy?

o A) Monochorionic, monoamniotic
o B) Monochorionic, diamniotic
o C) Dichorionic, diamniotic
o D) Dichorionic, monoamniotic
o Answer: C) Dichorionic, diamniotic
2. Which of the following is a key risk factor for multiple pregnancies?
o A) Advanced maternal age
o B) Use of fertility treatments
o C) Family history of twins
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

189.What is the main difference between dizygotic (fraternal) and monozygotic (identical)
twins?

o A) Dizygotic twins come from two separate eggs, while monozygotic twins come from
one fertilized egg.
o B) Monozygotic twins are always the same sex, while dizygotic twins can be different
sexes.
o C) Dizygotic twins share the same placenta, while monozygotic twins have separate
placentas.
o D) None of the above
o Answer: A) Dizygotic twins come from two separate eggs, while monozygotic twins
come from one fertilized egg.

190.At what stage does a monozygotic pregnancy typically split to form two embryos?

o A) During fertilization
o B) At the blastocyst stage (about 5-7 days post-fertilization)
o C) At 14 days after fertilization
o D) During implantation
o Answer: B) At the blastocyst stage (about 5-7 days post-fertilization)

191.Which of the following is a potential complication of multiple pregnancies?

 o A) Preterm labor
o B) Preeclampsia
o C) Growth restriction
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

192.Which of the following is true about monochorionic diamniotic twins?

o A) They share one placenta and one amniotic sac.

o B) They have separate placentas but share one amniotic sac.
o C) They share one placenta but have separate amniotic sacs.
o D) They have separate placentas and separate amniotic sacs.
o Answer: C) They share one placenta but have separate amniotic sacs.

193.What is the most significant risk associated with monochorionic monoamniotic twins?

o A) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)

o B) Umbilical cord entanglement
o C) Preterm birth
o D) Low birth weight
o Answer: B) Umbilical cord entanglement

194.Which of the following is commonly recommended for women with multiple

pregnancies?

o A) More frequent prenatal visits

o B) Increased rest and avoidance of strenuous activity
o C) Ultrasound monitoring for growth and development
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
3. What is the term used for when one twin receives more blood flow than the other, leading
to unequal growth?
o A) Fetal growth restriction
o B) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)
o C) Placental abruption
o D) Polyhydramnios
o Answer: B) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)

195.What is the typical mode of delivery for a woman carrying twins?

o A) Vaginal delivery for all twin pregnancies

o B) Cesarean section for all twin pregnancies
o C) Vaginal delivery is preferred if both twins are in a favorable position
o D) Planned cesarean for all twin pregnancies
o Answer: C) Vaginal delivery is preferred if both twins are in a favorable position

196.What condition is characterized by excessive amniotic fluid in one of the sacs of a twin
pregnancy?

o A) Oligohydramnios
o B) Polyhydramnios
o C) Preterm labor
o D) Placenta previa
 o Answer: B) Polyhydramnios

197.Which of the following is an indication for a cesarean section in a twin pregnancy?

o A) Both twins are in cephalic presentation

o B) First twin is in breech presentation
o C) Both twins are in breech presentation
o D) Both twins are in vertex presentation
o Answer: B) First twin is in breech presentation

198.Which of the following is true regarding the risk of preterm birth in multiple
pregnancies?

o A) Multiple pregnancies have a significantly lower risk of preterm birth compared to

singleton pregnancies.
o B) The risk of preterm birth increases with the number of fetuses.
o C) Preterm birth is not a concern in twin pregnancies.
o D) There is no difference in the risk of preterm birth between twin pregnancies and
singleton pregnancies.
o Answer: B) The risk of preterm birth increases with the number of fetuses.

