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Chapter 10
Animal Kingdom
(General Accounts & Non-Chordates)

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Metazoa, Basis of Classification)
1. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) All members of the kingdom Animalia are multicellular
(2) Nature of coelom is used as one of the basis of animal classification
(3) There is no need of classification now as over a million species of animals have been described till now
(4) The arrangement of cells in the body is one of the classifying feature of the animals
Sol. Answer (3)
In kingdom animalia, till now over a million species have been described. Animalia is largest kingdom, with
over 1.2 million members. Due to such large number of member species, the need for classification becomes
more important.

2. The only incorrectly matched pair is

Phylum Level of organisation
(1) Porifera – Cellular level
(2) Cnidaria – Tissue level
(3) Annelida – Organ level only
(4) Mollusca – Organ system level
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) Porifera – Cellular level
(2) Cnidaria – Tissue level
(3) Annelida – Organ-system level
(4) Mollusca – Organ-system level

3. A complete digestive system has

(1) Single opening that serves as both mouth and anus
(2) Two openings, one as mouth and other as anus
(3) Single opening that acts as mouth only
(4) Two openings, both act as mouth as well as anus
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 2 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Digestive tract with two openings, mouth for ingestion and anus for egestion is known as complete digestive
system.

4. In closed circulatory system

(1) The cells and tissues are directly bathed in the blood pumped out by heart
(2) Arteries and veins are lacking
(3) The capillaries are largest blood vessels and closed at their ends
(4) Blood circulates through a series of vessels of varying diameters
Sol. Answer (4)
Closed circulatory system is a type of blood vascular system in which blood flows inside blood vessels of varying
diameter (arteries, veins, capillaries) without coming in direct contact with body cells. Closed circulatory system
is observed in annelids, cephalopod molluscs, chordates.

5. Which of the following fundamental feature is common to Balanoglossus, Anopheles and Laccifer without any
exception?

(1) Marine habitat (2) Members of largest phylum of animal kingdom

(3) Open circulatory system (4) External fertilisation

Sol. Answer (3)

Balanoglossus – Belongs to phylum Hemichordata.

Anopheles – Belongs to phylum Arthropoda

Laccifer – Belongs to phylum Arthropoda

Both Hemichordate and Arthropoda have open circulatory system, without any exception.

6. Match the animals in Column-I with their common names in Column-II

Column-I Column-II

a. Limulus (i) Tusk shell

b. Ophiura (ii) Tapeworm

c. Taenia (iii) Brain coral

d. Meandrina (iv) King crab

e. Dentalium (v) Brittle star

(1) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii), e(i) (2) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii), e(i)

(3) a(v), b(ii), c(iii), d(i), e(iv) (4) a(iv), b(v), c(iii), d(i), e(ii)

Sol. Answer (2)

a. Limulus – King crab – Living fossil

b. Ophiura – Brittle star – Phylum Echinodermata

c. Taenia – Tapeworm – Phylum Platyhelminthes

d. Meandrina – Brain coral – Class Anthozoa, Phylum – Cnidaria

e. Dentalium – Tusk shell – Class Scaphopoda, Phylum – Mollusca

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Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) 3
(Classification of Animals)
• Phylum : Porifera

7. Mesoglea is
(1) A germinal layer present between ectoderm and endoderm
(2) An undifferentiated layer present between ectoderm and endoderm
(3) Another name of mesoderm
(4) A spongy layer of skin
Sol. Answer (2)
In diploblastic animals, developing embryo has only two germinal layers i.e. external ectoderm and internal
endoderm. Mesoderm layer is not present between ectoderm and endoderm but an undifferentiated, jelly like
layer is present between them. This undifferentiated layer is called Mesoglea.
Mesoglea Ectoderm

Endoderm

Germinal layers in diploblastic animals

8. The pecularity of sponges is

(1) Canal system (2) Water vascular system
(3) Central gastro vascular cavity (4) Bioluminescence
Sol. Answer (1)
Canal system is peculiar property of sponges where canal system is a system of interconnected chambers,
canals and their openings.
Also water vascular system is peculiar property of Echinoderms. Central gastrovascular cavity is property of
cnidarians. Bioluminescence is property of ctenophora.

9. Choanocytes are present in

(1) Physalia (2) Sycon (3) Pleurobrachia (4) Echinus
Sol. Answer (2)
Choanocytes or collar cells are characteristic cells of porifers/sponges. In sponges, canal and spongocoel are
internally lined by choanocytes.
In options, Physalia belongs to cnidaria/coelenterata. Sycon belongs to porifera/sponges.
Pleurobrachia belongs to ctenophora.
Echinus is a sea-urchins and belongs to Echinodermata.

10. In Poriferans, the skeleton is made up of

(1) Spongin fibres and spicules (2) Calcareous ossicles
(3) Chitinous spicules (4) Cartilage

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 4 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (1)

In porifera skeleton is made by two types of cells.
 Scleroblast : They secrete spicules. In calcareous sponges, they are called calcoblast and in silicious
sponges, they are called silicoblast.
 Spongioblast : They secrete spongin fibre of mesohyal layer in sponges.

11. Water enters the body of sponges through

(1) Osculum (2) Hypostome (3) Muscular pharynx (4) Ostia
Sol. Answer (4)
Sponges are also called as porifera, means pore bearing animals. Sponges have perforated body with numerous
opening called ostia. Through ostia water enters inside sponges.
A larger opening through which water flows out of sponge is called osculum. So porifera have enumerate mouth
like pore called ostia for entry of water and single large pore for exit of water called osculum.

12. All of the following statements are correct for Poriferans, except
(1) Eggs and sperms are produced by the same individual
(2) They are generally marine and mostly asymmetrical animals
(3) They reproduce sexually as well as asexually
(4) They have an extracellular type of digestion
Sol. Answer (4)
Sponges are hermaphrodite i.e. male and female gamete is produced by same individual. Most of sponges are
marine and asymmetric animals. Both sexual and asexual reproduction occur in them.
Sponges have intracellular digestion as food is digested with in food vacuoles inside the cells. There is no
extracellular digestion in sponges.
• Phylum : Coelenterata

13. Which of the following is not the function of cnidoblasts?

(1) Digestion of food (2) Anchorage (3) Defense (4) Capture of prey
Sol. Answer (1)
Cnidoblast are stinging cells of phylum cnidaria/ctenophora. Projecting cnidoblast act as organ for offence and
defense.
 Cnidoblast help in capturing the prey by coiling around the prey.
 Cnidoblast protect cnidarian by either paralyzing or killing other animal with help of toxin and spines.
 Cnidoblast secrete sticky substances which provide anchorage for locomotion.

14. Coelenterates are

(1) Asymmetric animals (2) Radially symmetric animals
(3) Bilaterally symmetric animals (4) Spherically symmetric animals
Sol. Answer (2)
Coelenterates are radially symmetric animals. In radially symmetric animals any plane passing through centre,
divide organism in two identical halves.

15. Digestion in coelenterates is

(1) Only intracellular (2) Only extracellular
(3) Both extracellular and intracellular (4) Not required

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Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) 5
Sol. Answer (3)
Digestion is both extracellular as well as intracellular in cnidaria. Firstly there is extracellular digestion in
gastrovascular cavity and then intracellular digestion involving gastrodermal muscular endothelial cells.

16. Metagenesis can be seen in

(1) Adamsia (2) Hydra (3) Physalia (4) Meandrina
Sol. Answer (3)
Metagenesis (alteration of generation), where cnidarians exist in both forms of life i.e., cylindrical, sessile polyp
form and umbrella shaped free-swimming medusa form.
e.g. Obelia, Physalia
Obelia and Physalia belong to class hydrozoa.

17. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of cnidarians?

(1) They exhibit tissue level of organisation (2) They may be aquatic or terrestrial
(3) They may be sessile or free-swimming (4) They are diploblastic animals
Sol. Answer (2)
All cnidarians possess aquatic habitat. They are not terrestrial animals.
• Phylum : Ctenophora

18. Comb jellies are _______ and jelly fishes are _______ respectively.
(1) Echinoderms, Ctenophores (2) Ctenophores, Echinoderms
(3) Ctenophores, Cnidarians (4) Cnidarians, Echinoderms
Sol. Answer (3)
Comb jellies belong to phylum ctenophora. Comb jellies bear eight median comb plates. These comb plates
bear cillia which fuses to form ciliated plates, giving them comb like appearance.
Jelly fishes belong to phylum cnidaria.

19. The ciliated comb plates in Pleurobrachia are meant for

(1) Reproduction (2) Digestion (3) Protection (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (4)
Pleurobrachia (Sea gooseberry) belongs to phylum ctenophora. Ctenophores bear eight median comb plates.
These comb plates bear cilia which are fused to make these plates ciliated. The ciliated comb plates help in
locomotion.

20. Ctenoplana belongs to a group of animals which are best described as

(1) Unicellular with tissue level of organisation
(2) Multicellular with radially symmetrical body
(3) Multicellular with organ level of organisation
(4) Unicellular with bilaterally symmetrical bodies
Sol. Answer (2)
Ctenoplana belong to phylum ctenophora. Ctenophores are multicellular animals, which are radially symmetric
and have tissue level of organization.

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 6 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

21. Bioluminescence is well-marked in which of the following phyla?

(1) Ctenophora (2) Mollusca (3) Hemichordata (4) Annelida
Sol. Answer (1)
Bioluminescence is property of production and emission of light by a living organism.
This property is well maked in ctenophores. Most ctenophores emit light by special light producing cells called
photocytes.

• Phylum : Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes

22. Which specialised cells are present for excretion in the phylum platyhelminthes?
(1) Collar cells (2) Cnidoblasts (3) Flame cells (4) Nematocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
Flame cells are specialised cells of platyhelminthes which help in excretion as well as osmoregulation. Flame
cells are named so, because of their flickering flame like appearance. Flame cells are also called protonephridia.

23. High regeneration capacity is possessed by

(1) Aurelia (2) Pheretima (3) Bombyx (4) Planaria
Sol. Answer (4)
Regeneration is ability of organism to replace its lost or damaged part or ability to develop complete and normal
individual from a part of body. Planaria (Dugesia) have high regeneration power.

24. The aschelminthes are commonly called roundworms because

(1) They have a round body (2) Their body is circular in cross-section
(3) They have bilaterally symmetric body (4) Their body have a round visceral hump
Sol. Answer (2)
In aschelminthes body is commonly cylindrical and elongated, tapering at both ends. In a cross section, body
appears round or circular. Because of this body form, the animals are called round worms.

25. All of the following are monoecious, except

(1) Fasciola (2) Spongilla (3) Ascaris (4) Ctenoplana
Sol. Answer (3)
Animals having both female and male sex organs in same organism are called monoecious, bisexual,
hermaphrodite. Spongilla (fresh water sponge), ctenoplana (ctenophora) and Fasciola (liver fluke) are monoecious
or bisexual organisms. Ascaris are dioecious (unisexual), where male and females are distinct or different from
each other.

26. Hookworm is the common name of

(1) Wuchereria (2) Ancylostoma (3) Taenia (4) Fasciola
Sol. Answer (2)
Common name for Wuchereria is filarial worm
Common name for Ancyclostoma is hook worm
Common name for Taenia soluim is pork tapeworm
Common name for Fasciola is liver fluke

27. Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm in
(1) Annelids (2) Echinoderms (3) Molluscs (4) Aschelminthes
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Sol. Answer (4)
Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate where body cavity is present but it is not completely lined by mesoderm,
but mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm.

28. In Aschelminthes the excretory tube removes body wastes from the body cavity through
(1) Excretory pore (2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Flame cells (4) Diffusion from body surface
Sol. Answer (1)
An excretory tube is present in aschelminthes, which removes body waste through excretory pore. This
excretory tube collects body waste from body cavity and removes it out through excretory pore.

29. The only phylum bearing pseudocoelom is

(1) Annelida (2) Porifera (3) Aschelminthes (4) Platyhelminthes
Sol. Answer (3)
Only phylum aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate animals where body cavity is present but it is not completely
lined by mesoderm, but mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm.

30. Ascaris has all of the following features, except

(1) Complete digestive system (2) Indirect development
(3) External fertilisation (4) Parasitic life
Sol. Answer (3)
Ascaris belong to phylum Aschelminthes. Ascaris have complete oligestive system with two openings, mouth
and anus. Development is indirect with rhabditoid or rhabditiform larvae.
Ascaris is common endoparasite in small intestine of man and undergo internal fertilisation only.
There is no external fertilisation in Ascaris.
• Phylum : Annelida

31. Metameric segmentation is exhibited by which of the following animal?

(1) Adamsia (2) Euspongia (3) Ascaris (4) Pheretima
Sol. Answer (4)
In metameric segmentation animal body is devided both externally and internally into distinct portions callled
metameres or segments.
In annelida phylum both external and internal segmentation is present i.e. body of annelids is metamerically
segmented.
Pheretima commonly called earthworm is are annelid belonging to class oligochaeta.

32. ________ in the earthworm perform the function similar to flame cells in Taenia.
(1) Parapodia (2) Nephridia
(3) Metameres (4) Ganglia
Sol. Answer (2)
As Taenia (platyhelminthes) have specialized flame cells for excretion, similarly earthworm have coiled
specialized cells called nephridia for excretion of wastes

33. Notochord in earthworm is ______ and nerve cord is _____.

(1) Dorsal, Ventral (2) Absent, Ventral
(3) Ventral, absent (4) Absent, Dorsal

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 8 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Notochord is a supporting structure, part of internal skeleton found only in chordates.
Nervecord is part of nervous system, mesodermal in origin and is found in both chordates and non-chordates.
Notochord is formed on dorsal side in chordate while nerve cord is ventral in non-chordates and dorsal in
chordates.
Earthworm belong to phylum annelid, i.e. non-chordate. So earthworm does not have notochord and nerve cord
is ventral in position.

34. The body segments in earthworm are called

(1) Comb plates (2) Spicules (3) Metameres (4) Ganglia
Sol. Answer (3)
Earthworm (Annelid) have metamerically segmented body, where body is externally and internally divided into
segments. These repeated segments are called metameres or somites.
• Phylum : Arthropoda

35. The chitinous exoskeleton is possessed by

(1) Annelids (2) Arthropods (3) Molluscs (4) Echinoderms
Sol. Answer (2)
Arthropods possess exoskeleton of chitin reinforced with protein or calcium carbonate. Presence of chitin
exoskeleton favours survival of arthropod in different environment and supports their universal occurrence.

36. Which function is served by the tracheal system in insects?

(1) Sensation (2) Respiration (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Digestion
Sol. Answer (2)
Various types of respiratory structures are present in different groups of arthropods.
Tracheal system is a network of air tubes which constitute main organ of respiration in many arthropods
including insects.

37. Honey is the commercial product of which of the following animal?

(1) Bombyx (2) Laccifer (3) Apis (4) Aedes
Sol. Answer (3)
Apis-honeybee, produces two main products honey and beewax. Honey is used as food as well as in
medicines.

38. The statement which does not stand true for arthropods is
(1) They have an open circulatory system
(2) Their body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen
(3) They are segmented and coelomate animals
(4) Fertilisation is usually external in them
Sol. Answer (4)
Arthropods have open circulatory system, possess true coelom and are schizocoelomate (body cavity is formed
by splitting of mesoderm). Arthropods have segmented body, fertilisation is usually internal in Arthropods.

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39. The phylum Arthropoda is named so because of presence of
(1) Jointed appendages (2) Segmentation
(3) Chitinous exoskeleton (4) Organ-system level of organisation
Sol. Answer (1)
Arthro means jointed and Poda means appendages.
So arthropoda have jointed appendages which is characteristic feature of all arthropods and gives the phylum
its name.

40. Statocysts are the

(1) Lateral locomotory appendages in annelids (2) Suckers present in parasitic platyhelminthes
(3) Balance organs in arthropods (4) Stinging capsules in cnidarians
Sol. Answer (3)
Statocysts are the sense organs, which are meant for sense of balance in arthropods.

41. Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
a. A vector of disease (i) Bombyx
b. A gregarious pest (ii) Limulus
c. A living fossil (iii) Locusta
d. An economically important insect (iv) Culex
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (4)
a. A vector of disease – Culex mosquito – (Vector of filarial worm causes filariasis)
b. A gregarious pest – Locusta – (Live in group, but not help each other)
c. A living fossil – Limulus – Limulus (king crab or horse shoe crab)
d. An economically – Bombyx – Produces silk important insect
• Phylum : Mollusca

42. Body of molluscs is

(1) Unsegmented
(2) Covered by a calcareous shell
(3) Divided into distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Molluscs have unsegmented body, can be covered by shell made of calcium carbonate. Body of mollusc is
normally divided into head, foot and visceral mass.

43. Which of the following structure helps in excretion and respiration in molluscs?
(1) Nephridia (2) Feather-like gills
(3) Flame cells (4) Tentacles
Sol. Answer (2)
The mantle cavity of molluscs, encloses feather like gills which help in respiration as well as excretion.

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10 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

44. Precious pearls are obtained from which of the following animals?
(1) Pinctada (2) Dentalium (3) Sepia (4) Aplysia
Sol. Answer (1)
Pinctada belonging to class Pelecypoda (Bivalvia) of phylum mollusca are famous for pearl formation.
Pinctada is also called as pearl oyster.

45. Radula is meant for

(1) Sensation (2) Feeding
(3) Egg laying (4) Protection from predators
Sol. Answer (2)
Mouth of molluscs contain file like rasping organ, with transverse rows of chitinous teeth, this is called radula.
Radula is feeding or rasping organ in molluscs.

• Phylum : Echinodermata

46. All of the following are echinoderms, except

(1) Sea lily (2) Sea cucumber (3) Sea hare (4) Sea urchin
Sol. Answer (3)
Sea lily belong to crinoidea class of phylum echinodermata. Sea cucumber belong to holothuroidea class of
phylum echinodermata.
Sea urchin belong to echinoidea class of phylum echinodermata. Sea hare is Aplysia, belong to class
gastropoda of phylum mollusc.

47. The calcareous ossicles in echinoderms form the

(1) Exoskeleton (2) Visceral hump (3) Notochord (4) Endoskeleton
Sol. Answer (4)
Echinoderms possess an endoskeleton (internal skeleton) of calcareous ossicles (small bones), embedded in
skin. The endoskeleton is derived from mesoderm in echinodermates.

48. The larval stage in Asterias is

(a) Absent
(b) Free-swimming
(c) Bilaterally symmetrical
(d) Radially symmetrical
(1) Only (a) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (b) & (d) (4) Only (c)
Sol. Answer (2)
Asterias is star fish, belong to phylum echinodermata. Echinoderms are free-living animals. Adult echinoderms
are radially symmetric but larval forms are bilaterally symmetric in echinoderms.

49. The water vascular system in phylum echinodermata helps in

(1) Locomotion, capture and transport of food (2) Excretion
(3) Respiration (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Water vascular system is most distinctive feature of echinoderms.
Water vascular system in echinoderms perform function of locomotion, capture and transport of food, respiration
as well as excretion.
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50. Which organ system is lacking in the animals that bear water vascular system?
(1) Nervous system (2) Excretory system (3) Circulatory system (4) Sensory system
Sol. Answer (2)
Water vascular system is characteristic feature of echinoderms. In echinoderms, specialised excretory system
is absent. The excretory products diffuse out from the body tissue into coelomic fluid from where waste is
eliminated out.

• Phylum : Hemichordata

51. Cylindrical bodied, worm-like marine animals belong to the phylum:

(1) Echinodermata (2) Mollusca (3) Coelenterata (4) Hemichordata
Sol. Answer (4)
Hemichordates have soft, fragile worm like appearance. The body is cylindrical in shape and is divisible in three
parts:
Proboscis, collar and trunk.
52. The body of hemichordates is divided into
(1) Head, muscular foot and visceral hump (2) Head, thorax and abdomen
(3) Proboscis, collar and trunk (4) Proboscis and trunk
Sol. Answer (3)
Body of hemichordate is divisible into proboscis, collar and trunk.
53. The phylum which was earlier considered as a sub-phylum under chordata but now placed as a separate
phylum, in non-chordates is
(1) Urochordata (2) Hemichordata (3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata
Sol. Answer (2)
Name hemichordates literally means half chordates and act as link between chordate and non chordate.
Hemichordata was earlier considered as sub phylum under phylum chordata, but now it is placed as separate
phylum under non-chordata.
54. Proboscis gland is a/an
(1) Endocrine organ (2) Excretory organ (3) Feeding organ (4) Reproductive organ
Sol. Answer (2)
Excretion of nitrogenous waste in hemichordates takes place through proboscis gland. The gland collects waste
from blood and pass it into coelom of proboscis from where it is excreted through proboscis pore, at anterior
region of proboscis.
55. Which of the following set of animals belong to phylum hemichordata?
(1) Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus
(2) Salpa, Doliolum
(3) Petromyzon, Myxine
(4) Dentalium, Chaetopleura
Sol. Answer (1)
Balanoglossus (Tongue worm), Saccoglossus (Tongue worm) belong to phylum hemichordata.

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SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Metazoa, Basis of Classification)

1. Which of the following groups of animals have closed circulatory system?

(1) Cockroach, locust, molluscs (2) Non-cephalopod molluscs, cockroach
(3) Cephalopod molluscs and earthworm (4) Hemichordates and non-cephalopod molluscs
Sol. Answer (3)
In closed circulatory system, blood circulates through a series of blood vessels of varying diameter i.e. arteries,
veins and capillaries, without coming in direct contact with body cells. Closed circulatory system is found in
Annelids, cephalopod molluscs, choradates.
Earthworm belongs to phylum annelida.

2. Which of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

(1) Sponges (2) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(3) Aschelminthes (Round worms) (4) Ctenophores
Sol. Answer (3)
Sponges – Diploblastic, assymetric or radially symmetric
Coelenterates (cnidaria) – Diploblastic, radially symmetric
Aschelminthes – Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetric
Ctenophores – Diploblastic, radially symmetric

3. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as

(1) Pseudocoelom (2) Schizocoel
(3) Haemocoel (4) Enterocoelom
Sol. Answer (1)
In pseudocoleomate, body cavity is not lined by mesoderm by there are scattered pouches of mesoderm
between ectoderm and endoderm.

4. Schizocoelomates and enterocoelomates are

(1) Acoelomates (2) True coelomates
(3) Vertebrates (4) Echinoderms only
Sol. Answer (2)
Eucoelomates are true coelomates, where body cavity is lined by mesoderm on both sides.
Based on mode of formation of coelom, eucoelomates are of two types:
a. Schizocoelom : Body cavity develops by splitting of mesoderm. It is found in annelids and arthropods.
b. Enterocoelom : Mesoderm arises from wall of embryonic gut or enteron as hollow outgrowths. It occurs
in echinoderms and chordates.

5. One of the following can’t be taken as the character of non-chordates

(1) Absence of notochord (2) Heart is ventral
(3) Gill slits are absent (4) Chitinous exoskeleton present
Sol. Answer (2)

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Characteristic of chordates are :
a. Absence of notochord – in non-chordates, notochord is absent
b. Heart is present in dorsal in position in non-chordates
c. Gills slits are absent
d. In some non chordate e.g. arthropod, chitin exoskeleton is present
Heart is dorsal, not ventral in non chordates.

6. Column II below consists of brief descriptions of organisms in column I. Which of the following is incorrect
match between column I and column II?
Column I Column II
(1) Millipede – A terrestrial organism with two pairs of jointed appendages attached to each of its
many body segments and respires through trachea.
(2) Nereis – Numerous setae on lateral appendages called parapodia.
(3) Taenia solium – Body is covered with cuticle, alimentary canal absent.
(4) Ctenophores – Radially symmetrical, devoid of cnidoblasts, polyp stage present in their life cycle.
Sol. Answer (4)
Option (4) is in correctly matched as correct match will be
(1) Millipede – Terrestrial organism with two pairs of – Class diplopoda phylum arthropoda
appendages attached to each of its
many body segments and respire through
trachea
(2) Nereis – Numerous setae on lateral appendages – Class polychaeta phylum annelida
called parapodia
(3) Taenia solium – Body is covered with cuticle alimentary – Class cestoda phylum platyhelminthes
canal is absent
(4) Ctenophores – Radially symmetric animals, devoid of – Phylum ctenophora
cnidoblast, no polyp like stage is present
in their life cycle

7. The appropriate sequence of numbered animals from column II matching with the sequence of larvae in
column I is
Column I Column II
a. Planula (i) Mussell
b. Glochidium (ii) Crab
c. Nauplius (iii) Obelia
d. Cysticercus (iv) Nereis
(v) Taenia solium
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(v), d(iii) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)
Sol. Answer (3)
Appropriate match is
a. Planula larva – Obelia (cnidaria)
b. Glochidium larva – Mussel (class pelecypoda) (phylum mollusca)
c. Nauplius larva – Crab (class crustacea) (phylum arthropoda)
d. Cysticercus larva – Taenia solium (class cestoda) (phylum platyhelminthes)

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8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Receptors for taste are located in the feet of insects
(2) The development of echinoderms includes a free-swimming dipleura larva
(3) Flame cells in flatworms are for excretion and osmoregulation
(4) Alternation of asexual and sexual phases in life cycle of Hydra is called metagenesis
Sol. Answer (4)
Correct statement would be -
There is no alternation of asexual and sexual phases in life cycle of Hydra, called metagenesis.

(Classification of Animals)
• Phylum : Porifera
9. Canal system of porifera is not connected with
(1) Food gathering (2) Respiratory gas exchange
(3) Removal of waste (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (4)
Poriferans are sessile organisms and remain attached to substratum. Poriferans do not show locomotion. In
sponges canal system performs function of food gathering, gas exchange during respiration, removal of waste
product. Canal system does not help in locomotion.

10. Statement-1 : Choanocytes are characteristic cells of porifera.

Statement-2 : In sycon type canal system, both radial and incurrent canals are lined by choanocytes.
(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct (2) Statement (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect
(3) Statement (1) is incorrect and (2) is correct (4) Both statements (1) and (2) are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)

11. Which of the following statements is without exception for sponges?

(1) They all have calcareous spicules (2) They have high regenerative power
(3) They are found only in marine water (4) They are all radially symmetric
Sol. Answer (2)
Sponge may undergo fragmentation due to mechanical injury or decay of older parts. Each fragment develop
into complete sponge. Sponges possess high degree of regeneration. Even the cells of crushed sponge can
regroup to form sponge.
• Phylum : Coelenterata, Ctenophora

12. In Hydra, waste materials after digestion and nitrogenous waste materials are removed from
(1) Mouth only (2) Body wall only
(3) Mouth and body wall respectively (4) Mouth and tentacles respectively
Sol. Answer (3)
Cnidarians are ammonotelic and have incomplete digestive system, having single opening for entry and exist
of substances. Excretion in cnidarian occurs through mouth and through body surface via diffusion.
13. Which of the following cells are present only in the epidermis of Hydra?
(A) Interstitial cells (B) Cnidoblasts
(C) Sensory cells (D) Germ cells
(1) B and C (2) B only (3) B and D (4) A, B, C and D
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Sol. Answer (3)
Interstitial cells – Totipotent cells which give rise to all different cells of body in epidermis layer of
cnidarians
Cnidoblast – Are stinging cells, in epidermis layer of cnidarians cnidoblast in characteristic
feature of cnidarians
Sensory cells – Scattered through out epidermis, but sensory cells are also observed in animals
of other phyla
14. Obelia is characterised by
A. Ciliated free swimming planula larva
B. Metagenesis
C. Acraspedote medusa
D. Statocysts present in medusoid stage
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
Obelia (sea fur) belong to class hydrozoa, phylum cnidaria. After fertilization in Obelia ciliated free swimming
larva-planula is formed. Obelia show alternation of generations or metagenesis. Medusae are sexual forms and
bear true velum, marked by narrow they like ridge. Such medusa are called craspedote medusae.
15. Which of the following coral reefs is horse shoe shaped reef that encircles a lagoon but not an island?
(1) Atoll reef (2) Fringing reefs
(3) Barrier reefs (4) Hawaiian island
Sol. Answer (1)
An atoll reef is also called coral island or lagoon island which is circular or horse shoe shaped reef that
encircles a lagoon but not an island. It may be complete or broken by a number of channels.
e.g. - Lakshdweep and Maldive islands in Indian Ocean.

16. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of

(1) Hydra and Aurelia (2) Aurelia and Adamsia
(3) Ctenoplana and Pleurobrachia (4) Aurelia and Paramoecium
Sol. Answer (3)
Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblast is feature of ctenophora phylum. Ctenoplana and Pleurobrachia belong
to class ctenophora. @THE_RDX_07

• Phylum : Platyhelminthes

17. The presence of a special sense organ statocyst at the opposite end of mouth that is (aboral end) is the characteristic
of
(1) Cnidarians
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Nematodes
Sol. Answer (3)
Ctenophora have special sense organs called statocyst at opposite end of mouth (aboral end), is characteristic
feature of phylum ctenophora.

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18. Cysticercus larva of Taenia develops in

(1) Man (2) Goat
(3) Sheep (4) Pig
Sol. Answer (4)
Life cycle of Taenia
Adult tapeworm

Attach to intestinal
wall
Apolysis (Ripe or gravid proglottid loaded
with eggs passes out in feaces)
Scolex invaginates

Primary host
Measly pork cysticerci (human)
larvae

Capsules (Gravid proglottids)

Encapsulate and
form cysti cerrcus larvae
In open

Secondary host Hexacanth larvae

(Pig) (have six hooks)

Enter striated pig

muscles

Larvae get
activated by In stomach of pig,
bile salts and outer cover is lost
penetrated through
walls of intestine
Enter pig
intestine

So cysticerci larva of taenia develop in pig and is infective stage for humans.

19. Free swimming ciliated larva of liver fluke is

(1) Redia (2) Miracidium (3) Metacercaria (4) Cercaria
Sol. Answer (2)
Miracidium larva is free-swimming larvae of Fasciola and have ciliated epidermis.
Miracidium larva is infective stage for secondary host i.e. snail during life cycle of Fasciola.

20. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus
is
(1) Fasciola (2) Ancylostoma (3) Asterias (4) Ascidia
Sol. Answer (1)
Animals having single opening to outside that function as mouth as well as anus, have incomplete digestive
system. Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system e.g.- Fasciola Ancyclostoma (Aschelminthes),
Asterias (Echinodermata), Ascidia (Urochordate) have complete digestive system with two separate opening,
mouth and anus.

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21. In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminthes show
(1) Absence of body cavity (2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Radial symmetry (4) Presence of pseudocoel
Sol. Answer (1)
Platyhelminthes does not have body cavity lined with mesoderm, hence are aceolomate but annelids are
schizocoelomate, true coelomate, body cavity is lined by mesoderm.

22. Which of the following is not a digenetic worm?

(1) Fasciola (2) Wuchereria (3) Enterobius (4) Taenia
Sol. Answer (3)
Digenetic worms are worms having two hosts to complete its life cycle
 Fasciola, primary host is sheep and goat and secondary host is snail (Limnaea) and (Planorbis)
 Wuchereria, primary host is human and secondary host is Culex mosquito
 Enterobius, (Pin worm) is monogenetic, i.e. complete life cycle in single host which is humans
 Taenia, primary host is human and secondary host is pig or cow, buffalo, sheep
23. The characteristics of a tapeworm are
A - Large, quadrate scolex, without rostellum and hooks
B - Primary host man, and secondary host cattle
C - Length 5 to 10 metres
Identify the tapeworm
(1) Taenia solium (2) Taenia saginata
(3) Echinococcus (4) Hymenolepsis nana
Sol. Answer (2)
Taenia saginata commonly known as beef tapeworm. Intermediate host is cow, buffalo and sheep. In Taenia
saginata rostellum and hooks are absent. Taenia saginata is longest tapeworm (5-10 m) and it is most common
tapeworm of man.
• Phylum : Aschelminthes, Annelida

24. The secondary host of Wuchereria, that transmits filariasis is

(1) Anopheles (2) Sand fly (3) Tse tse fly (4) Culex
Sol. Answer (4)
Culex mosquito is vector of filariasis, which is caused by Wuchereria.

25. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of phylum Nemathelminthes?

(1) Bilateral symmetry, triploblastic, pseudocoelomate.
(2) They are possibly most abundant amongst the animals
(3) The false body cavity allows body wall muscles and digestive tract muscles to act independently of each other
(4) The bodywall has longitudinal muscles, circular muscles and an elastic cuticle
Sol. Answer (4)
In phylum Nemathelminthes/Aschelminthes only longitudinal muscle fibres are present, circular muscle fibres
are absent.

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26. Syncytial epidermis is present in

(1) Aurelia (2) Ascaris (3) Asterias (4) Astraea
Sol. Answer (2)
Syncytial epidermis is present in Ascaris (Aschelminthes). In body wall of Ascaris, below cuticle is present
syncytial epidermis. Syncytial epidermis have fused cells or cells are not distinct and appear like multinucleated
layer.
27. An individual bathing in an infected pool or coming in contact with contaminated water is liable to be infected
with ________. The ________ larva stick to the surface of the skin of swimmer or bather, and penetrate the
skin.
(1) Ancylostoma, IInd Juvenile (2) Bilharzia, Cercaria
(3) Schistosoma, Metacercariae (4) Bilharzia, Redia
Sol. Answer (2)
Schistosomiasis or Bilharzia is a disease caused by parasitic worm, Schistosoma. Disease is caused by
parasites, which are released from fresh water snail. Human get infected when they come in contact with
infected water.
Carcaria larva, develop during life cycle of Schistosoma, infect humans by attaching and penetrating skin.
28. Which of the following statements are correct about the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides?
A. Infective agent - Embryonated egg with II Juvenile
B. Fertilised eggs containing the unsegmented ovum are passed with faeces
C. Four moultings of the larva occur two outside in soil within the egg-shell, one in lungs and one in intestine
D. Site of location of worm - small intestine.
(1) A and B (2) A only (3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
Statement C is incorrect as
1st molting of Ascaris occurs in soil, 2nd molting occur in lung alveoli, 3rd molting also takes place in lung
alveoli, 4th molting occurs in intestine.
29. Which of the following type of nephridia of are not found in earthworm?
(1) Septal nephridia (2) Pharyngeal protonephridia
(3) Integumentary nephridia (4) Protonephridia
Sol. Answer (4)
Annelids have specialized structure called nephridia for excretion. Peptonephridia are nephridia which opens
into buccal cavity or pharynx. They are also called as pharyngeal nephridia.
• Phylum : Arthropoda

30. Body of insect is divisible into

(1) Head, thorax and abdomen (2) Head, trunk and abdomen
(3) Cephalothorax, head and abdomen (4) Trunk, thorax and abdomen
Sol. Answer (1)
Body of insect is divisible into three parts:
Head, thorax and abdoman.

31. Excretory organs of arthropods are

(1) Green glands (2) Green gland and malpighian tubules
(3) Nephridia (4) Malpighian tubules

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Sol. Answer (2)
Excretion in arthropods is carried by different organs like green glands, malpighian tubules etc
Depending on location if green glands are present in antenna then they are antennary gland and if present in
appendages called coxal glands.
Malpighian tubules are present at junction of midgut and hindgut and open in alimentary canal.

32. Johnston’s organ present in mosquitoes, are to detect vibrations. They are present in
(1) Antenna (2) Appendages (3) Anal cerci (4) Mouth parts
Sol. Answer (1)
Johnston's organs are present on antennae of mosquitoes.

33. Match the following (w.r.t. type of metamorphsis involved)

Column I Column II
a. Paurometabolous (i) Silk worm
b. Hemimetabolous (ii) Grasshopper
c. Holometabolous (iii) Silver fish
d. Ametabolous (iv) Dragon fly
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (1)
a. Paurometabolous – Grasshopper – Gradual metamorphosis life history includes egg, nymph and adult.
b. Hemimetabolous – Dragonflies – Incomplete metamorphosis life history includes egg, naiad, imago
c. Holometabolous – Silk worm – Complete metamorphosis life history includes egg, larva, pupa, imago
d. Ametabolous – Silverfish – Without metamorphosis life history includes egg, young and imago

34. In which of the following arthropods the eggs hatch within the female body and they bring forth the young alive?
(1) Araneus (2) Macrobrachium (3) Buthus (4) Lepisma
Sol. Answer (3)
Buthus are scorpions and scorpions are ovoviviparous where eggs hatch with in female body and bring forth
the young alive.

35. In which of the following arthropods the development is paurometabolous? The young hatched from eggs resemble
the adult and often occupy the same habitat and they grow by moulting
(1) Bombyx (2) Apis (3) Anopheles (4) Periplaneta
Sol. Answer (4)
Periplaneta (Cockroach) undergoes paurometabolous development with gradual metamorphosis. The young
resembles the adult in its mode of life but differs in structure.

36. In honeybees and butterflies the gustatory and olfactory receptors are located, respectively on
(1) Mouth parts, Antennae (2) Feet, Antennae
(3) Proboscis, Legs (4) Mandibles, Antennae
Sol. Answer (2)
Gustatory receptors are sense receptors which help in tasting of food and olfactory receptors help in smelling.
In honey bees and butterflies gustatory receptors are present on feet and olfactory receptors on antennae.

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37. Which set includes Arthropods of economic importance providing useful products to man?
(1) Anopheles, Culex, tse-tse fly (2) Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer
(3) Limulus, Peripatus (4) Locusta, Grasshopper
Sol. Answer (2)
Apis (honey bee) – Forms two main products–honey which is used as food as well as medicines,
other product is bee wax which is used in paints and cosmetics.
Bombyx (silk worm) – Provides silk for making shawls, sarees and other garments
Laccifer (Lac insect) – Provides lac, which acts as sealing wax and used in making bangles, toys, etc.

38. Which of the following is an important distinguishing feature of butterfly and not moth?
(1) Stout body; noctural
(2) Wings are not folded in sitting position
(3) Antennae are long with globose end, and diurnal
(4) Antennae are short, with tapering ends and feathery and nocturnal
Sol. Answer (3)
Option (3) is a distinguishing feature of butterfly. Differences between butterfly and moth
Butterfly Moth
i. It is diurnal (active in day) i. It is nocturnal (active during night)
ii. Body is not robust ii. Body is often robust
iii. Antennae are knobbed distally iii. Antennae taper distally
iv. When is at rest, keeps the wings held iv. When is at rest, keeps the wings held out horizontally
together vertically on its back
• Phylum : Mollusca, Echinodermata, Hemichordata

39. Eye of which molluscan group resembles vertebrate eye?

(1) Bivalvia (2) Gastropoda (3) Pelecypoda (4) Cephalopoda
Sol. Answer (4)
Cephalopod molluscs have simple eyes which are analogous to vertebrate eyes i.e. similar in function to
vertebrate eyes.

40. Radula is
(1) Larval form of coelenterates (cnidarians) (2) File like rasping organ of molluscs
(3) Larval form of annelids (4) Uncovered structure present with echinoderms
Sol. Answer (2)
Radula is file-like rasping organ in mouth of mollusc which bears transverse rows of chitinous teeth.
Radula is meant for feeding.

41. In which group of molluscs torsion is a very important event in the life history?
(1) Gastropods (2) Bivalves (3) Cephalopods (4) Monoplacophora
Sol. Answer (1)
In gastropod molluscs, early embryo is symmetrical with anterior mouth and posterior anus but during
development the body twists, bringing anus near mouth showing torsion. So adult gastropod become
asymmetric.

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42. Which one of the following class of phylum mollusca is incorrectly matched with its general characteristics?
(1) Gastropoda – Larvae are bilaterally symmetrical; but in adult, the twisting of viscera makes them
lose this symmetry. Some, like land snail and slug (a shell-less form), live on land.
(2) Bivalvia – They are sedentary filter feeders.
(3) Cephalopoda – They are at the apex of invertebrate evolution in terms of learned behaviour they
exhibit. The eyes are image forming, same what similar to ours.
(4) Pelecypoda – They have sensory tentacles and their foot is reduced into a tongue-shaped structure
which helps them to burrow into sea floor.
Sol. Answer (4)
Pelecypoda (Bivalvia) have no head, tentacles, eyes, jaws and radula. Foot is often hatchet shaped and extends
between mantle lobes. They are mostly filter feeders, marine but scaphopoda class of molluscs has prehensile
sensory tentacles on head. Foot is conical shaped and is used for digging.

43. Tube feet are the characteristic structures of

(1) Star fish (2) Jelly fish (3) Devil fish (4) Cuttle fish
Sol. Answer (1)
Water vascular system is characteristic feature of echinoderm. Tube feet is a part of water vascular system
in echinoderm. Star fish is a member of phylum echinodermata.

44. Which of the following is not a character of phylum Hemichordata?

(1) Presence of stomochord which is mesodermal in origin
(2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(3) Circulatory system is open
(4) Respiration takes place through gills
Sol. Answer (1)
Stomochord in hemichordata is not mesodermal in origin, hence they are grouped in non-chordates. From roof
of buccal cavity, arises blind projection called buccal diverticulum or stomochord. Earlier stomochord was
considered equivalent to notochord but is not a notochord.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? [NEET-2018]
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate (3) Starfish (4) Moth
Sol. Answer (1)
Metamorphosis refers to transformation of larva into adult.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said to have indirect development.
In earthworm development is direct which means no larval stage and hence no metamorphosis.
2. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called [NEET-2017]
(1) Ostia (2) Oscula (3) Choanocytes (4) Mesenchymal cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide
circulation to water in water canal system.

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3. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is [NEET-2017]

(1) Absence of notochord (2) Ventral tubular nerve cord
(3) Pharynx with gill slits (4) Pharynx without gill slits
Sol. Answer (3)
Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as well as in chordates. Notochord is present in chordates
only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is characteristic feature of non-chordates.
4. Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given
below: [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
Column-I Column-II
a. Family (i) Diptera
b. Order (ii) Arthropoda
c. Class (iii) Muscidae
d. Phylum (iv) Insecta
Codes:
a b c d
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Sol. Answer (1)
Housefly belongs to
(i) Phylum - Arthropoda
(ii) Class - Insecta
(iii) Order - Diptera
(iv) Family - Muscidae
5. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda? [NEET-2016]
(1) Jointed appendages
(2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Metameric segmentation
(4) Parapodia
Sol. Answer (4)
Parapodia are present in aquatic annelids like Nereis and helps in swimming.
6. Metagenesis refers to: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(2) Presence of different morphic forms
(3) Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism
(4) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embryonic development
Sol. Answer (3)
In coelenterates, metagenesis is alternation of generation between polyp and medusa. Polyp reproduces
asexually by budding to form medusa and medusa reproduces sexually to form polyp.

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7. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development
are the characteristics of phylum: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Protozoa (2) Coelenterata (3) Porifera (4) Mollusca
Sol. Answer (3)
In poriferans, the body is loose aggregate of cells (meshwork of cells). Internal cavities and canals are lined
with food filtering flagellated cells i.e. choanocyte/collar cell. Choanocytes help in filter feeding.
8. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?[AIPMT-2015]
(1) Eyes (2) Segmentation (3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Exoskeleton
Sol. Answer (4)

9. Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity? [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides (2) Ancylostoma duodenale
(3) Enterobius vermicularis (4) Trichinella spiralis
Sol. Answer (4)

10. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Echinoderms (2) Ctenophora (3) Cephalochordata (4) Cnidaria
Sol. Answer (4)
Echinoderms, ctenophores and cephalochordates are exclusively marine.
11. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Sea-fan(Gorgonia) (3) Saccharomyces (4) Blue-green algae
Sol. Answer (2)
12. Planaria possess high capacity of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Regeneration
(3) Alternation of generation (4) Bioluminescence
Sol. Answer (2)
Planaria possess high capacity of regeneration.
13. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum? [NEET-2013]
(1) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm (2) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
(3) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish (4) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
Sol. Answer (2)
Prawn, Scorpion and Locusta all belong to phylum arthropoda.
14. One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is [NEET-2013]
(1) Silverfish (2) Pufferfish (3) Flying fish (4) Cuttlefish
Sol. Answer (1)
15. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification? [NEET-2013]
(1) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish, - Pisces
(2) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion - Insecta
(3) House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish - Insecta
(4) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber -Echinodermata
Sol. Answer (3)

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24 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

16. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correct? [AIPMT(Prelims)-2012]
Genus Two
Name Characters Phylum
(a) Pore bearing
(1) Sycon Porifera
(b) Canal System
(a) Jointed
Appendages
(2) Periplaneta Arthropoda
(b) Chitinous
Exoskeleton
(a) Body segmented
(3) Pila Mollusca
(b) Mouth with
Radula
(a) Spiny skinned
(4) Asterias Echinoder-
(b) Water vascular mata
System

Sol. Answer (3)

Pila (apple snail) belongs to phylum mullusca, class gastropoda. In Pila, radula bearing chitinous teeth is
present in mouth but molluscs does not have segmented body almost all molluscs have unsegmented body.

17. The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect
to a common characteristics of two of these animals. [AIPMT(Mains)-2011]

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (a) & (d) have cnidoblasts for self-defence (2) (c) & (d) have a true coelom
(3) (a) & (d) respire mainly through body wall (4) (b) & (c) show radial symmetry
Sol. Answer (2)
(a) is tapeworm, belong to phylum platyhelminthes, are acoelomate
(b) is jelly fish (Aurelia), belonging to phylum cnidaria/coelentrata. These are also acoelomate
(c) is octopus belonging to phylum mollusca, they are schizocoelomate
(d) is scorpion belonging to phylum arthropoda, they are also schizocoelomate
Both (c) & (d) i.e. Octopus and scorpion have true coelom i.e. schizocoelomate.

18. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Fasciola (2) Octopus (3) Asterias (4) Ascidia
Sol. Answer (1)
Organisms having single opening to outside that serves both mouth as well as anus have incomplete digestive
system.
 Fasciola – incomplete digestive system (Platyhelminthes)
 Octopus – (Mollusca) complete digestive system
 Asterias – (Echinodermata) complete digestive system
 Ascidia – (Urochordata) complete digestive system

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19. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Corals (2) Flat worms (3) Sponges (4) Ctenophores
Sol. Answer (2)
Triploblastic refers to organisms having three germ layers- ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
(1) Corals (Cnidarians) – Diploblastic organisms
(2) Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) – Triploblastic
(3) Sponges (Porifera) – Diploblastic
(4) Ctenophores – Diploblastic

20. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
(2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are acoelomates
(4) Insects are pseudocoelomates
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Flatworms are acoelomates (not coelomates)
(2) Roundworms/Aschemlminthes are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are schizocoelomates (not acoelomates)
(4) Insects are schizocoelomates (not pseudocoelomates)

21. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Aschelminthes (Roundworms) (2) Ctenophores
(3) Sponges (4) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Sol. Answer (1)
 Sponges – Asymmetric or radially symmetric, diploblastic
 Coelentrates (cnidarians) – Radially symmetric, diploblastic
 Aschelminthes (roundworms) – Bilateral symmetric, triploblastic
 Ctenophores – Radially symmetric, diploblastic

22. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes
out is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Coelomic fluid (2) Haemolymph (3) Slimy mucus (4) Excretory fluid
Sol. Answer (1)

23. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic
morphological feature? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
Animals Morphological feature
(1) Cockroach, Locust, Taenia – Metameric segmentation
(2) Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber – Bilateral symmetry
(3) Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin – Jointed appendages
(4) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach – Ventral solid central nervous system
Sol. Answer (4)
Scorpion, Spider and Cockroach all belong to phylum arthropoda and nervous system in arthropoda is solid,
ventral, ganglionated central nervous system.

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26 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

24. Ascaris is characterized by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
(2) Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
(3) Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
(4) Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
Sol. Answer (3)
Ascaris belong to phylum Aschelminthes. Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate i.e. false coelom is present
and have unsegmented body. Thus, metamerism is absent in Ascaris.

25. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Ventral nerve cord (2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Segmentation (4) Pseudocoelom
Sol. Answer (4)
Annelida phylum belong to non-chordate hence have ventral nerve cord. Annelid possess closed circulatory system
and true segmentation. Annelid possess true coelom hence are eucoelomate. Annelids are not pseudocoelomate.

26. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) They all belong to the same phylum (2) They all have jointed paired appendages
(3) They all possess dorsal heart (4) None of them is aquatic
Sol. Answer (3)

27. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Bombyx mori – Silk (2) Pila globosa – Pearl
(3) Apis indica – Honey (4) Kenia lacca – Lac
Sol. Answer (2)
Pinctada (Pearl oyster) is famous for pearl formation.

28. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
(2) Platyhelminthes – Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius
(3) Mollusca – Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
(4) Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
Sol. Answer (3)
i. Spongilla – Porifera, Euplectella – Porifera, Pennatula – Cnidaria
ii. Bonellia viridis – Annelida, Physalia – Cnidaria, Aurelia – Cnidaria – Annelida
iii. Planaria – Platyhelminthes, Schistosoma – Platyhelminthes, Enterobius – Aschelminthes
iv. Loligo – Mollusca, Teredo – Mollusca, Octopus – Mollusca

29. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of [AIPMT(Prelims)-2006]

(1) Platyhelminthes and arthropoda (2) Echinodermata and annelida
(3) Annelida and arthropoda (4) Mollusca and chordata
Sol. Answer (3)
Metameric segmentation (true segmentation) is characteristic feature of Annelid and arthropoda. Body of
arthropods is segmented.

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30. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Starfish and sea anemone (2) Ctenoplana and Beroe
(3) Aurelia and Paramecium (4) Hydra and starfish
Sol. Answer (2)
Presence of cnidoblast is characteristic feature of cnidaria. Ctenoplana and Beroe belong to phylum Ctenophora.
Ctenophores are radially symmetrical and cnidoblast cells are absent.

31. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Compound eyes and anal cerci (2) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Green gland and tracheae (4) Book lungs and antennae
Sol. Answer (2)
Centipede, Cockroach and Crab belong to Arthropoda. Arthropodes bear jointed legs and have chitinous
exoskeleton.

32. From the following statements select the wrong one [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body
(2) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(3) Animals belonging to phylum-Porifera are exclusively marine
(4) Nematocysts are characteristic of the phylum- Cnidaria
Sol. Answer (3)
Animals belonging to phylum porifera are mostly marines but some members live in fresh water also e.g.
Spongilla (fresh water sponge).

33. In contrast to annelids the platyhelminths show [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Radial symmetry (2) Presence of pseudocoel
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Absence of body cavity
Sol. Answer (4)

34. Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means?
(1) Ctenophora (2) Cnidaria (3) Porifera (4) Protozoa
Sol. Answer (1)
Ctenophores reproduce exclusively by sexual means only but sponges, cnidarians and protozoans undergo
asexual means of reproduction also (fragmentation, budding, fission respectively)

35. Tube feet are the characteristic structure of

(1) Star fish (2) Jelly fish (3) Cray fish (4) Cuttle fish
Sol. Answer (1)
Water vascular system is characteristic feature of phylum echinodermata (star fish). Tube feet are tube-like appendages
at end of lateral canals in water vascular system. Thus, tube feet are characteristic feature of star-fish.

36. Among the following organisms point out a completely non-parasitic form
(1) Tape worm (2) Mosquito (3) Sea anemone (4) Leech
Sol. Answer (3)
Tapeworm, Mosquito, Leech all three are parasitic forms. Sea anemone (Adamsia) belongs to class anthozoa
of cnidaria phylum. These are not parasites but are free living forms.
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28 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

37. Which of the following is an example of platyhelminthes?

(1) Plasmodium (2) Schistosoma (3) Trypanosoma (4) Wuchereria
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Plasmodium – Protozoa
(2) Schistosoma – Platyhelminthes
(3) Trypanosoma – Protozoa
(4) Wuchereria – Aschelminthes

38. Radial symmetry is usually, exhibited in animals which

(1) Are attached to the substratum (2) Have one opening of alimentary canal
(3) Live in water (4) Have ciliary mode of feeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Radial symmetry is advantageous for organism which are fixed to substratum as it helps the animals to gather
food from all sides and also repel enemies from all sides.

39. One of the special character of phylum coelenterata only is the occurrence of
(1) Polymorphism (2) Flame cells (3) Hermaphroditism (4) Nematocysts
Sol. Answer (4)
Presence of cnidoblast is characteristic feature of phylum coelentrata. Cnidoblast cells bear a nucleus which
is present near its base and a stinging capsule called nematocyst. Nematocyst is filled with a poisonous fluid
called hypnotoxin which is injected with the help of thread tube.

40. Which of the following does not have an open circulatory system?
(1) Frog’s tadpole (2) Prawn (3) Chelifer (4) Cockroach
Sol. Answer (1)
Prawn, Chelifer, Cockroach belong to phylum arthropoda having open circulatory system.
Frog's tadpole belong to vertebrates having closed circulatory system.

41. The neurogenic heart is the characteristic feature of

(1) Human (2) Invertebrates (3) Rabbit (4) Rat
Sol. Answer (2)
Vertebrates (human, rabbit and rat) have myogenic heart which is two, three or four-chambered.
Invertebrates have neurogenic heart.

42. In silkworm, silk is the product of

(1) Salivary gland of the larva (2) Salivary gland of the adult
(3) Cuticle of the larva (4) Cuticle of the adult
Sol. Answer (1)
Silkworm (Bombyx), silk is product of salivary gland of larvae.
43. The organisms attached to the substratum, generally, possess
(1) One single opening of the digestive canal (2) Cilia on the surface to create water current
(3) Radial symmetry (4) Asymmetrical body
Sol. Answer (3)
Organism which remain attached to substratum (fixed animals) possess radial symmetry, radial symmetry is
advantageous as it helps animals to gather food from all sides and also repel enemies from all sides.

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44. Benthic animals are those, which
(1) Are submerged in area (2) Float on the sea surface
(3) Are deep dweller in sea (4) Are floating (free) organisms
Sol. Answer (3)
Benthic animals are animals which live in deep sea.

45. The formation of canal system in sponges is due to

(1) Folding of inner walls (2) Gastro-vascular system
(3) Reproduction (4) Non-porous walls
Sol. Answer (1)
Formation of canal system is sponges is due by porous walls of sponges pores known as ‘ostia’ allows entry
of water to spongocoel and exit via ‘osculum’. Sycanoid / leucanoid canal system is formed due to folding of
inner walls.

46. The nephridia in earthworm are analogous to

(1) Nematoblasts of Hydra (2) Flame cells of Planaria
(3) Gills of Prawn (4) Trachea of insects
Sol. Answer (2)
Nephridia in earthworm are specialized cells meant for excretion. Flame cells in planaria (Platyhelminthes) are
specialised cells which perform excretory functions.
Nephridia and flame cells both perform excretory functions.
47. Coelom is found between the cavity of
(1) Body wall and ectoderm (2) Ectoderm and endoderm
(3) Mesoderm and body wall (endoderm) (4) Mesoderm and ectoderm
Sol. Answer (2)
Body cavity can mean any internal space or series of spaces present inside body. True body cavity generally
refers to large fluid-filled space lying between outer body wall and inner gut wall.
48. Which of the following statement is without exception for sponges?
(1) They all have calcareous spicules (2) They have high regenerative power
(3) They are found only in marine water (4) They are all radially symmetrical
Sol. Answer (2)
Sponges possess high degree of regeneration power. Even the cells of crushed sponge can regroup to form
sponge.

49. The embryonated egg of Ascaris represents

(1) An egg with blastula (2) An egg with a juvenile
(3) An egg with an egg (4) An egg with gastrula
Sol. Answer (2)
In Ascaris, fertilised egg gets surrounded by shell. Inside shell the zygote develop into rhabditiform or juvenile
stage in 10-14 days. After 10 days it develop into second stage juvenile, second stage juvenile is infective stage.
Shell having infective statge is called embryonated egg.

50. What is common among silver fish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?
(1) Jointed legs (2) Metamorphosis
(3) Compound eyes (4) Poison glands

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Sol. Answer (1)

Silver fish, Scorpion, Crab, Honey bee belong to phylum Arthropoda. All arthropods are characterised for having
jointed appendages.

51. Most appropriate term to describe the life cycle of Obelia is

(1) Metamorphosis (2) Neoteny (3) Metagenesis (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Obelia shows alternation of generation between sexual and asexual forms i.e. medusa and polyp respectively.
Obelia exists in both the forms shows alternation of generation in their life. This alternation of generation is
called metagenesis.

52. Solenocytes are the main excretory structure in

(1) Echinodermates (2) Platyhelminthes (3) Annelids (4) Molluscs
Sol. Answer (2)
Solenocytes are flame cells. Flame cells are specialised cells of platyhelminthes which help in excretion as
well as osmoregulation.

53. Temperature changes in the environment, affect most of the animals which are
(1) Poikilothermic (2) Homoiothermic (3) Aquatic (4) Desert living
Sol. Answer (1)
Animals which can change their body temperature, with change in environment is called poikilothermal animals.

54. The process of series of changes from larva to adult, after embryonic development, is called
(1) Regeneration (2) Growth (3) Metamorphosis (4) Ageing
Sol. Answer (3)
Metamorphosis is process of series of changes from larva to adult.

55. Similarity in Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephens

(1) Sexual dimorphism (2) Metamerism
(3) Anaerobic respiration (4) Endoparasitism
Sol. Answer (1)
Ascaris lumbricoides show sexual dimorphism as male and female are distinct externally. Often females are
longer than males.
Anopheles stephens also exhibit sexual dimorphism as antennae in females are sparsely haired while those
of males have conspicuous whorls of hairs.

56. Which statement is correct?

(1) A. indica is largest wild honey bee
(2) Wax is waste material of honey bee
(3) Karl von Frisch deciphered the communication methods in honey bee
(4) Drone of honey bee is diploid
Sol. Answer (3)
 Wax is not waste material of honey bee. Wax is an important useful product of honey bee used in paints
and cosmetics.
 Prof. Karl von Frisch got Nobel prize (1973) for decoding the language of bee dance and deciphered
communication methods in honey bee.
 Drone of honey bee, develops from unfertilized egg and are haploid.
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57. Which of the following animals have scattered cells with cell - tissue grade organisation?
(1) Sponge (2) Hydra (3) Liver fluke (4) Ascaris
Sol. Answer (2)
Sponges – Celllular level of organization Hydra – Tissue level of organization
Liver fluke – Organ level of organization Ascaris – Organ system level of organization

58. Blastopore is the pore of

(1) Archenteron (2) Blastocoel (3) Coelom (4) Alimentary canal
Sol. Answer (1)
Blastopore is opening of archenteron to exterior of embryo at gastrula stage.

59. In Hydra, waste material of food digestion and nitrogenous waste material are removed from
(1) Mouth and mouth (2) Body wall and body wall
(3) Mouth and body wall (4) Mouth and tentacles
Sol. Answer (3)
Hydra, has incomplete digestive system, with single opening for entry and exit of substances. Undigested
materials are removed from mouth and waste materials are also removed from body wall by diffusion.

60. In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?

(1) Annelida (2) Echinodermata (3) Insecta (4) Lower invertebrates
Sol. Answer (4)
Haemocyanin is respiratory pigment that transport oxygen through out body of some invertebrate animals.
Haemocyanin is observed in some molluscs and arthropods.

61. In which animal nerve cells are present but brain is absent?
(1) Sponge (2) Earthworm (3) Cockroach (4) Hydra
Sol. Answer (4)
 Sponges lack nerve cells and brain is also absent.
 Hydra have nerve cells which form nerve net but specialised brain is not present.
 Earthworm and cockroach posses ganglionated nervous system.

62. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon, it exhibits?
(1) Pheretima - Sexual dimorphism (2) Musca - Complete metamorphosis
(3) Chameleon - Mimicry (4) Taenia - Polymorphism
Sol. Answer (2)
Musca (housefly) is an insects with complete metamorphosis (Holometabolous development). Life history
includes egg, larva, pupa and imago. Larva of house fly is called maggot.

63. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in

(1) Cockroach (2) Frog
(3) Humans (4) Sunflower
Sol. Answer (1)
Ommatidia are compound eyes which help these animals to perceive light falling on them. Ommatidia or
compound eyes is observed in cockroach.

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32 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

64. During the life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following
larval stage respectively
(1) Redia and miracidium (2) Cercaria and redia
(3) Metacercaria and cercaria (4) Miracidium and metacercaria
Sol. Answer (4)
Infective stage for intermediate host is miracidium larvae of Fasciola hepatica.
Infective stage for primary host (sheep or goat) is metacarria larvae of Fasciola hepatica.

65. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as

(1) Unicellular or acellular
(2) Multicellular without any tissue organization
(3) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system
(4) Multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
Sol. Answer (2)
Sycon belongs to phylum Porifera. Sponges are multicellular animals with cellular level of organization.

66. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness
(2) Culex pipiens - Filariasis
(3) Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever
(4) Anopheles culifacies - Leishmaniasis
Sol. Answer (4)
Anopheles culifaciens is a major vector for malaria in Indian subcontinent. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by
sandfly (Phlebotomus)

67. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage,
belong to the phylum
(1) Annelida (2) Mollusca (3) Cnidaria (4) Echinodermata
Sol. Answer (4)
Adult echinoderms are radially symmetric but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. Adult echinoderms have
pentamerous radial symmetry and their body parts are arranged along five aves.

68. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often fused to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes,
the body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen?
(1) Insecta (2) Myriapoda
(3) Crustacea (4) Arachnida and curstacea
Sol. Answer (1)
 In insecta body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen
 Myriapoda body is divisible into head and trunk
 Crustacea body is divisible into cephalothorax and abdomen
 In arachnida body of organism is divisible into cephalothorax and abdomen

69. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system?

(1) Octopus (2) Pheretima (3) Periplaneta (4) Nereis
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Sol. Answer (3)
Arthropodes have open circulatory system. Periplaneta belongs to phylum arthropoda.
Octopus (cephalopod molluscs) have closed circulatory system
Pheretima (Annelida) have closed circulatory system
Nereis (Annelida) have closed circulatory system

70. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

(1) Peripatus (2) King crab (3) Sphenodon (4) Archaeopteryx
Sol. Answer (4)
Archaeopteryx is missing link between reptiles and birds.

71. Biological organisation starts with

(1) Cellular level (2) Organismic level
(3) Atomic level (4) Submicroscopic molecular level
Sol. Answer (4)
Biological organisation start with submicroscopic molecular level.

72. Peripatus is a connecting link between

(1) Coelenterata and Porifera (2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata (4) Annelida and Arthropoda
Sol. Answer (4)
Peripatus is considered as connecting link between annelida and arthropoda as it has unjointed legs and
breathes by trachea.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Cysticercosis is caused by accidental ingestion of onchospheres.
R : Taenia solium is a monogenetic parasite.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true, i.e. cysticercosis is caused by accidental ingestion of onchosphere larvae.
Reason is false as Taenia solium is digenetic parasite, having humans as primary host and pig as secondary
host.
2. A : Mantle of pearl oyster is three layered.
R : Nacre secreting cells are present just below the nacreous layer.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true, i.e. Mantle of pearl oyster is three layered.
Reason is also true i.e. Nacre secreting cells are present just below nacreous layer.
But reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
3. A : Annelids, arthropods and molluscs are protostomial coelomates.
R : All the three phyla include members with bilateral symmetry and true coelom.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true i.e. Annelids, arthropods and molluscs are protostomial coelomates.
In all three mouth develops first in embryonic digestive tube.
Reason is also true i.e. all three phyla include members with bilateral symmetry and true coelom.
But reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

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34 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

4. A : In Balanoglossus, proboscis is involved in excretion.

R : Glomerulus is present is probosis.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true i.e. In Balanoglossus, proboscis is involved in excretion.
Balanoglossus belong to phylum hemichordate where proboscis gland perform excretory function.
Reason is also true i.e. Glomerulus is present in proboscis which is responsible or mediate excretory function
of proboscis gland. Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
5. A : Echinoderms are the only radially symmetrical animals with true coelom.
R : Echinoderms have secondarily adapted to radial symmetry.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true, Echinoderms are only radially symmetrical animals with true coelom.
Reason is also true as echinoderms have secondarily adapted to radial symmetry, because larval forms of
echinoderm is bilaterally symmetric but adults are radially symmetric.
Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
6. A : Hydra has a nerve net but no brain.
R : All its neurons are apolar and connected.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true, In Hydra, nerve cells are present which join to form nerve net but nerve cells are not organized
to form brain in Hydra.
Reason is also true as neurons in Hydra are apolar. These apolar neuron (with no axon terminals) can join to
form nerve net. Hence both Assertion and Reason is correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
7. A : Radula is rasping organ of all molluscs.
R : It is made up of vitrodentine.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as radula is not present in all molluscs.
Radula is absent in class pelecypoda (Bivalvia) of molluscs.
Reason is also false as radula bears chitinous teeth.
Both assertion and reason are false.
8. A : True coelom originated for the first time in phylum Annelida.
R : It allowed the animal to have an alimentary canal longer than the body & space for storing gametes.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true, True coelom (lined by mesoderm) on both sides for first time originated in phyla annelida.
Reason is true, Annelids have longer alimentary canal than body and space for storing gametes.
Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
9. A : Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic feature of arthropods.
R : It allows diffusion of water vapour from atmosphere to the body.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true, Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic feature of arthropods.
Reason is false as chitin is impermeable to water and does not allow diffusion of water vapour from atmosphere
to body or vice-versa.
Assertion is true but Reason is false.
  

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Chapter 11
Animal Kingdom
(Chordates)

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Phylum : Chordata)

1. One of the primary characters of chordates is

(1) Ganglionated nerve cord (2) Paired nerve cord
(3) Solid ventral nerve cord (4) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
Sol. Answer (4)
Primary characteristic of chordates is presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord. Nerve cord is a part of nervous
system and is found in both chordates and non-chordates. Nerve cord is ventral in position in non-chordates
and dorsal in chordates.

2. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of all the chordates?
(1) Presence of coelom
(2) A diaphragm separating thorax from abdomen
(3) Dorsal nerve cord
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits in the early embryonic stages
Sol. Answer (2)
Diaphragm is not a characteristic feature of all chordates. Body of mammals is internally divided into two portion
thorax and abdomen by transverse circular partition called diaphragm. Incomplete diaphragm between thorax
and abdomen is present in crocodiles. However diaphragm is not observed in other members of phylum
chordate.

3. Vertebral column is derived from

(1) Notochord (2) Dorsal nerve cord (3) Ventral nerve cord (4) Outgrowth of cranium
Sol. Answer (1)
Notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults of sub-phylum vertebrates. Vertebral
column encloses spinal cord.

4. Which of the following is a chordate feature, not shared by the non-chordates?

(1) Triploblastic body (2) True coelom
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Notochord
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Sol. Answer (4)

Notochord is found only in chordates, and absent in non-chordates all chordates possess mesodermally derived
notochord during their embryonic life as main axial support of body. In some chordates, notochord is replaced
by vertebral column and these chordates are called vertebrates.

5. Which among them is a characteristic of chordata?

(1) Dorsal heart (2) Gut is dorsal to nerve cord
(3) Central nervous system is solid (4) Post anal part (tail) is present
Sol. Answer (4)
Characteristic of chordates are:-
 Ventral Heart
 Gut is ventral to nerve cord
 Part of central nervous system (nerve cord) is dorsal, hollow and single
 Presence of post anal tail for balancing
(Classification of Protochordata or Acraniates, Sub-phylum : Urochordata, Cephalochordata)

6. Statement-1 : Cephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.
Statement-2 : Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.
Then which is correct?
(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct (2) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is wrong
(3) Statement-1 is wrong, statement-2 is correct (4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are wrong
Sol. Answer (2)
Statement-2 is incorrect, as
Urochordate belong to protochordata group where notochord is present only in tail of animal larva and notochord
disappears in adult. In urochordates notochord is not replaced by vertebral column.

7. The correct classification of Ascidia

(1) Chordata  Protochordata  Vertebrata (2) Chordata  Protochordata  Cephalochordata
(3) Chordata  Cephalochordata  Vertebrata (4) Chordata  Protochordata  Urochordata
Sol. Answer (4)

Phylum : Chordata
2 sub-groups

Acraniata or Protochordata Craniata or Euchordata

No brain box or cranium Cranium is present
2. sub-phylum sub-phylum

Vertebrata
Urochordata/Tunicata Cephalochordata

Notochord is present only in Notochord extends from head

larval tail to tail region
e.g. Ascidia, Salpa, Herdmania e.g. Branchiostoma

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Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (Chordates) 37
8. Body of the urochordate is enclosed in a
(1) Mantle (2) Test or tunic (3) Shell (4) Shield
Sol. Answer (2)
In urochordates adult body is enclosed with in a leathery test or tunic formed of cellulose like organic
substances termed tunicin, therefore urochordata is called tunicata.

9. All of them are characteristics of urochordates, except

(1) Neural gland as excretory organ (2) Open type of circulatory system
(3) Cranium is absent (4) Development is direct
Sol. Answer (4)
In urochordata, development is indirect. Larva of urochordata is free swimming which shows retrogressive
metamorphosis.

10. Respiration in cephalochordates occurs through

(1) General body surface (2) Gills (3) Tracheole (4) Lungs
Sol. Answer (1)
Special respiratory organs are absent, in cephalochordates. There is no respiratory pigment in blood, nerve
gaseous exchange occurs through general surface.

11. Excretion by protonephridia with solenocyte is a characteristic of

(1) Branchiostoma (2) Amphioxus (3) Lancelet (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
In sub phylum cephalochordate, excretion occurs by protonephridia with solenocytes.
Branchiostoma also called as Amphioxus or lancelet, due to both ends pointed like lance, they are called
lancelet. Branchiostoma belong to sub-phylum cephalochordate.
(Sub-phylum : Vertebrata)

12. Which one of the following structure is present in all adult vertebrates?
(1) Notochord (2) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
(3) Pharyngeal gill slits (4) Renal portal system
Sol. Answer (2)
 In adult vertebrate, notochord is replaced by bony or cartilaginous vertebral column.
 In adult vertebrate, nerve cord is represented by central nervous system.
 Pharyngeal gill slits occur during embryo stage in all vertebrates, but disappear in adults. However in some
fishes and amphibians, gill slits occur in adults also.
 Renal portal system is well developed in fishes and amphibians, reduced in reptiles and birds and is absent
in mammals.

13. Cyclostomata belongs to which division?

(1) Pisces (2) Agnatha
(3) Acraniata (4) Tetrapoda

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Sol. Answer (2)

Sub-phylum - Craniata Vertebrata
(Notochord is replaced by vertebral column)
2. Division

Agnatha Gnathostomata
(Lacks jaw) (Bears jaw)

Ostracodermi Cyclostomata 2 superclasses

e.g. Cephalaspis e.g. Petromyzon,
(Extinct) Myxine

Pisces Tetrapoda

14. The correct classification of Myxine is

(1) Chordata  Craniata  Agnatha  Cyclostomata
(2) Chordata  Acraniata  Protochordata  Cephalochordata
(3) Chordata  Cephalochordata  Cyclostomata
(4) Chordata  Craniata  Vertebrata  Ostracodermi
Sol. Answer (1)
Myxine belongs to class-cyclostomata
Phylum Chordata

Acraniata or Craniata or
protochordata euchordata
(No brainbox or (Cranium is present)
cranium)
Sub-phylum

Vertebrata

Agnatha Gnathostomata
(Lacks jaw) (Bears jaw)

Ostracodermi Cyclostomata Pisces Tetrapoda

e.g. Petromyzon,
Myxine
 Correct order is Chordata  Craniata  Agnatha  Cyclostomata

15. The lamprey (Petromyzon) is included in the same taxonomic class as the
(1) Cephalaspis (2) Ambystoma (3) Neoceratodus (4) Hagfish (Myxine)

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Sol. Answer (4)
Lamprey (Petromyzon) and Hagfish (Myxine) belong to class Cyclostomata, division Agnatha and sub-phylum
Vertebrata.

16. Which of the following statements is not true for Agnatha members?
(1) They include hagfishes and lampreys (2) They have notochord throughout their lives
(3) They are known as cyclostomes (4) They have bony skeletons
Sol. Answer (4)
Agnatha are jawless vertebrates. in which notochord persist throughout life. Agnatha is devided into two classes-
Ostracodermi and Cyclostomata. Examples of cyclostomates are Hagfish (Myxine) and lamprey (Petromyzon).
Agnatha does not posses exoskeleton and posses cartilaginous vertebral column. Hence Agnatha members
lack bony skeleton.

17. The larva of Petromyzon is known as

(1) Ammocoete (2) Tornaria (3) Axolotl (4) Bipinnaria
Sol. Answer (1)
Development is indirect in lamprey (Petromyzon). Larva of lamprey is called Ammocoete larva. Ammocoete
larva is similar to adult Amphioxus, hence Ammocoete larva is connecting link between cephalochordates and
cyclostomes.

18. Lamprey is
(1) Catadromous (2) Anadromous (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Lamprey (Petromyzon) are marine organism, but adult lamprey migrate to fresh water for spawning. Such
migration from sea to river for breeding is known as anadromous migration.
(Superclass: Pisces)

19. Catadromous fish migrates from

(1) Sea to river (2) River to sea
(3) River to lakes (4) Deep sea to surface water
Sol. Answer (2)
Catadromous migration is observed in those fishes which spend most of their lives in fresh water (river) and
migrate to sea (marine) for breeding. This type of migration of catadromous migration.

20. Teeth in chondrichthyes are modified

(1) Placoid scales (2) Cycloid scales (3) Ctenoid scales (4) Rhomboid scales
Sol. Answer (1)
Chondrichthyes are cartilaginous fishes.
In chondrichthyes, teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed.

21. Which fish has an electric organ?

(1) Torpedo (2) Pristis
(3) Trygon (4) Carcharodon
Sol. Answer (1)
Torpedo (electric ray) is a carnivorous fish. It stuns or kill the prey with electric shock from its electric organs.
Electric organs are modified muscles which generate an electric discharge from mild 8 volts to 220 volts.

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22. Which type of scales are found on the skin of cartilaginous fishes?
(1) Ganoid (2) Placoid (3) Ctenoid (4) Cycloid
Sol. Answer (2)
In cartilaginous (chondrichthyes) fishes placoid scales are present which backwardly directed. Cycloid, ctenoid
and ganoid scales are observed in bony (ostrichthyes) fishes.

23. Bony fishes are

(1) Marine (2) Fresh water dwelling (3) Estuary dweller (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Bony fishes (Ostrichthyes) are both marine and fresh water fishes with streamlined body. Whereas cartilaginous
fishes (chondrichthyes) are marine fishes.

24. Which of the following belong to class osteichthyes?

a. Sea urchin b. Seahorse
c. Flying fish d. Sawfish
e. Dogfish
(1) b & c (2) a, b & e (3) b&e (4) a, d & e
Sol. Answer (1)
a. Sea-urchin (Echinus) – Class-Echinoidea, Phylum-Echinodermata (nonchordate)
b. Sea-horse (Hippocampus) – Class-Osteichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata,
Subphylum-Vertebrata, Chordata
c. Flying fish (Exocoetus) – Class-Osteichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata, Subphylum-
Vertebrata, Phylum-Chordata
d. Sawfish (Pristis) – Class-Chondrichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata, Subphylum-
Vertebrata, Phylum-Chordata
e. Dogfish (Scoliodon) – Class-Chondrichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata, Subphylum-
Vertebrata, Phylum-Chordata

25. Air bladder is

(1) Hydrostatic organ of bony fishes (2) Excretory organs of mammals
(3) Respiratory organs of birds (4) Respiratory organ of reptiles
Sol. Answer (1)
Air bladder or swim bladder regulates buoyancy. Air bladder is absent in cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes)
so those fishes have to swim continuously to avoid sinking. Air bladder is present in bony fishes.

26. Air bladder in a fish helps in

(1) Hydrostasis (2) Respiration (3) Sound production (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Air bladder in bony fishes, arising from gut is associated with respiration, hydrostasis, sound production and
audition.

27. Branch of biology dealing with study of fishes is

(1) Piscology (2) Ornithology (3) Ichthyology (4) Torpedology
Sol. Answer (3)
Branch of biology deals with study of fishes is called ichthyology.

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Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (Chordates) 41
28. Read the following statements and find out the correct statement.
a. Urinary bladder is absent in fishes
b. Gambusia fish eradicates mosquito larva
c. Ampulla of Lorenzini present in dogfish act as thermoreceptors
d. Electric organs are modified muscles
(1) b & d (2) a&c (3) b only (4) a, b, c & d
Sol. Answer (4)
a. Urinary bladder is absent in fishes, as urinary bladder present in Amphibians
b. Gambusia is carnivorous fish, eradicates mosquito larva, and was introduced into regions to control malaria.
c. Ampulla of Lorenzini is present in dog fish (Scoliodon) receives information of temperature fluctuations in
surrounding water, act as thermoreceptors.
d. Electric organs in Torpedo (electric ray) are modified muscles.

29. The fish which shows parental care is

(1) Hippocampus (2) Gambusia (3) Labeo (4) Scoliodon
Sol. Answer (1)
Hippocampus (sea horse), male bears a brood pouch in which female lays eggs, until they hatch egg remain
in pouch. Thus male sea-horse shows parental care.

(Superclass-2 : Tetrapoda)
(i) Amphibia

30. Heart in amphibians is

(1) Two-chambered with one auricle and one ventricle
(2) Three-chambered with two auricles and one ventricle
(3) Three-chambered with one auricle and two ventricles
(4) Four-chambered with two auricles and two ventricles
Sol. Answer (2)
a. Two-chambered heart with one auricles and one ventricle is present in pisces
b. Three-chambered heart, having two auricles and one ventricle is present in amphibians and reptiles (except
crocodile)
c. Four-chambered heart with two auricles and ventricles are present in crocodile aves and mammals.

31. Which of the feature is not present in amphibia?

(1) Scales are present
(2) Most of them have two pairs of limbs for locomotion
(3) Eyes have eyelids
(4) Organisms are cold-blooded
Sol. Answer (1)
Option (1) is incorrect as skin in amphibians is without scales, but if scales present (e.g. caecilians) are hidden
beneath the skin.

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32. Which of the following is true for all amphibians?

(1) All have tail
(2) Excretion by kidneys
(3) Alimentary canal and urinary and reproductive tracts open into different chambers to the exterior
(4) Heart is three-chambered with two ventricles
Sol. Answer (2)
 Tails is not present in all amphibian, e.g. class Anura is without tail. Bufo (Toad), Rana (Frog)
 Excretion occurs by mesonephric kidneys in Amphibians
 In amphibians alimentary canal, urinary and reproduction tract open into common chamber called cloaca
 Heart is three-chambered in amphibians with two auricles and one ventricle

33. Poison secreting parotoid gland occurs in

(1) Ichthyophis (2) Rana (3) Bufo (4) Salamandra
Sol. Answer (3)
Bufo (Toad) possesses a pair of large parotid glands that produce a milky poisonous fluid.

34. Axolotl is the larva of

(1) Silkworm (2) Ambystoma (3) Amphioxus (4) Roundworm
Sol. Answer (2)
Ambystoma belong to order urodela of class Amphibia. Larva of Ambystoma is called Axolotl larva. Axolotl
larva show paedogenesis (larva shows sexual reproduction).

35. Amphibian with no teeth in jaw is

(1) Salamandara (2) Bufo (3) Rana (4) Ichthyophis
Sol. Answer (2)
In toad (Bufo), teeths are absent in both the jaws.

36. Ambystoma shows

(1) Paedogenesis (2) Neoteny
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Paedogenesis is the phenomenon of sexual reproduction is larva, i.e. larva become sexually matured.
Neoteny is retention of larval characters in sexually mature individual.
Both paedogenesis and neoteny are observed in Ambystoma.
(ii) Reptilia

37. Warty, rough and dry skin is characteristic of

(1) Toad (2) Frog
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (1)
 Skin is rough, dry and waste with brown spotted dorsal surface and pale ventral surface in toad
 Frogs have moist, smooth and slimy skin
 Body of Ichthyophis is covered by slimy skin

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38. All of them are characters of reptiles except
(1) Lizards shed their scales as skin cast (2) Scutes are present on their body
(3) Heart is three-chambered in all reptiles (4) They are poikilotherms
Sol. Answer (3)
Heart is usually three chambered in reptiles, but four chambered heart is present in crocodiles.

39. Which among the following has four-chambered heart?

(1) Vipera (2) Crocodilus (3) Testudo (4) Hemidactylus
Sol. Answer (2)
 Vipera (viper snake) belongs to sub-order ophidia of class Reptilia and possess three chambered heart.
 Testudo (Tortoise). belongs to order chelonia of class Reptilia, possess three chambered heart.
 Bungarus (Krait snake) belongs to sub-order ophidia of class-Reptilia, possess three chambered heart.
 Crocodilus (crocodile) possesses four chambered heart.

40. Which among the following is an exception of possessing three-chambered heart?

(1) Alligator (2) Testudo (3) Chelone (4) Bungarus
Sol. Answer (1)
Testudo (Tortoise), Chelone (Turtles), Bungarus (Krait snake), possess three chambered heart, but Alligator
belonging to order crocodilia of class Reptilia possess four chambered heart.

41. Which among them has moderately long and pointed snout and is very aggressive and dangerous for man?
(1) Crocodile (2) Alligator (3) Gavialis (4) Salamandra
Sol. Answer (1)
Crocodile Alligator Gavialis Salamandra
More aggresive Less aggresive Eat only fish Not dangerous
and dangerous to attacks when because of
man provoked narrow throat
Snout moderately Snout broad and Snout very long No snout
long and pointed rounded and slender

42. Which among them is a living fossil?

(1) Hydrophis (2) Archaeopteryx (3) Sphenodon (4) Vipera
Sol. Answer (3)
Sphenodon belong to order Rhyncocephalia, class Reptilia. Sphenodon is commonly called Tuatara and
possess pineal gland or third eye. Sphenodon retains characters of stem reptiles hence called as living fossil.

43. Study of lizards is known as

(1) Saurology (2) Serpentology (3) Ophiology (4) Ornithology
Sol. Answer (1)
Saurology is study of lizards.
Serpentology is study of snakes.

44. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Lizards show autotomy (2) Most lizards are oviparous
(3) Poison gland in snakes are modified parotid gland (4) All of these

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Sol. Answer (4)

 Most of lizards show autotomy, voluntary breaking off tail to confuse enemy. Tail again regenerates.
 Most of lizards are oviparous, covered by shell.
 Poison glands in poisonous snake are modified superior labial or parotid gland.

45. Which of the following is a viviparous lizard?

(1) Uromastix (2) Chameleon (3) Hydrophis (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Most lizards are oviparous, but examples of viviparous lizards are Chameleon (Tree lizard), Phrynosoma (Horned
Toad).
((iii) Aves, (iv) Mammalia)

46. The sound producing organ of bird is

(1) Larynx (2) Syrinx (3) Oropharynx (4) Nasopharynx
Sol. Answer (2)
In birds, larynx does not possses vocal cords. Syrinx produces sound and is present in region of bifurcation
of trachea and bronchi.

47. Read the following statement and choose the correct characteristic feature of Aves.
(1) Skin of birds have glands
(2) Air sacs help in excretion
(3) Heart is having three auricle and one ventricle
(4) Preen gland is present at the base of tail
Sol. Answer (4)
Skin in Aves is dry and without glands, except oil gland and spleen gland at base of tail for lubrication of
feathers. Air sacs in Aves help in respiration and excretory function in Aves is mediated by kidneys. Heart is
completely four chambered in birds.

48. Choose the option which comprises of oviparous animals.

(1) Ostrich, eagle, whale (2) Bat, pigeon, crow
(3) Parrot, vulture, sparrow (4) Kite, platypus, kangaroo
Sol. Answer (3)
Birds/Aves are oviparous animals with direct development. Majority of mammals are viviparous with few
exceptions e.g. platypus is oviparous.
Whale, Bat, Kangaroo are mammals and viviparous.

49. Largest living flightless bird is

(1) Eagle (2) Rhea (3) Humming bird (4) Ostrich
Sol. Answer (4)
Ostrich (Struthio) belong to super order Ratitae, sub-class Neornithes class Aves, is a largest living flightless
bird.

50. All of the following Avian characters are correct, except

(1) Bones do not have bone marrow (2) Scales are present only in the hindlimbs region
(3) In females, right ovary is atrophied (4) Beak possesses homodont teeth

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Sol. Answer (4)
Birds have hollow pneumatic bones filled with air cavities. No bone marrow is present.
In birds jaws are modified to form beak and beak is toothless.

51. Tail vertebrae of birds are fused to form

(1) Pygostyle (2) Coccyx
(3) Urostyle (4) Synsacrum
Sol. Answer (1)
Pygostyle – In birds 3 or 4 tailed vertebrae fuses to form single structure called pygostyle.
Coccyx – Four or five coccygeal bones in final segment of vertebrae column in humans and apes unite together
to form a small vestigial tail bone called coccyx.
Urostyle – A long bone which is formed by fusion of vertebrae a base of vertebral column in some lower
vertebrates. e.g. frogs and toads.
Synsacrum – Fused bone formed by fusion of posterior, thoracic, lumbar and anterior caudal vertebrae in Aves.

52. Aves are

(1) Ammonotelic (2) Uricotelic
(3) Ureotelic (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
Excretory product is uric acid in birds. Uric acid is insoluble in water and thus precipitate out. Uricotelism
(excreting-uric acid) is very important for land vertebrates lay shelled eggs. Birds (laying shelled eggs) are
uricotelic as uric acid being almost insoluble get precipated and remain with shell only.

53. A mammal which lays eggs instead of giving birth to offspring is

(1) Rabbit (2) Macropus
(3) Duck-billed platypus (4) Whale
Sol. Answer (3)
Mammals are viviparous, with few exception. e.g. Ornithorynchus (Platypus) is oviparous i.e. egg laying.

54. Point out the mammalian characters

(1) Diaphragm, four-chambered heart, lungs
(2) Hairy skin, viviparity, feathers
(3) Fins, gills, viviparity
(4) Neural gland, gills, four-chambered heart
Sol. Answer (1)
Viviparity is not an absolute mammalian feature as Platypus (mammal) is oviparous (egg laying). Gills and fins
are also not observed in adult mammals.
So presence of diaphragm, four chambered heart and lungs is mammalian feature.

55. The following statements regarding mammals are correct except

(1) Cloaca is present (2) External ear pinna present
(3) Non-nucleated RBC (4) Excrete urea
Sol. Answer (1)
Cloaca is absent in mammals but presence of external ear (pinna), non-nucleated RBC and excreting urea
(ureotelism) is mammalian feature.

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SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Phylum: Chordata, Classification of Protochordata or Acraniates, Sub-phylum : Urochordata, Cephalochordata,
Vertebrata)

1. Which of the following are referred to as non-vertebrate chordate?

(1) Ciona, Ascidia, Amphioxus (2) Lamprey, Myxine, Shark

(3) Scoliodon, Torpedo, Trygon (4) Pristis, Branchiostoma, Scyllium

Sol. Answer (1)

Phylum : Chordata
2 sub-groups

Acraniata/Protochordata Craniata/Euchordata

2 sub-phylum sub-phylum

Vertebrata
Urochordata/Tunicata Cephalochordata

e.g. Ciona, Ascidia e.g. Branchiostoma,

Amphioxus
 Both sub-phylum urochordata and cephalochordate are invertebrate where notochord is not replaced by
vertebral column.

2. Members of which group are not deuterostomes?

(1) Chordates (2) Echinoderms

(3) Arthropods (4) None of these; all are deuterostomes

Sol. Answer (3)

Deuterostomes in animals where first opening to develop in embryonic digestive tube is anus and mouth is
formed later. Echinodermates and chordates have deuterostomic body plane while annelids, arthropod and
molluscs have protostomic body plan.

3. Which of the following is the correct matching of an animal, its characteristics and taxon?

Animal Characteristics Taxon

(1) Chameleon Prehensile tail, dicondylic skull, camouflaging Reptilia

(2) Monotremes Viviparous, hair, external ears or pinnae Mammalia

(3) Rana tigrina No exoskeletal elements, dicondylic skull, eyes have eyelids Amphibia

(4) Scoliodon Placoid scales, viviparous, external fertilization Chondrichthyes

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Sol. Answer (3)

Animal Characteristics Taxon

(1) Chameleon Prehensile tail, mono- dicondylic skull, camouflaging Reptilia

(2) Monotremes Oviparous, no external ears or pinnae Mammalia

(3) Rana tigrina No exoskeletal element, dicondylic skull, eyes have eyelids Amphibia

(4) Scoliodon Placoid scales, oviparous, internal fertilization Pisces,

(Cartilagin- Chondrichthyes
ous fishes)

4. All the following statements are correct about Petromyzon (Lamprey) except
(1) Lampreys are marine and migrate for spawning into rivers (Anadromous)
(2) Their characteristic ammocoete larvae after metamorphosis migrates back to the ocean
(3) After spawning the adult lamprey stops feeding and migrates back to ocean where it lives
(4) It is a sanguivorous ectoparasite on other fishes
Sol. Answer (3)
Features of Petromyzon (Lamprey) are:
 Petromyzon are marine fishes but they migrate to fresh water (rivers) for spawning. Such migration is
anadromous migration.
 Petromyzon has ammocoete larva, which migrate from fresh water (river) to ocean.
 Petromyzon belong to class cyclostomata which are ectoparasite on some fishes.
 Petromyzon bear circular and suctorial mouth with sanguivorous feeding habit.
(Superclass: Pisces)
5. In Torpedo (electric ray), electric organs are present as modified musculature between
(1) Nostrils and mouth (2) Pectoral and caudal fin
(3) Gills and eyes (4) Eyes and nostrils
Sol. Answer (4)
Electric organs are specialized block of muscle derived from branchial muscles in Torpedo.
6. Poikilothermous animals having single occipital condyle will belong to
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptiles (3) Aves (4) Mammals
Sol. Answer (2)
Poikilotherms are organisms who change internal body temperature with surroundings
Amphibia – Dicondylic, Poikilotherms
Reptilia – Monocondylic, Poikilotherms
Aves – Homeotherms (maintain constant body temperature), Monocondylic

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Mammals – Homeotherms, Dicondylic

7. Which of the following statements are not true about shark?
a. The skin is tough and covered with placoid scales
b. They possess a swim bladder which regulates buoyancy
c. The tail of shark is heterocercal
d. Ampulla of Lorenzini present in the snout of shark is a thermoreceptor.
e. It has five pairs of gill slits covered by operculum
(1) a, c, d, e (2) b, c, d, e (3) b and e only (4) c and e only
Sol. Answer (3)
Sharks are cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes). In cartilaginous fishes skin is tough and covered with placoid
scales, swim bladder or air bladder is absent. So they have to swim continuously. Tail or caudal fin is
heterocercal in chondrichthyes. Snout or head in sharks bear ampulla of lorenzini that receives information of
temperature fluctuation in surrounding water thus are thermoreceptors. There are 5-7 pairs of gills slits, without
operculum.

8. What are not true?

a. Dermal scales of fishes form the exoskeleton
b. Cycloid and ctenoid scales have distinct lines of growth which aid in determining the age of the fish
c. Fish scales are never shed
d. The skin in elasmobranchs is covered with placoid scales
e. The development of a placoid scale is not like the development of a tooth
(1) a, b, c and e (2) b, c and e (3) c, d and e (4) Only e
Sol. Answer (4)
Teeth in cartilaginous fishes are acrodont teeth. Teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed.

9. Teeth are modified ________ scales which are backwardly directly

(1) Ctenoid (2) Cycloid (3) Placoid (4) Ganoid
Sol. Answer (3)
In cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes), placoid scales are modified into teeth which are backwardly directed.

(Superclass: Tetrapoda)

10. Lateral line sense organs are absent in

(1) Tadpole larva of frog (2) Fishes (3) Reptiles (4) Cartilaginous fishes
Sol. Answer (3)
Fishes have lateral line sense organs, which contain receptors. These receptors have neuromast organs, and
are rheoreceptors. Rheoreceptor detects water current and turbulence of water. Tadpole larva of frog bear tail,
gills and lateral line organ.
In reptiles lateral line organ is absent.

11. Amongst the following mammals which of the following is a monotreme?

(1) Macropus (Kangaroo) (2) Ornithorhynchus (Platypus)
(3) Balaenoptera (Blue whale) (4) Elephas (Elephant)
Sol. Answer (2)

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Mammalia
Sub-class

Monotremata Marsupilia Eutheria

(Prototheria) (Metatheria) (Placentalia)

e.g. Ornithorhynchus e.g. Macropus

(Platypus) (Kangaroo)

Chiroptera Perissodactyla Cetacea Carnivora Primata

Balaenoptera
(Blue whale)

Rodentia Artiodactyla Proboscidea

e.g. Elephas
(Elephant)

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions

1. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system [NEET-2018]
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia (3) Osteichthyes (4) Aves
Sol. Answer (4)
The digestive tract of Aves has additional chambers in their digestive system as crop and Gizzard.
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to crush food grain.

2. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? [NEET-2018]

(1) Macropus (2) Chelone (3) Psittacula (4) Camelus
Sol. Answer (2)
Homeotherm are animals that maintain constant body temperature, irrespective of surrounding temperature.
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.

3. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals? [NEET-2017]

(1) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks (2) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(3) Whales, Dolphins, Seals (4) Trygon, Whales, Seals
Sol. Answer (3)
Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while Whale, Dolphin and
Seals are aquatic mammals belong to class mammalia.

4. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'? [NEET-2017]

(1) Equidae (2) Perissodactyla (3) Caballus (4) Ferus
Sol. Answer (2)
Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed mammals.

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50 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

5. Choose the correct statement. [NEET-Phase-2-2016]

(1) All mammals are viviparous
(2) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.
(3) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.
(4) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
Sol. Answer (2)
Cyclostomes belong to the division agnatha. They are jawless vertebrates without paired fins.

6. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
[NEET-2016]
(1) 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
(2) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
(3) Viviparous Mammalia
(4) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
Sol. Answer (2)
Reptiles have 3-chambered heart except crocodiles. Mammals are viviparous except prototherian mammals;
chordates have jaws except protochordates and cyclostomes.

7. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? [NEET-2016]
(1) Warm blooded nature (2) Ossified endoskeleton
(3) Breathing using lungs (4) Viviparity
Sol. Answer (4)
Mammals are viviparous while birds are oviparous.

8. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to
the ocean is: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Petromyzon (2) Eptatretus (3) Myxine (4) Neomyxine
Sol. Answer (1)
Petromyzon (Lamprey) is a migratory marine water jawless fish which shows anadromous migration. It spawns
in fresh water, stops feeding and dies. Its larva (Ammocoetes) after metamorphosis will return to ocean.

9. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception? [AIPMT-2015]
Characteristics
(1) Body covered with feathers; skin moist and Aves
glandular; fore-limbs form wings; lungs with air
sacs
(2) Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae, two pairs of Mammalia
limbs
(3) Mouth ventral; gills without operculum; skin with Chondrichthyes
placoid scales; persistent notochord

(4) Sucking and circular mouth; jaws absent, Cyclostomata

integument without scales; paired appendages

Sol. Answer (3)

10. Which of the following animals is not viviparous? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Whale (2) Flying fox (Bat) (3) Elephant (4) Platypus
Sol. Answer (4)

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11. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Trygon (4) Scolidon
Sol. Answer (2)
Torpedo produces electric current. Electric organs are modified muscles.
12. Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one characteristics (Column II) and the phylum/class (Column III)
to which it belongs. [NEET-2013]

Column I Column II Column III

(1) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia

(2) Limulus Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton Pisces

(3) Adamsia Radially symmetrical Porifera

(4) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata

Sol. Answer (4)

Correct match will be
(1) Ichthyophis – Aquatic and terrestrial – Amphibia
(2) Limulus – Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton – Arthropoda
(3) Adamsia – Radially symmetric – Cnidaria/Coelentrata
(4) Petromyzon – Ectoparasite – Cyclostomata
13. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against
them? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (Poikilothermal)
(2) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity
(3) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart
(4) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
Sol. Answer (1)
 Pteropus is flying fox, belonging to order chiroptera of class mammalia and Ornithorhyncus (platypus),
belongs to sub-class prototheria, class mammalia
 Garden lizard (reptile) has three chambered heart, but crocodile possess four chambered heart
 Ascaris (Aschelminthes) and Ancylostoma (Hook worm) (Aschelminthes) does not possess metameric
segmentation
 Sea horse (Hippocampus), flying fish (Exocoetus) belong to class Osteichthyes (pisces), these are cold
blooded (poikilotherms).
14. Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing
(2) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
(3) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side
(4) All sponges are marine and have collared cells
Sol. Answer (3)
 All reptiles do not possess three chambered heart, crocodiles have four chambered heart
 Some sponges are fresh water sponges also. e.g. Spongilla (fresh water sponge)
 All mammals are not viviparous e.g. Ornithorhynchus (platypus) is oviparous

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52 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

15. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the
International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) E.coli– Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occuring bacterium in human intestine
(2) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile
(3) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria
(4) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) Musca domestica – Housefly, is common insect of warmer region
(2) Plasmodium falciparum – Protozoan pathogen causing most serious type of malaria
(3) Panthera tigris – The Indian tiger
(4) E.coli – Full name Escherichia coli, a commonly occuring bacterium in human intestine
16. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Housefly - Musca, an order (2) Tiger - Tigris, the species
(3) Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class (4) Humans - Primata, the family
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Housefly (Musca domestica) – First name is genus and second name is species
(2) Tiger (Panthera tigris) – Panthera (genus), tigris (species)
(3) Cuttlefish (Sepia) – Mollusca (phylum)
(4) Humans – Primata-order
17. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum

(a) Cnidoblasts
(1) Aurelia
(b) Organ level of organization
(a) Body segmented
(2) Ascaris Annelida
(b) Males and females distinct
(a) A tympanum represents ear
(3) Salamandra Amphibia
(b) Fertilization is external
(a) Skin possesses hair
(4) Pteropus Mammalia
(b) Oviparous
Sol. Answer (3)

Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum

(a) Cnidoblasts
(1) Aurelia
(b) Tissue level of organization
(a) Unsegmented body
(2) Ascaris Aschelminthes
(b) Males and females distinct

(3) Salamandra (a) Tympanum represents middle ear

Amphibia
(b) External Fertilization
(a) Skin possesses hair
(4) Pteropus Mammalia
(b) Viviparous

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18. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without
even a single exception? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Mammalia : give birth to young ones
(2) Reptilia : possess three-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
(3) Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
(4) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Sol. Answer (4)
Mammalia – Majority give birth to young ones (viviparous) except platypus (Ornithorhynchus)
Reptilia – Majority mossess three chambered heart except Crocodilia which possess four chambered heart.
Chordata – Majority possess mouth with upper and lower jaw with exceptions e.g. urochordates, cephalo
chordates and cyclostomes
Chondrichthyes – Possess cartilaginous endoskeleton.

19. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins
(2) Female Ascaris - Sharply curved posterior end
(3) Male frog - A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
(4) Female cockroach - Anal cerci
Sol. Answer (1)
In male sharks, pelvic fins has claspers, helping in copulation. Female Ascaris is with straight posterior end
of body. During breeding season, inner digit of each fore limb in male frog develops copulatory organ.
Anal cerci are present in male cockroach.

20. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord while the other three
are correct? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
(2) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
(3) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(4) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
Sol. Answer (1)
Notochord is present during embryonic stage in humans but replaced by vertebral column in adults.

21. Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is correct ?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) All are bilaterally symmetrical
(2) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
(3) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine
(4) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three
Sol. Answer (4)
Spongilla – Phylum-Porifera (non-chordate)
Leech – Phylum-Annelida (non-chordate)
Dolphin – Class-Mammalia (chordate)
Penguin – Class-Aves (chordate)
Presence of special collar like cells (choanocyte) is a characteristic feature of phylum porifera, which is not
observed in any other phylum.

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54 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

22. Crocodile and penguin are similar to Whale and Dogfish in which one of the following features?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Possess a solid single stranded central nervous system
(2) Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
(3) Possess bony skeleton
(4) Have gill slits at some stage
Sol. Answer (4)
Crocodile – Reptilia (Class)(Chordate) Penguin – Class (Aves)(Chordate)
Whale – Class (Mammalia)(Chordate) Dogfish – Class (Pisces)(Chordate)
All are chordate having common features:
1. Dorsal, hollow central nervous system.
2. Paired pharyngeal gill slits, in higher chordates they occur in only embryonic stage.
Whales are viviparous, give birth to young ones.
Dogfish (Scoliodon) is a cartilaginous fish, having endoskeleton of cartilage.
23. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises 'jawless fishes'? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Mackerals and Rohu (2) Lampreys and hag fishes
(3) Guppies and hag fishes (4) Lampreys and eels
Sol. Answer (2)
Jawless fishes are jawless vertebrates, in which jaws are absent.
Jawless fishes belong to division agnatha, class cyclostomata.
Members of class cyclostomata have sucking, circular mouth without jaws, e.g. Lampreys and hagfishes.
24. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva
(2) Arthropoda – Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
(3) Chordata – Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside
(4) Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization
Sol. Answer (1)
Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva
Arthropoda – Body is divided into head thorax and abdomen which may get fused in some animals.
When head and thorax fuses to form cephalothorax and thorax and abdomen fuses
to form trunk.
Tracheal respiration also occurs
Chordata – Notochord at some stage, separate anal and urinary openings. In some animal
common chamber for alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tract is present.
Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry in adults and external fertilization

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25. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
A. Crocodile – 4-chambered heart B. Sea Urchin – Parapodia
C. Obelia – Metagenesis D. Lemur – Thecodont
(1) Only A and B (2) A, C and D (3) B, C and D (4) Only A and D
Sol. Answer (2)
Correct match is
Animals Morphological features
(A) Crocodile – Four-chambered heart
(B) Sea urchin – Aristotle's Lantern (Echinodermata)
(C) Obelia – Metagenesis (alternation of generation)(Cnidaria)
(D) Lemur – Thecodont (Teeth embedded in socket)(Mammalia)

26. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Ventral heart – Scorpion
(2) Post-anal tail – Octopus
(3) Ventral central nervous system – Leechn
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo – Chamaeleon
Sol. Answer (3)
 Leech belong to phylum Annelida (non-chordates). In non-chordates nerve cord is located ventrally, hence
leech possess ventral central nervous system.
 Presence of pharyngeal gills slits is a characteristic feature of chordates. In higher chordates such as Reptilia,
gill slits occur only in embryo stage and are absent in adults. Chameleon belongs to class Reptilia.
 Scorpion (Arthropod) is a non-chordate having dorsal heart
 Octopus (Molluscs) is a non-chordate, whereas presence of post-anal tail is a chordate feature.

27. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Ovoparity (2) Homoiothermy
(3) Toothless jaws (4) Functional post-anal tail
Sol. Answer (2)
Parrot-Aves, Platypus-Mammalia, Kangaroo-Mammalia
Parrot belonging to class Aves, where jaws are modified into beaks and beak is toothless
Aves and mammals, both are homothermals i.e. they maintain a constant body temperature.

28. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich (2) Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
(3) Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi (4) Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris
Sol. Answer (4)
Mammals are viviparous with few exceptions. For example
Ornithorynchus (Platypus) is oviparous
Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, Loris belong to class-mammalia
Ostrich-birds-oviparous
Platypus-oviparous
Kiwi-bird-oviparous
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56 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

29. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class-mammalia? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Seven cervical verebrae (2) Thecodont dentition
(3) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (4) Alveolar lungs
Sol. Answer (3)
Mammals possess 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

30. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?
(1) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta
(2) Housefly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta
(3) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber – Echinodermata
(4) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish, – Pisces
Sol. Answer (2)
Centipede – Chilopoda (Arthropoda)
Millipede – Diplopoda (Arthropoda)
Spider, scorpion – Arachnida (Arthropoda)
Spiny ant eater – Mammalia
Sea urchin – Echinodermata
Sea cucumber – Echinodermata
Flying fish – Exocoetus (Pisces)
Cuttle fish – Sepia (Molluscs)
Silver fish – Insecta (Arthropoda)

31. One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is

(1) Silverfish (2) Pufferfish (3) Flying fish (4) Cuttlefish
Sol. Answer (1)
Silverfish – (Insecta), Arthropoda
Pufferfish – Superclass pisces, vertebrata
Flying fish (Exocoetus) – Superclass pisces, chondrichthyes, vertebrata
Cuttlefish (Sepia) – Class-Cephalopoda, Molluscs

32. The characteristics of class Reptilia are :

(1) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external
ears
(2) Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary
canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca
(3) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy
(4) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales
Sol. Answer (1)
 Reptiles are first true land vertebrates and body is covered by dry and cornified skin. Scales or scutes in
reptiles are epidermal. External ear or pinna is absent in reptiles.
 Body covered with moist skin, devoid of scales, ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal,
urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca, all these are features of amphibia.
 Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy-features of osteichthyes.
 Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales-features of
chondrichthyes.

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Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (Chordates) 57
33. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristics and the taxon?
Animal Characteristic Taxon
(1) Duckbilled platypus Oviparous Mammalian
(2) Milipede Ventral nerve cord Arachnida
(3) Sea Anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria
(4) Silverfish Pectoral and Pelvic fins Chordata
Sol. Answer (1)
Correct Matches
Animal Characteristic Taxon
(1) Duckbilled platypus Oviparous Monotremata, Mammalia
(2) Milipede Ventral nerve cord Diplopoda, Arthropoda
(3) Sea Anemone Diploblastic Cnidaria, (ctenophora)
(4) Silverfish No fins, have jointed appandages Arthropoda, non-chordates

34. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays by

(1) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from cylindrical bodies
(2) Gill slits are ventrally placed
(3) Head and trunk are widened considerably
(4) Distinct demarcation between body and tail
Sol. Answer (1)

Sharks/Dogfishes Rays/Skates

Pectoral fins are distinctly marked off from cylindrical body Pectoral fins are fused along margin of trunk
Gills slits on lateral side Gill slits are ventral
Body is laterally compressed Body is dorsoventrally compressed

35. A common characteristic of all vertebrates without exception is

(1) The division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
(2) Their body covered with an exoskeleton
(3) The possession of two pairs of functional appendages
(4) The presence of well-developed skull
Sol. Answer (4)
Brain of all vertebrates is enclosed within cranium or skull.

36. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the metamerism is exhibited by

(1) Mollusca (2) Acanthocephala
(3) Cestoda (4) Chordata
Sol. Answer (4)
Metamerism is phenomenon where body is divided into parts or segments. Metamerism is seen in annelids,
arthropods and chordates.

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58 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

37. Which of the following is common among mammals?

(1) They undergo no moulting (2) They have seven cervical vertebrae
(3) They are carnivores (4) They have ventral nerve cord
Sol. Answer (2)
All mammals possess seven cervical vertebrae in neck region.

38. Pneumatic bones are found in

(1) Shark (2) Rana (3) Pigeon (4) Whale
Sol. Answer (3)
In Aves endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and long bones are hollow with air cavities. Such bones are
pneumatic bones.
Shark (chondrichthyes), Rana (Amphibia), Whale (Mammalia) does not have pneumatic bone. Pigeon (columba)
is Aves (birds) which possess pneumatic bones.

39. Which one of the following fish was introduced in India by foreigners?
(1) Mystus singhala (2) Clarius batracus (3) Labeo rohita (4) Pomphret
Sol. Answer (4)
Pomphret is most widely eaten fish in India and was introduced in India by foreigners.

40. The long bones are hollow and connected by air passages. These are the characteristics of
(1) Reptilia (2) Land vertebrates (3) Aves (4) Mammals
Sol. Answer (3)
In Aves, endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and long bones are hollow with air cavities. Such bones are
pneumatic bones.

41. Fish, which eradicates the mosquito larva, is

(1) Gambusia (2) Cuttlefish (3) Anabas (4) Rohu
Sol. Answer (1)
Gambusia fish feeds on mosquito larva and eradicate mosquito larva, so fish is used to control malaria.

42. Which of the following is not found in birds?

(1) Pelvic girdle (2) Pectoral girdle (3) Hind limb (4) Fore limb
Sol. Answer (4)
In Aves (birds) forelimbs are modified into wings.

43. What is true for mammalia?

(1) Platypus is oviparous (2) Bats have feathers
(3) Elephant is ovoviviparous (4) Diaphragm is absent in them
Sol. Answer (1)
 Platypus are oviparous mammals.
 Bat does not possess feathers, but possess patagium which develops as fold of skin, helping in flying.
 Elephants are viviparous
 Mammals posses diaphragm

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Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (Chordates) 59
44. Which of the following character is present in all chordates?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Vertebral column
(3) Pharyngeal gill clefts (4) Dorsal nerve cord
Sol. Answer (3)
Diaphragm is present in class-mammalia only. Vertebral column is observed in sub-phylum vertebrata only.
All chordates possess dorsal hollow nerve cord and paired pharyngeal gill slits.

45. In which of the following animal post anal tail is found?

(1) Earthworm (2) Lower invertebrate
(3) Scorpion (4) Snake
Sol. Answer (4)
Presence of post anal tail for balancing is a primary feature of chordates.
Earthworm, lower invertebrates, scorpion are non-chordates while snake (Reptilia) are chordates.

46. In which of the following notochord is present in embryonic stage?

(1) All chordates (2) Some chordates
(3) Vertebrates (4) Non-chordates
Sol. Answer (1)
Notochord is present throughout life or only during early embryonic development in chordates. Presence of
notochord is fundamental feature of chordates. In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony
vertebral column in adults.

47. Given below are four matches of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ
A. Silverfish - Trachea B. Scorpion - Book lung
C. Sea squirt - Pharyngeal gills D. Dolphin – Skin
The correct matches are
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (3) B and D (4) C and D
Sol. Answer (2)
A. Silver fish - Trachea (Arthropod)
B. Scorpion (Arthropod) - Book lung
C. Sea squirt (Urochordate) - Pharyngeal gills slit
D. Dolphin (Mammal) – Lungs

48. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body
(1) Homeothermy (2) Presence of diaphragm
(3) Four-chambered heart (4) Rib cage
Sol. Answer (2)
Presence of muscular diaphragm is unique to mammals.

49. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the
incorrect example.
(1) Colour change in Chameleon
(2) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in pufferfish
(3) Poison fangs in snakes
(4) Melanism in moths

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60 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

Poisonous fangs in snake are maxillary teeth located in maxilla. Snake poison is mixture of enzymes and
specific toxins and is good digestive juice. Poisonous fangs are used by snakes for self defence not for
predation.

50. Annual migration does not occur in the case of

(1) Arctic tern (2) Salmon (3) Siberian crane (4) Salamander
Sol. Answer (4)
Arctic tern shows longest yearly/annual migration
Salmon fish migrate to fresh water for spawning
Siberian cranes also show annual migration
Salamander does not show migration

51. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silverfish?

(1) They all possess dorsal heart (2) None of them is aquatic
(3) They all belong to the same phylum (4) They all have jointed paired appendages
Sol. Answer (1)
Nereis – Annelid (Phylum)
Scorpion – Arthropod (jointed appendages)
Cockroach – Arthropod (jointed appendages)
Silverfish – Arthropod (jointed appendages)
All above are non-chordates, and heart is dorsal in position in non-chordates.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : In metatherians, scrotum is present in front of penis.

R : In prototherians scrotum is present behind the penis.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is correct as in sub-class Metatheria of class mammalia, penis in male is bifurcated and scrotum
is present in front of penis.
Reason is false as in sub-class Prototheria of class mammalia, testis are abdominal and remain inside
abdominal cavity.

2. A : Birds have metanephric kidney and no urinary bladder.

R : South American Ostrich has urinary bladder.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is correct as birds have advanced metanephric kidneys and urinary bladder is absent as a flight
adaptation.
Reason is correct as south American ostrich (Rhea Americana) is a flightless bird, having urinary bladder
(Exception).
Both Assertion and Reason is true but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

3. A : All birds, except the one like Koel (cuckoo) build nests for retiring and taking rest during night time.
R : Koel lays eggs in the nests of tailor bird.

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Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (Chordates) 61
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is correct as all birds except koel (Cuckoo), build nest for retiring and taking rest during night time.
Koel do not build his own nest.
Reason is false as Koel exhibit Brood Parasitism, as Koel lays egg in nest of crow.

4. A : The duck-billed platypus and the spiny ant-eater, both are egg laying animals yet are grouped under
mammals.
R : Both of them have seven cervical vertebrae and mammary glands without teats.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is correct as duck billed platypus and spiny ant eater are oviparous mammals, but are grouped under
mammals due to presence of other mammalian features, such as presence of seven cervical vertebrae in neck
and mammary gland (without teats).
Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.

5. A : Bats and whales are classified as mammals.

R : Bats and whales show echolocation and four chambered heart.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is correct as bats (chiroptera order) and whales (cetacea order) are classified as mammals.
Reason is correct as bats and whales show echolocation and possess four chambered heart.
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion.

6. A : Piscean scales are similar to reptilian scales in origin.

R : Age of the animal can be deduced by lines of growth on both the scales.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false, as scales in fishes are mesodermal in origin where as scales in reptiles are epidermal in
origin.
Reason is true as age of animals can be deduced by lines of growth on both the scales.

7. A : Dicondylic skull is found in amphibians and mammals.

R : The number of cranial nerves in amphibians and mammals is same.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is correct as amphibian and mammals possess dicondylic skull.
Reason is false as amphibian possess 10 pairs of cranial nerves and mammals possess 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

8. A : Evolution of shelled eggs helped the reptiles to successfully adapt for terrestrial life.
R : The origin of shelled eggs occurred earlier than viviparity.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as reptiles are first successful land vertebrate and formation of shell around eggs helped
reptiles in terrestrial adaptation.
Reason is wrong as viviparity is exhibited by mammals, some reptiles and also by some lower animals even
before shelled egged animals first evolved.

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62 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment

9. A : All chordates have kidneys as excretory organs.

R : Kidneys help in removal of metabolic wastes along with regulating the osmolarity of body fluids.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false, all chordates does not possess kidneys as excretory organs.
e.g. Urochordata – neural glands for excretion
Cephalochordata – protonephridia for excretion
In vertebrates and some other chordates, a specialized organ, kidney function in both osmoregulation and
excretion.
 Assertion is false, Reason is true.

10. A : The lungs of birds are provided with air sacs.

R : Air sacs supplement respiration.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as air sacs are connected to lungs in birds. To bring fresh air to lungs, birds use eight or
nine air sacs situated on either side of lungs.
Reason is also true as air sacs makes ventilation in birds highly effecient. Air sacs ensure passage of air over
the gas exchange surface in only one direction and does not allow mixing of air. Thus air sacs supplement
respiration in birds.
Both Assertion and Reason is true, but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.

  

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Chapter 1
Structural Organisation in Animals
(Animal Tissues)

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Animal Tissue)
1. The term ‘tissue’ was introduced by
(1) Robert Hooke (2) Bichat (3) Ruysch (4) Mayer
Sol. Answer (2)
Robert Hooke first observed cell through a microscope as dead cells.
Bichat introduced the term 'Tissue' and is known as founder of animal histology. Mayer coined the term
'Histology'. Ruysch introduced the term 'Epithelium'.

2. Presence of tissues in a multicellular organism ensures

(1) Faster development (2) Division of labour
(3) Higher reproductive potential (4) Body strength
Sol. Answer (2)
Tissue is a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances, which are specialized to perform a specific
function. Each tissue performs one or more function of body. Thus, body of multicellular organism exhibits
division of labour and contribute to survival of body as whole.

3. A group of cells alike in form, function and origin constitute a/an

(1) Tissue (2) Organ (3) Organelle (4) Organ system
Sol. Answer (1)
Group of cells with similar appearance and common function form tissues.

4. The tissue that external and internal surfaces of parts of body in animals is
(1) Connective (2) Muscular (3) Nervous (4) Epithelial
Sol. Answer (4)
Occurring as sheet of cells, epithelial tissues, covers the outside of body and line organs and cavities within body.

(Epithelial Tissue)
5. Cells of germinal epithelium are _________.
(1) Cuboidal (2) Columnar (3) Ciliated (4) Squamous

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Sol. Answer (1)

Germinal epithelium of ovary and seminiferous tubule is made of cuboidal epithelial cells.

6. Cell junctions like tight, adhering and gap junctions are mainly present between the neighbouring
cells of
(1) Neural tissue (2) Connective tissue (3) Muscular tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
Sol. Answer (4)
Epithelial cells are held together by specialised intercellular junctions, which serve as structural and functional
links between cells.

7. Goblet cells secrete

(1) Mucus (2) Enzymes (3) HCl (4) Hormones
Sol. Answer (1)
Goblet cells are simple columnar cells that produce mucus. Because of shape produced during secretion of
mucus, mucus secreting cells are called goblet cells.

8. Pavement epithelium is an alternate name for

(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Compound epithelium
Sol. Answer (1)
Simple squamous epithelium consist of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. The cells
are closely fitted like tiles in a floor. So these are also known as pavement epithelium.

9. Match the following:

Column-I Column-II
a. Squamous epithelium (i) Lining of intestine
b. Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Ovary
c. Columnar epithelium (iii) Blood vessels
d. Ciliated epithelium (iv) Bronchioles
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
Sol. Answer (2)
Column-I Column-II
a. Squamous epithelium Blood vessels walls
b. Cuboidal epithelium Ovary (germinal epithelium)
c. Columnar epithelium Lining of intestine
d. Ciliated epithelium Bronchioles (Ciliated cuboidal epithelium)

10. Brush bordered columnar epithelial tissue is located in

(1) Fallopian tube (2) Oesophagus (3) Trachea (4) Small intestine
Sol. Answer (4)
Intestinal epithelium bear microvilli to increase surface area of absorption. This gives a brush-bordered
appearance to epithelium. Hence called brush-bordered columnar epithelium.

11. Trapped dust particles are pushed out of respiratory tract by

(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Compound epithelium
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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 3
Sol. Answer (3)
Columnar or cuboidal epithelial cells bear cilia on their free surface, called ciliated epithelium. The cilia remain
in rhythmic motion and create a current to transport material which come in contact with them. In respiratory
tract, it helps in expelling mucus and trapped particles towards outside.

(Connective Tissue)
12. Which of the following cells of connective tissue secrete antibodies?
(1) Mast cells (2) Plasma cells (3) Macrophages (4) Fibroblasts
Sol. Answer (2)
Mast cells, plasma cells, macrophages, fibroblasts are cells of connective tissue. Plasma cells produce
antibodies or immunoglobulins.

13. Dense irregular connective tissue is found in

(1) Skin (2) Tendon (3) Ligament (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblast and many fibres (mostly collagen) and are oriented differently.
This tissue is present in skin.

14. The cells of connective tissue which produce histamine are

(1) Fibroblasts (2) Macrophages (3) Mast cells (4) Plasma cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Cytoplasm of mast cells contain granules of Heparin and Histamine. Histamine produces inflammation,
increases permeability of blood vessels, causes contraction of smooth muscles.

15. Blubber of whale is an example of

(1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (3) Tendon (4) Muscular tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Adipose tissue is an aggregation of fat cells or adipocytes. Each adipocyte is rounded or oval containing a
large droplet of fat that almost fills it.
Adipose tissue is found in blubber of whales and elephants that regulates body fat and weight.

16. Haversian canals are found in

(1) Matrix of mammalian bone (2) Matrix of amphibian bone
(3) Matrix of reptilian bone (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Haversian canal is characteristic feature of mammalian bones are present in matrix. Each haversian canal
contains an artery, a vein, a lymph vessel, a nerve and some bone cells all packed within connective tissue.

17. The protein which occurs in the matrix of bone is

(1) Ossein (2) Chondrin (3) Keratin (4) Globulin
Sol. Answer (1)
Matrix of bone contains ossein protein.

18. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the structure of a bone

(1) The matrix of bone is present in the form of layers called lamellae
(2) Lamellae consist of fluid filled spaces called lacunae
(3) Lacunae contain bone cells called chondrocytes
(4) The matrix is solid because of the presence of salts such as calcium phosphate

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 4 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

Bone cells called osteocytes lie in lacunae singly.

19. The most widely distributed connective tissue in the body of animals is
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose (3) Cartilage (4) Dense irregular
Sol. Answer (1)
Areolar tissue is most widely distributed connective tissue in animal body. Areolar tissue serves as support
framework for epithelium. It is present beneath the skin.
Areolar tissue joins skin to muscles, fills space inside organs.

20. The connective tissue which acts as an insulator and prevent loss of heat from the body is
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose (3) Blood (4) Cartilage
Sol. Answer (2)
Adipose tissue is specialised loose connective tissue which possesses abundant fat storing cells/adipocytes.
Adipose tissue act as fat reservoir and act as an insulator. Being poor conductor of heat, it reduces heat loss
from body.

21. Both RBCs and WBCs are formed in

(1) Cartilage (2) Thyroid (3) Bone marrow (4) Plasma
Sol. Answer (3)
In long bones, cavity called bone marrow cavity is present. This cavity is filled with soft and semi solid fatty
tissue termed as bone marrow. The bone marrow in some bones is site of production of blood cells (such as
RBCs, WBCs, Platelets etc).

22. Which of the following cells in areolar tissue are phagocytic?

(1) Histiocytes (2) Fibroblasts (3) Macrophages (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Macrophages are also known as Histiocytes, which occur in connective tissue. Macrophages engulf and digest
microbes, foreign particles and degenerating cells. Macrophages/Histiocytes are thus phagocytic in nature.

23. The connective tissue in which the matrix is not secreted by its component cells is
(1) Skeletal (2) Vascular/fluid (3) Dense regular (4) Dense irregular
Sol. Answer (2)
Fluid connective tissue (blood) is made of fibre free fluid matrix and specialised living cells that do not secrete
fluid matrix. The fluid component of vascular tissue is derived from extracellular fluid.

24. Sprain is caused due to stretching of

(1) Tendon (2) Ligament (3) Muscle (4) Nerve
Sol. Answer (2)
Sprain is injury in joint in which some of fibres of supporting ligaments are ruptured through continuity of
ligament and its binding to two bones remain intact.

(Muscular Tissue)
25. Which of the following muscles act involuntarily?
(a) Striated muscles (b) Smooth muscles
(c) Cardiac muscles (d) Skeletal muscles
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (d)
Sol. Answer (2)
Skeletal muscle (striated or striped muscle) – Voluntary muscle, e.g. movement of arms, legs etc.
Smooth muscle (unstriped or non-striated muscle) – Involuntary muscle e.g. posterior part of oesophagus,
stomach, intestine, blood vessels
Cardiac muscle – Involuntary muscle e.g. cardiac muscle in wall of heart.
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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 5
26. In a skeletal muscle fibre, the nuclei lie are
(1) Diffused (2) Centrally (3) Peripherally (4) Absent is absent
Sol. Answer (3)
Skeletal/striated muscle fibers are long cylindrical unbranched fibers. These fibers are multinucleated and their
nuclei are peripheral in position.

27. Intercalated discs are present in

(1) Striated muscles (2) Unstriated muscles (3) Cardiac muscles (4) Neurons
Sol. Answer (3)
Intercalated discs are unique and distinguishing feature of cardiac muscle. They are dark, irregular zig-zag
partitions between adjacent cardiac muscle cells. They have both transverse and lateral portions. Intercalated
disc provide firm adhesions between adjacent cells, electrical coupling for spread of excitation as well as
contraction.

28. Which type of muscles show peristaltic movements in the gastrointestinal tract?
(1) Striated (2) Smooth (3) Cardiac (4) Skeletal
Sol. Answer (2)
Smooth muscles (non-striated muscles) help in bringing about involuntary movement in body such as peristalsis
(movement of food in alimentary canal). These muscles are found in posterior part of oesophagus, stomach
and intestine which undergo peristaltic movement in gastrointestinal tract.

29. Cardiac muscle fibres are

(1) Striated and involuntary (2) Striated and voluntary
(3) Non-striated and involuntary (4) Non-striated and voluntary
Sol. Answer (1)
Cardiac myofibrils have transverse faint dark and light bands, which alternate with each other. Cardiac muscles
are involuntary muscles.

30. Gap junctions are characteristically found in

(1) Skeletal muscles (2) Cardiac muscles
(3) Multi-unit smooth muscles (4) Striated muscles
Sol. Answer (2)
Gap junctions allow molecules and ions to pass freely between cells. Cardiac muscles are auto-rhythmic.
Intercalated discs are located between cardiac muscle cells. They contain gap junctions which provide channels
between cells. The intercalated disc allows waves of depolarisation to sweep across cells thus synchronising
muscle contraction.

31. Contractile proteins are found in

(1) Bone (2) Blood (3) Cartilage (4) Muscles
Sol. Answer (4)
Muscles have contractile nature. The contractile structure of muscle cells are called myofibrils. Myofibrils are
made of myofilaments. Myofilaments are of two types, myosin and actin. Contraction occurs due to sliding
of actin filaments on myosin filaments.

(Nervous Tissue)
32. The nerve cells do not possess
(1) Axon (2) Dendrites (3) Nerve endings (4) Adhering junctions
Sol. Answer (4)
Nerve cells do not lie in direct contact with each other. Signals are transmitted from one nerve cell to other
via electrical synapse mediated by neurotransmitter. Thus nerve cells do not possess adhering junctions.

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 6 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment

33. Nissl’s granules are present in which part of a neuron?

(1) Cyton (2) Synaptic knobs (3) Axon (4) Nerve endings
Sol. Answer (1)
Nissl granules or Nissl bodies are present in cyton or cell body. Nissl bodies are basophilic structure of various
shapes. They are pieces of granular endoplasmic reticulum with or without free polyribosomes. They aid in rapid
synthesis of protein and enzymes required by neurons.

34. The functional junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called
(1) Desmosome (2) Synapse (3) Oblique bridge (4) Tight junction
Sol. Answer (2)
Synapse is an area of specialised junction between two neurons for transmission of impulse. Synapse between
axon terminal of one and dendron terminal of another mode of neurotransmission across a synapse is chemical
or electric.

35. Neuroglia
(1) Protect neurons
(2) Support neurons
(3) Make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Neuroglial cells are specialised cells found in brain and spinal cord supporting neurons. About more than 50%
of all brain cells are neurolglial cells. These cells have different shapes and transmit impulse from one neuron
to next neuron.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Epithelial Tissue)
1. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have
(1) Pinocytic vesicles (2) Microvilli (3) Zymogen granules (4) Phagocytic vesicles
Sol. Answer (2)
Each epithelial cell of a villus (intestine) on its apical surface has many microscopic projections or microvilli,
that are exposed to intestinal lumen. These finger-like projections are villi.

2. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal (3) Glandular (4) Ciliated
Sol. Answer (4)
Ciliated columnar epithelia occurs in inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes (oviduct) and most of
respiratory tract.

3. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. junction and its function?

(1) Tight junction – Promotes leaking of substances across a tissue
(2) Adhering junction – Keep neighbouring cells together
(3) Gap junction – Connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions and small molecules
(4) Gap junction – Facilitates the cells to communicate with each other

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 7
Sol. Answer (1)
Tight junctions do not allow leaking of substances across tissue. Plasma membranes in apical parts of adjacent
epithelial cells become tightly packed together or are even fused to form tight junctions.

(Connective Tissue)
4. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged. Which cartilage is involved?
(1) Elastic cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (3) Calcified cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage
Sol. Answer (2)
Hyaline cartilage occurs in larynx, nasal septum, tracheal rings and costal cartilage. In hyaline cartilage matrix
is fibre-less and glass-like (Hyaline) but translucent. It gives those structure a definite but pliable form.

5. Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones?

(1) Calcified cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (3) Elastic cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage
Sol. Answer (2)
Hyaline cartilage is most abundant type of cartilage. Hyaline cartilage occurs in trachea, the larynx of nose
and ends of long bone where they from joint.

6. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in pinna is also found in
(1) Tip of the nose (2) Vertebrae (3) Nails (4) Ear ossicles
Sol. Answer (1)
Yellow elastic cartilage is found in external ear or pinna, external auditory canal, eustachian tube, tip of nose,
epiglottis and some laryngeal components. Elastin fibres in yellow elastic cartilage provide both colour and
elasticity to cartilage.

7. What happens if the bone of a frog is kept in dilute hydrochloric acid?

(1) It becomes flexible (2) It turns black

(3) It breaks into pieces (4) It shrinks

Sol. Answer (1)

When bone is kept in dilute acid for long hours, then calcium, magnesium, potassium of inorganic part of matrix
get dissolved. Organic part remains intact. Bones become flexible if kept in acid as calcium salt are removed
from bone.

8. Inflammatory substance produced during allergic reactions by mast cells is

(1) Histamine (2) Heparin (3) Serotonin (4) Fibrinogen
Sol. Answer (1)
Mast cell contain granules of heparin and histamine. Histamine produces inflammation increases permeability
of blood vessels, activates blood platelets and causes contraction of smooth muscles. Heparin prevents blood
clotting.

9. Which of the following cells can release heparin and histamine in the blood?
(1) Mast cells (2) Eosinophils
(3) Mast cells and basophils (4) Eosinophils and mast cells

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Sol. Answer (3)

Both mast cells and basophils have cytoplasmic granules. Granules contain heparin, histamine and other
inflammatory substances.

10. Nucleus pulposus is present in

(1) Centre of skull bones (2) Patella
(3) Scapula (4) Centre of intervertebral disc
Sol. Answer (4)
In centre of intervertebral disc, a soft area is present called nucleus pulposus which is supposed to be remnant
of notochord.

(Muscular Tissue and Nervous Tissue)

11. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of biceps muscle?
(1) We are usually able to make it contract merely by thinking about it
(2) It has alternate light and dark bands
(3) Its muscle fibre taper at both ends
(4) Its muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion
Sol. Answer (3)
Biceps muscle is skeletal/striated muscle. Smooth muscle fibres are long, cylindrical unbranched thread like
cells which show alternate dark and light band. Smooth muscles are voluntary muscles
Smooth muscle fibres are spindle-shaped with blood middle part and tapering ends.

12. Which of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(1) Iris - Involuntary smooth muscle
(2) Heart wall - Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth muscle fibres
(4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle
Sol. Answer (1)
Correct match to options are
(1) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscles
(2) Heart wall – Cardiac muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm – Skeletal muscle fibres
(4) Muscles in abdominal wall – Skeletal muscles.

13. Unipolar neurons with an axon and no dendrite are present in

(1) Embryos (2) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
(3) Brain (4) Retina
Sol. Answer (1)
Unipolar neurons have only one axon, but no dendron. Such neurons are found in early embryo.

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 9

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions

1. Smooth muscles are [NEET-Phase-2-2016]

(1) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated (2) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(3) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated (4) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
Sol. Answer (1)
Smooth muscles are involuntary, fusiform, nonstriated muscles.
2. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location? [NEET-2016]
Tissue Location
(1) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
(2) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
(3) Areolar tissue Tendons
(4) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
Sol. Answer (2)
Columnar epithelium is present in the lining of stomach.
 Tendon is dense connective tissue and connects muscle to bone.
 Tip of nose consists of elastic cartilage.
3. The function of the gap junction is to : [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
(2) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(3) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions,
small molecules and some large molecules.
(4) Separate two cells from each other.
Sol. Answer (3)
Gap junctions are communicating junctions in animals which facilitates communication between two adjoining
cells by protein bridges for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and large molecules.
4. Choose the correctly matched pair : [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue (2) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(3) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue (4) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
Sol. Answer (3)
5. Choose the correctly matched pair: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated epithelium (2) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular epithelium
(3) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal epithelium (4) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous epithelium
Sol. Answer (3)
6. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Insulin (2) Trypsin
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Collagen
Sol. Answer (4)
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10 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment

7. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled A,
B, C and D and select the right option about them. [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
A

B
C

D
Options :
Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

(1) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cells

(2) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres

(3) Macrophage Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell

(4) Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage

Sol. Answer (1)

A. Macrophages are irregular in outline. They have many elongated pseudopodia. Cells are attached to matrix
fibres.
B. Fibroblast are flat, irregular cells with branched stellate process fibroblast have flattened heterochromatic
nucleus and small amount of cytoplasm with fewer organelles.
C. Several collagen fibers (proteinaceous) in matrix of connective tissue.
D. Mast cells are rounded or oval cells having filopodia. Nucleus is small and centrally placed. Cytoplasm
contain granules of heparin and histamine.
8. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Cartilage (2) Ligament (3) Areolar tissue (4) Bone
Sol. Answer (1)
Yellow elastic cartilage is present in pinna, ear canal, eustachian tube, tip of nose and some laryngeal
components.
9. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Tissue Location Function

(1) (B) Glandular epithelium Intestine Secretion

(2) (C) Collagen fibres Cartilage Attach skeletal muscles to bones

(3) (D) Smooth muscle tissue Heart Heart contraction

(4) (A) Columnar epithelium Nephron Secretion and absorption

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 11
Sol. Answer (1)
Option Tissue Location Function
A Columnar epithelium Intestine and stomach Secretion and absorption
B Glandular epithelium Intestine Secretion
C Dense regular connective tissue Tendons and ligaments Locomotion
D Cardiac muscle cells Heart Heart contraction
10. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Fallopian tubes and urethra (2) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(3) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes (4) Bile duct and oesophagus
Sol. Answer (3)
The epithelium consist of columnar cells that possess cilia over their free surface. Ciliated columnar epithelium
occurs in respiratory tract (except terminal bronchioles and alveoli), fallopian tube, parts of uterus and cervix
and efferent tubules of testes.
11. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Columnar epithelium (2) Connective tissue
(3) Smooth muscle tissue (4) Squamous epithelium
Sol. Answer (4)
Blood vessels contain a central lumen lined with single layer of flattened epithelial cells-squamous epithelial
cells. The smooth surface of squamous epithelium minimizes resistance to flow of blood.
12. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium (4) Ciliated columnar epithelium
Sol. Answer (1)
13. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Glandular (2) Ciliated (3) Squamous (4) Cuboidal
Sol. Answer (2)
14. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Connective tissue (2) Epithelial tissue (3) Neural tissue (4) Muscular tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
15. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Nails (2) Ear ossicles (3) Tip of the nose (4) Vertebrae
Sol. Answer (3)
External ears and pinna is made of yellow elastic cartilage.
16. Mast cells secrete [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Hippurin (2) Myoglobin (3) Histamine (4) Haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (3)
17. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Pinocytic vesicles (2) Phagocytic vesicles (3) Zymogen granules (4) Micro-villi
Sol. Answer (4)
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12 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment

18. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cells of
the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Osteocytes (2) Malpighian layer of the skin
(3) Liver cells (4) Neurons
Sol. Answer (4)
In nerve cells power of division and regeneration are absent.
19. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location

(1) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and closely attached with the bones of the limbs
(2) Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the walls of the heart
(3) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart
(4) Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends, attached with the bones of the ribs
Sol. Answer (1)
Skeletal/striated muscle fibers are long cylindrical unbranched thread-like cells which show alternate light and
dark cross-bands. These fibres occur in parallel bundles to form striated muscle. Most of striated muscles are
attached to bones and accomplish a range of movements.

20. Which one of the following human organs is often called the "graveyard of RBCs"?
(1) Gall bladder (2) Kidney (3) Spleen (4) Liver
Sol. Answer (3)
Spleen eliminates worn out or damaged red blood cells so spleen is often called graveyard of RBCs.

21. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively termed as

(1) Endocytosis (2) Suspension feeding (3) Omnivores (4) Mucous trap
Sol. Answer (1)
Endocytosis is a process by which material move into cell. Pinocytosis is mechanism by which cells ingest
extracellular fluid and its contents; it involves formation of invagination by cell membrane and which closes and
breaks off from to form fluid-filled vacuoles in cytoplasm.
Pinocytosis and phagocytosis are both types of endocytosis. Pinocytosis is cellular drinking and phagocytosis
is cellular eating.

22. An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells, arranged edge to edge so as to appear like closely packed tiles,
is found to be present at
(1) Outer surface of ovary (2) Inner lining of fallopian tube
(3) Inner lining of stomach (4) Inner lining of cheeks
Sol. Answer (4)
Inner lining of cheeks is stratified keratinised squamous epithelium. This epithelium is compound epithelium
in which cells of superficial layer are squamous, i.e. polygonal and flattened in outline.
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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 13
23. The desmosomes are concerned with
(1) Cell division (2) Cell adherence (3) Cytolysis (4) Cellular excretion
Sol. Answer (2)
Desmosomes are intercellular junctions, these are plaque like areas which provides strong attachment between
two adjacent cells with the help of adhesion molecules and filaments. Desmosomes serve anchoring function.

24. Stratum germinativum is an example of which kind of epithelium?

(1) Columnar (2) Squamous (3) Cuboidal (4) Ciliated
Sol. Answer (1)
Stratum germinativum or stratum basale is a layer of columnar epithelium cells that actively divide and are
responsible for regenerating epidermis.

25. Basement membrane is made up of

(1) Cell product of epithelial cell (2) Epidermal cell only
(3) Endodermal cell (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Basement membrane is delicate non cellular layer made of extracellular material that lies below epithelium in
contact with its basal surface. Basement membrane is made of two parts outer basal lamina and inner reticular
lamina. Basement membrane provides elestic support and also anchors epithelial tissues to underlying
connective tissue for obtaining nutrients.
Basal lamina : Secreted by epithelial cells and formed by glyco-protein and mucopolysaccharides.
Reticular lamina : Inner thick layer composed of collagen or reticular fibers of underlying connective tissue.

26. The Nissl’s granules of nerves cell are made up of

(1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) Ribosome (4) Protein
Sol. Answer (3)
Cyton or cell body of neurons contain characteristic deeply stained particles called Nissl's granules. Nissl's
granules are large and irregular masses of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum.

27. Protein present in cartilage is

(1) Cartilagin (2) Ossein (3) Chondrin (4) Oesein
Sol. Answer (3)
The ground substance or matrix of cartilage is called chondrin. Chondrin is a bluish-green gelatin-like substance,
made of protoglycans consisting of glycoproteins and glucosaminoglycans.

28. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(1) Sarcomere (2) Z-band
(3) Cross bridges (4) Myofibril
Sol. Answer (1)
Sarcomere is a part of myofibril between two successive Z-line. The sarcomere is structural and functional unit
of myofibril. A sarcomere hence, comprises of single. A-band and half of each adjacent I-band from a fine,
dense, dark Z-band at centre of each I-band, actin filament extend through I-band and encroach between myosin
filament. Thus each segment of myofibril from one Z-band to next function as contractile unit called sarcomere.
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14 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment

29. Which of the following is the contractile protein of a muscle?

(1) Tropomyosin (2) Tubulin (3) Myosin (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Myofibrils are made of two contractile protein filament-thicker myosin and thinner actin.

30. Tendon is made up of

(1) Yellow fibrous connective tissue (2) Modified white fibrous tissue
(3) Areolar tissue (4) Adipose tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Tendons are made of white fibrous dense regular connective tissue and contain abundant fasicles of white
collagen fibers. Tendons are inelastic in nature and connect muscle to bones.

31. Ligament is a
(1) Inelastic white fibrous tissue (2) Modified white fibrous tissue
(3) Modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Ligaments are yellow elastic fibrous (dense regular) connective tissue. Ligaments are elastic in nature where
matrix is pervaded by bundles of elastic fibres and collagen fibres.

32. Why hair loss is more in old age?

(1) Reduction of blood supply (2) Decrease in protein synthesis
(3) Low energy production (4) Reduced storage of glycogen
Sol. Answer (1)
Due to reduction in blood supply, hair follicle does not receive proper nutrition. Due to poor nutrition hair fall
occurs in old age.

33. What happens if bone of frog is kept in dilute hydrochloric acid?

(1) Will becomes flexible (2) Will turn black
(3) Will break into pieces (4) Will shrink
Sol. Answer (1)
When bone is kept dipped in dilute acid for long hours, then calcium, magnesium and potassium of inorganic
part of matrix get dissolved but organic part remain intact. Bones become flexible if immersed in acid as
calcium salts are removed from bone.

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 15
34. Characteristic of simple epithelium is
(1) They are arranged indiscriminately (2) They make a definite layer
(3) Continue to divide and help in organ function (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Simple or unilaminal epithelium is a tissue that is made of single layer of compactly arranged cells all of which
rest over a non cellular basement membrane.

35. What is sarcomere?

(1) Part between two H-line (2) Part between two A-line
(3) Part between two I-band (4) Part between two Z-line
Sol. Answer (4)
A sarcomere is defined as segment between two neighbouring Z-line.

36. Which statement is correct for muscle contraction?

(1) Length of H-zone decreases (2) Length of A-band decreases
(3) Length of l-band increases (4) Length of two Z-line increases
Sol. Answer (1)
During muscle contraction length of H-zone decreases.

37. What will happen if ligaments are torn?

(1) Bones will move freely at joint and no pain (2) Bone less movable at joint & pain
(3) Bone will become unfixed (4) Bone will become fixed
Sol. Answer (3)
Ligaments are structure which connect bone to bone. They are made of bundles of elastic fibres and few
collagen fibers.

38. Which of the following statement is correct for node of Ranvier of nerve?
(1) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(3) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous
(4) Covered by myelin sheath
Sol. Answer (2)
Myelinated neurons possess axons enveloped with lipid rich sheath called myelin sheath. Myelin sheath is
present as spiral wrapping around axons of each neurons. Myelin sheath in neuron is not a continuous sheath.
Certain gaps/intervals are present between adjacent sheaths of single axon. These gaps which are present
between two adjacent myelin sheath are called node of ranvier.

39. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
(1) Striated muscle (2) Areolar tissue
(3) Stratified epithelium (4) Myelinated nerve fibres
Sol. Answer (2)
Connective tissue is most abundant and widely distributed tissue in body of animals. Connective tissue consist
of living cell embedded in abundant non-living intercellular matrix which connects different tissues or organs.
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16 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment

Areolar tissue loose connective tissue and most widely distributed connective tissue in animal body.
Stratified epithelial tissue consist of variously shaped cells closely arranged in one or more layers. There is
little intercellular material between epithelial cells.
Striated muscles are made up of many long, cylindrical, fiber like-cells, arranged in the form of sheet or bundles.
The muscle fibers have no intercellular substances.
Myelinated nerve fibers does not possess intercellular substances or extracellular material.

40. Which among following be described as Nissl’s granules in a nerve cell are now identified as?
(1) Cell metabolites (2) Fat granules (3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria
Sol. Answer (3)
Cyton or cell body of neurons contain characteristic deeply stained particles, called Nissl’s granules. Nissl’s
granules are large and irregular masses of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum.

41. Mast cells of connective tissue contain

(1) Vasopressin and relaxin (2) Heparin and histamine
(3) Heparin and calcitonin (4) Serotonin and melanin
Sol. Answer (2)
Mast cells contain cytoplasmic granules of heparin and histamine. Heparin prevents blood clotting. Histamine
produces inflammation, increases permeability of blood vessels and causes contraction of smooth mucles.

42. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
(1) Thrombocytes (2) Tendon
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Ciliated epithelium
Sol. Answer (4)
Epithelial cells are held together by intercellular junctions which serve as structural and functional links between
them.

43. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide
aerobically?
(1) Unstriated muscle cells (2) Liver cells
(3) Red blood cells (4) White blood cells
Sol. Answer (3)
In RBC there is anaerobic respiration.

44. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(1) Iris - Involuntary smooth muscle
(2) Heart wall - Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth muscle fibres
(4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle
Sol. Answer (1)
Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
Heart wall – Cardiac muscle
Biceps of upper arm – Skeletal muscle fibres
Abdominal wall – Skeletal muscle fibres

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 17

SECTION - D

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : Mammary glands are apocrine glands.

R : The product of secretion is shed with the whole cell leading to its destruction.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as mammary glands are apocrine gland.
Reason is false as in apocrine glands only apical portion of cytoplasm is discharged along with secretory
product.

2. A : Human bone has Haversian canals.

R : Haversian canals are interconnected by Volkmann’s canals.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as compact bones are composed of many parallel, longitudinal column like structure called
haversian canal.
Reason is also true as haversian canals are connected to each other by volksman canal.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.

3. A : In non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium stratum corneum is without keratin..

R : Such epithelium occurs over surfaces which are not exposed to drying but are subject to abrasions.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium, stratum corneum (i.e. superficial layers)
are devoid of insoluble protein called keratin.
Reason is also true as due to absence of keratin, this epithelium covers moist surfaces such as buccal cavity,
pharynx, oesophagus and are subjected to abrasions.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

4. A : The nucleus of plasma cell has cart wheel appearance.

R : Nucleus contains peripheral clumps of heterochromatin.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as nucleus in plasma cells is eccentric but rounded and have cart wheel appearance.
Reason is also true as cart wheel appearance is due to peripheral clumps of heterochromatin.
Both Assertion and Reason is true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

5. A : Yellow bone marrow is reserve erythropoietic tissue.

R : After severe bleeding yellow marrow may convert to red marrow.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as yellow bone marrow is reserve erythropoietic tissue.
Reason is also true as body can convert yellow bone marrow back to red marrow in order to increase blood
cell production.

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18 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment

6. A : The cells that produce and secrete fibres are called fibroblasts.

R : Fibroblasts are the characteristic cells of all types of connective tissue.

Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as fibroblast are most abundant cells of areolar tissue. Fibroblast secrete most of extracellular
matrix as well as various type of fibers.
Reason is false as fibroblast are not the characteristic cell for specialized connective tissue such as bone,
cartilage, blood and lymph.

7. A : Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.

R : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.

Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is correct as gap junction facilitate cells to communicate with each other by connecting cytoplasm.
Reason is correct as gap junction allow rapid transfer of ions and molecules between adjoining cells.
So both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.

8. A : Intercellular material is minimum between the cells of epithelial tissue.

R : Epithelial cells are not secretory in nature.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as epithelial tissue consist of variously shaped cells closely arranged in one or more layers.
There is little intercellular material between epithelial cells.
Reason is false as epithelial cells are secretory in nature, epithelial cells secrete basal lamina (basement
membrane)
Assertion is true but reason is false.

9. A : Smooth muscle fibres are unstriated, fusiform and uninucleate.

R : These cells are involuntary in function.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as smooth muscles are non-striated, and are fusiform (elongated and spindle shaped, pointed
or tapered at ends and broad in middle). Smooth muscles have centrally located single oval nucleus.
Reason is true as smooth muscles are involuntary in their activity, i.e. their functioning cannot be directly
controlled.
Assertion and Reason is true but Reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

10. A : The inner lining of trachea, bronchi and fallopian tubes has simple epithelium with non-motile cilia.
R : Cilia form the brush-border.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as epithelium lining inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes and most of respiratory
tract is ciliated columnar cells.
Reason is also false as brush bordered epithelium of intestinal mucosa bear microvilli on surface.
Both Assertion and Reason is false.

  
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Chapter 12
Structural Organisation in Animals
(Animal Morphology)

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Earthworm)
1. Earthworms are commonly found in
(1) Deep water (2) Saline water
(3) Upper layer of the soil (4) Air
Sol. Answer (3)
Earthworm is terrestrial animal found in wet soil. They usually live in burrows found in upper layer of soil.
2. Dorsal surface of earthworm is recognised by
(1) Genital apertures (2) Setae
(3) Dark mid-dorsal line (4) Cuticle
Sol. Answer (3)
The dorsal surface of body in earthworm is recognised by a dark median line (mid-dorsal), which is dorsal blood
vessel beneath skin. Their ventral surface can be recognised by presence of genital apertures.
3. In earthworm, small fleshy lobe hung over mouth is known as
(1) Peristomium (2) Nephridiospores (3) Clitellum (4) Prostomium
Sol. Answer (4)
First segment on anterior end of mouth is peristomium (buccal segment). The dorsal edge of peristomium
projects forward above the mouth as small fleshy lobe called 'Prostomium' which serve as covering for mouth.
Prostomium is used as muscular probe in burrowing and sensory in function.
4. In earthworms, sperms are received during copulation inside special apertures known as
(1) Female genital pore (2) Clitellum
(3) Spermathecal apertures (4) Coelomic epithelium
Sol. Answer (3)
There are four pairs of spermathecae apertures situated on ventro lateral sides of intersegmental grooves; i.e.
5th to 9th segments. They serve to receive sperms from another worm during copulation.

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64 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) Solutions of Assignment

5. Earthworm body is covered externally by a thin, non-cellular layer called

(1) Body wall (2) Epidermis
(3) Coelomic epithelium (4) Cuticle
Sol. Answer (4)
Body wall of earthworm is covered externally by thin, non-cellular layer, secreted by epidermis below it.

6. Egg case in earthworms is formed by the secretion of a material which is secreted from
(1) Peristomium (2) Prostomium (3) Clitellar region (4) Post-clitellar region
Sol. Answer (3)
In mature worms, a prominent dark circular bond of glandular tissue is found from 14th to 16th segment. This
is known as clitellum. Clitellum segment secretes material (i.e. mucus and albumen etc.) for formation of cocoon
or egg capsule.

7. Buccal cavity in earthworm extends from

(1) 1st to 3rd segment (2) 1st to 7th segment (3) 3rd to 5th segment (4) 5th to 7th segment
Sol. Answer (1)
In earthworm mouth leads into thin-walled small tube called buccal cavity. It extends from first to middle of
third segment.

8. In earthworm, the humic acid present in humus part of soil is neutralised in stomach by secretion of
(1) Prostate glands (2) Blood glands (3) Calciferous glands (4) Gizzard
Sol. Answer (3)
Stomach walls are highly vascular and glandular. In stomach walls, chalky secretion of calciferous glands
neutralises humic acid present in humus.

9. The surface area of intestine in earthworm is greatly increased by the presence of

(1) Gizzard (2) Typhlosole (3) Buccal cavity (4) Calciferous glands
Sol. Answer (2)
The characteristic feature of earthworm intestine between 26th to 95th segment is presence of internal median
fold of dorsal wall called ‘Typhlosole’. This increases effective area of digestion and absorption in intestine.

10. In earthworm, haemoglobin is present in the dissolved state in

(1) Lymph (2) Bile (3) Plasma (4) Blood corpuscles
Sol. Answer (3)
Blood in earthworm is composed of fluid plasma and colourless blood corpuscles. A coloured respiratory
pigment, haemoglobin is present in plasma. It gives red colour to blood and aid in transportation of oxygen
for respiration.

11. In earthworm, blood glands are present in the dissolved state in

(1) 4th, 5th and 6th segments (2) 3rd and 4th segments
(3) 5th, 6th and 7th segments (4) 7th and 9th segments
Sol. Answer (1)
In earthworm, segments 4th, 5th and 6th lying above pharyngeal mass, there exist small, red-coloured, follicular
bodies called blood glands. These blood glands are considered to produce blood corpuscles and haemoglobin.

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) 65
12. In earthworm, 10th and 11th segments bear loop-like broad vessels without valves, such vessels are known as
(1) Lateral hearts (2) Latero-oesophageal hearts
(3) Anterior loops (4) Dorsal-blood vessel
Sol. Answer (3)
There is a pair of thin walled, non-pulsatile, loop like broad vessels without valves in each of 10th of 11th segment.
These vessels are known as anterior loops.
13. In earthworm, CO2 diffuses out to surrounding atmosphere through
(1) Spiracles (2) Nephridiopores (3) Body surface (4) Setae
Sol. Answer (3)
Special respiratory organs are lacking in earthworm. Gaseous exchange takes place through body surface.
Gaseous exchange i.e. intake of O2 and giving out of CO2 take place between blood capillaries of outer
epidermis and surface film of moisture. Hence cutaneous respiration takes place in earthworm.
14. In earthworm, nerve ring lies in
(1) 2nd segment (2) 4th segment (3) 1st segment (4) 7th segment
Sol. Answer (2)
In earthworm, there is a pair of closely united white, pear shaped cerebral ganglia which lies dorsally in
depression between buccal cavity and pharynx in 3rd segment. These ganglia elongate laterally giving rise to
a pair of thick stout connectives, encircling pharynx and meet ventrally into pair of ganglia beneath pharynx
in 4th segment.
15. In earthworm, nerve cord runs posteriorly in
(1) Mid-dorsal line (2) Mid-ventral line
(3) Either dorsal or ventral side (4) Pharyngeal region only
Sol. Answer (2)
Earthworm bears paired ventral nerve cord that runs backward in mid-ventral line to the posterior of body.
16. Earthworms can feel the vibrations of the ground by presence of
(1) Buccal receptors (2) Photoreceptors
(3) Epidermal receptors (4) Chemoreceptors
Sol. Answer (3)
All over epidermis in earthworm there are epidermal receptors but are more abundant on lateral sides and ventral
surface of body. These are tactile (relating to touch) receptors in function and help worm to free vibration in
ground.
(Cockroach)
17. Spermatophores are
(1) Spermathecae (2) Packets of sperms
(3) Spermathecal apertures (4) Egg capsule
Sol. Answer (2)
Packets of sperms are called spermatophores. During mating two worms exchange packets of sperms called
spermatophores.

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66 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) Solutions of Assignment

18. Exoskeleton of each segment in cockroach consists of

(1) Dorsal tergum and a ventral sternum (2) Dorsal sternum and a ventral tergum
(3) Sternum only (4) Tergum only
Sol. Answer (1)
Cockroach possess chitinous exoskeleton composed of several plates called sclerites. Exoskeleton for each
segment consist of dorsal tergum and ventral sternum, these plates are joined to each other by thin and flexible
articular membrane known as arthrodial membrane.

19. Which of the following mouth part act as tongue in cockroach?

(1) Labium (2) Hypopharynx (3) Maxillae (4) Labrum
Sol. Answer (2)
Labrum – Upper lip
Labium – Lower lip
Maxillae – Positioning of food
Hypopharynx – Tongue

20. Hind wings in cockroach arises from

(1) Prothorax (2) Mesothorax (3) Metathorax (4) Pronotum
Sol. Answer (3)
Hind wings are metathoracic wings, which are delicate, thin transparent and membranous with broad terminal
end. They are used for flight.

21. Fore wings in cockroach arises from

(1) Hypopharynx (2) Metathorax (3) Mesothorax (4) Prothorax
Sol. Answer (3)
Forewings in cockroach are mesothoracic wings, which are thick, leathery, opaque and dark coloured. They
are not used for flight but cover and protect metathoracic wings.

22. In cockroach, foregut comprises of

(1) Pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard (2) Mesenteron, crop and gizzard
(3) Ileum, colon and rectum (4) Pharynx, oesophagus and rectum
Sol. Answer (1)
Foregut in cockroach comprises mouth, pharynx, oesophagus crop and gizzard.

23. Hepatic caecae are found at the junction of

(1) Midgut and hindgut (2) Crop and gizzard
(3) Midgut and gizzard (4) Midgut and ileum
Sol. Answer (3)
At junction of midgut and gizzard (i.e. foregut) arises six to eight finger like structures, called Hepatic caecae.
Main digestion and absorption of food is carried out by hepatic caecae.

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) 67
24. In cockroach, spiracles are present on the
(1) Dorsal side of the body (2) Ventral side of the body
(3) Lateral side of the body (4) Anterior region of body
Sol. Answer (3)
There are ten pairs of slit like openings, called spiracles or stigmata present on lateral side of body.
25. Thin tubes that carry oxygen from the air to all the parts in cockroach constitute
(1) Tracheal system (2) Haemolymph (3) Lungs (4) Gills
Sol. Answer (1)
Respiratory system of cockroach consist of network of elastic, closed and branching air tubes called trachea.
Gas exchange occurs through trachea in all parts of cockroach.
26. Malpighian tubule are lined by
(1) Glandular epithelium with ciliated cells (2) Simple epithelium and non-ciliated cells
(3) Cutinised epithelium (4) Simple squamous epithelium
Sol. Answer (1)
Malpighian tubule are fine, long, unbranched, yellowish and blind tubules lying freely in haemolymph. Malpighian
tubules are attached to alimentary canal at junction of midgut and hindgut. Malpighian tubule is lined by
glandular epithelium with characteristic ciliated cells.
27. In cockroach, eye consists of visual units called
(1) Ostia (2) Ommatidia (3) Gonapophyses (4) Spiracles
Sol. Answer (2)
Cockroach has compound eyes. Each compound eye is formed of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia.
28. External genitalia in cockroach consist of small irregular chitinous plates known as
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Collateral gland (3) Phallomeres (4) Abdominal sclerites
Sol. Answer (3)
The external genitalia or gonapophysis or phallomeres are three in number - left, right and ventral. In male genital
pouch, surrounding male genital pore are present phallomeres which help in copulation. Phallomeres consist
of three small irregular chitinous plates (right, left and ventral).
(Frog)
29. Frogs can protect itself from enemies by
(1) Clawed toes (2) Spiny skin (3) Camouflage (4) Sharp teeth
Sol. Answer (3)
In order to hide themselves from enemies, frogs exhibit color change and enables them to resemble their
surrounding. This protective coloration, to protect from enemies is known as camouflage.
30. Stomach in frogs contains
(1) Calciferous glands (2) Hepatic caecae
(3) Collaterial glands (4) Oxyntic and gastric glands
Sol. Answer (4)
Stomach in frog contains multicellular gastric glands which secrete enzymes, pepsinogen and unicellular oxyntic
glands which secrete hydrochloric acid.

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31. In frog, oxygen dissolved in water can be taken by

(1) External nares (2) Spiracles (3) Buccal cavity (4) Skin
Sol. Answer (4)
Frog can utilise free oxygen and also oxygen dissolved in water.
When frog is under water carry out only cutaneous respiration. Under water dissolved oxygen in water is
exchanged through moist surface of skin by diffusion.

32. In frog, heart is enclosed within two-layered sac called

(1) Mesorchium (2) Pericardium (3) Pleura (4) Conus arteriosus
Sol. Answer (2)
Heart in frog is enclosed with in thin, transparent, two layered sac called pericardium. It protects heart from
friction or mechanical shock.

33. A thin-walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally to heart of frog is known as

(1) Truncus arteriosus (2) Sinus venosus (3) Atrium (4) Ventricle
Sol. Answer (2)
Heart of frog has two additional chambers-sinus venosus and truncus arteriosus.
Sinus venosus is thin walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally to heart and open into right larger atrium
through an aperture.

34. In frog, deoxygenated blood is received by

(1) Sinus venosus (2) Left atrium (3) Ventricle (4) Truncus arteriosus
Sol. Answer (1)
Deoxygenated blood from body Oxygenated blood

Vena cava (major vein) Pulmonary vein

Deoxygenated blood
enter sinus venosus

Blood from sinus venosus

enters into right atrium Oxygenated blood
enters left atrium

Both left and right atrium

pump blood in single ventricle

Ventricle pump blood in truncus arteriosus

Truncus arteriosus

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35. Renal portal vein carries blood to
(1) Liver (2) Kidney (3) Heart directly (4) Brain
Sol. Answer (2)
Renal portal vein, carrying deoxygenated blood from lower part of body like hind limbs to kidneys.
36. In frog, RBCs are
(1) Nucleated and biconcave (2) Enucleated and biconvex
(3) Nucleated and biconvex (4) Non-nucleated and biconcave
Sol. Answer (3)
RBC in frog are nucleated, oval and biconvex and have haemoglobin (respiratory pigment).
37. In frogs, cloaca receives
(1) Faecal matter (2) Gametes (3) Urine (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Cloaca is common aperture for alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tract. It receives faeces, genital
products and urine.
38. The part of frog's brain which is continuous with the spinal cord is
(1) Cerebellum (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Mid-brain (4) Diencephalon
Sol. Answer (2)
Hind brain is posterior part of brain including cerebellum and medulla oblongata. Spinal cord extends posteriorly
from medulla oblongata through foramen magnum.
39. Frog's eye are protected under water by the presence of
(1) Retina (2) Upper eyelid
(3) Nictitating membrane (4) Lower eyelid
Sol. Answer (3)
In frog nictitating membrane is present over eyes which protect them inside water and also enables frog to
see under water.
40. In frogs, testes are attached to kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum known as
(1) Pericardium (2) Mesorchium (3) Urinogenital duct (4) Vasa efferentia
Sol. Answer (2)
Testes in frog are elongated or avoid light yellow body, attached to upper part of kidney by double fold of
peritoneum called ‘mesorchium’.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Earthworm)
1. Which of the following statements is not correct about earthworm?
(1) It shows metamerism, and the number of segments varies from 100-120
(2) The first segment at the anterior end of the body is called as the ‘buccal segment’ or Peristomium
(3) The first segment is Prostomium
(4) The skin of earthworm is brown due to the presence of porphyrin
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Sol. Answer (3)

First segment bearing mouth in earthworm is peristomium. The dorsal edge of peristomium projects forward
above mouth as a small fleshy lobe called ‘prostomium’

2. The earthworms move with the help of

(1) Setae, muscles and hydrostatic skeleton (2) Setae alone

(3) Muscles alone (4) Parapodia

Sol. Answer (1)

Locomotion is earthworm occurs in form of wave of contraction and expansion of body. Setae are chitinous
structures, helping in locomotion. Setae are withdrawn from anterior end by contraction of their retractor muscle.
Circular muscles of body contract to cause thinning and elongation. As a result, anterior part moves ahead.
Setae are now ejected by contraction of their protractor muscles for fixation to soil. Longitudnal muscles contract
to pull hinder part which is freed due to withdrawn of its setae. Coelomic fluid acts as hydraulic pump.

3. In earthworm there is a ring of S-shaped setae, embedded in the epidermal pit at the middle of each segment,
except
(1) First (2) Last

(3) Clitellar (4) First, last and clitellar segments

Sol. Answer (4)

Each body segment, except first, last and clitellar segment, bears a ring of tiny, curved, chitinous structures
known as setae or chaetae. They are embedded in epidermal pits known as setigerous sac in middle of each
segment.

4. There are four pairs of spermathecal pores in Pheretima which are located in intersegmental grooves between
segments
(1) 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9 (2) 6/7, 7/8, 8/9, 9/10

(3) 14/15, 15/16, 16/17, 17/18 (4) 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, 4/5

Sol. Answer (1)

There are four pairs of spermathecal apertures situated on ventrolateral sides of intersegmental grooves, i.e.
5th to 9th segments, 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9 intersegments. They serve to receive sperm from another worm during
copulation.

5. Tick mark the wrong match (In earthworm)

(1) Female genital aperture – Midventral line of 14th segment

(2) A pair of male genital apertures – Ventrolateral sides of 18th segment

(3) Genital papillae – Ventral surface of 17th & 19th segments

(4) Clitellum or Cingulum – 9th to 14th segment

Sol. Answer (4)

In mature worm, clitellum is observed as prominant dark circular band of glandular tissue from 14th to 16th
segment.

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6. Which of the following are analogous to vertebrate liver cells?
(1) Chromophil cells (2) Chloragogen cells
(3) Calciferous gland cells (4) Albumen cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Chloragogen cells are analogous to liver cells of vertebrates as chloragogen cells in earthworm are centres of
synthesis and storage of glycogen and fat, deamination of excess amino acids and formation of urea.

7. In earthworm the function of typhlosole which extends between 27th to 95th segments is/it
(1) Excretion
(2) Enhances effective area of absorption after digestion
(3) Respiration
(4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (2)
Typhlosole is characteristic feature of earthworm intestine having internal median fold of dorsal wall called
typhlosole between 26th to 95th segments. These increases effective area of digestion and absorption of intestine.

8. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the circulatory system of earthworm?
(1) Pheretima represents a closed type of blood vascular system
(2) Blood glands are present in 4th, 5th and 6th segments, they produce blood cells and haemoglobin
dissolved in plasma
(3) There are fours pairs of hearts in earthworm present in 7, 9, 12 and 13 segments
(4) In dorsal vessel blood flows in forward direction and is without valves
Sol. Answer (4)
Dorsal blood vessel is largest blood vessel of body running mid-dorsally above alimentary canal, from one end
of body to other. Blood flow in forward direction (i.e. posterior to anterior) and has valves to prevent backflow
of blood.

9. Testes in earthworm are present in the segments

(1) 11 & 12 (2) 12 & 13 (3) 14 & 15 (4) 10 & 11
Sol. Answer (4)
In earthworm there are two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segment. Each testis arises from anterior wall of
each testis sac.

10. During copulation in earthworms, sperms are transferred between copulating individuals from
(1) Female genital pore to spermathecae (2) Male genital pores to spermathecae
(3) Spermathecae to cocoon (4) Male genital pores to outside
Sol. Answer (2)
A mutual exchange of sperms occurs between two worms during mating. When one worm finds another worm
they mate juxtapositioning i.e. worms apply to each other by their ventral surfaces with heads pointing in
opposite directions, so that male genital pores of each lie against a pair of spermathecal pores of other. In
copulation, sperm of one worm are transferred to spermathecae of other.

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72 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) Solutions of Assignment

11. All the following statements are correct about the reproductive system of earthworm, except
(1) Fertilization is external and cross fertilization
(2) There are two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments and one pair of ovaries attached at the
intersegmental septum of 12th and 13th segment
(3) Accessory glands are present on the ventral surface of 17th and 19th segments
(4) Earthworm is unisexual
Sol. Answer (4)
Earthworms are monoecious or hermaphrodite, both male (testes) and female (ovaries) are present in same
individual.

12. Dorsal blood vessel in Pheretima is

(1) Distributing in whole body (2) Collecting in whole body
(3) Distributing in first 13 segments (4) Collecting in first 13 segments
Sol. Answer (3)
Dorsal blood vessel is distributing blood vessel in first 13 segments in Pheretima. It supplies blood to anterior
part of gut and pharyngeal nephridia.

13. In Pheretima, clitellum is primarily meant for

(1) Burrowing (2) Fertilisation
(3) Producing cocoons (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (3)
Clitellum is prominent dark circular band of glandular tissue, found from 14th to 16th segment. Clitellum secretes
material for formation of cocoon or egg capsule.

14. Lateral oesophageal hearts in earthworm connect

(1) Supra-oesophageal and dorsal vessel to ventral vessel
(2) Dorsal vessel to sub-oesophageal vessel
(3) Lateral oesophageal vessel to subneural vessel
(4) Dorsal vessel to subneural vessel
Sol. Answer (1)
Lateral oesophageal heart, situated in 12th and 13th segment connect both dorsal blood vessel and super-
oesophageal blood vessels with ventral blood vessel.

15. Flow of blood in the ventral vessel of earthworm is

(1) Forwards
(2) Backwards
(3) Backwards in half of it and forwards in another half
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Ventral blood vessel extent from one end to other end of body. It does not have valves and flow of blood is
from anterior to posterior (i.e. backward) end of body. It is main distributing blood vessel.

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16. Ventral surface of mature earthworm can be distinguished from dorsal surface by
(1) Absence of middorsal line (2) Presence of clitellum
(3) Presence of genital papillae (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Ventral surface of earthworm can be recognised by presence of genital apertures (poers). Dorsal surface of
earthworm is recognised by a dark median line, which is a dorsal blood vessel beneath the skin.

17. Which of the following parts of gut occupies most part of the 8th segment?
(1) Oesophagus (2) Gizzard (3) Stomach (4) Intestine
Sol. Answer (2)
Oesophagus – 7th segment
Gizzard – 8th and 9th segment
Stomach – 9th and 14th segment
Intestine – 15th and 26th segment

18. Photoreceptors (phaosomes) in earthworm occur in

(1) Epidermis of dorsal body wall and prostomium (2) Epidermis of ventral body wall
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Epidermis of prostomium only
Sol. Answer (1)
Photoreceptors or light sensitive organs are present on dorsal surface of body and are numerous in anterior
region. They enable worm to judge intensity and duration of light.

19. Excretion is exonephric by which of the following nephridia?

(1) Pharyngeal nephridia (2) Septal nephridia
(3) Integumentary nephridia (4) Integumentary and pharyngeal nephridia
Sol. Answer (3)
Integumentary nephridia are attached to inner surface of body wall in all segments, except first two segments.
Terminal ducts of integumentary nephridia open on body surface independently through minute opening.
Integumentary nephridia discharge waste matter directly to exterior surface of worm.

20. Earthworm is
(1) Ammonotelic (2) Ureotelic
(3) Uricotelic (4) Ureotelic and ammonotelic
Sol. Answer (4)
Excretory waste in earthworm is ammonia (ammonotelic) or urea (ureotelic).

21. In Pheretima, pharyngeal nephridia occur in the segments

(1) 3, 4, 5 (2) 4, 5, 6 (3) 5, 6, 7 (4) 6, 7, 8
Sol. Answer (2)
Pharyngeal nephridia occur as paired tuft in 4th, 5th and 6th segment on each side of alimentary canal.

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22. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. Intestine of earthworm

(1) Muscular Gizzard – 8-9th segments

(2) Oesophagus – 9-14th segments

(3) Intestine – 15th segment onward

(4) Typhlosole – 27-95th segment

Sol. Answer (2)

Muscular Gizzard – 8-9th segments

Oesophagus – 5-7th segments

Intestine – 15th segment onward

Typhlosole – 26-95th segment

23. Forests of integumentary nephridia are present in

(1) Pharyngeal region (2) Clitellar region (3) Pre clitellar region (4) Post clitellar region

Sol. Answer (2)

There are 200-250 integumentary nephridia in each segment but segment of clitellum (segment 14 to 16), their
number increases to more than 2000. This is forest of integumentary nephridia.
24. Earthworm and cockroach both have

(1) Dorsal nerve cord (2) Unsegmented body (3) Malpighian tubule (4) Ventral nerve cord

Sol. Answer (4)

Cockroach and earthworm both are non-chordates. In non-chordates nerve cord is ventral in position.
25. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. reproductive system of earthworm?
(1) There are two pairs of testes present in 10th and 11th segments. Their ducts i.e. vas deferens run upto
the 18th segment where they join the prostatic duct
(2) Accessory glands are present on the ventral side of the 17th and 19th segments
(3) One pair of ovaries is attached at the intersegmental septum of the 13th and 14th segments
(4) Four pairs of sac like structures called spermathecae are found one pair each in 6th to 9th segments
Sol. Answer (3)
There is a pair of ovary, lie laterally in 2nd - 6th abdominal segment in cockroach.
(Cockroach)
26. Periplaneta americana and Blatta orientalis differ mainly from each other in
(1) Body size (2) Wing length (3) Length of antenna (4) Life-history

Sol. Answer (2)

Periplaneta americana is largest of all species with light reddish colour, wings in both sexes, which in male
is extended beyond posterior end of body.

Blatta orientalis is medium sized dark brown to blackish brown house hold species. Wings are vestigial in
females and reduced in males.

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27. In cockroach, the body inspite of being covered by an exoskeleton of strong chitinous cuticle remains flexible
due to

(1) Tergites (2) Sternites (3) Pleurites (4) Arthrodial membranes

Sol. Answer (4)

Exoskeleton of cockroach is a non-living brown coloured hard, jointed and chitinous exoskeleton composed
of several plates called sclerites. These sclerites are joined by thin flexible arthroidal membrane. These flexible
membrane allows movement.
28. Vestigial wings are found in

(1) Male Blatta (2) Female Blatta (3) Male Periplaneta (4) Female Periplaneta

Sol. Answer (2)

Blatta orientalis is medium sized dark brown to blackish brown household species. Wings are vestigial in
females and reduced in males.
29. In cockroach elytra are articulated to the tergites of

(1) Prothorax (2) Mesothorax (3) Metathorax (4) Abdomen

Sol. Answer (2)

Elytra are forewings of cockroach. Elytra are thick, leathery opaque and dark coloured structures. These wings
are mesothoracic wings and are attached to targets of mesothorax. They are not used for flight.
30. Which mouth part of cockroach acts as upper lip?

(1) Labium (2) Labrum (3) First maxilla (4) Hypopharynx

Sol. Answer (2)

Labrum – Upper lip

Labium – Lower lip

Hypopharynx – Tongue
31. Position of head in relation to body axis of cockroach is known as

(1) Epignathous (2) Hypognathous (3) Prognathous (4) None of these

Sol. Answer (2)

Head in cockroach is small and roughly triangular in shape. Head occurs anteriorly in hypognathous position,
i.e. it lies anteriorly at right angles (perpendicularly) to rest of body with mouth in downward direction.
32. Endoskeletal structure present in the head is

(1) Apodeme (2) Tentorium (3) Fenestra (4) Clypeus

Sol. Answer (2)

Endoskeleton of head in cockroach in tentorium, formed from united anterior and posterior pairs of arms.
33. Periplaneta has mosaic vision. Each ommatidium is composed of following parts, except

(1) Corneal lens (2) Refractive crystalline cone

(3) Rhabdome (4) Phaosome

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Sol. Answer (4)

Cockroach has compound eyes, where each compound eye is formed of hexagonal ommatidia. Image seen
by whole eyes is made of many dark and light spot of light, each contributed by one ommatidium. This kind
of vision is mosaic vision.

Each ommatidium has corneal lens, transparent crystalline cone, rhabdome (refractive body).

Lens
Corneagen
cell
Cone cell

Iris pigment Crystalline cone

sheath

Retinular cell

Retinular pigment
sheath
Rhabdome

Basement
membrane

Nerve fibres

V.S. of ommatidium
34. Which of the following is wrong match in cockroach?
(1) Head – Hypognathous (2) Heart – 13 chambered
(3) Anal styles – Female cockroach (4) Excretion – Malpighian tubules
Sol. Answer (3)
Anal styles are present only in male cockroach. They are unsegmented and attached to 9th tergum.

35. Movement of which muscles can alter the pericardial space in cockroach?
(1) Circular (2) Longitudinal (3) Alary (4) Ciliary

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Sol. Answer (3)
The blood from heart is pumped into sinuses anteriorly by contraction and relaxation of fan shaped paired
muscles called ‘Alary muscles’.
Contraction of alary muscles cause floating of dorsal diaphragm and pericardial sinus increase in volume.

36. Number of segments in the leg of cockroach is

(1) Five (2) Three (3) Six (4) Nine
Sol. Answer (1)
Each leg of cockroach is made up of 5 segments or podo nerves which are
 Coxa (largest)
 Trochanter (smallest)
 Femur
 Tibia (longest)
 Tarsus

37. Main function of blood vascular system in cockroach is

(1) Distribution of oxygen (2) Distribution of absorbed nutrients
(3) Distribution of heat (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Cockroach have open circulatory system and mediate distribution of absorbed nutrients. Distribution of oxygen
is done by tracheal tubes in cockroach.

38. In Periplaneta each walking leg consists of five segments. Which of the following is a correct sequence?
(1) Trochanter, coxa, femur, tibia, tarsus (2) Coxa, trochanter, femur, tibia, tarsus
(3) Coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia, tarsus (4) Trochanter, femur, coxa, tibia, tarsus
Sol. Answer (2)
Each leg in cockroach has five segments in order
 Broad short proximal coxa
 Triangular short and rod like trochanter
 Long, strong and spiny femur
 Spiny and longest segment called tibia
 Long tarsus

39. Structure that helps the cockroach to walk on smooth surfaces is

(1) Trochanter (2) Plantulae (3) Cardo (4) Scape
Sol. Answer (2)
Plantulae are smaller adhesive pads located at each joint of tarsus which help cockroach to walk on smooth
surface.
40. Number of spiracles in Periplaneta americana is
(1) Ten (2) Twenty (3) Eight (4) Six
Sol. Answer (2)
Spiracles are 10 pairs, (20) slit-like openings present on lateral side of body.

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41. Function of stomodaeal valve in the gut of the cockroach is to prevent the regurgitation of partially digested
food from
(1) Mid-gut into crop (2) Preoral cavity
(3) Mid-gut into hind-gut (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Posterior end of gizzard project in form of narrow tube into mid gut. It is called stomodeal valve. This valve
checks regurgitation of food from midgut to crop.
42. Which of the two parts in cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure?
(1) Anal styles and labrum (2) Wings and anal cerci
(3) Maxillae and legs (4) Mandibles and antennae
Sol. Answer (3)
Maxillae resemble legs and have same number of segments. Anatomically maxillae are first pair of legs but
turned forward at side of mouth parts and are functionally part of feeding apparatus. Both maxillae and legs
help in holding and positioning of food.
43. Ootheca in Periplanata americana is secreted by
(1) Collaterial glands (2) Conglobate gland
(3) Mushroom glands (4) Gynatrium
Sol. Answer (1)
A pair of branched accessory or collaterial gland secreted hard egg case-ootheca around group of fertilised
egg.
44. Number of eggs contained in an ootheca of cockroach is
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (2)
Fertilised eggs become surrounded by secretion of collaterial gland, which harden to form egg case or ootheca.
14-16 eggs are arranged in two rows in one ootheca. On an average, about 9-10 ootheca are laid by female
cockroach.
45. Conglobate organ is a part of male reproductive system of
(1) Prawn (2) Cockroach (3) Earthworm (4) Frog
Sol. Answer (2)
Conglobate gland is also known as phallic gland. Phallic or conglobate gland is flat and elongated gland, opening
separately by side of male genital pore. Phallic gland produces secretion which forms outer wall layer of
spermatophore.

46. Number of ganglia in the abdominal nerve-cord of cockroach is

(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 12
Sol. Answer (1)
Nervous system in cockroach have double ventral solid nerve cord. There are a pair of segmental ganglion in
which 3 pairs are thoracic ganglia and 6 pairs of abdominal ganglion.

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47. Which of the following structure is related to formation of middle layer of spermatophore in Periplaneta?
(1) Utriculi majores (2) Utriculi breviores (3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Conglobate gland
Sol. Answer (3)
Ejaculatory duct is muscular tube which runs backwardly in midventral region to open in male genital aperture.
It has glandular lining which secretes middle wall layer of spermatophore.
48. Which of the following statement is incorrect about development of Periplaneta americana?
(1) On an average female produces 9-10 oothecae each containing 14-16 eggs
(2) The development is paurometabolous
(3) The nymph grows by mounting about 7-8 times to reach adult form
(4) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroach has wings
Sol. Answer (3)
Each egg inside ootheca undergoes cleavage and result in formation of nymphs. Freshly hatched nymphs are
delicate, transparent and colourless with black eyes. The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach
adult from. This development includes wings formation, growth of body size, colouration change and development
of genitalia, etc.

49. Identify the structures labelled A, B, C and D in the alimentary canal of cockroach.

(1) Stomach, Ileum, Hepatic caecae, Malpighian tubules

(2) Gizzard, Crop, Hepatic caecae, Malpighian tubules
(3) Crop, gizzard, Malpighian tubules, Hepatic caecae
(4) Crop, gizzard, Hepatic caecae, Malpighian tubules
Sol. Answer (4)
Crop – The oesophagus dilates to form large, thin walled, pear shaped sac, which extend upto 3rd or 4th
segment. It opens into gizzard.
Gizzard – Crop leads into small, cone-shaped, muscular and thick walled chamber called proventriculus.
Hepatic caecae – At junction of midgut and gizzard there are six to eight finger like structures called hepatic
caecae.
Malpighian tubules – At junction of midgut and hindgut is marked by presence of 100-150 yellow fine thread
like structures called Malpighian tubules.

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50. Which of the following is the correct statement of the structure labelled ‘A’ in the diagram?

(1) A pair of anal styles absent in females

(2) A pair of anal cerci, arise from 10th segment present in both the sexes
(3) Phallomere, external genitalia of male
(4) Ovipositor in female
Sol. Answer (2)
Anal cerci are auditory receptors which are attached to tergum of 10th segment. Anal cerci are present in both
male and female.
(Frog)

51. The frog's body is divisible into

(1) Head, neck, abdomen (2) Head, neck, trunk (3) Head, trunk (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Body of frog is divisible into two main segments:
Head and trunk. Neck is absent but tail may be present.

52. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) The body colour offers it protective colouration (2) Summer sleep of frog is called aestivation
(3) Tail is present in the lifecycle of frog (4) Mouth is bounded by a pair of lips
Sol. Answer (4)
Mouth in cockroach leads to pharynx and bounded by mouth parts. These mouth parts are used in searching
and taking in food matter. The mouth parts of cockroach consist of the labium or upper lip, a pair of mandibles,
a pair of maxillae, labium or lower lip and hypopharynx (tongue).

53. Which of the following is present in the skin of frog?

(1) Serous gland (2) Mucus gland
(3) Chromatophore cells (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Serous glands are poisonous cutaneous gland.
Mucus glands secrete mucus to maintain their skin in moist condition.
Chromatophore are pigment containing cells of frog.
54. Total number of vertebrae in frog is
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 26 (4) 33
Sol. Answer (2)
There are approximately 10 vertebrae in frog.

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55. Which of the following vertebra is amphicoelous type in frog?
(1) 3rd (2) 8th (3) 9th (4) 10th

Sol. Answer (2)

In frog

2 - 7th vertebrae – Procoelous – Centrum concave anteriorly and convex posteriorly

8th vertebrae – Amphicoelous – Centrum concave on both sides

9th vertebrae – Acoelous – Centrum without concavity on either sides

56. The digital formula for the hind limbs of frog is
(1) 0, 2, 2, 3, 3 (2) 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 (3) 2, 2, 3, 4, 3 (4) 0, 2, 1, 2, 3

Sol. Answer (3)

Digital formulae for hind limb of frog is 2, 2, 3, 4, 3

Digital formulae for fore limb of frog is 0, 2, 2, 3, 3

57. Frog is

(1) Homoeothermic (2) Poikilothermic (3) Homeostatic (4) Warm-blooded

Sol. Answer (2)

Frogs are poikilothermic, i.e. their internal body temperature varies considerably.
58. Capacity of amphibians to change colour is called

(1) Synchronous (2) Metachronous (3) Metachrosis (4) None of these

Sol. Answer (3)

Metachrosis is ability to change colour by expansion and contraction of chromatophores. Metachrosis is

exhibited by frogs.
59. Which is not true about frog?

(1) Salivary glands are absent

(2) Maxillary teeth are arranged along the margin of upper jaw and the lower jaw is toothless

(3) Muscular tongue is bilobed at tip and free from behind

(4) Tadpole larva of frog has a short alimentary canal

Sol. Answer (4)

Tadpole larva is herbivorous so alimentary canal is very long, coiled in the form of spring. Since, the frogs are
carnivorous, their alimentary canal is short in length.

60. Bidder’s canal in frog is present in

(1) Testes (2) Kidney (3) Ovary (4) Brain

Sol. Answer (2)

Bidder’s canal is a longitudinal tube present at inner margin of kidney. Bidder’s canal is connected to ureter
through collecting tubules. Vasa efferentia open into Bidder’s canal.

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61. During active period, maximum respiratory activity is through

(1) Cutaneous respiration (2) Branchial respiration

(3) Pulmonary respiration (4) Buccopharyngeal respiration

Sol. Answer (3)

During active period maximum respiration occurs through pulmonary respiration. During hibernation and
aestivation, gaseous exchange takes place through skin (Cutaneous respiration).

62. How many lymph hearts are present in frog?

(1) Single (2) One pair (3) Two pairs (4) Three pairs

Sol. Answer (3)

In frogs lymph is constantly produced from filtering of blood through capillaries into intercellular spaces. Frog
also has two pairs of lymph hearts which pump lymph.
63. Which of the following is not true chamber of frog’s heart?
(1) Pylangium (2) Sinus venosus (3) Right atrium (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)

Truncus arteriosus is divided into two parts, proximal part of truncus arteriosus is called pylangium and distal part
is called bulbus arteriosus or synangium. Sinus venosus is also accessory chambers present before right atrium.

64. The middle ear of Rana tigrina has

(1) Three ear ossicles i.e. malleus, incus and stapes

(2) One ear ossicle Columella Auris

(3) Two ear ossicles Columella Auris and stapedial plate

(4) No ear ossicle

Sol. Answer (2)

Ear in frog possess middle ear and internal ear. External ear is absent. Middle ear have one ear ossicles called
as columella auris. Middle ear is covered by tympanic membrane.

65. Cerebrum is the part of

(1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain (3) Hindbrain (4) Rhombencephalon

Sol. Answer (1)

Brain is divided into three parts: forebrain, midbrain, hind brain. Forebrain is comprised of two olfactory lobes,
two cerebral hemisphere and unpaired diencephalon.

66. Number of cranial nerves and spinal nerves in frog is

(1) 10 and 20 (2) 10 and 10 (3) 20 and 10 (4) 20 and 20

Sol. Answer (4)

In peripheral nervous system of frog, there are 10 pairs (20) cranial nerves which originate from brain of frog.
Frog has 10 pairs (20) spinal nerves every spinal nerve on either side arises from spinal cord.

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67. Which of the following is true?
(1) Frog has monocular vision (2) Frog has scale-less moist, slimy skin
(3) Frog is myopic (short sighted) on land (4) All of these are true
Sol. Answer (4)
 Frog has monocular vision, i.e. both eyes are used separately.
 Eyes in frog is covered with nictitating membrane which protects them inside water and enables frog to
see under water.
 Frog is myopic or short sighted on land and hypermetropic or long sighted in water.

68. Spawning is termed as

(1) Release of sperms in male (2) Release of ova by female
(3) Other term for fertilization (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Spawning is process of release of eggs by aquatic animals.

69. Which of the following systems undergoes maximum changes in frog during metamorphosis?
(1) Digestive system (2) Circulatory system
(3) Reproductive system (4) Nervous system
Sol. Answer (2)
During metamorphosis maximum change occurs in circulatory system and least change occur in nervous
system. During metamorphosis there is reconstruction of circulatory system. The aortic arches and several
large blood vessels are reconstructed.

70. Respiration in tadpole of frog takes place by

(1) Lungs (2) Gills
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Skin
Sol. Answer (2)

Tadpole is free swimming aquatic larvae, a small fish-like creature which hatches out. Tadpole have external
gills for respiration which become replaced by internal gills after metamorphosis.

71. Frog skull is

(1) Noncondylic (2) Dicondylic

(3) Monocondylic (4) None of these

Sol. Answer (2)

Skull in frog is dicondylic i.e., articulating with two occipital condyles.

72. On removing the thyroid from tadpole of frog

(1) Metamorphosis will stop (2) It grows into a giant frog

(3) It grows into a dwarf frog (4) Normal metamorphosis occurs

Sol. Answer (1)

Thyroxine is required for metamorphosis, if thyroid gland is removed then there is no metamorphosis.

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73. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. frog

(1) Only tympanum can be seen externally

(2) Columnae carnaeae are present in ventricle

(3) Bidder’s canal communicates with the oviduct

(4) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number

Sol. Answer (3)

Bidder's canal is longitudinal tube present at inner margin of kidney. Bidder's canal is connected to ureter
through collecting tubules. Vasa efferentia (part of male reproductive system) open into bidder's canal.
74. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) The ovaries in frog are structurally and functionally connected with kidneys
(2) A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000, unfertilised ova at a time
(3) In male frog there are 10-12 vasa efferentia arise from testes and enter kidneys on their side and open
into Bidder’s canal
(4) The eggs of frog are mesolecithal and telolecithal
Sol. Answer (1)
In frogs, pair of testes are attached to kidneys, but ovaries do not have any functional or internal connection
with kidneys.
75. Following is the diagram of the male reproductive system of frog select the correct set of names labelled A,
B, C and D.

A B C D

(1) Fat bodies Ureter Bidder's canal Vasa efferentia

(2) Fat bodies Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia

(3) Adrenal gland Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia

(4) Testes Adrenal gland Bidder's canal Vasa efferentia

Sol. Answer (4)

Testes : Pair of testes in frog are elongated or avoid, light yellow body attached to upper part of kidney.
Adrenal gland : Found on kidneys.
Bidder canal : Longitudinal canal present at inner margin of kidney.
Vasa efferentia : 10-12 fine tubes connecting testes to kidney on each sides.
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SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach? [NEET-2018]
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
(2) Presence of caudal styles
(3) Presence of anal cerci
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina
Sol. Answer (2)
Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles which are absent in females.
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal segment in male cockroach.

2. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs [NEET-2017]
(1) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal  Ureter  Cloaca
(4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder's canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
Sol. Answer (4)
In male frog, the sperms will move from
Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca.

3. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime
Select the best option from the following statements
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm (b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation
(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature (d) Heart is autoexcitable
Options : [NEET-2017]
(1) Only (c) (2) Only (d) (3) (a) & (b) (4) (c) & (d)
Sol. Answer (4)
Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because of this
condition, it will keep on working outside the body for sometime.

4. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system? [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Mushroom glands (3) Testes (4) Vas deferens
Sol. Answer (1)
In male cockroach, sperms are stored in seminal vesicle.

5. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana? [NEET-2016]

(1) Metamerically segmented body
(2) Schizocoelom as body cavity
(3) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
(4) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
Sol. Answer (3)
Cockroach has determinate cleavage during embryonic development.
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6. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Calcium carbonate (2) Ammonia (3) Potassium urate (4) Urea
Sol. Answer (3)
Malpighian tubules keep floating in haemolymph from where potassium waste diffuses into the tubule. Urate
crystals are crystals of uric acid.

7. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Cartilage (2) Cementing glue
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Arthrodial membrane
Sol. Answer (4)

8. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph? [NEET-2013]
(1) Anal cerci develop (2) Both fore wings and hind wings develop
(3) Labium develops (4) Mandibles become harder
Sol. Answer (2)
Each egg inside ootheca undergoes cleavage and finally result in formation of nymph. Freshly hatched nymphs
are delicate, transparent and almost colourless with black eyes. Nymph possess nearly all adult characters
but differ in size and colouration but do not bear wings.
When nymph moult into adult there is wing formation, growth of body size and change in colouration.

9. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
(2) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal
connectives
(3) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles
(4) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct statement are
 There are 100-150 yellow fine thread like structure called malpighian tubule at junction of midgut and
hindgut.
 Six chitinous plates (teeth) in gizzard are used for grinding of food.
 Nervous system is located ventrally consist of series of fused segmentally arranged ganglia joined by paired
longitudinal connectives.
 Males bear a pair of short thread like anal style attached to 9th tergum.

10. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc (2) Sugarcane roots
(3) Decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter (4) Soil insects
Sol. Answer (3)
Earthworm feeds on dead organic matter and decaying leaves along with soil. It also feeds directly upon leaves,
grasses, seeds, algae etc.

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11. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Nucleated and without haemoglobin (2) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
(3) Nucleated and with haemoglobin (4) Very much smaller and fewer
Sol. Answer (3)
RBC is frog are nucleated, oval, biconvex and have haemoglobin (respiratory pigment) which is yellow to red
colour, iron containing pigment.

12. Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Ureotelic mode of excretion (2) Four - chambered heart
(3) Internal fertilisation (4) Nucleated RBCs
Sol. Answer (1)
 There is three chambered heart in frog and four chambered heart in humans.
 There is internal fertilisation in humans and external fertilization in frog.
 RBC are enucleated in humans where RBC in frog are nucleated.
 Both humans and frog excrete urea (ureotelic) as nitrogenous waste.

13. Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common cockroach? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) The food is ground by mandibles an gizzard
(2) Malpighian tubules are excretory organ projecting out from the colon
(3) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin blood
(4) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
Sol. Answer (1)
Gizzard bears a thick inner layer of cuticle which forms six highly chitinous teeth and are used for grinding.

14. One very special feature in the earthworm Pheretima is that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) It has a long dorsal tubular heart
(2) Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body
(3) The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine
(4) The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies
Sol. Answer (3)
 There are four pair of tubular heart in earthworm.
 Fertilisation is internal in earthworm and cockroach
 Typhlosole is characteristic feature of earthworm intestine between 26 to 95 segment. Typhlosole is internal
median fold of dorsal wall and increase effective area of digestion and absorption in intestine
 Tiny, curved, chitinous setae help in locomotion.

15. Frogs differ from humans in possessing [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Nucleated red blood cells (2) Thyroid as well as parathyroid
(3) Paired cerebral hemispheres (4) Hepatic portal system
Sol. Answer (1)

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88 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) Solutions of Assignment

16. Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common from Rana tigrina, and select the correct
option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F). [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Statements:
(A) One dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days.
(B) It has four chambered heart.
(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic.
(D) Its life history is carried out in pond water.
Options :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) F F T T
(2) F T T F
(3) T F F T
(4) T T F F
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct statement are
A– On dry land it will die due to lack of O2 as there is no cutaneous respiration and if its mouth is forcibly
kept closed for few days as pulmonary respiration can't continue.
B– Frog has three chambered heart.
C– Frog is ureotelic.
D– Its life history is carried out in pond water.

17. Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Setae-defence against predators (2) Typhlosole - storage of extra nutrients
(3) Clitellum - secretes cocoon (4) Gizzard - absorbs digested food
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct match with its function are:
Setae – Locomotion
Typhlosole – Increase effective area for digestion and absorption
Clitellum – Secretes coccon
Gizzard – Grinding of food

18. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach (3) Frog (4) Man
Sol. Answer (2)

19. Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 – 7 segments
(2) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments
(3) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments
(4) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16th-18th segments
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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) 89
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct location of body parts in pheretima
Testes – 2 pairs – 10th and 11th segment
Accessory glands – 2 pairs – 17th and 19th segment
Spermathecae – 4 pairs – 6th, 7th, 8th and 9th segment
Ovaries – 1 pair – 12th and 13th segment

20. Earthworms have no skeleton but during burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulic
skeleton. It is due to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Setae (2) Coelomic fluid
(3) Blood (4) Gut peristalsis
Sol. Answer (2)
Coelomic fluid in earthworms acts as hydraulic skeleton and aid movement and locomotion.

21. Earthworms are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Ureotelic when plenty of water is available (2) Uricotelic when plenty of water is available
(3) Uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity (4) Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available
Sol. Answer (4)
Earthworms are ammonotelic (excrete ammonia) in aquatic form.

22. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Octopus
Sol. Answer (2)

23. Primary function of enteronephric nephridia of Pheretima is

(1) Osmoregulation (2) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
(3) Respiration (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (2)
In earthworm, excretion of nitrogenous waste rakes place by segmentally arranged nephridia.

24. Select the correct option w.r.t. cockroaches

(1) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight
(2) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea
(3) Males bear short anal styles not present in females
(4) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion
Sol. Answer (3)
 Fore wings or tegmina or elytra are not used for flight.
 Malpighian tubules help in removal of excretory product from haemolymph.
 Males bear short anal styles, attached to 9th tergum not present in females.
 Nervous system comprise of double, ventral. Solid nerve cord and 9 pairs of segmental ganglion.

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90 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) Solutions of Assignment

25. Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air/O2 during respiration in an adult male Periplaneta
americana as it enters the animal body?
(1) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues
(2) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells
(3) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells
(4) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells
Sol. Answer (2)
There are 10 pairs of slit-like opening, called spiracles present on lateral side of body. Spiracles lead to network
of elastic, closed, branching air tubes called trachea. Trachea devide into fine branches known as tracheoles.
Tracheoles terminate in tissues.
26. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in
(1) Frog’s both males and females (2) Frog’s males

(3) Human males (4) Human females

Sol. Answer (2)
Duct arising from kidney in male frog is both urinary duct and a sperm duct hence it is called a urinogenital
duct.

27. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called
(1) Mineralisation (2) Catabolism
(3) Humification (4) Fragmentation
Sol. Answer (4)
Fragmentation is process of break down of detritus food particles into smaller particles by earthworm.

28. Which of the following organs in earthworm neutralizes humic acid present in humus?
(1) Typhosole (2) Calciferous glands (3) Intestinal caecum (4) Gizzard
Sol. Answer (2)
In stomach of earthworm, a chalky secretion of calciferous gland is present which helps in neutralising humic
acid present in humus.

29. Fertilized eggs of P. americana are encased in

(1) Ootheca (2) Cocoon (3) Genital chamber (4) Phallomere
Sol. Answer (1)
Egg case around group of fertilised eggs is called ootheca. This egg case is secreted by branched accessory
colleterial gland.

30. Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
(1) Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
(2) Earthworm – The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard
and intestine
(3) Frog – Body divisible into three regions -head, neck and trunk
(4) Rat – Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one

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Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) 91
Sol. Answer (1)
Correct description of animal concerned is
Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
Earthworm – Alimentary canal consists of a sequence of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus,
stomach, gizzard, intestine and anus
Frog – Body is divisible into two regions - head and trunk
Rat – Right kidney is slightly higher in position than left kidney.

31. The kidney of an adult frog is

(1) Metanephros (2) Opisthonephros
(3) Pronephros (4) Mesonephros
Sol. Answer (4)
Frogs have two mesonephric kidneys, situated on either side of vertebral column in posterior part of body
cavity.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : In cockroach, inspiration is an active process.

R : It is due to the contraction of tergosternal muscle.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as inspiration in cockroach is passive process.
Reason is false as during inspiration tergostermal muscles remain relaxed.

2. A : In frog, sinus-venosus is present.

R : In mammals and birds the remnant of sinus venosus has taken part in the formation of SA node.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as in frog accessory chamber i.e. sinus venosus is present in heart.
Reason is true as in mammals and birds the remnant of sinus venosus has taken part in formation of SA node.