199.At what week of gestation is it most common for a woman carrying twins to deliver?

o A) 32-34 weeks
o B) 36-38 weeks
o C) 40-42 weeks
o D) 28-30 weeks
o Answer: A) 32-34 weeks

200.What prenatal screening test is commonly used for multiple pregnancies to assess the
risk of chromosomal abnormalities?

o A) Ultrasound
o B) Amniocentesis
o C) Quad screen
o D) Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
o Answer: C) Quad screen

201.What is the primary reason for performing ultrasounds more frequently in multiple
pregnancies?

o A) To check for birth defects

o B) To monitor fetal growth and well-being
o C) To determine the sex of the babies
o D) To monitor the mother's weight gain
o Answer: B) To monitor fetal growth and well-being
202.Which of the following is the most common complication for twins, especially in
monochorionic pregnancies?

o A) Anemia
o B) Gestational diabetes
o C) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)
o D) Pre-eclampsia
o Answer: C) Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)

203.What is the best method of preventing twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)?

o A) Prenatal vitamins
o B) Close monitoring with ultrasounds
o C) Bed rest
o D) Steroid injections
o Answer: B) Close monitoring with ultrasounds

204.Which of the following is a potential complication of a multiple pregnancy that may

affect the mother?

o A) Increased risk of gestational hypertension

o B) Increased risk of pre-eclampsia
o C) Excessive weight gain
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

205.What is a common symptom that women with multiple pregnancies may experience
more than those with singletons?

o A) Increased nausea and vomiting

o B) Lower back pain
o C) Increased fatigue
o D) Decreased fetal movement
o Answer: C) Increased fatigue

206.What is the recommended weight gain for a woman carrying twins during pregnancy?

o A) 25-35 pounds
o B) 35-45 pounds
o C) 50-60 pounds
o D) 10-15 pounds
o Answer: B) 35-45 pounds

207.What is the term used for a condition in which one twin has excessive amniotic fluid and
the other has insufficient amniotic fluid?

o A) Oligohydramnios
 o B) Polyhydramnios
o C) Discordant growth
o D) Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)
o Answer: D) Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)

208.Which of the following is a common indication for early delivery in multiple

pregnancies?

o A) Maternal hypertension
o B) Fetal distress
o C) Preterm labor
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

209.Which of the following is a risk factor for a woman carrying triplets or higher-order
multiples?

o A) Higher risk of preterm birth

o B) Increased risk of gestational diabetes
o C) Increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

210.Which type of multiple pregnancy requires careful monitoring for the risk of "stuck twin
syndrome"?

o A) Dichorionic, diamniotic
o B) Monochorionic, diamniotic
o C) Monochorionic, monoamniotic
o D) None of the above
o Answer: B) Monochorionic, diamniotic

211.What is the risk of preterm birth in a woman carrying triplets?

o A) 10-20%
o B) 25-50%
o C) 60-80%
o D) 90%
o Answer: C) 60-80%

212.What is a key difference between a dichorionic and monochorionic pregnancy?

o A) The number of fetuses

o B) The number of placentas
o C) The number of amniotic sacs
o D) The timing of conception
o Answer: B) The number of placentas
4. Which of the following is a common complication of a multiple pregnancy that involves
intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)?
o A) A single fetus growing at an abnormal rate
o B) A disproportionate growth rate between the fetuses
o C) Excessive fluid accumulation
o D) Increased fetal movement
 o Answer: B) A disproportionate growth rate between the fetuses

213.What is a major concern during labor for women with multiple pregnancies?

o A) Placental abruption
o B) Shoulder dystocia
o C) Prolonged labor or difficult delivery
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

214.What is the recommended method of delivery for a woman carrying triplets?

o A) Vaginal delivery for all cases

o B) Cesarean section in all cases
o C) Vaginal delivery if all babies are in a favorable position
o D) Vaginal delivery only if the first two babies are vertex
o Answer: B) Cesarean section in all cases

215.What is considered preterm labor?

o A) Labor before 37 weeks of gestation

o B) Labor after 36 weeks of gestation
o C) Labor at 40 weeks of gestation
o D) Labor before 35 weeks of gestation
o Answer: A) Labor before 37 weeks of gestation

216.Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for preterm birth?

o A) Smoking
o B) Advanced maternal age
o C) Multiple gestation
o D) Low socioeconomic status
o Answer: C) Multiple gestation