3. A : Septal nephridia take part in osmoregulation.

R : They are enteronephric.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as septal nephridia absorb water from excretory fluid and take part in osmoregulation.
Reason is true as septal nephridia are enteronephric, opening into alimentary canal and reabsorbing water from
alimentary canal.

4. A : In Periplaneta, only superposition or overlapping images are formed.

R : Retinal pigment sheath remains contracted through out the life.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as in Periplaneta there is mosaic vision formed by many separate but adjacent images.

5. A : Pharyngeal gland of earthworm includes chromophil cells, which secrete enzymes.

R : Salivary amylase of earthworm is essential to digest carbohydrates.

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92 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

Assertion is true as chromophil cell in earthworm are present in pharyngeal glands. Chromophil cell in
earthworm secrete saliva, containing enzymes.
Reason is false because pharyngeal glands secrete mucus and proteolytic enzymes while amylase is secreted
by intestine of earthworm helping in carbohydrate digestion.

6. A : In cockroach, each segment is covered by three hardened plates called sclerites.

R : These sclerites are dorsal tergite, ventral sternite and lateral pleurite.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as in cockroach each segment is covered by four hardened plates called sclerites- one dorsal,
one ventral and two lateral sclerites.

7. A : During copulation, two earthworms mutually exchange sperms.

R : The sperms are stored temporarily in the spermathecae.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as there is mutual exchange of sperms between two worms during mating.
Reason is also true as spermathecae store sperms received from earthworm during copulation.

8. A : Typhlosole is the characteristic dorsal median fold in the intestine of earthworm.

R : Typhlosole secretes intestinal juice containing digestive enzymes.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as typhlosole in earthworm is characteristic dorsal median fold in intestine of earthworm.
Reason is false as typhlosole increase effective area of digestion and absorption in intestine.

9. A : Male frogs have copulatory/nuptial pad on the pollex of forelimbs.

R : It helps in amplexus.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as male frog have copulatory/nuptial pad on first digit of forelimbs.
Reason is true as with help of copulatory pads male mount upon the back of female and grasps her family,
called amplexus.

10. A : Urine, faeces and gametes pass through a common passage in frog.
R : Frogs have cloaca in which alimentary canal and urinogenital ducts open.
Sol. Answer (1)
Both Assertion and Reason is true as frogs have cloaca and cloaca is common chamber for opening of
alimentary canal, urinary tract and reproductive tract.

  

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Chapter 2

Biomolecules

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(How to Analyse Chemical Composition? Primary and Secondary Metabolites, Carbohydrates)
1. Which of the following is not strictly a biomacromolecule?
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids (3) Polysaccharides (4) Nucleic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Because the molecular weight of lipids does not exceed 800 Da but they come under the acid insoluble fraction.

2. A secondary metabolite that acts as a toxin is

(1) Carotenoids (2) Curcumin (3) Abrin (4) Monoterpenes
Sol. Answer (3)
Carotenoid – Pigment
Curcumin – Drug
Monoterpenes – Terpenoids

3. A secondary metabolite that is alkaloid in nature is

(1) Codeine (2) Anthocyanin (3) Gum (4) Abrin
Sol. Answer (1)
Anthocyanin – Pigment
Gum – Polymeric substance
Abrin – Toxin

4. Peptidoglycan present in bacterial cell envelope is

(1) Made up of cellulose (2) A heteropolymer (3) An oligosaccharide (4) A homopolymer
Sol. Answer (2)
Peptidoglycan is a heteropolysaccharide made up of two alternate amino sugar molecules i.e., N-acetyl
glucosamines and N-acetyl muramic acid.

(Proteins, Lipids)

5. The most abundant protein in animal world is

(1) Chitin (2) Collagen (3) Peptidoglycan (4) Hyaluronic acid

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20 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Because chitin, peptidoglycan and hyaluronic acid, are polysaccharide, not protein.

6. The amino acids in a protein are held together by

(1) Glycosidic bond (2) Phosphodiester bond (3) Peptide bond (4) Hydrogen bond
Sol. Answer (3)
Glycosidic bond : Formed between the two monosaccharides (sugar molecule).
Phosphodiester bond : This bond is formed in nucleic acid i.e. DNA or RNA, between the phosphate and
hydroxyl group of sugar.

7. A protein which exhibits β pleated structure is

(1) Fibroin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Enzyme (4) α-Keratin
Sol. Answer (1)
Haemoglobin → Quaternary structure
Enzymes → Tertiary structure
α-Keratin → Secondary structure

8. An example of protein with quaternary structure is

(1) Myoglobin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Keratin (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Myoglobin : Tertiary structure
Keratin : Secondary structure

9. Lecithin is a
(1) Type of wax (2) Phospholipid (3) Oil (4) Simple fatty acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Because lecithin made up of a molecule of glycerol, a phosphate group, 2 fatty acid molecules, choline
(N-containing alcohol molecule)
O
O CH2 O C R1
R2 C O CH O CH3
CH2 O P O CH2 CH2 N CH3

OH CH3
Lecithin
10. Lipids that insulate the nerve fibre are
(1) Lecithin (2) Cholesterol (3) Suberin (4) Glycolipids
Sol. Answer (4)
The glycolipids are present in myelin sheath of nerve fibres.

11. The primary precursor for the production of cholesterol in our body is
(1) Acetic acid (2) Citric acid (3) Ethyl alcohol (4) Methanol
Sol. Answer (1)
In biosynthetic pathway or anabolic pathway, the acetic acid is converted into cholesterol in liver.

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 21
(Nucleic Acid)

12. The pentose sugar present in RNA is

(1) Galactose (2) Sucrose (3) Ribose (4) Fructose
Sol. Answer (3)
Ribose is a monosaccharide sugar present in RNA.
Deoxyribose is a derived monosaccharide sugar present in DNA.

13. Nucleoside is
(1) Sugar + Nitrogenous base (2) Sugar + Phosphate
(3) Nitrogenous base + Phosphate (4) Purine + Pyrimidine
Sol. Answer (1)
Nucleoside = Sugar + Nitrogenous base
Nucleotide = Sugar + Nitrogenous base + Phosphate

14. In B-DNA, one full turn of the helical strand contains

(1) 11 base pairs (2) 8 base pairs (3) 10 base pairs (4) 9 base pairs
Sol. Answer (3)
A form → 11 base pairs
B form → 10 base pairs
C form → 9 base pairs
D form → 8 base pairs

15. In a DNA molecule adenine of one strand base pair with ____ on the other strand
(1) Guanine (2) Thymine (3) Cytosine (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
In DNA, A T, C G

16. In B-DNA, the rise per base pair would be

(1) 4.3 Å (2) 2.4 Å (3) 3.4 Å (4) 4.2 Å
Sol. Answer (3)
In B-DNA, the rise per base pair would be 3.4 Å.

17. The nitrogenous bases of the two strands of DNA are joined by
(1) Phosphodiester bond (2) Hydrogen bond (3) Glycosidic bond (4) Peptide bond
Sol. Answer (2)
Hydrogen bond : The bond formed between two polynucleotide strands of DNA.
Glycosidic bond : Formed between the two monosaccharides (sugar).
Peptide bond : Formed between 2 amino acids.
Phosphodiester bond : Bond formed in nucleic acid i.e. DNA or DNA, between the phosphate and hydroxyl
group of sugar.

18. The genetic material of Tobacco mosaic virus is

(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Protein (4) NADPH
Sol. Answer (1)
The genetic material of TMV is ssRNA.

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22 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

19. The double helix model of DNA was proposed by

(1) Berzelius (2) Watson and Crick (3) Griffith (4) Robert Brown
Sol. Answer (2)
The double helix model of DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick.

20. In the 5′ end of a DNA molecule

(1) The fifth carbon of pyrimidine base is free (2) The fifth carbon of purine base is free
(3) The fifth carbon of pentose sugar is free (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (3)
One end of the strand is called 5′ end where the fifth carbon of the pentose sugar is free and the other is
called 3'end where the third carbon of pentose sugar is free.

21. The pitch of the B-DNA is

(1) 36 Å (2) 3.4 Å (3) 34 Å (4) 3.6 Å
Sol. Answer (3)
In B-DNA, one turn of helical strand has 10 nucleotides.
The base pairs of DNA are stacked 3.4 Å part.
∴ Pitch of the DNA = 3.4 Å × 10 = 34 Å

22. In DNA, uracil is replaced by

(1) Thymine (2) Thiamine (3) Cytosine (4) Adenine
Sol. Answer (1)
In DNA, thymine is present.
In RNA, uracil is present.

(Amino Acid and Dynamic State of Body Constituents–Concept of Metabolism)

23. In glycine the R group is replaced by
(1) A methyl group (2) Hydroxy methyl (3) A carboxylic group (4) A hydrogen
Sol. Answer (4)
Glycine is a simplest amino acid in which R-group is replaced by hydrogen.

24. Zwitterions are ionized species of

(1) Acidic amino acids (2) Basic amino acids
(3) Neutral amino acids (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Since amino acid can carry both +ve and –ve charges simultaneously, hence they are termed as Zwitterions.

25. Non-essential amino acids

(1) Must be obtained from food (2) Are synthesized in our body
(3) Are not needed in our diet (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Because non-essential amino acid are synthesised in our body, so there is no need to take it in our diet.

26. Metabolic flux is regulated by

(1) Enzymes (2) Sugars (3) Phospholipids (4) Sterols
Sol. Answer (1)
Metabolic flux is the rate of turn over of molecules through a metabolic pathway.

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 23
(The Living State, Enzymes)
27. Proteins which catalyse biochemical reactions in the living world are known as
(1) Enzymes (2) Hormones (3) Antibodies (4) Receptor
Sol. Answer (1)
Because almost all enzymes are protein which catalyse the biochemical reaction.
Hormones can be steroid and amino-acid derivative also.
Antibodies are glycoprotein.
Receptors are associated with sensory reception.

28. Ribozymes are _______ that behave like enzymes

(1) Proteins
(2) Ribonucleic acids
(3) Oligosaccharide
(4) Simple lipids
Sol. Answer (2)
Because ribozymes are the RNA which act as an enzyme.

29. The most abundant enzyme in the biosphere is

(1) Collagen (2) RuBisCO (3) Trypsin (4) Insulin
Sol. Answer (2)
Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO) is the most abundant protein in the whole of the
biosphere.

30. What is the fate of pyruvic acid under anaerobic conditions in our body?
(1) It gets converted into methyl alcohol
(2) It gets converted into acetyl CoA
(3) It gets converted into lactic acid
(4) It gets converted into glycogen
Sol. Answer (3)
Under anaerobic condition, the glucose is converted into lactic acid in muscle.

31. Organic compounds that are tightly bound to apoenzyme is

(1) Prosthetic group (2) Apoenzyme (3) Metal ions (4) Co-enzymes
Sol. Answer (1)

Enzyme (Holoenzyme)

Protein part Non-protein part

(Apozyme) (Cofactor)

Organic compound Inorganic

It includes metal ions

2+ 2+
Tightly bound Loosely bound i.e., Zn , Mg , etc.
(Prosthetic group) (Co-enzyme)

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24 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

32. Bacterial pathogen can be controlled by

(1) p-amino benzoic acid (2) Malonate (3) Sulphanilamide (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Sulpha drugs are derivatives of sulphanilamide, which inhibit the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria by competing
with p-amino benzoic acid (PABA) required for the synthesis of folic acid by folic acid synthetase.

33. Non-protein part of enzyme is known as

(1) Apoenzyme (2) Cofactor (3) Inorganic catalyst (4) Active site
Sol. Answer (2)
Enzyme (Holoenzyme)

Protein part Non-protein part

(Apozyme) (Cofactor)

Organic compound Inorganic

It includes metal ions

2+ 2+
Tightly bound Loosely bound i.e., Zn , Mg etc.
(Prosthetic group) (Co-enzyme)

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(How to Analyse Chemical Composition? Primary and Secondary Metabolites, Carbohydrates)
1. In maltose glycosidic bond is formed between
(1) Carbon 1 of one glucose molecule and carbon 4 of second glucose molecule
(2) Carbon 2 of one glucose molecule and carbon 3 of second glucose molecule
(3) Carbon 3 of one glucose molecule and carbon 4 of second glucose molecule
(4) Carbon 1 of one glucose molecule and carbon 6 of second glucose molecule
Sol. Answer (1)
CH2OH CH2OH
O H H O H
H
H H
1 4
OH H OH H
OH O
OH
H OH H OH

2. The given structure represents a monosaccharide known as

O
HOCH2

OH OH

OH OH
(1) Ribose (2) Glucose (3) Fructose (4) Raffinose
Sol. Answer (1)
Ribose is a pentose sugar.

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 25
3. Chitin present in the exoskeletons of arthropods is
(1) Protein (2) Polysaccharide
(3) Lipid (4) Derived monosaccharide
Sol. Answer (2)
Because chitin is a polymer of nitrogen containing glucose derivative known as N-acetyl glucosamine.

4. One of the following is correct sequence of carbohydrates in the order of increasing complexity of chemical
structure
(1) Sucrose, starch, oligosaccharide, maltose, triose (2) Triose, maltose, sucrose, oligosaccharide, starch
(3) Triose, glucose, maltose, oligosaccharide, starch (4) Oligosaccharide, triose, starch, sucrose, maltose
Sol. Answer (3)
Triose – 3 C containing molecule
Glucose – Monosaccharide (6 C)
Maltose – Disaccharide (2 Monosaccharide units)
Oligosaccharide – (2–10) Monosaccharide units
Starch – Polysaccharides

5. Glucose is stored as glycogen in

(1) Pancreas (2) Bone (3) Kidney (4) Liver
Sol. Answer (4)
Because liver is a gland where glucose get converted into glycogen.

6. A cellulose molecule is formed by the polymerisation of glucose. The number of glucose molecules present
in a cellulose is
(1) 600 (2) 6000 (3) 60,000 (4) 60
Sol. Answer (2)
A cellulose molecule is formed by polymerisation of 6000 molecules of β glucose.

(Proteins, Lipids and Nucleic Acids)

7. The structure of protein which gives a three dimensional view is
(1) Primary structure (2) α-helix
(3) β-pleated sheet (4) Tertiary structure
Sol. Answer (4)
Tertiary structure of protein gives a three dimensional view.
8. The product of the given reaction would be a
CH2OH HOOC–R1
CHOH + HOOC–R2
CH2OH HOOC–R3
Glycerol Fatty acid
(1) Monoglyceride (2) Diglyceride (3) Triglyceride (4) Both (1) & (3)

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26 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

Because given structure has three fatty acids.

9. The given fatty acid is known as CH3(CH2)7 CH = CH (CH2)7 COOH

(1) Palmitic acid (2) Oleic acid (3) Stearic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
Sol. Answer (2)
(CH3)2(CH2)7CH = CH(CH2)7COOH – Oleic acid
CH3(CH2)14COOH – Palmitic acid
CH3(CH2)16COOH – Stearic acid
Arachidonic acid : CH3(CH2)4CH = CHCH2CH = CHCH2CH = CHCH2CH = CH(CH2)3COOH
(20 C)

10. Nucleic acids exhibit

(1) Secondary structure (2) Tertiary structure (3) Quaternary structure (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Because nucleic acid (DNA) has double helical structure and it comes under secondary structure.

11. The backbone of a DNA molecule is made up of

(1) Adenine and guanine (2) Sugar-phosphate-sugar chain
(3) Cytosine and thymine (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Backbone of a DNA molecule is made up of Sugar – Phosphate – Sugar chain
3' P 5'

P = Phosphate
S A T S S = Sugar
A = Adenine
P P T = Thymine
G = Guanine
S G C S C = Cytosine

P P

S T A S

5' P 3'

12. If the sequence of bases in one of the DNA strand is A G G A G A A, then the sequence of bases in the other
complementary strand of DNA would be
(1) C C T T C T T (2) T C T C T C C (3) T C C T C T T (4) C C T C T C T
Sol. Answer (3)
Because A = T, G ≡ C

13. RNA is a polymer of

(1) Ribonucleotides (2) Deoxyribonucleotides
(3) Deoxyribonucleosides (4) Ribonucleosides
Sol. Answer (1)
It is made up of ribose sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases (A, U, G, C).

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 27
14. t-RNA constitutes about
(1) 70-80% of the total RNA (2) 15% of the total RNA
(3) 5% of the total RNA (4) 1-3% of the total RNA
Sol. Answer (2)
r-RNA → 70 – 80% of total RNA
t-RNA → 15% of total RNA
m-RNA → 2–5% of total RNA

15. In DNA, cytosine pairs with

(1) Guanine (2) Thymine (3) Adenine (4) Uracil
Sol. Answer (1)
A = T (2 hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine)
G ≡ C (3 hydrogen bonds between cytosine and guanine)

(Amino Acid and Dynamic State of Body Constituents–Concept of Metabolism)

16. The given amino acid is _______ in nature.

COOH
H2N–C–H
CH2.COOH

(1) Acidic (2) Basic (3) Neutral (4) Aromatic

Sol. Answer (1)
Because given structure has an extra carboxylic group.

17. Which of the following are basic amino acids?

(1) Glycine and Alanine (2) Lysine and Arginine
(3) Glutamic acid and Aspartic acid (4) Histidine and Proline
Sol. Answer (2)
Lysine and Arginine → Basic amino acid → +ve charged
Glutamic acid and Aspartic acid → Acidic amino acid → –ve charge

18. Which of the following aminoacids is involved in the formation of Heme?

(1) Tryptophan (2) Tyrosine (3) Glycine (4) Histidine
Sol. Answer (3)
Because amino-acid glycine provides nitrogen and carbon atoms for the synthesis of heme.

19. Which one of the following is alcoholic amino acid pair?

(1) Tyrosine and serine (2) Threonine and serine
(3) Phenylalanine and tyrosine (4) Tryptophan and phenylalanine
Sol. Answer (2)
Because these two amino acids contain alcohol group.

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28 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

20. Lysine is an essential amino acid because

(1) It is very rare
(2) It has a high nutritive value
(3) It is an important constituent of all proteins
(4) It is not formed in the body and has to be provided through diet
Sol. Answer (4)
Essential amino acids are not synthesised in body.

21. In which of the following energy is released?

(1) Conversion of glucose into pyruvate (2) Formation of proteins from amino acids
(3) Conversion of glucose into lactic acid (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Anaerobic combustion of glucose releases energy in the form of ATP.

22. Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) liberates high energy by the breakdown of

(1) Glycosidic bond (2) Hydrogen bond
(3) Phosphate bond (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (3)
ATP ⎯→ ADP + iP (inorganic phosphate)

(The Living State, Enzymes)

23. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Biocatalysts accelerate the rate of a given metabolic reaction
(2) Biocatalysts are generally protein
(3) Enzyme catalyst differ from inorganic catalyst
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)

24. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. inorganic catalysts?

(1) They do not occur in living cells (2) They are not specific for any reaction
(3) They get damaged at high temperature (4) They work efficiently at high pressure
Sol. Answer (3)
Inorganic catalyst work efficiently at high temperature and pressure, but enzyme get damaged at high
temperature (i.e. above 40ºC) except thermophillic enzyme.

25. Enzymes catalyse biochemical reactions by

(1) Lowering the activation energy
(2) Increasing the activation energy
(3) Establishing stable bonds with substrate
(4) Increasing temperature
Sol. Answer (1)
Enzyme lowers the activation energy and thus increases the rate of reaction.

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 29

26. Read the following :

(a) Low temperature preserves the enzyme

(b) Enzyme activity increases above optimum temperature

(c) Enzyme gets denatured at high temperature

(d) Competitive inhibitor competes with the product formed

Which of the following statement are true?

(1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) & (d) (3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)

Sol. Answer (1)

(b) Statement is wrong because enzyme activity decreases above optimum temperature.

(d) Statement is wrong because competitive inhibitor completes with substrate for active site, not with product
formed.

27. Enzymes catalysing the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules are

(1) Hydrolases (2) Isomerases (3) Ligase (4) Both (1) & (3)

Sol. Answer (1)

Because, hydrolases are the enzyme which catalyse the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller molecules
with the addition of water.

Isomerases : They are the enzymes which catalyse the rearrangement of molecular structure to form isomers.

Ligases : They help in joining C – O, C – S, C – N etc. bonds by using energy of ATP.

28. Michaelis constant (Km) value of enzyme is substrate concentration at which velocity of reaction is

(1) Vmax (2) One third Vmax (3) Half Vmax (4) One fifth Vmax

Sol. Answer (3)

Vmax

Velocity Vmax
of reaction 2

Km [s]

29. _______ catalyses covalent bonding of two substrates.

(1) Invertase

(2) Amylase

(3) Glutamate pyruvate transaminase

(4) PEP carboxylase

Sol. Answer (4)

Because this is a ligase enzyme.

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30 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

30. The enzyme that catalyses the conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into fructose-6-phosphate is

(1) A ligase (2) An isomerase

(3) A lyase (4) A hydrolase
Sol. Answer (2)

isomerase

Glucose-6-phosphate  
 fructose-6-phosphate

31. Study the following statements :

(a) The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme
(b) Enzymes isolated from thermophilic organisms get denatured at 50°C
(c) The active site of enzyme breaks the chemical bonds of the product
(d) Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to the apoenzyme
Select the option which includes all correct statements :
(1) (a) & (c) (2) (c) & (d) (3) (b) & (c) (4) (a) & (d)
Sol. Answer (4)
(b) Statement is wrong, because thermophillic enzymes don't get denatured at high temperature, they work
efficiently at high temperature (750ºC).
(c) Statement is wrong, because enzyme don't break chemical bonds of product but of substrate.

32. All enzymes are proteins, except

(1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin
(3) Steapsin (4) Ribozyme and Ribonuclease-P
Sol. Answer (4)
Because, all enzymes are proteins, except, ribozyme and ribonuclease-P, which are RNA act as enzyme.

33. Cyanide kills an animal by

(1) Killing the brain cells
(2) Competitive inhibitor of enzyme cytochrome oxidise
(3) Inhibiting cytochrome oxidase, a mitochondrial enzyme essential for cellular respiration by Non-competitive
inhibition
(4) Killing the cells of cardiac muscles
Sol. Answer (3)
Cyanide poisoining is an example of non competitive inhibition of enzyme.

34. Electron transferring enzymes belong to

(1) Transferases (2) Oxidoreductases (3) Lyases (4) Isomerases
Sol. Answer (2)
The main enzymes of electron transport chain are dehydrogenase, reductase, cytochrome oxidase, which
belongs to the oxidoreductase class of an enzyme.

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 31

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions

1. Which of the following are not polymeric? [NEET-2017]

(1) Nucleic acids (2) Proteins (3) Polysaccharides (4) Lipids
Sol. Answer (4)
– Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids
– Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides
– Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol

2. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes? [NEET-2017]
(1) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme (2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(3) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme (4) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
Sol. Answer (2)
Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor.
Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their association with apoenzyme is only transient and serve as
cofactors.

3. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]

(1) Lysozyme (2) Ribozyme (3) Ligase (4) Deoxyribonuclease
Sol. Answer (2)
Ribozyme is RNA acting like an enzyme or biocatalyst.

4. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most
proteins? [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Electrostatic interaction
(3) Hydrophobic interaction (4) Ester bonds
Sol. Answer (4)
Ester bond is formed between sugar and phosphate in a nucleotide.
5. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly? [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]

B
Potential Energy

A
Substrate

Product

Reaction
(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
Sol. Answer (2)
Potential energy of substrate is more than the product. So it is an exothermic reaction. 'A' represents the
activation energy in the presence of enzyme while 'B' in the absence of enzyme i.e., enzyme lowers down
the activation energy.

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32 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

6. A typical fat molecule is made up of [NEET-2016]

(1) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(2) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(3) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(4) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
Sol. Answer (3)
A typical fat molecule is triglyceride formed by esterification of one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.

7. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [NEET-2016]

(1) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid (2) Sucrose is a disaccharide
(3) Cellulose is a polysaccharide (4) Uracil is a pyrimidine
Sol. Answer (1)
Glycine is simplest amino acid in which 'R' is replaced by H(Hydrogen).

8. Which of the following biomolecules does have a phosphodiester bond? [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide (2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide (4) Amino acids in a polypeptide
Sol. Answer (1)
Phosphodiester bond is formed between two nucleotides of nucleic acid.

9. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerisation of [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Lipoglycans (2) Keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
(3) D-glucosamine (4) N-acetyl glucosamine
Sol. Answer (4)
Exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of chitin. Chitin is a polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine.

10. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA? [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Chargaff's rule
(2) Complementary base pairing
(3) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
(4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
Sol. Answer (1)
Chargaff's rule is applicable only for DNA.

11. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages
of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are [AIPMT-2015]
(1) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
(2) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
(3) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(4) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
Sol. Answer (4)

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 33
12. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate
(2) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme-inhibitor complex
(3) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme
(4) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate complex
Sol. Answer (1)

13. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site
(2) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
(3) A non - competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
(4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Sol. Answer (2)
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of competitive inhibition. This is reversible
reaction. On increasing the substrate (succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor is removed and Vmax
remain same.

14. Which one of the following is a non - reducing carbohydrate? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose (3) Lactose (4) Ribose 5-phosphate
Sol. Answer (2)
Lactose, Maltose, Ribose 5-phosphate all are reducing sugars.

15. A phosphoglyceride is always made up of: [NEET-2013]

(1) Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
(2) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also
attached
(3) A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol
molecule
(4) Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
Sol. Answer (2)

16. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are: [NEET-2013]

(1) Nucleic acids (2) Carbohydrates (3) Vitamins (4) Proteins
Sol. Answer (3)

17. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is : [NEET-2013]
(1) Permanent but unstable (2) Transient and unstable
(3) Permanent and stable (4) Transient but stable
Sol. Answer (2)

18. Macromolecule chitin is [NEET-2013]

(1) Phosphorus containing polysaccharide (2) Sulphur containing polysaccharide
(3) Simple polysaccharide (4) Nitrogen containing polysaccharide
Sol. Answer (4)

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34 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

19. Which one out of A – D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
A B C D
NH2 NH2 CH2OH
| | NH2
|
H C COOH H C COOH CH2 H C COOH
| | |
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2 |
| | | CH2
CH2 OH NH2 |
| CH2
C |
CH2
OH |
O
NH2

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Sol. Answer (4)
Because in 'D', it has an extra amino group, because of which it carry +ve charge which comes under basic
amino acid.

20. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of one of the categories of small molecular weight organic compounds
in the living tissues. Identify the category shown and the one blank component “X” in it
HOCH2 O "X"

OH OH
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Category Component
(1) Nucleotide Adenine
(2) Nucleoside Uracil
(3) Cholesterol Guanin
(4) Amino acid NH2
Sol. Answer (2)
Because the given structure doesn't have phosphate group so it is nucleoside and "X" is uracil because it
consists ribose sugar.

21. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Copper (2) Zinc (3) Iron (4) Niacin
Sol. Answer (2)
Carboxypeptidase require Zn2+ metal ion.

22. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
(2) Lecithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
(3) Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
(4) Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule
Sol. Answer (2)
Option (1) is wrong, because alanine contains an amino group and an acidic group at α-carbon in the molecule.
Option (3) is wrong, because palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid with 16C atoms.
Option (4) is wrong, because adenylic acid is form by adding phosphate group to adenosine.

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 35
23. The curve given below show enzymatic activity with relation to three conditions (pH, temperature and substrate
concentration)

y-axis
x-axis
What do the two axes (x and y) represent? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
x-axis y-axis
(1) Enzymatic activity Temperature
(2) Enzymatic activity pH
(3) Temperature Enzyme activity
(4) Substrate concentration Enzymatic activity
Sol. Answer (3)
y

Enzymatic
activity

x
pH or Temperature

24. Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compound is correctly identified along with its
related function
O
O CH2—O—C—R
NH2
A R2—C—O—CH O N
B N
CH2—O—P—O—CH2—CH2 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
OH N+ N NH
CH3 CH3
CH3
(1) A : Lecithin – a component of cell membrane
(2) B : Adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids
(3) A : Triglyceride – major source of energy
(4) B : Uracil – a component of DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
Given structure 'A' is Leathin and 'B' is Adenine.

25. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the
four options (1–4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly?

A
C
D
B Substrate

Product
Progress of Reaction [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

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36 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

A B C D
(1) Potential energy Transition state Activation energy with Activation energy
enzyme without enzyme
(2) Transition state Potential energy Activation energy Activation energy with
without enzyme enzyme
(3) Activation energy Transition state Activation energy with Potential energy
without enzyme enzyme
(4) Activation energy with Transition state Activation energy Potential energy
enzyme without enzyme

Sol. Answer (2)

26. Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity
(2) Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even
at temperatures 80°-90°C
(3) Enzymes are highly specific
(4) Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids
Sol. Answer (4)
Because most enzymes are protein but some are RNA i.e. Ribonuclease-P and ribozyme.

27. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Alcohol – Nitrogenase
(2) Fruit juice – Pectinase
(3) Textile – Amylase
(4) Detergents – Lipase
Sol. Answer (1)

28. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the following five properties
of starch (a - e) make it useful as a storage material? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
a. Easily translocated b. Chemical non-reactive
c. Easily digested by animals d. Osmotically inactive
e. Synthesized during photosynthesis
The useful properties are
(1) Both a & e (2) Both b & c (3) Both b & d (4) a, c & e
Sol. Answer (3)
Carbohydrates like glycogen and starch are relatively easy to store because of the following advantages.
• They are stored in bulk.
• They are chemically non-reactive.
• They are osmotically inactive.

29. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Coenzyme (2) Holoenzyme
(3) Apoenzyme (4) Isoenzyme
Sol. Answer (1)
Organic compound which bound to an enzyme is either coenzyme or prosthetic group.

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 37
30. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Repetitive DNA (2) RNA (3) Simple protein (4) Ribonucleoprotein
Sol. Answer (4)

31. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Tyrosine (2) Asparagine (3) Glycine (4) Alanine
Sol. Answer (3)
Because in glycine, the R-group is replaced by hydrogen.
H
HOOC C NH2

H = R group

32. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of
these [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Enhance oxidative metabolism
(2) Are conjugated proteins
(3) Are exclusively synthesized in the body of a living organism as at present
(4) Help in regulating metabolism
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) is incorrect, because enzymes can both enhance and inhibit the oxidative metabolism.
(3) is incorrect, different enzymes, vitamins and hormones are synthesized in the body at different situations.
(2) is incorrect, because all hormones and enzymes are not conjugated protein.

33. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) All bacteria, fungi and algae (2) Fungi, algae and green plant cells
(3) Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells (4) Viruses, fungi and bacteria
Sol. Answer (3)
Autotrophic organism produce glucose by photosynthesis which is a carbohydrate. Heterotrophic are dependent
on autotrophes and don't produce carbohydrate and fungi are saprobic organisms.

34. Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
(2) Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an inhibitor protein
(3) Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete
(4) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) is wrong, because competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of
substrate.
(2) is wrong, because competitive inhibtion is seen when a substrate competes with an inhibitor for binding
to the active site of enzyme.
(4) is wrong, because non-competitive inhibitor often bind to enzyme irreversibly.

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38 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

35. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) The Km value (2) The pH optimum value
(3) Formation of the product (4) Molecular size of the enzyme
Sol. Answer (1)

36. The four elements that make up 96% of all the elements found in a living system are
(1) C, H, O and P (2) C, N, O and P (3) H, O, C and N (4) C, H, O and S
Sol. Answer (3)
% weight of human body : C = 18.5; O = 65.0; N = 3.3; H = 0.5

37. High cholesterol patients are advised to use

(1) Ghee, butter and oils (2) Groundnut oil, margarine and vegetable oils
(3) Fatty oil and butter (4) Cheese, dalda and ghee
Sol. Answer (2)
Because these oils contain polyunsaturated fatty acids (i.e. more than one double bond) and they are usually
recommended by doctors to person having hypertension, high blood cholesterol and other cardiovascular
diseases.

38. Essential amino acid is

(1) Phenylalanine (2) Glycine (3) Aspartic acid (4) Serine
Sol. Answer (1)
Essential amino acids are leucine, isoleucine, valine, tryptophane, phenylalanine, lysine and methionine.

39. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid molecules are

(1) Hydrophilic (2) Hydrophobic (3) Neutral (4) Zwitter ions
Sol. Answer (2)
Hydro-means water, phobic - means repeling or hating
Lipids are hydrophobic that's why they are not soluble in water.

40. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as
(1) Co-factors of enzymes (2) Building blocks of important amino acids
(3) Constituents of hormones (4) Binders of cell structure
Sol. Answer (1)
Minor elements basically includes Zn, Mg, K, Ni, Co, NAD+, NADP+, they all come under the category of
cofactor.

41. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by
(1) Base-sugar-phosphate (2) Base-sugar-OH
(3) (Base-sugar-phosphate)n (4) Sugar-phosphate
Sol. Answer (1)
Nucleotide : Base + Sugar + Phosphate
Nucleic acid : (Base + Sugar + Phosphate)n

42. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and
(1) Sulphur and magnesium (2) Magnesium and sodium
(3) Calcium and phosphorus (4) Phosphorus and sulphur
Sol. Answer (3)

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Solutions of Assignment Biomolecules 39
43. Which of the following is a neutral amino acid?
(1) Glutamine (2) Arginine (3) Valine (4) Asparagine
Sol. Answer (3)
Glutamine, Asparagine → Amide group containing amino-acid.
Arginine → Basic amino acid

44. The most unsaturated fatty acid is

(1) Linoleic acid (2) Oleic acid (3) Linolenic acid (4) Arachidonic acid
Sol. Answer (4)
Arachidonic acid : It is 20 C containing unsaturated fattty acid (C20H32O2) with four double bond.
Oleic acid – 1 double bond
Linoleic acid – 2 double bonds
Linolenic acid – 3 double bonds

45. Which of the following is a nucleotide?

(1) Thymidine (2) Cytosine (3) Thiamine (4) Uridylic acid
Sol. Answer (4)
Thymidine – Nucleoside; Thiamine – Vitamin; Cytosine – Nitrogen base; Uridylic acid – Nucleotide

46. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the amino acids and their functions?
(1) Tyrosine : Converted into epinephrine hormone and used in the synthesis of melanin pigment
(2) Glycine : Involved in the formation of heme
(3) Tryptophan : Helps in the synthesis of auxin hormone
(4) Histidine : Can be converted into histamine by the removal of amino group
Sol. Answer (4)
Histamine is derived from amino acid histidine through decarboxylation.

47. Which of the following is the diagrammatic representation of phospholipid lecithin?

O O

CH2 – O – C – R1 CH2 – O – C – R1
O O
(1) CH – O – C – R2 (2) CH – O – C – R2
O O
CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2 – NH3
+
CH2 – O – C – R3

OH
O O
CH2 – O – C – R1 CH2 – O – C – R1
O O
(3) CH – O – C – R2 (4) R2 – C – O – CH
O CH3 O

CH2 – O – P – O – CH2 – CH2 –+N – CH3 CH2 – O – P – OH

OH CH3 OH
Sol. Answer (3)
Lecithin is a phospholipid present in cell membrane
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40 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

48. Which of the following is not a secondary metabolite of plant cell?

(1) Rubber (2) Chlorophyll (3) Essential oil (4) Tannins
Sol. Answer (2)
Rubber → Polymeric substance
Essential oil
Tannins → Pigments

49. The most abundant molecule in cell is

(1) Water (2) Carbohydrate (3) Lipid (4) Protein
Sol. Answer (1)
Water = 70 – 90% of the total cellular mass
Carbohydrate = 3%
Lipid = 2%
Protein = 10–15%

50. Which are the most diverse molecules in the cell?

(1) Lipids (2) Mineral salts (3) Proteins (4) Carbohydrates
Sol. Answer (3)
Because protein are made up of 20 different amino acids and are heteropolymers of amino acids.

51. The most abundant organic compound on earth is

(1) Protein (2) Cellulose (3) Lipids (4) Steroids
Sol. Answer (2)
Plant cell wall is made up of cellulose.

52. Haemoglobin is a type of

(1) Carbohydrate (2) Respiratory pigment (3) Vitamin (4) Skin pigment
Sol. Answer (2)
Because haemoglobin get binds to oxygen and help in the transportation of O2.

53. Collagen is
(1) Fibrous protein (2) Globular protein (3) Lipid (4) Carbohydrate
Sol. Answer (1)
Because collagen are thread like proteins, which are insoluble in water.

54. Maltose is formed of two molecules of

(1) Fructose (2) Lactose (3) Glucose (4) Sucrose
Sol. Answer (3)
Fructose = Monosaccharides
Lactose = Galactose + Glucose
Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose
Maltose = Glucose + Glucose

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55. A polysaccharide which is synthesized and stored in liver cells is

(1) Arabinose (2) Glycogen (3) Lactose (4) Galactose

Sol. Answer (2)

Glycogen is a polymer of glucose.

56. Agar is commercially obtained from

(1) Red algae (2) Blue-green algae

(3) Brown algae (4) Green algae

Sol. Answer (1)

Agar is a type of mucopolysaccharide and is obtained from red algae. It is used as culture medium in
laboratory.

57. Which of the following groups consists of polysaccharides only?

(1) Sucrose, glucose and fructose (2) Maltose, lactose and fructose
(3) Glycogen, sucrose and maltose (4) Glycogen, cellulose and starch
Sol. Answer (4)
Sucrose → Disaccharide; Fructose → Monosaccharide
Glucose → Monosaccharide; Maltose → Disaccharide
Lactose → Disaccharide; Glycogen → Polysaccharide
Cellulose → Polysaccharide; Starch → Polysaccharide

58. Lactose is composed of

(1) Glucose + galactose (2) Fructose + galactose
(3) Glucose + fructose (4) Glucose + glucose
Sol. Answer (1)
Lactose is a disaccharide.

59. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of
(1) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by α1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and
α1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(2) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β1, 4 glycosidic bond
(3) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by α1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(4) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α1, 4 glycosidic bond
Sol. Answer (2)
Glycogen and starch are branched polymer of glucose while cellulose is unbranched polymer of β glucose.

60. A person is eating boiled potato. His food contains

(1) Cellulose, which can be digested by cellulase
(2) Starch, which cannot be digested
(3) Lactose, which cannot be digested
(4) DNA, which can be digested by pancreatic DNAase

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42 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (4)

(1) is wrong, because our gut can't produce cellulose.
(2) is wrong because potato contain starch and it can be digested.
(3) is wrong, because lactose is absent in potato.

61. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

(1) Galactose (2) Gluconic acid (3) β-methyl galactoside (4) Sucrose
Sol. Answer (1)
Because it can reduce Cu2+ ions into Cu+ ion.

62. An important step in the manufacture of pulp for paper industry is the
(1) Preparation of pure cellulose
(2) Treatment of wood with chemicals that break down cellulose
(3) Removal of oils present in the wood by treatment with suitable chemicals
(4) Removal of water from the wood by prolonged heating at approximately 50°C
Sol. Answer (1)
Because the raw material for paper is cellulose.

63. β1-4 linkages are present in

(1) Cellulose (2) Chitin (3) Starch (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Cellulose – β(1, 4) linkage (β-glucose)
Chitin – β(1, 4) linkage (N-acetyl glucosamine)
Starch – α(1, 4) (in straight chain) of amylose and amylopectin
α(1, 6) (at branching)

64. Which of the following statements is false?

(1) Cellulose is the most abundant organic compound in the biosphere
(2) Cellulose is an unbranched polymer with β-1,4 glycosidic bonds
(3) Rayon and cellophane are chemically similar to cellulose xanthate
(4) Cellulose can be digested by the herbivores by β-amylase, produced by the glandular cells of their
alimentary canal
Sol. Answer (4)
Cellulose can be digested by the herbivores because they have special type cellulose digesting micro-organism
for the digestion of cellulose.

65. If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 60%, the amount of guanine in this
DNA will be
(1) 15% (2) 20% (3) 30% (4) 40%
Sol. Answer (2)
A + T = 60%
Then, C + G = 40%, when 20% ⇒ C and 20% = G

66. DNA has equal number of adenine and thymine residues (A = T) and equal number of guanine and cytosine
(G = C). These relationships are known as
(1) Chargaff's rule (2) Coulomb's law
(3) Le Chatelier's principle (4) Van't Hoff plot
Sol. Answer (1)

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67. Which of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids is mismatched with the category mentioned
against it?
(1) Adenine, Thymine – Purines (2) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines
(3) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines (4) Guanine, Adenine – Purines
Sol. Answer (1)
Adenine and Guanine → Purines
Thymine, uracil, cytosine → Pyrimidines

68. In a DNA molecule

(1) There are two strands which run antiparallel-one in 5′ → 3′ direction and other in 3′ → 5′
(2) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal
(3) There are two strands which run parallel in the 5′ → 3′ direction
(4) The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
Sol. Answer (1)
In DNA, two antiparallel strands are coiled around a common axis.

69. Which purine base is found in RNA?

(1) Thymine (2) Uracil (3) Cytosine (4) Guanine
Sol. Answer (4)
Because Thymine → Present in DNA, not in RNA
Cytosine, uracil → Pyrimidine

70. Similarity in DNA and RNA is that

(1) Both are polymers of nucleotides (2) Both have similar pyrimidines
(3) Both have similar sugar (4) Both are genetic material in man
Sol. Answer (1)
Nucleotide is a monomeric unit of nucleic acid.

71. Length of one loop of B-DNA is

(1) 3.4 nm (2) 0.34 nm (3) 20 nm (4) 10 nm
Sol. Answer (1)
Pitch of B-DNA = 34 Å ⇒ 3.4 nm (∵ 1 Å = 0.1 nm)

72. Which of the following enzymes is used to join bits of DNA?

(1) Ligase (2) Primase
(3) DNA polymerase (4) Endonuclease
Sol. Answer (1)
Class VI → Ligase enzyme is used to join the bits of DNA.
Primase → Is an enzyme use to attach primer.
DNA polymerase → is an enzyme use to add nucleotide in template strand of DNA.
Endonuclease → It is an restriction enzyme which causes internal cleavage of DNA.

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44 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

73. The 3′-5′ phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join
(1) One DNA strand with the other DNA strand
(2) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
(3) One nucleotide with another nucleotide
(4) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
Sol. Answer (3)
Because nucleotide is a monomeric unit of nucleic acid which are joined together by 3' – 5' phosphodiester bond.

74. ATP is
(1) Nucleotide (2) Nucleoside (3) Nucleic acid (4) Vitamin
Sol. Answer (1)
Because ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) is made up of adenine, ribose sugar and 3 phosphate groups.

75. The role of an enzyme in a reaction is to/as

(1) Decrease activation energy (2) Increase activation energy
(3) Inorganic catalyst (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)

Potential Transition state

energy
Activation energy without enzyme

Activation energy with enzyme

Substrate
energy

Product
Progress of reaction

76. Which of the following factor(s) do(es) not affect enzyme activity?
A. Temperature B. pH
C. Enzyme concentration D. Product concentration
E. Substrate concentration F. Activation energy
(1) C only (2) C & D (3) D only (4) F only
Sol. Answer (4)
Because enzyme activity is affected by temperature, pH, enzyme concentration, product concentration and
substrate concentration.
Enzyme are not affected by activation energy but it lowers down the activation energy.

77. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is

(1) Malate (2) Malonate (3) Oxaloacetate (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Competitive inhibitors of succinic dehydrogenase are malate, malonate, oxaloacetate.

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78. Which of the following is a typical example of ‘feedback inhibition’?
(1) Cyanide and cytochrome reaction
(2) Sulpha drugs and folic acid synthesizer bacteria
(3) Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose 6-phosphate
(4) Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) Cyanide and cytochrome reaction → Example of non-competitive inhibition.
(2) Sulpha drugs and folic acid synthesizer bacteria are example of non-competitive inhibition.
(4) Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid are example of competitive inhibition.

79. Which factor is responsible for inhibition of enzymatic process during feedback?
(1) Substrate (2) Enzyme (3) End product (4) Temperature
Sol. Answer (3)
Feedback inhibition is also konwn as End product inhibition or allosteric modulation.

80. Which of the following is true for competitive enzyme inhibition?

(1) Decrease in Vmax and Km (2) Unchanged Vmax and decrease in Km
(3) Unchanged Vmax and increase in Km (4) Increase in Vmax and Km
Sol. Answer (3)
Vmax = constant; Km = increased
Vmax
No
Inhibitor
With inhibitor
Reaction
velocity Vmax
2

Km K'm [S]

81. The Michaelis constant Km is

(1) Numerically equal to ½ Vmax
(2) Dependent on the enzyme concentration
(3) Numerically equal to the substrate concentration that gives half maximal velocity
(4) Increased in the presence of non-competitive inhibitor
Sol. Answer (3)

vmax

Velocity vmax
of reaction 2

Km [s]

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46 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

82. If an enzyme has been given the EC code 5.2.1.7, it is likely to be involved in
(1) Digestion (2) Redox reaction (3) Isomerization (4) Molecular breakdown
Sol. Answer (3)
EC code 5.2.1.7, in this the first digit represents class of enzyme.
And the class V of enzyme is isomerases, which catalyse the isomerisation reaction.

83. Prosthetic group is a part of holoenzyme. It is

(1) Loosely attached organic part
(2) Loosely attached inorganic part
(3) Non-protein organic part firmly attached with apoenzyme
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Enzyme (Holoenzyme)

Protein Non-protein
(Apoenzyme) (Cofactor)

Organic compound Inorganic compound

It includes metal ions

2+ 2+ 2+
Tightly bound Loosely bound i.e., Zn , Mg , Ca etc.
(Prosthetic group) (Coenzyme)

84. Which of the following has carbohydrate as prosthetic group?

(1) Glycoprotein (2) Chromoprotein
(3) Lipoprotein (4) Nucleoprotein
Sol. Answer (1)
It is a conjugated protein in which protein is conjugated with carbohydrate.

85. Mark the mismatched pair.

(1) Cellulose : Unbranched polymer with β,1-4 glycosidic linkage
(2) Cellophane : Cellulose xanthate
(3) Carboxypeptidase : Exopeptidase, Mg2+ acts as a co-factor
(4) Aminopeptidase : Exopeptidase, cleaves the peptide bond at N-terminal end
Sol. Answer (3)
Carboxypeptidase requires Zn2+ as cofactor.

86. Apoenzyme is
(1) Always a protein (2) Often a metal
(3) Always an inorganic compound (4) Often a vitamin
Sol. Answer (1)
Protein part of enzyme is known as apoenzyme and non-protein part of enzyme is known as cofactor.

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SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Cofactor of an enzyme may be a prosthetic group.
R : NAD derived from niacin is a co-enzyme.
Sol. Answer (2)
Organic compound firmly attach to protein part of enzyme is prosthetic group.

2. A : Linolenic acid is an essential fatty acid.

R : Linolenic acid cannot be synthesised in human beings.
Sol. Answer (1)
PUFA (Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids) are essential fatty acid.
3. A : Hormones are not enzymes, but they can stimulate the release of enzymes.
R : Hormones are used up in metabolism, but enzymes can act over and over again.
Sol. Answer (2)
Enzymes are not used up in metabolism.

4. A : Tertiary structure of protein molecules makes them biologically active.

R : It is native configuration of protein molecules maintained by multiple covalent bonds only.
Sol. Answer (3)
Because enzyme exists in tertiary structure in which sides group comes close and form an active site.

5. A : Dextrins are intermediate polysaccharides formed during hydrolysis of starch into sugar.
R : Ascorbic acid is a sugar derivative.
Sol. Answer (2)
Ascorbic acid is sugar acid.

6. A : Non-competitive inhibitors have no effect on Vmax.

R : In non-competitive inhibition, inhibitor and substrate bind at same sites on the enzyme.
Sol. Answer (4)
Non-competitive inhibitors decrease Vmax.

7. A : The polypeptide coil of collagen helix is strengthened by the estabilishment of hydrogen bond between >
NH - group of glycine residue of each strand with –CO group of other two strand.
R : In collagen helix locking effect also occurs with the help of proline and hydroxyproline amino acid.
Sol. Answer (2)
In collagen, there are generally three polypeptides coil around one another.

8. A : Allosteric enzymes do not show a typical Michaelis Menten constant or behaviour.

R : All enzymes work at same pH.
Sol. Answer (3)
Allosteric enzymes don't obey Michaelis Menten constant.
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48 Biomolecules Solutions of Assignment

9. A : α amylase of wheat endosperm has 16 isoenzymes.

R : In competitive inhibition Vmax decreases.
Sol. Answer (3)

Isoenzymes are the isomeric form of same enzyme.

10. A : Tertiary structure of protein is absolutely necessary for many biological activities of proteins.
R : In protein, only right handed helices are observed.
Sol. Answer (2)
Enzymes have tertiary structure of protein.

  

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Chapter 3

Digestion and Absorption

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Digestive System)
1. The major components of food are
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Proteins (3) Fats (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Carbohydrates, fats and proteins are macronutrients or proximate principles of food because these components
constitute the energy source for the production of heat and different organic function and are required in large
quantity in our body.

2. In which type of dentition, each tooth in the buccal cavity is embedded in a socket of jaw bone?
(1) Heterodont (2) Thecodont (3) Diphyodont (4) Monophyodont
Sol. Answer (2)
Because thecodont is a condition in which teeth are embedded in sockets and have well developed roots.
Monophyodont : Teeth which come once in life.
Diphyodont : Teeth which come twice in life.
Heterodont : Human (Adult) has 32 permanent teeth which are of four different types i.e., incisors, canines,
premolars, molars. Such type of dentition is called Heterodont.

3. The dental formula of human beings is

2123 2021 2321 2133

(1) (2) (3) (4)
2123 2021 2321 2133

Sol. Answer (1)

2123
(Adult)
2123 2102
(Childhood)
2102
Incisors Canines Premolars Molars

4. The common passage for food and air is

(1) Oesophagus (2) Pharynx (3) Trachea (4) Glottis

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Sol. Answer (2)

Pharynx is a common passage for food and air.
Oesophagus : Food pipe.
Trachea : Wind pipe
Glottis : Opening of larynx that remains covered by epiglottis during swallowing.

5. All of the following are the parts of large intestine, except

(1) Caecum (2) Colon (3) Ileum (4) Rectum
Sol. Answer (3)
Because Ileum is a part of small intestine.

6. Oesophagus opens in which part of the stomach?

(1) Pyloric (2) Cardiac (3) Fundic (4) Caecum
Sol. Answer (2)
Oesophagus

Fundus

Cardiac
Superior portion
of duodenum

Pyloric

7. How many pairs of salivary glands are present in human beings?

(1) 2 pairs (2) 3 pairs (3) 4 pairs (4) 5 pairs
Sol. Answer (2)
Three pairs of salivary glands are :
(1) Parotid (1 pair)
(2) Sub-maxillary / sub-mandibular (1 pair)
(3) Sub-lingual (1 pair)

8. Which gland is both exocrine and endocrine?

(1) Liver
(2) Gall bladder
(3) Glisson’s capsule
(4) Pancreas
Sol. Answer (4)
As pancreas is a compound gland. So it acts as exocrine and endocrine gland both.

9. Glisson’s capsule is related to

(1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Lung (4) Pharynx
Sol. Answer (1)
Glisson's capsule is a thin connective sheath which covers hepatic lobule.
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10. Endocrine portion of pancreas secretes
(1) Insulin
(2) Glucagon
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) HCl
Sol. Answer (3)
α-Cells of pancreas → Secrete glucagon
β-Cells of pancreas → Secrete insulin
δ-Cells of pancreas → Secrete somatostatin

11. Bile is stored and concentrated in

(1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Lungs (4) Gall bladder
Sol. Answer (4)
Gall bladder : It removes water and not Na+ ions from bile and concentrate it.

12. Which organ of the following is present in abdominal cavity, just below diaphragm.
(1) Pharynx (2) Pancreas (3) Liver (4) Tongue
Sol. Answer (3)
Liver is the largest gland of the body, which is situated in the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm. It
has two lobes i.e., right and left lobes.

13. Which is the largest gland of human body?

(1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Gall bladder (4) Lung
Sol. Answer (1)
Liver is the largest gland of the body weighing about 1.2 to 1.5 kg in adult human.

14. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to rectum possesses _____ layers.
(1) 2 layers (2) 3 layers (3) 4 layers (4) 5 layers
Sol. Answer (3)
Four layers

Serosa
Muscularis Wall of alimentary canal
Sub-mucosa
Mucosa

15. The major functions of buccal cavity is/are

(1) Mastication of food
(2) Facilitation of swallowing
(3) Help in the secretion of glucagon
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
(1) Mastication of food → Function of buccal cavity
(2) Facilitation of swallowing → Function of buccal cavity
(3) Help in secretion of glucogon → Function of α-cell of pancreas.
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52 Digestion and Absorption Solutions of Assignment

(Digestion of Food)
16. The antibacterial enzyme, present in the saliva that prevents infections is
(1) Maltose
(2) Salivary amylase
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Pepsinogen
Sol. Answer (3)
Maltose → Sugar
Salivary amylase → Help in digestion of carbohydrate
Pepsinogen → Inactive form of pepsin, which help in digestion of protein.

17. HCl secreting cells present in the stomach are

(1) Oxyntic cells (2) Peptic cells (3) Chief cells (4) Mucus neck cells
Sol. Answer (1)
Peptic or chief cell : Secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen
Mucus neck cell : Secrete mucus
Pepsinogen : Oxyntic or parietal cells : Secret HCl and intrinsic factor.

18. Which enzyme gets activated by HCl, secreted from gastric glands?
(1) Trypsinogen (2) Pepsinogen (3) Renin (4) Chymotrypsin
Sol. Answer (2)
Enterokinase
Trypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Trypsin
HCl
Pepsinogen ⎯⎯⎯ → Pepsin
Trypsin
Chymotrypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Chymotrypsin
Renin → Hormone which help in osmoregulation

19. All of the following juices contain enzymes, except

(1) Pancreatic juice
(2) Intestinal juice
(3) Bile juice
(4) Gastric juice
Sol. Answer (3)
Because bile contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts (sodium bicarbonate, sodium
glycocholate, sodium taurocholate), cholesterol and phospholipids.

20. The breakdown of biomolecules i.e. dipeptides, lactose, maltose and sucrose etc. occur mainly in the
(1) Ilium
(2) Pyloric region of stomach
(3) Duodenum region of small intestine
(4) Caecum region of large intestine

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Solutions of Assignment Digestion and Absorption 53
Sol. Answer (3)
Duodenum region of small intestine. Because the enzyme requires of the breakdown of biomolecules i.e.
dipeptides, lactose, maltose and sucrose are present in the succus entericus (intestinal juice).

21. Enzyme lactase is responsible for the breakdown of lactose into

(1) Glucose + Fructose
(2) Glucose + Galactose
(3) Glucose + Glucose
(4) Fatty acids + Glycerol
Sol. Answer (2)

lactose
Lactose ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Glucose + Galactose

22. Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in

(1) Stomach
(2) Pharynx
(3) Oesophagus
(4) Intestine
Sol. Answer (4)
Crypts of Lieberkuhn, which are also known as intestinal glands, are present in intestine.

23. The main function of bile is to

(1) Eliminate the waste products
(2) Emulsify the fats
(3) Digest proteins by enzymatic activity
(4) Regulate the digestion process
Sol. Answer (2)
Bile helps in emulsification of fats i.e., breakdown of the fats into very small micelles. As, Bile do not have
any enzyme, so it does not help in digestion of protein.

24. The wave like muscular contractions of the digestive tract is called
(1) Mastication (2) Assimilation (3) Peristalsis (4) Stimulation
Sol. Answer (3)
During the oesophageal phase of swallowing, food is pushed through the oesophagus by involuntary muscular
movements called peristalsis.
Mastication : Chewing of food.
Assimilation : When the absorbed food material in blood and lymph, will reach to tissue, which we utilise
them for our activity like growth, energy and repair.

25. Enzyme trypsinogen is a component of

(1) Mucus (2) Saliva (3) Pancreatic juice (4) Intestinal juice

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Sol. Answer (3)

Trypsinogen is inactive form of trypsin.

26. The food that enters into intestine from stomach is

(1) Alkaline chyle (2) Fundus (3) Acidic chyme (4) Bolus
Sol. Answer (3)
Because the pH of stomach is low (1.8-3.2) and the food that passes from stomach also get acidic because
of the presence of HCl.

(Absorption of Digested Product, Disorder of Digestive System)

27. Absorption of substances takes place in different parts of the alimentary canal. However maximum absorption
takes place in

(1) Small intestine (2) Large intestine (3) Transverse colon (4) Ascending colon

Sol. Answer (1)

Absorption of substances takes place in different parts of the alimentary canal, like mouth, stomach, small
intestine and large intestine. But maximum absorption occurs in the small intestine.

28. Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol etc. takes place in

(1) Mouth (2) Stomach (3) Rectum (4) Large intestine

Sol. Answer (2)

Absorption of substance takes place in different parts of the alimentary canal :

Mouth : Some drugs

Stomach : Water, simple sugar, alcohol, drugs.

Small Intestine : Water, amino acid, sugar, glycerol, fatty acid, minerals, vitamin.

Large intestine : Water, some mineral, drugs.

29. In intestine, the function of microvilli is to

(1) Secrete gastric juice (2) Secrete pancreatic juice
(3) Increase absorptive surface area (4) Secrete hormones
Sol. Answer (3)
Microvilli increase absorptive surface area.

30. Abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is known as
(1) Vomiting (2) Diarrhoea (3) Constipation (4) Indigestion
Sol. Answer (2)
Vomiting: It is the ejection of stomach contents through the mouth.
Diarrhoea: The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the foecal discharge.
Constipation: In this, faeces are retained within the rectum as the bowel movements occur irregularly.
Indigestion: In this, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness.

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Solutions of Assignment Digestion and Absorption 55

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions

(Digestive System)
1. Pyloric sphincter regulates the opening of
(1) Pharynx into oesophagus (2) Oesophagus into stomach
(3) Stomach into duodenum (4) Ileum into large intestine
Sol. Answer (3)
Pyloric sphincter present in the pyloric region of the stomach which regulates the opening of stomach into
duodenum.

2. The structural and functional unit of liver is

(1) Cystic duct (2) Hepatic lobule
(3) Hepatopancreatic duct (4) Sphincter of Oddi
Sol. Answer (2)
Hepatic lobules are the structural and functional units of liver containing hepatic cells arranged in the form of
cords.

3. Match the following

Column I Column II
(Salivary gland) (Their location)
a. Parotids (i) Below tongue
b. Sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular (ii) Lower jaw
c. Sub-linguals (iii) Cheek
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
Sol. Answer (4)
Parotid - Present near cheek
Sub-maxillary/sub - Mandibular - Present at lower jaw
Sub-linguals - Present below tongue

4. Bile can be prevented to release into duodenum by

(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Cardiac sphincter (3) Pyloric sphincter (4) Ileo-caecal valve

Sol. Answer (1)

Because sphincter of Oddi guards the common hepatopancreatic duct, through which the bile is released into
duodenum.

5. Dental formula for the monophyodont teeth of human is

0 0 21 0003 212 0 210 2
(1) 0 0 21 (2) 0 0 0 3 (3) 212 0 (4) 210 2

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Sol. Answer (1)

0021
Monophyodont ⇒
0021
2102
Diphyodont ⇒
2102

Incisors Canines Premolars Molars

6. Upper molars in human dentition have
(1) Four roots (2) Three roots (3) Two roots (4) Single root
Sol. Answer (2)

1 1 2 3 → Upper jaw
Root formula =
1 1 1 2 → Lower jaw

7. Which of the following can be taken as true stomach in ruminants?

(1) Rumen (2) Reticulum (3) Omasum (4) Abomasum
Sol. Answer (4)
In ruminants, abomasum is a true stomach which secrete gastric juice and release all enzyme here.
8. Oblique muscle layer is present in
(1) Stomach (2) Duodenum (3) Colon (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
An oblique muscle layer is found inner to the circular muscle layer in stomach.
9. Sphincter of Boyden which helps in the filling up of gall bladder is present in
(1) Ductus choledoccus (2) Duct of Wirsung (3) Ampulla of Vater (4) Duct of Santorini
Sol. Answer (1)
Sphincter of Boyden present in ductus choledoccus (common bile duct), help in filling up of gall bladder. The
sphincter opens to release the bile into hepatopancreatic duct.
10. Thecodont teeth are present in
a. Sphenodon b. Crocodiles c. Mammals d. Scoliodon
(1) c only (2) b & c only (3) a, b, & c only (4) a, b, c & d
Sol. Answer (2)
Crocodiles and mammals → Thecodont teeth
Sphenodon and Scoliodon → Acrodont teeth
11. Cholecystitis refers to
(1) Gall bladder (2) Stomach (3) Spleen (4) Lungs
Sol. Answer (1)
Cholecystitis refers to inflammation of gall bladder.

(Digestion of Food)
12. Which carbohydrate splitting enzyme initiates the chemical process of digestion in the oral cavity?
(1) Lysozyme (2) Salivary amylase (3) Pepsin (4) Rennin
Sol. Answer (2)
Lysozyme, pepsin, rennin, they are not carbohydrate-digesting enzyme.
Salivary amylase : Only enzyme produced in buccal cavity that starts carbohydrate digestion.
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13. The type of cells present in the gastric glands which secretes intrinsic factor?
(1) Peptic cells (2) Chief cells (3) Parietal cells (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Peptic cell or chief cells - Secrete pepsinogen.
Parietal or oxyntic cell - Secrete HCl and intrinsic factor which is essential for the absorption of Vit. B12.

14. The proteolytic enzyme found in the gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins is
(1) Renin (2) Rennin (3) Salivary amylase (4) Lysozyme
Sol. Answer (2)
Renin : It helps in osmoregulation
Rennin : Proteolytic enzyme found in the gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of protein.
Salivary amylase : help in digestion of carbohydrates.
Lysozyme : It is an antibacterial enzyme, present in saliva.

15. The pancreatic juice contains various enzymes, except

(1) Pepsinogen (2) Trypsinogen (3) Chymotrypsinogen (4) Procarboxypeptidase
Sol. Answer (1)
Because pepsinogen is secreted by chief cells of gastric glands.

16. Select the incorrect option

(1) Bilirubin and biliverdin are the bile pigments
(2) Emulsification is the breakdown of the fats into very small droplets
(3) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in the pancreatic juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk
protein
(4) Mucus and bicarbonates protect mucosal epithelium from excoriation by highly conc. HCl
Sol. Answer (3)
Rennin found in the gastric juice, not in pancreatic juice.

17. The main enzymes present in the gastric juice are

(1) Trypsin, pepsin and lipase (2) Pepsin, amylase and trypsin
(3) Pepsin, rennin and carboxypeptidase (4) Pepsin, lipase and rennin
Sol. Answer (4)
Because amylase found in mouth and pancreatic juice

Carboxypeptidase ⎫
⎬ found in pancreatic juice
Trypsin ⎭

18. Match the following columns

Column I Column II
a. Lysozyme (i) HCl
b. Peptic cells (ii) Antibacterial enzyme
c. Saliva (iii) Sublingual gland
d. Oxyntic cells (iv) Pepsinogen
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

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Sol. Answer (2)

Lysozyme – Has antibacterial activity
Peptic cell – Secrete pepsinogen
Saliva – Produced by sublingual salivary gland
Oxyntic cell – Secrete HCl

19. The digestion of which food component is affected if pancreas is removed?

(1) Carbohydrates (2) Proteins (3) Fats (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Because pancreatic juice contains amylase for the digestion of carbohydrates, trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen
and carboxypeptidase for the digestion of proteins and lipase for lipid digestion.

20. At which site the emulsification of fat takes place?

(1) Pancreas (2) Gall bladder (3) Liver (4) Duodenum
Sol. Answer (4)
The bile juice stored in gall bladder travels through bile duct to the duodenum for emulsifying the fat.
21. One of the following ions is used for activation of ptyalin
(1) Sodium ions (2) Potassium ions (3) Chloride ions (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)

Ptyalin, pH = 6.8
In mouth, Starch ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Maltose + Isomaltose + Dextrins
( 30%) Cl−

22. Mark the odd one out

(1) Gastrin (2) Trypsin (3) Secretin (4) Enterocrinin
Sol. Answer (2)
Because trypsin is the enzyme and rest all are hormones.
23. When a piece of bread is chewed it tastes sweet because
(1) The sugar contents are drawn out (2) Saliva converts starch into maltose
(3) It does not taste sweet (4) The taste buds are stimulated by chewing
Sol. Answer (2)
Bread has carbohydrate (starch) which when chewed in mouth, will digested by salivary amylase and converts
it into maltose, which is sugar and sweet in taste.
24. Which of the following papillae are without taste buds in human tongue?
(1) Vallate (2) Fungiform (3) Fusiform (4) Filiform
Sol. Answer (4)
Filiform papillae are without taste buds in human tongue.

25. Digestion is completed in

(1) Duodenum (2) Ileum (3) Stomach (4) Cloaca
Sol. Answer (2)
It is a part of small intestine.

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(Absorption of Digested Product, Disorder of Digestive System)
26. Select the incorrect option regarding digestion and absorption of substances in different parts of digestive
system
(1) In large intestine, absorption of water, some minerals and drugs takes place
(2) Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol takes place in stomach
(3) Small intestine is the principal organ for absorption of nutrients
(4) The digestion is completed in large intestine
Sol. Answer (4)
The digestion is completed in small intestine, the large intestine helps in absorption of water.

27. Which of the following is a modification of mucosa of alimentary canal?

(1) Villi (2) Microvilli (3) Rugae (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Brunner's gland is not a modification of mucosa, it is found in the submucosa of alimentary canal.

28. In acute constipation, purgatives that are used to stimulate intestinal peristalsis and evacuation of fluid faeces
contain salts of
(1) Sodium (2) Magnesium (3) Potassium (4) Calcium
Sol. Answer (2)
For acute constipation, purgatives containing salts of magnesium are used to stimulate intestinal peristalsis
and evacuation of fluid faeces as it increases the fluidity and volume of intestinal contents.

29. A prolonged constipation may cause

(1) Hemorrhoids (2) Ulcers (3) Cholera (4) Dysentery
Sol. Answer (1)
A prolonged constipation may cause hemorrhoids due to the rupture of blood vessel (varicose vein).
Hemorrhoids is also known as piles.

30. The blood capillaries of intestinal villi cannot absorb

(1) Glucose (2) Salts
(3) Fatty acids and glycerides (4) Amino acids
Sol. Answer (3)
Because fatty acid and glycerides being insoluble, cannot be absorbed into blood. They first converted into
chylomicrons, which are then transported into the lymph vessels (lacteals) in the villi. The lymph vessels
ultimately release the absorbed substance into the blood stream.

31. Vitamin containing cobalt cyanide linkage is

(1) A (2) B1 (3) B6 (4) B12
Sol. Answer (4)
Vitamin B12 contains cobalt cyanide linkage and thus is called a cyanocobalamin.

32. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency of ________ vitamin

(1) B1 (2) B12 (3) C (4) D
Sol. Answer (2)
Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes pernicious anaemia. It is a deadly anaemia because it is required for the
maturation of RBC, DNA synthesis and myelin sheath synthesis.

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33. Beri-beri is due to deficiency of vitamin

(1) B7 (2) A (3) C (4) B1
Sol. Answer (4)
Beri-beri disease occurs due to the deficiency of vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
In this, muscle degeneration and nerve inflammation usually occur.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions

1. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete antibacterial lysozyme? [NEET-2017]

(1) Argentaffin cells (2) Paneth cells (3) Zymogen cells (4) Kupffer cells
Sol. Answer (2)
– Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells of liver.
– Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells.
– Paneth cell secretes lysozyme which acts as anti-bacterial agent.
– Argentaffin cells are hormone producing cells.

2. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because
of [NEET-2017]
(1) Residual Volume (2) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(3) Tidal Volume (4) Expiratory Reserve Volume
Sol. Answer (1)
Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of alveoli
even after forceful expiration.

3. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check-up. The dentist
observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent? [NEET-2017]
(1) Incisors (2) Canines (3) Pre-molars (4) Molars
Sol. Answer (3)
Total number of teeth in human child = 20. Premolars are absent in primary dentition.

4. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? [NEET-2017]
(1) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
(2) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(3) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
(4) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-peptidase
Sol. Answer (4)
Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal juice.
5. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum? [NEET-2016]
(1) Sphincter of Oddi (2) Semilunar valve (3) Ileocaecal valve (4) Pyloric sphincter
Sol. Answer (1)
Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum.
6. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the [NEET-2016]
(1) Acidic cells (2) Gastrin secreting cells (3) Parietal cells (4) Peptic cells
Sol. Answer (3)
In stomach, gastric acid (HCl) is secreted by parietal cells of gastric gland
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Solutions of Assignment Digestion and Absorption 61
7. The primary dentition in human differs from permanent dentition in not having one of the following type of teeth
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Incisors (2) Canine (3) Premolars (4) Molars
Sol. Answer (3)
2123
Dental formula of human adult (permanent dentition) = .
2123
2102
Dental formula of child (primary dentition) =
2102
So premolars and third molar (last molar) are absent in primary dentition.
8. The enzyme that is not present in succus entericus is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Lipase (2) Maltase (3) Nucleases (4) Nucleosidase
Sol. Answer (3)
Succus entericus is intestinal juice contains maltase, lipase, nucleosidase. Nucleases are the enzymes of
pancreatic juice.
9. Which of the following statements is not correct? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase
(2) Brunner's glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen
(3) Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus
(4) Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete HCl
Sol. Answer (2)

10. Gastric juice of infants contains [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen (2) Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin
(3) Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase (4) Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin
Sol. Answer (4)

11. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Lipase (2) Trypsin (3) Rennin (4) Pepsin
Sol. Answer (3)
The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by rennin.

12. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Active transport (2) Facilitated transport
(3) Simple diffusion (4) Co-transport mechanism
Sol. Answer (2)
Fructose is absorbed with the help of the carrier ions like Na+. This mechanism is called facilitated transport.

13. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and
mechanism in column II [NEET-2013]
Column I Column II
(1) Fructose, Na+ Small intenstine, passive absorption
(2) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move as chylomicrons
(3) Cholesterol, maltose Large intestine, active absorption
(4) Glycine, glucose Small intestine, active absorption
Sol. Answer (4)

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14. Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Duodenum (2) Caecum
(3) Oral lining and tongue surface (4) Vermiform appndix and rectum
Sol. Answer (2)
Caecum of large intestine is site which host the symbiotic micro-organism.

15. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Vomiting (2) Indigestion (3) Jaundice (4) Diarrhoea
Sol. Answer (2)
During indigestion, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness. The cause of indigestion
are inadequate enzyme secretion anxiety, food poisoning, spicy food and over eating.

16. Which one of the following enzymes carries out the initial step in the digestion of milk in humans?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin (3) Rennin (4) Lipase
Sol. Answer (3)

17. Two friends are eating together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some
food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Tongue (2) Epiglottis (3) Diaphragm (4) Neck
Sol. Answer (2)

18. Which one of the following correctly represents the normal adult human dental formula?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

2 1 2 3 3 13 3 3 13 1 2 13 3
(1) , , , (2) , , , (3) , , , (4) , , ,
2 1 2 3 3 13 3 3 12 1 2 1 2 3
Sol. Answer (1)

19. One of the constituents of the pancreatic juice while poured into the duodenum in humans is
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Trypsin (2) Enterokinase (3) Trypsinogen (4) Chymotrypsin
Sol. Answer (3)
Trypsin is an active form of trypsinogen Enterokinase is present in intestinal juice.
Enterokinase
In Duodenum, Trypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Trypsin

Trypsin
Chymotrypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Chymotrypsin

Trypsin and chymotrypsin are not present in pancreatic juice, their inactive form is present in pancreatic juice.

20. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional this will adversely affect [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Smooth movement of food down the intestine (2) Production of somatostatin
(3) Secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands (4) Maturation of sperms
Sol. Answer (1)
Because goblet cells secrete mucus.

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Solutions of Assignment Digestion and Absorption 63
21. Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of substances like [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Fructose and some amino acids (2) Amino acids and glucose
(3) Glucose and fatty acids (4) Fatty acids and glycerol
Sol. Answer (2)
Amino acids and glucose both are absorbed by carrier mediated facilitated transport.

22. If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to
happen? [AIPMT(Mains)-2010]
(1) The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
(2) The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
(3) Steapsin will be more effective
(4) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
Sol. Answer (4)
Oxyntic cell → Secretes HCl
HCl
Pepsinogen ⎯⎯→ Pepsin(active)

Pepsin
Protein ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Proteoses + Peptones
So, if for some reason, the oxyntic cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, then protein
will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones.

23. Jaundice is a disorder of [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

(1) Excretory system (2) Skin and eyes (3) Digestive system (4) Circulatory system
Sol. Answer (3)
In jaundice, the liver is affected, bile pigments like bilirubin, get increase in blood causing yellowness in skin
and eyes.

24. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age
of one year are likely to suffer from: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Rickets (2) Kwashiorkor (3) Pellagra (4) Marasmus
Sol. Answer (4)
Marasmus occurs due to deficiency of protein and calories and it usually occurs in infant below one year of
age.

25. A young infant may be feeding entirely on mother's milk which is white in colour but the stools which the infant
passes out is quite yellowish. What is this yellow colour due to? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Bile pigments passed through bile juice
(2) Undigested milk protein casein
(3) Pancreatic juice poured into duodenum
(4) Intestinal juice
Sol. Answer (1)
The yellow colour of faecal matter is due to stercobilin, which is obtained from the breakdown of bilirubin which
is a bile pigment.

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64 Digestion and Absorption Solutions of Assignment

26. Which one of the following statements is true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like Na+.
(2) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from intestine into blood capillaries.
(3) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.
(4) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.
Sol. Answer (1)
Option 1 is wrong → Because 30% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.
Option 2 is wrong → Because oxyntic cells secrets HCl.
Option 4 is wrong → Because chylomicrons are transported to lymph vessel (lacteals) in the villi.

27. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Starch and fat (2) Fat and cellulose
(3) Starch and cellulose (4) Protein and starch
Sol. Answer (2)
The enzyme cellulase is not present and fats are digested in small intestine after emulsification with bile.

28. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to
trypsin
(2) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
(3) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen
(4) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
Sol. Answer (4)
In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin.
Parietal cells of gastric gland is responsible for the secretion of HCl and further HCl is responsible for the
conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin.

29. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme acting
upon it and the end product? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
Lipase
(1) Stomach : Fats ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯→ micelles
Trypsin
(2) Duodenum : Triglycerides ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
monoglycerides
α Amylase
(3) Small intestine : Starch ⎯⎯ ⎯ ⎯⎯→
Disaccharide (Maltose)
Pepsin
(4) Small intestine : Proteins ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯→
Amino acids

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Sol. Answer (3)
First option is wrong because
Lipase
Fats ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ Monoglycerides
Second option is wrong because
Lipase
Triglycerides ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ Monoglycerides
Second option is wrong because
Pepsin
In stomach, Proteins ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Amino acids

30. Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Calciferol– Pellagra
(2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
(3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia
(4) Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Answer (3)

31. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Less urea in his urine
(2) More sodium in his urine
(3) Less amino acids in his urine
(4) More glucose in his blood
Sol. Answer (1)

32. Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia, shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes
without haemoglobin. Supplementing his diet with which of the following, is likely to alleviate his symptoms
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Thiamine
(2) Folic acid and cobalamine
(3) Riboflavin
(4) Iron compounds
Sol. Answer (2)

33. A patient is generally advised to specially, consume more meat, lentils, milk and eggs in diet only when he
suffers from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Kwashiorkor (2) Rickets (3) Anaemia (4) Scurvy
Sol. Answer (1)

34. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive hormones. They are secreted in : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Oesophagus (2) Ileum (3) Duodenum (4) Pyloric stomach
Sol. Answer (3)
Secretin and CCK are secreted in duodenum.

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35. Which group of three of the following five statements (A-E) contain is all three correct statements regarding
beri-beri?
A. A crippling disease prevalent among the native population of sub-Sahara Africa.
B. A deficiency disease caused by lack of thiamine (vitamin B1).
C. A nutritional disorder in infants and young children when the diet is persistently deficient in essential
protein.
D. Occurs in those countries where the staple diet is polished rice.
E. The symptoms are pain from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting, progressive oedema, mental deterioration
and finally heart failure. [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and E
(3) A, C and E (4) B, D and E
Sol. Answer (4)

36. Protective components of food are

(1) Minerals, vitamins and water
(2) Minerals, carbohydrate and proteins
(3) Minerals, carbohydrate and fats
(4) Vitamins, water and carbohydrate
Sol. Answer (1)
Minerals, vitamins and water are protective principles of food because although they do not provide us energy
but their deficiency cause diseases and abnormalities. Carbohydrate, protein and fats are proximate principles
of food.

37. Which of the following is correct location and function of Meissner’s plexus of intestine?
(1) Muscularis external - Peristalsis
(2) Muscularis internal - Peristalsis
(3) Submucosa - Mucosal secretions
(4) Mucosa - Mucosal secretions
Sol. Answer (3)
Meissner's plexus are located in the sub mucosa of alimentary canal and their function is mucosal secretion.
Meissner's plexus also known as Remak's plexus.

38. Which of the following is true regarding the source and nature of the enamel?
(1) Odontoblast, mesodermal (2) Odontoblast, ectodermal
(3) Ameloblast, mesodermal (4) Ameloblast, ectodermal
Sol. Answer (4)
Enamel is ectodermal in origin.

39. Choose the correct enzyme-substrate pair

(1) Lipase carbohydrate (2) Maltase lactose (3) Rennin casein (4) Amylase protein
Sol. Answer (3)

Renin
Casein ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Paracasein
( substrate ) ( enzyme )

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40. The following are absent in case of upper one third part of oesophagus, except
(1) Visceral peritoneum (Serosa) (2) Digestive gland
(3) Myenteric plexus (4) Skeletal muscles
Sol. Answer (4)
Because upper 1/3rd part of oesophagus is voluntary and lower 2/3rd part of oesophagus is involuntary.
Skeletal muscle are also known as voluntary muscle so they are present in the voluntary part of oesophagus
(i.e., 1/3rd part)

41. Mark the correct statement

(1) In lower one third part of oesophagus both Myenteric and Meissner’s plexus are absent
(2) Carboxypeptidase is exopeptidase acting on ‘N’ terminal end of peptide chain
(3) Galactosemia is metabolic genetic disorder due to deficiency of the enzyme uridyl transferase
(4) Nucleotidase and nucleosidase enzymes are present in pancreatic juice
Sol. Answer (3)
Statement-1 is wrong, because in upper one-third part of oesophagus both myenteric and meissner's plexus
are absent.
Statement-2 is wrong, because carboxypeptidase is an exopeptidase acting on 'C' terminal end of peptide
chain.
Statement-4 is wrong, because nucleotidase and nucleosidase enzymes are present in intestinal juice.

42. Sphincter of Oddi guards

(1) Hepato-pancreatic duct (2) Common bile duct (3) Pancreatic duct (4) Cystic duct
Sol. Answer (1)
The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common
hepatopancreatic duct which is guarded by sphincter of Oddi.
Cystic duct → Duct of gall bladder (neck of gall bladder)

43. Which of the following is correct pairing of site of action and substrate of rennin?
(1) Mouth-starch (2) Small intestine-protein
(3) Stomach-casein (4) Stomach-fat
Sol. Answer (3)
In infants, renin acts on casein (milk protein) and converts casein to paracasein in stomach
So, site of action is stomach and substrate is casein.

44. If liver is removed, the compound which is not absorbed by mucosa of intestine.
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates (3) Fats (4) Lactose
Sol. Answer (3)
If liver is removed, fats will not be absorbed by mucosa of intestine because liver produces bile juice for the
emulsification of fats.

45. What is common among amylase, rennin and trypsin?

(1) These are produced in stomach (2) These act at a pH lower than 7
(3) These all are proteins (4) These all are proteolytic enzymes
Sol. Answer (3)
Amylase, rennin and trypsin, they all are digestive enzymes and enzymes are usually protein in nature
They all are not proteolytic enzymes because amylase acts on carbohydrate.

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46. Hydrolytic enzymes which act in low pH are called

(1) Lipases (2) α-Amylase (3) Hydrolases (4) Peroxidase
Sol. Answer (3)
All digestive enzymes are hydrolytic enzymes but hydrolases is the only enzyme among four given options
which acts in low pH.
Lipases → Act in alkaline pH
α-Amylases → Act in weak acidic and alkaline medium
Peroxidase → Enzymes present in peroxisome and act on neutral pH.

47. Which of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiesterase bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
(1) Lipase (2) Protease
(3) Endonuclease (4) Exonuclease
Sol. Answer (3)
Endonuclease is an enzyme which hydrolyses internal phosphodiesterase bonds in a polynucleotide chain.

48. Brunner’s glands are present in

(1) Stomach (2) Oesophagus
(3) Ileum (4) Duodenum
Sol. Answer (4)
Brunner's glands are located in the submucosa of duodenum

49. The enzyme enterokinase helps in the conversion of

(1) Paracasein into casein (2) Trypsinogen into trypsin
(3) Pepsinogen into pepsin (4) Proteins into polypeptides
Sol. Answer (2)
Enterokinase
Trypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Trypsin
Renin
Casein ⎯⎯⎯→ Paracasein
HCl
Pepsinogen ⎯⎯→ Pepsin
Proteolytic
Protein ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯enzyme
→ Polypeptide
{trypsin, pepsin etc}

50. Activation of pro-carboxypeptidase into carboxypeptidase is brought about by

(1) Enterokinase (2) Endopeptidase (3) Exopeptidase (4) Trypsin
Sol. Answer (4)
Enterokinase
Trypsinogen ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Trypsin
Trypsin
Procarboxypeptidase ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Carboxypeptidase

51. Which of the following is the function of enterogastrone?

(1) It inhibits the secretion of gastric juice
(2) It stimulates the secretion of digestive juice in the stomach
(3) It stimulates the flow of pancreatic juice
(4) It regulates the flow of bile

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Sol. Answer (1)
It inhibits the secretion of gastric juice. Because enterogastrone is a gastric inhibitory protein, which acts on
stomach and inhibits the gastric juice secretion.
52. The contraction of gall bladder is caused by
(1) Cholecystokinin (2) Enterogastrone
(3) Gastrin (4) Secretin
Sol. Answer (1)
Cholecystokinin is a hormone, which acts on gall bladder and stimulates the contraction of gall bladder to
release bile juice.
53. The hormone that stimulates the stomach to secrete gastric juice is
(1) Enterokinase (2) Enterogastrone (3) Gastrin (4) Rennin
Sol. Answer (3)
This hormone is secreted in stomach and stimulates the gastric gland to secrete and release the gastric juice.
54. Cholecystokinin and duocrinin are secreted by
(1) Adrenal cortex (2) Thyroid gland (3) Intestine (4) Pancreas
Sol. Answer (3)
Hormone Source
Cholecystokinin Small intestine
Pancreozymin Small intestine
Duocrinin Duodenum (part of small intestine)
55. Which part of body secretes the hormone secretin?
(1) Stomach (2) Oesophagus (3) Ileum (4) Duodenum
Sol. Answer (4)
Duodenum secretes secretin which decreases the secretion of gastric juice.
56. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by duodenum to inhibit the gastric motility?
(1) GIP (2) Enterogastrone (3) Secretin (4) Enterokinase
Sol. Answer (4)
Enterokinase is not a hormone, it is an enzyme.
57. Which of the following carries glucose from digestive tract to liver?
(1) Pulmonary vein (2) Hepatic artery (3) Hepatic portal vein (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Hepatic portal vein carries glucose from digestive tract to liver via a hepatic portal circulation.
58. In case of vertebrates lacteals are found in
(1) Oesophagus (2) Ear (3) Small intestine (4) Ischium
Sol. Answer (3)
Lacteals are found in villi of small intestine.

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59. The movement of ions against the concentration gradient will be

(1) Active transport (2) Osmosis (3) Diffusion (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Active transport requires energy (ATP) for the movement of ions against the concentration gradient.

60. Vomiting centre is located in the

(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Stomach and sometimes in duodenum
(3) GI tract (4) Hypothalamus
Sol. Answer (1)
Vomiting centre is located in medulla oblongata.

61. Which one of the following vitamins can be synthesized by bacteria inside the gut?
(1) D (2) A
(3) B1 (4) C
Sol. Answer (3)
Vitamin K and Vitamin B complex are synthesized by bacteria of large intestine (colon).

62. Which one of the following is a protein deficiency disease?

(1) Kwashiorkor (2) Night blindness
(3) Eczema (4) Cirrhosis
Sol. Answer (1)
Kwashiokor → Occurs due to deficiency of protein.
Night blindness → Due to deficiency of vitamin A.
Eczema → Scaliness of skin due to allergy or due to deficiency of Vit. B7.
Cirrhosis → It occurs due to deposition of fibre in liver in alcoholic person.

63. Stool of a person is whitish grey coloured due to malfunction of which of the following organ?
(1) Pancreas (2) Spleen
(3) Kidney (4) Liver
Sol. Answer (4)
The yellow colour of stool is due to stercobilin, which is a breakdown product of bile pigment (bilirubin)
And as liver is responsible for the production of bile juice. If there is malfunctioning of liver, then bile will not
produce and stool of person become whitish grey.

64. Constipation can be prevented or removed by

(1) Taking more roughage (2) Taking purgatives rich in magnesium salt
(3) Taking distilled water (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Constipation can be prevented by taking more roughage because it is a fibre and retains more water with it
and increase the fluidity.
And constipation is also removed by taking purgatives rich in magnesium salt because it stimulates intestinal
peristalsis and evacuation of fluid faeces.

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65. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?
(1) First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins (2) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
(3) First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids (4) First proteins, next lipids and lastly carbohydrates
Sol. Answer (1)
Because carbohydrate is readily combustible nutrient for providing energy and then fats will provide us energy
and at last protein will provide energy because protein is actually a body building biomolecule.

66. A moderately active person requires energy per day

(1) 2000 kcal (2) 1000 kcal
(3) 750 kcal (4) 2800 kcal
Sol. Answer (4)
The minimum energy required for routine metabolic rate is 2200 kcal (in female) and 2800 kcal (in male)

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : Gastrectomy causes iron deficiency anaemia.

R : Hydrochloric acid secreted by oxyntic cells converts ferric into ferrous and iron is absorbed as ferrous ions.
Sol. Answer (1)
Gastrectomy is surgical removal of stomach.

2. A : Cholagogues are substances that cause contraction of gall bladder.

R : These substances cause release of CCK-PZ from duodenum.
Sol. Answer (1)
Cholagogues increases the secretion of bile juice.

3. A : Aptyalism patients have higher than normal incidences of dental caries.

R : Aptyalism is caused by the action of parasympathetic nervous system.
Sol. Answer (3)
Aptyalism is a condition in which no saliva is produce, so there will be no lysozyme which has anti-microbial
activity and prevent the person from dental caries.

4. A : In humans, duct of wirsung from pancreas combines with bile duct before opening into duodenum.
R : Blockage in duct of Wirsung will prevent the endocrine function of pancreas.
Sol. Answer (3)
Blockage of duct of Wirsung will prevent exocrine function of pancreas.

5. A : In acute constipation, purgatives containing magnesium salts are generally used.

R : The osmotic effect of Mg2+ in the intestinal lumen prevents water reabsorption from intestine. Mg2+ increases
the solute concentration in the intestinal lumen because Mg2+ is absorbed very slowly.
Sol. Answer (1)
Purgatives are used for the treatment of acute constipation.

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72 Digestion and Absorption Solutions of Assignment

6. A : Liver assist in digestion of fat.

R : Hepatic secretion contains bile salts which emulsify fat
Sol. Answer (1)
Liver secretes bile juice.

7. A : Vomiting is the forcible expulsion of the contents of the upper gastrointestinal tract through the mouth.
R : The strongest stimuli for vomiting are irritation and distension of the stomach.
Sol. Answer (2)
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

8. A : Gastric emptying is slowest after a fat-laden meal containing large number of triglycerides.
R : Fatty acids in chyme stimulate release of both CCK and GIP, which slow stomach emptying.
Sol. Answer (1)
GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) and CCK (Cholecystokinin).

9. A : Trypsin is secreted in pancreatic juice as trypsinogen.

R : Zymogenic forms protect pancreas from autodigestion.
Sol. Answer (1)
Trypsinogen is inactive form of trypsin.

10. A : Trypsin is an example of endopeptidase and is present in the pancreatic juice.

R : Trypsin acts on the interior peptide of a protein molecule.
Sol. Answer (1)
Pepsin, trypsin and chymotrypsin and endopeptidase enzymes.

  

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Chapter 4

Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Respiratory Organs)
1. The process of oxidation of glucose during which CO2, H2O and energy are produced is known as
(1) Breathing (2) Inspiration (3) Respiration (4) Expiration
Sol. Answer (3)
Breathing = Inspiration (Inhalation of air) + Expiration (Exhalation of air)
Respiration is the process of oxidation of food in which CO2, H2O and energy is/are produced.

2. The respiratory organs vary in different animals due to their

(1) Nutrition (2) Habitat and level of organisation
(3) Excretion (4) Reproduction
Sol. Answer (2)
Because of different habitat (place where an animal live) and level of organisation, the breathing mechanism
varies, hence the respiratory organ also get vary in different animals.

3. Which of the following are the respiratory organs of insects?

(1) Trachea (2) Gills (3) Cuticle (4) Lungs
Sol. Answer (1)
Insect(e.g. Cockroach) → Tracheal system
Gills → Aquatic animal (fish, amphibian)
Cuticle → Earthworm
Lungs → Birds, reptiles, mammals

4. Which animal among the following respires via buccal cavity, moist skin and lungs?
(1) Hydra (2) Frog (3) Sycon (4) Earthworm
Sol. Answer (2)
Frogs can respire by their moist skin, buccal cavity and lungs as they live on land and its larval form i.e.
tadpole which lives in water respire through gills.
Hydra, Sycon : No well-developed respiratory system, exchange of gases by simple diffusion.
Earthworm : Moist cuticle.

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5. Respiratory organs in aquatic arthropods like cray fish, prawn and molluscs like Unio are
(1) Body wall (2) Lungs (3) Trachea (4) Gills
Sol. Answer (4)
Aquatic arthropods (Crustacean) respire through gills.

6. Which of the following has most well-developed respiratory system?

(1) Mammals (2) Invertebrates (3) Amphibians (4) Hemichordates
Sol. Answer (1)
The respiratory system is well developed in the vertebrates as they have more complex body.
In between amphibians and mammals, the mammals have more well-developed respiratory organ i.e., lungs.

7. Which structure in human respiratory system is involved in conditioning of air?

(1) Internal nares (2) Nasal chamber (3) Larynx (4) Trachea
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Mucus from goblet cells and glands make the surface sticky for trapping dust particles present in inspired
air.
(2) Moisture from the epithilium also makes the air humid.
(3) It brings the temperature of the incoming air, upto the body temperature.

8. A thin-elastic cartilaginous flap which prevents the entry of food into the larynx is known as
(1) Glottis (2) Wind pipe (3) Epiglottis (4) Bronchiole
Sol. Answer (3)
Epiglottis covers the glottis during swallowing of food.

9. At which level of thoracic vertebra, trachea divides

(1) 2nd thoracic vertebra (2) 5th thoracic vertebra (3) 3rd thoracic vertebra (4) 4th thoracic vertebra
Sol. Answer (2)
The trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra.

10. Trachea divides into right and left

(1) Secondary bronchi (2) Tertiary bronchi (3) Bronchioles (4) Primary bronchi
Sol. Answer (4)
The trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra.

11. Which membrane covers the lungs and provide protection?

(1) Pericardium (2) Renal capsule (3) Pleura (4) Epineurium
Sol. Answer (3)
Pericardium : Covers heart
Renal capsule : Covers kidney
Pleura : Lungs
Epineurium : Covers nerve trunk

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Solutions of Assignment Breathing and Exchange of Gases 75
12. Where are lungs situated in human body?
(1) Abdominal cavity (2) Thoracic cavity (3) Coelomic cavity (4) Pleural cavity
Sol. Answer (2)
A pair of lungs are present in humans, lie in an air-tight chamber known as thoracic cavity or chest cavity.

(Mechanism of Breathing)
13. Which of the following volume is not included in vital capacity
(1) ERV (2) TV (3) IRV (4) RV
Sol. Answer (4)
Because VC = ERV + TV + IRV
or VC = ERV + IC
Here, RV = Residual volume IRV = Inspiratory reserve volume
VC = Vital capacity IC = Inspiratory capacity
ERV = Expiratory reserve volume TV = Tidal volume

14. What is the last step involved in respiration?

(1) Diffusion of gases
(2) Breathing
(3) Utilisation of O2 by body cells and resultant release of CO2
(4) Transport of gases
Sol. Answer (3)
Steps involve in respiration :
(1) Breathing (2) Diffusion of gases between alveoli and blood
(3) Transport of gases (4) Diffusion of gases between blood and tissue
(5) Utilisation of O2 by body cell

15. Inspiration occurs when intra-pulmonary pressure is

(1) Higher than atmospheric pressure (2) Lower than atmospheric pressure
(3) Equal to atmospheric pressure (4) Zero compared to atmospheric pressure
Sol. Answer (2)
Air can flow to lungs, when the pressure within the lungs is less than the atomospheric pressure.

16. Which muscles help us to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration?
(1) Cardiac muscles (2) Abdominal muscles
(3) Internal intercostal muscles (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Cardiac muscle i.e., muscle of heart, it do not have any role in inspiration and expiration.
Rest two muscles i.e., abdominal and internal intercostal muscle undergo contraction and increase the strength
of expiration.

17. The breathing rate of a normal healthy man is

(1) 8–18 times/min (2) 6–12 times/min (3) 16–24 times/min (4) 12–16 times/min
Sol. Answer (4)
Breathing rate of a normal healthy man is about 12–16 times/min.

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18. What is the value of tidal volume in a normal healthy man?

(1) Approximately 6000–8000 ml/min (2) 1000–1100 ml/min
(3) 2500–3000 ml/min (4) Approximately 8000–12000 ml/min
Sol. Answer (1)
Minute volume = TV × Breathing rate
500 ml × 12–16 /min ⇒ ∼ 6000 – 8000 ml
Minute volume is also known as pulmonary ventilation.

19. The volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forceful expiration is
(1) Tidal volume (2) Residual volume
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume (4) Expiratory reserve volume
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Tidal volume (500 ml) : It is the volume of air a person can inspired or expired during normal breathing.
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume (2500 – 3000 ml) : The additional or extra volume of air, a person can expire
by forceful expiration.
(4) Expiratory reserve volume (1000 – 1100 ml) : The additional or extra volume of air, a person can expire
by forceful expiration.

(Exchange of Gases, Transport of Gases)

20. What is the main site of human respiratory system where exchange of gases occurs?
(1) Alveoli (2) Bronchiole
(3) Primary and secondary bronchi (4) Trachea
Sol. Answer (1)
The membrane of alveoli is very thin, irregular and richly supplied with blood vessels. Due to very close contact
of blood vessels with alveoli, the exchange of gases takes place easily.

21. Partial pressure for oxygen and CO2 is represented as

(1) pO and pCO (2) pO and pCO (3) pO2 and pCO2 (4) O2p and CO2p
2

Sol. Answer (3)

Gaseous exchange depends on partial pressure of gases.

22. What will be the pO2 and pCO2 in atmospheric air as compared to alveoli?
(1) High pO2 and low pCO2 (2) High pCO2 and low pO2
(3) Both are equal (pCO2 = pO2) (4) Low pO2 and low pCO2
Sol. Answer (1)
In atmospheric air : pO2 = 159 mmHg
pCO2 = 0.3 mmHg
In alveoli : pO2 = 104 mmHg
pCO2 = 40 mmHg

23. What is the value of pCO2 in atmospheric air, alveoli and tissues respectively?
(1) 0.3 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg and 95 mm Hg (2) 95 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg and 159 mm Hg
(3) 45 mm Hg, 0.3 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg (4) 0.3 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg and 45 mm Hg

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Sol. Answer (4)

Respiratory gas Atmospheric air Alveoli Blood Blood Tissue

(oxygenated) (Deoxygenated)
O2 159 104 40 95 40

CO2 0.3 40 45 40 45

24. O2 binds with haemoglobin of RBC to form

(1) Carboxyhaemoglobin (2) Oxyhaemoglobin
(3) Carbaminohaemoglobin (4) Aminohaemoglobin
Sol. Answer (2)

In lungs
Hb + O2 
 
 HbO2
In tissue
(Haemoglobin) (Oxygen) (Oxyhaemoglobin)

Hb + CO2 

 HbCO2

(Carbon dioxide) (Carbamino-haemoglobin)

Hb + CO 

 HbCO

(Carbon monoxide) (Carboxy haemoglobin)

25. With which part of Hb, O2 molecules bind?

(1) Haem (2) Globin
(3) Both haem and globin (4) Amino group of globin
Sol. Answer (1)
Because haem group contains Fe2+, which has affinity for oxygen.

(1)
26. 
Hb + O2   HbO2
(2)

Select (1) and (2) from the given options

(1) (1) is tissues and (2) is lungs (2) (1) is lungs and (2) is blood
(3) (1) is blood and (2) is lungs (4) (1) is lungs and (2) is tissues
Sol. Answer (4)

Lungs

Hb + O2  
 HbO2
Tissue

27. A graph is plotted between pO2 and percentage saturation of Hb with O2 is known as
(1) O2 association curve (2) CO2-O2 dissociation curve
(3) O2 dissociation curve (4) CO2-O2 association curve
Sol. Answer (3)
A graphical representation of relationship between pO2 and percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2
is known as oxygen dissociation curve or oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve. It is sigmoid or S-shaped
curve.
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28. Which factors affect the dissociation of O2 from Hb?

(1) pH, pO2, pCO2 and temperature (2) Only pH
(3) Salinity, temperature and pCO2 (4) HCO3– ions concentration, pH and salinity
Sol. Answer (1)
Factors responsible for the dissociation of oxygen from Hb which occurs in the body tissues :
(a) Low partial pressure of oxygen (c) High partial pressure of carbon dioxide
(c) Low pH (d) High temperature

29. High percentage of CO2 is transported in dissolved form as compared to O2. This is because
(1) O2 has high solubility in plasma (2) CO2 has high solubility in plasma
(3) pCO2 is high in blood than pO2 (4) CO2 has low solubility in plasma
Sol. Answer (2)
Ratio of CO2 and O2 solubility in plasma is 25 : 1 (CO2 : O2).

30. Which factor in tissues favours the formation of HCO3– and H+ ions in the blood?
(1) Low pCO2 (2) High pO2 (3) High pCO2 (4) High alkalinity
Sol. Answer (3)

H+ HCO3−
Carbonic anhydrase Carbonic anhydrase

CO2 + H2 O  H2CO3 
 
 +
2+
Zn (Carbonic acid) (Hydrogen ion) (Bicarbonate ion)

31. How much CO2 is delivered to the alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood?
(1) 6 ml (2) 4 ml (3) 5 ml (4) 3 ml
Sol. Answer (2)
About 4 ml CO2 is delivered to the alveoli by every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood.

32. Which enzyme is present in RBCs and plasma to catalyse the given reaction?


 
 −
CO2 + H2O 
 H2CO3 
 H + HCO3
+

Carbonic acid

(1) Carbonic anhydrase (2) Catalase (3) Aldolase (4) Carboxylase

Sol. Answer (1)
Because carbonic anhydrase is present in very high concentration in RBC and in small quantity in plasma.

(Regulation of Respiration, Disorders of Respiratory System)

33. A specialised centre known as respiratory rhythm centre regulates respiration. It is located in
(1) Pons (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Cerebrum (4) Cerebellum
Sol. Answer (2)
Respiratory rhythm centre are present in medulla which regulates the normal rhythm of respiration.

34. Which substances when present in high level can activate the chemosensitive area present adjacent to rhythm
centre?
(1) CO2 and O2 (2) HCO3– ions and O2 (3) CO2 and H+ ions (4) H+ and HCO3– ions
Sol. Answer (3)
Chemosensitive area i.e. sensitive for chemicals and is located adjacent to the rhythm centre which contains
chemoreceptors which are sensitive for CO2 and H+ ions. The respiratory centre is stimulated by concentration
or partial pressure of CO2 and H+ ions in blood and body fluids.

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35. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disease?
(1) Diphtheria (2) Pneumonia (3) Tuberculosis (4) Asbestosis
Sol. Answer (4)
Occupational respiratory disorders occur due to the continuous exposure to harmful substances, gases, fumes
and dust in the environment, where a person works.
Asbestosis caused due to continuonus exposure to asbestos dust at place of work.
Pneumonia : Caused due to the bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and haemophilus influenzae.
Tuberculosis : Caused due to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Diphtheria : Caused due to Cornynebacterium diphtheriae.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions

(Respiratory Organs)
1. Which group of animals respire through lungs?
(1) Earthworm and insects (2) Sponges, coelenterates and flatworms
(3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods (4) Reptiles, birds and mammals
Sol. Answer (4)
(i) Earthworm → Respires through moist cuticle
(ii) Insects (Cockroach) → Tracheal system
(iii) Sponges No well-developed respiratory organ
(iv) Coelenterates is present. Exchange of gases occurs
(v) Flatworms by simple diffusion.
(vi) Fish
Gills
(vii) Aquatic arthropod
(viii) Reptiles
(ix) Birds Lungs
(x) Mammals
2. Skin of man cannot act as respiratory organ because
(1) It is dry (2) It is not thin
(3) It is not permeable to O2 and CO2 (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Because human skin is dry (does not allow exchange of gases), it is not thin (gases can pass through thin
membrane) and it is impermeable to O2 and CO2).

3. What is the function of respiratory part of human respiratory system?

(1) It clears the incoming air from foreign particles
(2) It brings the temperature of air upto the body temperature
(3) It transports the atmospheric air
(4) It exchanges O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air
Sol. Answer (4)
Respiratory part of human respiratory system includes alveoli and their ducts.
It is the main site of human respiratory system where diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) occurs.

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80 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Solutions of Assignment

4. Ventrally and laterally, the thoracic chamber is formed by

(1) Diaphragm and sternum respectively (2) Ribs and sternum respectively

(3) Sternum and ribs respectively (4) Vertebral column and diaphragm respectively

Sol. Answer (3)

Thoracic cavity is formed :

Dorsally – By the vertebral column

Ventrally – By the sterum

Laterally – By the ribs

5. Adam's apple is another name for

(1) Sound box in birds (2) Sound box in man
(3) Epiglottis (4) Thyroid cartilage
Sol. Answer (4)
Its shape is like apple. It is hyaline cartilage and more prominent in male.
6. Ring like cartilage of larynx is known as
(1) Thyroid cartilage (2) Arytenoid cartilage (3) Cricoid cartilage (4) Cartilage of Santorini
Sol. Answer (3)
Cricoid cartilage has signet ring-like structure lie below the thyroid cartilage and it is made up of hyaline
cartilage.
7. Which of the following prevents collapsing of trachea?
(1) Muscles (2) Diaphragm (3) Ribs (4) Cartilaginous rings
Sol. Answer (4)
Trachea is lined by C-shaped cartilagenous ring, which prevents the collapsing of trachea.

8. Number of alveoli in the human lungs has been estimated to be approximately

(1) 100 million (2) 300 million (3) 125 million (4) 300 billion

Sol. Answer (2)

Factual data.

9. In human, oblique fissure is present in

(1) Right lung (2) Left lung (3) Both of these (4) None of these

Sol. Answer (3)

Both right and left lungs have oblique fissure whereas only right lung also has a horizontal fissure.

(Mechanism of Breathing)
10. A pair of external nostrils present in humans opens out
(1) Below the upper lips (2) Above the upper lips
(3) Between upper and lower lips (4) Above the larynx
Sol. Answer (2)

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Solutions of Assignment Breathing and Exchange of Gases 81
11. During inspiration, the volume of thoracic cavity increases because of
(1) Contraction of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(2) Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(3) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of external intercostal muscles
(4) Relaxation of diaphragm and contraction of external intercostal muscles
Sol. Answer (1)
During inspiration, the contraction of diaphragm muscle causes it to become flat and lowered down, thereby
increasing the volume of thoracic cavity in antero-posterior axis.
The contraction of external intercostal muscle, lift ribs and sternum up and outward causing an increase in
volume of thoracic cavity in the dorso-ventral axis i.e., backward-forward direction.

12. Volume of thoracic chamber increases in antero-posterior and dorso-ventral axis in rabbit by
(1) Contraction of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles respectively
(2) Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles respectively
(3) Relaxation of diaphragm and abdominal muscles respectively
(4) Contraction of abdominal muscles and relaxation of external intercostal muscles respectively
Sol. Answer (1)
During inspiration, the contraction of diaphragm muscle causes it to become flat and lowered down, thereby
increasing the volume of thoracic cavity in antero-posterior axis.
The contraction of external intercostal muscle, lift ribs and sternum up and outward causing an increases in
volume of thoracic cavity in the dorso-ventral axis i.e., backward-forward direction.

13. Which instrument helps in clinical assessment of pulmonary functions?

(1) Sphygmomanometer (2) Stethoscope (3) Spirometer (4) Electrocardiograph
Sol. Answer (3)
Sphygomomanometer → Use to measure the blood pressure.
Stethoscope → To check the normal rhythm of heart (i.e., to listen normal and abnormal heart sound)
Spirometer → To assess pulmonary function
Electrocardiograph → Instrument use for taking ECG(electrocardiagram)

14. Expiration occurs due to

(1) Relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscle
(2) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles and diaphragm
(3) Relaxation of abdominal and internal intercostal muscles
(4) Contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of abdominal muscles
Sol. Answer (1)
Expiration : It is the moving of air out of lungs if the pressure within the lungs is more than the atmospheric
pressure.
Relaxation of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscle returns the diaphragm and sternum to their
normal thoracic volume and thereby pulmonary volume.

15. What happens to the volume of pulmonary cavity when there is an increase in the volume of thoracic chamber?
(1) It decreases (2) It increases
(3) It remains same (4) First decreases and then increases

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Sol. Answer (2)

Increase in the volume of thoracic cavity
Leads to

Similar increase in the volume of pulmonary cavity

Causes

Decrease in pressure within the pulmonary cavity

Causes

Air enters from atmosphere to the lungs as it moves from higher pressure to lower pressure

16. Diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscular structure which separates

(1) Coelomic cavity from pelvic cavity (2) Pleural cavity from thoracic cavity
(3) Thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity (4) Pelvic cavity from abdominal cavity
Sol. Answer (3)
Thoracic is closed below by the diaphragm which is a dome-shaped structure made up of muscles and
separates thoracic cavity from abdominal cavity (containing most of the digestive organs).

17. What happens when pressure within the pulmonary cavity is higher than the atmospheric pressure?
(1) Inhalation of air (2) Expulsion of air
(3) No inhalation and expulsion of air occurs (4) Lungs inflate and rupture
Sol. Answer (2)
High pressure in pulmonary cavity compared to atmosphere results in explusion of air. Air moves high pressure
to low pressure.

18. An additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a forceful inspiration is known as
(1) Inspiratory capacity (2) Expiratory capacity
(3) Expiratory reserve volume (4) Inspiratory reserve volume
Sol. Answer (4)
IRV is the additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forceful inspiration.
IRV = 2500 – 300 ml
IC = IRV + TV
3000 – 3500 ml

19. Volume of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration is

(1) ERV + RV (2) IRV + RV (3) RV + IRV + ERV (4) TV
Sol. Answer (1)
Volume of air remains in the lungs after normal expiration is known as functional residual capacity (FRC).
FRC = ERV + RV = 2500 ml
20. If a person exhales out forcefully by applying all his efforts. What will the pulmonary volume inhaled by him
immediately under normal condition without applying any extra effort?
(1) TV + IRV (2) TV only (3) TV + ERV (4) TV + IRV + ERV
Sol. Answer (3)
After a normal inspiration, the total volume of air a person can expire is known as expiratory capacity
(EC) = TV + ERV
Exhaled forcefully ⇒ TV goes out, ERV goes out
Normal inspiration ⇒ ERV + TV has to be filled

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Solutions of Assignment Breathing and Exchange of Gases 83
(Exchange of Gases, Transport of Gases)
21. Solubility of CO2 is ______ times higher than that of O2
(1) 40 - 45 (2) 20 - 25 (3) 100 - 200 (4) 200 - 300
Sol. Answer (2)
CO2 : O2 (Solubility of CO2 : O2)
25 : 1
22. What are the characteristics of alveoli?
(1) Very thin, irregular walled and highly vascularised (2) Thick and smooth membrane
(3) Network of blood capillaries and thick-walled (4) Thick, regular walled and lack of blood vessels
Sol. Answer (1)
Alveoli membrane is very thin, irregular, richly supplied with blood vessels because of which exchange of gases
easily occurs here.

23. What is the value of pO2 in alveoli and tissues respectively?

(1) 104 mm Hg and 150 mm Hg

(2) 45 mm Hg and 0.3 mm Hg

(3) 104 mm Hg and 40 mm Hg

(4) 95 mm Hg and 159 mm Hg

Sol. Answer (3)

Respiratory gas Atmospheric air Alveoli Blood Blood Tissue

(oxygenated) (Deoxygenated)
O2 159 104 40 95 40

CO2 0.3 40 45 40 45

24. Which are the three main layers that form the diffusion membrane?

(1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, basement membrane of bronchioles and basement substance

(2) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, endothelium of alveolar capillaries and the basement substance

(3) Basement substance, cuboidal epithelium of alveoli and stratified epithelium of bronchiole

(4) Ciliated epithelium of trachea, endothelium of capillaries and basement substance

Sol. Answer (2)

Diffusion of O2 and CO2 depends on the thickness of diffusion membrane.

25. Which of the following is not a character of respiratory surface?

(1) Thin, permeable to gases (2) Extensive

(3) Least vascular (4) Moist

Sol. Answer (3)

Respiratory surface should be highly vascular for the easy transport of gases or exchange of gases with the
blood.

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26. What is the percentage of O2 transported in dissolved form through the plasma?
(1) About 7% (2) About 3% (3) About 20–25% (4) About 15%
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxygen transport by plasma = 3%
Oxygen transport by oxyhaemoglobin = 97%

27. How many O2 molecules can bind with single molecule of Hb?
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 4.5
Sol. Answer (3)
Haemoglobin consists of four polypeptide chain (2α and 2β) having heme as prosthetic group. Heme is iron
(Fe2+) containing prophyrin ring. One haemoglobin binds four oxygen molecules, one per heme and form
oxyhemoglobin.


Hb + 4O2 
 Hb(O2)4

28. To which part of Hb, CO2 binds?

(1) Haem (2) Amino group of globin
(3) Iron of haem group (4) Carboxy group of globin
Sol. Answer (2)

Haemoglobin = Heme + Globin

2+
Contain Fe with porphyrin ring Include four polypeptide chain (α2β2)

CO2 bind to amino group of globin and form carbaminohaemoglobin.

Hb 

+ CO2 
 HbCO2
(Haemoglobin) (Carbamino haemoglobin)
(Amino group)

29. Which of the following condition is not responsible for shifting the curve towards left?
(1) High pO2 (2) Low pCO2
(3) Low temperature (4) High H+ ion concentration
Sol. Answer (4)
Following are the conditions responsible for shifting the curve towards left :
(a) High pO2
(b) Low pCO2
(c) Less H+ concentration and high pH
(d) Low temperature
All above four conditions are favourable for the association of oxygen with hemoglobin, at alveoli.

30. Which factors favour the binding of CO2 with Hb in tissues?

(1) High pCO2 and high pO2 (2) Low pCO2 and high pO2
(3) Low pCO2 and low pO2 (4) High pCO2 and low pO2

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Sol. Answer (4)
Condition favourable for the binding of CO2 with Hb or we can say dissociation of O2 from Hb are :
(a) Low pO2 (b) High pCO2
(c) More H+ concentration and low pH (d) High temperature
In these conditions, oxygen dissociation curve will shift to right.
31. In mature mammalian erythrocytes, the respiration is
(1) Aerobic (2) Anaerobic
(3) Sometimes aerobic and sometimes anaerobic (4) Absent
Sol. Answer (2)
Mature RBCs do not have cell organelle (like mitochondria) and nucleus, so in mature RBC anaerobic
respiration occurs.

32. The amount of oxygen transported by one litre of blood under strenous condition is approximately
(1) 5 ml (2) 50 ml (3) 15 ml (4) 150 ml
Sol. Answer (4)
100 ml of blood contains about ∼20 ml of O2

In normal physiological condition In strenous/exercise condition

5 ml goes to tissue + 15 ml goes to tissue +
15 ml → returned via venous blood 5 ml → returned via venous blood
So, 100 ml of blood transport → 15 ml of O2 (strenous condition)
1000 ml of blood transport → 150 ml of O2

(Regulation of Respiration, Disorders of Respiratory System)

33. Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre by
(1) Reducing the duration of inspiration
(2) Increasing the duration of inspiration only
(3) First increasing and then reducing the duration of expiration
(4) Increasing the duration of expiration only
Sol. Answer (1)
Pneuomotaxic centre is present in the pons region of hind brain.
It is also known as "switch off point of inspiration" i.e. it reduces the duration of inspiration and alter the
respiratory rate and depth of breathing.

34. A chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to excessive cigarette smoking is
(1) Asthma (2) Emphysema (3) Silicosis (4) Bronchitis
Sol. Answer (2)

Due to excessive cigarette smoking

Emphysema
Walls of alveoli get damaged and loss of elasticity of walls of bronchioles and alveoli

Due to which, surface area for exchange of gases is reduced

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Asthma : Caused because of allergen and effects the respiratory tract.

Bronchitis : Inflammation of bronchi.
Silicosis : It is an occupational respiratory disorder caused due to continuous exposure of asbestos dust at
place of work.
35. Which of the following is not a symptom of asthma?
(1) Difficulty in breathing (2) Breathing noisily / wheezing
(3) Alveolar walls are damaged (4) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
Sol. Answer (3)
Wall of allevoli gets damaged due to excessive smoking is a symptom of chronic disorder, emphysema.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Equal to that in the blood (2) More than that in the blood
(3) Less than that in the blood (4) Less than that of carbon dioxide
Sol. Answer (2)
Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli of lungs is 104 mm of Hg that is more than that of blood in pulmonary
artery (40 mm of Hg).
2. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled
because [NEET(Phase-2) 2016]
(1) There is a negative pressure in the lungs
(2) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
(3) There is a positive intrapleural pressure
(4) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure
Sol. Answer (2)
Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lung which can never be expelled
because there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls.
3. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking [NEET-2016]
(1) Respiratory alkalosis (2) Emphysema (3) Asthma (4) Respiratory acidosis
Sol. Answer (2)
Emphysema is characterised by inflation of alveoli which is mainly due to chronic cigarette smoking.
4. Reduction in pH of blood will [NEET-2016]
(1) Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
(2) Reduce the rate of heart beat
(3) Reduce the blood supply to the brain
(4) Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Reduction in pH of blood favours the dissociation of oxyhemoglobin.
5. Asthma may be attributed to [NEET-2016]
(1) Accumulation of fluid in the lungs (2) Bacterial infection of the lungs
(3) Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs (4) Inflammation of the trachea
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Solutions of Assignment Breathing and Exchange of Gases 87
Sol. Answer (3)
Asthma is an allergic reaction characterised by spasm of bronchi muscles because of effect of histamine
released by mast cells.
6. When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood would first lead to the urge to breathe?
[AIPMT-2015]
(1) Rising CO2 and falling O2 concentration (2) Falling O2 concentration
(3) Rising CO2 concentration (4) Falling CO2 concentration
Sol. Answer (3)

7. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
[AIPMT-2014]
(1) As bicarbonate ions (2) In the form of dissolved gas molecules
(3) By binding to R.B.C (4) As carbamino - haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (1)
Nearly 20 – 25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs, whereas, 70 percent of it is carried as bicarbonates.
About 7 percent of CO2 is carried as dissolved state in plasma.

8. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C, and D. Select the
option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic. [NEET-2013]

Bronchus

Cut end of rib Heart B

C
Lung

(1) B-pleural membrane-surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing
(2) C-Alveoli-thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases
(3) D-lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration
(4) A-trachea-long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air
Sol. Answer (2)

9. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) About 90% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin
(2) Cigarette smoking may lead to inflammation of bronchi
(3) Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of inspiration
(4) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
Sol. Answer (4)
Option (1) is wrong, because ~70% of CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.
Option (2) is wrong, because cigarette smoking lead to damage of alveoli wall.
Option (3) is wrong, because pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain decrease the duration of inspiration.

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10. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinity to O2
(2) Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity of O2
(3) Are not physically fit to play games like football
(4) Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc
Sol. Answer (2)
High altitude (pO2 less) so more RBC production, which leads to polycythemia i.e., increased RBC count.

11. A large proportion of oxygen is left unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the body tissues.
This O2 [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues
(2) Acts as a reserve during muscular exercise
(3) Raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(4) Is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
Sol. Answer (2)
Because during exercise, contraction of muscle occurs and for that more energy is required and for energy
oxygen is required.

12. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place. In which
one of the options given below, the one part A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with its function.
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

C
A
B

Option:
(1) B: Red blood cell – transport of CO2 mainly.
(2) C: Arterial capillary – passes oxygen to tissues
(3) A: Alveolar cavity – main site of exchange of respiratory gases
(4) D: Capillary wall – exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here.
Sol. Answer (3)
Option (1) is wrong because RBCs are involved in transport of CO2 and O2 both
Option (2) is wrong because C is blood capillary.
Option (4) is wrong because D is basement membrane - substance

13. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
(2) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
(3) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(4) Free CO2 in blood plasma
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Sol. Answer (3)
CO2 transport via plasma 7%
Bicarbonate = 70% (Major)
Haemoglobin = 20–25%

14. Which one of the following is a possibility for most of us in regard to breathing, by making a conscious effort?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) One can consciously breathe in and breathe out by moving the diaphragm alone, without moving the ribs
at all
(2) The lungs can be made fully empty by forcefully breathing out all air from them
(3) One can breathe out air totally without oxygen
(4) One can breathe out air through eustachian tubes by closing both the nose and the mouth
Sol. Answer (1)
If we push voluntarily abdominal contents towards diaphragm, it will lead to expiration without involvement of
intercostal muscle.

15. Which two of the following changes (a–d) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high
altitudes (3,500 m or more)?
(a) Increase in red blood cell size
(b) Increase in red blood cell production
(c) Increased breathing rate
(d) Increase in thrombocyte count
Changes occurring are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
Sol. Answer (2)

16. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a - d) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human
adult: Respiratory capacities and volumes
(a) Residual volume 2500 mL
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume 1200 mL
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL
Which one of the following is the correct matching of two capacities and volumes? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010)]
(1) (a) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL
(2) (b) 2500 mL, (c) 4500 mL
(3) (c) 1200 mL, (d) 2500 mL
(4) (d) 3500 mL, (a) 1200 mL
Sol. Answer (4)
Residual volume – 1200 ml
Vital capacity – 4500 ml
Inspiratory reserve volume – 2500 ml
Inspiratory capacity – 3500 ml

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17. What is vital capacity of our lungs? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Total lungs capacity minus residual volume
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(3) Total lungs capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
Sol. Answer (1)
Vital capacity is the maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forceful expiration.
Vital capacity (VC) = Total lung capacity – Residual volume

18. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Low temperature (2) Hot and humid environment
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers (4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Answer (4)

19. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at
an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) People get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available
(2) Atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to
survive
(3) There is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
(4) People eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
Sol. Answer (2)

20. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) The residual air in lungs slightly decreases the efficiency of respiration in mammals
(2) The presence of non-respiratory air sacs, increases the efficiency of respiration in birds
(3) In insects, circulating body fluids serve to distribute oxygen to tissues
(4) The principle of countercurrent flow facilitates efficient respiration in gills of fishes
Sol. Answer (3)
In insects tracheal system serve to distribute oxygen to tissues. Openings of trachae are called spiracles
and present for entry and exist of gases.

21. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Dissolved in the blood (2) As bicarbonates
(3) As carbonates (4) Attached to haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (2)

22. In man and other mammals, air passes from outside into the lungs through
(1) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
(2) Nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli
(3) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli
(4) Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

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Sol. Answer (4)
External nostils
Respiratory passage :
Nasal chamber

Internal nares

Nasopharynx
Conducting part
Larynx

Trachea

Bronchi

Bronchioles

Alveolar duct
Respiratory/Exchange part
Alveoli

23. Lungs are enclosed in

(1) Peritoneum (2) Perichondrium
(3) Pericardium (4) Pleural membranes
Sol. Answer (4)
Lungs are enclosed in pleural membranes. i.e. external pleura and internal pleura and in between pleural fluid
is present.
Pericardium → Membrane covers the heart Perichondrium → Outer covering of cartilage
Peritoneum → Covering of visceral organ

24. When a person breathes air through a tube directly into the trachea (tracheotomy) it may lead to serious lung
crushing and infection due to
(1) Cooling effect (2) Drying effect
(3) Non filtering effect (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Because upper respiratory tract helps in filtering the air, bringing air to body temperature and making it moist.

25. Pitch of the voice is lower in males than females as the vocal cords of man are
(1) Thicker and longer (2) Thinner and longer
(3) Thicker and shorter (4) Thinner and shorter
Sol. Answer (1)
In males, vocal cord is thicker and longer than females and pitch is affected by this
Male → Low pitch and female → High pitch

26. Which of the following statement is not true for man?

(1) Forceful expiration is an active process
(2) Mammals have negative pressure breathing
(3) Internal intercostal and abdominal muscles are muscles of forceful inspiration
(4) Respiration excretes CO2, water etc.

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Sol. Answer (3)

Internal intercostal muscle Muscles of
Abdominal muscle forceful expiration

27. The ventilation movements of the lungs in mammals are governed by

(1) Muscular walls of lung (2) Diaphragm
(3) Costal muscles (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Inspiration and expiration both governed by diaphragm and costal muscles.

28. In lungs, the air is separated from the venous blood through
(1) Transitional epithelium of alveoli + squamous epithelium of blood vessel
(2) Squamous epithelium of alveoli + endothelium of blood vessel
(3) Squamous epithelium of alveoli + cubical epithelium of blood vessel
(4) Cubical epithelium of alveoli + columnar epithelium of blood vessel
Sol. Answer (2)
Alveolar-capillary membrane or respiratory membrane or diffusion membrane, made up of
(1) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
(2) Basement membrane
(3) Endothelial lining of alveolar capillary/blood vessel

29. Which of the following volume or capacity of lungs can’t be measured directly by the spirometer?
(1) Residual volume (2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Total capacity (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Spirometer can measure the volume of air goes inside and outside the lungs. It does not measure the residual
volume of air that remains inside the lungs. So, residual volume, functional residual capacity and total capacity
cannot be measured by spirometer.

30. Amount of air left in the lung after normal expiration is

(1) Residual volume (2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) Expiratory reserve volume (4) Functional residual capacity
Sol. Answer (4)
It is the volume of air left in the lung after normal expiration.
FRC = ERV + RV = 2500 ml
31. Minute Volume of Respiration (MVR) in a person can be defined as
(1) Tidal volume × Breathing rate
(2) (Tidal volume – Anatomic dead space) × Breathing rate
(3) Vital capacity ÷ Breathing rate
(4) Vital capacity ÷ Tidal volume

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Solutions of Assignment Breathing and Exchange of Gases 93
Sol. Answer (1)
Minute volume is the volume of air a person can inhale per minute.
Minute volume = Tidal volume × Breathing rate
500 ml × 12–16/min
= 6000 - 8000 ml/min
32. When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes
(1) Shallower and slow (2) There is no effect on breathing
(3) Slow and deep (4) Faster and deeper
Sol. Answer (4)
Like exercise, when [CO2] increases in blood and [O2] decreases in blood, then breathing become faster and
deeper.

33. The CO2 content by volume, in the atmospheric air is about

(1) 3.34% (2) 4% (3) 0.0314% (4) 0.34%
Sol. Answer (3)
Air composition :
Nitrogen = 78%
Oxygen = 21%
CO2 = 0.03%
Argon = <1%
Other gases = <1%

34. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not become acidic, because
(1) CO2 is continuously diffused through the tissues and is not allowed to accumulate
(2) In CO2 transport, blood buffers play an important role
(3) CO2 is absorbed by the leucocytes
(4) CO2 combines with water to form H2CO3 which is neutralized by NaCO3
Sol. Answer (2)
Because blood acts as a buffer, which resists the change in pH of blood, because of bicarbonate ions.

35. The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs

(1) In combination with haemoglobin only (2) Dissolved in blood plasma only
(3) In the form of carbonic acid only (4) As carbaminohaemoglobin and as bicarbonates
Sol. Answer (4)
CO2 transport via plasma = 7%; Bicarbonate = 70%; Haemoglobin = 20–25%

36. How does the transport of O2 and CO2 by blood occur?

(1) With the help of WBCs and blood serum (2) With the help of platelets and corpuscles
(3) With the help of RBCs and blood plasma (4) With the help of RBCs and WBCs
Sol. Answer (3)
Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and CO2.

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94 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Solutions of Assignment

37. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. The patient has
been inhaling polluted air containing unusually high content of
(1) Carbon disulphide (2) Chloroform
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon monoxide
Sol. Answer (4)

CO 2


+ Hb 
 HbCO 2
(Carbon dioxide) (Carbaminohaemoglobin)

CO 

+ Hb 
 HbCO
(Carbon monoxide) (Carboxyhaemoglobin)

38. What is true about RBCs in humans?

(1) They do not carry CO2 at all
(2) They carry both CO2 and O2
(3) They transport 99.5 percent of O2
(4) They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of it is transported in dissolved state
in blood plasma
Sol. Answer (2)
RBCs carry 20-25% of CO2 as carbaminohaemoglobin and 97% of O2 as oxyhaemoglobin.

39. How carbon monoxide, emitted by automobiles, prevents transport of oxygen to the body tissues?
(1) By forming a stable compound with haemoglobin
(2) By inhibiting exchange of O2 at alveoli
(3) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide
(4) By destroying the haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (1)
Because carbon monoxide has more affinity to bind with haeme group of haemoglobin, than oxygen
250 : 1
CO : O2

40. The respiratory centre, which regulates respiration, is located in

(1) Cerebellum (2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebral peduncle (4) The vagus nerve
Sol. Answer (2)
Respiratory centre is located in medulla oblongata.

41. Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Hering Breuer’s reflex prevents the over expansion of lungs
(2) Oxygen dissociation curve for foetal haemoglobin is on the left side with respect to maternal haemoglobin
(3) When pneumotaxic centre transmits strong signals then inspiration time becomes shorter
(4) Amount of air left in the lung after normal expiration is termed as residual volume only

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Solutions of Assignment Breathing and Exchange of Gases 95
Sol. Answer (4)
Amount of air left in the lung after forceful expiration is termed as residual volume.

42. Which of the following reflex is involved to prevent excessive inflation of the lungs?
(1) Stretch reflex (2) Hering-Breuer’s reflex
(3) Withdrawal reflex (4) Conditioned reflex
Sol. Answer (2)
Excessive inflation → Stretch receptors get activated → Cause expiration by sending signal through vagus
nerve to inhibit inspiratory area.

43. Chemoreceptors present in carotid and aortic arch are very much sensitive to
(1) Increase in pCO2 in arterial blood
(2) Increase in pO2 in arterial blood
(3) Decrease in pO2 in venous blood
(4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemoreceptors present in carotid and aortic are sensitive to CO2 and H+.

44. A person remaining at high altitudes for years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low pO2 by the
following except
(1) Increased pulmonary ventilation
(2) Increased in RBCs and haemoglobin concentration
(3) Polycythemia
(4) Increased cardiac output permanently
Sol. Answer (4)
At high altitude (less pO2) then more RBC production which leads to increase RBC count (polycythemia) in
blood, due which viscosity of blood increases, hence cardiac output decreases.

45. If the blood does not deliver adequate O2 to the tissues, it is called
(1) Anaemia (2) Anorexia
(3) Hypoxia (4) Hypopnea
Sol. Answer (3)
Anorexia – Loss of apetite
Hypoxia – Low oxygen condition in tissue
Hypopnea – Slow breathing
Anaemia – Low hemoglobin, immature RBC

46. Less oxygen due to high levels of carbon dioxide is called

(1) Carbon monoxide poisoning (2) Asphyxia
(3) Dyspnea (4) Apnoea

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96 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Dyspnea – Painful breathing
Apnoea – No breathing
Asphyxia – Combination of Hypoxia (low O2) + Hypercapnia (more CO2)

47. Which of the following is not pollution related disorder?

(1) Silicosis (2) Pneumoconiosis
(3) Fluorosis (4) Leprosy
Sol. Answer (4)
Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae.

48. Hiccups can be best described as

(1) Forceful sudden expiration
(2) Jerky incomplete inspiration
(3) Vibration of the soft palate during breathing
(4) Sign of indigestion
Sol. Answer (2)
Because hiccups occur due to spasm of phrenic muscle which leads to jerky inspiration.

49. Number of alveoli in the human lungs has been estimated to be approximately
(1) 100 million (2) 300 million3
(3) 125 million (4) 300 billion
Sol. Answer (2)

50. Which of the following can be termed as opposite of Bohr’s effect?

(1) Haldane’s effect
(2) Hamburger's phenomenon
(3) Hering - breuer reflex
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Haldane's effect and Bohr effect complement each other. In the tissue, addition of CO2 to the blood facilitates
unloading of O2 by Bohr effect. In turn, O2 unloading favours uptake of CO2 by Haldane'e effect.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Pneumotaxic centre controls rate of respiration.
R : Primarily it controls switch off point of inspiration.
Sol. Answer (1)
Pneumotaxic centre are switch off centre of inspiration.

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Solutions of Assignment Breathing and Exchange of Gases 97
2. A : Asthmatic patients use bronchiodilator drugs as well as inhalers for symptomatic relief.
R : Asthma is characterized by the spasm of smooth muscles in the wall of bronchioles due to allergen.
Sol. Answer (1)
Asthma is an allergic reaction.

3. A : Major part of carbondioxide is transported in the form of sodium bicarbonate.

R : 0.3 ml of carbon dioxide is transported per 100 ml of blood in dissolved state in plasma of blood.
Sol. Answer (2)
Only 7% of CO2 is transported in dissolved state in plasma of blood.

4. A : In cockroach, inspiration is a passive process.

R : Expansion of abdominal cavity allows the space of expansion of tracheal trunk, as a result air enters
through spiracle.
Sol. Answer (1)
In cockroach, inspiration is a passive process.

5. A : Diffusion of carbondioxide is 20 times faster than oxygen.

R : It is due to difference in partial pressure as well as solubility of diffusing gases.
Sol. Answer (1)
Solubility of CO2 is 20 times faster than O2.

6. A : The passage starting with the external nostrils upto the terminal bronchiole constitute the respiratory part.
R : The respiratory part transport the air to the alveoli, clears it from the foreign material, humidified and brings
the air to body temperature.
Sol. Answer (4)
The passage starting with the external nostils upto the terminal bronchiole constitute the conducting part.

7. A : Normal expiration during quiet breathing, unlike inspiration, is a passive process because no muscular
contractions are involved.
R : Normal expiration results from the elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs.
Sol. Answer (1)
Normal expiration in human is due to relaxation of muscles.

8. A : Human blood always contains more amount of CO2 than blood oxygen.
R : Solubility coefficient of CO2 is more than O2.
Sol. Answer (1)
In 100 ml oxygenated blood, amount of O2 is about 20 ml while of CO2 is about 48 ml.

9. A : When a person starts doing exercise, rate and depth of breathing increase even before these are changes
in pO2, pCO2 or H+ concentration.
R : The main stimulus for these quick changes is due to input from the proprioreceptors, which monitor
movements of joints and muscles.
Sol. Answer (1)

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98 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Solutions of Assignment

10. A : Emphysema is a chronic obstructive disease of lung, causing irreversible distension and loss of elasticity
of alveoli.
R : Emphysema is preventable if chronic exposure to smoke (cigarette and others) and pollutants is avoided.
Sol. Answer (2)
Emphysema is due to inflation of alveoli.

11. A : 100 ml of venous blood has 14.4 ml of O2 i.e., it is still 75% saturated with oxygen in normal condition.
R : About 4.6 ml of O2, i.e. 25% diffuses from arterial blood into the tissue during exercise.
Sol. Answer (3)
Because during normal condition, oxygen demand in tissue is low.

  

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Chapter 5

Body Fluids and Circulation

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Blood and Lymph)

1. Fluid exuding from the clotted blood is

(1) Plasma with most of the formed elements

(2) Plasma without clotting factors

(3) Serum

(4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (4)

Fluid exuding from clotted blood is serum i.e., plasma without clotting factor, as all the formed element get
trap there in clot.

2. A reduction in the number of blood platelets is called

(1) Thrombocytopenia

(2) Hemophilia

(3) Anaemia

(4) Hypertension

Sol. Answer (1)

Thrombocytopenia : A reduction in the number of platelets is called thrombocytopenia, which leads to

excessive loss of blood from the body.

Hypertension : High blood pressure.

Anaemia : Low haemoglobin, immature RBC.

Haemophilia is a hereditary genetic disorders that impair the body's ability to control blood clotting, which
is used to stop bleeding after any injury.

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 2 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

3. Each haemoglobin molecule has

(1) One heme group (2) Two heme groups (3) Three heme groups (4) Four heme groups

Sol. Answer (4)

Haemoglobin consists of four polypeptide chain (2α and 2β chains) and 4 heme group.

4. In adults, erythropoiesis occurs in

(1) Liver (2) Red bone marrow (3) Spleen (4) Yellow bone marrow

Sol. Answer (2)

The formation of RBC is known as erythropoiesis and it occurs in the red bone marrow in adults.

5. Granulocytes are formed in

(1) Thymus (2) Bone marrow (3) Kidney (4) Liver

Sol. Answer (2)

Granulocytes are basically a type of leucocytes and formation of leucocyte i.e. leucopoiesis occurs in bone
marrow.

6. Immunity is provided by
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Lymphocytes (3) Megakaryocytes (4) Thrombocytes

Sol. Answer (2)

Lymphocytes are agranulocytes WBC, which exist in two forms i.e., B-lymphocyte and T-lymphocytes and
these are responsible for immune response of the body.

Erythrocytes : These are also known as RBC, which help in gaseous transportation i.e., O2 and CO2.

Thrombocytes : These are also called platelets and are formed from the megakaryocytes (large cells of bone
marrow).

7. Diapedesis is the characteristic feature of

(1) Monocytes (2) B-lymphocytes (3) T-lymphocytes (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (1)

Monocyte and neutrophil cells undergo diapedesis.

8. Which of the following are phagocytic in nature?

(1) Monocytes (2) Macrophages (3) Neutrophils (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils are phagocytic in nature because these cells can engulf the foreign
structure like bacteria.

9. ______ are cell fragments rather than true cells.

(1) Erythrocytes (2) Granulocytes (3) Thrombocytes (4) Agranulocytes

Sol. Answer (3)

Thrombocytes i.e. platelets are small, colourless, enucleated fragment of megakaryocytes.

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 3
10. Which of the following formed element activates the plasma clotting factors?
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Monocytes (3) Lymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes

Sol. Answer (4)

Blood platelets on disintegration produce thromboplastin (platelet factor 3), which start the chain of clotting
reactions.

11. Blood group AB has

(1) No antigen (2) No antibody
(3) Neither antigen nor antibody (4) Both antigen and antibody

Sol. Answer (2)

Person with AB blood group have both antigen A and antigen B, but do not have any antibodies.

AB blood also called universal recipient.

12. In ABO system of blood grouping, transfusion is not possible from

(1) A to AB (2) B to AB (3) O to O (4) A to O

Sol. Answer (4)

Because blood group 'O' is universal donor but can accept blood from 'O' blood group person.

13. Erythroblastosis foetalis can occur if

(1) Mother is Rh-ve and foetus is Rh+ve (2) Both mother and foetus are Rh–ve
(3) Mother is Rh+ve and foetus is Rh–ve (4) Both mother and foetus are Rh+ve

Sol. Answer (1)

Mother Father
(Rh –ve) (Rh +ve)

+ st
(Rh ) I child (Normal)

+ nd
(Rh ) II child (Erythroblastosis foetalis)

If father is Rh+ and mother is Rh–, the foetus can be Rh– or Rh+. This occurs when mother is Rh– and foetus
is Rh+. This is a serious problem. If the Rh– blood of mother has not earlier come in contact with Rh+ blood
through transfusion, her first child does not suffer. But in the subsequent Rh+ foetuses, the antibodies against
Rh antigen of the mother's blood destroy the foetal RBC. This results in erythroblastosis foetalis.

14. Blood platelets release

(1) Fibrinogens (2) Prothrombins (3) Hemoglobin (4) Thromboplastins

Sol. Answer (4)

Blood platelets on disintegration release thromboplastin (platelets factor 3) which starts the chain of blood
clotting reaction.

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 4 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

15. Prothrombin that helps in clotting of blood, is present in

(1) Blood plasma
(2) Blood corpuscles
(3) Blood platelets
(4) Serum

Sol. Answer (1)

Prothrombin is an inactive plasma protein, which helps in clotting of blood.

16. Prothrombin is a
(1) Protein (2) Lipid (3) Nucleotide (4) Carbohydrate

Sol. Answer (1)

Prothrombin is an inactive plasma protein, which helps in clotting of blood.

17. Which of the following prevent(s) blood clotting in uninjured blood vessels?
(1) Albumins (2) Histamine (3) Heparin (4) Globulins

Sol. Answer (3)

Because heparin is an anticoagulant which prevents clotting of blood.

18. Lymph ultimately release the absorbed substances into

(1) Lymphatic capillaries (2) Blood stream (veins)
(3) Lymph node (4) Lymphatic duct

Sol. Answer (2)

Lymph transports oxygen, nutrients, hormones etc. to the body cells and bring CO2 and other metabolic
wastes from the body cells and finally pours the same into the venous system (major vein).

19. Human heart is derived from

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm
(4) Both (1) & (3)

Sol. Answer (2)

Because the origin of all muscle except ciliary muscle, has mesodermal origin.

(Circulatory Pathways)
20. Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood occurs in the heart of
(1) Bird (2) Crocodile (3) Rabbit (4) Frog

Sol. Answer (4)

Because frog has three-chambered heart with two atria and a single ventricle. In frogs, both oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood get mixed up in the single ventricle and the heart pumps out mixed blood. This is known
as incomplete double circulation.

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 5
21. How many cardiac cycles are performed per minute in humans?
(1) 1 (2) 12 (3) 27 (4) 72

Sol. Answer (4)

Our heart beats 72 times per minute i.e., 72 cardiac cycles are performed per minute and one cardiac cycle
would occur in 0.8 second.

22. In humans, the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute is
(1) 1040 mL
(2) 5 L
(3) 2.5 L
(4) 1290 mL

Sol. Answer (2)

During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 mL of blood. (stroke volume)

Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Number of beats per minute

= 70 mL × 72 ⇒ 5040 mL/min ~ 5 L/min

23. Oxygenated blood from the left ventricle enters into

(1) Pulmonary artery
(2) Aorta
(3) Superior vena cava
(4) Pulmonary trunk

Sol. Answer (2)

Lungs
LA = Left atrium
Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein LV = Left ventricle
RA = Right atrium
RV = Right ventricle
RA LA
Heart
RV LV
Vena cava Aorta
Body parts

24. Contraction of right ventricle pumps blood into

(1) Pulmonary vein (2) Pulmonary artery (3) Coronary sinus (4) Coronary artery

Sol. Answer (2)

Lungs
LA = Left atrium
Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein LV = Left ventricle
(oxygenated blood) RA = Right atrium
RV = Right ventricle
RA LA
Heart
RV LV
Vena cava / Aorta
Coronary sinus (Oxygenated blood)
Body parts

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 6 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

(Double circulation)
25. How many double circulations are normally completed by human heart in one minute?
(1) Eight (2) Sixteen (3) Thirty six (4) Seventy two

Sol. Answer (4)

Our heart normally beats 72 times per minute and in every beat the blood passes through the heart twice,
which includes pulmonary and systemic circulation.

26. Systemic circulation of oxygenated blood starts from

(1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium (3) Left ventricle (4) Right ventricle

Sol. Answer (3)

In pulmonary circulation, blood flows from right ventricle to left atrium.

In systemic circulation, blood flows from left ventricle to right atrium.

27. Amino acids are transported from the intestine to liver by

(1) Hepatic artery (2) Hepatic portal vein (3) Pulmonary vein (4) Hepatic vein

Sol. Answer (2)

Hepatic artery carries oxygenated blood to the liver.
Hepatic vein carries deoxygenated blood from the liver to heart.
Hepatic portal vein carries blood from digestive system to liver.

28. Coronary sinus carries _____ to the right atrium.

(1) Interstitial fluid (2) Deoxygenated blood (3) Lymph (4) Oxygenated blood

Sol. Answer (2)

Lungs
LA = Left atrium
Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein LV = Left ventricle
(Deoxygenated blood) (Oxygenated blood) RA = Right atrium
RV = Right ventricle
RA LA

RV LV
Vena cava and Aorta
Coronary sinus (oxygenated blood)
Body parts
(Deoxygenated blood)

29. The walls of capillaries are composed of endothelium which is

(1) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Squamous epithelium (3) Columnar epithelium (4) Stratified epithelium

Sol. Answer (2)

The walls of capillaries are composed of just one cell layer – a simple squamous epithelium or
endothelium, which permits a more rapid exchange of materials between the blood and tissues.

30. Tunica externa is composed of

(1) Endothelium (2) Connective tissue (3) Smooth muscles (4) Glycoproteins

Sol. Answer (2)

Tunica externa is the outermost layer of artery and vein wall and is composed of connective tissue.

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 7
31. Which one of the following represents pulmonary circulation?
(1) Left atrium → Lungs → Right atrium (2) Left atrium → Lungs → Right ventricle
(3) Right ventricle → Lungs → Left ventricle (4) Right ventricle → Lungs → Left atrium

Sol. Answer (4)

In pulmonary circulation, blood flows from right ventricle to lungs then to left atrium.

In systemic circulation, blood flows from left ventricle to body parts then to right atrium.

(Regulation of Cardiac Activity)

32. A special neural centre that can moderate the cardiac function is located in
(1) Cerebrum (2) Pons (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Cerebellum

Sol. Answer (3)

Cardiac rhythm centres are located in medulla oblongata.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Blood)
1. T-lymphocytes mature in
(1) Bone marrow (2) Lymph nodes
(3) Bursa of fabricius (4) Thymus

Sol. Answer (4)

Thymus is the primary lymphoid organ where maturation of T lymphocytes takes place.

B cell maturation occurs in bone marrow.

2. The granulocyte to arrive first at the site of an infection is

(1) Neutrophil (2) Eosinophil
(3) Basophil (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (1)

Neutrophils : They are the most abundant leucocytes (60–65%), which have phagocytic nature i.e., they
engulf the harmful germ.

Eosinophils (2–3% of total leucocytes) : They are non-phagocytic and their number increases in people with
allergic condition such as asthma or hay fever.

Basophils (0–1% of total leucocytes (least)) : They release heparin, serotonin and histamine.

3. A person with blood group O will have _____ antibody/antibodies in plasma.

(1) anti-B (2) anti-A
(3) nil (4) anti-A and anti-B

Sol. Answer (4)

O group (universal donor) cannot receive A and B blood because anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

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 8 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

4. Clotting of blood involves

(1) Hemolysis of RBCs (2) Denaturation of albumins by thrombin
(3) Inactivation of plasma clotting factors (4) Change of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin

Sol. Answer (4)

Blood platelets Injured tissue
Disintegrate
Release
and release

Platelet factor 3 Thromboplastin

(Thromboplastin) (Phospholipid)

2+
Ca
2+
Ca
Prothrombin Thrombin
(Inactive plasma protein) (Active)
Thrombin
Fibrinogen Fibrin
(Soluble) (Insoluble)
Polymerization
Fibrin Fibres
(Clot)

5. If RBCs are placed in distilled water, the corpuscles will

(1) Burst (2) Increase in number (3) Shrink (4) Stick to each other

Sol. Answer (1)

When the RBCs are placed in water, the water moves from surrounding into the RBC by osmosis, which results
in swelling or bursting of RBC due to excess of water.

6. Universal recipient blood group is

(1) A+ (2) AB+ (3) B+ (4) O+

Sol. Answer (2)

Because person with AB blood group neither have anti-A nor anti-B antibodies but have both antigens (A and B).

7. A person with antigen A in RBC and antibody b in plasma belongs to blood group
(1) A (2) B (3) O (4) AB

Sol. Answer (1)

Person having A blood group have antigen A in RBC and antibody b in plasma.

8. The middle man of the body is

(1) Blood (2) Plasma (3) Lymph (4) Serum

Sol. Answer (3)

Lymph acts as 'middle man' which transports oxygen, food materials, hormone etc. to the body cells and
bring carbon dioxide and other metabolic wastes, from the body cells to blood and then finally pour the same
into the venous system.

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 9
(Lymph)
9. Lymph nodes
(1) Filter the lymph (2) Contain phagocytic cells
(3) Responsible for lymphocyte activation (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
• Lymph is filtered through lymph nodes and they are abundant in neck, groin and armpits.
• Lymph nodes contain phagocytic cell which help to remove pathogens.
• Lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and then lymph transports lymphocytes and antibodies from the lymph
nodes to the blood.
10. Lymph differs from blood in possessing
(1) More proteins and less waste products
(2) Less proteins and more waste products
(3) More proteins and more waste products
(4) Less proteins and less waste products
Sol. Answer (2)

Blood Lymph
• Consist mainly of plasma, RBC, • Consist of plasma, WBC.
WBC and platelets.
• In plasma, more protein, Ca and • In plasma, have few protein, Ca
phosphorus. and phosphorus.
• Amount of CO2 and metabolic • Amount of CO2 and metabolic
waste is normal. waste is much more.
11. Read the following:
a. Lymph absorbs and transports fat from the intestine.
b. Lymph nodes produce fibrinogen.
c. Lymphatic capillaries present in the intestinal villi are known as lacteals.
d. Lymph transports oxygen only.
Which of these statements are true?
(1) a, c (2) b, d (3) c, d (4) a, b
Sol. Answer (1)
Statement b, is false because lymph nodes produce lymphocytes, not fibrinogen.
Statement d, is false, because lymph does not only transport O2 but it also transports CO2, nutrients,
hormone etc.

(Circulatory Pathways)
12. Blood pumped by the heart passes into sinuses in
(1) Fishes (2) Earthworms
(3) Insects (4) Birds
Sol. Answer (3)
Because arthropods (insects) and noncephalopod molluscs have open circulatory system i.e., blood pumped
by heart passes through large vessels into open spaces or body cavity called sinus.
Rest all, i.e. fishes, earthworm and birds have closed circulatory system.

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10 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

13. A patch of nodal tissue responsible for initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of heart is present in
(1) Lower left corner of the left ventricle
(2) Upper right corner of the right atrium
(3) Lower left corner of the right ventricle
(4) Upper left corner of the left atrium
Sol. Answer (2)
A patch of nodal tissue responsible initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of heart is SAN (Sino Atrial Node)
which is located at upper right corner of the right atrium.

14. Repolarisation of the ventricles is represented by

(1) P-wave (2) QRS-wave
(3) T-wave (4) Both P and T-wave
Sol. Answer (3)
R

P Q S T

P Wave : Depolarisation of atria leads to contraction

QRS wave : Depolarisation of ventricle, which initiates ventricle contraction.
T wave : Represents the return of the ventricles from the excited to normal state i.e., repolarization of the
ventricles occur. End of T-wave mark the end of systole.

15. Time interval between the closure of semilunar valve and closure of AV valve is
(1) 0.3 s (2) 0.5 s (3) 0.1 s (4) 0.7 s

Sol. Answer (2)

Time interval between the closure of semilunar valve and closure of AV valve is the ventricular diastole time,
which is equal to 0.5 seconds.

16. If one litre of blood is drawn out of 5 litres from the body of man, how much blood would be left by the next
day?
(1) 5 litres (2) 4.5 litres (3) 4 litres (4) 3 litres

Sol. Answer (1)

Blood lost is compensated by blood cell formed by the bone marrow and RBC stored in spleen and liquid content
is provided from outside in the form of fluid etc, to compensate plasma.

17. The two auricles are demarcated externally from the ventricle by an irregular groove called
(1) Inter-auricular septum
(2) Inter-ventricular septum
(3) Coronary sulcus
(4) Inter-ventricular groove
Sol. Answer (3)
Coronary sulcus demarcated auricles from ventricle externally.

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 11
18. A cardiac cycle involves
(1) Joint diastole-ventricular systole-auricular systole
(2) Auricular systole-ventricular systole-complete cardiac diastole
(3) Auricular systole-joint diastole-ventricular systole
(4) Auricular systole-ventricular diastole-joint diastole
Sol. Answer (2)

Auricular
systole
0.1 s

Ventricular
systole
0.3 s

Cardiac cycle (0.8 second)

19. The duration of the ventricular diastole in a normal cardiac cycle is

(1) 0.3 second (2) 0.5 second
(3) 0.4 second (4) 0.7 second
Sol. Answer (2)
Ventricular systole duration = 0.3 seconds
Ventricular diastole duration = 0.8 – 0.3 = 0.5 seconds

20. Chordae tendinae in the heart are found in

(1) Ventricle (2) Left auricle
(3) Right auricle (4) Interventricular septum
Sol. Answer (1)
Chordae tendinae are the special fibrous cords that are attached to the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves
at one end and their other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with the special muscles known as papillary
muscle.

21. A portal system is one in which

(1) A vein starts from an organ and ends up in heart
(2) A vein starts from an organ and ends up in another organ
(3) A vein starts from heart and ends up in lungs
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)

Heart
Artery
Vein Portal system

Portal
Organ 1 Organ 2
Vein

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12 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

(Double circulation)

22. Match column I with column II

Column I Column II
a. Capillaries (i) Valves
b. Veins (ii) Smooth muscles
c. Aorta (iii) Narrowest blood vessels
d. Tunica media (iv) Elastic artery
Select the alternative which shows the correct matching.
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Sol. Answer (3)
Capillaries are the narrowest blood vessels through which the exchange of gases and nutrient between the
blood and the tissue fluid occurs.
Veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood.
Aorta is an artery, which has thick elastic membrane in tunica interna.
Tunica media : It is the middle layer in the wall of artery and have smooth muscles mainly.

23. There is no capillary system in case of most of the invertebrates except

(1) Crustaceans (2) Cephalopods (3) Insects (4) Gastropods

Sol. Answer (2)

Cephalopods have closed circulatory system, rest all i.e. crustaceans, insect and gastropods have open
circulatory system.

24. The opening of pulmonary vein is without valve because

(1) It is a very small aperture
(2) It has low blood pressure
(3) Its opening is oblique
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Veins have valves which prevent backward flow of blood except pulmonary vein because it has oblique opening.

25. The course of blood from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart is called
(1) Systemic circulation (2) Pulmonary circulation (3) Single circulation (4) Double circulation
Sol. Answer (2)
Pulmonary circulation = Right ventricle
↓
Lungs
↓
Left atrium
↓
Systemic circulation = Left ventricle
↓
Body parts
↓
Right auricle
Double circulation = Pulmonary circulation + Systemic circulation

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 13
26. Hepatic portal system is present in
(1) Fishes, Amphibians and Reptiles (2) Reptiles and Birds
(3) All mammals (4) All vertebrates

Sol. Answer (4)

Hepatic portal system is characteristic feature of all vertebrates.

(Regulation of Cardiac Activity)

27. The strength of ventricular contraction increases when SAN is stimulated by

(1) Vagus nerve (2) Parasympathetic nerve
(3) Sympathetic nerve (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (3)

Because sympathetic nerve endings release adrenaline which stimulates the SAN. This accelerates the heart
beat, the strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output.

(Disorders of Circulatory System)

28. Murmur occurs due to defect in
(1) Heart valves (2) SA node
(3) Bundle of His (4) Purkinje fibres

Sol. Answer (1)

In case of defective or damaged heart valves, their improper closure leads to leakage of blood which produces
an abnormal sound referred to as heart murmur.

29. Complete stoppage of heart beat is known as

(1) Cardiac arrest (2) Myocardial infarction
(3) Angina pectoris (4) Heart failure

Sol. Answer (1)

Cardiac arrest → Complete stoppage of heart beat
Myocardial infarction → Heart attack
Angina pectoris → Chest pain
Heart failure → Heart stops pumping

30. Which of the following diseases is also known as atherosclerosis?

(1) Hypertension (2) Angina pectoris
(3) Heart attack (4) Coronary artery disease (CAD)

Sol. Answer (4)

Hypertension – High blood pressure
Angina pectoris – Chest pain
Heart attack – Myocardial infarction
Coronary Artery Disease(CAD) – Atherosclerosis

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14 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below
Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle [NEET-2018]
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
Sol. Answer (1)
Tricuspid valves are AV valve present between right atrium and right ventricle. Bicuspid valves are AV valve
present between left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are present at the openings of aortic and
pulmonary aorta.
2. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c. Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism [NEET-2018]
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
Sol. Answer (3)
Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during coagulation. These strands forms a network and the meshes of which
are occupied by blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
Antibodies are derived from γ-Globulin fraction of plasma proteins which means globulins are involved in defence
mechanisms.
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly responsible for BCOP.

3. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from [NEET-2017]

(1) Heart (2) Stomach (3) Kidneys (4) Intestine
Sol. Answer (4)
In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver.

4. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for
this feature? [NEET-2017]
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport
(1) Only (d) (2) Only (a) (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
Sol. Answer (1)
In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during maturation which provide more space for oxygen carrying pigment
(Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the cell organelles including mitochondria so respires anaerobically.
5. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of
blood from the body. [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes
(3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 15
Sol. Answer (4)
Deduction in thrombocytes (platelets) can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the
body.
6. Serum differs from blood in [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Lacking globulins (2) Lacking albumins
(3) Lacking clotting factors (4) Lacking antibodies
Sol. Answer (3)
Serum is plasma without clotting factors. It never clot.
7. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is [NEET-2016]
(1) Less than that in the venae cavae (2) Same as that in the aorta
(3) More than that in the carotid (4) More than that in the pulmonary vein
Sol. Answer (4)
Blood pressure in different blood vessels: Artery > Arteriole > Capillary > Venule > Vein (Vena cava)
8. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea? [NEET-2016]
(1) Hepatic Portal Vein (2) Renal Vein (3) Dorsal Aorta (4) Hepatic Vein
Sol. Answer (4)
Urea is synthesized in liver. So maximum amount of urea is present in hepatic vein and minimum in renal vein.
9. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because [NEET-2016]
(1) The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals
(2) It is easier to carry a small body weight
(3) Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate
(4) Small animals have a lower O2 requirement
Sol. Answer (3)
Basal metabolic rate is inversely proportional to body size. So smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
10. Which one of the following is correct? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets (2) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
(3) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen (4) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC
Sol. Answer (1)
11. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Diastole of the right atrium (2) Systole of the left atrium
(3) Diastole of the right ventricle (4) Systole of the left ventricle
Sol. Answer (4)
12. Erythropoiesis starts in [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Red bone marrow (2) Kidney (3) Liver (4) Spleen
Sol. Answer (3)
13. A man with blood group 'A' marries a woman with blood group 'B'. What are all the possible blood groups of
their offsprings? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) O only (2) A and B only
(3) A, B and AB only (4) A, B, AB and O
Sol. Answer (4)

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16 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

14. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(2) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(3) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(4) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
Sol. Answer (1)
Post-ganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous system secrete acetylcholine which decrease heart rate and
cardiac output.
15. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
(2) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(3) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
(4) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies
Sol. Answer (1)
Person with blood group AB has both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma.
16. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the [NEET-2013]

P T
Q S

(1) Initiation of the ventricular contraction

(2) Beginning of the systole
(3) End of systole
(4) Contraction of both the atria
Sol. Answer (4)
17. Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its
function/s [NEET-2013]

D
A

C B

(1) B – Pulmonary artery-takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg

(2) C – Vena Cava-takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg
(3) D – Dorsal aorta-takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg
(4) A – Pulmonary vein-takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 17
Sol. Answer (2)
18. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Cyclosporin-A (2) Statins (3) Penicillin (4) Streptokinase
Sol. Answer (4)
19. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor
friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Blood group O (2) Blood group A (3) Blood group B (4) Blood group AB
Sol. Answer (1)
20. Which one of the following human organs is often called the “graveyard” of RBCs? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Liver (2) Gall bladder (3) Kidney (4) Spleen
Sol. Answer (4)
The older RBCs are removed from the circulation by the phagocytic cells of spleen mainly. Hence, spleen
is known as graveyard of RBC.
21. A person with unknown blood group under ABO system, has suffered much blood loss in an accident and needs
immediate blood transfusion. His one friend who has a valid certificate of his own blood type, offers for blood
donation without delay. What would have been the type of blood group of the donor friend?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Type A (2) Type B (3) Type AB (4) Type O
Sol. Answer (4)
22. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
(2) Supply oxygenated blood to the different organs
(3) Carry blood away from the heart to different organs
(4) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
Sol. Answer (3)
Artery carries blood away from heart.
Vein carries blood towards the heart.
23. 'Bundle of His' is a part of which of the following organs in humans? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Pancreas (2) Brain (3) Heart (4) Kidney
Sol. Answer (3)
Bundle of His is a part of heart located only in the ventricle wall.
24. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Fibrinogen (2) An albumin (3) Serum amylase (4) A globulin

Sol. Answer (1)

25. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney
(2) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and requires treatment
(3) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure
(4) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active

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18 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (1)

Blood pressure of an individual is 140/90 or higher, it shows hypertension which leads to heart diseases
and also affect vital organs like brain and kidney.

26. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

P T
Q S

(1) Peak P and Peak R together – systolic and diastolic blood pressures
(2) Peak P– Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(3) Complex QRS – One complete pulse
(4) Peak T – Initiation of total cardiac contraction
Sol. Answer (3)
P wave : Atrial depolarization
QRS wave : Ventricular depolarisation / One complete pulse systole (diastole)
T wave : Ventricular repolarisation

27. What is true about RBCs in humans? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) They do not carry CO2 at all
(2) They carry about 20-25 percent of CO2
(3) They transport 99.5 percent of O2
(4) They transport about 80 percent oxygen only and the rest 20 percent of it is transported in dissolved state
in blood plasma

Sol. Answer (2)

28. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional,
what will be the immediate effect? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
(2) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
(3) The pacemaker will stop working
(4) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
Sol. Answer (1)
The tricuspid valve is present between right atrium and right ventricle and then from right ventricle blood goes
to lungs via pulmonary artery.
The chordae tendinae which is attached to the flaps of tricuspid valve and prevent it from collapsing back into
the atria during powerful ventricular contraction and if in case, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve
become partially non-functional then the flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 19
29. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system
(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins
(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced
(c) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system
(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting
Which two of the above statements are correct? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (a) & (b) (3) (b) & (c) (4) (c) & (d)
Sol. Answer (1)
Statement(b) is wrong because acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart
muscle.
Statement(c) is wrong, because AB is universal acceptor, not universal donor.

30. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) 5 - 11 g (2) 25 - 30 g (3) 17 - 20 g (4) 12 - 16 g
Sol. Answer (4)

31. The most popularly known blood grouping is the ABO grouping. It is named ABO and not ABC, because "O" in
it refers to having: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Overdominance of this type on the genes for A and B types
(2) One antibody only – either anti-A or anti-B on the RBCs
(3) No antigens A and B on RBCs
(4) Other antigens besides A and B on RBCs
Sol. Answer (3)

32. Compared to blood our lymph has [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Plasma without proteins (2) More WBCs and no RBCs
(3) More RBCs and less WBCs (4) No plasma
Sol. Answer (2)
Lymph has more WBC, because lymph nodes produce lymphocytes and the lymph takes lymphocytes and
antibodies from the lymph nodes.

33. There is no DNA in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Mature RBCs (2) A mature spermatozoan
(3) Hair root (4) An enucleated ovum
Sol. Answer (1)
Matured RBCs do not have cell organelles including nucleus, golgi bodies, mitochondria, ribosomes, centrioles
and endoplasmic reticulum.

34. In a standard ECG which one of the following alphabets is the correct representation of the respective activity of
the human heart? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) S – start of systole (2) T – end of diastole
(3) P – depolarisation of the atria (4) R–repolarisation of ventricles
Sol. Answer (3)
P wave : Depolarization of atria
QRS wave : Depolarisation of ventricles
T wave : Repolarisation of ventricles
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20 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

35. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Osmotic balance of body fluids (2) Oxygen transport in the blood
(3) Clotting of blood (4) Defence mechanisms of body
Sol. Answer (4)

36. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Neutrophils and monocytes (2) Neutrophils and eosinophils
(3) Lymphocytes and macrophages (4) Eosinophils and lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (1)

37. Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant
heparin? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Monocytes (2) Neutrophils (3) Basophils (4) Eosinophils
Sol. Answer (3)

38. The haemoglobin of a human foetus [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult
(2) Has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of the adult
(3) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
(4) Has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4
Sol. Answer (1)

39. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Pressure difference between the post caval and atrium
(2) Pushing open of the venous valves
(3) Suction pull
(4) Stimulation of the sino auricular node
Sol. Answer (1)

40. Consider the following statements about biomedical technologies

a. During open heart surgery blood is circulated in the heart-lung machine.
b. Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angiography.
c. Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT) shows detailed internal structure as seen in a section of body.
d. X-ray provides clear and detailed images or organs like prostate glands and lungs.
Which two of the above statements are correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) a and b (2) b and d (3) c and d (4) a and c
Sol. Answer (4)

41. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for
confirmatory evidence? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Haemocytes (2) Serum albumins
(3) Serum globulins (4) Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Answer (3)
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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 21
42. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide
aerobically? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Red blood cells (2) White blood cells
(3) Unstriated muscle cells (4) Liver cells
Sol. Answer (1)

43. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(2) Blood plasma
(3) Blood serum
(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Answer (3)

44. The ‘blue baby’ syndrome results from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Excess of chloride (2) Methaemoglobin
(3) Excess of dissolved oxygen (4) Excess of TDS (Total Dissolved Solids)
Sol. Answer (2)

45. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Lymphocytes (2) RBCs
(3) Platelets (4) Leucocytes
Sol. Answer (2)

46. Which of the following substances, if introduce in the blood stream, would cause coagulation, at the site of its
introduction? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Prothrombin (3) Heparin (4) Thromboplastin
Sol. Answer (4)

47. Lymph collected from left side of the body collected through thoracic duct and finally opens into
(1) Right sub clavian vein (2) Righ sub clavian artery
(3) Left sub clavian vein (4) Left sub clavian artery
Sol. Answer (3)
Because thoracic duct is located on the left side and further this duct will drain the lymph into subclavian
vein located on the left side only.

48. Systemic heart refers to

(1) The heart that contracts under stimulation from nervous system
(2) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
(3) Entire heart in lower vertebrates
(4) The two ventricles together in humans

Sol. Answer (2)

Systemic heart means oxygenated heart which supplies blood to the body parts.

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22 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

49. Which of the following layer of heart is related to difference in thickness of different chambers of heart?
(1) Outer fibrous coat (2) Epicardium (3) Myocardium (4) Endocardium
Sol. Answer (3)
The heart has an outermost smooth coelomic epithelium - the visceral pericardium.
The middle thick muscular layer called myocardium, made up of muscle fibres.
Innermost layer i.e., endocardium.

50. Which of the following are in direct contact with the AV valves and prevent these from collapsing back into atria?
(1) Chordae tendinae (2) Papillary muscles (3) Columnae carnae (4) Musculi pectinati
Sol. Answer (1)
Special fibrous cords called the chordae tendinae are attached to the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid
valves at one end and their other ends are attached to the ventricular wall with the special muscles. The
papillary muscles. The chordae tendinae prevent the bicuspid and tricuspid valves from collapsing back into
the atria during powerful ventricular contraction.
Columnae carinae : They are the rounded or irregular muscular column which project from the inner surface
of the right and left ventricles of heart.
Musculi pectinati : They are the parallel ridges in the walls of the atria of the heart.

51. The pacesetter in the heart is called

(1) Sino-atrial node (SAN) (2) Atrio-ventricular node (AVN)
(3) Purkinje fibres (4) Papillary muscle
Sol. Answer (2)
Sino-atrial node(SAN) is called pacemaker
Atrio-ventricular node (AVN) is called pacesetter.

52. The correct route through which impulse travels in the heart is
(1) SA node → Purkinje fibres → bundle of His → AV node → heart muscles
(2) SA node → AV node → bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → heart muscles
(3) AV node → bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres → heart muscles
(4) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → bundle of His → heart muscles
Sol. Answer (2)
SA node (wave of contraction get originated at SA node)
↓
AV node
↓
Bundle of His
↓
Purkinje's fibre (now, the impulse stimulates the ventricles to contract simultaneously)

53. Bundle of His is a network of

(1) Muscle fibres distributed throughout the heart walls
(2) Muscle fibres found only in the ventricle wall
(3) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(4) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 23
Sol. Answer (2)

Bundle of His are muscle fibres which originate from AV node and present on the each ventricle wall.

54. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is
to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(1) Atrioventricular bundle (2) Purkinje system
(3) Sinoatrial node (4) Atrioventricular node
Sol. Answer (3)
Sinoatrial node is also called pacemaker because it is the site which generates the maximum number of action
potential i.e., 70–75 min–1 and is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of
the heart.

55. Impulse of heart beat originates from

(1) SA node (2) AV node (3) Vagus nerve (4) Cardiac nerve
Sol. Answer (1)
SA node is also known as pacemaker because the contraction of atria is initiated and activated by SA node.

56. Rate of heart beat is determined by

(1) Purkinje fibres (2) Papillary muscles (3) AV-node (4) SA-node
Sol. Answer (4)
It is the site which generates the maximum number of action potential i.e. 70–75 min–1 and is responsible
for initiating and maintaing the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.

57. The heart sound ‘dup’ is produced when

(1) Mitral valve is closed (2) Semilunar valves at the base of aorta get closed
(3) Tricuspid valve is opened (4) Mitral valve is opened
Sol. Answer (2)
The first heart sound 'LUBB' is produced by closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves.
The second heart sound 'DUP' is produced by closure of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves.

58. At the end of joint diastole ventricle is

(1) Completely filled by blood (2) Two third filled by blood
(3) One third filled by blood (4) Completely empty
Sol. Answer (2)
During joint diastole, in the beginning of the ventricle diastole there is first rapid filling due to opening of AV
valves then the blood fills into ventricles with slow pace called diastasis or slow filling. Due to this, ventricle
is two-thirds filled by blood.
Remaining 1/3rd is filled during atrial contraction.

59. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine with three electrodes attached
(1) One to each wrist and to the left ankle (2) One to each ankle and to the left wrist
(3) One to each wrist and to the left chest region (4) One to each ankle and to the left chest region
Sol. Answer (1)
To obtain a standard, ECG, three electrodes of the machine are attached one to each wrist and to the left
ankle of patient.
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24 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

60. When the heart muscles receive insufficient oxygen, it is indicated in the ECG as
(1) Enlarged P-wave (2) Depressed S-T segment (3) Flattened T-wave (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
S-T segment is elevated in acute myocardial infarction and depressed when the heart muscle receives insufficient
oxygen.
T wave is flat when heart muscle receives insufficient oxygen as in atherosclerotic heart disease and it may be
elevated when the body's potassium level is increased.

61. In what way pulmonary artery is different from pulmonary vein?

(1) Its lumen is broad (2) Its wall is thick
(3) It has valves (4) It does not possess endothelium
Sol. Answer (2)
Artery has thick wall, blood flows with more pressure. Thickness of artery is due to tunica media.

62. Difference between pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein is that the pulmonary artery has
(1) No endothelium (2) Valves (3) Thicker wall (4) Oxygenated blood
Sol. Answer (3)
Artery has thick wall, blood flows with more pressure. Thickness of artery is due to tunica media.

63. In veins, valves are present to check backward flow of blood flowing at
(1) Atmospheric pressure (2) High pressure
(3) Low pressure (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Artery have high pressure
Veins have low pressure, thin walls

64. Fastest distribution of some injectible material/medicine with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting
it into the
(1) Muscles (2) Arteries
(3) Veins (4) Lymph vessels
Sol. Answer (3)
Because veins carry blood towards the heart and then heart pumps blood to all organs.

65. An adult human with average health has systolic and diastolic pressures as
(1) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (2) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
(3) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (4) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
Sol. Answer (1)
Normal blood pressure 120(systolic pressure) / 80 (Diastolic pressure)

66. Which vertebrate organ receives only oxygenated blood?

(1) Spleen (2) Liver (3) Gill (4) Lung
Sol. Answer (1)
Liver : Carries deoxygenated blood via hepatic portal vein.
Lung : Carries deoxygenated blood via pulmonary artery.

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Solutions of Assignment Body Fluids and Circulation 25
67. The thickening of walls of arteries is called
(1) Arteriosclerosis (2) Arthritis (3) Aneurysm (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Arteriosclerosis : Thickening of walls due to calcification in old age.
Arthritis : It is a disorder in which inflammation of the joints occurs. It is characterized by pain, swelling,
redness, heat.
Aneurysm : Abnormal widening and ballooning of a portion of an artery due to weakness in the wall of blood
vessel.

68. Which of the following cannot be taken as a feature of open type circulatory system?
(1) Low pressure system (2) Well regulated blood supply to different organs
(3) Blood returns to the heart slowly (4) Non formation of capillaries
Sol. Answer (2)
Well-regulated blood supply to different organs occurs in closed circulatory system, in which blood flows in
the blood vessel.

69. Which of the following blood vessels bypass are present in the circulatory system before birth?
(1) Foramen ovale (2) Fossa ovalis (3) Ductus arteriosus (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Before birth, the major portion blood from the right side bypasses the pulmonary circulation through foramen
ovale and ductus arteriosus. At the time of birth with the start of breathing, these bypass cease to act.
Foramen ovale closes to become fossa ovalis.
Ductus arteriosus closes to become ligamentum arteriosum.

70. Isovolumetric systole is duration between

(1) Closure of AV valve and opening of semilunar valve (2) Closure of semilunar valve and opening of AV valve
(3) Closure of tricuspid and closure of bicuspid valve (4) Closure of tricuspid and opening of bicuspid valve
Sol. Answer (1)
During isovolumetric contraction volume of blood does not change even though ventricular continue contracting.

71. High level of which ions change the strength of contraction

(1) Ca2+ (2) K + (3) Na+ (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Elevated blood level of K+ or Na+ decreases heart rate and contractility
An excess of Ca2+ increases heart rate.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : The cardiac impulse which originates from SA node in mammalian heart cannot spread directly from atria to
ventricles.
R : In mammalian heart there is no continuity between cardiac muscle fibres of atria and those of ventricles
except AV bundles.
Sol. Answer (1)
SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Bundle branch → Purkinje fibre → Ventricle wall

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26 Body Fluids and Circulation Solutions of Assignment

2. A : First phase of ventricular filling is rapid and causes 3rd sound of heart.
R : It is because of auricular systole.
Sol. Answer (3)
It is because of opening of AV valve.

3. A : Dub is a long and sharp sound.

R : It is caused by closing of atrio ventricular valves.
Sol. Answer (4)
Dup has high pitch and of short duration.

4. A : Portal system consists of veins which start from capillaries and end into capillaries.
R : All vertebrates have hepatic portal system.
Sol. Answer (2)
A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and liver called hepatic portal system.

5. A : Left ventricle pumps blood at a much higher pressure to all body parts involved in systemic circulation.
R : The muscular wall of the left ventricle is two to four times as thick as the wall of right ventricle.
Sol. Answer (1)
Left ventricle has thickest wall.

6. A : The resting heart rate, about 75/minutes, usually is lower than the autorhythmic rate of the SA node
(90 – 100 beats/minute).
R : At rest condition, the parasympathetic effects dominate.
Sol. Answer (1)
The signals from parasympathetic nervous system decreases the heart rate.

7. A : Elevated levels of Na+ increases the heart rate and contractility.

R : Elevated Na+ level increase the excitability of SA node.
Sol. Answer (4)
Elevated levels of Na+ decreases the heart rate and contractility.

8. A : Endocardium provides a smooth lining for the inside of the heart and covers the valves of the heart.
R : Endocardium is continuous with the endothelial lining of the large blood vessels associated with the heart
and the rest of the cardiovascular system.
Sol. Answer (2)
Inner wall of heart is endocardium.

9. A : Isovolumetric systole of a normal cardiac cycle is responsible for the opening of semilunar valves causing
the blood flow into aortic aorta and pulmonary aorta.
R : During isovolumetric systole, intraventricular pressure increases as semilunar and AV valves are closed and
ventricles are contracting.
Sol. Answer (1)
There is no change in volume of blood in ventricles during isovolumetric systole.

  

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Chapter 6

Excretory Products and their Elimination

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Human Excretory System)

1. The most toxic nitrogenous waste excreted by many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects is

(1) Ammonia (2) Urea (3) Uric acid (4) Both (2) & (3)

Sol. Answer (1)

The most toxic waste excreted by many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects is ammonia;
urea is comparatively less toxic and uric acid is least toxic.

2. In crustaceans, the excretory functions are performed by

(1) Antennal glands (2) Green glands (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Malpighian tubules

Sol. Answer (3)

In crustaceans, excretory functions are performed by antennary or green gland.

3. Which is the largest digestive gland of our body?

(1) Liver (2) Lung (3) Brain (4) Stomach

Sol. Answer (1)

Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body.

4. Malpighian body or renal corpuscle is

(1) Glomerulus along with collecting duct (2) Glomerulus along with DCT

(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule (4) Glomerulus along with Loop of Henle

Sol. Answer (3)

Malpighian body or Renal corpuscle = Glomerulus + Bowman's capsule

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28 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

5. Least toxic nitrogenous waste among the following is

(1) Urea (2) Uric acid

(3) Ammonia (4) More than one option is correct

Sol. Answer (2)

Ammonia > Urea > Uric acid

6. The part through which arteries and veins enter or leave the kidney is called

(1) Hilus (2) Renal papilla (3) Major calyces (4) Minor calyces

Sol. Answer (1)

A depression where arteries and veins enter and leave body organ is known as hilum.

Hilum
Renal artery

7. Podocytes occur in
(1) Glomerular capillaries (2) Neck region of nephron
(3) Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule (4) Outer wall of Bowman’s capsule
Sol. Answer (3)

Prodocytes
(Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule)

Squamous epithelium

8. Loop of Henle is found in

(1) Green gland (2) Malpighian tubule (3) Neuron (4) Nephron
Sol. Answer (4)
Loop of Henle is found in nephron of the kidney of reptiles, birds and mammals.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 29
9. Nitrogenous metabolic wastes in our body are the products of
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Proteins (3) Lipids (4) Vitamins
Sol. Answer (2)
Nitrogenous wastes are the products of protein metabolism.
10. Human beings are
(1) Uricotelic (2) Ureotelic (3) Ammonotelic (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
Ureotelic – Human beings
Uricotelic – Insects, birds
Ammonotelic – Tadpole
11. Uric acid is an excretory product of
(a) Cockroach (b) Sparrow (c) Terrestrial reptiles (d) Man
(1) (a) & (d) (2) (b) & (d) (3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (a), (c) & (d)
Sol. Answer (3)
Uric acid : Insects, birds and terrestrial reptiles.
12. Kidneys are reddish brown, bean-shaped structures situated between the levels of ______ thoracic and ______
lumbar vertebrae.
(1) 11th; 1st (2) 12th; 3rd (3) 10th; 2nd (4) 12th; 5th
Sol. Answer (2)
Kidneys are located between 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebra and is covered by peritoneum only on the
front i.e. fused with the body wall. This arrangement is known as retroperitoneal arrangement.
(Urine Formation)

13. On an average, how much urea is excreted out per day by an adult human?

(1) 25–30 g (2) 15–20 g (3) 35–40 g (4) 40–45 g

Sol. Answer (1)

25–30 g of urea is excreted in urine per day. While normal blood urea level is 18–38 mg/100 ml.

14. An adult human excretes, on an average ______ litres of urine per day.

(1) 1 to 1.5 (2) 2 to 2.5 (3) 2.5 to 3 (4) 3 to 3.5

Sol. Answer (1)

Urine :

• 1–1.5 L/day on an average • pH = 6.0

• Yellow coloured, watery • 25–30 g of urea is excreted out / day

15. All are performed in a nephron, except
(1) Filtration (2) Secretion (3) Urea synthesis (4) Reabsorption
Sol. Answer (3)
Urea synthesis occurs in the hepatocytes of liver via Ornithine cycle.

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30 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

16. Which is the first step of urine formation?

(1) Ultrafiltration (2) Tubular secretion (3) Selective secretion (4) Tubular reabsorption
Sol. Answer (1)
Ultrafiltration is the first step of the urine formation. The blood is filtered inside the glomerular capsule.
Filtrate = Blood – [Formed elements + Proteins]
Filtrate = Plasma – Blood protein

17. What is the osmolarity of the filtrate at the hairpin bend of loop of Henle?
(1) 300 mOsmL–1 (2) 1200 mOsmL–1 (3) 600 mOsmL–1 (4) 800 mOsmL–1
Sol. Answer (2)
Osmolarity of the filtrate at the hair pin bend of loop of Henle – 1200 mOsmL–1.
(Functions of the Tubules)

18. Nearly all of the essential nutrients, and 70–80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in the
(1) PCT (2) Henle’s loop (3) DCT (4) Collecting duct
Sol. Answer (1)
PCT : This is known as obligatory reabsorption.

19. Which of the following component of blood does not enter into the nephron?
(1) Water (2) Glucose (3) Urea (4) Plasma proteins
Sol. Answer (4)
Plasma proteins are not filtered out during ultrafiltration in the glomerular capsule.
Filtrate = Plasma – Plasma proteins.

20. The main function of loop of Henle is

(1) Blood filtration (2) Urine formation
(3) Water conservation (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Loop of Henle, serves as the main function of conservation of water by countercurrent mechanism.

21. Maximum water reabsorption occurs in

(1) DCT (2) PCT
(3) Collecting duct (4) Descending limb of loop of Henle
Sol. Answer (2)
70–80% of electrolytes, all of the nutrients and most of the water are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted
tubule (PCT). This is obligatory reabsorption.
(Mechanism of Concentration of Filtrate)

22. Vasa recta is

(1) L-shaped (2) U-shaped (3) S-shaped (4) V-shaped
Sol. Answer (2)
Vasa recta is U-shaped in which blood flows in opposite direction to the flow of the filtrate in the loop of Henle.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 31
23. We can produce concentrated urine. This is facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify the mechanism.
(1) Reabsorption from PCT
(2) Reabsorption from collecting duct
(3) Reabsorption/secretion in DCT
(4) Counter current mechanism in Henle’s loop/vasa recta
Sol. Answer (4)
Countercurrent mechanism : The arrangement of loop of Henle and the vasa recta in which opposite direction
of flow of the filtrate and blood respectively facilitates increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary
interstitium from 300 mOsmL–1 in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmL–1 in the inner medulla.

24. Glucose and amino acids in the filtrate are reabsorbed by tubular epithelial cells through
(1) Active transport (2) Passive transport (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Osmosis
Sol. Answer (1)
Glucose and amino acids in the filtrate are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule via active transport.

25. The cause of glomerular filtration is

(1) Osmosis (2) GHP (3) Hemodialysis (4) Acidic pH
Sol. Answer (2)
Glomerular filtration pressure (GFP) which is 100 mmHg
GFP = GHP – (BCOP + CHP)
= 60 – (30 + 20)
= 10 mmHg

26. In which segment of the nephron, reabsorption is minimum?

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) (2) Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Reabsorption is maximum in the PCT while reabsorption is minimum in ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
(Regulation of Kidney Function, Micturition and Role of other Organs in Excretion)

27. Which of the following is also known as antidiuretic hormone?

(1) Oxytocin (2) Vasopressin
(3) Adrenaline (4) Aldosterone
Sol. Answer (2)
Vasopressin is also known as ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

28. Which one is the vasoconstrictor?

(1) ANF (2) Renin (3) Angiotensin-II (4) Histamine
Sol. Answer (3)
Vasoconstrictors : Angiotensin II
Vasodilators : ANF, histamine
Renin is also known as angiotensinogenase which catalyses the conversion of inactive angiotensinogen to
angiotensin-II ultimately.

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32 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

29. Hormone responsible for the absorption of water in DCT is

(1) ADH (2) ACTH (3) Oxytocin (4) Insulin
Sol. Answer (1)
ADH(antidiuretic hormone) is secreted by neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus which is released from
posterior pituitary.
30. Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of
(1) Na+ ions (2) K+ ions
(3) Glucose (4) Ca2+ ions
Sol. Answer (1)
Aldosterone is the hormone secreted by adrenal cortex and is helpful in the absorption of Na+ from renal
tubules, thereby increasing the Na+ ion concentration in the blood.
31. Micturition is
(1) Removal of faecal matter (2) Removal of NH3
(3) Removal of urea (4) Removal of urine
Sol. Answer (4)
Micturition : Voiding of urine form the urinary bladder.
Defaecation / Egestion : Removal of faecal matter
Deamination : Removal of NH3
32. The excretory structure of Amphioxus (Cephalochordate) is
(1) Flame cell/Solenocyte (2) Coxal gland
(3) Malpighian tubules (4) Green gland
Sol. Answer (1)
• Flame cells/Solenocytes – Amphioxus (Cephalochordates)
• Coxal gland – Crustaceans
• Malpighian tubules – Insects
• Green gland – Crustaceans
33. Blood which leaves liver and passes towards heart has higher concentration of
(1) Bile (2) Oxygen (3) RBCs (4) Urea
Sol. Answer (4)
Blood that leaves liver and passes to the heart has high concentration of urea because urea is synthesised
in the hepatocytes.
34. Which of the following is excretory product of liver?
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Bilirubin
(3) Biliverdin (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Bilirubin and biliverdin are the excretory product of the liver formed by the destruction of Haemoglobin which
are secreted in the bile.

35. Sweat contains

(1) NaCl (2) Lactic acid (3) Small amount of urea (4) All of these

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 33
Sol. Answer (4)
Sweat contains :
• Salt e.g., NaCl
• Lactic acid
• Small amount of urea
(Disorders of the Excretory System)
36. As compared to plasma, all are the constituents of dialysis fluid, except
(1) NaCl (2) Glucose (3) Amino acid (4) Urea
Sol. Answer (4)
Urea is absent in the dialysing fluid because urea needs to be excreted out of the blood while other
constituents are present in the dialysing fluid viz the solutes and electrolytes.

37. The condition of accumulation of urea in blood is termed as

(1) Uremia (2) Diuresis (3) Glycosuria (4) Haematuria
Sol. Answer (1)
Uremia : Condition of accumulation of urea in the blood.
Diuresis : Increased excretion of urine.
Glycosuria : Excretion of glucose in the urine.
Haematuria : Presence of blood in the urine.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Human Excretory System)
1. The parts of nephron situated in cortical region of kidney are
(1) Loop of Henle, PCT and collecting duct
(2) Collecting duct, PCT and malpighian corpuscle
(3) PCT, DCT and Loop of Henle
(4) PCT, DCT and Malpighian corpuscle
Sol. Answer (4)
Cortex : PCT, DCT, malpighian body.
Medulla : Loop of Henle.

2. On an average, ______ ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute which constitute roughly ______ of
the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute.
(1) 500–600, 1/5th (2) 1100–1200, 1/3rd (3) 500–600, 1/3rd (4) 1100–1200, 1/5th
Sol. Answer (4)
1100–1200 ml of blood/min; 1/5th of the blood pumped out by each ventricle.
3. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting
into calyces
(2) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle
(4) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron are
situated in the cortical region of kidney

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34 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Inside kidney, cortical region that extends in between the medullary region are known as columns of Bertini.
4. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(1) Uricotelic – Birds
(2) Ureotelic – Insects
(3) Ammonotelic – Bony fishes
(4) Ureotelic – Elephant
Sol. Answer (2)
Insects are uricotelic.
5. A fresh water fish maintains osmoregulation by
(1) Continuously taking in water and eliminating excess of salts
(2) Eliminating excess of water and taking up salts from the environment
(3) Taking both water and salt from the environment
(4) Eliminating both salt and water into the environment
Sol. Answer (2)
Osmoregulation in fresh water fish occurs by
(i) Continuously passing out dilute urine.
(ii) Uptake of salt due to loss of ions from the body.
6. Consider the following water conservation mechanisms
A. Nasal countercurrent mechanism B. Dependence on metabolic water
C. Highly hypertonic urine D. Living more on protein rich diet
The kangaroo rat living in desert can survive without drinking water because of
(1) A, B & C (2) A, B & D
(3) B, C & D (4) A, C & D
Sol. Answer (1)
Nasal counter current mechanism, utilisation of metabolic water and passing out of hypertonic urine are
adaptation of conservation of water in kangaroo rat.
7. Select the true statement
(1) In fishes kidney play a major role in ammonia excretion
(2) Ammonia is 100,000 times less toxic than urea
(3) Sharks retain a large amount of urea in the blood as a major osmolyte to balance the osmolarity of the
body fluids
(4) Most terrestrial reptile excrete ammonia
Sol. Answer (3)
Most terrestrial reptiles excrete uric acid.
• In fishes gills play a major role in excretion of nitrogenous waste by diffusion.
• Urea is less toxic than ammonia by 1,00,000 times.
• Shark retains urea and TMAO to maintian the osmolarity.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 35
8. The kidneys not only remove the waste products from the blood but also play a very important role in
maintaining
(1) Equilibrium of the body
(2) Temperature of the body
(3) Constant composition of the blood irrespective of the nature of the food or fluid intake
(4) Blood pressure constant
Sol. Answer (3)
Kidneys also maintain the osmolarity by excretion of excess salts or uptake of salts from filtrate.

9. Which of the following is correct?

(1) Afferent arteriole is narrower than the efferent arteriole
(2) Efferent venule is narrower than vein
(3) Efferent arteriole is narrower than afferent arteriole
(4) Both afferent and efferent arteriole are of same diameter
Sol. Answer (3)
Efferent arteriole is narrower than the afferent arteriole to add to the glomerular filtration pressure for ultrafiltration.
(Urine Formation, Functions of the Tubules and Mechanism of Concentration of the Filtrate)

10. Which of the following defines the net filtration pressure (NFP)?
(1) BCOP – (GHP + CHP) (2) GHP – (BCOP + CHP)
(3) (BCOP + GHP) – CHP (4) (GHP – CHP) + BCOP
Sol. Answer (2)
NFP = GHP – (BCOP + CHP)

Glomerular Capsular Hydrostatic

Filtration Pressure
Pressure
Glomerular Hydrostatic
Pressure

Blood Colloidal
Osmotic Pressure
11. Henle’s loops are found in those animals which excrete hypertonic urine. One of the following does not have
Henle’s loop
(1) Birds (2) Mammals (3) Frogs (4) Reptiles
Sol. Answer (3)
Frogs are aquatic and have mesonephric kidney and they excrete out dilute urine.
Loop of Henle is absent.

12. Concentration of sodium and chloride ions is lowest

(1) Near the cortex (2) Deep in medulla
(3) In the interstitial fluid (4) In the middle of Henle’s loop
Sol. Answer (1)
Near the cortex osmolarity of the region is 200–300 mOsmL–1 which increases down the medulla upto
1200 mOsmL–1. Hence, Na+ and Cl– ion concentration is lowest in the cortical region.

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36 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

(Regulation of Kidney Function)

13. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) ADH is a vasoconstrictor (2) Aldosterone facilitates water reabsorption
(3) ANF enhances sodium reabsorption (4) ANF causes vasodilation
Sol. Answer (3)
ANF (antinatriuretic factor) secreted by heart which facilitates Na+/salt excretion in opposition to the increase
in blood pressure/GFR.

14. Which one influences the activity of kidney?

(1) Vasopressin (2) Thyroxine
(3) Vasopressin and aldosterone (4) Gonadotrophin
Sol. Answer (3)
Vasopressin and aldosterone influence the activity of kidney.

15. Angiotensin - II increases the blood volume by

(1) Signalling PCT to reabsorb more NaCl and water (2) Stimulating adrenal gland to release aldosterone
(3) By stimulating the release of ADH (4) More than one option is correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Angiotensin II stimulates :
(i) Adrenal gland → Aldosterone → Uptake of Na+ from DCT and collecting duct.
(ii) Signalling PCT to absorb more water.

16. When the volume of body fluid falls below normal, ADH
(1) Decreases permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
(2) Increases permeability of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule
(3) Has nothing to do with permeability of convoluted tubule
(4) Decreases permeability of proximal convoluted tubule
Sol. Answer (2)
Increase in the permeability of DCT and collecting duct known as conditional reabsorption of water regulated
by amount of ADH.

(Micturition and Disorders of the Excretory System)

17. The yellow colour of urine is due to
(1) Uric acid (2) Urea (3) Urochrome (4) Melanin
Sol. Answer (3)
Yellow colour is due to urochrome – a degradation product of bile pigments - bilirubin and biliverdin.
18. Vitamin excreted by urine in higher vertebrates is
(1) A (2) D
(3) K (4) C
Sol. Answer (4)
Vitamin C being water soluble excreted out in urine; vitamin A, D, E and K are fat soluble and stored in liver.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 37
19. The presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine are indicative of
(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Diabetes insipidus (3) Renal calculi (4) Glomerulonephritis
Sol. Answer (1)
• In diabetes, the excretion of glucose is due to imbalance in glucose metabolism due to absence or
deficiency of insulin.
• Due to deficiency of glucose inside the cells, cells hydrolyse fats and proteins, leading to formation of
ketone bodies.
20. Haematuria is the disorder involving
(1) The loss of blood through the urine (2) Loss of haemoglobin in RBC
(3) Loss of glucose in urine (4) The increase in concentration of blood urea
Sol. Answer (1)
The loss of blood in the urine – Haematouria.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
a. Ultrafiltration (i) Henle's loop
b. Concentration of urine (ii) Ureter
c. Transport of urine (iii) Urinary bladder
d. Storage of urine (iv) Malpighian corpuscle
(v) Proximal convoluted tubule [NEET-2018]
(1) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
Sol. Answer (2)
Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine particles having molecular weight less than 68,000 daltons through
malpighian corpuscle.
Concentration of urine refers to water absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result of hyperosmolarity in the
medulla created by counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop.
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder through ureter.
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of urine.

2. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II
a. Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints
b. Gout (ii) Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
c. Renal calculi (iii) Inflammation in glomeruli
d. Glomerular nephritis (iv) Presence of in glucose urine [NEET-2018]
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
Sol. Answer (3)
Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the urine. This is observed when blood glucose level rises above
180 mg/100 ml of blood, this is called renal threshold value for glucose. Gout is due to deposition of uric acid
crystals in the joint.
Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium phosphate produced in the pelvis of the kidney.
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory condition of glomerulus characterised by proteinuria and haematuria.

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38 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

3. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of [NEET-2017]

(1) Renin (2) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
(3) Aldosterone (4) ADH
Sol. Answer (2)
A decrease in blood pressure / volume stimulates the release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH while increase
in blood pressure / volume stimulates the release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which cause vasodilation
and also inhibits RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) mechanism that decreases the blood volume/
pressure.

4. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Distal convoluted tubule (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(3) Bowman's capsule (4) Descending limb of Henle's loop
Sol. Answer (2)
Proximal convoluted tubule is involved in active reabsorption of sodium.

5. Human urine is usually acidic because [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate
(2) The sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular capillaries
(3) Excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(4) Potassium and sodium exchange generates acidity
Sol. Answer (1)

6. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in [AIPMT-2015]
(1) No urine formation (2) More diluted urine
(3) More concentrated urine (4) No change in quality and quantity of urine
Sol. Answer (2)
PCT is lined by simple brush border cuboidal epithelium which increases the surface area for reabsorption.

7. Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Atrial-natriuretic factor (2) Alcohol (3) Caffeine (4) Renin
Sol. Answer (4)
Renin increases the blood volume and therefore does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine.

8. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Increase in aldosterone levels (2) Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels (4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels
Sol. Answer (1)
Hormone aldosterone released by adrenal gland induces the distal parts of tubule to reabsorb more Na+.

9. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70-80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in
which part of the nephron? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (2) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle (4) Distal convoluted tubule
Sol. Answer (1)
PCT has brush border epithelium.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 39
10. Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of animals according to the type of
nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C) they eliminate? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

A (Ammonotelic) B (Ureotelic) C (Uricotelic)

(1) Pigeon, Humans Aquatic Amphibia, Lizards Cockroach, Frog

(2) Frog, Lizards Aquatic Amphibia, Humans Cockroach, Pigeon

(3) Aquatic Amphibia Frog, Humans Pigeon, Lizards, Cockroach

(4) Aquatic Amphibia Cockroach, Humans Frog, Pigeon, Lizards

Sol. Answer (3)

Uricotelic : Pigeons, cockroach, lizards
Ureotelic : Humans
Ammonotelic : Amphibians (larva)

11. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Posterior pituitary to release vasopressin (2) Juxtra glomerular cells to release renin
(3) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone (4) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
Sol. Answer (2)
A fall in the GFR stimulates the JG cells to release renin which results in the conversion of inactive
angiotensinogen to angiotensin-II which is a vasoconstrictor.

12. Which one of the following is not a part of a renal pyramid? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Loops of Henle (2) Peritubular capillaries
(3) Convoluted tubules (4) Collecting ducts
Sol. Answer (3)
Convoluted tubules : Proximal convoluted tubules (PCT) and distal convoluted tubules (DCT) are present in
cortex while rest are in medulla which comprises renal pyramids.

13. Which one of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Afferent arteriole: carries the blood away from the glomerulus towards renal vein.
(2) Podocytes: Create minute spaces (slit pores) for the filtration of blood into the Bowman's capsule.
(3) Henle's loop: most reabsorption of the major substances from the glomerular filtrate
(4) Distal convoluted tubule: reabsorption of K+ ions into the surrounding blood capillaries
Sol. Answer (2)
Slit-pores are present in the podocytes (present on the visceral epithelium of Bowman's capsule of Nephron).
14. Uricotelic mode of passing out nitrogenous wastes is found in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Insects and Amphibians (2) Reptiles and Birds
(3) Birds and Annelids (4) Amphibians and Reptiles
Sol. Answer (2)
Uricotelic : Reptiles, insects, birds.
Ammonotelic : Aquatic insects, amphibians (larva).

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40 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

15. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed
(2) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
(3) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release
(4) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II
Sol. Answer (2)
• During summer when body loses a lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is increased.
• Exposure of cold temperature decreases the release of ADH.
• Decrease in glomerular blood flow stimulates the formation of angiotensin-II.

16. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to electrolytes
(2) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to water
(3) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of reabsorbing HCO3
(4) Nearly 99 percent of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
Sol. Answer (4)
Nearly 99% of glomerulus filtrate is reabsorbed by renal tubules as kidney filters 180 L/day of blood while
excretes only 1–1.5 L of urine daily.

17. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) In the liver, but eliminated mostly through kidneys
(2) In kidneys, but eliminated mostly through liver
(3) In kidneys as well as eliminated by kidneys
(4) In liver and also eliminated by the same through bile
Sol. Answer (1)
Nitrogenous waste produced in liver through urea cycle but eliminated in kidneys.

18. In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Humans – Kidneys, sebaceous glands and tear glands
(2) Earthworm – Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia
(3) Cockroach – Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca
(4) Frog – Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium
Sol. Answer (2)

19. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the urinary bladder wall are totally removed ?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Micturition will continue (2) Urine will continue to collect normally in the bladder
(3) There will be no micturition (4) Urine will not collect in the bladder
Sol. Answer (3)
No micturition will occur. As stretch receptor signals cortex to empty the bladder when half filled.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 41
20. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Macula densa cells (2) Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(3) Liver cells (4) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Angiotesinogen is secreted by liver cells i.e., hepatocytes.

21. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) 20 mm Hg (2) 75 mm Hg (3) 30 mm Hg (4) 50 mm Hg
Sol. Answer (1)

22. In Ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are removed from the blood? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Urea and urine (2) Ammonia and urea (3) CO2 and ammonia (4) CO2 and urea
Sol. Answer (3)
Ornithine cycle removes - CO2 and NH3

23. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities of:
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Fats (2) Ketones (3) Amino acids (4) Glucose
Sol. Answer (2)
Ketones are the breakdown of proteins like aceto-acetic acid during fasting. During fasting the energy source
deflects in the cytoplasm, so proteins and fats are broken down leading to formation of ketone bodies.