217.What is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality?

o A) Preterm birth
o B) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
o C) Preeclampsia
o D) Gestational diabetes
o Answer: A) Preterm birth

218.Which of the following is a common symptom of preterm labor?

o A) Abdominal cramping
o B) Decreased fetal movement
o C) Severe headache
o D) Visual disturbances
o Answer: A) Abdominal cramping
2. Which of the following can increase the risk of preterm birth?
o A) Prior preterm birth
o B) Smoking during pregnancy
o C) Multiple pregnancies
 o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

219.Which of the following tests can help assess the risk of preterm birth?

o A) Ultrasound to assess cervical length

o B) Amniocentesis
o C) Biophysical profile
o D) Doppler studies
o Answer: A) Ultrasound to assess cervical length

220.What is the most common cause of preterm labor in women without known risk factors?

o A) Infection
o B) Stress
o C) Fetal abnormalities
o D) Placental problems
o Answer: A) Infection

221.What medication is commonly used to delay preterm labor?

o A) Magnesium sulfate
o B) Tocolytics
o C) Steroids
o D) Antibiotics
o Answer: B) Tocolytics

222.What is the primary goal of administering corticosteroids during preterm labor?

o A) To reduce fetal lung maturity

o B) To accelerate labor
o C) To enhance fetal lung maturity
o D) To reduce uterine contractions
o Answer: C) To enhance fetal lung maturity

223.Which of the following is a contraindication for tocolysis?

o A) Cervical dilation of 4 cm
o B) Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)
o C) Active infection
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

224.What is the recommended first-line treatment for preterm labor if the cervix is dilated
less than 4 cm?

o A) Antibiotics
o B) Tocolytics
o C) Corticosteroids
o D) Magnesium sulfate
o Answer: B) Tocolytics

225.Which of the following is NOT a common complication of preterm birth?

 o A) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)
o B) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
o C) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
o D) Ectopic pregnancy
o Answer: D) Ectopic pregnancy

226.Which of the following is the most commonly used tocolytic drug?

o A) Nifedipine
o B) Indomethacin
o C) Terbutaline
o D) Magnesium sulfate
o Answer: A) Nifedipine

227.What is the main risk factor for preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM)?

o A) Infection
o B) Advanced maternal age
o C) Previous cesarean section
o D) Placenta previa
o Answer: A) Infection

228.Which of the following is the most effective strategy for preventing preterm birth in
women with a history of preterm birth?

o A) Bed rest
o B) Progesterone supplementation
o C) Antibiotics
o D) Increased folic acid intake
o Answer: B) Progesterone supplementation

229.What is the primary purpose of administering magnesium sulfate in preterm labor?

o A) To promote fetal lung maturity

o B) To inhibit uterine contractions
o C) To treat infection
o D) To reduce blood pressure
o Answer: B) To inhibit uterine contractions

230.At what gestational age should corticosteroids be administered to improve fetal lung
maturity in preterm labor?

o A) 24-26 weeks
o B) 28-34 weeks
o C) 36-38 weeks
o D) 40 weeks
o Answer: B) 28-34 weeks
231.Which of the following is a sign of preterm labor?

o A) Persistent back pain

o B) Tightening of the abdomen
o C) Regular contractions every 10 minutes or less
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
3. What is the first step in managing suspected preterm labor?
o A) Administer tocolytics
o B) Perform a cervical exam and ultrasound
o C) Begin corticosteroid therapy
o D) Perform amniocentesis
o Answer: B) Perform a cervical exam and ultrasound

232.Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with an increased risk
of preterm birth?

o A) Chronic hypertension
o B) Preeclampsia
o C) Diabetes mellitus
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

233.Which of the following is a common cause of preterm labor in women with a short
cervix?

o A) Infections
o B) Previous cervical surgery
o C) Uterine anomalies
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

234.What is the primary management for a woman with preterm labor and no
contraindications to vaginal delivery?