24. Two animals in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the form of uric acid are
(1) Birds and lizards (2) Frogs and cartilaginous fishes
(3) Insects and bony fishes (4) Mammals and mollusc
Sol. Answer (1)
Uricotelic : Birds and lizards
Ureotelic : Frogs and cartilaginous fishes
Ammonotelic : Molluscs

25. Uricotelism is found in

(1) Mammals and birds (2) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
(3) Birds, reptiles and insects (4) Frogs and toads
Sol. Answer (3)
Uricotelic - Birds, reptiles and insects.
Ureotelic - Mammals, frogs and toads.
Ammonotelic - Fresh water protozoans and fishes.

26. A terrestrial animal must be able to

(1) Excrete large amount of water in urine (2) Conserve water
(3) Actively pump salts out through the skin (4) Excrete large amounts of salts in urine
Sol. Answer (2)
Conservation of water is the evolutionary trait of terrestrial animals.

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42 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

27. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of
(1) Frog (2) Man (3) Earthworm (4) Cockroach
Sol. Answer (4)
Uricotelic : Cockroach
Ammonotelic : Frog
Ureotelic : Man, earthworm (in unfavourable condition uricotelic)
28. If an osmoconformer animal is placed in sea water then
(1) It will develop ionocytes to actively absorb the salts from outside
(2) It will develop a thick body cover to prevent entry of excess of water
(3) It will start passing diluted urine
(4) It will change osmolarity of its body fluid
Sol. Answer (4)
Osmoconformers change the osmolarity of their body fluid while osmoregulators do not change their
osmolarity.
29. Contractile vacuole to pump out excess of water is found in
(1) Fresh water protozoans (2) Marine protozoans
(3) Parasitic protozoans (4) Lower chordates
Sol. Answer (1)
Fresh water protozoans contain contractile vacuoles to pump out excess water.
30. In ureotelic animals, urea is formed by
(1) Kreb’s cycle (2) EM pathway (3) Ornithine cycle (4) Cori’s cycle
Sol. Answer (3)
Ornithine cycle/urea cycle
• Kreb Henseleit cycle : Elimination of urea.
• EM pathway/Kreb's cycle : Degradation of PA or metabolism of glucose to produce ATP.
• Cori's cycle : Between liver and muscle involving storage of glycogen.
31. Arginase enzyme will be operating at which step of the ornithine cycle?
(1) Ornithine → Urea (2) Arginine → Ornithine
(3) Ornithine → Citrulline (4) Citrulline → Arginosuccinate
Sol. Answer (2)
Arginase
Arginine ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Ornithine
Argininosuccinate
Citrulline ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Synthase
→ Argininosuccinate
Ornithine
Ornithine ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Transcarboniylase
→ Citrulline

32. Uric acid is produced by metabolism of

(1) Adenine (2) Guanine (3) Cytosine (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Uric acid is produced by metabolism of purines.
33. Which out of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of single uriniferous tubule?
(1) Distal convoluted tubule (2) Collecting duct
(3) Bowman’s capsule (4) Loop of Henle
Sol. Answer (2)
Collecting duct is not part of uriniferous tubules. Only the Bowman's capsule, PCT, loop of Henle and DCT
which forms collectively the uriniferous tubules in nephrons.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 43
34. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. PCT (i) Functions in Na+ & K+ haemostasis
b. Descending loop of Henle (ii) Permeable to NaCl but impermeable to water
c. Ascending loop of Henle (iii) Permeable to water but not to salt
d. DCT (iv) Reabsorbing about 90% of the important buffer HCO3– from filtrate
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
Sol. Answer (3)
35. Brush border surface is the distinct feature of which of the following part of nephron?
(1) PCT (2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(3) DCT (4) Collecting duct
Sol. Answer (1)
• Bowman's capsule → Simple squamous epithelium
• Proximal convoluted tubule → Brush bordered simple cuboidal epithelium
• Descending limbs of loop of henle → Squamous epitheilum
• Ascending limb of loop of henle → Simple cuboidal epithelium
• Distal convoluted tubule → Simple cuboidal epithelium
36. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to urea
(2) DCT functions in K+, Na+ homeostasis
(3) Descending limb is impermeable to water
(4) Loop of Henle is largely responsible for concentrating urine
Sol. Answer (3)
Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
37. Hypertonicity of filtrate is minimum at
(1) Base of loop of henle (2) Inner most part of medulla
(3) Outer part of medulla (4) Cortical region
Sol. Answer (4)
Hypertonicity is minimum at the cortex region (30 mOsmL–1) while osmolarity/hypertoxicity is maximum at
the deep medulla region (1200 mOsmL–1).
38. As the glomerular filtrate courses the tubules, its composition and osmotic concentration changes, due to tubular
reabsorption. Which of the following is incorrect match regarding the segment of nephron and osmotic concentration
of filtrate?
Segment of nephron Osmotic concentration of filtrate
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule Isotonic to blood plasma
(2) Descending limb of Henle’s loop Hypertonic
(3) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop Hypotonic
(4) Bowman’s capsule Hypotonic
Sol. Answer (4)
The filtrate of the Bowman's capsule is isotonic to the blood.
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44 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

39. Concentration of urine depends upon which of the following?

(1) Bowman’s capsule
(2) Length of Henle’s loop
(3) PCT
(4) Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus
Sol. Answer (2)
Concentration of urine depends on the loop of Henle. The animals which need to conserve water have longer
loop of Henle.
40. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected ?
(1) There will be no urine formation
(2) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(3) The urine will be more concentrated
(4) The urine will be more dilute
Sol. Answer (4)
Loop of Henle is concerned with the concentration of urine. Absence of loop of Henle results in passing out
of dilute urine.
41. Which of the following changes can occur in response to increased Angiotensin-II level?
(1) Increase in the glomerular hydrostatic pressure (GHP)
(2) Inhibition of aldosterone
(3) Decrease in the GFR
(4) Decrease in BCOP
Sol. Answer (1)
Increase in GFR occurs in response to Angiotensinogen-II by :
(i) Uptake of more Na+ inside
(ii) Rendering release of aldosterone
42. Which one is mainly responsible for absorption of Na+ in the PCT part of nephron?
(1) Angiotensin-II (2) Angiotensin-I
(3) Aldosterone (4) Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF)
Sol. Answer (1)
43. In response to decrease in blood volume and blood pressure which of the following do not occur?
(1) Secretion of renin (2) Secretion of aldosterone
(3) Secretion of vassopressin (4) Secretion of ANF
Sol. Answer (4)
In response to increase in blood pressure on the atrial wall, ANF is secreted and thereby decreases GFR.
44. Which of the following is not a feature of cortical nephrons?
(1) These are more common, approximately 85% of nephrons
(2) Their glomeruli are in outer cortex
(3) Their loop of Henle extend to a short distance into the medulla
(4) They are associated with vasa recta
Sol. Answer (4)
Vasa recta is absent in corticol nephron.

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Solution of Assignment Excretory Products and their Elimination 45
45. A condition of failure-of kidney to form urine is called
(1) Anuria (2) Deamination (3) Entropy (4) Uraemia
Sol. Answer (1)
Anuria : Absence of urination.
Deamination : Removal of ammonia
Entropy : A term releated to the state of matter.
Uraemia : Condition of presence of urea in blood.
46. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
(1) Less amino acids in his urine
(2) More glucose in his blood
(3) Less urea in his urine
(4) More sodium in his urine
Sol. Answer (3)
Less urea in the urine is due to absence of the protein rich diet which on digestion results in arrival of amino
acids to hepatocytes and consequently urea synthesis.
47. Which of the following is not present in sweat?
(1) Amino acid (2) NaCl (3) Lactic acid (4) Uric acid
Sol. Answer (4)
Uric acid is not excreted in sweat while urea, amino acid, lactic acid, glucose, salts etc. are excreted out.
48. Body fluids of sharks and coelocanths can be termed as
(1) Hyperosmotic and hypoionic to sea water (2) Hyperosmotic and hyperionic to sea water
(3) Hyposmotic and hypotonic to sea water (4) Hyposmotic and hyperionic to sea water
Sol. Answer (1)
Hypertonic by hypoionic to sea water due to conservation or storage of osmolytes and loss of salts.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Pregnant women may show some presence of glucose in their post prandial urine although they have no
diabetes.
R : In pregnant women the glomerular filtration rate is slightly increased. As a result the tubular load of glucose
exceeds the tubular maximum for glucose reabsorption.
Sol. Answer (1)
In post prandial urine glucose is more in pregnant woman as GFR increases and tubular load exceeds the
absorption limit.
In order to increase the glucose availability to the foetus, the glucose concentration of plasma glucose level is
high.
2. A : Atrial Natriuretic factor is released by wall of atria.
R : It inhibits the release of renin from Juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Sol. Answer (2)
ANF released by atria in response to increase in blood pressure and volume followed by inhibition of renin
formation.
3. A : Inner wall of Bowman’s capsule is lined with specialized cells - podocytes having a number of projections.
R : These projections increases the surface area for absorptions.
Sol. Answer (3)
Podocytes are present in the inner wall of the Bowman's capsule. Prodocytes projection is to limit the size of
filtrate solutes.

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46 Excretory Products and their Elimination Solution of Assignment

4. A : Kidneys are retroperitoneal in position.

R : Kidneys are covered with peritoneum only on ventral surface.
Sol. Answer (1)
Kidneys are fused to the dorsal wall, so peritoneum covers only the ventral side. This is called retroperitoneal
arrangement of kidney.
5. A : Uric acid is produced by metabolism of purine and pyrimidine.
R : Uric acid has high toxicity and soluble in water.
Sol. Answer (4)
Uric acid is formed from purine and is least toxic and insoluble in water.
6. A : In the descending limb of loop of Henle, the urine is hypertonic, while in ascending limb of loop of Henle,
the urine is hypotonic.
R : Descending limb is impermeable to Na+, while ascending limb is impermeable to H2O.
Sol. Answer (1)
Desending loop of Henle is permeable to water, so hypertonic filtrate is there while ascending loop of Henle is more
permeable to salt and thus hypotonic filtrate is there.
7. A : The final reabsorption of water from urine into blood occurs through the collecting duct of a mammalian
nephron, resulting in the production of hyperosmotic urine.
R : The loop of Henle is responsible for the formation of a sodium gradient across the depth of the medullary
intersitium of a mammalian kidney.
Sol. Answer (2)
Reabsorption of filtrate occurs in collecting duct while loop of Henle forms sodium gradient by being selectively
permeable to salts in different parts of the loop of Henle.
8. A : Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thrist of water.
R : Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is synthesized by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
Sol. Answer (3)
ADH is synthesized by neurosecretory cells of Hypothalamus in posterior lobe of pituitary.
9. A : Inulin is used in testing kidney function especially glomerular filtration.
R : Inulin is a fructan storage polysaccharide.
Sol. Answer (2)
Inulin is a fructan storage polysaccharide and is not metabolised in human body and completely excreted out. So,
used in testing of kidney failure.
10. A : Tubular secretion is of considerable importance in marine teleost fishes.
R : These have aglomerular kidney i.e., no filtration occurs and tubular secretion is the only way of excretion.
Sol. Answer (1)
Tubular secretion is of considerable importance in teleosts as they have aglomerular kidney.
Their adaptation is so as to release less urine while excretion of excess salts out.

  

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Chapter 7

Locomotion and Movement

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Movements of Body Parts)
1. The movements which results in change of place or location constitutes
(1) Locomotion (2) Protoplasmic streaming
(3) Vital movement (4) Elasticity
Sol. Answer (1)
Locomotion : The movement that results in change of place on location.
Protoplasmic streaming : Due to movement of protoplasm, pseudopodial movements in case of organisms
like amoeba are able to move.

2. Amoeba shows movement with help of

(1) Pseudopodia (2) Flagella (3) Cilia (4) Muscle
Sol. Answer (1)

Amoeba is unicellular organism in which movement occurs due to pseudopodia.

3. __________ circulates blood to different parts of the body.

(1) Peristaltic movement of oesophagus (2) Pumping of heart
(3) Peristaltic movement of intestine (4) Ciliary movement of oviduct
Sol. Answer (2)
 Pumping of heart is necessary for the circulation of blood to different parts of the body.
 Peristalsis is necessary for conduction of food in alimentary canal.

 Ciliary movement of oviduct conducts ovum through it.

4. The two cells of the body which show pseudopodial movement are
(1) RBC and WBC (2) WBC and macrophages
(3) Liver cell and WBC (4) Macrophages and liver cell
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48 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Neutrophils (WBC) and macrophages show pseudopodial movement.

5. Which of the following structures contract and relax rhythmically to produce movement?
(1) Flagella (2) Cilia (3) Muscles (4) Pseudopodia
Sol. Answer (3)
Muscles have the capibility to contract and relax rhythmically to help in movement.

(Locomotion and Muscles)

6. Which of the following is not a function of locomotion?

(1) Procurement of food (2) Finding mate
(3) Peristaltic movements (4) Searching and building of shelter
Sol. Answer (3)
Locomotion helps in procurement of food, finding of mate and searching and building of shelter. Peristalsis
movement in alimentary canal or oviduct helps in condition of food and ovum through them, respectively.

7. The muscle is a specialised tissue which is originated from

(1) Endoderm (2) Mesoderm (3) Ectoderm (4) Yolk sac
Sol. Answer (2)
Specialised tissue such as muscle, bones and cartilage are originated from mesoderm.

8. The specialised cells that make the muscular tissue are

(1) Neuroblast (2) Osteoblast (3) Osteocytes (4) Myocytes
Sol. Answer (4)
Myocytes : muscle cells
Osteoblast : bone forming cells
Osteocytes : bone cells
Neuroblast : neurons forming cells
Neuroblast : an embryonic cell that develops into a nerve cell or neuron.

9. A human body contains how many muscles?

(1) 640 (2) 639 (3) 600 (4) 700
Sol. Answer (2)

10. A collagenous connective tissue layer hold the muscle bundles together.
(1) Perimysium (2) Endomysium (3) Epimysium (4) Fascia
Sol. Answer (4)
The collagenous connective tissue that holds the muscle together is known as fascia.

11. A bundle of muscle fibre is called

(1) Fascia (2) Glenoid cavity (3) Myocyte (4) Fasciculus
Sol. Answer (4)
A single bundle of muscle fibres is known as fasciculus (plural : fasciculi).

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 49
12. The sheath covering the bundle of muscle fibres is
(1) Epimysium (2) Endomysium (3) Perimysium (4) Mesoderm
Sol. Answer (3)
 The sheath that covers the muscle is epimysium.
 Mesoderm – germ layer
 The sheath that covers the muscle fibre is endomysium.

13. Tendons connects

(1) Muscle to bone (2) Bone to vertebral column
(3) Bone to bone (4) Bone to cartilage
Sol. Answer (1)
Tendons : Connects muscles to bones.
Ligament : Connects bone to bone.

14. The plasma membrane of the muscle fibre is called

(1) Sarcoplasma (2) Sarcolemma
(3) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (4) Syncytial
Sol. Answer (2)
Sarcolemma : Plasma membrane of the muscle fibre
Sarcoplasma : Cytoplasm of muscle fibre
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum : Endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibre.
Syncytial : A cell having multiple nuclei assumed to be formed by fusion.

15. The dark band present on myofibril is

(1) Isotropic band (2) Anisotropic band (3) Hensen’s zone (4) M-line
Sol. Answer (2)
The dark band present on the must fibre is known as Anisotropic band which is consists of myosin and actin
both.

16. M-line passes through the centre of

(1) Z-disc (2) I-band (3) HMM (4) H-zone
Sol. Answer (4)
M-line is the dark line made of fibrous tissue which holds the thick myofilament together is found in the lighter
zone known as H-zone.

17. The structural and functional unit of myofibril which contracts to cause movement is called
(1) Sarcolemma (2) Sarcomere (3) Fascia (4) Myosin
Sol. Answer (2)
The structural and functional unit of myofibril is known as sarcomere which is the section between two Z-lines.

18. A sarcomere consists of

(1) One A-band and one I-band
(2) Half A-band and two half I-band
(3) Half A-band and one I-band
(4) One A-band and two half I-band

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50 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (4)

A sarcomere is the zone between two Z-lines.
Z line
A band I band

H zone
Sarcomere

19. Which of the protein is not a part of thin myofilament?

(1) Myosin (2) Actin (3) Troponin (4) Tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (1)
Thick myofilaments : myosin
Thin myofilaments : actin, tropomyosin, troponin.

(Mechanism of Muscle Contraction and Muscle Relaxation)

20. The monomeric protein which polymerises to form myosin is
(1) Actin (2) Meromyosin (3) Tropomyosin (4) Troponin
Sol. Answer (2)
Meromyosin is the monomer of myosin.

21. Select the correct option

(1) HMM = Tail + Short arm (2) LMM = Tail + Head
(3) HMM = Head + Short arm (4) LMM = Head
Sol. Answer (3)
HMM = head + short arm
LMM = tail

22. ATP binding site is located on the

(1) Tropomyosin (2) Actin (3) Myosin (4) Troponin
Sol. Answer (3)
ATP binding site is located on the myosin head where ATPase is present.

23. The anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle causes deposition or accumulation of

(1) Gluconic acid (2) Lactic acid
(3) Pyruvic acid (4) Hydrochloric acid
Sol. Answer (2)
Due to anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle, deposition of lactic acid takes place which results in fatigue
of muscles.

24. 80% of the lactic acid is converted to _______ in the liver.

(1) Cellulose (2) Acetyl CoA (3) Glycogen (4) Starch

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 51
Sol. Answer (3)
80% of the lactic acid is converted to glycogen in the liver. The whole phenomenon is known as 'Cori's cycle'.

Muscle Energy
glycogen

Muscle
lactic acid

Blood
Glucose Cari's Cycle

Blood
lactic acid

Liver
glycogen Liver
(80%)
lactic acid

20% oxidised to CO2 + H2O

(Joints and Disorder of Muscular and Skeletal System)

25. Muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of
(1) CO2 (2) Myosin ATPase (3) Lactic acid (4) Creatine phosphate
Sol. Answer (3)
Muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic oxidation of glucose.

(Skeletal System)

26. Number of floating ribs are

(1) 2 pairs (2) 12 pairs (3) 7 pairs (4) 3 pairs

Sol. Answer (1)

 Floating ribs : 2 pairs, 11th and 12th
A rib is said to be floating if it does not attach to the sternum or to another rib.
 True ribs : First seven pair of ribs attach to the sternum (breast bone) in front are known as true ribs.
 False ribs : Lower 3 pair of ribs do not directly connect to the sternum and are connected with 7th rib.

27. The number of bones present in the skeleton that runs along the middle longitudinal axis of the body is
(1) 87 (2) 90 (3) 80 (4) 78
Sol. Answer (3)

28. Cranium protects the brain is made up of

(1) 9 bones
(2) 18 bones
(3) 28 bones
(4) 8 bones

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52 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (4)

Cranium (8) — Frontal (1)
Parietal (2)
Temporal (2)
Occipital (1)
Ethmoid (1)
Sphenoid (1)

29. Head of humerus articulates with _________ cavity

(1) Glenoid (2) Acetabulum (3) Foramen magnum (4) Obturator foramen

Sol. Answer (1)

Head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity present in the scapula.

30. Match the following

Column-I Column-II

a. Incus (i) Hammer shaped

b. Malleus (ii) Stirrup shaped

c. Stapes (iii) Anvil shaped

(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

Sol. Answer (4)

31. The U-shaped bone present at the base of buccal cavity is

(1) Skull (2) Hyoid (3) Incus (4) Stapes

Sol. Answer (2)

The unpaired U-shaped bone upon which the tongue rests is known as hyoid bone.

32. The longest bone of the thigh is

(1) Phalanges (2) Tarsal (3) Femur (4) Metatarsal

Sol. Answer (3)

The longest bone of thigh is 'Femur'.

33. Match the following

Column I Column II

a. Tarsal (i) 14

b. Phalanges (ii) 1

c. Meta tarsal (iii) 7

d. Femur (iv) 5

(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 53
Sol. Answer (1)
Tarsal – 7, (talus, calcaneum navicular, cuboid, 3rd cuneiform, 2nd cuneiform 1st cuneiform)
Phalanges – 14, (3 in each finger other than toe which has 2)
Meta tarsal –5
Femur –1
34. The joint present between radius and ulna is
(1) Gliding joint (2) Saddle joint (3) Pivot joint (4) Angular joint
Sol. Answer (3)
Pivot joint : One bone rotates around another
e.g., radius over ulna
Gliding joint : Two bones can glide over each other, surfaces are flat or curved
e.g., wrist / tarsal bone
Saddle joint : The convex end of one bone fixes into the saddle like depression of the other bone
e.g., human thumb and carpals.
Angular joint : Allows movement is two planes
e.g., between metacarpals and phalanges.

35. In Myasthenia gravis ________ is affected.

(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum (2) Sarcolemma
(3) Neuromuscular junction (4) T-tubules
Sol. Answer (3)
In myasthenia gravis, neuromuscular junction is affected. It is an autoimmune disease in which the antibodies
attack and block the acetylcholine receptors at the post synaptic membrane inhibiting the excitatory effects
of neurotransmitter.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Muscles)
1. Select the true statement
(1) A band is present in the middle of sarcomere (2) H zone is present in the middle of A - band
(3) M line is present in the middle of H - zone (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Z line
A band I band

H zone
Sarcomere

 A band is present in the middle of the sarcomere.

 H-zone is present in the middle of the A-band
 M-line is present in the middle of H-zone.

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54 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

2. In one of the following functions white muscles are not used

(1) Moving of eye balls
(2) Fast and strenuous work for short duration
(3) For sustained work at a slow rate for a prolonged duration
(4) Fast flights as in sparrows
Sol. Answer (3)
White muscle fibres contract very fast and for a shorter duration. So, it is helpful in :
 Movement of eye balls
 Fast and strenuous work for short duration
 Fast flights as in sparrow.

It is not found in the muscles required for contraction at a slow pace and for prolonged duration.

3. The backward bending of the shank is worked out by

(1) Gluteus maximus (2) Quadriceps femoris muscles
(3) Adductor group of muscles (4) Gastrocnemius and hamstrings
Sol. Answer (4)
 Adductor group of muscles – helps in bending of limbs towards mid-line of body.
 Gluteus maximus – in upper thigh for movement.
 Quadriceps femoris – biggest muscle; present in thigh for extension.

4. Which one is not the character of red skeletal muscle?

(1) Smaller diameter (2) More mitochondria
(3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum (4) More blood capillaries
Sol. Answer (3)
In red muscle fibres, less sarcoplasmic reticulum is found but more mitochondria, blood capillaries and smaller
diameter than white muscle fibres.

5. Which of the following is an example of multiunit smooth muscles?

(1) Smooth muscle in uterine wall (2) Smooth muscle with the intestine
(3) Masseter muscle of the jaw (4) Arrector pili muscle of skin
Sol. Answer (4)
Multiunit smooth muscles fibre : The smooth muscle cells in an organ, behave independently (each cell
contracts and relaxes on its own).
e.g., Vascular smooth muscle
Single unit smooth muscle : Cells are interconnected; all contract as a single unit.
e.g., GI tract
Urinogenital tract.

6. Least blood supply will be present in case of

(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle (3) Cardiac muscle (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Least blood supply is found in case of smooth muscle fibre while abundant in smooth muscle fibre as well
as cardiac muscle fibre.

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 55
7. Which of the following muscles are not under the voluntary control of nervous system?
(1) Pharynx (2) Urinary bladder
(3) Anterior end of oesophagus (4) Tongue
Sol. Answer (2)
In urinary bladder involuntary smooth muscle fibres are present.
Pharynx, oesophagus and tongue are under the voluntary control.

(Mechanism of Muscle Contraction and Muscle Relaxation)

8. During muscle contraction in a skeletal muscle fibre, Ca2+ combines with
(1) TPT (2) TPC (3) TPI (4) Tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (2)
The Ca2+ ions combines with troponin C of the troponin complex and changes the configuration of the complex
resulting in the opening of the myosin bunding site of actin.

TpT
2+
Ca

TpC TpI

TpT
TpC TpI

9. The contraction of muscle of shortest duration is seen in

(1) Jaws (2) Eye lids (3) Heart (4) Intestine
Sol. Answer (2)
The contraction is faster and for a shorter duration is in white muscle fibre.
e.g., eyelids.

10. In a contracted skeletal muscle fibre

(1) M line disappears (2) H-zone elongates
(3) I-band remains constant (4) A-band disappears
Sol. Answer (1)
In a contracted muscle fibre, following happens –
 H-zone shortens
 I-band shortens
 A-band remains constant.

11. One of the following ions is essential for muscular contraction

(1) Na+, Ca++ (2) Mg++, Ca++ (3) Mg++, K+ (4) K+, Na+
Sol. Answer (2)
Mg2+, Ca2+ ions are necessary for muscular contraction.
2+
Mg
 G - actin ⎯⎯⎯→ F - actin
 Ca2+ binds to the TpC and displaces troponin complexes, making myosin binding site free.

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56 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

12. The potential difference across the membrane of a relaxed muscle fibre is called resting potential. It amounts
to about
(1) –70 mV (2) 50 mV (3) 100 mV (4) 50-100 mV
Sol. Answer (1)
The resting membrane potential is –70 mV. Which is due to negative charge inside and positive charge outside
the neuronal membrane.
13. Cori cycle involves
(1) Liver (2) Muscles
(3) Liver and muscles both (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Cori's cycle involves liver and muscles both as organs which is mediated by blood.

(Skeletal System)

14. Foramen magnum is associated with which bone?

(1) Frontal (2) Parietal (3) Temporal (4) Occipital
Sol. Answer (4)
Foramen magnum found in the occipital bone, is a passage through which medulla oblongata connects with
the spinal cord.

15. Tongue bone is

(1) Mandible (2) Hyoid (3) Flat bone (4) Coccyx
Sol. Answer (2)
Hyoid bone : is also known as tongue bone because tongue is attached to this single bone.
Mandible : Jaw bone
Coccyx : tail bone

16. Number of anterior curves present with human vertebral column is

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 1
Sol. Answer (1)
In total four curves are present in the vertebral column, out of which 2 are anterior.

Cervical curve

Thoracic
curve

Lumbar curve
Sacral curve

17. The heaviest and largest vertebrae are

(1) Thoracic (2) Lumbar (3) Cervical (4) Sacral
Sol. Answer (2)
The heaviest and largest vertebrae is lumbar vertebrae.

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18. Type of vertebrae in case of human is
(1) Amphiplatyan (2) Procoelus (3) Amphicoelus (4) Heterocoelus
Sol. Answer (1)
Humans have amphiplatyan types of vertebrae.
Anterior
⎫
⎬ Amphiplatyan
⎭
Posterior
Procoelus Amphicoelus Heterocoelus
Anterior Dorsal
anterior
Ventral
Dorsal
e.g., typical vertebra of
th Posterior
lizard, frog and snake e.g., fishes, 8
vertebrae of frog
Ventral
e.g., birds

19. Deltoid ridge is found in which one of the following bones?

(1) Radius (2) Tibia (3) Femur (4) Humerus
Sol. Answer (4)
Deltoid ridge is found is humerus.

Head of humerus Greater tuberosity

Lesser tuberosity

(Articulates with
glenoid cavity)
Deltoid ridge (Deltoidius muscle attached)

Median side Lateral side

Trochlea
Coronoid fossa
Median condyle Lateral condyle

20. Olecranon fossa is present with

(1) Radius (2) Ulna (3) Humerus (4) Femur
Sol. Answer (3)
Olecranon fossa is present in the humerus.

Olecranon
fossa

Posterior view
of humerus

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58 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

21. Phalangeal formula for the hand is

(1) 23333 (2) 33333 (3) 33322 (4) 32333
Sol. Answer (1)
Phalangeal formula of hand is 23333, 2 phalangeal bones in thumb while rest fingers contain 3 phalangeal bones.

22. Obturator foramen is enclosed between

(1) Ilium, ischium and pubis (2) Ischium and pubis
(3) Ilium and ischium (4) Ilium and pubis
Sol. Answer (2)
Obturator foramen is found in the coxal bone, enclosed between ilium, ischium and pubis.

Ilium

Acetabulum

Ischium Obturator Foramen

Pubis

23. Which of the following are involved in the formation of acetabulum?

a. Ilium
b. Ischium
c. Pubis
(1) a & b only (2) b & c only (3) a & c only (4) a, b & c
Sol. Answer (4)
Acetabulum is formed by ilium, ischium and pubis.

24. Mark the odd one w.r.t. girdle bones

(1) Clavicle (2) Ischium (3) Ileum (4) Pubis
Sol. Answer (3)
Ileum is a part of small intestine.

(Joint and Disorder of Muscular and Skeletal System)

25. Which one of the following is a viral disease that weakens the muscles?
(1) Atrophy (2) Poliomyelitis
(3) Dystrophy (4) Muscular hypertrophy
Sol. Answer (2)
Poliomyelitis is caused by poliovirus which weakens the muscles.
Atrophy in a condition in which there is degeneration of muscles, it may occur due to cancer, AIDS, COPD
etc.
Dystrophy is due to inability to produce dystrophin and is a genetic disorder.
Muscular hypertrophy is increase in size of the cells. e.g. in case of body builders.

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SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it [NEET-2018]
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
(4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
Sol. Answer (1)
• Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level many folds in the sarcoplasm.
• Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin (troponin "C") which is masking the active site on actin filament
and displaces the sub-unit of troponin.
• Once the active site is exposed, head of the myosin attaches and initiate contraction by sliding the actin
over myosin.
2. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of [NEET-2017]
(1) Fibrous joint (2) Cartilaginous joint (3) Synovial joint (4) Saddle joint
Sol. Answer (3)
Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of synovial
joint which provide rotational movement as in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral column.
3. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values
of X and Y and provides their explanation [NEET-2017]
(1) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum
(2) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends
(3) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
(4) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side
Sol. Answer (1)
In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which 7 pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally to vertebral
column and ventrally to the sternum.
4. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle
contraction. [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium (3) Sodium (4) Potassium
Sol. Answer (1)
Calcium ions bind with TpC unit of troponin which is responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for
crossbridge activity during muscles contraction.
5. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue
(2) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+
(3) Decreased level of estrogen
(4) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints
Sol. Answer (3)
Osteoporosis in aged female after menopause is due to decreased level of estrogen.
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6. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as [NEET-2016]
(1) Tonus (2) Spasm (3) Fatigue (4) Tetanus
Sol. Answer (4)
Sustained muscle contraction due to repeated stimulus is known as tetanus.
7. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Locomotion (2) Production of erythrocytes
(3) Storage of minerals (4) Production of body heat
Sol. Answer (4)

8. Which of the following joints would allow no movement? [Re-AIPMT-2015]

(1) Ball and Socket joint (2) Fibrous joint (3) Cartilaginous joint (4) Synovial joint
Sol. Answer (2)

9. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as [AIPMT-2015]

(1) When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten while Actin filaments do not shorten
(2) When myofilaments slide pass each other Actin filaments shorten, while Myosin filament do not shorten
(3) Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other
(4) Actin and Myosin filaments do not shorten but rather slide pass each other
Sol. Answer (4)
Actin filament slides over thick filament i.e., the myosin filament.

10. Glenoid cavity articulates [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Humerus with scapula (2) Clavicle with acromion
(3) Scapula with acromion (4) Clavicle with scapula
Sol. Answer (1)
Scapula has shallow articular surface called glenoid cavity. This articulates with the head of the humerus to form
the shoulder joint.

11. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with its example in human skeletal system: [AIPMT-2014]
Type of joint Example
(1) Cartilaginous joint – Between frontal and parietal
(2) Pivot joint – Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
(3) Hinge joint – Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(4) Gliding joint – Between carpals
Sol. Answer (4)
Bones are tightly packed, joint allows movement in only one direction i.e. side to side movement. The articulate
ends of both the bones are flat or curved.

12. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at [AIPMT-2014]

(1) The neuromuscular junction (2) The transverse tubules
(3) The myofibril (4) The sarcoplasmic reticulum
Sol. Answer (1)
The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma is called neuromuscular junction or motor end plate.

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 61
13. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is: [NEET-2013]
Characteristics Examples
(1) Fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion Skull bones
(2) Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement Gliding joint between carpals
(4) Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements Knee joint
Sol. Answer (2)

14. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans: [NEET-2013]
(1) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation.
(2) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae
(3) The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint
(4) A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people
Sol. Answer (1)

15. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to [NEET-2013]

(1) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band
(2) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band
(3) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band
(4) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band
Sol. Answer (2)

16. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts are correctly matched with their respective inclusive
skeletal category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-matching pair [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Pairs of skeletal parts Category
(1) Humerus and ulna Appendicular skeleton
(2) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles
(3) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton
(4) Clavicle and Glenoid cavity Pelvic girdle

Sol. Answer (4)

Clavicle and glenoid cavity are part of pectoral girdle.

17. The type of muscles present in our [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Thigh are striated and voluntary
(2) Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
(3) Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
(4) Intestine are striated and involuntary
Sol. Answer (1)

18. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Gout (2) Tetany
(3) Anaemia (4) Angina pectoris
Sol. Answer (2)
Low Ca2+ leads to tetany. Low level of calcium in the extracellular fluid / blood plasma leads to increase in
the excitability of the excitatory cells i.e., muscles and nerves and thus muscle shows sustained contracted
state known as tetany.
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62 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Gout : due to accumulation of uric acid.

Anaemia : deficiency of iron.
Angina pectoris : pain due to ischaemia due blockage or other reasons.

19. Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

Structures Description

(1) Tibia and fibula – Both form parts of knee joint

(2) Cartilage and cornea – No blood supply but do require

oxygen for respiratory need

(3) Shoulder joint and elbow joint Ball and socket type of joint

(4) Premolars and molars – 20 in all and 3 rooted

Sol. Answer (2)

20. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint
(2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
(4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates
Sol. Answer (1)
The parietal bone and temporal bones are connected with fibrous joint.
– First vertebra is atlas
– 9th and 10th ribs comes under false ribs
– Glenoid cavity is found in the pectoral girdle.

21. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
(2) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle
(3) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
(4) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
Sol. Answer (3)

22. Which one of the following is the correct matching of three items and their grouping category?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
Items Group
(1) Ilium, ischium, pubis – Coxal bones of pelvic girdle
(2) Actin, myosin, rhodopsin – Muscle proteins
(3) Cytosine, uracil, thiamine – Pyrimidines
(4) Malleus, incus, cochlea – Ear ossicles

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Sol. Answer (1)
(a) Malleus, incus and stapes are ear ossicles
(b) Cytosine and uracil are pyrimidine and thiamine is vitamine B1.
(c) Actin, myosin are muscle proteins while rhodopsin optoproteins.
(d) Malleus and incus ear ossicles while cochlea is the 'internal ear' the membrous structures.

23. Elbow joint is an example of: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Hinge joint (2) Gliding joint (3) Ball and socket joint (4) Pivot joint
Sol. Answer (1)
Elbow joint : is an example of hinge joint which allows movement in only one plane.
Pivot joint : allows movement of bones in one plane e.g. joint below elbow between radius and ulna.
Gliding joint : allows side to side movement e.g. wrist and tarsal.

24. Which one of the following items gives its correct total number? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Cervical vertebrae in humans -8 (2) Floating ribs in humans -4
(3) Amino acids found in proteins - 16 (4) Types of diabetes -3
Sol. Answer (2)
(a) Cervical vertebra –7
(b) Amino acids – 20
Diabetes insipidus
(c) Types of diabetes
Diabetes mellitus

25. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs (2) Floating ribs - 2 pairs
(3) Collar bones - 3 pairs (4) Salivary glands - 1 pair
Sol. Answer (2)
Floating ribs – 2 pairs
Collar bones (clavicles) – 1 pair
Salivary gland – 3 pairs
Cranial nerve – 12 pairs.

26. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Myosin
(3) α-Actinin (4) Troponin
Sol. Answer (2)

27. An acromian process is characteristically found in the : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Pelvic girdle of mammals (2) Skull of frog
(3) Pectoral girdle of mammals (4) Sperm of mammals
Sol. Answer (3)

28. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones
(2) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae
(3) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
(4) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the successive vertebrae
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64 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (4)

Skull joint : fibrous joint
Between adjacent vertebrae : cartilaginous / amphiarthious joint
Phalanges : Absence of fibrous / synarthrous joint.

29. Which of the following are the regulatory protein in the muscle contraction?
(1) Troponin and tropomyosin (2) Troponin and actin
(3) Myosin and tropomyosin (4) Actin and tropomyosin
Sol. Answer (1)
Troponin and tropomyosin are the regulatory proteins of muscle contraction. Tropomyosin, the fibrous protein
inhibits actinmyosin binding.
TpI : inhibits actin myosin binding
2
Troponin TpC : binds with Ca
TpT : binds with tropomyosin

30. Source of Ca2+ for muscle contraction is both sarcoplasmic (endoplasmic) reticulum as well as extracellular fluid
in case of
a. Skeletal muscles
b. Smooth muscles
c. Cardiac muscles
(1) a only (2) b and c only (3) a and c only (4) b only
Sol. Answer (2)
Smooth and cardiac muscles have less amount of SR to sequester Ca2+ inside. So major source of Ca2+ is
extracellular fluid. While in case of skeletal muscle fibre Ca2+ is sequestered by Calsequestrin in the sarcoplasmic
reticulum.

31. Which of the following is not applicable to red muscle fibres when compared to white muscle fibres?
(1) Sustained contraction for long periods (2) Rich in myoglobin
(3) Faster in contraction rate (4) Rich in mitochondria
Sol. Answer (3)
In red muscle fibre, contraction rate is slow and for longer period.

32. What is common between the muscle fibers of extensor muscles of human back and those of flight muscles
of the birds which remain in flight for long periods of time?
a. They are thinner, red colored.
b. They are thicker and light colored.
c. They have abundant mitochondria.
d. They have well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.
e. They show slow rate of contractions for longer periods.
f. They show fast strenous activity.
g. They do not get fatigued early.
h. They get fatigued quickly.
(1) a, c, e, g, are common (2) b, d, f, h are common
(3) All features are common at different times (4) a, c, f, g are common

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Sol. Answer (1)
The muscle fibre of extensor muscles of the back and those of flight muscle has red muscle fibres which have
the following characteristic.
(a) thinner and red coloured (b) have abundant mitochondria
(c) less ER (d) show contraction for longer period
(e) show slow strenous activity (f) they do not get fatigued easily.

33. During muscle contraction, which of the following does not occur?
(1) No change in length of anisotrophic band
(2) Decrease in length of isotropic band
(3) No change in length of A band
(4) Decrease in length of actin myofilaments
Sol. Asnwer (4)
During muscle contraction, length of actin or myosin myofilaments does not change.

34. What would happen if ATP suddenly were not available after the sarcomere had started to shorten?
(1) Cross bridges would not be able to detach from actin
(2) Muscle would remain in a state of rigidity
(3) Muscle would relax immediately
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Requirement of ATP is at the time of cross-bridge formation as well as during detachment of actin and myosin.

35. Select the correct match regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout - inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - age related shortening of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis - decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Sol. Answer (4)
Myasthenia gravis : auto immune disorder which leads to destruction of Ach receptors of the myocytes and
thus there is no nerve transmission. Patients becomes weak and paralysis occurs.
Gout : accumulation of uric acid leads to pain and inflammation of joint.
Muscular dystrophy : absence of "dystrophin" protein thus the conduction of nerve impulse from T-tubules
to SR is inhibited.

36. Myasthenia gravis involves weakness of skeletal muscles. Which of the following can act as a primary treatment
of it?
(1) Injection of neurotransmitter acetylcholine (2) Injection of neurotransmitter adrenaline
(3) Injection of acetylcholinesterase inhibitor (4) Taking protein rich diet
Sol. Answer (3)
Injection of acetylcholine esterase inhibitor will lead to inhibition of dissociation of Ach.

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66 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

37. The clavicle articulates with _____ of scapula.

(1) Acromion process (2) Glenoid cavity (3) Acetabulum cavity (4) Ball and socket joint
Sol. Answer (1)
Clavicle articulates with acromion process of scapula.
Clavicle
Acromion process

Pelvic girdle (scapula)

38. Sternum is connected to ribs by

(1) Bony matter (2) White fibrous cartilage (3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Aerolar tissue
Sol. Answer (3)
Hyaline cartilage connects ribs to sternum.

39. Which of the following components is a part of the pectoral girdle?

(1) Sternum (2) Acetabulum (3) Glenoid cavity (4) Ilium
Sol. Answer (3)
Glenoid cavity is a part of pectoral girdle. Ilium and acetabulum are part of pelvic girdle.

40. Total number of bones in limb of a man is

(1) 24 (2) 30 (3) 14 (4) 21
Sol. Answer (2)
Each limb contains 30 bones.

41. Bone formed by the ossification of tendon is called

(1) Sesamoid bone (2) Cartilage bone
(3) Investing bone (4) Replacing bone
Sol. Answer (1)
Sesamoid bone : e.g. patella, formed by ossification of tendon
Cartilage / replacing bone : formed by pre-existing cartilage. e.g. humerus, femur
Investing bone : formed in the dermis of skin then fuse to original cartilage.

42. The joint between atlas and axis is called

(1) Angular joint (2) Hinge joint (3) Pivot joint (4) Saddle joint
Sol. Answer (3)
The joint between altas and axis is called pivot joint. Hence one bone (axis) has a protrusion (odontoid peg)
which fits into depression (fossa) of other atlas.

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Solutions of Assignment Locomotion and Movement 67
43. In which of the following fractures, the bone is broken into more than two fragments, with some of the fragments
losing connection with blood circulation?
(1) Compound fracture (2) Greenstick fracture
(3) Comminuated fracture (4) Simple fracture
Sol. Answer (3)
Greenstick fracture : bones crack but remain together.
Compound fracture : broken / cracked bone protrude out of the skin.
Simple fracture : The bones break into separate parts.

44. Formation of abnormal granules called pannus are secreted by synovial membrane in case of
(1) Osteoarthritis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Gout (4) Osteomyelitis
Sol. Answer (2)
Pannus : are the abnormal granules secreted by the synovial membrane in case of rheumatoid arthritis.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : Maximum movement is possible at the amphiarthroses joint.

R : Such joints are also called Synovial joints and have almost frictionless movement due to synovial fluid.
Sol. Answer (4)
Maximum movement is possible at the 'diarthrose joint'. Also known as synovial or free movable joint.
Amphiarthroses have limited movement.

2. A : Ca2+ play important role in the muscle contraction.

R : Ca2+ combine with troponin chain, displacing tropomyosin allowing the myosin head part to combine with
actin to from actomyosin complex.
Sol. Answer (1)
Ca2+ plays important role in muscle contraction by binding to the TpC of troponin and displacing the troponin
complex to free / expose the actin-myosin binding site.

3. A : On repeated application of stimuli, involuntary striped muscles undergo fatigue.

R : This is due to non-availability of ATP molecules.
Sol. Answer (4)
Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of lactic acid during anaerobic oxidation. Striped muscles are
voluntary.

4. A : All muscles follow ‘All or None’ principle.

R : All muscles contract either fully or not contract at all depending upon threshold stimulus availability.
Sol. Answer (4)
A muscle doesn't follow the 'All or None principle'. How much the muscle contracts depends on how many
muscle fibres are stimulated to contract. So, all muscle fibres follow 'All or None' principle.

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68 Locomotion and Movement Solutions of Assignment

5. A : Tibia is stronger than fibula and is present medially whereas fibula is lateral to tibia and slender bone of
lower leg or shank.
R : Tibia has a sharp crest in the shaft and a projection on the inner side of ankle called lateral malleolus.
Sol. Answer (3)
Tibia has median malleolus and fibula has lateral malleolus.

6. A : In case of gout Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.
R : Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossicification of articular cartilage lead to this.
Sol. Answer (1)
Due to accumulation of uric acid crystals and ossicification of cartilage. Joints become inflammed, immovable
and painful.

7. A : Sella tursica is located in the skull which lodges the pituitary gland.
R : It is a depression present in sphenoid bone.
Sol. Answer (2)
Sella tursica is a depression in the sphenoid bone and posses the pituitary gland.

8. A : Muscle tetanus is the phenomenon of sustained contraction of a muscle due to succession of nerve
impulse/stimuli being received by it.
R : Many of our daily activities are due to tetanic contraction of muscles like holding the book.
Sol. Answer (2)

9. A : Application of stimuli repeatedly just at the start of relaxation of a muscle fibre shows an increase in the extent
of contraction initially and results in treppe or stair case phenomenon.
R : It can be attributed to the summation effect of the sub threshold stimuli being given again and again.
Sol. Answer (3)
When a muscle starts relaxing and then is stimulated to contract by several identical stimuli that are too far apart
for wave summation to occur, each of the first few contractions is a little stronger than the last. This phenomenon
is known as staircase effect or treppe. After the first few contractions, the muscle reaches its peak of performance
and can undergo its strongest contractions.

10. A : Latent period is the interval between the application of appropriate stimulus and initiation of contraction.
R : Latent period is minimum in cardiac muscle fibres.
Sol. Answer (2)
Cardiac muscle have long refractive period so its latent period is minimum.

  

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Chapter 8

Neural Control and Coordination

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Neural System and Human Neural System)

1. Which of the following organ systems jointly coordinate and integrate all the activities of the body organs?
(1) Neural system and sensory system
(2) Digestive system and respiratory system
(3) Neural system and endocrine system
(4) Circulatory system and respiratory system
Sol. Answer (3)
Neural system and endocrine system are the two systems that help in coordination and integration of the
activities of the body organs

2. The somatic neural system relays impulses

(1) From CNS to involuntary organs
(2) From CNS to skeletal muscles
(3) From PNS to smooth muscles
(4) From PNS to voluntary organs
Sol. Answer (2)
Somatic neural system : CNS to voluntary muscles (skeletal)

Autonomic neural system : CNS to involuntary muscles

3. The autonomic neural system is a division of

(1) Sympathetic neural system
(2) Central neural system
(3) Peripheral neural system
(4) Somatic neural system

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Sol. Answer (3)

Nervous system

Central nervous system Peripheral nervous system

Autonomic Somatic Enteric

nervous nervous nervous
system system system

Sympathetic Parasympathetic
nervous nervous
system system

4. Find out the correct statement.

(1) The PNS is the site of information processing and control
(2) All the nerves of the body associated with the PNS comprise the CNS
(3) The autonomic neural system relays impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs of the body
(4) The CNS is divided into two divisions called sympathetic neural system and parasympathetic neural system
Sol. Answer (3)
CNS is the site of information processing centre
CNS and PNS, collectively constitutes the nervous system
The autonomic nervous system can be classified into sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

(Neuron as structural and functional unit of neural system)

5. Cytoplasm with typical cell organelles and Nissl’s granule is present in the
(1) Axon Hillock (2) Cell body (3) Axon (4) Synaptic vesicles
Sol. Answer (2)
Cytoplasm with cell organelles and Nissl's granule is a characteristic of cyton/cell body part of axoplasm but
absent in the axon

6. The Nissl’s granules are present in

a. Cell body
b. Axon
c. Dendrites
d. Glial cells
(1) a only (2) a, b and c
(3) a and c (4) a, b, c and d
Sol. Answer (3)
Nissle's granules are found in the cyton as well as the dendrites but are absent in axon.

7. Multipolar neurons are found in the

(1) Retina of eye (2) Embryonic stage
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Cerebral cortex

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Sol. Answer (4)
Multipolar neurons–cerebral cortex
Bipolar neurons - retina of eye
Unipolar neurons – embryonic stage

8. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is

(1) Nearly impermeable to potassium ions (K+)
(2) Impermeable to positively charged proteins present in the axoplasm
(3) Comparatively more permeable to K+
(4) Completely permeable to sodium ions (Na+)
Sol. Answer (3)
At resting state, axonal membrane is more permeable to K+ ions due to opening of K+ leaky channels

9. The ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the
(1) Ion channels
(2) Sodium-potassium pumps
(3) Electrical synapses
(4) Chemical synapses
Sol. Answer (2)
The ionic gradients across the resting membrane is due to opening of K+ leaky channels but is maintained
because of Na+ K+ pump which continuously pump 3Na+ ions outwards in exchange of 2K+ inwards at the
expense of energy.

10. Action potential is also termed as

(1) Nerve impulse (2) Reflex action
(3) Repolarisation (4) Polarisation
Sol. Answer (1)
The transmission of a nerve impulse called an action potential.

11. On application of a stimulus on the axonal membrane,

(1) There is a rapid influx of K+ at that site
(2) There is a rapid efflux of Na+ at that site
(3) There is a rapid influx of Na+ at that site
(4) There is a rapid efflux of K+ at that site
Sol. Answer (3)
On application of a stimulus on the axonal membrane, there is rapid influx of Na+ ions from outside due to
opening of Na+ voltage gated channels

12. A synapse is formed by

(1) Pre-synaptic membrane (2) Post-synaptic membrane
(3) Synaptic cleft (4) All of these

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Sol. Answer (4)

A synapse is comprised of

(a) Pre–synaptic membrane (B) Synaptic cleft (C) Post-synaptic membrane

13. The receptors of neurotransmitters are present on/in the

(1) Pre-synaptic membrane (2) Synaptic cleft

(3) Post-synaptic membrane (4) Ion channels

Sol. Answer (3)

The neurotransmitters that are released by pre–synaptic membrane and attaches to the receptors that are
present on the post-synaptic membrane

(Central Neural System)

14. Which of the following is/are controlled by the human brain?

a. Balance of the body b. Circadian rhythm of the body

c. Human behaviour d. Functioning of heart and kidneys

(1) Only d (2) a and d (3) a, b and c (4) a, b, c, d

Sol. Answer (4)

Brain controls Balance of the body
Circadian rhythm of the body
Human behaviour
Functioning of heart and kidneys

15. Which of the following meninges is in contact with the brain tissue?
(1) Duramater (2) Arachnoid
(3) Piamater (4) No meninx is in contact with the brain tissue
Sol. Answer (3)
Duramater - Outermost layer of meninx
Piamater - Innermost layer of meninx which is in contact with the brain tissue

16. All of the following are parts of forebrain, except

(1) Cerebellum (2) Corpus callosum (3) Association areas (4) Hypothalamus

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Sol. Answer (1)

Cerebellum is the part of the hind brain, while corpus callosum, association areas and hypothalamus are part
of forebrain

17. The association areas are present in the

(1) Cerebral cortex (2) Corpus callosum (3) Amygdala (4) Hypothalamus

Sol. Answer (1)

Cerebral cortex is comprised of three regions:-

(a) Sensory areas

(b) Motor areas

(c) Association areas (which helps in the association of sensory and moter nerve impulses)

18. The association areas are not responsible for

(1) Intersensory associations (2) Communication

(3) Regulation of sexual behaviour (4) Memory

Sol. Answer (3)

Limbic system is responsible for the regulation of sexual behaviour. Association areas regulate intersensory
association, communication and memory

19. The limbic system is formed by

(1) The hypothalamus, epithalamus, amygdala and hippocampus
(2) Hypothalamus, amygdala and hippocampus
(3) Corpora quadrigemina and hippocampus

(4) Midbrain and hindbrain

Sol. Answer (2)

Limbic system is comprised of hypothalamus, amygdala and hippocampus

20. The part of human brain located between thalamus/ hypothalamus and pons is

(1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain (3) Hindbrain (4) Vestibular apparatus

Sol. Answer (2)

Midbrain is located between thalamus of forebrain and pons of hindbrain

21. The canal passing through the midbrain is called

(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Cerebral aqueduct (3) Eustachian tube (4) Aqueous chamber

Sol. Answer (2)

There is no ventricle in the midbrain, instead a passage is present which connects IIIrd ventricle to the IVrth
ventricle and is known as cerebral aqueduct or iter

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22. In which of the following part of brain, the nerve impulses of sound are analysed?
(1) Visual cortex area (2) Olfactory cortex area
(3) Auditory cortex area (4) Tactile cortex area
Sol. Answer (3)
The auditory signals are analysed in the auditory cortex area present inside the temporal lobe.

(Eye)

23. Which layer of the wall of eyeball looks bluish in colour?

(1) Sclera (2) Cornea (3) Choroid (4) Retina

Sol. Answer (3)
Choroid, that is present in between the retina and sclera, is the highly vascular layer of eye and the choroid
is heavily pigmented because of excess of melanin. This is to prevent the internal reflection in the eyes, to
ensure the image received is not blurred.

24. Eye lens is held in the place by

(1) Muscle fibres of iris (2) Ligaments attached to the ciliary body

(3) A transparent gel called vitreous humor (4) Thin watery fluid called aqueous humor
Sol. Answer (2)
Eye lens are held in position by the suspensory ligaments which are attached to the ciliary body.

25. The order of three layers of cells in the retina from inside to outside is
(1) Bipolar cells → Ganglion cells → Photoreceptor cells
(2) Photoreceptor cells → Ganglion cells → Bipolar cells
(3) Ganglion cells → Bipolar cells → Photoreceptor cells
(4) Photoreceptor cells → Bipolar cells → Ganglion cells
Sol. Answer (3)

26. The retinal blood vessels enter the eye at

(1) Fovea (2) Blind spot (3) Macula lutea (4) Crista
Sol. Answer (2)
The retinal blood vessels enter the eye and the optic nerve leave the eye at blind spot Photoreceptor cells
are absent at the blind spot, hence this spot is known as blind spot.

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Solutions of Assignment Neural Control and Coordination 75
27. The visual acuity is the greatest at

(1) Fovea (2) Blind spot (3) Pupil (4) Ciliary body
Sol. Answer (1)
This area is the thinned out portion of retina where only cones are densely packed. As a result fovea is the
point where the visual acuity (resolution) is greatest and vision is sharpest.

28. Which of the following results in the generation of potential differences in the photoreceptor cells of eyes?
(1) Conversion of retinal into opsin (2) Conversion of opsin into retinal

(3) Dissociation of the retinal from opsin (4) Dissociation of the opsin from retinol
Sol. Answer (3)
Dissociation of retinal from opsin results in the generation of potential difference. When light is absorbed by
rhodopsin, retinal is split from protein and the rod becomes partially bleached. At the same time nerve impulse
is generated

(Ear)

29. The eustachian tube connects_____with the _____.

(1) External auditory canal, middle ear cavity (2) Middle ear cavity, pharynx
(3) External auditory canal, labyrinth (4) Cochlea, larynx
Sol. Answer (2)
Eustachian tube connects middle ear to the pharynx

30. Which of the following is the function of ear ossicles?

(1) To collect the vibrations in the air
(2) To equalise the pressures on either sides of the ear drum
(3) To secrete ear wax

(4) To increase the efficiency of transmission of sound waves to the inner ear

Sol. Answer (4)

Ear ossicles are responsible for amplification of signal due to leverage system of ossicle. Thus, they increase
the efficiency of transmission of sound waves.

31. The membranous labyrinth is surrounded by a fluid called

(1) Perilymph (2) Endolymph
(3) Cerebrospinal fluid (4) Vitreous humor
Sol. Answer (1)

Perilymph surrounds the membranous labyrinth.

32. The lower membrane of the scala vestibuli is the

(1) Tympanic membrane (2) Reissner’s membrane
(3) Basilar’s membrane (4) Tectorial membrane

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Sol. Answer (2)

Tectorial membrane covers the tips of the hair cells.
Basilar's membrane is the lower membrane of cochlea.

33. The scala vestibuli ends at the ______, while the scala tympani terminates at the ______. Find the correct
option.
(1) Scala media, temporal bone (2) Oval window, round window
(3) Pinna, tympanic membrane (4) Eustachian tube, external auditory meatus
Sol. Answer (2)

34. Which of the following act as auditory receptors in the ear?

(1) Semicircular canals (2) Cristae
(3) Hair cells of oragn of corti (4) Saccule and utricle
Sol. Answer (3)
Hair cells are part of sensory structure i.e. organ of corti

35. The stereo cilia are projected from which part of the hair cell?
(1) Basal part (2) Apical part (3) Lateral part (4) Front part
Sol. Answer (2)
Stereo cilia are projected from apical part of the hair cells

36. The components of the vestibular apparatus are

(1) Three semicircular canals and the otolith organs
(2) Organ of Corti and Eustachian tube
(3) Malleus, incus and stapes
(4) Saccule and cochlea
Sol. Answer (1)
Vestibular apparatus is comprised of three circular canals and otolith organs.

37. The hair cells present on the crista ampullaris receive the stimuli of
(1) Audition (2) Change in the body posture
(3) Vision (4) Olfaction
Sol. Answer (2)
The hair cells present on the cristae ampullaris receives stimuli of the change of body posture.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions

(Human Neural System)

1. Paralysis of jaw muscles is due to loss of function of which cranial nerve?
(1) III (2) V (3) VII (4) X
Sol. Answer (2)
The trigeminal nerve (Vth nerve) controls the movement of jaw muscles. Loss of function of this nerve leads
to paralysis of the former muscles.

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2. Which of the following cranial nerves in man is both sensory and motor?
(1) Optic (2) Olfactory (3) Trigeminal (4) Auditory
Sol. Answer (3)
Cranial nerves (12 pairs)

Sensory nerves Motor nerves Mixed nerves

I, II, VIII III, IV, VI, XI, XII (both sensory and motor)
V, VII, IX, X

3. Which of the following cranial nerves are linked with taste buds?
(1) VII & III (2) IX & II (3) IV & VIII (4) VII & IX
Sol. Answer (4)
Facial (VII) nerve and glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve are associated with the taste buds.

4. Smallest cranial nerve of the body is

(1) Trigemminal (2) Abducens (3) Opthalmic (4) Trochlear
Sol. Answer (4)
Trochlear (IV) nerve is the smallest cranial nerve while vagus (X) nerve is the largest cranial nerve.

5. The fourth cranial nerve of man is

(1) Abducens (2) Trochlear (3) Auditory (4) Oculomotor
Sol. Answer (2)
Abducens – VIth cranial nerve
Trochlear – IVth cranial nerve
Auditory – VIIIth cranial nerve
Oculomotor – IIIrd cranial nerve

6. The number of spinal nerves in man is

(1) 31 (2) 62 (3) 12 (4) 24
Sol. Answer (2)
There are 31 pairs (62) of cranial nerves

(Neuron as structural and functional unit of neural system)

7. Pseudounipolar neurons occur in
(1) Pyramidal cells of cerebral cortex (2) Retina of eye
(3) Schneiderian membrane (4) Cells of dorsal root ganglion
Sol. Answer (4)
Pseudounipolar neurons occur in the dorsal root ganglion of the spinal cord.

8. Which of the following act is responsible for the depolarisation of the neuron?
(1) Opening of voltage gated K+ channel (2) Opening of voltage gated Na+ channel
(3) Closure of voltage gated K+ channel (4) Closure of voltage gated Na+ channel

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Sol. Answer (2)

The depolarisation of the neuron is due to the opening of Na+ channels due to which inner membrane of the
neuron becomes less negative, henceforth change the membrane potential known as depolarisation.

9. If the inside of membrane becomes more negative it leads to

(1) Depolarisation (2) Repolarisation (3) Hyperpolarisation (4) Polarisation

Sol. Answer (3)

Due to opening of K+ channels for more time, increased K+ outflux, leading to more negative inside membrane.

10. Suppose the terminal ends of axon are in contact with dendrites of four adjacent neurons, the nerve impulse
of the axon will

(1) Travel in all the four neurons

(2) Get distributed in all the four neurons resulting in a weak impulse

(3) Travel only in one neuron which is in closest contact and with the same intensity

(4) Travel in none of the neurons because the impulse travels from dendrites of one neuron into the axon of
another neuron

Sol. Answer (1)

Axon endings in the synapse release neurotransmitters which bind to the post-synaptic membrane, leading
to the transfer of either excitatory on inhibiting signals. So, when the neurotransmitter released by one
presynaptic neuron, strikes on the post–synaptic membrane next to it, nerve impulse will be generated

11. Axon endings release from its synaptic vesicles, a neuro-transmitter substance known as

(1) Acetylcholine (2) Acetylcholinesterases

(3) Inositol-3 phosphate (4) Diacylglycerol

Sol. Answer (1)

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter that is released from the synaptic vesicle.

(Central Neural System)

12. Which part is involved in movement of head to locate and detect the source of a sound?

(1) Superior colliculi (2) Inferior colliculi (3) Pons (4) Medulla oblongata

Sol. Answer (2)

Inferior colliculi is present inside the dorsal wall of the midbrain as the lower two round swelling. Receives
impulse from ears and the muscles of head and control the auditory reflexes.

13. Which part of the brain is like a defense castle controlling moods and plays an important role in emotional
behaviour, such as aggression and remembering fear?

(1) Hippocampus (2) Amygdala (3) Limbic system (4) Thalamus

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Sol. Answer (2)

The emotional reaction such as aggression and fear is controlled by amygdala of the limbic system

Limbic system

Amygdala Hippocampus
(Controls anger and rage) (Controls signals of
smell and memories)

14. The link between paracoel and diocoel is through

(1) Foramina Luschka (2) Foramina Magendie (3) Foramen of Monro (4) Aqueduct of Sylvius
Sol. Answer (3)
Link between paracoel (cerebral hemispheres) and diacoel (diencephalon) is known as Foramen of Monro or
Interventicular foramen.

15. The function of choroid plexus is

(1) To produce lymph (2) To produce blood
(3) To produce cerebrospinal fluid (4) To produce endolymph
Sol. Answer (3)
The function of choroid plexus is to produce carebrospinal fluid present inside the ventricles of brain and the
central canal of spinal cord.

16. Branched tree like structure present in cerebellum is

(1) Arborial (2) Areole (3) Arbor vitae (4) Archenteron
Sol. Answer (3)
Branched tree like, structures that is present in the cerebellum is known as Arbor vitae, which is formed by
white and grey matter.

17. The vomiting centre is situated in

(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (3) Medulla (4) Hypothalamus
Sol. Answer (3)
Vomiting centre is located in the medulla oblongata.

18. End of spinal cord is

(1) Cauda equina (2) Conus terminalis (3) Filum terminalis (4) Funiculus

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Sol. Answer (2)

End of the spinal cord is the conus terminalis.
Filum terminale = Fibrous tissue derived from piamater.
Cauda equina = Number of parallel spinal nerves in hinder part of spinal cord.

19. The activity of which cranial nerve can protect us by warning about harmful chemicals in the air?
(1) V (2) IX (3) VI (4) X
Sol. Answer (1)
V. Trigeminal nerve – Smell (associated with nose)
IX. Glossopharyngeal – Taste and touch movements of Pharynx
VI. Abducens – Rotation of eyeball
X. Vagus nerve – Swallowing
Thus, activity of trigeminal nerve protects us by warning about harmful chemicals in the air

(Classification of sense organs and Taste Receptors)

20. The corpuscles lying deep in dermis and responsible for deep pressure are known as
(1) Pacinian corpuscles (2) Meissner’s corpuscles
(3) Merkel’s discs (4) Ruffini’s endings
Sol. Answer (1)
Pacinian corpuscles are present deep in the dermis and responsible for deep pressure.
Meissner's corpuscles – Gentle pressure
Merkel's discs – Touch
Ruffini's endings – Heat
21. A molecule cannot be tasted or smelled until it has been
(1) Converted into protein (2) Converted into transmitter
(3) Grouped into multimolecular complex (4) Dissolved in a liquid
Sol. Answer (4)
A molecule cannot be tasted or smelled unless it is dissolved in the fluid because the dissolved chemical
comes in contact with the gustato receptors or olfactory receptors to initiate the depolarisation wave which
sends the impulse to the brain for interpretation of the taste sensation. The cilia, hair like receptors that extend
from cells inside the nose, are covered with thin, clear mucus that dissolves odor molecules not already in
vapour form.

22. Total number of taste buds in the human tongue is approximately

(1) 1000 (2) 10,000 (3) 1,00,000 (4) 50,000
Sol. Answer (2)
Total member of tastebuds in human tongue is approximately 10,000

(Eye)

23. When the object is at a distance of more than 6 metres, at that time
(1) Ciliary muscles are fully contracted (2) Convexity of lens is maximum
(3) Eyes are fully relaxed (4) All of these

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Sol. Answer (3)
When object is at a distance of more than 6 metres i.e, have to see the distant object, ciliary muscles are
relaxed and suspensory ligaments are contracted leading to decrease in the convexity of lens while the eyes
are relaxing.

24. In old age, the vision of eye becomes dim. It is due to

(1) Myopia (2) Hypermetropia (3) Cataract (4) Astigmatism
Sol. Answer (3)
Cataract is a condition, more prevalent in old ages which is due to increase in the opacity of the lenses
Myopia : Eyeball is anterio-posteriorly elongated (Short sightedness)
Hypermetropia : Eyeball is anterio-posteriorly shortened (Farsighted)
Astigmatism : This disorder is due to rough curvature of cornea or lens
Cataract is the most common cause of vision loss in people over age 40 and is a principal cause of blindness
in the world.

25. In hypermetropia, the image is formed

(1) Before retina and is corrected by convex lens (2) Behind retina and is corrected by convex lens
(3) Before retina and is corrected by concave lens (4) Behind retina and is corrected by concave lens
Sol. Answer (2)
In hypermetropia, eyeball is anterio-posteriorly shortened, image is formed behind the retina and is corrected
by convex lens (Converging lens).

Light focussed
Near on retina
object

(A) Normal eye

Near
object Light focussed
behind the retina

(B) Hypermetropic eye

26. In presbyopia
(1) The eye ball becomes short
(2) The lens become opaque
(3) The retina gets damaged
(4) Diminution of accommodation of lens due to loss of elasticity

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Sol. Answer (4)

Presbyopia is a defect in the eyes of old age people due to loss of elasticity of lens and reduced power of
accommodation. Age related changes occur within the protein in the lens, making the lens harder and less
elastic over time. Age related changes also taken place in the muscle fibres surrounding the lens.

27. In myopia, light rays from far off objects converge

(1) Behind the retina (2) In front of the retina (3) On the retina (4) In the retina
Sol. Answer (2)
Myopia : is a defect in which person is able to see the near object while is unable to see the far object. It
is corrected by concave lens (diverging lens) as it is due to elongation of anterio-posterior axis.

light is focussed
far object
on retina

(A) Normal eye

light is focussed
far object
in front of retina

(B) Myopic eye

28. Overproduction of aqueous humour results in

(1) Astigmatism (2) Fovea centralis
(3) Macula lutea or yellow spot (4) Glaucoma
Sol. Answer (4)
Glaucoma is caused by increased intraocular pressure (IOP) either due to increased secretion of aqueous humor
or blockage of the drainage canal which causes damage to the optic nerve.

29. Short sightedness or myopic vision is corrected by wearing

(1) Convex lenses (2) Concave lenses (3) Convex mirrors (4) Concave mirrors
Sol. Answer (2)
Short sightedness or myopia in which the image is formed in front of the retina is corrected by wearing the
diverging on concave lenses

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its functions? [NEET-2018]
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
(3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
(4) Hypothalamus : production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
Sol. Answer (2)
Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls all emotions in our body but not movements.

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2. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by [NEET-2018]
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(2) ligaments attached to the iris
(3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
(4) smooth muscles attached to the iris
Sol. Answer (1)
Lens in the human eye is held in its place by suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary body.
3. Myelin sheath is produced by [NEET-2017]
(1) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes (2) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
(3) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts (4) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial cells which produce myelin sheath in central nervous system while Schwann
cell produces myelin sheath in peripheral nervous system.
4. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on [NEET-2017]
(1) Membranes of synaptic vesicles (2) Pre-synaptic membrane
(3) Tips of axons (4) Post-synaptic membrane
Sol. Answer (4)
Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. The receptors
sites for neurotransmitters are present on post-synaptic membrane.
5. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food. Select the best option from the following
statements [NEET-2017]
(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment
(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (a), (c) & (d) (3) (a) & (c) (d) (b), (c) & (d)
Sol. Answer (2)
Carotene is the source of retinal which is involved in formation of rhodopsin of rod cells. Retinal, a derivative of
vitamin A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual photopigments.

6. Choose the correct statements. [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure
(2) Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors
(3) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response
to the light stimulus
(4) Receptors do not produce graded potentials
Sol. Answer (3)
Photoreceptors (Rod cells) in human eye are depolarised during darkness and become hyperpolarised in
response to the light stimulus.

7. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of [NEET-2016]

(1) Transducin and Retinene (2) Guanosine and Retinol
(3) Opsin and Retinal (4) Opsin and Retinol
Sol. Answer (3)
Rhodopsin is made up of Retinal and opsin.
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8. In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of the visual field, where [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) More rods than cones are found
(2) High density of cones occur, but has no rods
(3) The optic nerve leaves the eye
(4) Only rods are present
Sol. Answer (2)

9. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Integrating impulses (2) Sensory impulses
(3) Voluntary motor impulses (4) Commissural impulses
Sol. Answer (3)

10. A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Organ of corti (2) Cochlea (3) Vestibular apparatus (4) Tectorial membrane
Sol. Answer (3)
Vestibular apparatus is concerned with the maintenance of body balance. Both static as well as the dynamic
balance are maintained by vestibular apparatus.

11. Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Cerebrum-calculation and contemplation
(2) Medulla oblongata-homeostatic control
(3) Cerebellum-language comprehension
(4) Corpus callosum-communication between the left and the right cerebral cortices
Sol. Answer (3)
The most important function of cerebellum seems to be coordinating locomotor actvity in the body.

12. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Short-term memory
(2) Co-ordination during locomotion
(3) Executive functions, such as decision making
(4) Regulation of body temperature
Sol. Answer (4)
Hypothalamus keeps the body temperature at roughly 37°C by means of a complex thermostat system.

13. Which one of the following statements is not correct? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photo pigments
(2) In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments
(3) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin C
(4) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only
Sol. Answer (3)
Retinal is an aldehyde of vitamin A.

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14. Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct
identification along with its functions/characteristics:

C
Lens
B
Iris
A
D
[NEET-2013]
(1) B – Blind spot – has only a few rods and cones.
(2) C – Aqueous chamber – reflects the light which does not pass through the lens.
(3) D – Choroid – its anterior part forms ciliary body.
(4) A – Retina – contains photo receptors – rods and cones.
Sol. Answer (4)

15. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.

C
B

A
[NEET-2013]
(1) B - Synaptic connection, D - K+ (2) A - Neurotransmitter, B - Synaptic cleft
(3) C - Neurotransmitter, D - Ca++ (4) A - Receptor, C - Synaptic vesicles
Sol. Answer (4)

16. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Cerebellum (2) Hypothalamus (3) Spinal cord (4) Corpus callosum
Sol. Answer (1)
The human brain has following different parts :

Thalamus, hypothalamus
(a) Forebrain
Cortex corpus striatum, limbic system
(b) Midbrain - Corpora quadrigemina
(c) Hindbrain - Pons, medulla, cerebellum

17. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Ear ossicles (2) Eustachian tube (3) Organ of Corti (4) Vestibular apparatus
Sol. Answer (4)
Vestibular apparatus is concerned with the balancing and equilibrium of the body.

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18. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the
following is likely to happen in his neuro-hormonal control system? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from adrenal cortex
(2) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from adrenal medulla
(3) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and transmit a nerve impulse
(4) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of brain
Sol. Answer (2)
One seeing a snake, sympathetic nervous system releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal
medulla cells of the adrenal gland.

19. The purplish red pigment rhodopsin contained in the rods type of photoreceptor cells of the human eye, is a
derivative of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B1
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D
Sol. Answer (1)

20. When a neuron is in resting state i.e., not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable to Na+ ions.
(2) Comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
(3) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(4) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Sol. Answer (1)
When neuronal membrane is at resting state it is more permeable to K+ ions while nearly impermeable to Na+
ions making the inside of the neuronal membrane more –ve than outside (+ve) outside.

At resting state : Na+ gated channels are in resting state and K+ gated channels are closed

21. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Thalamus (2) Hypothalamus
(3) Pons (4) Cerebellum
Sol. Answer (2)
Hypothalamus controls the body temperature and urge for eating.

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22. Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function [AIPMT(Mains)-2010]
Structure Location Function
(1) Eustachian tube Anterior part of internal ear Equalizes air pressure on either
sides of tympanic membrane
(2) Cerebellum Mid brain Controls respiration and gastrics
ecretions
(3) Hypothalamus Fore brain Controls body temperature, urge
for eating and drinking
(4) Blind spot Near the place where optic Rods and cones are present but
nerve leaves the eye inactive here
Sol. Answer (3)

23. Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Medulla Oblongata
Sol. Answer (3)
Hypothalamus :-
(a) Regulation of body temperature
(b) Hunger and thirst
(c) Secretion of hormones e.g., oxytocin, ADH etc.

24. Given below is a diagrammatic cross-section of a single loop of human cochlea. Which one of the following
options correctly represents the names of three different parts? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) A – Perilymph, B – Tectorial membrane, C – Endolymph

(2) B – Tectorial membrane, C – Perilymph, D – Secretory cells
(3) C – Endolymph, D – Sensory hair cells, A – Serum
(4) D – Sensory hair cells, A – Endolymph, B – Tectorial membrane
Sol. Answer (1)
(a) Perilymph (b) Tectoral membrane
(c) Endolymph (d) Sensory hair cells on basilar membrane

25. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(2) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(3) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(4) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

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Sol. Answer (1)

During depolarisation/propagation of nerve impulse results from movement of Na+ ions from extracellular fluid
to inside the axolemma

26. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Nucleus and mitochondria (2) Perikaryon and dendrites
(3) Vacuoles and fibers (4) Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Answer (2)

27. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma
membrane has which type of electric charge? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) First positive, then negative and again back to positive
(2) First negative, then positive and again back to negative
(3) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
(4) First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Answer (2)
During resting state the potential of the inner side of the axolemma is negative which during depolarisation
turned +ve due to influx of Na+ ions and during repolarisation turns again –ve due to opening of K+ channels.

28. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
(2) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
(3) Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
(4) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. Answer (2)

29. Bowman’s glands are located in the [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Olfactory epithelium of our nose
(2) Proximal end of uriniferous tubules
(3) Anterior pituitary
(4) Female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Answer (1)

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30. Which one of the following statements is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
(2) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity and nervous system regulates endocrine glands
(3) Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neurons control endocrine activity
(4) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa
Sol. Answer (2)

31. Which one of the following not act as a neurotransmitter? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Acetylcholine (2) Epinephrine
(3) Nor epinephrine (4) Cortisone
Sol. Answer (4)
Cortisone is not secreted by neurosecretory cells; it is secreted by cells of adrenal gland hence they are
hormonal secretions, not neurotransmitters. Acetylcholine, norepinephrine and epinephrine are secreted by the
cyton of neuron and deposited in synaptic vesicles in the synaptic knob to act as neurotransmitter

32. Bowman’s glands are found in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Olfactory epithelium (2) External auditory canal
(3) Cortical nephrons only (4) Juxtamedullary nephrons
Sol. Answer (1)

33. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Movement of the eye ball (2) Swallowing
(3) Movement of the tongue (4) Movement of the neck
Sol. Answer (1)
Abducens (VIth cranial) nerve innervates external rectus muscles of eye, rotation of eyeball.

34. One of the examples of the action of the autonomous nervous system is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Knee-jerk response (2) Pupillary reflex
(3) Swallowing of food (4) Peristalsis of the intestines
Sol. Answer (2)

35. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by degeneration of
brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Acetylcholine (2) Norepinephrine
(3) Dopamine (4) GABA
Sol. Answer (3)
Disease Cause
Parkinson's disease - ↓ Dopamine
Huntington's chorea - ↓ GABA
Alziemer's disease - ↓ Acetylcholine

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36. Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport. This inhibitory effect is reversed by an
injection of ATP. This demonstrates that
(1) ATP is the carrier protein in the transport system (2) Energy for Na+-K+ exchange pump comes from ATP
(3) ATP is hydrolysed by ATPase to release energy (4) Na+-K+ exchange pump operates in the cell
Sol. Answer (2)
Inhibition effect on Na+ efflux and K+ influx during cellular transport was reversed by ATP injection. This shows
that energy from Na+ –K+ exchange comes form ATP.

37. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive
(1) K+ into the cell (2) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
(3) Na+ into the cell (4) Na+ out of the cell
Sol. Answer (3)
In normal conditions the extracellular concentration of Na+ is high so if allowed at resting state the excess
Na+ ions will travel inside down the concentration gradient

38. Alzheimer’s disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of

(1) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (2) Dopamine
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Acetylcholine
Sol. Answer (4)

39. Which cranial nerve has the highest number of branches?

(1) Vagus nerve (2) Trigeminal
(3) Facial nerve (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Vagus nerve (Xth cranial nerve) has the highest number of branches, it supplies the neurons to organs like larynx,
lungs, pharynx, heart, oesophagus, stomach, intestine, blood vessels of abdomen, liver, pancreas, colon.

40. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect

(1) Tongue movements (2) Gastrointestinal movements
(3) Pancreatic secretion (4) Cardiac activity
Sol. Answer (1)
Vagus nerves (X), injury does not affect tongue movement because it does not innervate the tongue.

41. The sympathetic nerves, in mammals, arise from

(1) Sacral nerves (2) 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves
(3) Thoracico-lumbar segments of spinal cord (4) Cervical nerves
Sol. Answer (3)
Sympathetic neurons in mammals arise from thoracico lumbar segments of spinal cord (T1t0L3)

42. Sympathetic nervous system induces

(1) Secretion of digestive juices (2) Increase in heart beat rate
(3) Secretion of saliva (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Secretion of saliva & digestive juices is by parasympathetic nervous system.

43. Post–ganglionic fibre of sympathetic nervous system connected with sweat gland secrete
(1) Adrenaline (2) Epinephrine (3) Acetylcholine (4) GABA
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Sol. Answer (3)
Post ganglionic fibre of sympathetic neurous system connected with sweat gland secrete acetylcholine

44. Which of following is not the action of sympathetic nervous system?

(1) Dilation of pupil (2) Storage of bile in the gall bladder
(3) Constriction of peripheral arteries (4) Contraction in the wall of urinary bladder
Sol. Answer (4)
Contraction in the wall of urinary bladder is controlled by parasympathetic neuron.

45. Which of the following is not the action of sympathetic nervous system?
(1) Slows down peristalsis (2) Erection of hair
(3) Contraction in gall bladder (4) Constrict arteries and raises blood pressure
Sol. Answer (3)
Contraction of gall bladder secretion of bile leading to the digestion of the lipid is a function of parasympathetic
nervous system.

46. Rate of conduction of impulse will be faster in case of

(1) Myelinated nerve fibre (2) Thicker nerve fibre (3) Non-myelinated nerve fibre (4) Both (1) and (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
In myelinated fibre, impulse travesl from node to node.
Rate of conduction of impulse is faster in case of myelinated and thicker neurons.

47. If the ligament directly below the kneecap is struck lightly by the edge of the hand or by a doctor’s rubber hammer,
knee jerk reflex occurs. This stretch reflex is
(1) Polysynaptic (2) Withdrawl (3) Monosynaptic (4) Bisynaptic
Sol. Answer (3)
Knee-jerk reflex is monosynaptic and does not involve interneurons, only single synapse is found.

48. Which of the following is not a part of knee jerk reflex?

(1) Afferent pathway (2) Muscle spindle
(3) Efferent pathway (4) Interneuron
Sol. Answer (4)
Knee jerk reflex is an example of monosynaptic reflex and does not involve interneuron

49. Pacinian corpuscles which occur in the skin are

(1) Free sensory nerve endings
(2) Specialised cells at the end of the sensory nerve fibre
(3) A type of gland
(4) Encapsulated pressure receptors deep in the dermis
Sol. Answer (4)
Pacinian corpuscle : Encapsulated, pressure sensing receptor, present deep in the dermis.
Free sensory nerve endings : Pain

50. Which of the following is located in deeper parts of skin and is sensitive to pressure?
(1) Meissner's corpuscles (2) Merkel’s disc
(3) Pacinian corpuscles (4) Ruffini's corpuscles

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Sol. Answer (3)

Pacinian corpuscle - pressure
Meissner’s corpuscle
Merkel's disc touch

Ruffinis corpuscle - hot/heat

51. Highly vascular and closely inverting protective coat around brain is known as
(1) Arachnoid (2) Piamater (3) Duramater (4) Sub-arachnoid space
Sol. Answer (2)
Piamater - Innermost, highly vascular
Duramater - Outermost, fibrous
Arachnoid - Middle, thin

52. The ability to hear often decreases with age because

(1) The cilia degenerate (2) The hair cell stiffen
(3) The flexibility of the basilar membrane changes (4) The tympanic canal straightens
Sol. Answer (3)
The ability of hearing decreases with age is due to change in flexibility of basilar membrane and is known as
Presbycusis

53. Helicotrema connects

(1) Scala vestibuli and scala tympani filled with endolymph
(2) Scala vestibuli and scala media filled with perilymph
(3) Scala vestibuli and scala tympani filled with perilymph
(4) Scala media and scala tympani filled with endolymph
Sol. Answer (3)
Helicotrema connects scala vestibuli to scala tympani filled with perilymph.

54. Which of the following part in ear is filled with endolymph?

(1) Scala vestibuli (2) Scala tympani (3) Median canal (4) Helicotrema
Sol. Answer (3)
Median canal (scala media) contains endolymph

55. At the time of flight, the pain in the ear is due to

(1) Sound of the engine
(2) Difference in pressure between the middle and inner ear
(3) Difference in pressure between the middle and outer ear
(4) Opening of eustachian tube
Sol. Answer (3)
At the time of flight, at high altitude air pressure difference between outer and middle ear cause pain.

56. The membrane that gives us the ability to discriminate different pitches of sound is the
(1) Round window (2) Tympanic membrane
(3) Tectorial membrane (4) Basilar membrane

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Sol. Answer (4)
The basilar membrane is responsible for identifying various pitches of sound.

The basilar membrane has different flexibility in the proximal (A) to distal (B) position, resulting in sensation
of different pitches.

57. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because

(1) It is a no-living layer (2) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(3) It has no blood supply (4) It is composed of enucleated cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Cornea has no blood supply, so transplant is always successful.

58. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. differences between Rod Cells and Cone Cells of our retina?

Rod Cells Cone Cells

(1) Distribution More concen-trated in Evently distributed all over

centre of retina retina
(2) Visual acuity High Low
(3) Visual pigment Iodopsin Rhodopsin
contained
(4) Overall function Vision in poor light Colour vision and detailed
vision in bright light

Sol. Answer (4)

Rod Cells Cone Cells
(a) Absent in centre of retina i.e, fovea centralis - More concentrated in central part of retina
(b) Visual activity is less - High
(c) Rhodopsnin pigment - Iodopsin
(d) Vision in poor light - Vision in bright light

59. In the chemistry of vision in mammals, the photosensitive substance is called

(1) Rhodopsin (2) Melanin (3) Sclerotin (4) Retinol
Sol. Answer (1)
Rhodopsin is the photosensitive pigment in mammals

60. Which food should be eaten in case of deficiency of rhodopsin in eyes?

(1) Carrot and ripe papayas (2) Guava, Banana
(3) Mango, Potato (4) None of these
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Sol. Answer (1)

Carrot and papaya are rich source of vitamin A (retinol)
oxidises
Retinol ⎯⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ retinal
Retinal is a constituent of rhodopsins
Rhodopsin ⎯⎯
→ retinal + opsin (protein)
Rhodopsin is a visual pigment in mammals

61. When we migrate from dark to light, we fail to see for sometime but after a time, visibility becomes normal.
It is example of
(1) Accommodation (2) Adaptation (3) Mutation (4) Photoperiodism
Sol. Answer (2)
When we move from dark to light,
Rhodopsin ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
dissociation
→ retinal + opsin
Which gives sensation to optic nerve and further to brain for processing. This reaction (above) is not irreversible.
It again combines to form rhodopsin and is known as adaptation.

62. Which of the following keeps our body temperature at roughly 37°C by means of a complex thermostat system?
(1) Somatosensory area (2) Hypothalamus
(3) Basal ganglia (4) Cerebellum
Sol. Answer (2)

Hypothalamus is responsible for maintaining thermostat of the body and keeps temperature of the body at 37ºC.
63. Match the column I with column II
Column-I Column-II
a. Horizontal and amacrine cell (i) Pivot point
b. Incus (ii) Olfactory epithelium
c. Bowman’s gland (iii) Retina
d. Cupula (iv) Crista
(v) Macula
(1) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(v)
Sol. Answer (3)
Horizontal and amacrine cells – retina
Malleus–incus – Pivot joint
Bowman's gland – Olfactory epithelium
Cupula – Crista

64. Human eye is adjusted for distant objects more than 6 m away. For seeing the near objects which of the following
would not occur?
(1) Contraction in circular ciliary muscle (2) Slackening of suspensory ligaments
(3) Radius of curvature of lens decreases (4) Decrease in curvature of the lens

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Solutions of Assignment Neural Control and Coordination 95
Sol. Answer (4)
Lens
For seeing the nearer objects
Object Image
(a) Curvature of lens increases (Near i.e, (6m)
(b) Ciliary body contracts
Ciliary
(c) Suspensory ligament relaxes. body
Suspensory ligament
65. Ora serrata is
(1) Centre point of macula lutea
(2) Area devoid of receptor cells
(3) Area between sensory and non-sensory part of retina
(4) Part of choroid adjacent to retina possessing light reflecting guanine crystals
Sol. Answer (3)
Ora serrata is the section of retina which present between and non-sensory portions

66. The cornea is very important component of the human eye. The main function of it is to
(1) Change the shape of the lens to enable the image to be focused on the retina
(2) Provide structural support to the eye
(3) Absorb the O2 from atmosphere
(4) Refract the light towards the retina, helps in maximum focussing
Sol. Answer (4)
Cornea's primary function is to refract light waves to converge on retina.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A :In the nervous system generation of action potential depends upon influx of sodium ion into axoplasm.
R : Influx of sodium ion during nerve impulse generation is due to efflux of potassium ions.
Sol. Answer (3)
In nervous system generation of acton potential is due to influx of sodium ions. During action potential K+ leaky
channel are closed.

2. A : Presence of myelin sheath increases the rate of conduction of nerve impulse.

R : Ionic channels are absent in the area covered by myelin sheath therefore, depolarization occurs only at
the nodes of Ranvier, resulting in saltatory or jumping conduction.
Sol. Answer (3)
Presence of myelin sheath causes fast conduction ionic channels are less in between nodes of Ranvier and
concentrated more in node of Ranvier.

3. A : Receptors in the tendon, joints give information regarding the position and movements of different parts of
the body.
R : These are termed as noci-receptors.
Sol. Answer (3)
Receptors present in tendon, ligaments joints give information regarding different body parts and called
proprioceptors, Noci-receptors are pain receptors.

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4. A : Sharpest vision is in fovea centralis.

R : The relationship of receptor to bipolar cells to ganglion cells is 1 : 1 : 1 within fovea centralis.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fovea centralis is the area of most acute vision of retina and here the ratio of rods, cones and bipolar cells
and ganglion cells is 1:1:1. This acute vision is due to high number of cones in the fovea centralis.
5. A : Postganglionic nerve fibre of parasympathetic nervous system have acetylcholine while sympathetic nervous
system have adrenaline as the neurotransmitter.
R : Sympathetic nervous system inhibit the intestinal peristalsis while parasympathetic stimulate peristalsis.
Sol. Answer (2)
Postganglionic neurons
Parasympathetic nerves Acetylcholine release
Sympathetic Nerves Epinephrine
Sympathetic system inhibits peristalsis of intestine while parasympathetic system enhances it
6. A : Transmission of the nerve impulse across a synapse is accomplished by neurotransmitters.
R : Transmission across a synapse usually requires neuro-transmitters because there is small space, i.e.,
synaptic cleft, that separates one neuron from another.
Sol. Answer (1)
Transmission of nerve impulses across a synaptic cleft (a small space separating two (10 – 20 mm, neurons),
occurs with the help of neurotransmitters due to presence of space, this is known as chemical synapse while
in the electrical synapse (  5nm) does not require neuro transmitter due to low space.
7. A : Sense organs, do not interpret the stimulus, it is done by brain.
R : Sense organs are transducers. They transform the energy of a stimulus to the energy of nerve impulses.
Sol. Answer (1)
Sense organs act as transducers, they transform the sensation into nerve impulse and transmit via sensory
neuron to the brain where the association and interpretation of the sensation occurs in their respective sensory
areas.
8. A : The imbalance in the concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates the resting potential.
R : To maintain the unequal distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use electrical energy.
Sol. Answer (3)
The imbalance of K+, Na+ and proteins cause resting membrane potential and during resting membrane, the
resting potential is due to transfer of K+ ions down the concentration gradient inside the axolemma and Na+,
voltage gated channels are closed.
9. A : Retina is arranged anatomically in reverse order from what might be expected.
R : The receptor cells are, towards the outside and ganglionic cells towards the inside and light must pass
through the nerve cells to reach them.
Sol. Answer (1)
Retina is arranged anatomically such that light passes through nerves then to inner photosensitive cone and
rod cells
10. A : The brain reaches between 75 and 80 per cent of adult size within the first two years, and its full size at
the age of 6 years.
R : From evolutionary point of view, human gestation period is belived to be shortening.
Sol. Answer (2)
Brain reaches 75 – 80% of adult size by the age of two and full size at the age of 6 year With evolution the
gestation period is believed to be reducing.
  
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Chapter 9

Chemical Coordination and Integration

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Endocrine System)
1. _______ are responsible for chemical coordination.

(1) Neurons (2) Nephrons (3) Hormones (4) Enzymes

Sol. Answer (3)

Control and coordination of the body

Neural coordination Chemical coordination

(Nerves) (Hormones)

2. Neural coordination is
(1) Fast and long lived (2) Fast and short lived
(3) Slow and long lived (4) Slow and short lived
Sol. Answer (2)
Neural coordination via neurous is fast and short lived while chemical coordination via hormones is slow and
lasts longer.

3. The ductless glands

(1) Produce non-nutrient intercellular messengers (2) Found only in non chordates
(3) Are absent in human body (4) Are called exocrine glands
Sol. Answer (1)
Ductless glands are endocrine glands which secrete hormones which are
 Non-nutrient chemicals
 Act as intercellular messengers

 Secreted in trace amounts.

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4. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

(1) Hormones are required in trace amounts

(2) Hormones are intra-cellular messengers

(3) Hormones are secreted by endocrine glandular cells

(4) Hormones are secreted in response to a particular stimulus

Sol. Answer (2)

Hormones are secreted in trace amounts and act as inter-cellular messengers.

(Human Endocrine System)

5. Which of the following glands are present in the brain?

(1) Parathyroid gland and thyroid gland (2) Pituitary gland and thymus

(3) Hypophysis and pineal gland (4) Pineal gland and thymus

Sol. Answer (3)

Parathyroid and thyroid gland – located at the site of trachea

Thymus gland – located on dorsal side of heart and the aorta.

6. The two glands located in the neck region are

(1) Thyroid gland and parathyroid gland (2) Pituitary gland and pineal gland

(3) Adrenal gland and thymus (4) Pineal gland and thyroid gland

Sol. Answer (1)

Thyroid and parathyroid gland – neck region

Pituitary gland and pineal gland – brain gland

Adrenal gland – over kidney

Thymus gland – dorsal surface of heart.

7. Hypothalamus forms an important link between

(1) Digestive system and nervous system

(2) Nervous system and respiratory system

(3) Nervous system and endocrine system

(4) Integumentary system and reproductive system

Sol. Answer (3)

Hypothalamus forms an anatomical and physiological link between nervous system and endocrine system.

– Hypothalamus is connected to pituitary gland through infundibulum and is located in the basal part of
(diencephalon) forebrain.

– Hypothalamus contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce hormones.

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Solutions of Assignment Chemical Coordination and Integration 99
8. The neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus which produce hormones are called
(1) Nephrons (2) Nuclei (3) Granular cells (4) Globular cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Nephrons – Unit of excretory system.
Nuclei – Nuclei consists of compact clusters of neurous. Neurosecretory nuclei of hypothalamus secrete
hormones.
Granular cells – Granular cells are small neurous, present in various parts of the brain, they have smallcell-
bodies.

9. Hypothalamic hormones directly regulate the synthesis and secretion of

(1) Thyroid hormones (2) Pituitary hormones (3) Adrenal hormones (4) Parathormone

Sol. Answer (2)

Hypothalamic hormones directly regulate the synthesis and secretion of pituitary gland which further regulates
the synthesis and secretion of hormones of other glands like thyroid hormones adrenal hormones and
parathormones etc.

Pituitary glands secretes two types of hormones

Trophin Inhibin
(Excitatory) (Inhibitory)

10. Somatostatin inhibits the release of

(1) Prolactin (2) Melanin (3) Thymosin (4) Growth hormone

Sol. Answer (4)

Somatostatin is also known as growth hormone inhibitory hormones (GHIH) which inhibits the release of growth
hormone.

11. GnRH stimulates _______ to release _______.

(1) Hypothalamus, gonadotropins (2) Pituitary gland, gonadotropins

(3) Pituitary gland, growth hormone (4) Hypothalamus, growth hormone

Sol. Answer (2)

GnRH hormone secreted by hy hypothalamus gland stimulates the release of FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
and LH (Leuteinising Hormone) by the pituitary gland.

12. Which of the following is under the direct control of neurosecretory cells?
(1) Pars distalis and pars intermedia (2) Pars intermedia and pars nervosa

(3) Pars nervosa only (4) Pars distalis only

Sol. Answer (3)

The hormones that are released from part nervosa are – Oxytocin and ADH. The hormones are secreted by
the neurosecretory nuclei that are present is the hypothalamus. The axons extend upto the pars nervosa where
the hormones are secreted.

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100 Chemical Coordination and Integration Solutions of Assignment

13. The neuroendocrine structure is

(1) Hypothalamus (2) Adrenal cortex
(3) Pancreas (4) Thyroid
Sol. Answer (1)
The neuroendocrine structure is hypothalamus which is considered as the connecting link between the nervous
system and endocrine system.

14. Adenohypophysis in humans consists of two portions

(1) Pars distalis and Pars nervosa
(2) Pars intermedia and Pars distalis
(3) Pars nervosa and Pars intermedia
(4) Anterior and posterior pituitary
Sol. Answer (2)

Pituitary glands

Adenohypophysis Neurohypophysis

Pars distalis Pars intermedia Pars nervosa

15. Which of the following hormones is not released by pars distalis, in frog?
(1) Growth hormone
(2) Prolactin
(3) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(4) Luteinizing hormone
Sol. Answer (3)

MSH in frogs is secreted by pars intermedia.

16. Melanocyte stimulating hormone in frog is released by

(1) Hypothalamus (2) Pars nervosa (3) Pars distalis (4) Pars intermedia
Sol. Answer (4)

MSH in frogs is secreted by pars intermedia.

17. The hormone which promotes protein anabolism, absorption of calcium from the bowel and retards use of blood
glucose for ATP production
(1) Melatonin (2) Adrenaline (3) Growth hormone (4) Insulin
Sol. Answer (3)
Growth hormone regulates the growth of the body. Hence, it promotes protein anabolism, intestinal absorption
of Ca2+ and conservation of glucose thus retards the use of blood glucose for ATP production.

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Solutions of Assignment Chemical Coordination and Integration 101
18. Dwarfism occurs when there is
(i) Over secretion of growth hormone (ii) Under secretion of growth hormone
(iii) Over secretion of somatostatin (iv) Under secretion of somatostatin
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) Only (ii) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
Sol. Answer (3)
Dwarfism : Is the stunted growth due to premature stoppage of body growth and reduced development of
skeleton. The dwarfism occurs before puberty. The causes of dwarfism is :

(a) Under secretion of growth hormone

(b) Over secretion of somatostatin.

19. Which of the following hormones is responsible for gigantism?

(1) Growth hormone (2) Somatostatin
(3) Adrenaline (4) GnRH
Sol. Answer (1)
Gigantism : Over secretion of growth hormone before puberty causes gigantism.
Gigantism is the extraordinary growth in height caused by abnormal elongation of long bones is the childhood.

Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of growth hormone.

20. Prolactin activates

(1) Growth of breasts and secretion of milk in mammary glands
(2) Secondary sexual characters in males
(3) Melatonin secretion
(4) Estrogen secretion
Sol. Answer (1)
 Growth of breasts and secretion of milk in mammary glands – Prolactin
 Secondary sexual characters in males – LH (Leuteinising Hormone)
 Melatonin secretion – MSH (Melonocye stimulating hormone)

 Estrogen secretion – FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone).

21. ACTH controls the secretion of

(1) Insulin (2) Norepinephrine
(3) Epinephrine (4) Glucocorticoids
Sol. Answer (4)
ACTH controls the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the adrenal cortex.
 ACTH acts by binding to the ACTH receptors, which are located primarily on adrenocortical cells of the
adrenal cortex.
 Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are secreted by adrenal medulla.
 Insulin is secreted by pancreas.

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102 Chemical Coordination and Integration Solutions of Assignment

22. If ‘X’ is a hormone which controls the carbohydrate metabolism in the body and ‘Y’ is a hormone which controls
the secretion of ‘X’, then ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
(1) Insulin and somatotrophin (2) Aldosterone and growth hormone
(3) Glucocorticoid and ACTH respectively (4) Glucocorticoid and GHRH
Sol. Answer (3)
Carbohydrate metabolism is regulated by glucocorticoid released by adrenal cortex of adrenal gland and
secretion of glucocorticoid is stimulated by ACTH.

 Somatotrophin regulates the release of GH.

 Aldosterone regulates the water and electrolyte balance in the body.
 GHRH secreted by hypothalamus stimulates the release of growth hormone from the pituitary gland.

GnRH LH
23. X ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Y ⎯⎯⎯ →Z

The glands which are represented as X, Y and Z are

(1) Pituitary gland, ovary and testis, respectively
(2) Hypothalamus, adrenal gland and liver, respectively
(3) Hypothalamus, pituitary gland and testis/ovary, respectively
(4) Pituitary gland, thyroid gland and parathyroid gland, respectively
Sol. Answer (3)
GnRH LH
Hypothalamus ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → pituitary gland ⎯⎯⎯ → testes/ovary.

24. In females, LH stimulates _______ in the ovary to secrete _______.

(1) Graafian follicle, ICSH respectively
(2) Graafian follicle, prolactin respectively
(3) Corpus luteum, FSH respectively
(4) Corpus luteum, progesterone respectively
Sol. Answer (4)
In females LH stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
 Graafian follicles are stimulated by FSH or follicle stimulating hormones and stimulates the development
of follicles and oocyte.

25. Graafian follicle gets converted into _______ after ovulation under the effect of _______.
(1) Corpus callosum, GnRH
(2) Corpus luteum, LH
(3) Corpus albicans, FSH
(4) Ovarian follicle, prolactin
Sol. Answer (2)
Graafian follicle get converted ino corpus luteum after ovulation which occurs under the effect of LH
(luteinising hormone).

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26. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. neurohypophysis?
(1) Neurohypophysis is also called pars nervosa
(2) It synthesises two hormones, oxytocin and vasopressin
(3) It receives neurohormones directly from neurosecretory cells
(4) It comprises 25% portion of pituitary gland
Sol. Answer (2)

Neurohypophysis releases oxytocin and vasopressin which is synthesised by the hypothalamus.

27. P is a small, round, reddish structure located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It contains a stalk and releases
a hormone Q which controls diurnal rhythm of the body. P and Q are
(1) Hypothalamus, MSH respectively
(2) Pineal gland, melanin respectively
(3) Pineal gland, melatonin respectively
(4) Pituitary gland, MSH respectively
Sol. Answer (3)
Pineal gland is a small, round reddish structure located on the dorsal side of forebrain. It releases the hormone
called melatonin which controls the diurnal rhythm of the body.

Light reduces melatonin formation and hence maintains the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.

28. A hormone which maintains BMR, regulates the metabolism of proteins and erythropoiesis is
(1) Adrenaline (2) Thymine (3) Thyroxine (4) Thymosin
Sol. Answer (3)
Thyroxine : hormone maintains the BMR, regulates the metabolism of proteins and erythropoiesis.
Adrenaline : hormone initiates the stress response.
Thymine : is a nitrogenous base which is present in the DNA.

Thymosin : is a hormone of the thymus gland and it stimulates the development of disease fighting T-cells.

29. Cretinism can be prevented or cured by the administration of

(1) Renin (2) Aldosterone (3) Glucagon (4) Thyroxine
Sol. Answer (4)
Cretinism can be prevented by the administration of thyroxine because cretinism is caused by failure of thyroid
gland secretion which slows body growth.

30. A gland X is present over the surface of another gland Y, latter secretes a hormone that controls the metabolism
of proteins, fats and carbohydrates. The X and Y are
(1) Parathyroid and thyroid gland, respectively
(2) Pituitary and hypothalamus, respectively
(3) Adrenal gland and kidney, respectively
(4) Thymus and heart, respectively

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Sol. Answer (1)

Parathyroid glands (four pairs) are found on the surface of thyroid gland and thyroid gland secetes thyroxine
which regulates the metabolism of proteins, fats and carbohydrates.
 Pituitary gland is present on the surface of the hypothalamus, and associated through a stalk while latter
controls the pituitary gland through trophic and inhibitory hormones.
 Adrenal gland is present on the dorsal surface of kidney which secretes calcitonin and latter controls the
Ca2+ homestasis.

31. Ram has high level of calcium in his blood. Excess of which hormone can cause this effect?
(1) Thyrocalcitonin (2) Growth hormone (3) Parathormone (4) Insulin
Sol. Answer (3)
Ram has high level of calcium in his blood. This may be caused by high amount of parathormone which results
in the increased blood calcium level by increasing the osteoclast activity and increase absorption of calcium
in the blood from the renal tubules.
Thyrocalcitonin has antagonistic effect on parathormone i.e. decreases the blood calcium level while growth
hormone also increases the deposition of calcium in the bones.

32. Progesterone and estradiol are

(1) Peptide hormones (2) Amino acid derivatives
(3) Iodothyronines (4) Steroid hormones
Sol. Answer (4)
Steroid hormone : Progesterone and estradiol.
Peptide hormone : Oxytocin, vasopressin.
Amino acid hormone : Thyroxine, norepinephrine, epinephrine.
Iodothyronin : T3 and T4

(Hormones of Heart, Liver, Kidney and Gastro-intestinal Tract and Mechanism of Hormone Action)
X
33. Angiotensinogen ⎯⎯ → Angiotensin-I .
(A) (B)

‘X’ in the given statement refers to

(1) Angiotensin-II (2) Aldosterone (3) Renin (4) Rennin
Sol. Answer (3)
Renin
Angiotensinogen ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯→ Angiotensin I
Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found is the stomach.

34. The secretin promotes the release of

(1) HCl and sodium carbonate ions (2) HCl and bicarbonate ions in gastric juice
(3) Water and bicarbonate ions in pancreatic juice (4) Pancreatic enzymes and mucus
Sol. Answer (3)
Secretin stimulates the release water and bicarbonate ions in pancreatic juice.

35. CCK is secreted by

(1) Duodenum (2) Pyloric part of stomach
(3) Caecum (4) Rectum

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Sol. Answer (1)
CCK is secreted by duodenal mucosa.
Cholecystokinin stimulates flow of pancreatic enzymes and contraction of gall bladder.

36. Which of the following forms a hormone receptor complex on the cell membrane?
(1) Cortisol (2) Testosterone (3) Insulin (4) Progesterone
Sol. Answer (3)
Water soluble hormones do not cross the cell membrane. They bind to the extracellular receptors which
generates second messengers such as Ca2+, CAMP, IP3 etc. This further activates the existing enzyme system
of the cell and accelerates the biochemical reaction in the cell.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Endocrine System and Human Endocrine System)
1. Which of the following can be included under heterocrine glands?
(1) Thyroid and parathyroid (2) Pineal gland
(3) Gonads and pancreas (4) Thymus
Sol. Answer (3)
Gonads and pancreas are included under heterocrine glands.
 Heterocrine glands have both exocrine and endocrine functions.
 Exocrine glands release their secretion through ducts while endocrine glands release their secretion into
the blood directly without ducts.
 Heterocrine gland release their secretion through duct system as well as directly into the blood.
– Thyroid, parathyroid, pineal and thymus glands are endocrine in function.

2. Regulating hormones from hypothalamus reach Adeno-hypophysis through

(1) Neuron (2) Neuroendocrine cells
(3) Portal blood vessel (4) Diffusion
Sol. Answer (3)
Regulating hormones that are secreted by neuroendocrine cells of hypothalamus is carried to adenohypophysis
via hypophyseal portal blood circulation.
Hypothalamus
Hypothalamic
neurons

Portal circulation

Posterior
pituitary
Anterior
pituitary

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3. The anterior pituitary hormone that does not stimulate another endocrine gland is
(1) Somatotrophin
(2) Thyrotrophin
(3) Gonadotrophin
(4) Adrenocorticotrophin
Sol. Answer (1)
The anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the release of growth hormone is known as GHRH
(growth hormone releasing hormone) or Somatocrinin.

4. Luteinising hormone (LH) in female

(1) Helps in the appearance of secondary sexual characters
(2) Stimulates ovary to secrete oestradiol
(3) Helps in release of the ovum from the ovary
(4) Controls the blood pressure
Sol. Answer (3)
The luteinising hormone in female helps in release of ovum form the ovary.
The mature graffian follicles that release the ovum, convert to corpus luteum under the influence of FSH. The
corpus luteum secretes progestrone.

5. On surgical removal of pituitary gland there is fall in levels of glycocorticoids and sexcorticoids. This is due
to
(1) Oxytocin is no longer available from pituitary (2) Atrophy of adrenal medulla
(3) Atrophy of adrenal cortex (4) LTH from pituitary is no longer available
Sol. Answer (3)
Surgical removal of pituitary gland results in non-release of ACTH which stimulates adrenal cortex of the adrenal
gland to release corticoids. Absence of the ACTH results in atrophy of adrenal cortex.

6. Which pituitary hormone is responsible for enhancing the arterial blood pressure by causing narrowing of
arterioles?
(1) ACTH (2) Somatotropin (3) ADH (4) LTH
Sol. Answer (3)
ADH hormone released by posterior pituitary enhances the arterial blood pressure by causing narrowing of
arterioles.

7. Largest endocrine gland is

(1) Thyroid gland (2) Adrenal gland (3) Thymus (4) Pituitary gland
Sol. Answer (1)
Largest endocrine gland is thyroid gland.

8. Failure of thyroid secretion from infancy leading to dwarfism and mental retardation is included under
(1) Grave's disease (2) Cretinism (3) Simple goitre (4) Myxoedema

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Sol. Answer (2)

Failure of thyroid secretion from infancy leading to dwarfism and mental retardation is known as cretinism while
in adults the deficiency of thyroid hormone causes myxoedema (gull's disease).

9. Name the non-iodinised hormone secreted by parafollicular cells of thyroid

(1) Calcitonin (2) Oxytocin (3) Vasopressin (4) Gonadotrophin

Sol. Answer (1)

Hormones that are secreted by parathyroid glands are PTH (parathyroid hormone) and calcitonin.

Oxytocin : Secereted by hypothalamus

Vasopressin : Secereted by hypothalamus

Gonadotrophin : Secereted by hypothalamus.

10. Symptoms like pot-bellied, pigeon like chest, protruding tongue and mental retardation are of

(1) Myxoedema (2) Cretinism

(3) Cushing’s Syndrome (4) Addison’s disease

Sol. Answer (2)

Myxoedema : (Caused by deficiency of thyroxine)

Puffy appreance, lacking alertness, intelligence and alterness.

Cretinism : (Caused by deficiency of thyroxine)

Patient is pot-bellied, pigeon-chested and has a protruted tongue.

Cushing’s Syndrome : (Oversecretion of cortisol)

Obesity and wasting of limbs muscles.

Males : Excessive hair growth (Hrisutism)

Females : Masculinization, beard and moustache development.

11. Hyposecretion of which hormone is responsible for cretinism?

(1) Thyroxine (2) Parathormone (3) Growth Hormone (4) Calcitonin

Sol. Answer (1)

Hormone responsible for cretinism is thyroxine. Deficiency of thyroxine from childhood results is stunted growth
and mental retardation, known as cretinism.

12. Increase in the excitability of nerves and muscles leading to sustained contraction of the muscles of larynx,
face, hand and feet is due to

(1) Hyper activity of thyroid

(2) Hyper activity of parathyroid

(3) Hypoactivity of thyroid

(4) Hypoactivity of parathyroid

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Sol. Answer (4)

Increase in K+ levels or decrease is Ca2+ levels in the body leads to sustained contraction of the muscles of
larynx, face, hand and feet.

Parathyroid gland releases hormone PTH which is hypercalcemia i.e., increase the blood concentration of Ca2+
by increasing the osteoclast activity.

Decrease in PTH activity leads to lowering of the threshold without changing the resting membrane potential
which ultimately increases the excitability of nerves.

13. Hormone secreted during allergy is

(1) Glucocorticoid

(2) Mineralocorticoid

(3) Insulin

(4) Thyroxine

Sol. Answer (1)

Glucocorticoids is an anti-inflammatory.

14. Deficiency of the adrenal cortex activity leads to

(1) Cushing’s disease (2) Conn’s syndrome

(3) Addison’s disease (4) Simmond’s disease

Sol. Answer (3)

Addison's disease in caused due to hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones.

15. One of the following symptoms pertain to Addison’s disease

(1) Low plasma Na+, high plasma K+, increased urinary Na+, low blood sugar, vomitting, nausea and diarrhoea

(2) High blood sugar, obesity, wasting of limb muscles, fall in plasma K+, high blood Na+, rise in blood volume
and high blood pressure

(3) Stunted growth, retarded sexual development, mental backwardness

(4) Increase of heart beat, rise in blood pressure, nervousness, bulging eyes, warm skin

Sol. Answer (1)

Function of adrenal cortex' hormone (mineralocorticoids)

→ Increase blood levels of Na+ and water

→ Decrease in blood K+ level

→ Tubular reabsorption of Na+

→ Glycogenolysis

A destruction of adrenal cortex by diseases like tuberculosis produces addison disease due to the deficiency
of both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. This condition is known as addison's syndrome and the
consequent symptoms.

Imbalance of K+ leads to vomitting, nausea and diarrhoea.

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16. Adrenal virilism results due to
(1) Poor secretion of sex corticoids (2) Excess secretion of sex corticoids
(3) Excess secretion of aldosterone (4) Poor secretion of aldosterone
Sol. Answer (2)
Adrenal virilism : Caused due to excessive secretion of sex corticoids released by zona reticulata of adrenal
cortex.
Symptoms : Produces male type external sex characters such as beard and moustaches and male voice in
women.

17. Secretion of aldosterone in birds, man and other mammals is stimulated by

(1) Fall in concentration of Na+ in blood plasma
(2) Rise in concentration of K+ in blood plasma
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Fall in Ca++ concentration in blood plasma
Sol. Answer (3)
Aldosterone increases the blood plasma Na+ concentration and decreases the plasma K+ concentration.

18. A patient who excretes large quantity of sodium in urine has

(1) Diseased adrenal medulla (2) Diseased adrenal cortex
(3) Diseased pancreas (4) Diseased thymus
Sol. Answer (2)
Adrenal cortex releases mineralocorticoids which increases Na+ and decreases the K+ ions in the blood by
increasing the Na+ absorption in the renal tubules and increase K+ excretion in the urine.
Diseased adrenal cortex results into deficiency of hormone.

19. After receiving a hormonal shot, an asthma patient will get relief in exhaling the air. The hormone injected will
be
(1) Oxytocin (2) Adrenalin (3) Insulin (4) Thyroxine
Sol. Answer (2)
During allergic reaction, histamine is secreted which is a vasodilator. It increases the plasma flow which results
in narrowing of the lumen of bronchioles. This is a case in asthma.
So, adrenaline shots are given which is a vasoconstricter.

20. The hormones produced during emotional stress is

(1) Melatonin (2) Thyroxine (3) Calcitonin (4) Adrenaline
Sol. Answer (4)
Adrenaline is secreted through adrenal medulla during stress conditions.

21. When the normal heart of a man is injected with physiological concentration of adrenaline it shows
(1) Systolic arrest (2) Decreased rate
(3) Sustained increased rate (4) First increased then normal rate

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Sol. Answer (4)

When the normal heart of a man is injected with physiological concentration of adrenaline, first it increases
the heart rate and as the adrenaline's influence decreases, heart rate returns to its normal.

22. Which of the following is the function of Insulin?

(1) Promote synthesis of fats from glucose by adipose tissue
(2) Promote protein synthesis by promoting uptaking aminoacids by liver and muscle cells
(3) Promote conversion of glucose into glycogen
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Insulin secreted by pancreas
(a) Promotes uptake of fats
(b) Promotes proteins synthesis
(c) Promotes glycogenesis.

23. The organ which was considered vestigial till recently but now confirmed to be endocrine gland is
(1) Thymus (2) Pancreas (3) Pineal (4) Pituitary
Sol. Answer (3)
Pineal gland was earlier considered to be vestigial gland which was later found to be responsible for secretion
of melatonin which controls circadian rhythm.

24. Which of the statement is incorrect w.r.t. melatonin hormone?

(1) Shows diurnal variation (2) Antigonadial hormone
(3) Secreted by Pineal body (4) Poorly vascularised
Sol. Answer (4)
Pineal gland secretes melatonin. Melatonin regulates diurnal variation also, melatonin is reported to inhibit
sexual development in children. Pineal tumors have been linked to with precocious puberty. When puberty
arrives, melatonin production is reduced.

25. Mammalian thymus is mainly concerned with

(1) Regulation of body temperature (2) Regulation of body growth
(3) Immunological functions (4) Secretion of thyrotropin
Sol. Answer (3)
Thymus gland is the site of maturation of lymphocytes which play major role in the immunological reactions.
It is called Training School of T-lymphocytes.

26. Which of the following gland grows to the maximum size at puberty and then diminishes gradually?
(1) Thymus (2) Pituitary (3) Thyroid (4) Adrenal
Sol. Answer (1)
Thymus gland present on the dorsal side of the heart which degenerates as the age increases.

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27. Relaxin is secreted by which endocrine gland?
(1) Corpus luteum (2) Pituitary (3) Pineal (4) Ovary
Sol. Answer (4)
Relaxin is secreted by ovary and placenta. Corpus luteum of ovary secretes the hormone in a regular menstrual
cycle while relaxin is secreted by placenta after pregnancy.

28. Gynaecomastia condition can develop due to

(1) Temporary increase in circulating estrogen in neonates
(2) Temporary increase in circulating estrogen at puberty
(3) Decreased testosterone in later life
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Gynaecomastia is the development of mammary glands in the males and the main reason is the hormone
inbalance. While all men have some level of oestrogen but usually have much higher level of testosterone.
 Newborn baby boys : Newborn baby boys may be affected by gynaecomastia because oestrogen passes
through placenta from mother to baby. This condition is temporary and will disappear within weeks.
 Puberty : During puberty, hormone levels vary. If the leves of testosterone drops, oestrogen can cause
breast tissue to grow. This is resolved as boys grow older when hormone levels become more stable.
 Older stage : As men grow older, they produce less testosterone while oestrogen secretion is enlanced
and this inbalance results in gynaecomastia.

29. Placental hormone called chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) which stimulates secretion of progesterone by the ovary
during pregnancy is
(1) Proteinaceous in nature (2) Steroid in nature
(3) Biogenic amine (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (1)
Proteinaceous hormones : Human growth hormone, human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), TSH, FSH, LH,
PTH, (GH)
Peptide hormone : Oxytocin, vasopressin, GnRH, ACTH.
Amine hormones : Epinephrine norepinephrine.
Steroid hormone : Testosterone, oesterogen.

30. High pitch juvenile voice in males can be retained by

(1) Ovarictomy (2) Castration (3) Synorchidism (4) Eunuchoidism
Sol. Answer (2)
Castration : is the surgical or chemical action by which males loses the activity of testes. The testosterone
hormone secteted by testes is responsible for development of secondary sexual characteristics in males which
also involves converting the high pitch voice of males at puberty to low pitch, hoarse voice.
Ovarictomy : is the removal of one or both ovary.
Synorchidism : is the congenital fusion of testes in the abdominal cavity.
Eunuchoidism : an abnormal condition is males characterised by lack of fully developed repuoductive organs
and manifestation of certain female sex characteristics, as high voice on lack of facial and body hair, resulting
from the absence of normal production of male sex hormones.

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31. Find the odd one out w.r.t. gland and secretions

(1) Glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoids, Sexcorticoids (2) Nor-epinephrine, Epinephrine, Adrenaline

(3) Relaxin, Oestrogen, Progestrone (4) Insulin, Glucagon, Thymosin

Sol. Answer (4)

Adrenal cortex : Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sexcortiocoids

Adrenal medulla : Epinephrine, Nor-epinephrine, adrenaline

Ovary : Relaxin, oestrogen progestrone

Pancreas : Insulin, glucagon

Thymus : Thymosin

32. Production, secretion and ejection of milk requires the synergistic effects of prolactin and

(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (3) Oxytocin (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (4)

Production, secretion and ejection of milk requires synergistic effect of estrogen, progesterone and oxytocin.

Progesterone : Influences the growth in size of alveoli, high levels of progesterone inhibit lactation before birth.
Progesterone level dorps after birth, this triggers the onset of copious milk production.

Estrogen : Stimulates the milk duct system to grow and differentiate. Like progesterone, high levels of esterogen
also inhibits lactation. Estrogen levels also drop at delivery and remain low for the first several months of
breastfeeding.

Prolactin : Contributes the increased growth and differentiation of the alveoli, and also influences differentiation
of ductal structures.

Oxytocin : Contracts the smooth muscle of uterus during and after birth. After birth, oxytocin contracts the
smooth muscle layer of band-like cells surrounding alveoli to squeeze the newly produced milk into the duct
system. Oxytocin is necessary for milk ejection reflex or let-down to occur.

(Mechanism of Hormone Action)

33. “Secondary messenger” is

(1) cAMP (2) ATP (3) ADP (4) DNA

Sol. Answer (1)

Ca2+, cAMP, IP3 act as secondary messengers inside cells.

34. The secondary messenger which show antagonistic effect to c-AMP in heart muscle is

(1) Ca2+ (2) Inositol triphosphate (IP3)

(3) DAG (4) c-GMP

Sol. Answer (4)

cAMP regulates cardiac ion channels in response to sympathetic stimulation cGMP is reported to block this
cAMP mediated pathway.

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35. The hormone which acts through intracelluar receptor protein is
(1) Growth hormone (2) Prolactin (3) Thyroxine (4) Adrenaline
Sol. Answer (3)
Hormones may be
acting via intracellular receptors
: Steroids
: Thyroxine (T3 and T4)
acting via extracellular receptors
: amino hormones
: proteinaceous hormones
: peptide hormones.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone? [NEET-2018]
(1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone (3) Estriol (4) Estradiol
Sol. Answer (1)
Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a catecholamine.
2. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis? [NEET-2018]
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin (2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
Sol. Answer (4)
Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female osteoporosis occurs
due to deficiency of estrogen. Parathormone promotes mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. Excessive
activity of parathormone causes demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
3. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because [NEET-2017]
(1) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults
(2) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence
(3) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults
(4) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth
Sol. Answer (2)
Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of bone which close after adolescence so hypersecretion of
growth hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height.

4. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate? [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Angiotensin and epinephrine (2) Gastrin and insulin
(3) Cholecystokinin and secretin (4) Insulin and glucagon
Sol. Answer (3)
Cholecystokinin and secretin both hormones increase the secretion of pancreatic juice.

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5. Graves' disease is caused due to [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]

(1) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland (2) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(3) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland (4) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
Sol. Answer (2)
Grave's disease is due to the hypersecretion of thyroid gland.

6. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake
and utilization. [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Insulin (2) Glucagon (3) Secretin (4) Gastrin
Sol. Answer (1)
Insulin is a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose
uptake and utilisation so it decreases the blood glucose level.

7. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland because [NEET (Phase-2)-2016]
(1) It is provided with a duct (2) It only stores and releases hormones
(3) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus (4) It secretes enzymes
Sol. Answer (2)
Posterior pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because it only stores and releases hormones.
8. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?
[NEET-2016]
(1) Relaxin - Inhibin
(2) Parathormone - Calcitonin
(3) Insulin - Glucagon
(4) Aldosterone - Atrial Natriuretic Factor
Sol. Answer (1)
Relaxin relaxes the pubic symphysis during parturition while inhibin decreases the secretion of FSH from anterior
pituitary.
9. The amino acid ryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of [NEET-2016]
(1) Cortisol and Cortisone (2) Melatonin and Serotonin
(3) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine (4) Estrogen and Progesterone
Sol. Answer (2)
Melatonin and serotonin are derivatives of tryptophan amino acid while thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine are
tyrosine amino acid derivatives.
10. Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Glucagon (2) Cortisone (3) Aldosterone (4) Insulin
Sol. Answer (3)

11. Which one of the following hormones though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by the master
gland? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Melanocyte stimulating hormone (2) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) Luteinizing hormone (4) Prolactin
Sol. Answer (2)

12. A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Cortisol (2) Melatonin (3) Calcitonin (4) Epinephrine
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Sol. Answer (4)
Epinephrine is hormone as wess as neurotransmitter.

13. Fight-or-flight reactions cause activation of: [AIPMT-2014]

(1) The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate
(2) The kidney, leading to suppression of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway
(3) The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
(4) The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels
Sol. Answer (3)
Epinephrine & norepinephrine are released during stress of any kind or emergency situations.

14. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Oxytocin - posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands
(2) Melatonin - pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle
(3) Progesterone-corpus-luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor - ventricular wall increases the blood pressure
Sol. Answer (2)
Pineal secretes a hormone called melatonin. Melatonin plays a very important role in the regulation of a 24 hour
rhythm of our body.

15. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the endocrine system? [NEET-2013]
(1) Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones
(2) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are
known as hormones
(3) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland
(4) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus
Sol. Answer (2)

16. Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies
them and gives their characteristics and/ or functions. [NEET-2013]
A

B
C Kidney

Urinary bladder

(1) B - Pelvis-broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle
(2) C - Medulla - inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons
(3) D - Cortex - outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons
(4) A - Adrenal gland - located at the anterior part of kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen
breakdown
Sol. Answer (4)
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17. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient
and abnormal skin. This is the result of [NEET-2013]
(1) Low secretion of growth hormone (2) Cancer of the thyroid gland
(3) Over secretion of pars distalis (4) Deficiency of iodine in diet
Sol. Answer (4)

18. Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/
deficiency symptom: [NEET-2013]
Endocrine gland Hormone Function/ deficiency/ symptoms
(1) Posterior pituitary Growth Hormone (GH) Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth
(2) Thyroid gland Thyroxine Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre
(3) Corpus luteum Testosterone Stimulates spermatogenesis
(4) Anterior pituitary Oxytocin Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth
Sol. Answer (2)

19. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell
membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Somatostatin, oxytocin (2) Cortisol, testosterone
(3) Insulin, glucagon (4) Thyroxin, Insulin
Sol. Answer (2)
Steroidal hormone are able to cross the cell membrane, they bind to the intracellular receptors and start the
physiological response.

20. Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categorised? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Secretin and rhodopsin - Polypeptide hormones
(2) Calcitonin and thymosin - Thyroid hormones
(3) Pepsin and prolactin - Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach
(4) Troponin and myosin - Complex proteins in striated muscles
Sol. Answer (4)

21. Match the source gland with its respective hormone as welll as the function. [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

Source
gland Hormone Function

(1) Thyroid Regulates blood

Thyroxine
calcium level

Anterior Contraction of uterus

(2) pituitary Oxytocin muscles during child
birth
Posterior Stimulates resorption
(3)
pituitary Vasopressin of water in the distal
tubules in the
nephron
Corpus
(4) Estrogen Supports pregnancy
luteum

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Sol. Answer (3)
 Thyroid – Thyroxine : Regulates the lipid, protein and carbohydrate metabolisms.
 Posterior pituitary – Oxytocin : Contraction of uterus muscles during child birth.
 Posterior pituitary – Vasopressin : Stimulates resorption of water in the DCT.
 Corpus luteum – Estrogen : Supports pregnancy.

22. Given below is an incomplete table about certain hormones, their source glands and one major effect of each
on the body in humans. Identify the correct option for the three blanks A, B and C. [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]

Gland Secretion Effect on Body

A Oestrogen Maintenance of
secondary
sexual characters

Alpha cells B Raises blood

of Islets of sugar level
Langerhans

Anterior C Over secretion

pituitary leads to gigantism

Options:
A B C
(1) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin
(2) Ovary Glucagon Growth hormone
(3) Placenta Insulin Vasopressin
(4) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin
Sol. Answer (2)

23. The 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the hormone.
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Adrenaline (2) Melatonin (3) Calcitonin (4) Prolactin
Sol. Answer (2)
Melatonin : Secreted by pineal gland regulates the sleep-wake cycle is 24-hour rhythm.
Adrenaline : Secreted by adrenal medulla and controls the stress-response.
Calcitonin : Secreted by thyroid gland, also known as thyrocalcitonin. It regulates the calcium harmostasis.
Prolactin : Stimulates the mammary gland for production of milk.

24. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Cortisol (2) Aldosterone
(3) Both androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone (4) Adrenaline
Sol. Answer (4)

25. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Insulin–Diabetes mellitus (disease) (2) Glucagon – Beta cells (source)
(3) Somatostatin – Delta cells (source) (4) Corpus luteum – Relaxin (secretion)
Sol. Answer (2)
Glucagon is secreted by α-cells of pancreas.
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26. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Thyrotoxicosis (2) Toxic goitre
(3) Cretinism (4) Simple goitre
Sol. Answer (4)
Toxic agents present inside the food which interferes with the production of thyroxine hormone causes simple
goitre.
 Cretinism : Caused by deficiency of thyroxine before puberty.
 Thyrotoxicosis : (Hyperthyroidisin) It is excess secretion of thyroxine e.g. graves disease.
 Toxic goitre / multinodular goiter : is a common cause of hyperthyroidism in which there is excess
production of thyroid hormone by functionally autonomous thyroid modules, which do not require stimulation
from TSH.

27. Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]

Hormone Source Function

(1) Vasopression Posterior pituitary Increases loss of
water through urine
(2) Norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart
beat, rate of respiration
and alertness
(3) Glucagon Beta-cells of lslets Stimulates glycogenolysis
of langerhans
(4) Prolactin Posterior Pituitary Regulates growth of mammary
glands and milk formation in
females

Sol. Answer (2)

Vasopressin Posterior piuitary Increases absouption of water through urine
Norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness
Glucagon α-cells of Islets of Stimulates glycogenolysis
langerhans
Prolactin Anterior pituitary Regulates growth of mammary gland and milk
formation in females.

28. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Thalamus (2) Tonsil (3) Thymus (4) Thyroid
Sol. Answer (3)

29. A health disorder that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterised by (i) a low metabolic
rate, (ii) increase in body weight and (iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Simple goitre (2) Myxoedema (3) Cretinism (4) Hypothyroidism
Sol. Answer (2)
Myxoedema : is a disease caused in adults by hypothyroidism which causes produciton of excessive amounts
of glycoprotein in the interstitial spaces due to which accumulation of fluid in the tissues resulting in edema.
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30. Which one of the following is an amine hormone? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Progesterone (2) Thyroxine (3) Oxypurin (4) Insulin
Sol. Answer (2)

31. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Calcitonin (2) Parathormone
(3) Thyroxine (4) Both Calcitonin and Parathormone
Sol. Answer (2)
Hypocalcaemichormone – Calcitonins
Hypercalcaemic hormone – Parathormone.

32. Which of the following pairs of organs includes only the endocrine glands? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Adrenal and Ovary (2) Parathyroid and Adrenal
(3) Pancreas and Parathyroid (4) Thymus and Testes
Sol. Answer (2)
Endocrine gland Heterocrine gland
e.g., Adrenal gland, e.g., Ovary, testes pancreas
Parathyroid gland
Thymus gland

33. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
(2) Higher levels of thyroxin
(3) Higher levels of cortisone
(4) Lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. Answer (4)
Bullock is the castrated animal. Due to the low testosterone level, bullock is docile.

34. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts
climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Gastrin (2) Thyroxin
(3) Adrenaline (4) Glucagon
Sol. Answer (3)
Adrenaline is secreted by adrenal medulla during stress, hence it is also known as stress-hormone or
3F-responsive hormone (Tight, flight and flight hormone).

35. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his body. Which one of the following
glands may not be functioning properly? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Thyroid (2) Parathyroid (3) Parotid (4) Pancreas
Sol. Answer (2)
Parathormone (PTH) secreted by parathyroid gland regulates calcium and phosphorus homeostasis.

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36. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Cortisol (2) Corticosterone
(3) 11-deoxycorticosterone (4) Cortisone
Sol. Answer (1)

37. Which one of the following is not a second messenger in hormone action? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) cGMP (2) Calcium (3) Sodium (4) cAMP
Sol. Answer (3)
Secondary messengers – Ca2+, cAMP, cGMP, IP3 etc.
– Na+ is not considered to be secondary messenger.

38. Which of the following is an accumulation and release centre of neurohormones? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Posterior pituitary lobe
(2) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Anterior pituitary lobe
Sol. Answer (3)
Posterior lobe of pituitary stores the released hormones by neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus. The hornones
viz. oxytoicn and ADH are released by posterior lobe of pituitary.

39. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glycogenolysis?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) ACTH (2) Insulin (3) Adrenalin (4) Glucagon
Sol. Answer (3)

40. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) A reduction in haemoglobin content of blood
(2) A reduction in stem cell production
(3) Loss of antibody mediated immunity
(4) Loss of cell mediated immunity
Sol. Answer (4)
Thymus is responsible for the maturation of lymphocytes that are produced in the red bone marrow that goes
to thymus and convert to T-lymphocytes.
T-lymphocytes are known to regulate cell mediated immunity.

41. Thymosin hormone is secreted by

(1) Thyroid gland
(2) Parathyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Hypothalamus

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Sol. Answer (3)
Thyroid gland – Thyroxin (T3, T4), thyrocalcitonin
Parathyroid gland – Parathormone
Thymus gland – thymosin
Hypothalamus – Vasopressin (ADH), oxytocins.

42. Insufficient quantities of antidiuretic hormone in blood lead to

(1) Diabetes mellitus (2) Glycosuria (3) Diabetes insipidus (4) Uremia
Sol. Answer (3)
Disorder Caused by deficiency of
 Diabetes mellitus – Insulin (pancreas)
 Glycosuria – Insulin (pancreas)
(a manifestation of
Diabetes mellitus)
 Diabetes insipidus – Vasopressin (posterior pituitary)
 Uremia – Renal failure
(Excess urea in the blood).

43. The hormone which regulates the basal metabolism in our body is secreted from
(1) Adrenal cortex (2) Pancreas
(3) Pituitary (4) Thyroid
Sol. Answer (4)
Thyroxine hormone secreted by thyroid gland controls the BMR of the body.

44. Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which

(1) Elevates calcium level in blood
(2) Has no effect on calcium
(3) Elevates potassium level in blood
(4) Lowers calcium level in blood
Sol. Answer (4)
Calcitonin secreted by thyroid gland is hypocalcaemic.
Parathormone secreted by parathyroid galnd is hypercalcaemic.
Deficiency in Mineralocorticoid (secreted by adrenal cortex) increases K+ level.

45. Which hormone stimulates the formation and secretion of milk in female?
(1) Oxytocin (2) Progesterone (3) LH (4) Prolactin
Sol. Answer (4)

Prolactin hormone stimulates the formation and secretion of milk while oxytocin hormone is reponsible for
ejection of milk.

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46. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by

(1) Testosterone (2) Thyroxine (3) MSH (4) LH
Sol. Answer (4)
LH surge results in the ovulation form the graffian follicle resulting in the conversion of the former to corpus
luteum which secretes estrogen.

47. The function of oxytocin is to help in

(1) Child birth (2) Gametogenesis (3) Growth (4) Lactation
Sol. Answer (1)
Oxytocin helps in the ejection of the milk. Hence, it is also known as let-down hormone while the milk formation
is initiated by prolactin hormone.
Oxytocin helps in child birth while the growth is stimulated by the growth hormone secreted by the anterior
pituitary while gametogenesis is initiated by FSH.

48. Melatonin is secreted by

(1) Pineal body (2) Skin
(3) Pituitary gland (4) Thyroid
Sol. Answer (1)
Melatonin hormone is secreted by the pineal gland located inside the brain, which helps in the regulation of
24-hour sleep-wake cycle and is antigonadal in nature.

49. The gonadotropic hormones are secreted by

(1) Anterior lobe of pituitary (2) Interstitial cells of testes
(3) Adrenal cortex (4) Posterior part of thyroid
Sol. Answer (1)
The gonadortopic hormones are secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary.
Interstitial cells of testes : Testosterone
Adrenal cortex : Secretes mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and sex-corticoids.

50. Which one of the following endocrine gland stores its secretion in the extracellular space before discharging
it into the blood?
(1) Testis (2) Thyroid (3) Pancreas (4) Adrenal
Sol. Answer (2)
Thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland which secretes its secretion inside the extracellular space.

51. Acromegaly is caused by

(1) Excess of S.T.H. (2) Excess of thyroxin
(3) Deficiency of thyroxin (4) Excess of adrenalin
Sol. Answer (1)
Acromegaly : Oversecretion of growth hormone after puberty cause acromegaly.

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52. Which of the following pair is correct match of a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
(1) Relaxin – Gigantism
(2) Prolactin – Cretinism
(3) Parathyroid hormone – Tetany
(4) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus
Sol. Answer (3)
Deficiency of parathyroid hormone resulsts in parathyroid tetany because low PTH resulsts in hypocalcaemia.
Low levels of calcium is extracellular fuid increases the permeability of neuronal membranes to sodium ions
causing a progressive depolarisation. Which increases the possibility of action potential.
This occurs because calcium ion interacts with the exterior surface of sodium channels in the plasma
membrane of the nerve cells. When Ca2+ ion is absent the voltage level required to open voltage gated channels
is significantly altered (less excitation is required).
If the plasma Ca2+ decreases to 9.4 mg/dl action potential may be spontaneously generated, causing
contraction of peripheral skeletal muscles.

53. Which of the following hormones is modified amino acid?

(1) Epinephrine (2) Progesterone (3) Prostaglandin (4) Estrogen
Sol. Answer (1)
Amine hormone – Epinephrine, norepinephnine
Steroidal / Lipid hormone – Progesterone, estrogen, prostaglandins.

54. Adrenaline directly affects on

(1) S.A. node (2) β-cells of Langerhans
(3) Dorsal root of spinal nerve (4) Epithelial cells of stomach
Sol. Answer (1)
Adrenal directly affects S.A. node thus increases the blood pressure and heart rate.

55. Diabetes is due to :

(1) Enzyme deficiency (2) Iodine deficiency
(3) Na+ deficiency (4) Hormonal deficiency
Sol. Answer (4)
Diabetes occurs due to hormonal deficiency.
Diabetes mellitus : due to deficiency of insulin
Diabetes insipidus : due to deficiency of ADH.

56. If diabetes mellitus is not-controlled increased oxidation of _______ produces ketone bodies such as
acetoacetate and acetone
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Fats (3) Proteins (4) Nucleic acids
Sol. Answer (2)
Ketonuria is a manifestation of diabetes mellitus. In the diabetes mellitus blood sugar level rises too high. When
this happens, the body do not have sufficient insulin to get energy into the body's cells. So breakage of body
tissue (fat and muscels) into ketones occurs, which can be used as fuel without need of insulin.

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57. Individuals with type-I diabetes

(1) Lack β-cells in the islets of Langerhans
(2) Produce enough insulin but lack functional receptors on their cells
(3) Can control their diabetes with diet and exercise
(4) All of these are correct
Sol. Answer (1)
Diabetes mellitus

Type - I Type - II
(a) Occurs early in the life  Usually late in the life
(b) β-cells produce hormone insulin  Life style disease resulting from weight gain and
lack of exercise.
– Patient doesn't have deficiency of insulin but has
insensitivity to body's own insulin.
(c) Insulin in given by injection  Treatment includes diet and exercise and
ultimately requires pills or insulin.

58. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. erythropoietin.

(1) Secreted by juxtaglomerular cells
(2) Secreted in response to hypoxia
(3) Activates bone marrow cells to produce more RBCs
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Erythropoietin is secreted by the juxta glomerular cells of kidney, in response to hypoxia which activates bone
marrow cells to produce more RBCs.

59. What happens when the tadpole larva is kept in iodine deficient pond water?
(1) Development of giant frog (2) Accelerated metamorphosis
(3) Inhibition of metamorphosis (4) Development of miniature frog
Sol. Answer (3)
Thyroxine hormone requires iodine for the formation and this hormone is essential for the metamorphosis of
tadpoles in frog.
Due to deficiency of iodine in water metamorphosis is inhibited.

60. Which of the following hormone is a derivative of tyrosine?

(1) Thyroxine (2) Epinephrine
(3) Nor epinephrine (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Amine – derived hormones : Thyroxine, epinephrine, nor epinephrine
Tyrosine + Iodine = Thyroxine

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61. Adrenaline is relased from the adrenal medulla under stress conditon. Which of the following can’t be taken as a
character of it?
(1) Elevates blood glucose by converting liver glycogen to glucose
(2) Acceleration of rate and force of heart beat
(3) Increase in breakdown of lipids
(4) Constriction in arterioles of skeletal muscle
Sol. Answer (4)
Adrenaline causes vasodilation in heart and skeletal muscles while causes vasoconstriction in smooth muscles.

62. Which of the following is not caused by hyperactivity of endocrine gland?

(1) Conn’s syndrome (2) Cushing’s syndrome (3) Addison’s disease (4) Adrenal virilism
Sol. Answer (3)
Conn's disease – (aldosteronism) excessive secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex lumor.
Cushing’s disease – tumour of adrenal cortex may secrete too much cortisol.
Addison’s disease – destruction of adrenal cortex by disease like tuberculosis produces addison's disease.
Adrenal virilism – excessive secretion of sex corticoids.

63. Which of the following hormones plays a very important role in the regulation of a 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of
our body. It helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cycle, body temperature. It influences
pigmentation, the menstrual cycle as well as our defense capability?
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (3) Cortisol (4) Melatonin
Sol. Answer (4)
Melatonin is secreted by pineal gland.

64. In heart cells which one acts as second messenger in response to sympathetic nerve action?
(1) cAMP (2) cGMP (3) Inositol triphosphate (4) Diacylglycerol
Sol. Answer (1)
β-adrenergic receptors present on the heart wall which initiates the cAMP mediated pathway for opening of
Ca2+ channels.

65. Which of the following is a paracrine hormone?

(1) Insulin (2) Glucagon
(3) Somatostatin of pancreas (4) GH (Growth hormone)
Sol. Answer (3)
Paracrine hormones-hormones which are secreted by a cell and interact with the receptor of the same cell.
e.g., Somatostatin (also known as GHIH) or growth hormone inhibiting.

66. Which of the following is an auto-immune disorder in which the person produces antibodies that mimic the
action of TSH, but are not regulated by the normal negative feedback controls?
(1) Myxoedema (2) Grave’s disease
(3) Cretinism (4) Hypocalcemic tetany
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Sol. Answer (2)

Grave's disease : (hyper thyroidism) it is an autoimmune disease in which body produces antibodies against
TSH receptors. The antibodies when find to the receptors stimulates the follicular cells to release more
thyroxine.
The antibodies are not regulated by normal –ve feedback inhibition.

67. Which of the following hormone is used in transplantation surgery to suppress immunity and thus chances of
organ rejection by recipient’s body is decreased?
(1) Thyroxine (2) Cortisol
(3) Aldosterone (4) Steroid hormone
Sol. Answer (2)
Cortisol is an immunosupressive. So, during organ transplanation, so as to avoid graft rejection.

68. A destruction of adrenal cortex by diseases like tuberculosis produces

(1) Cushing syndrome (2) Adrenal virilism (3) Addison’s disease (4) Aldosteronism
Sol. Answer (3)
Addison's disease occur due to deficiency of mineralocorticoid as well as glucocorticoids either due to
destruction of adrenal cortex or by any disease such as tuberculosis.

69. Which of the following is an action not produced by sympathetico-adrenal system?

(1) Constriction of skin and visceral smooth muscle (2) Dilation of arterioles of heart and skeletal muscles
(3) Constriction of pupils (4) Dilation of bronchioles
Sol. Answer (3)
Dilation of pupil is caused by stimulation sympathetico-adrenal system.

70. Eunuchoidism is due to

(1) Perturbation of estrogen to androgen ratio
(2) Failure of testosterone secretion
(3) Tumor in testis
(4) Tumor in ovaries
Sol. Answer (2)
Eunuchoidism is caused due to cessation of secretion of testosterone.
Perturbation of estrogen and androgen ratio results in gynaecomastia.

71. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans?

(1) In females, FSH first binds with specific receptors on ovarian cell membrane
(2) FSH stimulates the secretion of estrogen and progesterone
(3) Glucagon is secreted by β-cells of Islets of langerhans and stimulates glycogenolysis
(4) Secretion of thymosins is stimulated with aging
Sol. Answer (1)
FSH is water soluble hormone which binds to extracellular receptor.

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72. According to the accepted concept of hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed from target organs,
then the target organ will
(1) Continue to respond to the hormone without any difference
(2) Not respond to the hormone
(3) Continue to respond to the hormone but will require higher concentration
(4) Continue to respond to the hormone but in the opposite way
Sol. Asnwer (2)
When receptors are removed from the cell, hormone will not be responsive.

73. Hormones thyroxine, adrenaline and the pigment melanin are formed from

(1) Tyrosine (2) Proline (3) Tryptophan (4) Glycine

Sol. Answer (1)

Tyroxine : thyroxine, melanin, adrenaline

Tryptophan : precursor of melatonins hormone.

74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the

(1) Messenger RNA (2) DNA sequence (3) Ribosome (4) Transfer RNA
Sol. Answer (2)

Steroidal hormones can occurs the plasma membrane and then binds to the intracellular receptors say the
DNA sequence.

Uterine cell
membrane

Hormone
(e.g.estrogen)

Nucleus

Genome

Hormone-Receptor mRNA
complex
Proteins

Physiological responses

Diagrammatic representation of mechanism of action of steroidal hormone.

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75. Which of the following set of hormones can easily pass through the cell membrane of a target cell and bind to
specific intracellular receptors?
a. Placental progesterone b. Aldosterone

c. Estrogen d. Thyroxine

Mark the correct set

(1) b and c (2) a, b and c (3) a and c (4) a, b, c and d

Sol. Answer (4)

Steroidal horrmonal can cross the plasma membrane. e.g., progesterone, aldosterone, estrogen, thyroxine.

76. Insulin receptor is

(1) Trimeric protein
(2) Membrane bound protein
(3) Intrinsic protein
(4) Intracellular receptor protein present in the cytoplasm
Sol. Answer (2)
Insulin is a water soluble hormone and the receptors are present extracellularly on the cell membrane.

77. The organ which was considered vestigeal till recently but now confirmed to be an endocrine gland is
(1) Thymus (2) Pancreas (3) Pineal (4) Pituitary
Sol. Answer (3)
Pineal gland a small, pine cone shaped gland, earlier considered to be vestigeal gland but was later discovered
to release of melatonin.

78. Find the odd one out

(1) Glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoids, Sexcorticoids
(2) Nor-epinephrine, Epinephrine, Adrenaline
(3) Relaxin, Oestrogen, Progestrone
(4) Insulin, Glucagon, Thymosin
Sol. Answer (4)
Adrenal cortex – glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, sexcorticoids
Adrenal medulla – nor-epinephrine, epinephrine, adrenaline
Ovary – Relaxin, oestrogen progestrone
Pancreas – Insulin, glucagon
Thymus – thymosin

79. The hormones produced during emotional stress is

(1) Melatonin (2) Thyroxine (3) Calcitonin (4) Adrenalin
Sol. Answer (4)

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SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst for water.

R : Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland.

Sol. Answer (2)

Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive loss of urination and consquently too much thirst for water.

ADH is released by the posterior pituitary.

2. A : Insulin is not given orally.

R : Insulin hormone is lipid soluble and directly enters inside the cell membrane.

Sol. Answer (3)

Insulin is not given orally because it is amino hormone is they are not able to cross the intestinal mucosa.

3. A : Chorionic gonadotrophin prevents the corpus luteum from involuting.

R : It has property similar to luteinizing hormone.

Sol. Answer (1)

Human chorionic gonadotrophin is secreted by the placenta which is known to be alnalogous to the LH
(Luteinising hormone) secreted by anterior pituitary of both females and males.

4. A : Thyroxine shows calorigenic effect.

R : Thyroxine increases catabolism, produces energy and increases body temperature.

Sol. Answer (1)

Thyroxine shows calorigenic effect, because thyroxine increases catabolism, produces energy and increases
body temperature by increased oxygen consumption and rates of ATP hydrolysis.

5. A : Inhibin is secreted by the corpus luteum.

R : They inhibit the FSH and GnRH production.

Sol. Answer (2)

Inhibin is secreted by corpus luteum. It is a gonadal hormone that exerts a specific negative feedback action of
the secretion of FSH and LH from gonadotrophic cells of pituitary gland.

6. A : Our body secretes adrenaline in intense cold.

R : Adrenaline raises metabolic rate.

Sol. Answer (1)

It was reported that intense cold exposure results in the secretion of adrenal medullary hormone adrenaline which
raises the metabolic rate.

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7. A : Occasionally mammary glands are functional in males and the condition is called gynaecomastia.

R : Decreased testosterone in later life may also lead to gynaecomastia. It is usually due to perturbation of
estrogen to androgen ratio.

Sol. Answer (1)

Gynaecomastia is the abnormal development of mammary glands case of males.

In later life the fat deposition increases which results in increased secretion of oestrogen. Due to this hormone
perturbation, gynaecomastia.

8. A : Prolactin is unique among the pituitary hormones as it is under predominant inhibitory control of hypothalamus.
R : The controlling agent is neurotransmitter dopamine produced by tuberoinfundibular neuron.
Sol. Answer (2)
Prolactin in unique among the pituitary hormones as it is predominant inhibitory control of hypothalamus.
The controlling agent is prolactin inhibiting hormone (PIH)/ dopamine which are produced by tubero infundibular
neurons.

9. A : Ethanol is a diuretic agent.

R : It inhibits vasopressin secretion.
Sol. Answer (1)

10. A : Oxytocin stimulates contraction of uterine muscles during birth and initiates ejection of milk.
R : It is synthesized in the posterior lobe of pituitary.
Sol. Answer (3)
Oxytocin stimulates of uterine muscles during birth and initiates ejection of milk.
It is released through axon of neurosecretory cells of hypothalamus into the posterior pituitary.

  

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Chapter 13

Reproduction in Organisms

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Life Span, Reproduction)
1. Which one can’t be included under basic features of reproduction?
(1) DNA replication
(2) Formation of reproductive units
(3) Meiosis is never involved as all divisions are mitotic
(4) Growth due to synthesis of more protoplasm
Sol. Answer (3)
Reproduction may or may not involve meiosis. In sexual reproduction, animals having diploid body form gametes
by meiotic division. In asexual or somatogenic reproduction, mitosis occurs.

2. Which of the following can show somatogenic reproduction?

(1) Paramecium (2) Amoeba (3) Hydra (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Somatogenic reproduction is another name for asexual reproduction because in this mode of reproduction,
somatic cells undergo mitosis during formation of a new individual.

3. In mammals the sheep, cow, rat etc. show reproduction during

(1) Oestrus phase (2) Anoestrous phase (3) Menstrual phase (4) Diapause phase
Sol. Answer (1)
In non-primate mammals like cow, sheep, rat, deer, dog, tiger etc, cyclical changes (in ovaries and accessory
ducts) that occur during reproduction are referred to as oestrus cycle. These mammals show reproduction
during oestrus phase. Menstrual phase is present in primate females.
Diapause phase : Delay in development in response to regularly and recurring periods of adverse environmental
conditions. It is dynamic phase is insects.

4. Which of the following animals is bisexual?

(1) Ants (2) Cockroach (3) Leech (4) Wasps
Sol. Answer (3)
Leech, earthworm, sponge, tapeworm are examples of bisexual animals, also called hermaphrodites.

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 2 Reproduction in Organisms Solutions of Assignment

5. Which of the following statements is not correct w.r.t. earthworm?

(1) One pair of testes in segment 9 (2) One pair of ovaries in segment 13
(3) Protandrous condition (4) Cross-fertilization
Sol. Answer (1)
Earthworm has two pairs of testes, each in 10th and 11th segments.

6. The fusion of male and female gametes in course of fertilization is called

(1) Syngamy (2) Hologamy (3) Isogamy (4) Anisogamy
Sol. Answer (1)
Hologamy  Fusion of whole organisms as gametes.

7. Among butterfly, pigeon, horse and goat, which one has the highest chromosome number in gametes?
(1) Butterfly (2) Rat (3) Drosophila (4) Cat
Sol. Answer (1)
Chromosome number in gamete
Butterfly  190
Rat  21
Drosophila  4
Cat  19

8. Which of the following members show the same number of chromosomes in their gametes?
(1) Honeybee and Hydra (2) Cockroach and mosquito
(3) Monkey and frog (4) Housefly and fruitfly
Sol. Answer (1)
Number of chromosomes
Honey bee  32
Hydra  32
Cockroach  33, 34 or 47, 48
Mosquito  6
Monkey  42
Frog  26
Housefly  12
Fruitfly  8

9. The end of juvenile phase marks the beginning of

(1) Vegetative phase (2) Reproductive phase (3) Senescence (4) Ageing
Sol. Answer (2)
Juvenile phase  Reproductive phase  Senescent phase
Juvenile phase is called vegetative phase in plants.

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Solutions of Assignment Reproduction in Organisms 3
10. All of the following are pre-fertilisation events, except
(1) Spermatogenesis (2) Oogenesis (3) Gametes transfer (4) Embryogenesis
Sol. Answer (4)
Embryogenesis is post-fertilization event.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Life Span)
1. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) Life span is the period from birth to the natural death of an organism
(2) All small organisms have very short life span
(3) Life expectancy is the characteristic of populations
(4) Maximum life span is the characteristic of species
Sol. Answer (2)
Life spans of organisms are not necessarily correlated with their sizes e.g., life span of crow is 15 years,.
life span of parrot is 140 years, but their sizes do not show much difference.

2. Which of the following pairs of animals have almost similar maximum life span?
(1) Ant queen and squirrel (2) Toad and house mouse
(3) Bull frog and house rat (4) Carp and guinea-pig
Sol. Answer (1)
Max. life span (years)
Ant queen  15
Similar
Squirrel  16
Carp  47
Guinea pig  7.5
Toad  36
House mouse  3.5
Bull frog  30
House rat  4.6

3. Which of the following is the largest animal?

(1) Whale (2) Giant tortoise (3) Hippopotamus (4) Elephant
Sol. Answer (1)
Factual information.

(Reproduction)
4. Which of the following plays an important role in controlling reproduction?
a. Day length
b. Nervous system
c. Endocrine system
(1) c only (2) b only (3) b and c only (4) a, b and c

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Sol. Answer (4)

Day length is related to circadian rhythm, maintained by pineal gland (an endocrine gland).
Nervous system is related to hypothalamic neurons releasing GnRH. GnRH stimulates pituitary to release
gonadotropins

5. Which of the following pheromones is involved in sexual reproduction in silk moth?

(1) Civetone (2) Bombykol (3) Ecdysone (4) Villikinin
Sol. Answer (2)
Civetone is a pheromone in cats.
Ecdysone is moulting hormone in insects.
Villikinin is a GIT hormone.

6. Eggs are covered with a tough, leathery coat in case of

(1) Sharks (2) Bony fishes (3) Lizards (4) Urochordates
Sol. Answer (3)
Lizards have cledoic egg.

7. External syngamy occurs in case of

(1) Reptiles (2) Birds (3) Mammals (4) Bony fishes
Sol. Answer (4)
External fertilization occurs in bony fishes. In reptiles, aves and mammals, internal fertilization occurs.

8. Look at the given figure and find out the statements wrong regarding the gemmule formation.

A. b refers to an archeocyte and a refers to a gemmule

B. Gemmule formation takes place only in marine sponges
C. On germination, each gemmule gives rise to many offsprings
D. Gemmule formation is a kind of spore formation
(1) D only (2) A & B (3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (4)
a refers to archaeocyte
b refers to outer wall of gemmule
Gemmule formation takes in all fresh water sponges and some marine sponges.
On germination, each gemmule gives rise to one offspring.
Gemmule formation is endogenous budding.

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Solutions of Assignment Reproduction in Organisms 5
9. Which type of asexual reproduction is observed in Hydra?
(1) Exogenous budding (2) Endogenous budding (3) Gemmule formation (4) Both (1) and (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Hydra shows exogenous budding.
Endogenous budding = Gemmule formation.

10. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Small number of gametes are released by animals performing external fertilisation
(2) Chimpanzee exhibits oestrous cycle
(3) Oviparous animals always lay fertilised eggs covered by hard calcareous shell
(4) The type of parthenogenesis observed in honeybees is arrhenotoky
Sol. Answer (4)
Large number of gametes are released by animals performing external fertilization to increase the chances of
successful syngamy.
Chimpanzee is a primate mammal exhibiting menstrual cycle.
Oviparous animals are egg-laying. Eggs may be fertilized or unfertilized.
Arrhenotoky is a type of parthenogenesis in which only males are produced e.g., honey bees, wasps, turkeys,
rotifers.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from [NEET-2018]
(1) Ectoderm and mesoderm (2) Endoderm and mesoderm
(3) Ectoderm and endoderm (4) Mesoderm and trophoblast
Sol. Answer (1)
The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer side and ectoderm on inner side.
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac membrane have
mesoderm on outerside and endoderm in inner side.
2. Development of an organism from female gamete/egg without involving fertilization is
(1) Adventitive embryony (2) Polyembryony (3) Parthenocarpy (4) Parthenogenesis
Sol. Answer (4)
Factual information.
Polyembryony is presence of more than one embryos.
3. A population of genetically identical individuals, obtained from asexual reproduction is
(1) Callus (2) Clone (3) Deme (4) Aggregate
Sol. Answer (2)
Clone refers to morphologically and genetically similar individuals. Each individual of a clone is referred to as
ramet.

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 6 Reproduction in Organisms Solutions of Assignment

4. Syngamy means
(1) Fusion of gametes (2) Fusion of cytoplasms
(3) Fusion of two similar spores (4) Fusion of two dissimilar spores
Sol. Answer (1)
Fusion of similar gametes  Isogamy
Fusion of dissimilar gametes  Anisogamy

5. Estrous cycle is indication of

(1) Breeding period (2) Estrogen secretion (3) Pregnancy (4) Menopause
Sol. Answer (1)
Estrous cycle refers to cyclical changes in ovaries and accessory ducts occurring during reproduction in non-
primates females..

6. Estrous cycle is characteristic of

(1) Human females (2) Mammalian females
(3) Mammalian females other than primates (4) Mammals
Sol. Answer (3)
Primate females exhibit menstrual cycle.
Non primate mammals (females) exhibit estrous cycle.

7. Binary fission is a type of

(1) Vegetative propagation (2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Sexual reproduction (4) Nuclear fragmentation
Sol. Answer (2)
In binary fission a cell divides into two daughter cells e.g., Amoeba, Paramoecium.

8. Maximum life span of dog in years is

(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact (maximum life span is characteristic of species)

9. Menstrual cycle occurs in

(1) Female primates (2) Human females (3) Mammalian females (4) Rabbit
Sol. Answer (1)
Female primates include human females.

10. Hermaphrodite animal is

(1) Spider (2) Honey bee (3) Ascaris (4) Leech
Sol. Answer (4)
Leech is bisexual/hermaphrodite, others are unisexual.
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Solutions of Assignment Reproduction in Organisms 7
11. Transverse binary fission occurs in
(1) Euglena (2) Amoeba (3) Hydra (4) Paramoecium
Sol. Answer (4)
Euglena  Longitudinal binary fission.
Amoeba  Simple binary fission.
Hydra  Exogenous budding and fragmentation.

12. The mode of asexual reproduction in Euglena is

(1) Transverse binary fission (2) Irregular binary fission
(3) Multiple fission (4) Longitudinal binary fission
Sol. Answer (4)
In longitudinal binary fission, plane of fission passes along longitudinal axis of animal.

13. Animals which possess cleidoic eggs exhibit

(1) External fertilization and internal development (2) Internal fertilization and internal development
(3) Internal fertilization and external development (4) External fertilization and external development
Sol. Answer (3)
Example  Reptiles and birds.

14. Regarding fertilization which among the following statements is incorrect?

(1) It restores diploid condition in the zygote
(2) It activates egg both physiologically and metabolically
(3) Paternal and maternal sets contribute to the diploid number without causing any variation
(4) It determines the sex of the offspring
Sol. Answer (3)
Variations are caused in sexual reproduction, where fertilization occurs.

15. Which is connected to asexual reproduction?

(1) Gemmules (2) Gametes (3) Gonads (4) Genitalia
Sol. Answer (1)

16. Why is asexual reproduction sometimes disadvantageous?

(1) It allows sedentary animals to produce offspring without mates
(2) It allows animals to produce many offspring quickly
(3) It saves time and energy of gamete formation
(4) It produces genetically uniform population
Sol. Answer (4)
There is no significant variation.

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 8 Reproduction in Organisms Solutions of Assignment

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Maximum life span is the characteristic of population.
R : It is the maximum time period upto which a population has survived.
Sol. Answer (4)
Maximum life span is the characteristic of species. It is the greatest age reached by any member of a species.
Life expectancy is the characteristic of population.

2. A : Reproduction is means of self perpetuation of a race.

R : It introduces variations essential for adaptability and struggle for existence.

Sol. Answer (2)

Variations are necessary so that some individuals of the species showing beneficial variations can survive in
extreme environments and there is no extinction of species.

3. A : Asexual reproduction is a rapid mode of reproduction.

R : It plays an important role in evolution.

Sol. Answer (3)

Asexual reproduction is rapid but does not play important role in evolution because there are no significant
variations.

4. A : Animals are either unisexual or bisexual.

R : Most of the bisexual animals reproduce by cross-fertilization.

Sol. Answer (2)

Cross-fertilization may be due to protandrous (maturation of male gonads first) or protgynous (maturation of
female gonads first) conditions. These both prevent self-fertilization.

5. A : Development of embryo from the zygote is known as embryogenesis.

R : Embryogenesis involves cell division and cell differentiation.

Sol. Answer (2)

6. A : The term ‘limited life span’ cannot be associated with many unicellular organism.

R : The unicellular organisms divide as soon as they get mature and continue to live as two or more daughter
organisms.

Sol. Answer (1)

The single-celled organisms divided into two daughter cells.

This division will continue. Hence, unicellular organisms are
said to be immortal.

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Solutions of Assignment Reproduction in Organisms 9
7. A : Life expectancy is based on average life span.

R : It is the age at which half the population still survives.

Sol. Answer (2)

Life expectancy refers to the number of years an individual can expect to live in a population.

8. A : Complete parthenogenesis is also called obligatory parthenogenesis.

R : It occurs in animals which breed exclusively by this method.

Sol. Answer (1)

It is obligatory because they reproduce only by parthenogenesis .

9. A : Meiocyte is the gamete mother cell.

R : Meiocyte is always haploid.

Sol. Answer (3)

Meiocytes  Specialized cells in diploid organisms.

 Undergo meiosis

 Gametes mother cells

 Hence diploid

10. A : The unicellular zygote develops into a multicellular embryo during embryogenesis.

R : Organogenesis forms an important part of the process of embryogenesis.

Sol. Answer (2)

Organogenesis refers to formation of organs.

11. A : Sex pheromones are the volatile substances that are released by animals to attract their partners.

R : Bombykol is a sex pheromone released by the male Bombyx mori to attract the female.

Sol. Answer (3)

Bombykol is released by female Bombyx mori.

12. A : The ovoviviparous organisms give birth to young ones.

R : The eggs are incubated within the uterus and receive nourishment from the placenta during development.

Sol. Answer (3)

There is no placenta formation in ovoviviparous organisms.

13. A : The single-celled organisms are immortal.

R : Cell division is a mode of reproduction in single-celled organisms.

Sol. Answer (1)

Fact.

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10 Reproduction in Organisms Solutions of Assignment

14. A : External syngamy is considered disadvantageous as compared to the internal syngamy.

R : The offspring produced by external syngamy are more vulnerable to predators.

Sol. Answer (1)

External fertilization results in formation of organism outside the body of its parent, hence it is more prone to
predation.

15. A : The number of male gametes produced is always greater than the number of female gametes produced.
R : A large number of male gametes fail to reach upto the female gamete.
Sol. Answer (1)
Large number to male gametes are produced to enhance the chances of successful syngamy.

  

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Chapter 14

Human Reproduction

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(The Male Reproductive System)

1. Primary sex organs differ from the secondary sex organs in all the following, except
(1) They produce gametes
(2) They secrete sex hormones
(3) They are concerned with the conduction of gametes
(4) Testes in male and ovaries in female are the examples of primary sex organs
Sol. Answer (3)
Conduction of gametes is function of secondary sex organs.

2. Why the testes in human beings and mammals are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called
scrotum?
(1) There is not enough space in the pelvic area for the testicles to be housed internally
(2) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of testes, 2.5°C lower than normal body temperature
required for spermatogenesis
(3) The scrotum helps in maintaining the high temperature of testis, 2.5°C higher than the normal body
temperature required for spermatogenesis
(4) Providing more space for the growth of epididymis
Sol. Answer (2)
Testes are extra-abdominal because for spermatogenesis, temperature required is 2.5°C lower than normal body
temperature.

3. Read the following paragraph with two blanks : Each testis has about A compartments called as testicular
lobules. Each lobule contains B highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which the sperms are produced. The
correct option for the two blanks is
A B
(1) 50 1-3
(2) 100 1
(3) 250 1-3
(4) 500 3
Sol. Answer (3)
Factual information.
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12 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

4. Which of the following cells secrete testicular hormones called androgens and form endocrine part of the testis?
(1) Leydig cells (2) Interstitial cells (3) Sertoli cells (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Leydig cells are also called interstitial cells because they are present in the interstitial space between the
seminiferous tubules and they secrete androgens..

5. Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as _________.
(1) Urethral meatus (2) Ejaculatory duct (3) Ureter (4) Epididymis
Sol. Answer (2)
Path of sperm
Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens

Urethra  Ejaculatory duct

Vas deferens dilates to form ampulla, which receives the duct from seminal vesicle and forms an ejaculatory
duct.

6. Fructose is present in the secretion of

(1) Corpus spongiosum
(2) Seminal vesicles
(3) Urethra
(4) Tyson’s gland
Sol. Answer (2)
Secretin of seminal vesicles contain fructose, inositol, prostaglandins and clotting protein.

7. Male accessory glands include

(1) Paired seminal vesicles
(2) A prostate gland
(3) Paired bulbourethral gland
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Bulbourethral glands (= Cowper’s glands) and seminal vesicles are paired and prostate gland is unpaired.

8. Sertoli cells are found in

(1) Ovaries and secrete progesterone
(2) Testes and secrete testosterone
(3) Seminiferous tubules and after spermiogenesis, sperm heads become embedded in them
(4) Adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
Sol. Answer (3)
Sertoli cells are also known as sustentacular or nurse cells.

(The Female Reproductive System, Gametogenesis)

9. The largest part of the fallopian tube is

(1) Infundibulum (2) Isthmus (3) Ampulla (4) Cervix

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Solutions of Assignment Human Reproduction 13
Sol. Answer (3)

Uterine fundus
Uterine cavity
Isthmus

Ampulla Fallopian
tube
Infundibulum

Endometrium Ovary
Myometrium
Fimbriae
Perimetrium
Cervix
Cervical canal

Vagina

10. Which of the following is last part of the oviduct, which has narrow lumen and joins with the uterus?
(1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus (3) Infundibulum (4) Fimbriae
Sol. Answer (2)

Uterine fundus
Uterine cavity
Isthmus

Ampulla Fallopian
tube
Infundibulum

Endometrium Ovary
Myometrium
Fimbriae
Perimetrium
Cervix
Cervical canal

Vagina

11. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release _________ from the ovary by the process called ovulation.
(1) Primary oocyte
(2) Secondary oocyte after completing meiosis-II
(3) Secondary oocyte after completing meiosis-I and with the release of 1st polar body
(4) Mature ovum
Sol. Answer (3)
There is unequal division of cytoplasm. Secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase-II and II meiotic division
is completed only after the entry of sperm.

12. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells form
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Primary spermatocytes
(3) Secondary spermatocytes (4) Spermatids

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14 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

At Puberty
Spermatogonia (2n) 46
Mitosis
differentiation
Primary spermatocytes (2n) 46
1st meiotic
division
Secondary spermatocytes 23
2nd meiotic
division
Spermatids 23

Differentiation

Spermatozoa 23

(Menstrual Cycle, Fertilisation and Implantation)

13. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstrual cycle?
(1) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche
(2) Lack of menstruation may also occur due to some environmental factors like stress, poor health
(3) Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of endometrium
(4) In absence of fertilisation, corpus luteum degenerates in luteal phase and new follicles start developing
immediately
Sol. Answer (4)
In absence of fertilization, corpus luteum degenerates in luteal phase but new follicles do not start develop
immediately after its degeneration. During follicular phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become
fully mature Graafian follicle.

14. In the fertile human female, approximately on which day of the menstrual cycle (32 days) does ovulation take
place?
(1) Day 18 (2) Day 14 (3) Day 1 (4) Day 8
Sol. Answer (1)
The ovulation occurs 14 days before the completion of one menstrual cycle, hence, 32 – 14 = 18 i.e.
18th days.

15. After ovulation Graafian follicle transforms into

(1) Corpus luteum (2) Corpus albicans (3) Corpus callosum (4) Follicular atresia
Sol. Answer (1)
During luteal phase (after ovulation), the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform as corpus luteum.

16. Fertilisation in human beings occurs in

(1) Isthmus (2) Ampullary-isthmic junction
(3) Uterus (4) Infundibulum
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.

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Solutions of Assignment Human Reproduction 15
17. Why it is scientifically correct to say that sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother?
(1) Human female produces two types of gametes
(2) Human male produces one type of gametes
(3) Human female is XX, whereas male is XY, 50 percent of sperms carry the X chromosome while other 50
percent carry Y chromosome
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Due to heterozygosity in male sex chromosomes (XY), the sex of baby is decided by the kind of sperm (having
X or Y) approaching female ovum (which has X).

(Pregnancy and Embryonic Development, Parturition and Lactation)

18. In human female, the blastocyst
(1) Forms placenta even before implantation
(2) Gets implanted in the uterus 3 days after ovulation
(3) Gets implanted in the endometrium by trophoblast cells
(4) The trophoblast cells get differentiated as the embryo
Sol. Answer (3)
After implantation, chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form
placenta.
Blastocyst gets implanted in the uterus about 7 days after fertilization.
Inner cell mass gets differentiated into embryo.

19. Trophoblast, is not involved in the formation of

(1) Protective and trophic membranes (2) Foetal portion of placenta
(3) Body of developing embryo (4) Chorionic villi
Sol. Answer (3)
Body of developing embryo is formed by inner cell mass.

20. Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) B. Human placental lactogen (hPL)
C. Estrogens D. Progesterone
(1) A & B (2) B only (3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (4)
hCG and hPL are exclusively produced by placenta
hCG is functionally similar to LH.

21. Which of the following groups of hormones are produced in women only during pregnancy?
(1) hCG, hPL, relaxin (2) Estrogen, progesterone, hCG
(3) Cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine (4) Prolactin, progesterone, hCG
Sol. Answer (1)
hPL (= human placental lactogen) has lactogenic properties, thus supporting prolactin from mother’s pituitary
during pregnancy. hCG ( = human chorionic gonadotrophin) stimulates corpus luteum of pregnancy to continue
secrete progesterone. Relaxin, secreted by corpus luteum, facilitates parturition by softening the connective
tissue of public symphysis.

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22. Immediately after implantation, ectoderm, endoderm and the mesoderm of embryo is formed from
(1) Trophoblast (2) Cytotrophoblast (3) Embryoblast (4) Syncytiotrophoblast
Sol. Answer (3)
Embryoblast is the name given to inner cell mass.

23. The stem cells which have potency to give rise to all tissues and organs are formed from
(1) Trophoblast (2) Umbilical cord (3) Inner cell mass (4) Placenta
Sol. Answer (3)
Stem cells in inner cell mass form primary germinal layers.

24. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

(1) Differentiation of mammary gland (2) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
(3) Fully developed foetus and placenta (4) Release of oxytocin from pituitary
Sol. Answer (3)
The signals for parturition originate from fully developed foetus and the placenta which induce mild uterine
contractions called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary.

25. Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of
(1) Estrogen from placenta (2) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(3) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary (4) Relaxin from leydig’s cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxytocin causes uterine contractions leading to child birth. Relaxin is released from corpus luteum.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions

(The Male Reproductive System)

1. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells A and B. Which of the following options is
correct, w.r.t. the type of cell and its function?
A B

(1) Male germ cells : Undergo meiotic division Sertoli cells : Provide nutrition to germ cells

(2) Spermatogonia : Undergo Mitosis Sertoli cells : Secrete testicular hormones

(3) Male germ cells : Leading to sperm formation Leydig cells : Secrete androgens

(4) Sertoli cells : Provide nutrition to germ cells Leydig cells : Secrete inhibin

Sol. Answer (1)

Spermatogonia are male germ cells.
Leydig cells are found outside the seminiferous tubules.

2. Which of the following is a set of male accessory ducts?

(1) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, tubuli recti
(2) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
(3) Epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra
(4) Seminiferous tubules, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens
Sol. Answer (2)
The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.

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3. Trace the correct path of movement of the sperms upto urethra.
(1) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia  Rete testis  Epididymis  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct
 Urethra
(2) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct
 Urethra
(3) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct
 Urethra
(4) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Ejaculatory duct  Vas deferens
 Urethra
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.

4. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Which of the following
part contributes to the maximum portion of semen?
Urinary
bladder
A
B
C
D

Urethra

Testis

Foreskin
Glans penis

(1) D (2) C (3) B (4) A

Sol. Answer (3)
Seminal vesicles contributes the major part of the ejaculate.
C is prostate gland and D is bulbourethral glands.

(The Female Reproductive System, Gametogenesis)

5. Which of the following depicts the site of impantation of blastocyst under normal condition?

III
I
II IV

VI

(1) II (2) V (3) I (4) VI

Sol. Answer (3)
I  Endometrium
II  Myometrium
III  Infundibulum
IV  Fimbriae
V  Cervical canal
VI  Vagina

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6. Which one of the following is incorrect match?

(1) Myometrium : Exhibits strong contractions during delivery of the baby
(2) Endometrium : Undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle
(3) Perimetrium : Serosa of uterus
(4) Uterus : Birth canal
Sol. Answer (4)
The cavity of cervix is called cervical canal. Cervical canal + Vagina = Birth canal

7. Which of the following is the correct match about the female external genitalia and their functions?
(1) Mons pubis : Cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair and surround the vaginal orifice
(2) Labia majora : Fleshy folds of tissue which extend down from the mons pubis and surround the
vaginal opening
(3) Labia minora : Paired folds of tissue under the labia majora homologous to scrotum in males
(4) Clitoris : A tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora above
the urethral opening. It is analogous to penis in males
Sol. Answer (2)
Labia majora surround vaginal opening and are homologous to scrotum.
Clitoris is homologous to penis.

8. The mammary glands are paired structures that contain the glandular tissue and variable amount of fat. The
correct sequence of tissues involved in synthesis and flow of milk are
(1) Mammary lobes  Mammary alveoli  Mammary ampulla  Mammary duct  Lactiferous duct
(2) Mammary lobes  Mammary alveoli  Mammary duct  Mammary ampulla  Lactiferous duct
(3) Mammary lobes  Mammary alveoli  Lactiferous duct  Mammary ampulla  Mammary duct
(4) Mammary alveoli  Mammary lobes  Lactiferous duct  Mammary duct
Sol. Answer (2)

Fat
Mammary lobe

Mammary alveolus

Mammary duct

Ampulla Rib

Lectiferous duct Muscles

between ribs

Nipple
Pectoralis
Areola major muscle

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9. Study the flow chart. Name the hormones labelled as A, B, C, D at each stage.

A
Hypothalamus Pituitary

Secrete

B C
acts at acts at

Leydig Sertoli
cells cells

Secrete Secrete

D Inhibin
Choose the correct option.
A B C D
(1) Gn-RH ICSH Androgen FSH

(2) Gn-RH LH FSH Androgens

(3) Gonadotropins LH FSH Testosterone

(4) Gn-RH FSH LH Androgens

Sol. Answer (2)

GnRH (= Gonadotropin releasing hormone) is a hypothalamic hormone, which acts on anterior pituitary to
secrete gonodotropins (FSH & LH). LH acts at Leyding cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of
androgens. FSH acts on sertoli cells and stimulates some factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis.

10. Given below are four statements (A - D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fill up
the blanks in two statements :
A. The human male ejaculates about (i) million sperms during a coitus. Out of which, for normal fertility
at least (ii) percent sperms must have normal shape and size
B. A primary spermatocyte completes (i) meiotic division leading to the formation of two equal haploid
cells called (i)
C. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of (i) due to significant increase in the secretion of (ii) a
hypothalamic hormone
D. Oogenesis is initiated during embryonic development and at puberty only (i) primary follicles are left
in each ovary
(1) A - (i) : 200 to 300; (ii) 40 (2) A - (i) : 200 to 300; (ii) 40
B - (i) : Second; (ii) Spermatids D - (i) : 60,000 to 80,000
(3) B - (i) : First; (ii) Secondary spermatocytes (4) C - (i) : Puberty; (ii) Gonadotropins
C - (i) : Puberty; (ii) GnRH D - (i) : 60,000 to 80,000
Sol. Answer (3)
A (i) 200-300 million sperms; (ii) 60
B (i) First; (ii) Secondary spermatocyte
C (i) Puberty; (ii) GnRH
D (i) 60,000 to 80,000

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11. Which of the following labelled parts produces energy for the movement of the tail that facilitate sperm motility
essential for fertilisation?
A

Head B

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
Sol. Answer (3)
A - Acrosome (has enzymes that help in fertilization)
B - Nucleus (chromosomal material)
C - Middle piece (having mitochondria and serves as energy source for swimming)
D - Tail (for motility)

13. Androgen binding protein which helps in concentrating testosterone in the seminiferous tubule, and which inhibits
ICSH secreted by anterior pituitary and GnRH production by hypothalamus is secreted by
(1) Cells of Leydig
(2) Sustentacular cells
(3) Interstitial cells
(4) Spermatogonial cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Sertoli cells are also known as nurse cells or sustentacular cells. They secrete inhibin.

(Menstrual Cycle, Fertilisation and Implantation)

12. What induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte?
(1) Contact of the sperm with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum
(2) The entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida and the plasma
membrane
(3) Entry of the sperm in the ampullary-isthmic junction
(4) Copulation
Sol. Answer (2)
The secretions of the acrosome help the sperm enter into cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona pellucida
and the plasma membrane. This induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte.

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14. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of ovary. Which one set of three parts out of
I–VI are correctly identified?
Blood I VI II
vessels
III

IV

(1) VI - Primary follicle; III - Graafian follicle, V - Corpus luteum

(2) II - Secondary follicle; III - Tertiary; IV - Ovulation
(3) I - Primary follicle; II - Tertiary follicle; V - Corpus luteum
(4) I - Primary follicle; II - Corpus luteum; V - Graafian follicle
Sol. Answer (3)
I - Primary follicle
II - Tertiary follicle showing antrum
III - Graafian follicle
IV - Ovum
V - Corpus luteum
VI - Secondary follicle
* Primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic division.

15. Which one of the following is the incorrect match of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(1) Menstruation : Breakdown of endometrium and ovum not fertilised
(2) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level
(3) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of endometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(4) Development of corpus luteum : Follicular phase and increased secretion of progesterone
Sol. Answer (4)
Development of corpus luteum occurs in luteal or secretory phase.

16. Identify the hormones that are secreted in large amount prior to ovulation :
A. LH B. FSH
C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
(1) A only
(2) A & B only
(3) A, B & C only
(4) A, B, C & D

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Sol. Answer (3)

Hormone levels
Pituitary

FSH LH

Developing Regressing
corpus luteum
Hormone levels Ovarian events

Developing follicle Mature follicle corpus luteum

Ovulation
Ovarian

Estrogen

Progesterone
Uterine events

Menses

Days
1 3 5 7 9 11 13 15 17 19 21 23 25 27 29/1
Menstruation Follicular phase Luteal phase Next cycle
(Proliferative phase) (Secretory phase) begins

17. Inhibition of uterine contraction ceases and the bleeding and cramps of menstruation begin due to
(1) Increase in level of progesterone (2) Decrease in level of progesterone
(3) Increase in level of LH (4) Decrease in level of FSH
Sol. Answer (2)
Low level of progesterone causes menstruation because progesterone is responsible for maintaining
endometrium of uterus.

18. Why do all copulations not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy? The root cause is _________.
(1) Due to numerous sperms and one ovum
(2) Due to less progesterone
(3) Ovum and sperms are not transported simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic junction
(4) Due to non-formation of corpus luteum
Sol. Answer (3)
Life span of sperm in male reproductive tract  few weeks
Life span of sperm in female reproductive tract  48 to 72 hours.
Viability of secondary oocyte after its release is for 24 hours.
So, both must be viable for fertilization to occur.

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19. Following the diagram of an ovum surrounded by few sperms :

Sperm

B
A Ovum

Which of the following option is correct for the labelled parts A, B and C?
A B C
(1) Follicular cells Corona radiata Perivitelline space
(2) Zona pellucida Perivitelline space Corona radiata
(3) Zona pellucida Corona radiata Perivitelline space
(4) Perivitelline space Zona pellucida Corona radiata
Sol. Answer (3)

Sperm

Cell of the
Zone Ovum Corona radiata
pellucida

Perivitelline space

20. Which of the following enzyme helps sperm to penetrate zona pellucida?
(1) Hyaluronidase (2) Neuraminidase
(3) Acrosin (4) Corona penetrating enzyme
Sol. Answer (3)
Acrosin is also called zona lysin and digests zona pellucida. Hyaluronidase dissolves hyaluronic acid. CPE
dissolves corona radiata.

21. Which centriole of spermatozoa is required for first cleavage?

(1) Proximal centriole (2) Distal centriole
(3) Ring centriole (4) Posterior centriole
Sol. Answer (1)
Proximal centriole and nucleus of sperm enter into the secondary oocyte during fertilization.

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22. Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Polyspermy is prevented by depolarisation of the membrane is called as fast block
(2) Entry of sperm into ovum restarts the cell cycle by breaking down MPF and turning on the APC
(3) If implantation occurs anywhere else other than uterus, it is called tubal pregnancy
(4) Ability to reproduce is lost in female primate after menopause
Sol. Answer (3)
Ectopic pregnancy is the term given for implantation occurring at site other than uterus. Implantation normally
occurs in fundus part of uterus.

(Pregnancy and Embryonic Development, Parturition and Lactation)

23. Identify the stages A and B; and what is the correct labelling of C and D?
D

C
A B
Choose the correct option.
A B C D
(1) Morula Blastocyst Follicular cells Inner cell mass
(2) Morula Blastocyst Embryoblast Tropho blast
(3) Morula Blastocyst Trophoblast Inner cell mass
(4) Blastocyst Morula Trophoblast Inner cell mass
Sol. Answer (3)
Blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and an inner group of cells
attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass.

24. The first sign of the growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound carefully through the
stethoscope. Embryo's heart is formed _________.
(1) By the end of the second month of pregnancy (2) By the end of first trimester
(3) After one month of pregnancy (4) During fifth month
Sol. Answer (3)
Factual information.

25. In human beings, pregnancy lasts for 9 months. The gestation period of dog, elephant, cat and cow is given
below. Which of the following is wrong match?
Animal Gestation period
(1) Dog 60 - 65 days
(2) Elephant 607 - 641 days
(3) Cat 52 - 65 days
(4) Cow 330 - 345 days
Sol. Answer (4)
Cow’s gestation period = 279 to 292 days.

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26. Which of the following decidua layer forms a partition between developing embryo and lumen at uterus?
(1) Decidua basalis (2) Decidua parietalis (3) Decidua capsularis (4) Contra deciduate
Sol. Answer (3)
The modified portion of endometrium of uterus upon implantation is called decidua. It sheds when foetus is
delivered.
Decidua basalis is part underlying the chorionic vill and overlying myometrium.
Decidua parietalis (= Decidua vera) is the part that lines the uterus at places other than the site of attachment
of embryo.
‘Contra-deciduate’ is that animal in which even the foetal part of placenta is retained and gets absorbed to
provide nourishment. Example, Talpa (male).

27. Which of the following is not a correct statement about umbilical cord?
(1) It connects the placenta to the embryo
(2) It helps in the transport of substances to and from the embryo
(3) It produces several hormones like hPL, estrogen and progesterone
(4) It has 100% foetal blood
Sol. Answer (3)
Umbilical cord is not an endocrine structure.

28. Sometimes the labor pains are less and uterine contractions have to be induced. What do you think the doctors
inject to facilitate delivery?
(1) Progesterone and estrogen hormones (2) Oxytocin/Pitocin
(3) FSH and LH (4) Relaxin
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxytocin is also called birth hormone and milk ejecting hormone

29. Which of the following is not the function of Sertoli cells (sustentacular cells)?
(1) Release of androgen binding protein (2) Release of antimullerian factor
(3) Regulate spermatogenesis by releasing inhibin (4) Secretion of testosterone
Sol. Answer (4)
Leydig cells (= interstitial cells) secrete testosterone on getting stimulated by LH or ICSH.

30. If both ovaries are removed from pregnant human female in first trimester of pregnancy then it will lead to
(1) Abortion (2) Normal development
(3) Irregular ovulation no fixed time interval (4) Menarche
Sol. Answer (1)
In first trimester, corpus luteum is required for the production of progesterone (the pregnancy hormone), however,
after first trimester, placenta secretes sufficient progesterone.

31. Decidua which takes part in the formation of maternal portion of the placenta is
(1) Decidua basalis (2) Decidua capsularis (3) Decidua parietalis (4) Chorion
Sol. Answer (1)
Decidua basalis lies under the chorionic villi and over the myonetrium.

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32. The minimum number of barriers present between foetal and maternal blood is present in which type of
placenta?
(1) Syndesmochorial (2) Haemochorial (3) Haemoendothelial (4) Endotheliochorial
Sol. Answer (3)
In Haemoendothelial type, all barriers except endothelium of foetal part of placenta get eroded, e.g., rat, rabbit.

33. Blood flowing in umbilical cord of mammalian embryo is

(1) 100% maternal (2) 50% maternal and 50% foetal
(3) 100% foetal (4) 75% foetal and 25% maternal
Sol. Answer (3)
Umbilical cord is connection between foetus and placenta and has 100% foetal blood.

34. Epiboly is the process of

(1) Rotation of gastrula within vitelline membrane so that animal pole becomes anterior
(2) Overgrowth of micromeres which divide rapidly and spread downward over megameres except at yolk plug
(3) Mass migration of cells from animal hemisphere so that upper micromeres migrate over edge of dorsal lip, roll
inside and tucked beneath outer layer
(4) Formation of small slit like invagination upon grey crescent
Sol. Answer (2)
Epiboly - descending of dividing cells to cover other cells.
Invagination - tucking in blastula wall.
Emboly - Upward movement of dividing cells underneath the cells.

35. Drugs such as Thalidomide taken by woman in first trimester of pregnancy cause all the following
malformations in the developing embryo, except
(1) Phocomelia (2) Amelia (3) Heart disorder (4) Placentitis
Sol. Answer (4)
Placentitis is inflammation of placenta.

36. Home use kits for determining a women's fertile period depend on the detection of one hormone in the urine.
This hormone is
(1) Progesterone (2) Estradiol (3) hCG (4) LH
Sol. Answer (4)
LH surge occurs during fertile period. LH induces ovulation.

37. Neural crest cells break off from the ________ and later move to the sides of the developing embryo to form
________
(1) Placodes, sense organs of head
(2) Ectoderm, sense organs of head
(3) Notochord, vertebral column
(4) Neural tube, autonomic ganglia
Sol. Answer (4)
Neural tube is formed from ectoderm. Its anterior part forms brain and posterior part forms spinal cord.

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38. Type of placenta in the human is
(1) Chorionic, discoidal, epitheliochorial, deciduate
(2) Deciduate, hemochorial, diffuse, allantochorionic
(3) Hemochorial, metadiscoidal, deciduate, chorionic
(4) Non-deciduate, discoidal, chorionic, hemoendothelial
Sol. Answer (3)
Haemochorial placenta has only three barriers. Maternal part of placenta is completely absent. It occurs in
humans, apes, lemurs.
Metadiscoidal - Diffuse first, then discoidal.
Deciduate - A portion of uterine tissue is detached and passed out at birth.
Chorionic - Formed by chorionic villi.

39. Which type of placenta is present in the early human embryo?

(1) Discoidal (2) Diffuse (3) Zonary (4) Cotyledonary
Sol. Answer (2)
Metadiscoidal - diffuse first then discoidal.

40. Which of the following can be termed as milk ejecting hormone?

(1) Prolactin (2) Oestrogen (3) Progesterone (4) Oxytocin
Sol. Answer (4)
Oxytocin is milk ejecting because it stimulates contraction of smooth muscles of mammary glands.

SECTION - C

Previous Years Questions

1. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is [NEET-2018]

(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli
cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while
in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
Sol. Answer (3)
Spermiogenesis is transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa whereas spermiation is the release of the
sperms from sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous tubule.
2. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are [NEET-2018]
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
Sol. Answer (4)

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28 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

Placenta releases human chorionic gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which stimulates the Corpus luteum during
pregnancy to release estrogen and progesterone and also rescues corpus luteum from regression. Human
placental lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of mother and breast. Progesterone maintains pregnancy,
keeps the uterus silent by increasing uterine threshold to contractile stimuli.
3. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II [NEET-2018]
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
a b c
(1) iii ii i
(2) i iii ii
(3) iii i ii
(4) ii iii i
Sol. Answer (4)
During proliferative phase, the follicles start developing, hence, called follicular phase.
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase mainly controlled by progesterone secreted by corpus luteum.
Estrogen further thickens the endometrium maintained by progesterone.
Menstruation occurs due to decline in progesterone level and involves breakdown of overgrown endometrial
lining.
4. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on [NEET-2017]
(1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin
(2) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH
(3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH
(4) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin
Sol. Answer (2)
Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of gonadotropins (FSH
and LH).
5. Capacitation occurs in [NEET-2017]
(1) Rete testis (2) Epididymis
(3) Vas deferens (4) Female Reproductive tract
Sol. Answer (4)
Capacitation is increase in fertilising capacity of sperms which occurs in female reproductive tract.
6. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is [NEET-2017]
(1) Pineal gland (2) Corpus cardiacum (3) Corpus luteum (4) Corpus allatum
Sol. Answer (3)
Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine structure formed in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible for
the release of the hormones like progesterone, oestrogen etc.
7. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Rete testis  Efferent ductules  Epididymis  Vas deferens
(2) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules  Vas deferens
(3) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules  Epididymis
(4) Efferent ductules  Rete testis  Vas deferens  Epididymis

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Sol. Answer (1)
Pathway of transport of sperms in human male is
Rete testis  Efferent ductules (Vasa efferentia)  Epididymis  Vas deferens.
8. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:
[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
Column-I Column-II
a. Mons pubis (i) Embryo formation
b. Antrum (ii) Sperm
c. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia
d. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle
Codes:
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
Sol. Answer (2)
Correct matching is:
(a) Mons pubis – Female external genitalia
(b) Antrum – Graafian follicle
(c) Trophoectoderm – Embryo formation
(d) Nebenkern – Sperm
9. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Ovary (2) Placenta
(3) Fallopian tube (4) Pituitary
Sol. Answer (2)
Hormones secreted by placenta are hCG, hPL, estrogen and progesterone.
10. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if [NEET-2016]
(1) The sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
(2) The sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
(3) The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube

(4) The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the cervix
Sol. Answer (3)
Fertilization in human is practically feasible only if the sperms and ovum are transported simultaneously at
ampullary-isthmic junction.
11. Identify the correct statement on inhibin [NEET-2016]
(1) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH
(2) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
(3) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
(4) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
Sol. Answer (3)
Inhibin is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and has direct effect on the secretion of FSH.

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30 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

12. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of [NEET-2016]
(1) Progesterone and inhibin (2) Estrogen and progesterone
(3) Estrogen and inhibin (4) Progesterone only
Sol. Answer (2)
High level of estrogen and progesterone gives negative feedback to hypothalamus for the release of GnRH.
13. Select the incorrect statement : [NEET-2016]
(1) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells
(2) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis
(3) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(4) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase
Sol. Answer (4)
In follicular phase of menstrual cycle, LH and FSH increase gradually.
14. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance
(2) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
(3) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus
(4) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
Sol. Answer (3)
Any extra uterine pregnancy is ectopic pregnancy. Implantation can occur in the wall of abdominal cavity,
ovaries but 90-95% of ectopic pregnancies are tubal pregnancy where implantation occurs in fallopian tube.
15. Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) LH surge (2) Decrease in estradiol
(3) Full development of Graafian follicle (4) Release of secondary oocyte
Sol. Answer (2)
In 28 days reproductive cycle, ovulation occurs on 14th day due to LH surge. In the mid cycle, the level of
FSH and estrogen are also high. The female gamete is released from the ovary in secondary oocyte stage
after completing meiosis I.
16. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Birth (2) Puberty (3) Fertilization (4) Uterine implantation
Sol. Answer (3)
In human females, meiosis II is completed after the entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of secondary oocyte
at the time of fertilisation leading to the formation of ovum and IInd polar body.
17. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is acellular? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Granulosa (3) Theca interna (4) Stroma
Sol. Answer (1)
Zona pellucida is non-cellular membrane made up of glycoproteins. It is secreted by secondary oocyte in
Graafian follicle.
18. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Release of prolactin (2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins (4) Release of oxytocin

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Sol. Answer (1)
At the time of parturition there is decrease in progesterone; release of prostaglandins and oxytocin, this will
stimulate the contraction of smooth muscles of uterus.
19. Capacitation refers to changes in the [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Sperm after fertilization (2) Sperm before fertilization
(3) Ovum before fertilization (4) Ovum after fertilization
Sol. Answer (2)
Before the sperm can fertilize the ovum, it has to undergo capacitation and acrosomal reaction. Capacitation
is a period of conditioning which occur in sperms starting from vagina. In this the cholesterol vesicles adhering
the membrane surrounding the acrosome are removed.
20. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Mammary glands (2) Uterus (3) Prostate gland (4) Vas-deference
Sol. Answer (2)
Uterus is also called as hystera. So, removal of uterus is hysterectomy.
21. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Secondary polar body (2) Primary polar body
(3) Spermatid (4) Spermatogonia
Sol. Answer (4)
Spermatogonia are diploid.
22. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Estrogen only (2) Progesterone
(3) Human chorionic gonadotropin (4) Relaxin only
Sol. Answer (2)
Corpus luteum secretes progesterone (mainly) and some estrogen.
23. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of [NEET-2013]
(1) FSH (2) Oxytocin (3) Vasopressin (4) Progesterone
Sol. Answer (4)
Progesterone maintains endometrium Endometrium is shed during menstruation due to low levels of
progesterone.
24. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation? [NEET-2013]
(1) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid
(2) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid
(3) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
(4) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa
Sol. Answer (3)
Meiosis-I Meiosis-II
Spermatogonia Primary Secondary Spermatid Sperm
spermatocyte Spermatocyte
(2n) (2n) (n) (n) (n)
differentiation
Number 1X 2X 4X 4X
25. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It [NEET-2013]
(1) Secretes estrogen
(2) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo
(3) Secretes oxytocin during parturition
(4) Facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

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32 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

Oxytocin is secreted by anterior pituitary of mother.
26. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result expected was
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis
(2) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
(3) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
(4) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
Sol. Answer (1)
hCG (= human chorionic gonadotropin) stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone and estrogen.
27. Signals for parturition originate from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Fully developed foetus only
(2) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(3) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(4) Placenta only
Sol. Answer (2)
Fully developed foetus and placenta stimulate foetal ejection reflex, which triggers release of oxytocin from
maternal pituitary.
28. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension
(2) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours
(3) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium and is more active in alkaline medium
(4) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility
Sol. Answer (2)
Sperm is viable for 48-72 hours.
29. Identify the human developmental stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a
normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together. [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

Developmental stage Site of occurrence

(1) Late morula Middle part of Fallopian tube
(2) Blastula End part of Fallopian tube
(3) Blastocyst Uterine wall
(4) 8-celled morula Starting point of Fallopian tube
Sol. Answer (3)
In normal pregnancy, blastocyst gets implanted in the fundus region of uterus.

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Solutions of Assignment Human Reproduction 33
30. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
(2) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
(3) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
(4) Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
Sol. Answer (4)
Uterus Ovary Duration

Secretory phase luteal phase 14 days

Proliferative phase follicular phase about 10 days
31. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Glucagon (2) Androgens (3) Progesterone (4) Intestinal mucus
Sol. Answer (2)
LH stimulates Leydig cells to secrete androgens.
32. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system of humans.
Which one set of three parts out of I – VI have been correctly identified?

I
II IV
V

VI

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube (2) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae
(3) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix (4) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix
Sol. Answer (3)
(I) Endometrium (II) Myometrium (III) Infundibulum (IV) Fimbriae
(V) Cervix (VI) Vagina
33. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose
served is for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting the male sex
(2) Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the internal body temperature
(3) Escaping any possible compression by the visceral organs
(4) Providing more space for the growth of epdidymis
Sol. Answer (2)
Spermatogenesis requires 2.5°C lower than the body temperature.
34. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not be
transported from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Vagina to uterus (2) Testes to epididymis
(3) Epididymis to vas deferens (4) Ovary to uterus
Sol. Answer (2)
Vasa efferentia or ductuli efferentes connect rete testis to epididymis, part of the extratesticular duct system.