o A) Immediate cesarean section

o B) Cervical cerclage
o C) Prophylactic antibiotics and magnesium sulfate
o D) Close monitoring and possible tocolysis
o Answer: D) Close monitoring and possible tocolysis

235.What is the most common complication of preterm birth?

o A) Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

o B) Postpartum hemorrhage
o C) Pre-eclampsia
o D) Gestational diabetes
o Answer: A) Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

236.Which of the following is the most likely cause of preterm birth in a woman who has had
no previous pregnancies?

o A) Uterine abnormalities
 o B) Placental abruption
o C) Infections
o D) Previous cesarean delivery
o Answer: C) Infections

237.Which of the following tests can be used to diagnose preterm labor?

o A) Fetal fibronectin test

o B) Serum progesterone levels
o C) Cervical length measurement
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above
4. What is the purpose of administering corticosteroids to women in preterm labor?
o A) To increase blood pressure
o B) To decrease uterine contractions
o C) To accelerate fetal lung development
o D) To treat infection
o Answer: C) To accelerate fetal lung development

238.At what gestational age is the risk of preterm birth highest?

o A) 24-28 weeks
o B) 30-34 weeks
o C) 34-37 weeks
o D) 37-40 weeks
o Answer: A) 24-28 weeks

239.Which of the following is a common symptom of preterm labor in the third trimester?

o A) Severe headache
o B) Blood in urine
o C) Lower abdominal cramping
o D) Excessive fetal movement
o Answer: C) Lower abdominal cramping

240.Which of the following interventions is NOT recommended for preventing preterm

labor?

o A) Progesterone therapy
o B) Cervical cerclage for short cervix
o C) Bed rest
o D) Regular prenatal visits
o Answer: C) Bed rest

241.When is the risk of preterm birth highest in women with multiple gestations?

o A) Early first trimester

o B) Mid-second trimester
o C) Late second trimester to early third trimester
o D) Late third trimester
o Answer: C) Late second trimester to early third trimester

242.What does fetal fibronectin (fFN) testing assess in women with suspected preterm labor?
 o A) The presence of infection
o B) The risk of preterm birth
o C) The cervical dilation
o D) The fetal heart rate
o Answer: B) The risk of preterm birth

243.Which of the following is a key factor in the management of preterm labor?

o A) Fluid hydration
o B) Bed rest
o C) Antibiotics
o D) Fetal monitoring
o Answer: D) Fetal monitoring
5. What is the role of magnesium sulfate in the management of preterm labor?
o A) To inhibit uterine contractions
o B) To treat fetal infection
o C) To prevent preeclampsia
o D) To prevent fetal distress
o Answer: A) To inhibit uterine contractions

244.What is the best predictor of preterm birth in a woman with preterm labor symptoms?

o A) Cervical length
o B) Fetal fibronectin levels
o C) Maternal age
o D) Number of previous pregnancies
o Answer: A) Cervical length

245.What is the most likely consequence of preterm birth before 32 weeks of gestation?

o A) Cerebral palsy
o B) Chronic lung disease
o C) Intraventricular hemorrhage
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

246.Which of the following is NOT typically used to treat preterm labor?

o A) Tocolytics
o B) Corticosteroids
o C) Magnesium sulfate
o D) Antihypertensive medications
o Answer: D) Antihypertensive medications

247.What is the primary treatment goal in women with PPROM (preterm premature rupture
of membranes)?

o A) Prevent infection
o B) Induce labor immediately
o C) Promote fetal growth
o D) Start magnesium sulfate
o Answer: A) Prevent infection
248.Which of the following increases the risk of PPROM?

o A) Short cervix
o B) Uterine infection
o C) Previous PPROM
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above

249.What is the most common cause of preterm birth in women with no known risk factors?

o A) Uterine abnormalities
o B) Preterm premature rupture of membranes
o C) Infections
o D) Placental abnormalities
o Answer: C) Infections

250.Which of the following conditions may require a cesarean section delivery in the case of
preterm labor?

o A) Malpresentation
o B) Fetal distress
o C) Cervical dilation >5 cm
o D) All of the above
o Answer: D) All of the above