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34 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

35. What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one
(2) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida
(3) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
(4) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails
Sol. Answer (3)
Zona reaction makes the zona pellucida impervious to second sperm by destroying sperm receptors.
36. About which day in a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-surge)
normally occurs [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) 5th day (2) 11th day (3) 14th day (4) 20th day
Sol. Answer (3)
LH surge occurs prior to ovulation. LH induces ovulation.
37. Which one of the following conditions of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human female
child? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Only one X chromosome (2) One X and one Y chromosome
(3) Two X chromosome (4) Only one Y chromosome
Sol. Answer (3)
XX - female baby
XY - male baby
38. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Frog’s both males and females (2) Frog’s males
(3) Human males (4) Human females
Sol. Answer (2)
39. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) In the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division
(2) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
(3) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(4) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
Sol. Answer (3)
Secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase-II state and meiosis-II is completed only when sperm enters the
mature egg.
40. Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Acrosome serves no particular function
(2) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg resulting in fertilization
(3) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization
(4) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
Sol. Answer (3)
Acrosome is filled with enzymes that help in fertilization.
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Solutions of Assignment Human Reproduction 35
41. Sertoli cells are found in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
(2) Ovaries and secrete progesterone
(3) Adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(4) Seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ cells
Sol. Answer (4)
Sertoli cells are also called nurse cells.
42. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Epididymis to urethra (2) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(3) Rete testis to vas deferens (4) Vas deferens to epididymis
Sol. Answer (3)
Vasa efferentia connect rete testis to extratesticular genital system.
43. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Ribose and potassium (2) Fructose and calcium
(3) Glucose and calcium (4) DNA and testosterone
Sol. Answer (2)
Seminal plasma is rich in fructose, Ca2+ and certain enzymes.
44. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month
of pregnancy? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Third month (2) Fourth month (3) Fifth month (4) Sixth month
Sol. Answer (3)
Factual.
45. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus (3) Infundibulum (4) Cervix
Sol. Answer (3)
Infundibulum, also called oviducal funnel, is closest to ovary.
46. In human female the blastocyst [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Forms placenta even before implantation
(2) Gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation
(3) Gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation
(4) Gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells
Sol. Answer (4)
Placenta is formed after implantation. Blastocyst gets implanted about 7 days after fertilization. As morula
enters the uterus, it gets rich supply of nutrients from endometrial fluid.
47. Which one of the following statements about morula in humans is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an uncleaved zygote
(2) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(3) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote
(4) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and DNA as in uncleaved zygote
Sol. Answer (2)
During cleavage, there is no increase in mass of cytoplasm of developing embryo. There is increase in DNA
content. Interphase is without growth phase.
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36 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

48. Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Estrogen from placenta (2) Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
(3) Oxytocin from foetal pituitary (4) Relaxin from placenta
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxytocin is birth hormone. It stimulates contractions of smooth muscles of uterus.
49. Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Male accessory glands (2) Liver
(3) Pancreas (4) Salivary glands
Sol. Answer (1)
Male accessory glands  seminal vesicles, prostate gland and bulbourethral glands.
50. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Release of oxytocin from pituitary (2) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) Differentiation of mammary glands (4) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
Sol. Answer (2)
The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine
contractions called foetal ejection reflex. This triggers release of oxytocin from maternal pituitary.
51. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Pattern of cleavage
(2) Number of blastomeres produced
(3) Fertilization
(4) Formation of zygote
Sol. Answer (1)
Pattern of cleavage depends upon amount and distribution of yolk.
52. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle ?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(2) Development of : Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone
corpus luteum
(3) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium and ovum not fertilised
(4) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
Sol. Answer (2)
Menstruation - breakdown of endometrium, occurs when ovum is not fertilized.
Ovulation - After ovulation, large amounts of progesterone are secreted by corpus luteum during luteal phase.
Proliferative phase - Regeneration of endometrium.
53. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Fructose and calcium but has no enzymes
(2) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium
(3) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
(4) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
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Sol. Answer (4)
Fructose is energy yielding substrate, required for motility.
54. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct set
of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

A
B
C
D

A B C D
(1) Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland
(2) Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland Prostate
(3) Ureter Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland
(4) Ureter Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland
Sol. Answer (1)

Ureter Urinary
bladder
Vas deferens Seminal
vesicle
Prostate
Bulbourethral
gland
Epididymis
Urethra
Vasa efferentia
Rete testis

Testicular lobules Testis

Foreskin
Glans penis
55. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling
human female? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
(2) Maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream
(3) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
(4) Fertilisation of the ovum
Sol. Answer (4)
Root cause of menstruation is unfertilized ovum.
56. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Spermatogonia (2) Primary spermatocytes
(3) Secondary spermatocytes (4) Spermatids
Sol. Answer (3)
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38 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

At Puberty
Spermatogonia 46
Mitosis
differentiation
Primary spermatocytes 46
1st meiotic
division
Secondary spermatocytes 23
2nd meiotic
division
Spermatids 23

Differentiation

Spermatozoa 23

57. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the utrerus?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Amnion (2) Chorion (3) Allantois (4) Yolk sac
Sol. Answer (1)
58. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) FSH only (2) LH only
(3) Combination of FSH and LH (4) Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Answer (4)
Progesterone is essential for maintenance of endometrium, which is thickened by estrogen.
Menstrual flow occurs due to the breakdown of endometrial lining of uterus as a result of fall in level of
progesterone.
59. Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Vitelline membrane (2) Graafian follicle
(3) Stroma (4) Germinal epithelium
Sol. Answer (2)
After ovulation, the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum, which secretes
large amounts of progesterone and some estrogen.
60. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) FSH (2) GH (3) Prolactin (4) LH
Sol. Answer (1)
61. Grey crescent is the area [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) At the point of entry of sperm into ovum
(2) Just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
(3) At the animal pole
(4) At the vegetal pole
Sol. Answer (2)
Grey crescent is the area formed opposite to the point of entry of sperm in animal half. It is observed in frog
during fertilization.

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62. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(2) Estrogen secretion further decreases
(3) Primary follicle starts developing
(4) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
Sol. Answer (3)
Primary follicles start developing mainly in follicular phase after menstrual phase.
63. Which of the following best illustrates FEEDBACK in development?
(1) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that slows down the growth of tissue (Y)
(2) Tissue (X) secretes RNA which changes the development of tissue (Y)
(3) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes enzymes that inhibit the development of tissue (Y)
(4) As tissue (X) develops, it secretes something that induces tissue (Y) to develop
Sol. Answer (4)
Feedback in development is mainly induction by developed tissue to form another tissue.
64. The figure shows a section of human ovary. Select the option which gives the correct identification of A and
B with function/characteristic
A

B
(1) A – Primary oocyte – it is in prophase–I of the meiotic division
(2) B – Corpus luteum – secretes progesterone
(3) A – Tertiary follicle – forms Graafian follicle
(4) B – Corpus luteum – secretes estrogen
Sol. Answer (2)
A-Primary follicle having primary oocyte.
65. The number of autosomes in human primary spermatocyte is
(1) 46 (2) 44 (3) 23 (4) 22
Sol. Answer (2)

Primary spermatocyte is (2n) diploid having 46 chromosomes

44 2(XY)
autosomes sex chromosomes
66. Corpus luteum releases
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone
(3) Estrogen and progesterone (4) Androgen
Sol. Answer (3)
Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone and some estrogen.

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40 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

67. Which of the following organs is devoid of glands?

(1) Uterus (2) Vagina
(3) Vulva (4) Oviduct
Sol. Answer (2)
Vagina has no glands. It is highly vascular lined internally by mucus membrane.

68. Primary spermatocyte differs from spermatogonium in

(1) Number of chromosomes (2) Size and volume
(3) DNA content (4) Size of chromosomes
Sol. Answer (2)
Some spermatogonia grow, increase in size by accumulating nourishing materials and are called primary
spermatocytes.

69. In human, cleavage divisions are

(1) Slow and synchronous (2) Fast and synchronous
(3) Slow and asynchronous (4) Fast and asynchronous
Sol. Answer (3)
Factual.

70. Bartholin’s glands are situated

(1) On the sides of the head of some amphibians (2) At the reduced tail end of birds
(3) On either side of vagina in humans (4) On either side of vas deferens in humans
Sol. Answer (3)
Bartholin’s glands are paired greater vestibular glands.
They are present on both sides of vaginal orifice and secrete alkaline secretion for lubrication and neutralising
urinary acidity.

71. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation?

(1) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
(2) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost
(3) The menstrual fluid can easily clot
(4) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones
Sol. Answer (3)
Uterus secretes fibrinolytic enzyme and dissolves the clotted blood in uterus during menstrual phase. Hence,
blood in the menses always remains in liquid state.

72. In human adult females oxytocin

(1) Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
(2) Is secreted by anterior pituitary
(3) Stimulates growth of mammary glands
(4) Stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
Sol. Answer (1)
Oxytocin is birth hormone.
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73. What is true about cleavage in the fertilized egg in humans?
(1) It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube (2) It starts when the egg reaches uterus
(3) It is meroblastic (4) It is identical to the normal mitosis
Sol. Answer (1)
First cleavage is completed after 30 hours of fertilization.
74. The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from
(1) Trophoblast (2) Inner cell mass (3) Formative cells (4) Follicle cells
Sol. Answer (1)
Embryo is formed by inner cells mass and extra embryonic membranes by trophoblast.
75. In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the duration of luteal phase is approximately?
(1) 14 days (2) 28 days (3) 30 days (4) 5 days
Sol. Answer (1)
Luteal phase or the post ovulatory phase lasts for 14 days.
76. The mammalian corpus luteum produces
(1) Luteotropic hormone (2) Luteinizing hormone
(3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
Sol. Answer (4)
Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone and some estrogen.
77. Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from
(1) Polar bodies (2) Middle piece of sperm
(3) Mature eggs (4) Acrosome
Sol. Answer (3)
Fertilizin is produced by mature egg and antifertilizin is produced by sperm. These are species specific.
78. In human beings, the eggs are
(1) Mesolecithal (2) Alecithal (3) Microlecithal (4) Macrolecithal
Sol. Answer (2)
Human egg is without yolk, hence cleavage is holoblastic.
79. In the fertile human female, approximately on which day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation take place?
(1) Day 14 (2) Day 18 (3) Day 1 (4) Day 8
Sol. Answer (1)
Day of evolution = number of days in menstrual cycle – 14.
Normally, 28 – 14 = 14
80. Which one of the following cells, found in testes of rabbit secretes male hormone?
(1) Epithelial cells (2) Spermatocytes
(3) Leydig’s cell (4) Sertoli cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Leydig cells or interstitial cells secrete testosterone.
81. The middle piece of the sperm contains
(1) Proteins (2) Mitochondria (3) Centriole (4) Nucleus
Sol. Answer (2)
Mitochondria serve as energy source for swimming.
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42 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

82. After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into

(1) Corpus atresia
(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Corpus albicans
Sol. Answer (3)
Corpus luteum is the yellow body formed after ovulation.

83. Cleavage in mammals is described as

(1) Holoblastic equal (2) Holoblastic unequal
(3) Superficial (4) Discoidal
Sol. Answer (1)
Cleavage is holoblastic (and equal) because human egg is alecithal.

84. Which set is similar?

(1) Corpus luteum – Graafian follicles (2) Sebum – sweat
(3) Bundle of His – pace maker (4) Vitamin B7 – Niacin
Sol. Answer (1)
Pace maker – Sino Atrial Node
Vitamin B7 – Biotin
Vitamin B3 – Niacin
Glands secreting sebum and sweat are different.

85. What is true for cleavage?

(1) Size of embryo increases (2) Size of cells decrease
(3) Size of cells increase (4) Size of embryo decreases
Sol. Answer (2)
In cleavage divisions, interphase is without growth phase.

86. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle
(1) At the mid secretory phase (2) Just before the end of the secretory phase
(3) At the beginning of the proliferative phase (4) At the end of the proliferative phase
Sol. Answer (4)

Menstrual phase Proliferative phase/ Secretory phase

for 3 to 5 days (Follicular phase) (luteal phase)
(6 to 13 days) OVULATION (14 days)
14th day (15th – 28th day)

87. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary system in the human male is
(1) Urethra
(2) Ureter
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Vasa efferentia
Sol. Answer (1)
Urethra is urino-genital duct in human male.

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Solutions of Assignment Human Reproduction 43

SECTION - D

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : Failure of testes to descend into the scrotum causes sterility in man.

R : Higher internal body temperature is not suitable for sperm development.
Sol. Answer (1)
Spermatogenesis requires 2 - 2.5°C lower than the body temperature.

2. A : Middle piece of sperm is called powerhouse.

R : It contains mitochondria.
Sol. Answer (1)
Mitochondria provide energy for motility of sperm.

3. A : Vaginal orifice is partially covered by a membrane called the hymen.

R : It is made up of thick layer of smooth muscle.
Sol. Answer (3)
Hymen is a membranous structure, partially covering vaginal orifice.

4. A : The male urethra is longer than the female urethra.

R : It carries both urine as well as semen.
Sol. Answer (2)
Male urethra is about 20 cm long and female urethra is 2-4 cm. In females, genital tract and urinary tract have
different openings.

5. A : In human, ovum is alecithal type.

R : It is almost free of yolk.
Sol. Answer (1)
Alecithal = without yolk.

6. A : Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscles and cause stronger uterine contractions, which in turn stimulates
further secretion of oxytocin.
R : Oxytocin is released from maternal pituitary.
Sol. Answer (2)
Oxytocin is also called birth hormone.

7. A : In morula stage the cells divide without any increase in size.

R : Zona pellucida remains intact till cleavage is completed.
Sol. Answer (1)
There is marked increase in DNA but no increase in mass of cytoplasm.

8. A : In frog gray cresent is formed during fertilization.

R : It is because the black granules move towards the point of entry of the sperm in animal half.

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Sol. Answer (1)

Grey crescent is the area just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum in animal half. It is formed in
frog during fertilization.

9. A : If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is rescued from regression by human chorionic gonadotropin, which
is produced by placenta.
R : In first trimester the corpus luteum stimulates by hCG is responsible for the production of progesterone.
Sol. Answer (1)
hCG stimulates corpus luteum to secrete progesterone and estrogen for longer time. After first trimester,
placenta secretes sufficient progesterone.

10. A : If both the ovaries are removed after the first trimester of pregnancy, still there would be normal growth of
foetus.
R : After first trimester placenta secretes sufficient progesterone.
Sol. Answer (1)
During first trimester, corpus luteum is responsible for secreting progesterone. If both ovaries are removed during
first trimester, there will be abortion.

11. A : Placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which helps in the transport of substance
to and from the embryo
R : Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue.
Sol. Answer (2)
Umbilical cord is not an endocrine structure.

12. A : All copulations do not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.

R : Fertilisation can occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the ampullary-isthmic
junction.
Sol. Answer (1)
Sperm is viable for 48 to 72 hours
Ovum life is for 24 hours
Both have to be viable for fertilization when they reach ampullary - isthmic junction.

13. A : Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.

R : Menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is fertilised.
Sol. Answer (3)
Menstruation occurs when released secondary ocyte remains unfertilized in a normal female.

14. A : LH acts on Sertoli cells for release of certain factors required for spermatogenesis.
R : Spermiation occurs directly under influence of LH.
Sol. Answer (4)
FSH acts on sertoli cells for release of factors required for spermatogenesis (Spermiogenesis). Spermiation occurs
directly under the influence of testosterone.

15. A : The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound through the stethoscope.
R : By the end of second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.

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Sol. Answer (2)
Human heart is formed after one month of pregnancy.

16. A : Leydig’s cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
R : Leydig’s cells are located between the Sertoli cells.
Sol. Answer (3)
Leydig’s cells are located outside the seminiferous tubules.

17. A : In spermatogenesis, the first haploid forms are spermatids.

R : All the end of meiosis cells have haploid set of chromosomes.
Sol. Answer (4)
First haploid forms are secondary spermatocytes.

18. A : Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual experience.
R : It can be broken down by a sudden fall or jolt, insertion of a vaginal tampon, or active participation in some
sports like horse riding.
Sol. Answer (1)
Hymen is membrane partially covering vaginal opening.

19. A : After menopause the levels of blood gonadotropins will rise markedly.
R : At the time of menopause all the ovarian follicles are converted into follicular atresia and the ovaries are
not responding to the gonadotropins.
Sol. Answer (2)
Gonadotropins are seen in urine of females after menopause. Absence of negative feedback of estrogen and
progesterone increases level of gonadotropins in blood.

20. A : The secretions of male accessory glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium
and certain enzymes.
R : Fructose serves as a source of energy for the sperms.
Sol. Answer (2)
Energy is required for swimming of sperms in female genital tract.

21. A : Corpus luteum begins to atrophy after a short life of 10 to 14 days, if fertilisation does not occur.
R : Luteolysis may be due to withdrawal of LH support.
Sol. Answer (1)
LH maintains corpus luteum.

22. A : Most birds possess only the left ovary and left oviduct for conveying the ovum released from the ovary.
R : The avian ovary does not form a corpus luteum from the ruptured ovarian follicle which undergoes rapid
shrinkage.
Sol. Answer (2)

23. A : The most immediate effect of FSH is the maturation of existing late primary or secondary follicle.
R : A rising level of FSH causes the developing egg within the follicle to complete the first meiotic division to
form a secondary oocyte.

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46 Human Reproduction Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (1)

First meiotic division is completed in tertiary follicle under influence of FSH.

24. A : The morula passes through the phase of compaction, produces two major type of cells : the peripheral
cells and the inner cell mass.
R : The descendants of inner cell mass become the trophoblast cells.
Sol. Answer (3)
Inner cell mass becomes embryo.

25. A : Development is the emergence of a multicellular organism from a single group of cells.
R : Development involves growth, differentiation and morphogenesis.
Sol. Answer (2)

26. A : Synthesis of milk is stimulated by rise in the level of oxytocin.

R : Oxytocin is released from the adenohypophysis under influence of hypothalamus.
Sol. Answer (4)
Ejection of milk is stimulated by rise in oxytocin.
Synthesis of milk is stimulated by rise in level of prolactin.

27. A : Blastocyst undergoes gastrulation to produce the three germinal layers.

R : This involves cell movements (morphogenetic movement) that eventually help to attain new shape and
morphology of embryo.
Sol. Answer (2)
Morphogenetic movements involve epiboly, emboly, involution, invagination and delamination. Delamination is
chief in humans.

28. A : The scrotum acts as temperature regulator for the testes.

R : Wall of scrotum is supported by dartos muscles which help in positioning of testes.
Sol. Answer (1)
Cremaster and dartos muscles help in positioning of testes according to the surroundings’ temperature.

29. A : Fertilin protein is present in the egg membrane.

R : It helps in agglutination reaction.
Sol. Answer (4)
Fertilizin protein is present on egg membranes and anti-fertilizin on sperms.

30. A : Corticotrophin releasing hormone is a part of the clock that establishes the timing of birth.
R : The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine
contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
Sol. Answer (2)
Placenta secretes chorionic corticotropin.

  

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Chapter 15

Reproductive Health

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Reproductive Health-Problem and Strategies, Human Population Growth)

1. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects
of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social. The headquarters of WHO are located in
(1) USA (2) Geneva (3) England (4) France
Sol. Answer (2)
According to it, a society with people having physically and functionally normal reproductive organs and normal
emotional and behavioural interactions among them in all sex-related aspects might be called reproductively
healthy.

2. India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at national level to
attain reproductive health. The programmes called as 'family planning' were initiated in ______ year in India.
(1) 1951 (2) 1976 (3) 1971 (4) 1987
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

3. All the following are uses of amniocentesis, but one is misuse. Which one is misuse?
(1) The centres for genetic counselling offer amniocentesis on request to women for chromosome analysis
(2) This technique has been developed for detecting foetal abnormalities by analysing chromosomal defects
(3) It is used to study metabolic defects of foetus like PKU (phenyl ketonuria)
(4) It is done to examine the sex of the foetus leading to increasing female foeticides
Sol. Answer (4)
Amniocentesis is legal only for detection of any genetic disorder based on chromosomal pattern of foetus.

4. According to 2001 census, the population growth rate was

(1) 2.6% (2) 1.7% (3) 2.1% (4) 2.7%
Sol. Answer (2)
Growth rate was about 2.1% per year during 1965-1970.

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5. World Population Day is

(1) 11th July (2) 21st September (3) 7th April (4) 1st July
Sol. Answer (1)
7th April  World Health Day; 21st September - World Alzheimer’s Day.

6. In India, marriageable age for boys is ______ and girls is ______ respectively.
(1) 21, 18 years (2) 15, 14 years (3) 15, 18 years (4) 18, 21 years
Sol. Answer (1)
Marrying before the respective ages is illegal.

(Methods of Birth Control)

7. Among the following methods, which one has the highest failure rate?
(1) Diaphragm with spermicide (2) Condom
(3) Intrauterine device (4) Rhythm method
Sol. Answer (4)
Rhythm method is periodic abstinence during fertile period (from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when
ovulation could be expected) others are barrier methods.

8. Which of the following is not a natural method of contraception?

(1) Periodic abstinence (2) Withdrawal method
(3) Lactational amenorrhoea (4) Condoms
Sol. Answer (4)
Condoms are classified as barrier method. These also help in protection from sexually transmitted diseases.

9. Natural methods of contraception work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting. It
includes
A. Periodic abstinence B. Withdrawal
C. Coitus interruptus D. Lactational amenorrhoea
(1) A & B only (2) B & C only (3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (4)
Periodic abstinence is natural method of avoiding coitus from day 10 to day 17 of menstrual cycle.
Coitus interruptus or withdrawal is natural method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina
just before ejaculation. Lactational amenorrhea is based on the fact that the menstrual cycle during intense
lactation following parturition.

10. In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple refrains from intercourse
(1) One day before and after ovulation (2) Two days before and after ovulation
(3) Three days before and after ovulation (4) One week before and after ovulation
Sol. Answer (3)
Day 10 to day 17 in a 28 day menstrual cycle.

11. Which of the following method of contraception has maximum chances of failure?
(1) Rhythm/Periodic abstinence (2) Vasectomy
(3) Condoms (4) IUDs
Sol. Answer (1)
Rhythm/Periodic abstinence is natural method with failure rate of 20-30 per 100 women.

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Solutions of Assignment Reproductive Health 49
12. Which of the following is an incorrect statement for periodic abstinence?
(1) The couple should abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be
expected
(2) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile period, when the chances of fertilisation are high
(3) This prevents the chances of union of male and female gametes
(4) In this method, the ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of barriers
Sol. Answer (4)
Periodic abstinence is a natural method, not a barrier method.

13. Lactational amenorrhoea, is a natural way of birth spacing. It is due to the high level of
(1) FSH and LH hormones (2) Estrogen (3) Prolactin (4) Progesterone
Sol. Answer (3)
High level of prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropins.

14. Use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit
of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?
(1) Diaphragms and cervical caps (2) IUDs
(3) Condoms (4) Contraceptive pills
Sol. Answer (3)
Condoms are barrier methods.

15. Which of the following statement is/are correct about diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults?
A. Barrier methods of contraception B. Cover the cervix during coitus
C. Protect the user from contracting STDs D. They are reusable
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & C
(3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
Protection from STDs is mainly provided by male and female condoms.

16. 'Nirodh' is a popular brand of

(1) IUDs for female (2) Contraceptive pill for female
(3) Condom for male (4) Condom for female
Sol. Answer (3)
Factual

17. The diaphragm is a rubber dome shaped structure and stops the sperms from entering into
(1) Vestibule (2) Vagina (3) Cervix (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Diaphragm is placed inside the vagina.

18. Use of spermicidal creams, jellies and foams along with diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults leads to
(1) Increased contraceptive efficiency (2) Prevention of ovulation
(3) Prevention of implantation (4) Increased sexual desire and drive
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemical method includes spermicides. Barrier methods are mechanical devices preventing the deposition of
sperms into vagina and their passage into uterus. Both together will decrease the failure rate.

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50 Reproductive Health Solutions of Assignment

19. Which of the following is not included under barrier methods of birth control?
(1) Vaginal pouch (2) Diaphragm (3) Cervical cap (4) Implant
Sol. Answer (4)
Implants are hormone containing devices which are implanted subdermally for providing long term contraception.
e.g., norplant and implanon.

20. Which of the following hormone/s is/are maintained at high level during hormonal method of birth control?
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Progesterone (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (3)
Progesterone maintains endometrium High levels of progesterone prevents the further extension of menstrual
cycle, thereby, no ovulation.
21. Which of the following is world’s first non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill for females, developed by scientists
at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India?
(1) Mala-D (2) Saheli (3) Morning after pills (4) PoP
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli is a non steroidal drug that works by preventing implantation.
22. Which of the following is a once-a-week pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value?
(1) Mala-D (2) Saheli (3) Depo-provera (4) Norplant
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli works by impairing implantation. Menstrual cycle occurs normally.
23. Oral contraceptive pills contain
(1) FSH and LH hormones (2) Progestogen and estrogen combination
(3) Prolactin (4) Mifepristone
Sol. Answer (2)
Progestogen is synthetic progesterone.
24. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects used by females. They work by
(1) Inhibiting ovulation
(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Failure rate of oral contraceptive is 2-3 per 100 women.
25. Which one of the following is the most widely used method of contraception by females in India?
(1) Oral contraceptive pills (2) Condoms (3) IUDs (4) Sterilisation
Sol. Answer (3)
IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy or space children.
26. Which of the following contraceptive device is inserted by the doctor or trained nurse in the uterus through the
vagina?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cu-T (3) Condom (4) Vault
Sol. Answer (2)
IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina.
27. Which of the following is an additional advantage of hormone releasing IUDs?
(1) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
(2) Suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms
(3) They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms
(4) They always inhibit ovulation

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Solutions of Assignment Reproductive Health 51
Sol. Answer (3)
These hormones (progesterone and levonorgestrel) cause changes in cervical mucus and endometrium.

28. Amongst the following methods of contraception, which can be regarded as the most cost effective and easily
reversible method of contraception?
(1) Cu-T (2) Tubectomy (3) Vasectomy (4) Sterilisation method
Sol. Answer (1)
Sterilisation methods, i.e., tubectomy and vasectormy, are not easily reversible methods. Their reversibility is
very poor.

29. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?

(1) Cu-T (2) LNG-20 (3) Multiload 375 (4) Implant
Sol. Answer (2)
LNG-20 is a levonorgestrel IUD

30. Which of the following cannot protect the user from contracting AIDS?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cervical caps (3) Vaults (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Condoms and fem shields (term used for female condoms) provide protection from sexually transmitted diseases
like AIDS.

31. Implants under the skin and injectables contain

(1) Progestogen alone (2) Progestogen and estrogen
(3) FSH and LH (4) Both (1) & (2) are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Norplant is progestin only implant.

32. A birth control implant having six small, plastic cylinders and with the effective period much longer upto 5 years
is
(1) Norplant (2) Multiload-375 (3) Injectable (4) LNG-20
Sol. Answer (1)
Norplant is progestin only device having six small silicone capsules each having levonorgestrel.

33. Which of the following is a terminal method of contraception to prevent any more pregnancies?
(1) Barrier method (2) IUD (3) Hormonal method (4) Sterilisation method
Sol. Answer (4)
Because sterilisation methods have very poor reversibility.

34. ‘Norplant’ is the new form of birth control and it

(1) Allows ovulation but doesn’t allow fertilization
(2) Makes the cervical mucus thin making sperm entry into the uterus difficult
(3) Has progestin as the active ingredient
(4) Is effective for a maximum of one year
Sol. Answer (3)
It does not allow ovulation due to presence of progestin. It makes cervical mucus thick and is effective for 5
years.

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52 Reproductive Health Solutions of Assignment

35. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to ________ weeks of pregnancy

(1) 12 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 18
Sol. Answer (1)
It is safe upto 12 weeks of pregnancy. However, it can be done upto 20 weeks by Indian law.

36. Which of the following drug is progesterone antagonist and acts as an abortion drug?
(1) Saheli (2) Mifepristone (3) Mala-N (4) Depo-provera
Sol. Answer (2)
Misoprostol (prostaglandins) along with mifepristone is an effective combination for abortion.

37. A sterilisation technique in females which blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception is
(1) Vasectomy (2) Copper-T (3) Condom (4) Tubectomy
Sol. Answer (4)
Vasectomy blocks sperm transport while tubectomy blocks transport of ova.

38. Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptive as they could be used
to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 hours?
A. Administration of progestogens
B. Progestogen-estrogen combination
C. IUDs inserted within 72 hours of coitus
(1) A only (2) A & B only (3) B only (4) A, B & C
Sol. Answer (4)
The drugs used for emergency contraception are morning after pills.

39. Sexually transmitted diseases can get transmitted easily during use of
(1) Diaphragm (2) Cervical cap (3) Birth control pills (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
STDs can be prevented from transmission by condoms because they prevent even the genital fluids of opposite
sex to come in contact.

(Sexually Transmitted Diseases)

40. Which of the following STDs is not caused by a bacterium?
(1) Chlamydia (2) Gonorrhoea (3) Syphilis (4) Genital Herpes
Sol. Answer (4)
Genital Herpes is caused by HSV–2.

41. Which of the following STD and its causative agent is not correctly matched?
(1) Genital warts : Haemophilus ducrei
(2) Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
(3) Genital herpes : Type II Herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)
(4) Trichomoniasis : Trichomonas vaginalis
Sol. Answer (1)
Genital warts is caused by human papilloma virus.

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42. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a protozoan?
(1) Gonorrhoea (2) Trichomoniasis (3) Chlamydiasis (4) Syphilis
Sol. Answer (2)
Gonorrhoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae ( a bacterium)
Syphilis - By bacterium Treponema pallidum
Chlamydiasis - By bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis
Trichomoniasis - Trichomonas vaginalis, flagellated protozoan.

43. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with antibiotics?

A. Gonorrhoea B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia D. Genital herpes
(1) D only (2) B and D (3) C and D (4) C only
Sol. Answer (1)
Genital herpes is a viral disease (STD).

44. Which of the following STDs is caused by the human papilloma virus (HPV) and is transmitted through intimate
contact with infected person?
(1) Genital herpes (2) Genital warts (3) AIDS (4) Chlamydia
Sol. Answer (2)
- Chlamydia is a genus of bacterium.
- AIDS is caused by Human Immuno Deficiency Virus
- Genital Herpes is caused by Herps Simplex Virus II

45. Most of the sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly, except
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) Genital herpes (3) HIV infections (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
These are viral diseases.

46. AIDS day is

(1) 11th July (2) 1st December (3) 1st July (4) 7th April
Sol. Answer (2)
7th April - World Health Day
11th July - World Population Day
1st July - World Doctor’s Day

(Infertility, Assisted Reproductive Technologies)

47. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement defining infertility?
(1) Couple is unable to produce children inspite of unprotected sexual co-habitation even after two years
(2) It is the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to defects abnormalities in the female
partner
(3) Infertility is due to immature sex organs
(4) Infertility cannot be helped by ART
Sol. Answer (1)
Infertility can be due to defects in males or females.

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54 Reproductive Health Solutions of Assignment

48. Surrogate mother is

(1) Mother without lactation (2) Future mother with embryo implanted from another
(3) Female carrying several embryos (4) Artificially inseminated female
Sol. Answer (2)
Surrogacy is the use of a gestational carrier.

49. The latest technique to produce a child is GIFT. The full form is
(1) Gametic internal fertilization and transfer (2) Gametic intra fallopian transfer
(3) Gametic inter fallopian transfer (4) General internal fallopian transfer
Sol. Answer (2)
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum,
but can provide suitable environment and further development.

50. All of the following statements about ZIFT are correct, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) It is zygote intra fallopian transfer
(2) Zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube after IVF
(3) Early embryos upto 8 blastomeres can also be transferred into the fallopian tubes
(4) Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are also transferred into the fallopian tubes
Sol. Answer (4)
Embryos with more than eight blastomeres are transferred into uterus, i.e., Intra-uterine transfer, to complete
its further development.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions

(Reproductive Health-Problem and Strategies, Human Population Growth)

1. Mark the incorrect statements
A. Castration is a method of contraception
B. MTPs have a significant role in decreasing the size of population, so it is legal.
C. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned in our country
D. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world
(1) A & B only (2) C & D only (3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (1)
Castration is removal of testes. For a contraceptive, it is necessary not to interfere with formation of sex
hormones.
MTPs are mainly meant for preventing unnatural maternal deaths due to unsafe abortions.
2. A population is said to achieve demographic transition, if
(1) Birth rate equals death rate
(2) Emigration equals immigration if population is same, in both places
(3) Doubling time is 33 years
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
When there is a zero population growth, this is known as demographic transition. Doubling time is time required
by a population to double itself.

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3. Which of the following can be taken as characteristic demographic features of the developing countries?
(a) High fertility rate (b) Rapidly rising mortality rate
(c) Very young age distribution (d) Rapid population growth
(e) Rapidly falling mortality rate (f) Very old age distribution
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a), (c), (d), (e) (3) (a), (b), (c), (e) (4) (a), (b), (d), (e)
Sol. Answer (2)
Developing countries have a rapidly growing population as they have much larger number of young people. Mortality
rate has fallen in many countries due to improved personal hygiene, sanitation and modern medicines.

4. Which of the following can be taken as the most convincing factor for indicating the rapid increase in population
growth of a country?
(1) Low mortality rate (2) High natality or birth rate
(3) Low replacement level (4) High population of young children
Sol. Answer (4)
Young people are in reproductive active age and number of female individuals in active reproductive age influences
birth rate within a population.

5. In India, population crossed one billion mark in May 2000. The probable reasons for this are, decline in
A. Maternal mortality rate (MMR) B. Infant mortality rate (IMR)
C. Number of people in reproducible age D. Death rate
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & C (3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
MMR and IMR have decreased due to improved medical facilities. Death rate has fallen due to improved personal
hygiene sanitation and modern medicines.

(Methods of Birth Control)

6. Castration cannot be taken as a contraceptive device, because
(1) Deficiency of testosterone hormone, will deprive a person of sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act
(2) It inhibits gamete transport
(3) It is surgical method of contraception also called sterilisation
(4) This technique is highly effective but its reversibility is poor.
Sol. Answer (1)
Contraceptive devices should not interfere with arousal of sexual drive, desire and castration refers to removal
of testes in males.

7. In lactational amenorrhoea, there is no ovulation or menstruation during the period of intense lactation following
parturition, due to high level of prolactin, which?
(1) Inhibits the release of gonadotropins (2) Inhibits the release of estrogen and progesterone
(3) Stimulate the release of FSH and LH (4) Stimulates the release of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Answer (1)
Prolactin inhibits release of FSH and LH.

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8. Which of the following is a wrong match between the type of contraception and its function?
Contraceptive device Function
(1) Contraceptive pills – Inhibit ovulation
(2) Sterilisation – Inhibit gamete formation
(3) IUDs – Inhibit implantation
(4) Natural methods – Avoid chances of ovum
and sperm meeting
Sol. Answer (2)
Sterilisation methods include vasectomy and tubectomy that block the passage of gametes.

9. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?

(1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375 (3) LNG-20 (4) Progestasert
Sol. Answer (2)
Lippes loop is inert IUD.
LNG-20 is hormone releasing IUD  levonorgesterol IUD.
Progestasert is progesterone IUD.

10. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

(1) Non-medicated IUDs – Lippes loop
(2) Copper releasing IUD – LNG-20
(3) Hormone releasing IUD – Progestasert
(4) Saheli – Once a week contraceptive pill
Sol. Answer (2)
LNG-20 is levonorgesteral IUD–a hormone releasing IUD.

11. What is the function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs?

(1) They increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus
(2) They suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms
(3) They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
(4) They inhibit ovulation
Sol. Answer (2)
Copper-IUDs have local antifertility effect by bringing about release of toxic cytokines which suppress sperm
motility and thereby their ability to fertilize the ovum.

12. Which of the following statement is not correct about oral contraceptive pills?
(1) They have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days, starting preferably within the first five days of menstrual
cycle
(2) They contain small doses of progestogen-estrogen combination
(3) They inhibit ovulation and implantation
(4) Ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of barriers
Sol. Answer (4)
Oral contraceptives are preparations containing either progestin alone or both progesterone and oestrogen. They
do not involve physical barriers.

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13. All the following statements are correct about 'Saheli', but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) New oral contraceptive pill for females
(2) Contains non-steroidal preparation
(3) It is 'once a week pill'
(4) It increases the phagocytosis of the sperm within the uterus
Sol. Answer (4)
Saheli impairs implantation and has least or no side effects.

14. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the female. They work
by
(1) Inhibiting ovulation
(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Oral contraceptives having progesterone or both progesterone and estrogen inhibit ovulation and also change
the quality of cervical mucus. Saheli works by preventing implantation.

15. Vasectomy has no effect on the sexual life of male because :

(1) He can still ejaculate and has normal secretion of sex hormones in blood
(2) Vasectomy affects the hormonal secretion but the person can ejaculate semen with normal number of
sperms
(3) He cannot ejaculate but the hormone levels are normal
(4) Vasectomy does not affect the sexual desire but can cause impotency
Sol. Answer (1)
He can ejaculate normal but there will be no sperms.
There is no effect on production of male hormones.

16. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t. tubectomy or tubal ligation?
(1) It is more difficult than vasectomy and is even more difficult to reverse
(2) No ovulation occurs, hence no fertilization is possible
(3) It involves ligation of both fallopian tubes
(4) The failure rate of this approach is almost zero percent
Sol. Answer (2)
Ovulation does occur. This method aims at blocking the passage of ovum, hence no fertilization occurs,
because ovum does not meet the sperm.

17. Use of which of the following contraceptive device has increased in recent years due to its additional benefit
of protecting the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?
(1) Coitus interruptus (2) IUDs (Intra Uterine Devices)
(3) Condoms (4) Vasectomy
Sol. Answer (3)
Both male and female condoms protect the user from contracting STDs.

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18. Which of the following graphs is the correct representation of the level of progesterone in a female who has
been using Mala-D as a method of birth control.
Hormone

Hormone
level

level
(1) (2)
1 5 10 15 20 25 30 1 5 10 15 20 25 30
Days Days
Hormone

Hormone
level

level
(3) (4)
1 5 10 15 20 25 30 1 5 10 15 20 25 30
Days Days
Sol. Answer (2)
Progestin and oestrogen are responsible for maintaining the endometrium and its further thickening respectively.
This increased level of progestin prevents menstruation (and afterwards ovulation). These hormones are
maintained at high levels for longer time.

19. Action of which of the following hormones is blocked during use of RU 486 (mifepristone)?
(1) FSH (2) LH (3) Progesterone (4) hCG
Sol. Answer (3)
Progesterone arrests the menstrual cycle at luteal phase. Decreased level of progesterone leads to the next
phase, i.e., menstrual phase.

(Sexually Transmitted Diseases)

20. Which of the following is an important detection technique for syphilis?

(1) Gram staining of the discharge (2) Nucleic acid hybridisation, PCR
(3) Antibody detection e.g., VDRL (4) Microscopic examination of culture
Sol. Answer (3)
Agglutination is the basic principle of VDRL  Venereal Disease Research Laboratory Test.

21. Which of the following causative agents of STDs can cross the placenta?
(1) Hepatitis-B (2) HIV (3) Syphilis (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Placenta acts as an ultrafilter through which soluble organic and inorganic materials, hormones, antibodies
against diptheria, small pox etc. and causative agents - viruses of the diseases can pass from mother to foetus.

22. Which of the following virus has ds-DNA as the genetic material and is transmitted mainly by sexual contact?
(1) Hepatitis-A (2) Hepatitis-B (3) Hepatitis-C (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Hepatitis-A virus  ssRNA
Hepatitis-B virus  dsDNA
Hepatitis-C virus  ssRNA
Hepatitis-D virus  ssRNA
Hepatitis-E virus  ssRNA

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23. The most common site of infection in case of Chlamydia in female is
(1) Cervix (2) Urethra (3) Uterine tubes (4) Bladder
Sol. Answer (1)
In males, urethritis is the principal result and in females, cervicitis. Main site of infection is cervix. However,
due to its proximity to vagina, female urethra may also become infected.

24. Which of the following parts cannot get affected in a female suffering from chlamydia?
(1) Cervix (2) Urethra (3) Uterine tubes (4) Bladder
Sol. Answer (4)
Chlamydia infects genital system. Due to its proximity to vagina, female urethra may also become infected.
But urinary bladder is not affected.

25. Which of the following can’t be taken as the symptom of a female suffering from gonorrhea?
(1) Enlargement of uterus (2) Discharge of pus from vagina
(3) Inflammation of uterine tubes (4) Peritonitis or inflammation of the peritoneum
Sol. Answer (1)
Gonorrhea is an STD.

26. In case of a person suffering from syphilis, the chancre formation occurs during
(1) Primary stage (2) Secondary stage (3) Tertiary stage (4) Neurosyphilis stage
Sol. Answer (1)
The primary stage shows the symptom of chancre Chancre is painless open sore.

27. Which of the following stages of syphilis is characterised by a skin rash, fever and aches in the joints and
muscles?
(1) Primary stage (2) Secondary stage (3) Tertiary stage (4) Neurosyphilis stage
Sol. Answer (2)
1° stage  painless open sores called chancre.
2° stage  skin rash, fever and aches.
3° stage  organ degeneration
Neurosyphilis  organs of nervous system get damaged.

28. The ‘symptomless’ period or latent period in case of syphilis may last for
(1) 1-5 weeks (2) 6-24 weeks (3) 4-12 weeks (4) 20 years
Sol. Answer (4)
Latent period is seen after secondary stage. During this, the symptoms disappear and the disease ceases
to be infectious but the blood test for presence of bacteria remains generally positive.

29. Which of the following cells are infected in a person suffering from AIDS?
(1) CD4 receptor cells (2) CD8 receptor cells
(3) Killer T cells (4) Germ cells
Sol. Answer (1)
HIV enters body cells by CD4 receptor-mediated endocytosis involving T4 cells.

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30. Which of the following statements about hepatitis-B is incorrect?

(1) It is one of the examples of STD
(2) It is spread primarily by sexual contact, even by contaminated syringes and blood transfusion
(3) It is 42 nm enveloped virus containing ss-RNA as the genetic material
(4) Recombivax HB, vaccine is available to prevent hepatitis-B infection
Sol. Answer (3)
It has dsDNA as the genetic material.

31. Syphilis is an infectious bacterial disease caused by Treponema pallidum with 3 stages
(A) Infectious painless ulcers (i) First
on the genitals
(B) Blindness, heart trouble, (ii) Second
aortic impairment
(C) Skin lesions, hairloss, (iii) Third
swollen joints
Which of the following is the correct match between the symptoms and stage?
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii) (2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii) (3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii) (4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)
Sol. Answer (3)
Syphillis
1° stage - Chancre - painless open sore
2° stage - Skin rash, swollen joints due to aches, hairloss
Latent period - Symptomless period
3° stage - Organ degeneration.
[Neurosyphillis stage  nervous organ degeneration]

32. Which of the following can be complications resulting from STDs without timely detection and treatment?
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) B. Still births
C. Infertility or even cancer of reproductive tract D. Ectopic pregnancies
(1) A & B only (2) A, B & C (3) A only (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (4)
Still births refer to birth of dead baby.
Ectopic pregnancies refer to implantation of blastocyst in parts of female reproductive system other than uterus.
Uterus may be infected in various STDs.

(Infertility, Assisted Reproductive Technologies)

33. Which of the following methods is used during abortion?

(1) Vacuum aspiration (2) Infusion of a saline solution / antiseptics
(3) Scraping / D & C (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Different methods are adopted depending upon the stage of pregnancy.

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34. If a person is suffering from severe male infertility due to very few sperms (oligozoospermia) or even no live
sperms (azoospermia) in the ejaculate, it can be overcome by ________. This should offer couples an alternative
to using donor sperm
(1) GIFT (2) ZIFT (3) ICSI (4) IVF
Sol. Answer (3)
GIFT  Gamet Intra Fallopian Transfer.
ZIFT  Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer.
IVF  In Vitro Fertilization.
ICSI  Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
(One sperm is placed inside the egg by a microscopic needle)

35. Test tube baby is the one

(1) Who is reared on artificial medium outside the womb
(2) Growth of human baby inside the fallopian tube instead of uterus
(3) Ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male) are induced to form zygote by IVF
and then implanted in female
(4) Baby born after artificial insemination
Sol. Answer (3)
Test-tube baby programme involves IVF, followed by embryo implantation in uterus. (IVF  In-vitro fertilisation)

SECTION - C

Previous Years Questions

1. In a growing population of a country, [NEET-2018]

(1) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
(2) Reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
(3) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
(4) Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
Sol. Answer (1)
Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or the younger population size is larger than the reproductive group,
the population will be an increasing population.
2. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ [NEET-2018]
(1) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(2) Increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(3) Is a post-coital contraceptive.
(4) Is an IUD.
Sol. Answer (1)
Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week pill. It contains centchroman and its functioning is based upon
selective Estrogen Receptor modulation.
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3. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is [NEET-2017]

(1) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
(2) They inhibit gametogenesis
(3) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(4) They inhibit ovulation
Sol. Answer (1)
Cu2+ interfere in the sperm movement, hence suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
4. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for
fertilisation? [NEET-2017]
(1) Intrauterine transfer (2) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(3) Artificial Insemination (4) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
Sol. Answer (3)
Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to very low sperm count
in the ejaculates, could be corrected by artificial insemination (AI).
5. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375 (3) Lippes loop (4) Cu7
Sol. Answer (1)
LNG-20 (Levonorgestrel) is a hormone releasing IUDs.
6. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (2) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(3) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied (4) Irreversible sterility
Sol. Answer (2)
In vasectomy, sperms occur in epididymis. In this, vas deferens are cut so sperms are not present in semen.
7. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is transferred into
[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube (3) Fimbriae (4) Cervix
Sol. Answer (1)
In intrauterine transfer (IUT), embryo more than 8 blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is transferred
in uterus.
8. In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect? [NEET-2016]
(1) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
(2) It is usually done when a woman is between 14 - 16 weeks pregnant.
(3) It is used for prenatal sex determination.
(4) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
Sol. Answer (1)
Cleft palate is a developmental abnormality and can be detected by sonography.
Amniocentesis is a foetal sex determination test and is banned in India for sex determination to legally check
increasing female foeticides.
9. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive? [NEET-2016]

(1) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis

(2) Barrier methods Prevent fertilization
(3) Intra uterine Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress
devices sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(4) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent
contraceptives ovulation and fertilization

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Sol. Answer (1)
Vasectomy blocks the gamete transport and does not affect spermatogenesis.
10. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this
technique is [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer (2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
Sol. Answer (3)
GIFT - Gamete intra fallopian transfer
11. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Encephalitis (2) Syphilis
(3) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) (4) Trichomoniasis
Sol. Answer (1)
Encephalitis is not sexually transmitted.
12. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up
(2) Ovaries are removed surgically
(3) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(4) Uterus is removed surgically
Sol. Answer (1)
Surgical removal of ovaries is ovairectomy.
13. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Multiload 375 (2) LNG - 20
(3) Cervical cap (4) Vault
Sol. Answer (2)
Multiload 375 is copper releasing IUD.
14. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Ovum into the fallopian tube (2) Zygote into the fallopian tube
(3) Zygote into the uterus (4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube
Sol. Answer (2)
IVF is in-vitro fertilisation.
15. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis? [NEET-2013]
(1) Sex of the foetus (2) Down syndrome
(3) Jaundice (4) Klinefelter syndrome
Sol. Answer (3)
Amniocentesis is based on the chromosomal pattern of the embryo’s cells in the amniotic fluid. Jaundice is
not genetic disorder, but a digestive one.
16. Artificial insemination means [NEET-2013]
(1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova
(2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina
(3) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary
(4) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova
Sol. Answer (2)
AI  Inseminating the female, i.e., artificially introducing sperms into female vagina.

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17. The Test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT) (2) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(3) Intra uterine insemination (IUI) (4) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
Sol. Answer (1)
Test-tube baby programme involves IVF (in-vitro fertilization) and transfer of embryo at 3-4 days state into fallopian
tube (upto 8-blastomeres).
ZIFT - zygote intra fallopian tube transfer.
18. What is the figure given below showing in particular? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Vasectomy (2) Ovarian cancer (3) Uterine cancer (4) Tubectomy
Sol. Answer (4)
Tubectomy is a surgical procedure of female sterilization where a portion of both the fallopian tubes is excised
or ligated to block the passage of ovum through them.
19. Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, as at present?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) IUDs' (Intra uterine devices) (2) Cervical caps
(3) Tubectomy (4) Diaphragms
Sol. Answer (1)
IUDs  Most widely accepted in India.
20. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Six weeks (2) Eight weeks (3) Twelve weeks (4) Eighteen weeks
Sol. Answer (3)
Medical termination of pregnancy is safe if it performed upto 12 weeks. However, under MTP act, termination
of pregnancy can be done upto 20 weeks, if the pregnancy is likely to produce a congenitally malformed child.
21. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
(2) Who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(3) Who cannot produce an ovum
(4) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
Sol. Answer (3)
GIFT is transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce
ova but her body can support further development of zygote.
22. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Detecting any genetic abnormality
(2) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(3) Artificial insemination
(4) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
Sol. Answer (1)
Amniocentesis is foetal six and disorder determinant test based on chromosomal pattern. Detecting sex of
foetus by amniocentesis is banned.

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23. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Prevent ovulation (2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis of sperms (4) Suppress sperm motility
Sol. Answer (4)
Cu-T has a local antifertility effect by bringing about release of toxic cytokines, which increase phagocytosis
of sperms.
24. Given below are four methods (A - D) and their modes of action (a - d) in achieving contraception. Select
their correct matching from the four options that follow
Method Mode of Action
(A) The pill (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix
(B) Condom (b) Prevents implantation
(C) Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation
(D) Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) A-(b), B-(c), C-(a), D-(d) (2) A-(c), B-(a), C-(d), D-(b)
(3) A-(d), B-(a), C-(b), D-(c) (4) A-(c), B-(d), C-(a), D-(b)
Sol. Answer (2)
Vasectomy blocks the passage of sperms. A person can ejaculate normally but that ejaculate is devoid of
sperms.
Condom is physical barrier. Oral contraceptives having progestin and estrogen preventing ovulation. Cu-T
suppress sperm motility.
25. Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
(b) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
(c) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
(d) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception.
Which two of the above statements are correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, c
Sol. Answer (4)
Lactational amenorrhoea is effective only upto a maximum period of six months.
26. One of the legal methods of birth control is
(1) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(2) By having coitus at the time of day break
(3) By a premature ejaculation during coitus
(4) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
Sol. Answer (4)
Others are natural methods, do not involve any law Legal method is MTP.
27. One of the following is not a method of contraception – which one?
(1) Tubectomy
(2) Condoms
(3) Pills of a combination of oxytocin and vasopressin
(4) Lippes loop
Sol. Answer (3)
Pills of combination of progestin and estrogen are oral contraceptives.

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28. Which one of the following statement is correct regarding Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD)?
(1) The chances of a 5 year boy contacting a STD are very little
(2) A person may contact syphilis by sharing milk with one already suffering from the disease
(3) Haemophilia is one of the STD
(4) Genital herpes and sickle-cell anaemia are both STD
Sol. Answer (1)
STDs  Sexually Transmitted Diseases.
This explains that such diseases are transmitted mainly by sexual contact.
29. The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the laboratory is
(1) Zygote (2) Embryo at 4 blastomere stage
(3) Embryo at 2 blastomere stage (4) Morula
Sol. Answer (4)
Embryo is transferred at 3-4 days developed stage with 8 or more than 8 blastomeres. Morula is 8-32 celled
stage, usually formed after 3 days of fertilization. 8 blastomere stage is transferred into fallopian tube and more
than that in uterus.
30. The most important factor which determines the increase in human population in India during the 20th century
(1) Natality (2) Mortality (3) Immigration (4) Emigration
Sol. Answer (2)
Decrease in maternal and infant mortality rate.
31. The age of pyramid with broad base indicates
(1) High percentage of young individuals (2) Low percentage of young individuals
(3) High percentage of old individuals (4) Low percentage of old individuals
Sol. Answer (1)
Broad base of age pyramid indicates increase percentage of young individuals. Such pyramids are seen in
developing countries where large number of young people are found.
32. The present population of the world is about
(1) 15 billion (2) 6 billion (3) 500 million (4) 100 million
Sol. Answer (2)
World  6 billion
India  1.27 billion
33. The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is
(1) Thyroxine (2) Luteinizing hormone (3) Progesterone (4) Growth hormone
Sol. Answer (3)
Low levels of progesterone causes menstruation. To maintain endometrium. Hence, maintain the cycle in
secretory phase, oral pills have progesterone.
34. Tablets to prevent female conception contain
(1) Progesterone (2) LH (3) FSH (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Progesterone inhibits LH, preventing ovulation.

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35. Which is showing accurate pairing?
(1) Syphilis – Treponema pallidum (2) AIDS – Bacillus anthracis
(3) Gonorrhoea – Leishmania donovani (4) Typhoid – Mycobacterium leprae
Sol. Answer (1)
AIDS - Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.
Gonorrhoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Typhoid - Salmonella typhi
36. What is the function of non-medicated IUD?
(1) To inhibit ovulation (2) To inhibit fertilization
(3) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst (4) To inhibit gametogenesis
Sol. Answer (3)
IUDs mainly prevent implantation. Fertilization chances are there, though minimum.
37. What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills?
(1) To inhibit ovulation
(2) To check oogenesis
(3) To check entry of sperms into cervix and to make them inactive
(4) To check sexual behaviour
Sol. Answer (1)
Progesterone inhibits LH from anterior pituitary.
38. Test tube baby means a baby born when
(1) It is developed in a test tube
(2) It is developed through tissue culture method
(3) The ovum is fertilized externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus
(4) It develops from a non-fertilized ovum
Sol. Answer (3)
Test-tube baby programme  ‘IVF’ then embryo upto atleast eight blastomeres transferred to fallopian tube.
39. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
(1) Zygote only
(2) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(3) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(4) Embryo of 32 cell stage
Sol. Answer (3)
Embryo is developed for 3-4 days outside, i.e., atleast upto eight celled stage.
40. Spirochetes are
(1) A class of insects (2) A class of viruses
(3) Bacteria (4) Fungi
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.

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SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Population of India crossed one billion in May 2000.
R : It is the result of rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR)
as well as an increase in number of people in reproducible age.
Sol. Answer (1)
Death rate has fallen due to improved personal hygiene, sanitation and modern medicines. IMR and MMR have
decreased due to better medical facilities.

2. A : Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are very effective contraceptive method.

R : IUDs don't allow sperms to enter the uterus.
Sol. Answer (3)
Sperms do enter the uterus, where either their motility is suppressed or quality of cervical mucus is changed.

3. A : Surgical method blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception.

R : Surgical method used in the male for this purpose is called vasectomy.
Sol. Answer (2)
Surgical methods do not cease gamete formation. Neither they inhibit formation of sex hormones nor interfere
with sexual drive.

4. A : Saheli - the new oral contraceptive for the female contains a non-steroidal preparation.
R : It is 'once a week' pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive value.
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli is centchroman chemically. It works by preventing implantation.

5. A : In test-tube baby programme, ova from wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are
collected and induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in laboratory.
R : Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are then transferred to fallopian tube (ZIFT) to complete its further
development.
Sol. Answer (3)
Embryos with more than eight blastomeres are transferred into uterus.
6. A : Once conception has occurred abortion can be induced by mifepristone drug.
R : Mifepristone is progesterone antagonistic.
Sol. Answer (1)
MTP in initial stages is done by misoprostal along with mifepristone.
7. A : Lactational amenorrhoea is due to high level of prolactin.
R : Prolactin stimulates the release of gonadotropins.
Sol. Answer (3)
Prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropins.
8. A : Surgical method of contraception is terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.
R : Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
Sol. Answer (3)
Surgical methods of contraception block gamete passage.

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9. A : Castration cannot be considered as a contraception option.
R : It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act of the user.
Sol. Answer (1)
Castration is removal of primary sex organs.
10. A : Disease or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are collectively called sexually
transmitted diseases.
R : STDs if not properly treated may lead to pelvic inflammatory diseases, abortion, still birth, ectopic
pregnancies, infertility or even cancer of reproductive tract.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
11. A : Periodic abstinence is one such natural method of contraception in which the couples avoid or abstain from
coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle, when ovulation could be expected.
R : Day 10 to day 17 of menstrual cycle is considered as safe period.
Sol. Answer (3)
It is considered as unsafe period.
12. A : ‘Saheli’– new oral contraceptive for the females was developed at CDRI, Lucknow.
R : It has no steroid in it.
Sol. Answer (2)
Saheli contains centchroman.
13. A : Surgical method also called sterilisation are generally advised for the male/female partner as a terminal
method to prevent any more pregnancies.
R : These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is poor.
Sol. Answer (2)
Surgical methods include tubectomy and vasectomy.
14. A : Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called
infertility.
R : Infertility is synonym for sterility.
Sol. Answer (3)
Infertility can be treated.

15. A : Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is infertility.
R : In vitro fertilization followed by transfer of embryo into the female genital tract is ‘Test Tube Baby’ programme.
Sol. Answer (2)
IVFET = In vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer.

16. A : Every sixth person in the world is an Indian.

R : Life expectancy depends upon average life span.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.

17. A : Use of condom is a safeguard against AIDS and sexual diseases besides checking pregnancy.
R : Certain contraceptive are planted under the skin of upper arm to prevent pregnancy.
Sol. Answer (2)
Norplant is an implant.

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18. A : Maximum chances of failure in Rhythm method of contraception.

R : Very few women have absolutely regular cycles.
Sol. Answer (1)
Rhythm method has failure rate of 20-30%.

19. A : Both vasectomy and tubectomy are very effective, as the failure rate of such surgical approaches is almost
zero percent.
R : Reversibility is poor.
Sol. Answer (2)
Tubectomy and vasectomy prevent gamete transport.

20. A : Lactational amenorrhoea is one of natural method of birth control.

R : High level of prolactin inhibits the secretion of gonadotropins.
Sol. Answer (1)
High prolactin level inhibits gonadotropins.

21. A : Nearly 20% of the total pregnancies get aborted world-wide.

R : Under MTP Act, 1971 medical termination of pregnancy can be done upto 20 weeks but it is safe upto
12 weeks of pregnancy.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.

22. A : Gossypol inhibits spermatogenesis.

R : Centchroman inhibits ovulation.
Sol. Answer (3)
Centchroman prevents implantation.

  

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Chapter 16

Evolution

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Origin of Life, Evolution of Life Forms-A Theory)

1. Origin of earth dates back to
(1) 10,000–15,000 million years ago (2) 4000–4600 million years ago
(3) 500–1000 million years ago (4) 2000–3000 million years ago
Sol. Answer (2)
Origin of universe = 20 billion years ago
Origin of earth = 4.5 billion years ago

2. Evolutionary biology is the study of

(1) Civilisations (2) History of life forms on earth
(3) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (4) Reproductive success
Sol. Answer (2)
Study of evolutionary history of an organism is phylogeny.

3. Who finally refuted the theory of spontaneous generation and experimentally disproved it?
(1) Thomas Malthus (2) Alfred Wallace (3) Louis Pasteur (4) Charles Darwin
Sol. Answer (3)
Louis Pasteur disproved it by Swan neck experiment.

4. An experiment to prove that organic compounds were the basis of life, was performed by
(1) Van Helmont (2) Oparin (3) S. Miller (4) Fox
Sol. Answer (3)
Based on hypothesis proposed by Oparin and Haldane, Stanley Miller gave experimental evidence for chemical
evolution.

5. Which of the following theory is related to transfer of life from one planet to another?
(1) Theory of special creation (2) Theory of biogenesis
(3) Theory of spontaneous generation (4) Cosmozoic theory
Sol. Answer (4)
This theory states that life is transferred from one planet to another in the form of seeds or spores or sperms.

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6. Stanley Miller had put the Oparin-Haldane theory to test in 1953 by creating in the laboratory, the probable
conditions on the primitive earth. In the experiment simple aminoacids were synthesized from which of the
following mixtures, as observed after eighteen days?
(1) H2, O2, N2 and H2O (2) CH4, CN, H2 and O2
(3) H2, NH3, CH4 and water vapour (4) NH3, CH4 and O2
Sol. Answer (3)
Primitive earth had reducing atmosphere.

7. The proponent of the theory of spontaneous generation was

(1) Louis Pasteur (2) Van Helmont (3) Spallanzani (4) Francisco Redi
Sol. Answer (2)
Pasteur, Spallanzani and Redi performed experiments to disprove theory of spontaneous generation.

8. The English scientist who worked on the origin of life and settled in India?
(1) A. I. Oparin (2) J. B. S. Haldane (3) Louis Pasteur (4) Van Helmont
Sol. Answer (2)
Oparin and Haldane proposed hypothesis that first life originated from non-living matter.

9. According to cosmozoic theory, life comes on earth from other planets in space in the form of
(1) Spores (2) Seeds (3) Gametes (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
‘Panspermia’ is used for transfer of these from one planet to other.

10. The theory that living organisms on the earth came from outer space is based on the study of
(1) Igneous rocks (2) Sedimentary rocks (3) Meteorites (4) Moon soil
Sol. Answer (3)
Meteorites are pieces of rocks falling on earth from space.

11. Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was
(1) Oparin (2) Haldane (3) Miller (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Haldane and Oparin both proposed hypothesis for origin of life. Haldane was English scientist.

12. A.I. Oparin wrote

(1) Origin of Species (2) Origin of Life (3) Philosophie Zoologique (4) The Planet
Sol. Answer (2)
Book Author
Origin of species - Darwin
Philosophie zoologique - Lamarck
The planet - H.C. Urey

13. H.C. Urey wrote the following book

(1) The Planets (2) Origin of Life (3) The Origin of Species (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Origin of Species by Darwin
Origin of life by Oparin

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14. What did S.L. Miller observe in his experimental set-up?
(1) Formation of sugars and nitrogenous bases (2) Formation of amino acids
(3) Formation of pigments (4) Formation of fats
Sol. Answer (2)
Alamine, Glycine and Aspartic Acid were formed in Miller’s experiment.

15. S.L.Miller conducted an experiment in 1953 to support the

(1) Theory of spontaneous generation (2) Biogenesis
(3) Chemical evolution of life (4) Natural selection
Sol. Answer (3)
Chemical evolution theory states that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organism
molecules, i.e., formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution. It was given by Oparin and Haldane.

16. The scientist related with the theory of biogenesis and experiments with swan-necked flasks is
(1) Van Helmont (2) Louis Pasteur (3) Miller (4) Haeckel
Sol. Answer (2)
Louis Pasteur performed this experiment to disprove theory of spontaneous generation.

17. All of the following conditions were present on early earth, except
(1) High temperature (2) Volcanic storms
(3) Oxidising atmosphere (4) Reducing atmosphere
Sol. Answer (3)
Early earth’s atmosphere was reducing.

18. Which of the following breakup water into hydrogen and oxygen on early earth?
(1) Visible light (2) Infrared radiations (3) Sunlight (4) UV radiations
Sol. Answer (4)

UV
2H2 O 
rays
 2H2  O2

Lighter H2 escaped. O2 combined with ammonia and methane to form water, CO2 and others.

19. One of the following appeared on the earth with the coming of the plants and was absent in the past
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Methane (3) Ammonia (4) Oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Early earth had reducing atmosphere.

20. Theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation was finally disapproved by

(1) Louis Pasteur (2) A.I. Oparin (3) A.R. Wallace (4) Sydney Fox
Sol. Answer (1)
Louis Pasteur disproved it by famous Swan-Neck experiment.

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74 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

21. Simple one-celled cyanobacteria like organisms appeared on earth

(1) 5600 million years ago (2) 5000 million years ago
(3) 4600 million years ago (4) 3.3 to 3.5 billion years ago
Sol. Answer (4)
Origin of earth - 4.5 billion years ago.
Cynobacteria appeared - about 3.3. to 3.5 billion years ago.

22. Eukaryotes developed around

(1) 1,600 million years ago (2) 459 million years ago
(3) 3,800 million years ago (4) 4,200 million years ago
Sol. Answer (1)
Free-living eukaryotic cell like organisms originated in the ocean, about 1.5 billion year ago.

23. The atmosphere became oxidising with the appearance of

(1) Autotrophic bacteria (2) Autotrophic cyanobacteria
(3) Land plants (4) Algae
Sol. Answer (2)
Autotrophic cyanobacteria used H2O to get hydrogen and release oxygen. Thus atmosphere became oxidising.

24 Which one of the following gas was not present in free form at the time life originated on earth?
(1) Ammonia (2) Oxygen (3) Hydrogen (4) Methane
Sol. Answer (2)
Primitive earth was reducing type. It had no oxygen.

25. The theory of spontaneous generation says that

(1) Life originated from the decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
(2) Life came on the earth from outer space
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life only
(4) Life started with the replication of self replicating metabolic capsules
Sol. Answer (1)
Theory of spontaneous generation supports abiogenesis.

26. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation demonstrated that/the

(1) Phenomenon of chemical evolution (2) There is spontaneous generation of life
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life (4) Abiogenic origin of life
Sol. Answer (3)
He performed Swan-Neck experiment to prove BIOGENESIS.

27. The first non-cellular form of life could have originated about _______ years ago.
(1) 3 million (2) 2 million (3) 3 billion (4) 2 billion
Sol. Answer (3)
They would have been giant molecules (RNA, DNA, Polysaccharides, etc.,)

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28. Which ones are the most essential for origin of life?
(1) Enzymes (2) Proteins (3) Carbohydrates (4) Nucleic acid
Sol. Answer (4)
Nucleic acids constitute the genetic material (blue-print of the organisms genetic make-up)

29. Presence of NaCl in body fluid indicates that life originated in

(1) Primitive ocean (2) Rain water lakes (3) Salt solution (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Oceans have large content of NaCl.

30. Origin of life from nonliving matter is known as

(1) Coacervates (2) Abiogenesis (3) Biogenesis (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Theory of spontaneous generation or abiogenesis states that life has originated from non living matter.

31. During the origin and evolution of life, key biological compounds were progressively synthesised in ocean with
the help of energy obtainable from
(1) Lightening (2) Ultraviolet light
(3) Lightening as well as ultra-violet light (4) Combustion of certain compounds
Sol. Answer (3)
UV rays broke H2O into H2 and O2.

32. Which of the type of respiration probably arose first?

(1) Aerobic as it releases more energy
(2) Anaerobic as it releases more energy
(3) Aerobic as it is more complex
(4) Anaerobic as early atmosphere contained no free from of oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Primitive earth’s atmosphere was reducing.

33. Who was the proponent of the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) A.I. Oparin (2) Hugo deVries (3) Lamarck (4) Weinberg
Sol. Answer (3)
He also said that the organs which are used become more developed.

34. Hugo de Vries studied mutations in

(1) Eucalyptus (2) Evening primrose (3) Hibiscus (4) Vallisneria
Sol. Answer (2)
Hugo de Vries gave mutation theory. Evening primrose = Oenothera lamarckiana.

35. Branching descent is one of the key concepts of

(1) Lamarckian theory (2) Miller’s theory (3) The Big Bang theory (4) Darwinian theory
Sol. Answer (4)
Natural selection and branching descent are key concepts of Darwinian theory.

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76 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

(What are the Evidences for Evolution?)

36. The palaeontological evidences are obtained from
(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Fossils (4) Lichens
Sol. Answer (3)
Study of fossils is called palaeontology.

37. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between

(1) Birds and reptiles (2) Reptiles and mammals
(3) Annelids and arthropods (4) Amphibians and fishes
Sol. Answer (1)
Archaeo = Primitive, pteryx = wing.
It has characteristics of both reptiles and birds.

38. Which of the following is incorrect match?

(1) Devonian period – Age of fishes (2) Carboniferous period – Age of amphibians
(3) Ordovician period – Age of invertebrates (4) Cretaceous period – Age of reptiles
Sol. Answer (4)
Mesozoic era is age of reptiles.

39. Mesozoic era is called the

(1) Age of Fishes (2) Age of Reptiles (3) Age of Mammals (4) Age of Birds
Sol. Answer (2)
Age of fishes = Devonion period.
Age of mammals = Coenozoic era.

40. Which of the following is known as age of mammals

(1) Mesozoic (2) Palaeozoic (3) Coenozoic (4) Archaeozoic
Sol. Answer (3)
Coenozoic era.

41. First mammals appeared around

(1) 459 million years back (2) 220 million years back
(3) 1600 million years back (4) 3800 million years back
Sol. Answer (2)
Mammals first appeared in triassic period of mesozoic era.

42. Which of the following arrangement of periods of the mesozoic era gives a correct sequence from the earliest
to the latest?
(1) Jurassic, triassic, cretaceous (2) Triassic, jurassic, cretaceous
(3) Permian, jurassic, triassic (4) Devonian, permian, jurassic
Sol. Answer (2)

Triassic Jurassic Cretaceous

About 245 208 144
million years million years million years
ago ago ago

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43. Cretaceous period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by which of the following?
(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
(2) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
(3) Flowering plants disappear
(4) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
Sol. Answer (2)
First birds appeared in jurassic period.

44. The flowering plants originated in which of the following periods?

(1) Cretaceous (2) Tertiary period (3) Triassic (4) Carboniferous
Sol. Answer (1)
Origin of angiosperms  cretaceous period.

45. Amphibia first appeared in which of the following period?

(1) Permian (2) Carboniferous (3) Devonian (4) Silurian
Sol. Answer (3)
First amphibians originated is devonian period and age of amphibians is carboniferous period.

46. The Permian period, during which the first most modern orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately
(1) 80 million years ago (2) 150 million years ago
(3) 280 million years ago (4) 550 million years ago
Sol. Answer (3)

Palaeozoic era has Cambrian Ordovician Silurian Devonian

544 505 438 408 million years ago
million years million years million years Carboniferous
ago ago ago
360 million years ago
Permian
285 million years ago

47. Dinosaurs were abundant in

(1) Jurassic period (2) Devonian period (3) Permian period (4) Pleistocene period
Sol. Answer (1)
In jurassic period, gymnosperms and dinosaurs were dominant. First birds appeared in this period.

48. Fossils of Archaeopteryx were found from

(1) Jurassic rocks (2) Triassic rocks (3) Cretaceous rocks (4) Cenozoic rocks
Sol. Answer (3)
First modern birds appeared in cretaceous period. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptiles and birds. It
got extinct in creataceous period.

49. The epoch of human civilization is

(1) Pliocene (2) Holocene (3) Pleistocene (4) Palaeocene
Sol. Answer (3)

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50. The last major evolutionary advancement among the vascular plants was the emergence of flowering plants
(angiosperms) about
(1) 350 million years ago (2) 140 million years ago
(3) 16,00 million years ago (4) 220 million years ago
Sol. Answer (2)
In cretaceous period, angiosperms appeared.

51. Replacement of original hard parts or even the soft tissues of the organisms by minerals is known as
(1) Compression (2) Petrification (3) Moulds (4) Amber
Sol. Answer (2)
Moulds : When exact replica of the original structure is left behind.
Compression : Internal structure is lost, leaving a thin carbon film. It is type of plant fossil.
Amber : Resinous secretion from fossil pine trees.

52. The study of the fossil plants is known as

(1) Palaeontology (2) Palaeobotany (3) Palynology (4) Palaeoanatomy
Sol. Answer (2)
Palynology - Study of pollen grains
Palaeontology - Study of fossils
Palaeobotany - Study of plant fossils

53. Which of the following is richest in fossil?

(1) Basalt (2) Granite (3) Lava (4) Sedimentary rock
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.

54. Excreta preserved as a fossil is called as

(1) Stromatolite (2) Compression fossil (3) Intact fossil (4) Coprolite
Sol. Answer (4)
Stromatolite  deposits of cyanobacterial fossils.

55. Ape like ancestors of human appear in epoch

(1) Pleistocene (2) Pliocene (3) Miocene (4) Oligocene
Sol. Answer (2)
Humans appeared in pleistocene.

56. Which of the following does not illustrate the phenomenon of natural selection?
(1) Industrial melanism (2) Herbicide resistant weeds
(3) Artificial breeding (4) Antibiotic resistant microbes
Sol. Answer (3)
Artificial breeding refers to deliberately cross different varieties having special characteristics.

57. All the following are examples of homologous organs, except

(1) Arm of man and flipper of whale (2) Thorn of Bougainvillaea and tendril of Cucurbita
(3) Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal (4) Brain of frog and man

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Sol. Answer (3)
Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal show covergent evolution. They are analogous structures.

58. The homologous organs are

(1) Wings of pigeon and housefly (2) Wings of housefly and bat
(3) Wings of pigeon and forelimbs of man (4) Wings of butterfly, bat and housefly
Sol. Answer (3)
Wings of pigeon are modifed forelimbs.

59. Anatomically and structurally different, but functionally similar structures are called
(1) Analogous (2) Divergent (3) Homologous (4) Convergent
Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous organs have similar origin but different functions.
Divergent and convergent are types of evolution.

60. Organs which have similar origin and developmental plan, but different functions are called
(1) Vestigial organs (2) Analogous organs (3) Homologous organs (4) Physiological organs
Sol. Answer (3)
Vestigial organs refer to those which are present in an organism but are non-functional. These are just inherited
from ancestor.

61. Find the odd one out

(1) Trunk of an elephant and hand of a chimpanzee (2) Ginger and sweet potato
(3) Wings of bat and insect (4) Nails of human beings and claws of a cat
Sol. Answer (4)
Nails of human beings and claws of cat have similar origin.

62. Find the odd one out w.r.t. evolution

(1) Seal’s flipper (2) Bat’s wing (3) Horse’s foot (4) Butterfly’s wings
Sol. Answer (4)
Butterfly’s wings are different anatomically.

63. Which of the following is not vestigeal organ in human beings?

(1) Rudimentary ear muscles and third molars (wisdom teeth), body hair
(2) Coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles
(3) Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of the eye
(4) Ear pinna, patella, olecranon process
Sol. Answer (4)
Vestigeal organs are those which are present in the individuals, but are non functional. Patella is knee cap. Olecranon
process is present in ulna.

64. Which of the following is a vestigial organ?

(1) Vermiform appendix (2) Atlas (3) Premolars (4) Incisors
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

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65. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?

(1) Scalp hair (2) Epiglottis (3) Vermiform appendix (4) Wisdom tooth
Sol. Answer (2)
Epiglottis is the flap of elastic cartilage covering the glottis during food swallowing.

66. The ‘Recapitulation Theory’ was put forth by

(1) Haeckel (2) Cuvier (3) Wallace (4) Lamarck
Sol. Answer (1)
It stated ontogeny repeats phylogeny.

67. Gill clefts and notochord appear in the embryonic development of all vertebrates from fishes to mammals. This
supports the theory of
(1) Recapitulation (2) Metamorphosis (3) Biogenesis (4) Abiogenesis
Sol. Answer (1)
‘Ontogeny repeats or recapitulates phylogeny’ is given by Ernest Haeckel.

68. Cycas and Ginkgo are connecting links between

(1) Bryophytes and pteridophytes (2) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
(3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms (4) Thallophyta and bryophyta
Sol. Answer (2)
Connecting links show characteristics of both the divisions.

69. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

(1) Peripatus (2) King crab (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Sphenodon
Sol. Answer (3)
Living fossil refers to the organisms which has not changed since birth. King crab - Limulus.

70. Presence of tail and coarse hair in human baby is

(1) Radiation (2) Atavism (3) Mutation (4) Crossing over
Sol. Answer (2)
Atavism refers to recurrence of ancestrol characteristics.

71. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t. era and its period?
(1) Paleozoic – Cretaceous (2) Mesozoic – Devonian
(3) Cenozoic – Permian (4) Paleozoic – Carboniferous
Sol. Answer (4)
Eras Periods
Paleozoic - Pernian, Carboniferous, Devonian, Silurian, Ordovician, Cambrian.
Mesozoic - Cretaceous, Triassic, Jurassic
Cenozoic - Tertiary, Quaternary

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(What is Adaptive Radiation? Biological Evolution)
72. Which of the following is not the result of convergent evolution?
(1) Forelimbs of whales and bats (2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
(3) Potato and sweet potato (4) Eye of the octopus and mammals
Sol. Answer (1)
Both are mammals. They have similar structure of forelimbs and are a result of divergent evolution.

73. The original birds were ________, from which the various Darwin’s finches arose.
(1) Insectivorous (2) Cactus eating (3) Carnivores (4) Seed eating
Sol. Answer (4)
Originally, Darwin’s finches were seed eating.

74. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

(1) Rat and Dog (2) Bacterium and Protozoan
(3) Star fish and Cuttle fish (4) Dog fish and Whale
Sol. Answer (4)
Dog fish (Scoliodon) belongs to Pisces.
Whale is a mammal. Both are aquatic swimming animals.

75. The convergent evolution of two species is usually associated with

(1) A recent common ancestor (2) Analogous organ
(3) Homologous organ (4) Different habitat
Sol. Answer (2)
Divergent evolution is associated with homologous organ.

76. Evolution is defined as

(1) History of race (2) Development of race
(3) History and development of race with modification (4) Progressive history of race
Sol. Answer (3)
Evolution may not necessarily be progressive.

77. Basic unit of evolution is

(1) Species (2) Population (3) Individual (4) Mutation
Sol. Answer (2)
Basic unit of natural selection is individual.

78. Which of the following can be used as an industrial pollution indicator?

(1) Lichens (2) White-winged moths (3) Dark-winged moths (4) Fossils
Sol. Answer (1)
Lichens grow exclusively in pollution-free regions.

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79. Which of the following is a placental mammal not marsupial?

(1) Wombat (2) Bobcat (3) Bandicoot (4) Tasmanian tiger cat
Sol. Answer (2)
Bobcat is placental mammal.

80. Lemur and Spotted cuscus exhibit

(1) Convergent evolution (2) Homology (3) Analogy (4) Hybridisation
Sol. Answer (1)
Lemur - Placental mammal
Spotted cuscus - Australian mammal

(Mechanism of Evolution, Hardy-Weinberg Principle)

81. If gene migration happens multiple times, it would lead to
(1) Mutation (2) Gene flow (3) Chemical evolution (4) Genetic drift
Sol. Answer (2)
Genetic drift causes the change in gene frequency by chance in a small population.

82. Natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both the ends of the distribution
curve is
(1) Stabilising natural selection (2) Disruptive natural selection
(3) Directional natural selection (4) The curve never shows the formation of two peaks
Sol. Answer (2)

Peak gets higher

and narrower

(a)
Number of individuals

Medium-sized
individuals Peak shifts in
with phenotype

Phenotypes are favoured one direction

favoured
by natural
selection

(b)

Two peaks form

(c)

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83. The rate of appearance of new life forms is linked to their
(1) Acquired traits (2) Nonheritable characters
(3) Life span (4) Cranial capacities
Sol. Answer (3)
Evolutionary rate is linked to the life span or life cycle of organism.

84. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not affected by which of the following factors?

(1) Random mating (2) Genetic recombination during gametogenesis
(3) Natural selection (4) Variations due to mutation
Sol. Answer (1)
Equilibrium is not disturbed if there is random mating among people of the population.

(Speciation and Isolation, A Brief Account of Evolution)

85. Which of the following evolved into the first amphibians?
(1) Lobefins (2) Shrews (3) Salamanders (4) Turtles
Sol. Answer (1)
Lobefins are coelacanths.

86. Pelycosaurs and Therapsids were

(1) Sauropsids (2) Synapsids (3) Sphenopsids (4) Dinosaurs
Sol. Answer (2)

Birds

Lizards Tuataras
Turtles Snakes Crocodiles
Mammals

Quaternary 0

Tertiary 50

Dinosaurs
(extinct)

Cretaceous 100

150
Jurassic

Therapsids
(extinct)
200
Triassic

Thercodonts
(extinct)
250
Permian

Sauropsids Pelycosaurs
(extinct)
300 Synapsids
Carboniferous

350

Early reptiles
(extinct)

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87. In 1938, a coelacanth was found in

(1) South America (2) South Africa (3) Australia (4) England
Sol. Answer (2)
The fish caught was named Latimeria and is considered as connecting link between fishes and amphibians.

88. The first organisms that invaded land were

(1) Plants (2) Fishes (3) Insects (4) Bacteria
Sol. Answer (1)
Plants invaded land first.

89. All of the following are the mammals wholly living in water except
(1) Penguins (2) Dolphins (3) Seals (4) Sea cows
Sol. Answer (1)
Penguins are birds.

90. Australopithecines probably lived in the

(1) East African grasslands (2) West African grasslands
(3) North American grasslands (4) South American grasslands
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

91. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 belonged to

(1) Homo habilis (2) Neanderthal man (3) Homo erectus (4) Ramapithecus
Sol. Answer (3)
Homo erectus includes 3 fossils.
Java Ape man, Peking man and Heidelberg man.

92. Among following, the most recent is

(1) Homo sapiens (2) Australopithecines (3) Homo habilis (4) Dryopithecus
Sol. Answer (1)
Dryopithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus  Homo sapiens.

93. The Neanderthal man had a cranial capacity of around

(1) 1600cc (2) 650–800cc (3) 900cc (4) 1400cc
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions

(Origin of Life, Evolution of Life Forms-A Theory)

1. Theory of panspermia was proposed to explain the
(1) Origin of universe (2) Origin of life (3) Origin of earth (4) Evolution of life
Sol. Answer (2)
It states that life transfers from one planet to other in the form of spore, sperms or seeds.

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2. The first organisms appeared on earth were
(1) Chemoheterotrophs (2) Chemoautotrophs (3) Photoautotrophs (4) Decomposers
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemoheterotrophs depend on organic chemicals to obtain energy.

3. Most important condition for origin of life is the presence of

(1) Water (2) Oxygen (3) Nitrogen (4) Carbon
Sol. Answer (1)
Life originated in water.

4. Early atmosphere contained methane and other hydrocarbons. They have been now replaced by
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Carbondioxide (4) Hydrogen
Sol. Answer (3)
UV
2H2O rays 2H2 + O2

Escaped with methane & give rise to CO2 &

ammonia other chemicals
containing oxygen

5. According to the discovery made in 1980's. RNA can act like enzyme to assemble new RNA molecules on
RNA template. Which of the following statements is not proved by this theory?
(1) Coacervates may not have been the first step in the evolution of life
(2) Perhaps the first macromolecule was RNA
(3) Coacervates were the basis for the first cell
(4) After formation of RNA, stability of molecule improved by surrounding RNA within a coacervate
Sol. Answer (3)
As in coacervates lipid outer membrane was absent and they cannot reproduce, they fail to fulfil the requirement
as a candidate for precursor of life.

6. Which of the following scientists believed in the concept of natural selection like Darwin?
(1) Lamarck (2) S.L.Miller (3) Alfred Wallace (4) Haldane
Sol. Answer (3)
Alfred Wallace worked on Malay Archipelago.

7. The Darwinian variations are

(1) Small and directionless (2) Random and directional
(3) Small and directional (4) Random and directionless
Sol. Answer (3)
Darwinian variations are small and directional.
According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are large and can occur in any direction.

(What are the Evidences for Evolution?)

8. Which of the following was a land dinosaur?

(1) Triceratops (2) Pteranodon (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Ichthyosaur
Sol. Answer (1)
Triceratops was land dinosaur.
Ichthyosaur was fish like giant reptile Pteranodon is extinct flying reptile.

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9. The wrongly matched pair w.r.t. the organisms and their probable time of evolution is

(1) Jawless fish – around 350 mya (2) Lobefins – around 350 mya

(3) Fish-like giant reptiles – around 320 mya (4) Sea weeds – around 320 mya

Sol. Answer (3)

Fish like giant reptiles = Ichthyosaurs  evolved around 200 million years ago.

10. Seed ferns originated in

(1) Carboniferous period (2) Devonian period (3) Silurian period (4) Cretaceous period

Sol. Answer (1)

Fact.

11. The dinosaurs descended from_____ ancestors.

(1) Therapsids (2) Pelycosaurs (3) Synapsids (4) Thecodonts

Sol. Answer (4)

Birds

Lizards Tuataras
Turtles Snakes Crocodiles
Mammals

Quaternary 0

Tertiary 50

Dinosaurs
(extinct)

Cretaceous 100

150
Jurassic

Therapsids
(extinct)
200
Triassic

Thercodonts
(extinct)
250
Permian

Sauropsids Pelycosaurs
(extinct)
300 Synapsids
Carboniferous

350

Early reptiles
(extinct)

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12. The homologous structures are
(1) Anatomically different
(2) Functionally different, evolved from different ancestors
(3) Functionally same
(4) Anatomically same, but perform different functions
Sol. Answer (4)
Analogous organs are anatomically different and functionally similar

13. Find the odd one out related to evolution

(1) Vertebrate hearts (2) Vertebrate brains
(3) Wings of butterfly and of birds (4) Forelimbs of mammals
Sol. Answer (3)
Wings of butterfly and birds are analogous structures.

14. Which one provides direct and solid evidence in favour of organic evolution through ages?
(1) Atavism (2) Palaeontology
(3) Vestigeal organs (4) Galapagos island fauna
Sol. Answer (2)
Palaeontology refers to study of fossils.

15. Which of the following was discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania?

(1) Fossils of dinosaurs (2) Few fossils of man-like bones
(3) Alive coelacanth (4) Fossils of Archaeopteryx
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.

(What is Adaptive Radiation? Biological Evolution, Mechanism of Evolution, Hardy-Weinberg Principle)

16. Which among the following are called the Darwin’s finches?
(1) Archaeopteryx (2) Pteranodon (3) Pavo cristatus (4) Small black birds
Sol. Answer (4)
Small black birds, studied by Darwin at Galapagos islands.

17. Tasmanian wolf and placental wolf appear similar due to

(1) Chemical evolution (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Biochemical evolution (4) Convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (4)
Marsupial and placental mammals show covergent evolution.

18. Evolutionary process, giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life, is called as adaptive
radiation, for example
(1) Darwin’s Finches in Galapagos Islands
(2) Australian marsupials that radiated to form new species
(3) Wolf and Tasmanian Wolf
(4) Both (1) & (2)

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Sol. Answer (4)

Wolf and Tasmanian Wolf show convergent evolution.

19. Humming birds and hawk illustrate

(1) Convergent evolution (2) Homology (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Parallel evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
Adaptive radiation refers to the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting
from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography.

20. When more than one adaptive radiations appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, it is called
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Anthropogenic evolution (4) Saltation
Sol. Answer (2)
e.g., Placental and Marsupial mammals.

21. Natural selection leads to the directional change when

(1) More individuals acquire mean character value in the distribution curve
(2) More individuals acquire peripheral character value of both ends of distribution curve
(3) More individuals acquire value other than the mean character value at any one end of distribution curve
(4) No individual acquires the peripheral character value
Sol. Answer (3)

Peak gets higher

and narrower

(a)
Number of individuals

Medium-sized
individuals Peak shifts in
with phenotype

Phenotypes are favoured one direction

favoured
by natural
selection

(b)

Two peaks form

(c)

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22. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, difference in the values of measured and expected allelic frequencies
indicates all of the following, except
(1) Changes in the gene pool (2) Disturbance in genetic equilibrium
(3) Extent of evolutionary change (4) Absence of any kind of evolution
Sol. Answer (4)
Difference in the values of measured and expected allelic frequencies indicate that evolution has occurred.

(Speciation and Isolation, A Brief Account of Evolution)

23. The fish-like giant reptile which existed 200 mya was
(1) Pteranodon (2) Ichthyosaur (3) Triceratops (4) Tyrannosaurus
Sol. Answer (2)
Some of the land reptiles went back into the water 200 million years ago and converted into fish like reptiles.
24. Which of the following had huge fearsome dagger like teeth?
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Tyrannosaurus (3) Ichthyosaur (4) Homo erectus
Sol. Answer (2)
It was biggest dinosaur, about 20 ft. in height.

25. The origin of seeds in the land plants was achieved about 345 million years ago, in lineages recognised as
ancestral to all more advanced vascular plants in
(1) Rhynia (2) Tracheophyte ancestor
(3) Seed ferns (4) Conifers
Sol. Answer (3)
First seed plants (seed ferns) were seen in carboniferous period.

26. Origin of mammal-like reptiles occurred in

(1) Triassic period (2) Permian period (3) Jurassic period (4) Tertiary period
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.

27. As horse evolved, there was progressive reduction in number of toes. Which of the following is correct sequence
in the evolution of horse?
(1) Orohippus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Callipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
(2) Hyracotherium, Orohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
(3) Orohippus, Callipus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
(4) Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Orohippus, Callipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus and Equus
Sol. Answer (2)
During evolution of horse, there was : General increase in size, progressive loss of toes, lengthening of toes that
was retained lenthening of limbs in general, enlargement of brain, increase in height, increase in complexity of molar
teeth.

28. Which of the following fact is not true for Homo habilis?
(1) They had a brain capacity of 1400cc (2) They were the first human-like being
(3) They showed the hominid features (4) They probably did not eat meat
Sol. Answer (1)
Homo habilis  650 - 800 cc.

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29. The ancestors of man who used hides to protect their body were
(1) Homo erectus (2) Homo habilis (3) Neanderthal man (4) Australopithecus
Sol. Answer (3)

30. An evolutionary trend in which there is general degeneration and loss of organs is
(1) Progressive (2) Vestigeal (3) Retrogressive (4) Stasigenesis
Sol. Answer (3)
Evolution may be progressive or retrogressive.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions

1. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is [NEET-2018]

(1) Multiple step mutations (2) Saltation
(3) Minor mutations (4) Phenotypic variations
Sol. Answer (2)
As per mutation theory given by Hugo de Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous phenomenon or saltatory
phenomenon/saltation.
2. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option : [NEET-2018]
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) Eye of octopus, bat and man (4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
Sol. Answer (3)
Divergent evolution occurs in the same structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of vertebrates which have
developed along different directions due to adaptation to different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat and man
are examples of analogous organs showing convergent evolution.
3. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of [NEET-2018]
(1) Homology (2) Analogy (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (1)
In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in different way as per
their adaptation, hence example of homology.
4. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents [NEET-2017]
(1) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population
(2) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(3) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(4) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
Sol. Answer (2)
Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will be
an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing selection, the organisms with the mean value of the trait are
selected. In disruptive selection, both extremes get selected.

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5. Genetic drift operates in 7[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Small isolated population (2) Large isolated population
(3) Non-reproductive population (4) Slow reproductive population
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic drift operates in small isolated inbreeding population.
6. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by
[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) p2 (2) 2pq (3) pq (4) q2
Sol. Answer (2)
In Hardy Weinberg equation,
p2 = Homozygous dominant individuals
2pq = Heterozygous individuals
q2 = Homozygous recessive individuals
7. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(2) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Australopithecus  Homo erectus
(4) Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Ramapithecus  Homo erectus
Sol. Answer (2)
The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
Ramapithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
8. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(i) Formation of protobionts
(ii) Synthesis of organic monomers
(iii) Synthesis of organic polymers
(iv) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct sequence of events in the origin of life is
Synthesis of organic monomers

Synthesis of organic polymers

Formation of protobionts

Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

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9. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except
[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'
(2) It should be able to generate its replica
(3) It should be unstable structurally and chemically
(4) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
A molecule which is unstable structurally and chemically cannot act as a genetic material.
10. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird? [NEET-2016]
(1) Flipper of Whale (2) Dorsal fin of a Shark
(3) Wing of a Moth (4) Hind limb of Rabbit
Sol. Answer (1)
Wings of bird and flipper of whale are modified fore limbs but wings help in flying and flippers help in swimming.
11. Analogous structures are a result of [NEET-2016]
(1) Stabilizing selection (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution (4) Shared ancestry
Sol. Answer (3)
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.
12. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life [NEET-2016]
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
On the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
(1) Both (a) & (b) are false (2) (a) is correct but (b) is false
(3) (b) is correct but (a) is false (4) Both (a) & (b) are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
The earliest organisms that appeared on earth were anaerobic chemoheterotrophs.
Chemoautotrophs were the first autotrophic organisms unable to perform photolysis of water and never released
oxygen.
13. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Homologous structures and represent convergent evolution
(2) Homologous structures and represent divergent evolution
(3) Analogous structures and represent convergent evolution
(4) Phylogenetic structures and represent divergent evolution.
Sol. Answer (3)
The wings of a bird and an insect are analogous structure which differ in structure and origin but perform similar
functions and represent convergent evolution.
14. Industrial melanism is an example of [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Neo Lamarckism (2) Neo Darwinism (3) Natural selection (4) Mutation
Sol. Answer (3)
Industrial melanism is an example of natural selection.

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15. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus
(3) Homo sapiens (4) Homo neanderthalensis
Sol. Answer (1)
Brain capacity
(1) Homo sapiens 1400 cm3
(2) Homo neanderthalensis 1400 cm3
(3) Homo habilis 650 – 800 cm3
(4) Homo erectus 900 cm3
16. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually-reproducing
organism? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Recombination (2) Transduction
(3) Chromosomal aberrations (4) Genetic drift
Sol. Answer (1)
In sexually reproducing organisms the most common cause of variations is recombination.
17. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if [AIPMT-2015]
(1) The population is large (2) Individuals mate selectively
(3) There are no mutations (4) There is no migration
Sol. Answer (2)
Selective mating alters Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Random mating maintains the equilibrium.
18. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in
flying are an example of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Analogous organs (2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Homologous organs (4) Convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
Homologous organs have common origin.
19. Which one of the following are analogous structures? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon (2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita (4) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse
Sol. Answer (2)
Gills of prawn and lungs of man have different origin.
20. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This
is an example of [NEET-2013]
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(2) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(4) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

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Sol. Answer (2)

Analogous due to convergent evolution
In analogous  Phenotype similar/similar function.

a b
21. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in
response to a common environmental challenge, is called [NEET-2013]
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Non-random evolution (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Natural selection
Sol. Answer (1)

Similar phenotypic applications

Convergent evolution

Different species
with different evolutionary history
22. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by [NEET-2013]
(1) Lack of migration (2) Lack of mutations
(3) Lack of random mating (4) Random mating
Sol. Answer (3)
Random mating is responsible for maintaining H-W equilibrium. 5 factors responsible for disturbing H-W
equilibrium are
(i) Gene flow (ii) Genetic drift
(iii) Genetic recombination (iv) Natural selection
(v) Mutation
23. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This
is referred to as [NEET-2013]
(1) Genetic drift (2) Random mating (3) Genetic load (4) Genetic flow
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic load : Loss in average fitness of individuals in a population because population carries deleterious
alleles.
24. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to [NEET-2013]
(1) Interspecific competition
(2) Competition within closely related species
(3) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
(4) Intraspecific competition
Sol. Answer (1)
25. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas
is known as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Migration (2) Divergent evolution (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Natural selection
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Solutions of Assignment Evolution 95
Sol. Answer (3)
Adaptive radiation is diversification of single species or a group of related species into new ecological or
geographical zones resulting in formation of additional species.
26. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Increasing cranial capacity (2) Upright posture
(3) Shortening of jaws (4) Binocular vision
Sol. Answer (1)
Humans have enlarged brains, shorter arms in relation to their ape-like ancestors.
27. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

Convergent Evolution Divergent evolution

(1) Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates Wings of butterfly and birds

(2) Thorns of BougainvillIea and tendrils of Cucurbita Eyes of Octopus and mammals

(3) Eyes of Octopus and mammals Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates

(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita Wings of butterflies and birds

Sol. Answer (3)

 Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates.
Homologous
 Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

* Eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals

Wings of butterfly and birds Analogous

28. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short
stature, heavy eye brows, retreating for heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait
and stooped posture was [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Ramapithecus (2) Homo habilis (3) Neanderthal human (4) Cro-magnan humans
Sol. Answer (3)
Neanderthal man could have co-existed with Homo sapiens.
29. The idea of mutations was brought forth by [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose
(2) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum
(3) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population
(4) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage
Sol. Answer (1)
Hugo de Vries gave mutation theory while working on Oenothera lamarckiana ( = evening primrose)
30. Darwin’s finches are a good example of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Industrial melanism (3) Connecting link (4) Adaptive radiation
Sol. Answer (4)
Adaptive radiation : Radiation of organisms into different geographical areas and thus generation of new
species.

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96 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

31. Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills
up the blanks in two statements
Statements:
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of __(i)____, evolution.
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and ___(i)___, when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted
in formation of ___(ii)_____.
(C) Vermiform appendix is a ___(i)____ organ and an ___(ii)___ evidence of evolution.
(D) According to Darwin evolution took place due to ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___ of the fittest.
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
Options :
(1) (D) – (i) Small variations, (ii) Survival, (2) (A) – (i) Convergent,
(A) – (i) Convergent (B) – (i) Oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
(3) (B) – (i) Water vapour, (ii) Amino acids (4) (C) – (i) Vestigial, (ii) Anatomical
(C) – (i) Rudimentary, (ii) Anatomical (D) – (i) Mutations, (ii) Multiplication
Sol. Answer (1)
(B) - (i) water vapour, (ii) Amino acids = Alanine, glycine, aspartic acid.
(C) - (i) vestigeal, (ii) Anatomical
32. Peripatus is a connecting link between [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Mollusca and Echinodermata (2) Annelida and Arthropoda
(3) Coelenterata and Porifera (4) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis
Sol. Answer (2)
33. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured
form in England during industrial revolution.
This is an example of : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
(2) Protective mimicry
(3) Inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment
(4) Natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
Sol. Answer (4)
34. Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Mendel – Theory of Pangenesis
(2) Weismann – Theory of continuity of Germplasm
(3) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters
(4) de Vries – Natural selection
Sol. Answer (2)
Mendel  Laws of genetics.
Pasteur  Theory of biogenesis.
Hugo de Vries  Mutation theory

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Solutions of Assignment Evolution 97
35. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and micropheres)
as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) They could maintain an internal environment
(2) They were able to reproduce
(3) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
(4) They were partially isolated from the surroundings
Sol. Answer (2)
They were not able to reproduce.
36. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Wings of honey-bee and wings of crow - Homologous organs
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita - Analogous organs
(3) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - Vestigial organs
(4) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of cockroach - Excretory organs
Sol. Answer (4)
Blind spot is not vestigial.
Wings of honey-bee and wings of crow  Analogous.
Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita-Homologous.
37. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(2) Scales on their hind limbs
(3) Four-chambered heart
(4) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
Sol. Answer (2)
Epidermals scales are present on hindlimbs of birds.
38. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the
phenomenon is termed [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Microevolution (4) Co-evolution
Sol. Answer (1)
Same phenotype

sp. sp.
1 2

Different geneology
39. Adaptive radiation refers to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(2) Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
(3) Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(4) Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas

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98 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

sp 1
Adaptive radiation
Ancestor 1 sp 2 e.g., Darwin's finches.
sp 3
Over generations
40 The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Biogeographical Evolution (2) Special Creation
(3) Evolution due to Mutation (4) Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Answer (1)
Adaptive radiation  different species due to divergent evolution, this was due to geopraphical isolation.
41. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Random creation of new species (2) No change in the isolation faunax
(3) Preventing speciation (4) Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Answer (4)
New species are formed due to geographical isolation. Interbreeding is possible only in individuals of isolated
population.
42. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
(2) The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
(3) The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
(4) The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
Sol. Answer (2)
Industrial melanism  Random mutation.
Pollution generated feature  Natural selection  selection of melanic forms.
43. The concept of chemical evolution is based on [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
(2) Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
(3) Interaction of water, air and clay under
(4) Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemical evolution theory was proposed by Oparin and Haldane
44. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 cc in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo neanderthalensis
(3) Homo erectus (4) Ramapithecus
Sol. Answer (2)
Homo sapiens neanderthalensis  1300 – 1600 cc
Homo erectus  900 cc
Homo habilis  650 – 800 cc
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Solutions of Assignment Evolution 99
45. Select the correct statement from the following [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Mutations are random and directional
(2) Darwinian variations are small and directionless
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
Sol. Answer (3)
46. Which one of the following statement is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(2) Stem cells are specialized cells
(3) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
(4) All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Answer (1)
47. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Deletion of genes (2) Developmental mutations
(3) Differential expression of genes (4) Lethal mutations
Sol. Answer (3)
48. What is common to whale, seal and shark? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Homoiothermy (2) Seasonal migration
(3) Thick subcutaneous fat (4) Convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (4)
49. Which one of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Glycine (2) Aspartic acid (3) Glutamic acid (4) Alanine
Sol. Answer (3)
50. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Homologous and vestigial organs (2) Analogous and vestigial organs
(3) Homologous organs only (4) Homologous and analogous organs
Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous  similar structures  phenotype or functions different. Vestigial  organs present in ancestors
but rudimentary in the present species.
51. Which one of the following is not a living fossil ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) King crab (2) Sphenodon (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Peripatus
Sol. Answer (3)
52. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
Sol. Answer (1)
In jurassic period, gymnosperms were dominant, dinosaurs were dominant and first birds appeared.
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100 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

53. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Phylogeny (2) Ancestry (3) Paleontology (4) Ontogeny
Sol. Answer (1)
Palaeontology  fossil study.
Ontology  embryological development.

54. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) It is controlled by recessive genes (2) It is not a fatal disease
(3) It provides immunity against malaria (4) It is controlled by dominant genes
Sol. Answer (3)
Carriers of sickle cell anaemia are immune to malaria.

55. There are two opposing views about origin of Modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were
the ancestors of modern man. A study of variations of DNA however suggested African origin of Modern man.
What kind of observation on DNA variation could suggest this? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia (2) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
(3) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa (4) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
Sol. Answer (1)
DNA variation gives better information.

56. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Development of transgenic animals
(2) Production of ‘Dolly’ the sheep by cloning
(3) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(4) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation
Sol. Answer (3)
Others are artificially done by man.

57. Which of the following is not true for a species ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Members of a species can interbreed
(2) Variations occurs among members of a species
(3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species
(4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
Sol. Answer (4)

58. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated
spontaneously from non-living matter ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(2) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
(3) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
(4) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel
Sol. Answer (4)
It shows that living organisms could not arise from unspoiled meat.

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Solutions of Assignment Evolution 101
59. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Althea rosea (2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Oenothera lamarckiana (4) Pisum sativum
Sol. Answer (3)

60. Which of the following is the relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Potassium – Argon method
(2) Uranium – Lead method
(3) Electron – Spin resonance method
(4) Radio – Carbon method
Sol. Answer (3)

61. Random non-directional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially
in small populations is known as
(1) Mutation (2) Migration
(3) Natural selection (4) Genetic drift
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.

62. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following
is not a finch food?
(1) Seeds (2) Carrion (3) Insects (4) Tree buds
Sol. Answer (2)
Carrion - dead and decay of flesh of animals - was not their food.

63. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological era?
(1) Devonion (2) Coenozoic (3) Jurassic (4) Mesozoic
Sol. Answer (4)
Jurassic period of Mesozoic era.

64. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?

(1) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool
(2) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe
(3) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population
(4) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to their progeny
Sol. Answer (2)
This results in homozygosity  inbreeding depression.

65. Which statement best explains the evolutionary advantage of meiosis?

(1) Meiosis is necessary for sexual reproduction
(2) Genetic recombinations are possible from generation to generation
(3) Meiosis alternates with mitosis for generation to generation
(4) The same genetic system is passed on from generation to generation

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102 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

Sol. Answer (2)

Crossing over.

At pachytene stage, crossing over is responsible for variations.

66. Which one of the following changes involved is irrelevant, in the evolution of man?
(1) Perfection of hand for tool making
(2) Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food
(3) Loss of tail
(4) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behaviour
Sol. Answer (3)
Other changes meant for beneficial events.
67. Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals (2) Melanization in peppered moth
(3) Absence of limbs in snakes (4) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
Sol. Answer (2)
Melanized form is dominant mutant variety of moth. It is an example of natural selection.
68. Which of the following is a pair of homologous organs?
(1) Pectoral fin of fish and fore-limb of horse (2) Wings of grasshopper and wings of crow
(3) Lungs of rabbit and gills of prawn (4) Wings of bat and wings of butterfly
Sol. Answer (1)
Pectoral fin and fore-limb - both are appendages of vertebrates
69. The concept that ‘Population tends to increase geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically’ was
put forward by
(1) Thomas Malthus (2) Charles Darwin (3) Stuart Mill (4) Adam Smith
Sol. Answer (1)
Thomas Malthus wrote Essay on Population.
70. The change of the lighter-coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston
carbonaria) is due to
(1) Mutation (2) Regeneration (3) Genetic isolation (4) Temporal isolation
Sol. Answer (1)
Dominant mutant variety - Biston carbonaria
71. The homologous organs are those that show similarity in
(1) Appearance (2) Function (3) Origin (4) Size
Sol. Answer (3)
Homologous  similarity in origin.
Analogous  similarity in phenotype-function.

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Solutions of Assignment Evolution 103
72. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Biogenesis (3) Organic evolution (4) Recapitulation
Sol. Answer (4)
Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny  by Haeckel.
73. Two zoogeographical regions, separated by high mountain ranges, are
(1) Neoarctic and Palaearctic (2) Neotropical and Ethiopian
(3) Oriental and Australian (4) Palaearctic and Oriental
Sol. Answer (4)
Palaearctic and Oriental  by Himalaya Mountains.
74. Which era is dubbed as the age of prokaryotic microbes?
(1) Precambrian (2) Phanerozoic (3) Archean (4) Cambrian
Sol. Answer (1)
Precambrian is age of prokaryotic microbes.

75. The animals of cold countries have relatively shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs and other phenotypic
characters. This is known by which law?
(1) Cope’s Law (2) Dollo’s Law (3) Allen’s Law (4) Bergmann’s Law
Sol. Answer (3)
Allen’s law  Mammals tend to have shorter extremities in colder region than in warmer climate.

76. Which of the following changes for man in the course of evolution is probably useless?
(1) Development of being erect (2) Development of cranial capacity
(3) Loss of tail (4) Development of opposable thumb
Sol. Answer (3)
Erect posture  to walk easily
Cranial capacity  to increase intelligence.
Opposable thumb  for grasping

77. Which of the following is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens?

(1) Australopithecus (2) H. sapiens neanderthalis
(3) Homo erectus (4) Ramapithecus
Sol. Answer (3)
Australopithecus  Homo habilis

Homo erectus

Homo sapiens

78. Which of the following is the correct group of vestigial organs in man?
(1) Nictitating membrane, ear muscles, eyelids and coccyx
(2) Appendix, coccyx, ear muscles and elbow joint
(3) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, body hair and ear pinna
(4) Wisdom tooth, body hair, nictitating membrane and vermiform appendix
Sol. Answer (4)
Ear pinna, elbow joint, eyelids are not rudimentary.

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104 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

79. Improvement of human race by controlled selective breeding between individual with desirable characteristics
is called
(1) Inbreeding (2) Euthenics (3) Eugenics (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Euthenics : study of improvement of human functioning and well being by improvement of living conditions.

80. The correct sequence for the manufacture of the gases on the primitive earth is
(1) NH3, nucleic acid, protein and carbohydrate (2) Protein, carbohydrate, water and nucleic acid
(3) NH3, protein, carbohydrate and nucleic acid (4) NH3, water, nucleic acid and protein
Sol. Answer (3)
NH3 Proteins Carbohydrates Nucleic acids
(has amino group) (carbon chain of R (Sugar + Phosphate
group of proteins) + N-bases)

81. The first domesticated animal by primitive man was

(1) Cat (2) Cow (3) Dog (4) Horse
Sol. Answer (3)

82. Which of the following statements is correct regarding evolution of mankind?

(1) Homo erectus is preceded by Homo habilis
(2) Neanderthal man and Cro-magnon man were living at the same time
(3) Australopithecus was living in Australia
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Cromagnon Man  34,000 years ago.
Neanderthal  1,00,000 years ago.
Australopithecus  lived in African grasslands.

83. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by

(1) Binocular vision (2) Homology in chromosomes
(3) Dental formula (4) Cranial capacity
Sol. Answer (2)
Genetic evidences are best to know the similarities.
Recent classification is also based on 16s rRNA.

84. Which of the following is a living fossil?

(1) Mirabilis jalapa (2) Gingko biloba (3) Pinus longifolia (4) Dalbergia sissoo
Sol. Answer (2)
Living fossils  organisms that carry primitive characters and have not changed from origin.

85. Evolutionary convergence is characterized by

(1) Development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups
(2) Development of a common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestry
(3) Development of characteristics by random mating
(4) Replacement of common characteristics in different groups
Sol. Answer (2)
a


Distant
b Convergence (common set of characteristics).
species
c

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Solutions of Assignment Evolution 105
86. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish
like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this
above cited statement be approximated?
(1) Lamarck’s principle (2) Mendelian principles (3) Biogenetic law (4) Hardy Weinberg law
Sol. Answer (3)
Biogenetic law  Ontogeny recapitulates Phylogeny by Ernst Haeckel.

87. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is
(1) 2.5 × 106 years back (2) 50 × 106 years back (3) 75 × 106 years back (4) 15 × 106 years back
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.

88. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
(2) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(3) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(4) Cro-magnon man‘s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
Sol. Answer (3)
Cro-magnon man’s fossil has been found in France.
Neanderthal man is not direct ancestor of Homo sapiens.

89. Species occurring in different geographical area are called as

(1) Sympatric (2) Allopatric (3) Sibling (4) Neopatric
Sol. Answer (2)
Sympatric  species evolved in same geographical area.

90. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as
observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
(1) Intraspecific competition (2) Interspecific competition
(3) Origin of species by natural selection (4) Intraspecific variations
Sol. Answer (3)
Origin of species by natural selection  Adaptive Radiation.

91. Genetic drift operates only in

(1) Larger populations (2) Mendelian populations (3) Island populations (4) Smaller populations
Sol. Answer (4)
Genetic drift  only parameter of Hardy Weinberg Principle that works on small population.

92. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ demonstrates

(1) Geographical isolation (2) Reproductive isolation (3) Natural selection (4) Induced mutation
Sol. Answer (3)
Pollution changed colour of tree trunks and birds selected the moths accordingly [natural selection]

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106 Evolution Solutions of Assignment

93. Which of the following are homologous organs?

(1) Wings of bird and wings of a bat (2) Nails of human being and claws in cat
(3) Wings of bird and wings of insect (4) Wings of bat and wings of cockroach
Sol. Answer (2)
Wings of birds and wings of insect/wings of bat and wings of cockroach are analogous organs.

94. Homo sapiens have evolved in

(1) Paleocene (2) Pleistocene (3) Oligocene (4) Miocene
Sol. Answer (2)
1.8 million years ago  humans appeared.

95. Character which is closely related to human evolution

(1) Disappearance of tail (2) Reduction in size of jaws
(3) Binocular vision (4) Flat nails
Sol. Answer (2)
In humans  orthognathous.
In chimpanzee  prognathous

96. Which evidence of evolution is related to Darwin’s finches?

(1) Evidences from bio geographical distribution (2) Evidences from comparative anatomy
(3) Evidences from embryology (4) Evidences from palaeontology
Sol. Answer (1)
Darwin’s finches flew off from their native place and reached different geographical areas.

97. Who is most directly related to man?

(1) Gorilla (2) Rhesus (3) Gibbon (4) Orangutan
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

98. Lemur or idri-idri is found in

(1) Madagascar (2) Mauritius (3) India (4) Sri Lanka
Sol. Answer (1)
Lemur is found in Madagascar islands.

99. Which is the most important factor for continuity of a species from evolutionary point of view?
(1) Replication of genetic material (2) Formation of gametes
(3) Synthesis of proteins (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic recombination during crossing over.

100. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world?
(1) m-RNA, t-RNA, r-RNA synthesise proteins (2) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(3) RNA have enzymatic property (4) RNA is not found in all cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Ribozymes’ discovery proved that evolution was RNA world.

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101. Reason of diversity in living beings is
(1) Mutation (2) Long term evolutionary change
(3) Gradual change (4) Short term evolutionary change
Sol. Answer (2)
Long term evolutionary change only results in formation of new species.

102. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates

(1) Microevolution (2) Macroevolution (3) Convergent evolution (4) Divergent evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
If genotype is different, similarities are seen in function/phenotype, this is called covergent evolution.

103. Which of the following is closest relative of man?

(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla (3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon
Sol. Answer (1)
Man and apes have common ancestor.

104. Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man?
(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
(2) Peking man, Habilus man, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
(3) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man
Sol. Answer (3)
Peking man  Heidelberg man  Neanderthal man  Cro-magnon man.

105. 1st life on earth was

(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Chemoheterotrophs (3) Autotrophs (4) Photoautotrophs
Sol. Answer (2)
Chemicals  source of energy.
Depended on already formed organic chemicals.

106. Frequency of an allele in an isolated population may change due to

(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow (3) Mutation (4) Natural selection
Sol. Answer (1)
Isolated population  small and less variable population  genetic drift acts on small population.

107. In Lederberg’s replica plating experiment what shall be used to obtain streptomycin resistant strain?
(1) Minimal medium and streptomycin (2) Complete medium and streptomycin
(3) Only minimal medium (4) Only complete medium
Sol. Answer (2)
Streptomycin acting as visual marker.

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108. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive than the parental generation due to
(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation (3) Genetic drift (4) Adaptation
Sol. Answer (1)
The environment has changed due to anthropogenic interference.

109. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to

(1) These species has been extinct from other regions

(2) Continental separation

(3) There is no terrestrial route to these places

(4) Retrogressive evolution

Sol. Answer (2)

Biogeographical evidence.

110. Darwins theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then, what shall
be correct according to it?

(1) Useful organs becomes strong and developed while useless organs become extinct

(2) Size of organs increase with ageing

(3) Development of organs is due to will power

(4) There should be some physical basis of inheritance

Sol. Answer (4)

According to Lamarck also, some physical characteristics should also be inherited.

111. Cause of mimicry is

(1) Concealment (2) Offence (3) Defence (4) Both (1) & (3)

Sol. Answer (1)

Concealment  an organism tries to hide itself.

This results in protecting it, i.e., defence and offending.

112. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin containing medium due to

(1) Natural selection (2) Induced mutation (3) Reproductive isolation (4) Genetic drift

Sol. Answer (1)

Mutations are pre-adaptive.

113. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plants is due to

(1) Mutation (2) Isolation (3) Polyploidy (4) Sexual reproduction

Sol. Answer (3)

Modern day wheat  Hexaploid.

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Solutions of Assignment Evolution 109
114. Which of the following is most important for speciation?

(1) Seasonal isolation (2) Reproductive isolation (3) Behavioural isolation (4) Tropical isolation

Sol. Answer (2)

Reproductive isolation : Most important in speciation because this prevents random mating (resulting in
evolution).

115. There is no life on moon due to the absence of

(1) Oxygen (2) Water (3) Light (4) Temperature
Sol. Answer (2)
Moon has no water, nor it has atmosphere.
But in water also, life can exist.

116. According to fossils discovered up to present time origin and evolution of man started from
(1) France (2) Java (3) Africa (4) China
Sol. Answer (3)
Ancestors of Homo sapiens sapiens were also found in Africa.

117. In which condition, the gene ratio remains constant for any species population?
(1) Sexual selection (2) Random mating (3) Mutation (4) Gene flow
Sol. Answer (2)
Random mating does not disturb Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.

118. In which era reptiles were dominant?

(1) Coenozoic era (2) Mesozoic era (3) Palaeozoic era (4) Archaeozoic era
Sol. Answer (2)
Origin of reptiles in Palaeozoic era.
Dominant in Mesozoic era.

119. Two different species cannot live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
(1) Allen’s law (2) Gause’s hypothesis (3) Dollo’s rule (4) Weismann’s theory
Sol. Answer (2)
Dollo’s law  Evolution is irreversible.

120. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

(1) Rat and dog (2) Bacterium and protozoan
(3) Starfish and cuttle fish (4) Cephalopod eye and vertebrate eye
Sol. Answer (4)
Eye of Octopus and eye of a vertebrate are analogous organs.

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121. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from

(1) Highly genetically variable individuals

(2) Interbreeding within this population

(3) Constant low mutation rate
(4) Large population size
Sol. Answer (2)

Random genetic drift : Operates in small population size.

Results from interbreeding within small population.

122. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mtDNA and Y chromosome were considered for the
study of human evolution, because
(1) They are small and therefore, easy to study
(2) They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
(3) Their structure is known in greater detail
(4) They can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
Sol. Answer (2)
mtDNA is from mother (cytoplasmic inheritance), Y chromosome is from father.

123. Industrial melanism is an example of

(1) Drug resistance
(2) Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
(3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings
(4) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
Sol. Answer (3)
Birds selected those who were not able to blend with the surroundings.

124. Darwin in his “Natural Selection Theory” did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic
evolution?
(1) Parasites and predators as natural enemies (2) Survival of the fittest
(3) Struggle for existence (4) Discontinuous variations
Sol. Answer (4)
According to Darwin, variations are directional and continuous.

125. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
(1) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
(2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
(3) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult

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Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous organs

Similar anatomical structures

Different functions or phenotype

126. Which one of the following is categorised under living fossils?

(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Selaginella (4) Taxus
Sol. Answer (2)
Cycas is gymnosperm having primitive structure.

127. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods involve
radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision
of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes
(1) Study of carbohydrates proteins in fossils
(2) Study of the conditions of fossilization
(3) Electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA
(4) Study of carbohydrates / proteins in rocks
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.

128. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that

(1) Fishes were amphibious in the past
(2) Fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
(3) Frogs will have gills in future
(4) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
Sol. Answer (4)
Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.

129. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
(1) Methane (2) Oxygen (3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour
Sol. Answer (2)
Primitive earth was reducing (so earlier anaerobic).

130. Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin
resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be
used
(1) On plates with and without streptomycin
(2) On plates with minimal medium
(3) Only on plates with streptomycin
(4) Only on plates without streptomycin
Sol. Answer (1)
Streptomycin presence or absence can be used for selection of organisms resistant to bacteria.

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131. At a particular locus, frequency of A allele is 0.6 and that of a is 0.4. What would be the frequency of
heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
(1) 0.36 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.24 (4) 0.48
Sol. Answer (4)
heterozygotes
2 2
p + 2pq + q = 1
2pq = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48

132. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of

(1) Leucocytes (2) Lymphocytes (3) Platelets (4) RBCs
Sol. Answer (4)
G  6 P
NADP   NADPH  maintains glutathione.

133. Probiotics are

(1) Cancer inducing microbes
(2) New kind of food allergens
(3) Live microbial food supplement
(4) Safe antibiotics
Sol. Answer (3)
Pro-biotics are live microbial food supplement.

134. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

(1) Intra specific competition (2) Inter specific competition
(3) Predation on one another (4) Mutualism
Sol. Answer (1)
Intra specific competition  More number of organisms of same species compete for food, mating etc.

135. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is

(1) Preventing speciation
(2) Speciation through reproductive isolation
(3) Random creation of new species
(4) No change in the isolated fauna
Sol. Answer (2)

136. Sickle cell anemia is

(1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
(2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
Sol. Answer (4)
RBCs remain without nuclei. Sickle cell anemia is recessive trait. Glutamic acid is replaced by valine, hence
single base pair of DNA.

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137. Mutations can be induced with
(1) Gamma radiations (2) Infra-red radiations (3) I A A (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (1)
IAA  Indole Acetic Acid.

138. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by

(1) Ability to defend itself (2) Strategy to obtain food
(3) Number of offspring (4) Dominance over other individuals
Sol. Answer (3)
Natural selection and reproductive fitness were the two major concepts of Darwin.

139. Analogous structures are

(1) Anatomically different but performing similar functions
(2) Anatomically similar but performing different functions
(3) Anatomically similar and functioning similarly
(4) Anatomically different and functioning differently
Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous - Anatomically similar but different functions
Analogous - Anatomically different but similar functions.

140. Tendrils in plants are an example of

(1) Convergent evolution (2) Adaptive radiation (3) Divergent evolution (4) Co-evolution
Sol. Answer (1)
Tendrils are modification of leaf or stem meant for support.

141. Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is

(1) Mimicry (2) Predation (3) Adaptation (4) Camouflage
Sol. Answer (1)
To protect from predators.

142. "Complete competitors cannot coexist" is true for

(1) Character displacement (2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Primary succession (4) Secondary succession
Sol. Answer (2)
Exclusion of competitors. Only one remains.

143. What is meant by the term Darwin fitness?

(1) The ability to survive and reproduce (2) High aggressiveness
(3) Healthy appearance (4) Physical strength
Sol. Answer (1)
Darwin fitness = Reproductive fitness.

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144. Which one of the following animals shows discontinuous distribution?

(1) Green mussels (2) Bats (3) Lung fishes (4) Pacific salmons
Sol. Answer (3)
Due to continental drift.
Lung fishes are found in Africa, South America, Australia.

145. 'Balancing selection' promotes

(1) Homozygotes (2) Heterozygotes (3) Polyploids (4) Recessive traits
Sol. Answer (2)
Balancing natural selection promotes heterozygotes.

146. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based
on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7
Sol. Answer (3)
Suppose frequency of ‘a’ as q
q2 × 1000 = 160

160
q2  ⇒ q  0.4
1000
 p = 1 – q = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6.

SECTION - D

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : During evolution pouched mammals of Australia survived.
R : Due to lack of competition from any other mammal due to continental drift.
Sol. Answer (1)
Continental drift resulted in isolation of pouched mammals in Australia
2. A : Mesozoic is the era of dinosaurs but they suddenly disappeared from the earth.
R : Dinosaurs may have changed into birds or climatic changes killed them.
Sol. Answer (1)
Dinosaur’s extinction  possibly due to climatic change.
3. A : Mutations are non-directional.
R : Darwin’s small variations are directional.
Sol. Answer (2)
Darwinian variations are small and directional.
4. A : During industrialisation dark-winged or melanised moths were more abundant.
R : They were able to camouflage themselves, hide in the background and survived.
Sol. Answer (1)
Birds killed light winged moths because they were conspicous.
5. A : Tyrannosaurus rex had fearsome dagger like teeth.
R : Tyrannosaurus was largest dinosaur depending upon herbs and shrubs.
Sol. Answer (3)
Tryannosaurus is carnivorous. It is biggest flesh eating dinosaur.

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6. A : During evolution the early time period was without ozone layer.
R : Ozone layer absorbs U.V. rays to some extent.
Sol. Answer (2)
Early time was without ozone. UV rays entered atmosphere.
7. A : Theory of biogenesis explains that life arises from pre-existing life.
R : Louis Pasteur finally disapproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life.
Sol. Answer (2)
Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life by swan-neck experiment.
8. A : India falls under oriental realm out of other biogeographical realms.
R : World is divided in six biogeographical realms.
Sol. Answer (2)
Oriental, Nearctic, Ethiopian, Australian, Palaearctic, Neotropical are six biogeographical realms.
9. A : Archaeopteryx had free caudal vertebrae and toothed beak with teeth like reptiles.
R : It is missing link between reptiles and bird.
Sol. Answer (2)
Missing link  extinct connecting link.
10. A : Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf (a marsupial) show convergent evolution.
R : Like marsupials placental mammals in other parts of world also exhibit adaptive radiation in evolving into
varieties of such placental mammals each of which appears to be similar to a corresponding marsupial.
Sol. Answer (1)
When more than one adaptive radiations have occurred in an isolated geographical area (representing different
habitat) one may call it convergent evolution.
11. A : There is 99% homology in haemoglobin of man and Gorilla.
R : Modern man is direct descendent of Gorilla.
Sol. Answer (3)
Cro-Magnon man is regarded as most recent ancestor of todays man.
12. A : Many countries have banned the use of antibiotics in the cattle feed.
R : Dairymen give antibiotics in the feed to the cattle and it becomes breeding grounds for the antibiotic
resistant bacteria.
Sol. Answer (1)
Diseases will not be cured by using same antibiotic later.
13. A : Lycaenops is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals.
R : In permian period there was origin of mammal like reptiles.
Sol. Answer (2)
Permian period is a part of palaeozoic era.
14. A : Blood group analysis shows the human beings are more closely related to apes than to monkeys.
R : The blood groups A and B are found in apes but not in monkeys.
Sol. Answer (1)
Man and apes have common ancestor.
15. A : Due to bottle neck effect, among the survivors, certain alleles may be over-represented, some may be under-
represented and some alleles may be totally eliminated.
R : The path of extinction of a species cannot be reversed due to bottle neck effect.
Sol. Answer (2)
Bottle neck effect is the decrease in the genetic variability in a population, e.g., cheetah population.

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16. A : Spotted cuscus and marsupial mole are the examples of marsupial radiation.
R : Both are found in Australian region.
Sol. Answer (2)
Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation.
17. A : Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms give clue to common
ancestry.
R : All the group of vertebrates arises from the common ancestor with great adaptation capability.
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic similarities are most accurate to compare organisms.
18. A : Sometimes, some babies have a small tail.
R : This is just a type of mutant variety.
Sol. Answer (3)
This is atavism  unusual occurrence of ancestral trait.
19. A : Muscles of external ears are fully developed in humans.
R : These muscle helps in moving ear pinna in human.
Sol. Answer (4)
These muscles are vestigial in humans.
20. A : A single large mutation called saltation can produce new species.
R : Mutations are directional.
Sol. Answer (3)
Mutations are non-directional.
  

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Chapter 17

Human Health and Disease

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Common Diseases in Humans)

1. Which of the following toxic substance is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four
days in malaria?

(1) Haemotoxin (2) Haemoglobin (3) Haemozoin (4) Sporozoites

Sol. Answer (3)

Haemozoin– Malarial parasite digest haemoglobin and release high quantities of free heme, this free heme is
toxic to cells and parasite convert it into an insoluble crystalline form called haemozoin.

Haemotoxin– Toxic substances in animal's venom, such as snake's venom.

Haemoglobin– Iron containing metalloprotein in red blood cells.

Sporozoites– Infectious form of malarial parasite.

2. In which of the following disorder, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration?

(1) Common cold (2) Whooping cough (3) Diphtheria (4) Pneumonia

Sol. Answer (4)

Pneumonia: It is characterised by infection of lungs. Due to filling of fluid in alveoli gas exchange cannot occur
properly loading to severe problems in respiration.

3. Typhoid fever could be confirmed by

(1) Widal test (2) Mantoux test (3) Schick test (4) Dick test

Sol. Answer (1)

Mantoux test– Tuberculosis

Schick test– Diphtheria

Dick test– Scarlet fever

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4. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. infection of Entamoeba histolytica

(1) It is a protozoan parasite of human
(2) It is characterised by constipation and abdominal pain
(3) It is a parasite in small intestine of man
(4) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and serve to transmit the parasite from faeces of infected person
to food and food products
Sol. Answer (3)
Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite of large intestine of man.

5. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding malarial infection?

(1) Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of freshly moulted female Anopheles
mosquito
(2) High fever recurring every three to four days
(3) Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in their rupture
(4) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito’s body
and undergo further development
Sol. Answer (1)
Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquito.

6. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of the intestinal passage are the common
symptoms of
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid
Sol. Answer (3)
Amoebiasis– Abdominal pain, stools with excess mucus and blood clots.
Elephantiasis– Inflammation of organ in which they reside, swelling of legs, scrotum and other parts of body.
Typhoid– Sustained high fever, weakness, loss of apetite, headache, stomach pain.

7. Which of the following fish is introduced in pond to control or eliminate the vector responsible for the
transmission of malaria and filariasis?
(1) Exocoetus (2) Pristis (3) Scoliodon (4) Gambusia
Sol. Answer (4)
Gambusia is a larvivorous fish that feeds on mosquito larvae.

8. The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly disease
like
(1) Polio (2) Tetanus (3) Diphtheria (4) Small pox
Sol. Answer (4)
It was a deadly disease which is now completely eradicated by using vaccine discovered by Edward Jenner
in 1798.

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9. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual stages (gametocytes) begin to develop in

(1) Stomach of mosquito (2) Intestine of man

(3) Liver of man (4) Red blood cells of man

Sol. Answer (4)

Gametocyte begin to form in RBC of man and completes its further development to form gametes as sexual
cycle in mosquito.

10. Out of the following diseases which are caused due to bacterial infection?

a. Typhoid

b. Elephantiasis

c. Cholera

d. Tuberculosis

(1) a & b only (2) b & c only (3) a, c & d only (4) a, b, c & d

Sol. Answer (3)

Typhoid, Cholera and Tuberculosis are caused by bacteria. Elephantiasis is caused by helminth.

11. The pathogens of genera, Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for

(1) Botulism (2) Conjunctivitis (3) Ringworm (4) Skin allergy

Sol. Answer (3)

It is a fungal disease caused by Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton.

Botulism– (Food poisining)– Clostridium botulinum– bacterial disease.

Conjunctivitis– Viral, bacterial or an allergic reaction.

Skin Allergy– Caused by different allergens.

12. The use of anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of

(1) Fungal diseases (2) Viral diseases (3) Allergy (4) Helminthic diseases

Sol. Answer (3)

Allergic reaction is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells and use of
drugs like anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids quickly reduces the symptom of allergy.

Fungal diseases, viral diseases and helminthic infections can be prevented by personal hygiene.

13. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

(1) Asthma (2) Cirrhosis (3) AIDS (4) Rheumatoid arthritis

Sol. Answer (4)

Asthma– Allergic disease

Cirrhosis– Is a result of advanced liver disease.

AIDS– Caused by HIV which decreases natural immunity of the body.

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 4 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

(Immunity)

14. Which of the following is a non-specific type of defense that is present at the time of birth?

(1) Acquired immunity (2) Humoral immune response

(3) Cell mediated immunity (4) Innate immunity

Sol. Answer (4)

It is non-specific as it act against any type of foreign agent .

Acquired Immunity– It is pathogen specific and it initiates when a host encounters pathogen during first attack

Humoral Immunity– Type of acquired immunity– B-lymphocyte mediated in which antibodies are produced.

Cell mediated immunity– T-lymphocyte mediated.

15. Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes, all prevent microbial growth belong to which of the
following barrier?

(1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier

(3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier

Sol. Answer (2)

One of the barrier of innate immunity

Physical barrier– Skin, muscous coating of epithelium

Cellular barrier– WBC– PMNL, monocytes, NK– cells

Cytokine barrier– Interferons

16. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in colostrum?

(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgE

Sol. Answer (1)

IgA– Colostrum is a golden liquid substance that a nursing mother expels from her breasts 24-48 hours after
delivery.

IgG– Only antibody that can cross the placenta and confer immunity to the foetus.

IgE– Mediator in allergic response.

IgM– Activates first in initial attack of antigen.

17. The treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an example of

(1) Artificially acquired passive immunity (2) Artificially acquired active immunity

(3) Naturally acquired active immunity (4) Naturally acquired passive immunity

Sol. Answer (1)

Because in this preformed antibodies against snake venom are directly injected into the human body.

Artificially acquired active immunity– Includes resistance induced by vaccines.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 5
Naturally acquired passive immunity– IgA and IgG antibodies from mother to baby and foetus respectively.

Naturally acquired active immunity– Acquired when antigens gain access into the body during natural infection.

(AIDS)

18. Human immunodeficiency virus is a/an

(1) Adeno virus (2) DNA retrovirus
(3) RNA retrovirus (4) Adeno retrovirus
Sol. Answer (3)
HIV forms DNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase.

19. HIV decreases natural immunity of the body by

(1) Destroying antibodies
(2) Destroying erythrocytes
(3) Attacking T-lymphocytes
(4) Attacking B-lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
HIV decreases the number of T-lymphocytes by attacking on it and due to this decrease the person starts
suffering from opportunistic infections of bacteria, viruses, fungi etc.

(Cancer)

20. Among the noninfectious diseases, which of the following is most common fatal diseases of human beings?
(1) AIDS (2) Cancer (3) Cystic fibrosis (4) Cholera
Sol. Answer (2)
AIDS– Communicable/infectious disease and fatal disease.
Cystic fibrosis– It is a genetic disorder.
Cholera– Communicable disease but not fatal.

21. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is termed as

(1) Metastasis (2) Metachrosis
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Metagenesis
Sol. Answer (1)
Metastasis: It is the property of cancerous cells to spread to distant sites through blood and starting a new
tumor formation wherever they get lodged in the body.
Metachrosis: Ability of animals to change the intensity of colour.
Metamorphosis: The process of transformation from an immature form to an adult form in two or more distinct
stages.

Metagenesis: Phenomenon in which polyp form of a cnidarian alternates asexually with medusoid form.

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 6 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

(Drug and Alcohol Abuse)

22. Smoking increases ______ content in blood and reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. Fill the
blank suitably

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Carbaminohaemoglobin

(3) Carbon monoxide

(4) Carboxylic acid

Sol. Answer (3)

When the smoke is inhaled into lungs, CO is rapidly absorbed into blood stream and it binds to the
haemoglobin in the red blood cells 200 times more effectively than oxygen does.

23. Which of the following drug is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum, generally taken
by snorting and injection, is a depressant and slows down body functions?

(1) Cocaine

(2) Hashish

(3) Barbiturate

(4) Heroin

Sol. Answer (4)

Cocaine: obtained from Erythroxylum coca, generally snorted. Causes hallucinations, and has a potent effect
on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria and increased energy.

Hashish: Obtained from Cannabis plant, taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.

Effects on cardiovascular system.

Barbiturates: It is a sedative.

Used as a medicine to help patients cope with mental illness like depression, insomnia etc.

Reduces excitement by depressing the CNS activity and lowers physiological activity leading to drownsiness
or sleep.

24. Use of Cannabis products results in

(1) Stimulation of nervous system thus increases alertness and activity

(2) Suppressed brain function and relief in pain

(3) Depressed brain activity and feeling of calmness

(4) Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings

Sol. Answer (4)

Alteration of perception, thoughts and feelings are hallucinations.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 7

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Common Diseases in Humans)
1. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. common cold
(1) Rhinovirus causes common cold
(2) Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage and lungs
(3) Common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough,
headache, tiredness etc.
(4) Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person are inhaled directly or transmitted through
contaminated objects and can cause infection in a healthy person
Sol. Answer (2)
Rhinovirus infects nose and respiratory passage but not lungs.

2. Intestinal perforation is the characteristic symptom of

(1) Pneumonia (2) Plague (3) Typhoid (4) Pertussis
Sol. Answer (3)
In severe cases intestinal perforation and death may occur in typhoid.
Pneumonia: fever, chills, cough and headache.
Plague: High fever, lump in the groin or the armpit, red patches on skin.
Pertussis: Mild fever, nasal congestion, sneezing, nasal discharge.

3. Wuchereria bancrofti, the filarial worm that causes elephantiasis belongs to phylum
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Coelenterate (4) Arthropoda
Sol. Answer (2)

4. Recently chikungunya and dengue cases were reported from various parts of the country. Choose the correct
vector responsible for these diseases
(1) Anopheles mosquito (2) Xenopsylla (Rat flea)
(3) Culex mosquito (4) Aedes mosquito
Sol. Answer (4)
Culex mosquito– Vector of Wuchereria bancrofti which causes Elephantiasis.
Xenopsylla– Vector of Yersinia pestis which causes plague.
Anopheles mosquito– Vector of Plasmodium which causes malaria.

5. Which of the following causes plague?

(1) Trichinella spiralis (2) Salmonella typhimurium
(3) Yersinia pestis (4) Xenopsylla

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 8 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

Trichinella spiralis: Causes trichinosis.
Salmonella typhimurium: Causes gastroenteritis in mammals..
Xenopsylla: Act as a vector in transmitting plague pathogen Yersinia pestis.

6. A person who met with road accident is likely to develop tetanus he is immunised by administering

(1) Weakened germs

(2) Dead germs

(3) Preformed antibodies

(4) Wide spectrum antibiotics

Sol. Answer (3)

Preformed antibodies are injected in such injury as pathogen i.e., Clostridium tetani produces a neurotoxin-
tetanospasmin and a quick response is required to stop the action of antigen which is not done by the
formation of our own antibodies as it takes time.

Weakened germs and dead germs are used in vaccine to develop immunity against them.

Wide spectrum antibiotics is used when a person is suffering from many diseases or infections but not for a
single disease/infection.

(Immunity)

7. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed by

(1) Two light chains
(2) Two heavy chains
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(4) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain depending upon the nature of
antigen
Sol. Answer (3)
Antigen binding site is constituted by variable region of light chain and heavy chain.

8. Mark the correct statement

(1) The anamnestic response against a pathogen is highly intensified
(2) The T-lymphocytes produce antibodies
(3) The B-lymphocytes produce cell mediated response
(4) An antibody is represented by H2L4
Sol. Answer (1)
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies
T-lymphoctes produce cell mediated response.
An antibody is represented by H2L2.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 9
9. Which of the following will be included under innate immunity?
(1) Mucus membranes (2) Interferons
(3) Natural killer cells (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
These all are different barriers under innate immunity.
Mucus membrane– Physical barrier
Interferons– Cytokine barrier
Natural Killer cells– Cellular barrier

10. Artificial active immunity can be acquired from

(1) Serious illness
(2) Vaccination
(3) Repeated exposure to the some microbes
(4) Treatment with penicillin
Sol. Answer (2)
Repeated exposure to the same microbes or illness develops natural active immunity.

11. One of the inflammatory reaction induced by histamine is

(1) Vasoconstriction of blood vessels (2) Vasodilation of blood vessels
(3) Decreased vascular permeability (4) Accelerated blood clotting
Sol. Answer (2)
Presence of histamine in blood causes vasodilation of blood vessels which leads to a decrease in blood
pressure drastically often resulting into death.
Histamine increases the permeability of the blood vessels.

12. Blood cells involved in inflammatory reactions are

(1) Basophils (2) Neutrophils (3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
Basophils: They release histamine and are found in tissues where allergic reactions are occurring and
contribute to the severity of these reactions.
Neutrophils: Are phagocytic cells.
Eosinophils: Are important mediator in allergic responses.
Monocyte: At site of infection it differentiates into macrophage to elicit an immune response.

13. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to

(1) Thymus (2) Thyroid (3) Thalamus (4) Tonsil
Sol. Answer (1)
T-lymphocytes mature in thymus.
Thyroid: It is an endocrine gland and it produces hormone T3 & T4.
Thalamus: It is situated between cerebral cortex and midbrain. Act as a relay organ.
Tonsil: Lymphoid tissue.

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10 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

(AIDS)

14. The caustative organism of AIDS spreads by

(1) Sharing infected needles and syringes
(2) Transfusion of infected blood
(3) Unsafe sexual relationships
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
AIDS is a fatal communicable/infectious disease.
(Cancer)

15. Cancer is caused by

(1) Rupturing of cells (2) Uncontrolled meiosis
(3) Uncontrolled mitosis (4) Loss of immunity of the cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Cancerous cells undergo abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells due to breakdown of regulatory mechanism.
Cancer cells do not show the property of contact inhibition (cells when in contact with each other inhibit their
uncontrolled growth)
Cells are not rupturing.
Meiosis is reduction division
Cells do not lose immunity, they combine to form tumors.

16. Oncogene is another name for

(1) Inducer gene (2) Jumping gene (3) Structural gene (4) Cancer causing gene
Sol. Answer (4)
Cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto-oncogenes have been identified in normal cells. Which when activated under
certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
Cancer causing virus called oncogenic virus have genes called viral oncogenes.
Inducer gene: A molecule that regulate gene expression.
Jumping genes: Genes that can change their position within the genome.
Structural gene: Genes that codes for any RNA or protein product other than a regulatory protein.

17. The blood cancer is also known as

(1) Haemolysis (2) Haemophilia (3) Leukaemia (4) Thrombosis
Sol. Answer (3)
Because it involves proliferation of cell types present in blood and their percursors in bone marrow.
Hemolysis: Rupturing of erythrocytes and release of their content.
Haemophilia: Is a genetic disorder that impair the body's ability to control blood clotting.
Thrombosis: Is the formation of a blood lot.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 11
(Drug and Alcohol Abuse)

18. Read the following statements

a. Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
b. Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
c. Dopamine is excitatory neurotransmitter.
d. Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.
Mark the option which includes both correct statement
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & d
Sol. Answer (4)
Both (a) & (d) statements are correct.
b. Is wrong because cocaine is obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
c. Is wrong because dopamine is inhibitory neurotransmitter.

19. L.S.D. is

(1) Hallucinogenic (2) Sedative (3) Stimulant (4) Tranquiliser

Sol. Answer (1)

Hallucinogens change one's behaviour, thoughts, feelings and perceptions without any actual sensory stimulus.

Sedative: Barbiturate and benzodiazepines – Depress brain activity and produce feelings of calmness,
relaxation, drowsiness and deep sleep.

Stimulant: Caffeine, cocaine, amphetamines– Stimulate nervous system, increases alertness, produce
excitement.

Tranquilisers: Benzodiazepines– Act as anti-depressants.

20. Tick mark the incorrect match with respect to the drug, source and its action.

Durg Source Action

(1) Smack Latex of poppy Depressant slows
plant Papaver down body functions
somniferum
(2) Cocaine Sense of euphoria
and increased
energy
(3) Coke Atropa Hallucinations
belladona
(4) Hashish Cannabis Hallucinations, affects
sativa cardiovascular system

Sol. Answer (3)

Drug Source Action

Coke Erythroxylum coca Hallucinations

Rest all options are correct.

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12 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? [NEET-2018]
(1) Psoriasis (2) Rheumatoid arthritis (3) Vitiligo (4) Alzheimer's disease
Sol. Answer (4)
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced against the synovial membrane
and cartilage.
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also characterised as autoimmune disorder.
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy or sore patches of thick red skin and is also autoimmune whereas
Alzheimer's disease is due to deficiency of neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
2. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
[NEET-2018]
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis (3) Amoebiasis (4) Ringworm disease
Sol. Answer (1)
Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by Culex mosquito.
3. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”? [NEET-2018]
(1) Flowers (2) Latex (3) Leaves (4) Roots
Sol. Answer (2)
‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is formed by acetylation of morphine. It is obtained from the latex
of unripe capsule of Poppy plant.
4. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
immune-response is responsible for such rejections? [NEET-2017]
(1) Autoimmune response (2) Cell-mediated immune response
(3) Hormonal immune response (4) Physiological immune response
Sol. Answer (2)
Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune response.
5. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II) and select
the correct option. [NEET-2017]
Column - I Column- II
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma virus
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (1)
Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria)
Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria)
Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
AIDS – HIV (Virus)
6. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body [NEET-2017]
(1) 50% (2) 20% (3) 70% (4) 10%

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 13
Sol. Answer (1)

MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue in
human body.
7. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Cholera and tetanus (2) Typhoid and smallpox
(3) Tetanus and mumps (4) Herpes and influenza
Sol. Answer (1)
Cholera is caused by a bacterium Vibrio cholerae and tetanus is caused by a bacterium Clostridium tetani.
8. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse
transcriptase
(2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules
of reverse transcriptase
(3) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
(4) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response
Sol. Answer (2)
Causative agent of AIDS is HIV which is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of ssRNA and
two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
9. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations? [NEET-2016]
(1) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase
(2) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle
(3) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
(4) Mutations inactivate the cell control
Sol. Answer (1)
Cancerous cells have high telomerase activity. Telomerase inhibitors are used in cancer treatment.
10. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain
[NEET-2016]
(1) Attenuated pathogens (2) Activated pathogens
(3) Harvested antibodies (4) Gamma globulin
Sol. Answer (1)
Oral polio vaccine consists of attenuated pathogen.
11. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due
to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to [NEET-2016]
(1) Active immunity (2) Allergic response
(3) Graft rejection (4) Auto-immune disease
Sol. Answer (4)
In autoimmune diseases, the immune cells are unable to distinguish between self cells and non-self cells and
attack self cells.

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14 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

12. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers [NEET-2016]
(1) Methane (2) Nitrous oxide
(3) Ozone (4) Ammonia
Sol. Answer (3)
Ozone is found in the upper part of the atmosphere called stratosphere and it acts as a shield absorbing
ultraviolet radiation from sun and so its depletion can lead to incidence of skin cancers.
13. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Innate immune response (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell-mediated immune response (4) Passive immune response
Sol. Answer (3)
Cell mediated immunity (CMI) is responsible for graft rejection.
14. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for
confirmatory evidence? [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Serum globulins (2) Fibrinogen in plasma
(3) Serum albumins (4) Haemocytes
Sol. Answer (1)
Antibodies are present in serum. They are glycoproteins and also called gammaglobulins synthesized in lymph
nodes.
15. Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) IgG (2) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgA
Sol. Answer (4)
IgA is present in external body secretion including colostrum and milk. They provide naturally acquired passive
immunity to child.
16. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine [AIPMT-2015]
Column-I Column-II
a. Tuberculosis (i) Harmless virus
b. Whooping cough (ii) Inactivated toxin
c. Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria
d. Polio (iv) Harmless bacteria
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (4)
Tuberculosis vaccine BCG contains inactivated bacteria.
In DPT, contains killed pathogen of Bordetella pertussis which causes whooping cough.
In DPT diphtheria toxoid is present. Sabin polio vaccine contains inactivated virus.
17. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Ebola virus (2) Hepatitis B virus
(3) Human immunodeficiency virus (4) Chikungunya virus
Sol. Answer (4)
Chikungunya is caused by Arbovirus and transmitted through the bite of Aedes mosquito.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 15
18. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Thrombocytes (2) B lymphocytes (3) Leucocytes (4) Helper T lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (4)
Macrophages are HIV factory, not destroyed by AIDS virus. HIV destroys Helper-T-cells, because after
replication the virus is released by lysis of the cell.
19. Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Increased liver cancer (2) Increased skin cancer
(3) Reduced Immune System (4) Damage to eyes
Sol. Answer (1)
Liver cancer can be caused due to aflatoxin (released by Aspergillus fungus), Vinyl chloride but UV-rays do
not cause cancer of liver.
20. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Blood only (2) Erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
(3) Mucosa and submucosa of colon only (4) Food in intestine
Sol. Answer (2)
Entamoeba histolytica is present in the colon, feeds on mucosa and submucosa and can also phagocytose
RBCs.
21. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Morchella esculenta (2) Amanita muscaria (3) Neurospora sp. (4) Ustilago sp.
Sol. Answer (2)
Amanita muscaria is noted for its hallucinogenic properties, with its main psychoactive constituent being the
compound muscimol.
22. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
[AIPMT-2014]

(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant (3) Stimulant (4) Pain killer

Sol. Answer (1)
The given diagram is flowering branch of Datura.
23. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
(3) When HIV damages large number of helper T lymphocytes
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase
Sol. Answer (3)
Fall in number of helper T-lymphocytes causes lowering of immunity.

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16 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

24. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by [NEET-2013]

(1) Eating imperfectly cooked pork (2) Tse-tse fly
(3) Mosquito bite (4) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
Sol. Answer (4)
25. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by [NEET-2013]
(1) B lymphocytes (2) Thrombocytes (3) Eythrocytes (4) T lymphocytes
Sol. Answer (4)
26. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Myasthenia gravis - Auto immune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout - Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy - Age related shortening of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis - Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age
Sol. Answer (4)

27. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but
not the lungs

(2) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease

(3) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no
effective vaccine

(4) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
influenzae

Sol. Answer (1)

Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not
the lungs.

28. Widal Test is carried out to test [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Typhoid fever (2) Malaria

(3) Diabetes mellitus (4) HIV/AIDS

Sol. Answer (1)

29. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Cocaine (2) Opium

(3) Alcohol (4) Tobacco (Chewing)

Sol. Answer (3)

With continued alcohol intake, there is destruction of hepatocytes and fibroblasts (cells which form fibres) and
stimulation of collagen protein formation. This leads to Cirrhosis (liver damage from a variety of causes/
replacement of liver cells by fibrosis and lumps that occur due to attempted repair of damaged tissue) of liver.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 17
30. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) They show contact inhibition

(2) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients

(3) They do not remain confined in the area of formation

(4) They divide in an uncontrolled manner

Sol. Answer (1)

They do not show contact inhibition. Contact inhibition is a properly of normal cells in which dividing cells
when in contact with other cells are inhibited for their uncontrolled growth.

31. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]

(1) Human liver (2) Gut of female Anopheles

(3) Salivary glands of Anopheles (4) Human RBCs

Sol. Answer (2)

Gamete formation starts in human RBC's but rest process continues in Anopheles (female) from mouth gametes
enters into stomach and reproduce sexually to produce zygote.
32. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of
immunity? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Examples Type of immunity
(1) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital – Physiological barriers
tract and the HCl in stomach
(2) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes – Cellular barriers
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections – Active immunity
(4) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes – Physical barriers
Sol. Answer (2)
The corrected match are:
(1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes– Physiological barriers.
(2) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital tract– Physical barrier.
(3) Anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections– Passive immunity.
33. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1-4 are correctly categorised with one exception in
it? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

Items Category Exception

(1) UAA, UAG, UGA Stop codons UAG

(2) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat Australian marsupials Wombat

(3) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma Protozoan parasites Cuscuta

(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria Bacterial diseases Diphtheria

Sol. Answer (3)

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18 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

34. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use
CH3
O
N CH3 OH

O
H
(a) O (b) OH

H O
Options : [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

Molecule Source Use

(1) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum coca Accelerates the transport of dopamine

(2) (b) Heroin Cannabis sativa Depressant and slows down body functions

(3) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa belladona Produces hallucinations

(4) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

Sol. Answer (4)

(a) is morphine (b) is cannabinoid molecule
35. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B lymphocytes
(2) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
(3) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T lymphocytes
(4) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
Sol. Answer (2)
Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(2) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by B-lymphocytes.
(3) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has 2 heavy chain and 2 light chains.
(4) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of T-lymphocytes.
36. Read the following statements (A-D)
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statement is/are wrong? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One
Sol. Answer (2)
Corrected statements:
(1) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antibodies.
(3) Chikungunya is caused by a virus.
(4) Beer is manufactured without distillation of fermented grape juice.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 19
37. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of microorganisms in human body?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Skin (2) Epithelium of urogenital tract
(3) Tears (4) Monocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
38. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(2) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering form malaria
(4) Spleen of infected humans
Sol. Answer (2)
Salivary glands of infected female Anopheles mosquito contains sporozoites.
Life cycle of malaria takes place in liver and RBC of human not in spleen.
39. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering form Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic
technique will you recommend for its detection? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) WIDAL (2) ELISA (3) MRI (4) Ultrasound
Sol. Answer (2)
Enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay– Test that uses antibodies and colour change to identify HIV (antigen).
WIDAL– Typhoid
MRI– Magnetic Resonance Imaging– Cancer.
Ultrasound– Used in medical imaging (visual representation of interior of body).
40. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Certain protozoans have been used to mass produce hepatitis B vaccine
(2) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation
(3) If due to some reason B and T lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against
a pathogen
(4) Injection of dead / inactivated pathogens causes passive immunity
Sol. Answer (3)
41. Read the following statement having two blanks (A and B).
“A drug used for (A) patients is obtained from a species of the organism (B) .”
The one correct option for the two blanks is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Blank-A Blank-B
(1) Swine flu Monascus
(2) AIDS Pseudomonas
(3) Heart Penicillium
(4) Organ transplant Trichoderma
Sol. Answer (4)

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20 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

42. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Caused by a Gram-negative bacterium (2) Not an infectious disease
(3) Caused by a virus (4) Caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
Sol. Answer (3)
Antibiotics are taken against bacterial infections not against viral infections.
Common cold is an infectious disease.
43. Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and
mode of infection [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Disease Causative Organisms Mode of Infection

(1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti With infected water and food

(2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax Bite of male Anopheles mosquito

(3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air

(4) Pneumonia Streptococcus pneumoniae Droplet infection

Sol. Answer (4)

44. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same Kingdom of
organisms as that of [AIPMT(Mains)-2011]

(1) Rhizopus, a mould (2) Ascaris, a round worm

(3) Taenia, a tapeworm (4) Wuchereria, a filarial worm

Sol. Answer (1)

45. Select the correct statement from the ones given below: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth

(2) Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a pain killer.

(3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate

(4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery

Sol. Answer (2)

46. Ringworm in humans is caused by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Nematodes

Sol. Answer (3)

Microsporum, Trichophyton, Epidermophyton are fungi causing ring worm.

47. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper T lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers

(2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person

(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection

(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent with proper care and nutrition

Sol. Answer (1)

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 21
48. Fastest distribution of some injectible material/ medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by
injecting it into the [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Muscles (2) Arteries (3) Veins (4) Lymph vessels
Sol. Answer (3)
49. Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (2) Radiography (X-ray)
(3) Computed tomography (CT) (4) Histopathological studies
Sol. Answer (1)
50. A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time
when? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) The sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen
(2) The trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins
(3) The parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh
RBCs
(4) The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs
Sol. Answer (3)
51. Which one of the following cannot be used for preparation of vaccines against plague?[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria
(2) Avirulent live bacteria
(3) Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material
(4) Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria
Sol. Answer (3)
52. Consider the following four statements (a–d) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct ones out
of these.
a. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppresants for a long
time.
b. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
c. The B lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.
The two correct statements are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) a & b (2) b & c (3) c & d (4) a & c
Sol. Answer (1)
Corrected statements are:
c. The T-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
d. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on matching of tissue.
53. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Preformed antibodies (2) Wide spectrum antibiotics
(3) Weakened germs (4) Dead germs
Sol. Answer (1)

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22 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

54. Alzheimer disease in humans is associated with the deficiency of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Acetylcholine
(3) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) (4) Dopamine
Sol. Answer (2)
55. Which one of the following statements is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis.
(2) Heroin accelerates body functions.
(3) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis.
(4) Patients who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain.
Sol. Answer (3)
56. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Nausea (2) Cough (3) Headache (4) Allergy
Sol. Answer (4)
57. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Physical barriers (2) Cytokine barriers (3) Cellular barriers (4) Physiological barriers
Sol. Answer (4)
58. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in Column II
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
Column I Column II
a. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema palladium
b. Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilized food and water
c. Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine
d. Syphilis (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
Sol. Answer (1)
59. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary euphoria
(2) Hashish causes after thought perceptions and hallucinations
(3) Opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations
(4) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
Sol. Answer (2)
The corrected statments are:
(1) Barbiturates depresses brain activity and produce feeling of calmness, relaxation.
(3) Opium suppresses brain function and produce temporary euphoria.
(4) Morphine relieve pain and called analgesic.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 23
60. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) It is a non-living layer (2) Its cells are least penetrable by bacteria
(3) It has no blood supply (4) It is composed of enucleated cells
Sol. Answer (3)
61. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) 45–70 MHz (2) 30–45 MHz (3) 15–30 MHz (4) 1–15 MHz
Sol. Answer (4)
62. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Most virus-infected cells (2) Certain fungi
(3) Certain types of bacteria (4) All viruses
Sol. Answer (3)
63. A person showing upredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others
is suffering from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Schizophrenia (2) Borderline personality disorder (BPD)
(3) Mood disorders (4) Addictive disorders
Sol. Answer (2)
64. Antibodies in our body are complex [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Lipoproteins (2) Steroids (3) Prostaglandins (4) Glycoproteins
Sol. Answer (4)
65. Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington’s chorea are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Bacteria-related diseases (2) Congenital disorders
(3) Pollutant-induced disorders (4) Virus-related diseases
Sol. Answer (2)
66. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) All lymphocytes (2) Activator B cells
(3) T4 lymphocytes (4) Cytotoxic T cells
Sol. Answer (3)
67. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and
drowsiness? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Valium (2) Morphine (3) Hashish (4) Amphetamines
Sol. Answer (1)
68. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?
(1) Rabies, mumps (2) Cholera, tuberculosis
(3) Typhoid, tetanus (4) AIDS, syphilis
Sol. Answer (1)
Rabies– Rhabdo virus, Mumps– Paramyxo virus Cholera, Tuberculosis, Typhoid, tetanus, syphilis are caused
by bacteria.
AIDS caused by HIV virus.

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24 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

69. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of the small intestine are known as
(1) Villi (2) Peyer's patches
(3) Rugae (4) Choroid plexus
Sol. Answer (2)
Villi– small, finger- like projections that protrude from thee epithelial lining of intestinal wall.
Rugae– large folds in the mucous membrane.
Choroid plexus– is a plexus in the ventricles of the brain where cerebrospinal fluid is produced.
70. Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands?
(1) Forming RBC (2) Destroying bacteria
(3) Forming WBC (4) Forming antibodies
Sol. Answer (1)
RBCs are formed in bone marrow.
Lymph glands serve to trap micro-organisms or other antigens which are present in lymph and tissues fluid.
These antigens activate lymphocytes which destroy these antigens.
71. Which one of the following is important as one of the first line of defence against inhaled and ingested
pathogen?
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgM (4) IgD
Sol. Answer (1)
It is the main immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions, tears, saliva, sweat, colostrum and secretions from
urinogenital tract, gastro genital tract, prostate and respiratory epithelium, which are all physical and
physiological barriers of innate immunity.
72. Saline solution is given to patients of cholera because
(1) Na+ prevents water loss from body (2) NaCl function as regulatory material
(3) NaCl produces energy (4) NaCl is antibacterial
Sol. Answer (1)
As Na+ is solute and it retains solvent in the body thus preventing loss of water from the body.
73. Interferons are synthesized in response to
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Bacteria
(3) Viruses (4) Fungi
Sol. Answer (3)
Interferons stimulate synthesis of anti-viral proteins. So they are used to control viral diseases but they do not
kill the virus.
74. The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated disease is
(1) Decreased efficiency of the immune system
(2) Insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
(3) Development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
(4) Activation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
Sol. Answer (3)
Antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria medicated disease because due to continuous exposure
to antibiotics bacteria develops resistance against these antibiotics by undergoing mutations.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 25
75. Carcinoma refers to
(1) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue
(2) Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
(3) Malignant tumours of the bone
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Carcinoma refers to malignant tumours of epithelial tissue derived from ectoderm.
76. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’ if the disorder is in
(1) Fibroblasts (2) Circulatory system (3) Immune system (4) Epithelial cells
Sol. Answer (1)
Sarcomas are malignant growths arising in tissues derived from primitive mesoderm.
Fibroblasts are mesodermal in origin.
77. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is
(1) Double stranded RNA (2) Double stranded DNA
(3) Single stranded DNA (4) Single stranded RNA
Sol. Answer (4)
Two single stranded molecules of RNA are found in HIV.
78. Which of the following is a viral glycoprotein that plays a role in the infection of human cells by HIV?
(1) gp 120 (2) CD4 (3) CCR5 (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
gp 120 is viral glycoprotein
It interacts with CD4+ receptor of the host cell.
CCR5 acts as a co-receptor.
79. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) The antigen binding site of the antibody molecule is called ‘paratope’
(2) Toxoids provide with passive immunity
(3) ‘ATS’ anti-tetanus serum provides us with artificially induced passive immunity
(4) The first gene therapy was done for SCID in which the gene for the enzyme adenosine deaminase was
introduced
Sol. Answer (2)
Toxoids (inactive toxins) provide active immunity.
80. The modern idea about ageing is that our body slowly loses the power of defence against the invasion of germs
and pathogens. This process starts by the disappearance of which organ?
(1) Pituitary gland (2) Spleen (3) Thymus gland (4) Parathyroid gland
Sol. Answer (3)
Thymus provides an inductive environment for development of T-cells. Thymus begins atrophy (partial or complete
wasting away of a part of the body) with age which slows down the power of defence against the invasion of
germs.
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26 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

81. Mark the incorrect statement

(1) Opioids are the drugs which bind to opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and
gastrointestinal tract

(2) Cocaine is obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca

(3) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescence of the plant Cannabis sativa

(4) LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) is most powerful hallucinogen extracted from Papaver somniferum

Sol. Answer (4)

LSD shows hallucinogenic properties and is obtained from Claviceps purpurea (fruiting body of fungus).
82. Which one of the following sets of items in the options (1) - (4) are incorrectly categorised with one exception
in it?

Items Category Exception

(1) PMNL, Interferons, NK cells Cellular barrier Interferons

(2) Rheumatoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis, AIDS Auto-immune disorders AIDS

(3) Plasmodium, Trypanosoma Entamoeba Protozoan parasites Entamoeba

(4) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Dengue Bacterial diseases Dengue

Sol. Answer (3)

Entamoeba is also a protozoan parasite. Interferons are cytokine barriers
AIDS is not an auto-immune disorder Dengue is a viral disease
83. Which of the following organisation is mainly related with AIDS?
(1) NACO (2) DOTS (3) RCH (4) WHO
Sol. Answer (1)
(1) NACO : National AIDS control Organisation
(2) DOTS : Tuberculosis– Directly observed Treatment Short-course.
(3) RCH : Reproductive and child health care programme– main aim to reduce infant, child and maternal
mortality rates.
(4) WHO : World Health Organization– Concerned with public health.
84. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother’s milk to the infant
is categorised as
(1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
(3) Cellular immunity (4) Innate non-specific immunity
Sol. Answer (2)
As readymade antibodies move across the placenta from mother to foetus.
Active immunity– When antibodies are produced in host body itself.
Cellular immunity: Immunity mediated by different type cells in body.
Innate non-specific immunity: Immunity present at the time of birth.

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Solution of Assignment Human Health and Disease 27
85. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
(1) There are three main types - cytotoxic T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor T-cells
(2) These originate in secondary lymphoid tissues
(3) They scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris
(4) These are produced in thyroid
Sol. Answer (1)
This is true about T-cells in mammals.
The corrected statements are:
(2) These originate in primary lymphoid tissues (bone marrow)
(3) Phagocytic cells like monocytes scavenge damaged cells and cellular debris.
(4) These get mature in thymus.
86. Which of the following pairs of diseases is viral as well as transmitted by mosquitoes?
(1) Elephantiasis and dengue (2) Yellow fever and sleeping sickness
(3) Encephalitis and sleeping sickness (4) Yellow fever and dengue
Sol. Answer (4)
Yellow fever and dengue are caused by virus and transmitted by Aedes mosquito.
Elephantiasis : Helminthic disease, transmitted by Culex mosquito.
Sleeping sickness : Protozoan disease, transmitted by tse-tse fly.
87. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
(1) Plague – Viral diseases (2) Malignant malaria – Plasmodium falciparum
(3) Common cold – Rhino virus (4) Trichophyton – Ring worm
Sol. Answer (1)
Corrected is: Plague: Bacterial disease

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Live attenuated vaccine is better in terms of immunity provided to the recipient.
R : As secondary lymphoid organs, example peyer's patches are stimulated to protect the individual.
Sol. Answer (1)
2. A : Asthma patients must never be exposed to dust.
R : Allergic response may cause vasoconstriction and death.
Sol. Answer (4)
Asthma patients can be exposed to dust but they should avoid exposure to dust as it can act as an allergen.
Allergic response may cause vasodilation and death.
3. A : Colostrum is a very efficient means of transferring immunity to a newborn.
R : IgM from mother’s milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.
Sol. Answer (3)
Colostrum is very efficient means of transferring immunity to new born because it has abundant antibodies (IgA)
to protect the infant.
IgA from mother's milk protects the baby from the respiratory infection usually affecting in young age.

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28 Human Health and Disease Solution of Assignment

4. A : Vaccine against AIDS has not been made inspite of repeated attempts.
R : HIV has the ability to get mutated to form several subtypes.
Sol. Answer (1)

5. A : Antibiotics like penicillin can be used to treat common cold.

R : Penicillin causes lysis of viral cells.
Sol. Answer (4)
Antibiotics like penicillin are taken against bacterial disease and common cold is viral disease.
Penicillin causes lysis of bacterial cells not viral cells.

6. A : It is considered advantageous to give the polio vaccine orally.

R : It prevents reinfection by causing intestinal immunity.
Sol. Answer (1)
7. A : Typhoid carriers may be cured by surgical removal of their gall bladder.
R : The disease germs remain concentrated in it.
Sol. Answer (1)
The bacteria of typhoid remain in gall bladder.

8. A : Cancer is contagious and cells can spread from one person to other.
R : Cancerous cells are highly dedifferentiated cells.
Sol. Answer (4)
Cancer is not contagious and cells do not spread from one person to other.

9. A : A person who has received a cut accidentally and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.
R : Anti-tetanus injection provides active immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.
Sol. Answer (3)
A person who has received a cut accident and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment because
antigen causing tetanus may have entered the body against which preformed antibodies have to be injected
to avoid the effect of antigen.
Anti-tetanus injection provides passive immunity by providing preformed antibodies for tetanus.

10. A : LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.

R : Both these drugs suppress brain function.
Sol. Answer (4)
LSD and marijuana are hallucinogens.
Both these drugs do not suppress brain function instead they alter thoughts, feelings and perceptions.

‰ ‰ ‰

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Chapter 18
Strategies for Enhancement in
Food Production

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions

(Animal Husbandry)
1. Animal husbandry deals with
(1) Only caring of livestock (2) Only breeding of livestock
(3) Both caring and breeding of livestock (4) Slaughtering of livestock
Sol. Answer (3)
Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock, which are useful to humans.

2. Which of the following animal is not included in livestock?

(1) Pig (2) Buffalo (3) Goat (4) Rhinoceros
Sol. Answer (4)
Livestock are the animals which are raised for our profit. It includes pig, buffalo, goat but not rhinoceros.

3. It is estimated that more than _______ of the world livestock population is in India and China.
(1) 25% (2) 70% (3) 40% (4) 50%
Sol. Answer (2)

4. Contribution of India and China to world farm produce is only

(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 15% (4) 25%
Sol. Answer (4)

(Management of Farms and Farm Animals)

5. All the following are objectives of dairy farm management, except

(1) Improvement in quality of milk
(2) Selection of good breeds having high yielding potential
(3) Selection of breeds which are vulnerable to diseases
(4) Maintenance of quality and quantity of fodder

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30 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

Sol. Answer (3)

Dairy farm management is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption and
it includes.
– Improvement in quality of milk.
– Selection of good breeds having high milk yielding potential.
– Maintenance of quality and quantity of fodder. Fodder should have all essential nutrients, vitamins, minerals
which ultimately improves the yield and quality of milk.

6. ________ is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption.
(1) Poultry (2) Dairying (3) Apiculture (4) Fisheries
Sol. Answer (2)
Dairying is the management of animals for milk and its products for human consumption.
Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl used for food and for their eggs.
Apiculture is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.
Fisheries is an industry devoted to the catching, processing and selling of fish, shellfish or other aquatic
animals.

7. Which of the following measure is taken to realise the yield potential of cattle?
(1) Proper housing (2) Adequate supply of water and fodder
(3) Stringent cleanliness and hygiene (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Proper housing– Cattle have to be well looked after and have to be housed well.
Cattle should have adequate water and fodder.
Cattle should be regularly cleaned.
All these should be done to realise the yield potential of cattle.

8. In dairy farm management, we deal with processes and systems that increase yield and improve quality of
milk. Which of the following statement is incorrect in this regard?
(1) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the quality of milk, therefore selection of high yielding breed is very
important
(2) The quality and quantity of fodder provided to cattle do not contribute much to the milk yield
(3) Cleanliness and hygiene both of the cattle and handlers are of paramount importance while milking, storage
and transport of the milk and its products
(4) Regular inspections, visits by a veterinary doctor with proper record keeping help identify and rectify the
problems of cattle as early as possible thus ensuring a proper milk yield
Sol. Answer (2)
The quality and quantity of fodder provided to cattle contributes much to the milk yield.
Fodder should have nutrients, minerals, etc.

9. Which of the following birds are included in poultry?

(1) Chicken and ducks only (2) Chicken, ducks, turkey
(3) Chicken only (4) Chicken, ducks, turkey, geese
Sol. Answer (4)
It may include other birds too for meat.
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Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 31
10. The chances of contracting bird flu from a properly cooked (above 100°C) chicken and eggs are
(1) Very high (2) High (3) Moderate (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (4)
If the chicken and eggs are cooked properly (above 70°C or more) there is no chance of contracting bird flu
as the virus dies above this temperature.

11. Which of the following can drastically affect the egg and chicken consumption in a country?
(1) Bird flu (2) Inbreeding (3) Out-crossing (4) Cross-breeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Bird flu is a viral disease in birds. Presence of virus in the bird can drastically affect the eggs and chicken
consumption.
Inbreeding, out crossing and cross-breeding are methods of improving the quality of chicken and eggs.

(Animal Breeding)

12. A good breed of cattle means

(1) It should have high yielding potential (2) It should have resistance to diseases
(3) It should consume less amount of water (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
A good breed of cattle means it should have all the desirable qualities to produce high yield and quality
products. For this it should have high yielding potential and resistance to diseases.
Good amount of water and food should be consumed.

13. Controlled mating followed by selection in order to obtain superior genotypes of domesticated animals is known as
(1) Animal Breeding (2) Weeding (3) Feeding (4) Heeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Feeding– To give food or supply with nourishment.
Weeding– Removal of unwanted plants.
Heeding– To pay attention to, listen to and consider.

14. A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred as
(1) Breed (2) Variety (3) Race (4) Species
Sol. Answer (1)
Variety– Varieties are usually the result of selective breeding and diverge from the parent species or sub-species
in relatively minor ways.
Race– Races may be distinct phenotypic populations within the same.
Species– Largest group of organisms capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring.

15. One of the following is an exotic breed of cattle

(1) Jersey (2) Leghorn
(3) Hisardale (4) None of the above is a breed of cattle
Sol. Answer (1)
Exotic breeds are foreign breeds.
Leghorn is an exotic breed of fowl.
Hissardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing of Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams.

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32 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

16. Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it

(1) Increases vigour (2) Improves the breed
(3) Increases heterozygosity (4) Increases homozygosity
Sol. Answer (4)
Inbreeding increases homozygosity thus it is necessary to evolve pureline in any animal.
It involves accumulation of desired genes and removal of undesired genes which ultimately improves the breed.

17. Which of the following is necessary to evolve a pureline in any animal?

(1) Out-breeding (2) Out-crossing (3) Cross-breeding (4) In-breeding
Sol. Answer (4)
In this superior males are mated with superior females of same breed which gives superior progeny thus
increasing homozygosity and evolving pure line in any animal.
Outbreeding involves mating of unrelated animals with no common ancestors upto 4-6 generation of same breed
(out crossing) or breeding between different breeds (Cross-breeding).
Both types of out-breeding does not evolve pureline in any animal.

18. Mule is an example of

(1) Interspecific hybridization, obtained by crossing male donkey and female horse
(2) Interspecific hybridization, obtained by crossing female donkey and male horse
(3) Out-crossing, obtained by crossing male donkey and female horse
(4) Cross breeding, obtained by crossing female donkey and male horse
Sol. Answer (1)
Interspecific hybridization means breeding male and female of two different species. Here donkey and horse
are two different species forming a hybrid.

19. Hisardale, a new breed of sheep is produced through

(1) Out-crossing (2) In-breeding
(3) Cross-breeding (4) Interspecific hybridization
Sol. Answer (3)
Hisardale is a breed produced by cross-breeding of two different breeds of same species i.e., Bikaneri ewes
and Merino rams.

20. Artificial insemination is advantageous because

(1) It is economical and success rate of fertilization is high
(2) Several cows can be fertilised by the semen collected from one bull
(3) The semen can be stored frozen for a long period and can be easily transported to remote parts of the
country
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Artificial insemination is injection of semen collected from male chosen as parent into reproductive tract of
selected female by the breeder.

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Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 33
21. The process in which semen is collected from the male that is chosen as a parent and injected into the
reproductive tract of the selected female by the breeder is known as
(1) Animal breeding (2) Artificial insemination
(3) MOET (4) Artificial spermatogenesis
Sol. Answer (2)
Animal breeding – It is the normal breeding of animals to improve the breed.
MOET – (Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer): Involves administration of homones, with FSH-like activity, to
induce follicular maturation and superovulation. The fertilized eggs are then recovered non-surgically at 8-32
cells stage and transferred to surrogate mothers.

22. Following are the steps in MOET programme for herd improvement in which a cow has been administered
hormones with FSH like activity. Arrange steps A to D in their correct sequence in MOET
A. Transferred to surrogate mothers.
B. It produces 6-8 eggs instead of one egg which they normally yield per cycle.
C. It is artificially inseminated or mated with an elite bull.
D. Fertilised eggs at 32 celled stage are recovered non-surgically.
(1) B, A, C, D (2) C, A, B, D (3) B, C, A, D (4) B, C, D, A
Sol. Answer (4)

(Bee-keeping)

23. Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes?
(1) Honey (2) Oil (3) Royal jelly (4) Beeswax
Sol. Answer (4)
Beeswax is secreted by abdominal wax glands of worker bees. It acts as an excellent support for moisturisers
and has an irritation potential of zero.
Honey has a medicinal value.
Oil– Mostly extracted from fishes.
Royal jelly– Secretion of young worker honey bees used for feeding larvae of future queens.

(Fisheries)

24. The term pisciculture means

(1) Inland fisheries (2) Aquatic plants (3) Marine fisheries (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Pisciculture is production of fishes (both fresh water & marine water)
Production of aquatic plants and aquatic animals are involved in aquaculture.

25. Blue revolution is enhancement in production of

(1) Milk (2) Egg (3) Fish (4) Wheat
Sol. Answer (3)
White revolution – Milk
Silver revolution – Egg
Green revolution – Wheat.
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34 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Management of Farms and Farm Animals)
1. The spread of bird flu can be prevented by
(1) Culling
(2) Breeding
(3) Separation of infected birds from the flock of undiseased ones
(4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Separation of infected birds from the flock of undiseased ones.
Culling– Segregating organisms from a group. In bird flu infected ones are segregated from non-infected ones.

2. Feeding constitutes the major management concern in poultry. It is required for high
(1) Egg production only
(2) Meat production only
(3) Both egg and meat production
(4) Feeding of birds in poultry is not of prime importance
Sol. Answer (3)
Feed should be nutrient rich for both egg and meat production.

3. To increase milk yield, cow is given

(1) Stilbesterol (2) Sorbitol (3) Gonadotropin (4) Prolactin
Sol. Answer (1)
Stilbesterol induces lactation
Sorbitol is given to relieve heart pain.
Prolactin is a pituitary hormone naturally present in animals which induces lactation.

4. Which of the following disease is caused by a protozoan Eimeria in fowls resulting in bloody diarrhoea?
(1) Fowl cholera (2) Coccidiosis (3) Thrush (4) Ranikhet
Sol. Answer (2)
Fowl Cholera– Pathogen Pasteurella (bacteria).
Thrush– Fungal infection.
Ranikhet– Viral infection.

5. If a cattle is showing increased respiration and blood mixed foamy discharge from mouth, nose and anus, it
is likely to be suffering from
(1) Rinderpest (2) Mad cow disease (3) Ranikhet (4) Anthrax
Sol. Answer (4)
Anthrax is a bacterial disease caused by Bacillus anthracis.

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Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 35
(Animal Breeding)

6. Which of the following is not an objective of animal breeding?

(1) Increasing yield of milk, eggs, meat, wool etc.
(2) Improving the desirable qualities of produce
(3) Slow growth rate
(4) Resistance to various diseases
Sol. Answer (3)
Improved growth rate is an objective of animal breeding.

7. An out-cross is produced when animals

(1) Within the same breed having common ancestors are mated
(2) Within the same breed having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 generations
are mated
(3) Of different breeds are mated
(4) Of different species are mated
Sol. Answer (2)
Option (1) Defines inbreeding
Option (3) Defines cross-breeding
Option (4) Defines interspecific hybridisation.

8. Which of the following is practised to overcome for average productivity in animals w.r.t. milk production, growth
rate in beef cattle etc?
(1) Out-crossing (2) Cross-breeding
(3) Interspecific hybridization (4) Inbreeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Cross-breeding allows desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.
Interspecific hybridization– Combine desirable features of two different species.
Inbreeding– Mainly increases homozygosity.

9. Hissardale, a new breed of sheep, developed in Punjab is obtained by crossing

(1) Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams (2) Merino ewes and Bikaneri rams
(3) Bikaneri ewes and Bikaneri rams (4) Merino ewes and Merino rams
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact

10. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. inbreeding?

(1) Inbreeding increases homozygosity
(2) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection
(3) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of deleterious alleles and elimination of desirable alleles
(4) Inbreeding helps in developing a pure-line in animal
Sol. Answer (3)
Inbreeding helps in accumulation of desirable alleles and elimination of deleterious alleles.

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36 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

11. Artificial breeding of cattle is brought about by

(1) Artificial insemination (2) Superovulation and embryo transplantation
(3) Interspecific hybridization (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Interspecific hybridisation is breeding of male and female of two different species.

12. The hormone injected to cow to induce follicular maturation and superovulation is having ______ like activity
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (3) Testosterone (4) FSH
Sol. Answer (4)
Follicle stimulating hormone– Stimulates the formation of follicle.
Estrogen– Causes proliferation of endometrium.
Progesterone– Functions in maintaining endometrium.
Testosterone– Male hormone- development of sperm (Spermatogenesis)

13. MOET has not been practiced in

a. Cattle b. Sheep c. Rabbits d. Poultry
(1) b, c & d (2) b & d (3) d only (4) c only
Sol. Answer (3)

14. Pure line breed refers to

(1) Heterozygosity only (2) Heterozygosity and linkage
(3) Homozygosity only (4) Homozygosity and self assortment
Sol. Answer (3)
When more closely related individuals are mated within the same breed for 4-6 generations the progeny obtained
is with increased homozygosity. Thus, a pureline is evolved.

15. A cow which give more milk per lactation is evolve into pure line by mating with superior bull of same breed
for 4-6 generation. Which type of breeding is being referred to in this case?
(1) Inbreeding (2) Outbreeding (3) Cross breeding (4) Out crossing
Sol. Answer (1)
For evolving a pureline inbreeding in necessary.

16. Which of the following is correct to check the inbreeding depression?

(1) Artificial hybridisation
(2) Cross breeding
(3) Selected animal should be mated with unrelated superior animals of the same breed
(4) Selected animal should be mated with unrelated superior animals of the different breed
Sol. Answer (3)
A single outcross can even overcome inbreeding depression.

17. Ranikhet is disease of

(1) Poultry (2) Fishery (3) Apiculture (4) Cattle
Sol. Answer (1)
Ranikhet is viral disease of poultry.

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Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 37
18. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Kashmiri goats (i) Superior carpet wool
b. Tibetian antelope (ii) Pashmina
c. Rabbit (iii) Shahtoosh
d. Sheep (Nali) (iv) Angoora
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (2)
a. Kashmiri goats– Pashmina: fine and soft wool used for shawls.
b Tibetian antelope– Shahtoosh: King of wool.
c. Rabbit– Angoora: Type of wool.
d. Sheep (Nali): Superior carpet wool.

(Bee-keeping)

19. Rearing of bees is

(1) Horticulture

(2) Apiary

(3) Apiculture

(4) Poultry

Sol. Answer (3)

Horticulture– is the branch of agriculture that deals with the art, science, technology and business of plant
cultivation.

Apiary– is a place where beehives of honey bees are kept.

Poultry– is the class of domesticated fowl used for food and for the eggs.

20. The most common species of honeybee reared commercially in artificial hives in India is

(1) Apis indica (2) Apis florea

(3) Apis mellifera (4) Apis dorsata

Sol. Answer (3)

It is an exotic breed of honeybee. It is also called as European honeybee or Italian bee.

This species of honeybee reared commercially in artificial hives in India because it is a better or efficient honey
producer than other Indian species. So to fulfill the needs of increasing population it is reared artificially.

Apis indica– Most common Indian species of honeybee.

Apis florea– Little bee or smallest honeybee.

Apis dorsata– The giant bee or rock bee. It is a defensive bee and it is not domesticated.

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38 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

21. A queen honeybee lays eggs of

(1) One type from which all castes develop
(2) Two types, one forming queen and workers and second type forming drones
(3) Three types forming queen, drone and workers
(4) Unfertilized-eggs die while fertilized ones form all castes
Sol. Answer (2)
Queen lays two types of eggs–
Fertilized eggs – Forms queen and workers.
Unfertilized eggs – Forms drones (Parthenogenesis).

(Fisheries)

22. Which of the following are edible marine fishes?

(1) Hilsa, Catla, Sardines

(2) Sardines, Mackerel, Rohu

(3) Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel

(4) Mackerel, Pomfrets, Common carp

Sol. Answer (3)

23. Aquaculture does not include production of

(1) Useful aquatic plants (2) Fish (3) Prawns (4) Silk
Sol. Answer (4)

Aquaculture includes all aquatic animals and plants production, which are useful to humans.

Production of silk is sericulture.

(Sericulture)

24. Pebrine in silkworm is caused by

(1) Dugesia (2) Monocystis (3) Nosema (4) Tachina flies

Sol. Answer (3)

Nosema bomycis causes pebrine disease in silkworm.

25. Shahtoosh is obtained from

(1) Lohi (2) Patanwadi (3) Chiru (4) Marwari
Sol. Answer (3)
Chiru is a Tibetian antelope. Shahtoosh– King of wools.
Lohi (breed of sheep)– Good quality wool, milk.
Patanwadi (breed of sheep)– Wool for army hosiery.
Marwari (breed of sheep)– Coarse wool.

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Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 39

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by
[NEET- 2017]
(1) Mating of related individuals of same breed
(2) Mating of unrelated individuals of same breed
(3) Mating of individuals of different breed
(4) Mating of individuals of different species
Sol. Answer (1)
Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity. Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same breed
will increase homozygosity.
2. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan? [Re-AIPMT- 2015]
(1) Blastomycosis (2) Syphilis (3) Influenza (4) Babesiosis
Sol. Answer (4)
Babesiosis is a disease caused by a protozoan, Babesia bigemina. The vector is tick, so disease is also called
tick fever in cattle.

3. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal husbandry because it [Re-AIPMT- 2015]

(1) Exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
(2) Helps in accumulation of superior genes.
(3) Is useful in producing purelines of animals.
(4) Is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression
Sol. Answer (4)
A single outcross (a type of outbreeding) is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression.

4. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Pasteurellosis (2) Salmonellosis (3) Coryza (4) New Castle disease
Sol. Answer (4)
New Castle disease– Caused by New Castle disease virus (NDV).
Coryza-Bacterial disease: Haemophilus paragallinarum.
Pasteurellosis– Bacterial disease: Pasteurella
Salmonellosis– Bacterial disease: Salmonella

5. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) From this upto eight identical twins can be produced
(2) The egg is divided into four pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of others cows
(3) In the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted
into the womb of other cows
(4) In the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in
culture media
Sol. Answer (3)

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40 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

6. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Bacterium (2) Prion (3) Worm (4) Virus
Sol. Answer (2)

7. The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Sheep
(2) Goat
(3) Goat-sheep cross
(4) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.

8. The term aquaculture means

(1) Inland fisheries (2) Culture fishery only
(3) Marine fisheries (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Aquaculture involves production of all useful aquatic plants and animals. It involves both inland and marine
fisheries.

9. Mating of more closely related individuals within the same breed for 4-6 generation is
(1) Outbreeding (2) Interspecific breeding
(3) Inbreeding (4) Cross breeding
Sol. Answer (3)
Interspecific breeding– Mating of different species.
Cross-breeding– Mating of different breeds of same species.

10. Inland fisheries involve

(1) Culturing fish in ponds
(2) Culturing endogenous breed of fish in deep sea and coastal areas
(3) Culturing exotic breed of fish in estuaries
(4) Culturing any breed of fish in marine water
Sol. Answer (1)
Inland fisheries include fresh water fisheries.
Deep sea and coastal areas, Estuaries, Marine water, all are marine water sources

11. Inbreeding depression occurs due to

(1) Continued out crossing within the small local population
(2) Continued cross breeding within the small local population
(3) Continued inbreeding within the small local population
(4) Interspecific hybridisation
Sol. Answer (3)
Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity.

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Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 41
12. Fishery is an industry devoted
(1) To the catching of fishes
(2) To the catching and processing of fishes and shell fishes
(3) To the catching, processing and selling of fishes, shell fishes, crabs, prawns etc.
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.

13. Which of the following types of bees intimate source of food to other workers by dancing movements?
(1) Drones (2) Scout bees (3) Nurse bees (4) Queen bees
Sol. Answer (2)
Drones– Fertile males: Fertilize the queen.
Queen bees– Fertile females: Give birth to new bees or offspring.
Nurse bees– Worker bee that look after young ones.

14. Which one is wrongly matched?

(1) Apiculture – Honey bee only
(2) Aquaculture – Fish only
(3) Sericulture – Silk moth only
(4) Poultry – Ducks
Sol. Answer (2)
Aquaculture involves production of all aquatic plants and animals.

15. Three carp fishes, Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina, can be grown together in the same pond more economically,
as they have
(1) Positive interactions (2) Commensalism
(3) Symbiosis (4) No competition for food
Sol. Answer (4)
As these carps have different feeding habits.

16. Out-crossing, cross-breeding and interspecific hybridization are included in

(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-breeding
(3) Inbreeding depression (4) Farm management
Sol. Answer (2)
Farm management: Management of farm like poultry farm, dairy farm etc.

17. In polyculture two or more than two species of fishes are grown together in the same water body based on
their
(1) Size (2) Feeding habits (3) Reproductive habit (4) Mode of respiration
Sol. Answer (2)
Different fishes can be cultured together as they have different feeding habits so there will be no competition
for food.

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42 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

18. Which of the following animal diseases is caused by a virus?

(1) Anthrax (2) Rinderpest (3) Tick fever (4) Coccidiosis
Sol. Answer (2)
Anthrax– Bacterial disease
Tick fever– Protozoan disease
Coccidiosis– Protozoan disease.

19. Mark the viral disease in cattle

(1) Cattle plague (2) Anthrax
(3) Foot and mouth disease (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)

20. White revolution is associated with enhancement of

(1) Fish production (2) Egg production
(3) Milk production (4) Wheat and rice production
Sol. Answer (3)
Fish production – Blue revolution
Egg production – Silver revolution.
Wheat and rice production – Green revolution.

21. Brooders pneumonia disease is connected with

(1) Honey bee (2) Hens (3) Fish (4) Pigs
Sol. Answer (2)
Brooders pneumonia is a fungal disease of poultry and observed in almost all birds.

22. Shahtoosh, the king of wools is obtained from

(1) Chiru (2) Kashmiri goat (3) Merino sheep (4) Rabbit
Sol. Answer (1)
Kashmiri goat– Pashmina
Merino sheep (exotic breed)– Soft and fine wool
Rabbit– Angoora wool

23. Tassar silk is obtained from

(1) Antherea roylei (2) Bombyx mori (3) Apis indica (4) Apis dorsata
Sol. Answer (1)
Tassar silk is obtained from oak-feeding larvae of silk moth. Mulberry silk is obtained from Bombyx mori.
Apis indica and Apis dorsata are different species of honey bees.

24. A protozoan disease of silk worm is

(1) Muscardine (2) Pebrine (3) Maggot disease (4) Flacherie
Sol. Answer (2)
Muscardine– Fungal disease
Flacherie– Viral disease
Maggot disease– Parasite larvae of fly.

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Solution of Assignment Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production 43
25. Which among the following is the real product of the honey bee?
(1) Honey (2) Propolis (3) Pollen (4) Bee wax
Sol. Answer (4)
It is secreted by abdominal wax glands of the worker bees.
Honey– is made by using nectar of flowers.
Propolis– it is a plant product. It is a resin from pollen grains.
Pollen– it is a fine coarse powder containing microgametophytes of seed plants. The worker bees collect pollen
in their pollen basket on their hind legs.

26. High milk yielding varieties of cows are obtained by

(1) Use of surrogate mothers (2) Super ovulation
(3) Artificial insemination (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
They are part of MOET.

27. Choose the species of honey bee that is most commonly found in Indian subcontinent
(1) Apis mellifera (2) Apis dorsata (3) Apis florea (4) Apis indica
Sol. Answer (4)
Apis mellifera– Italian bee.
Apis indica– Most common Indian species of honeybee.
Apis florea– Little bee or smallest honeybee.
Apis dorsata– The giant bee or rock bee. It is a defensive bee and it is not domesticated.

28. Entomophily through bees has resulted in enhanced production of crops, except
(1) Sunflower (2) Strawberry (3) Pears (4) Banana
Sol. Answer (4)
Entomophily– Pollination by insects
Banana crops do not exhibit pollination as their seeds are formed parthenogenetically.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Bulls not selected for breeding are castrated when young and converted to bullocks.
R : They are the main source of animal drought power in India.
Sol. Answer (2)
Castrated bulls are also used as drought animals.

2. A : Anthrax is caused by a bacterium.

R : Anthrax develops only in buffaloes and can't be transferred to human.
Sol. Answer (3)
Anthrax can develop in cattle, buffaloes, horse, sheep, goats and it can be transferred to human.
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44 Strategies For Enhancement in Food Production Solution of Assignment

3. A : In anthrax, the animal dies due to lack of oxygen.

R : The anthrax bacterium uses up the oxygen carried by the animal blood.
Sol. Answer (1)

4. A : Goat is called 'poor man's cow'.

R : It yields only a small quantity of milk.
Sol. Answer (1)

5. A : Multivoltine silkworms give upto eight crops per year.

R : Their cocoons contain a small amount of silk.
Sol. Answer (2)
Multivoltine silkworms are found in Bengal and Karnataka..

6. A : The Arabian camel is the only kind found in India.

R : The size of the hump is good indicator of its nourishment.
Sol. Answer (2)
The hump of camel contains fat.

7. A : Sericin is a gummy substance which is usually retained in case of silk till the yarn or fabric stage.
R : Sericin gives protection during processing.
Sol. Answer (1)

8. A : Poultry farming has definite advantage over live-stock rearing.

R : Poultry birds are easy to raise, can be acclimatised to a wide range of climatic conditions, have short life
span and are prolific breeders.
Sol. Answer (1)
Both assertion and reason are correct. Reason correctly explains assertion.

9. A : Encephalomalacia, disease of poultry is caused by the protozoan Eimeria.

R : Encephalomalacia causes bloody diarrhoea in poultry.
Sol. Answer (4)
Encephalomalacia, disease of poultry is caused by deficiency of vitamin E in which softening of brain tissue
occurs.

10. A : Fish meal is a rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
R : Fish meal is prepared from the non-edible parts of fishes such as tails, fins and bones.
Sol. Answer (2)

‰ ‰ ‰

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Chapter 19

Biotechnology - Principles
and Processes

Solutions

SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Principles of Biotechnology)
1. Select the option that is incorrect w.r.t. traditional hybridisation
(1) Procedure extensively used in plant breeding
(2) Often leads to inclusion of undesirable genes
(3) Involves selective inclusion and multiplication of desired genes only
(4) Enabled qualitative and quantitative improvement in food production
Sol. Answer (3)
Involves inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with desired genes.

2. Which of the following is the most accepted definition of biotechnology by European Federation of
Biotechnology?
(1) Maintenance of sterile ambience for enabling growth of desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large quantities
(2) Technique of using live organism or enzyme from organisms to produce products and processes useful
to animals
(3) Process which use genetically engineered animals only on a large scale for benefit of mankind
(4) The integration of natural science and organisms cells, parts thereof and molecular analogues for products
and services
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
(Tools of Recombinant DNA Technologies)

3. Credit for construction of first recombinant DNA may be given to

(1) Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace (2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(3) Meselson and Stahl (4) Esther and Joshua Lederberg
Sol. Answer (2)
Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (Fact/Data)
In 1972 they constructed 1st recombinant DNA.
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46 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

4. Which of the following enzymes has been incorrectly matched with their function?
(1) Ligase – Molecular glue
(2) Endonuclease – Chemical scalpel
(3) DNA polymerase – Joins nucleosides

(4) RNA polymerase – Joins nucleotides

Sol. Answer (3)
DNA polymerase– Joins nucleosides (Incorrect match)
DNA polymerase– Joins nucleotides (Synthesize a new strand of DNA complementary to an existing DNA
template).

5. The first restriction enzyme to be isolated and characterised was

(1) EcoRI (2) BamHI (3) Hind III (4) Hind II

Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.

6. Which of the following represents a correct palindromic sequence recognised by EcoRI?

5 – G A A T T C – 3 5 – C C C G G G – 3
(1) (2)
5 – C T T A A G – 3 3 – G G G C C C – 5

5 – G A A T T C – 3 5 – A T G C C G – 3
(3) (4)
3 – C T T A A G – 5 3 – T A C G G C – 5

Sol. Answer (3)

Fact.

7. The ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells is found in

(1) Ti plasmid (2) Retrovirus (3) All plasmids (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
– Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens : A. tumefaciens, a pathogen is able to deliver a piece of DNA
known as 'T-DNA to transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
– Retro virus : These viruses have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells.

8. Restriction in Restriction endonuclease enzyme refers to

(1) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA by the enzyme
(2) Cutting of DNA at specific position only
(3) Prevention of bacteriophage multiplication in bacteria
(4) Cutting each of the two strands of DNA at specific points in sugar phosphate backbone
Sol. Answer (3)
– The term 'restriction' refers to the function of these enzymes in restricting the propagation of foreign DNA
of bacteriophages in the host bacterium.
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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 47
9. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of the following enzymes is not used?

(1) Lysozyme (2) Ribonuclease (3) Protease (4) Deoxyribonuclease

Sol. Answer (4)
In order to isolate DNA, all other components of cell has to be broken down except DNA. So deoxyribonuclease
which breaks DNA should not be used.
Lysozyme (Damage or degrade bacterial cell wall): Enzyme that catalyzes degradation of cell wall.
Ribonuclease: Catalyzes the degradation of RNA.
Protease: Enzyme that performs proteolysis.

10. Which of the following steps is/are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR?
(1) Denaturation of template DNA (2) Annealing of primers to template DNA

(3) Extension of primer end on template DNA (4) All of these

Sol. Answer (3)
Extension of primer is done by adding nucleotides to the primer which is done by DNA polymerase here taq
polymerase.

11. Which of the following statements does not hold true for restriction enzyme?
(1) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide sequence
(2) It is an endonuclease
(3) It is isolated from bacteriophages

(4) It produces the same kind of sticky ends in different DNA molecules
Sol. Answer (3)
Restriction endonucleases are isolated form bacteria.

12. Gene of interest was cloned at site Sal I in pBR322. The recombinant plasmid will exhibit susceptibility to
(1) Tetracycline (2) Tetracycline and Ampicillin

(3) Ampicillin only (4) Broad spectrum of antibiotics

Sol. Answer (1)

In pBR322

Pvu l
Pst l ampR
tetR Sal l

It has two antibiotic resistance genes (ampR and tetR)

If a gene of interest is cloned at site Sal I in pBR322, the so formed recombinant plasmid will exihibit
susceptibility to tetracycline only as tetracycline resistant gene gets inactivated due to insertion.

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48 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

13. In case of Bam HI, H represents

(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Name of scientist (4) Strain

Sol. Answer (4)
B am HI
Order in which enzyme was isolated.
Genus Species Strain

14. Function of ‘ori’ site in a vector is to

(1) Initiate insertional inactivation
(2) Initiate replication
(3) Codes for the proteins involved in replication of the plasmid
(4) Initiate antibiotic resistance
Sol. Answer (2)
'ori' site is the site of origin of replication.

15. Normal E. coli cells carry resistance against which of the following antibiotics?
(1) Chloramphenicol
(2) Ampicillin
(3) Tetracycline
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (4)
E. coli cell usually does not carry resistance against any antibiotics.
(Processes of Recombinant DNA Technologies)

16. Which of the following statements is correct in the context of observing DNA separated by agarose gel
electrophoresis?
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in visible light
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen in visible light

(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be seen under exposure to UV light
Sol. Answer (4)
– Ethidium bromide is a molecule that becomes intercalated between the stacked bases of the DNA molecule.
Soaking a DNA containing gel in ethidium bromide will result in concentration of chemical within the DNA.
Illumination of the soaked gel with light in the UV range (260 – 300 nm) results in fluorescence of ethidium
bromide and the DNA shows up on the gel as a band of fluorescence.

17. In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules of different lengths are separated on the basis of their

(1) Charge only (2) Size only (3) Charge to size ratio (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
The DNA will not migrate at the same rate, larger piece of DNA collide with the gel matrix more often and
are slowed down, while smaller pieces of DNA move through more quickly.

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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 49
18. Significance of treating bacterial cells with calcium chloride before transformation is to facilitate
(1) Binding of DNA to the cell surface
(2) Uptake of DNA through membrane transport proteins
(3) Uptake of DNA by creating transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene
Sol. Answer (1)
Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. In order to force bacteria to take
up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made 'competent' to take up DNA. This is done by treating
them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium, which increases the efficiency with
which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall. Possibly, calcium chloride causes the DNA
to precipitate onto the outside of the cells or it may improve DNA binding.

19. Who among the following was awarded Nobel Prize for development of PCR technique?
(1) Herbert Boyer (2) Kary Mullis (3) Rene Descartes (4) Andrew Fire
Sol. Answer (2)
Kary Mullis: American biochemist– Noble prize in 1993

20. Method involving entry of high velocity gold microparticles coated with DNA into plant cell is
(1) Protoplast fusion (2) Transfection (3) Biolistics (4) Magic bullet action
Sol. Answer (3)
It is also known as gene gun.
Protoplast fusion: During fusion, two or more protoplasts come in contact and adhere with one another
spontaneously or in presence of fusion inducing chemicals, such as polyethylene glycol (PEG).
Transfection: Transfer of DNA into eukaryotic cell is called transfection.

21. Pure DNA precipitated by addition of chilled ethanol can be removed from solution by
(1) Elution (2) Gel electrophoresis (3) Spooling (4) PCR
Sol. Answer (3)
Spooling is a method of obtaining DNA in a form of spool over a glass rod at the last step of DNA extraction.
Elution is extraction of separated bands of DNA from agarose gel.
Gel electrophoresis is a method for separation and analysis of macromolecules and their fragments based on
their size using gel medium.
PCR polymerase chain reaction ensures amplification of gene of interest.

22. The optimum temperature for polymerisation in PCR is _______ while the enzyme responsible for the mentioned
step can tolerate temperatures upto ________. Select the correct option according to the blanks
(1) 95°C, 60°C (2) 94°C, 95°C (3) 72°C, 95°C (4) 95°C, 72°C
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.

23. Cells in continuous culture system are maintained in

(1) Stationary phase (2) Lag phase (3) Log phase (4) Either (1) or (3)
Sol. Answer (3)
Because in continuous culture system product is forming continuously and cells will grow exponentially in log
phase.
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50 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

24. Stirrer in stirred tank type bioreactor facilitates

(1) Oxygen delivery from outside to inside (2) Mixing and aeration
(3) Temperature control (4) Foam control
Sol. Answer (2)
Bioreactor has different system for oxygen, temperature and foam control.

25. Separation and purification by filtration, centrifugation of desired compound produced in bioreactor is a part of
(1) Downstream processing only
(2) Scaling up and downstream processing
(3) Upstream processing
(4) Screening for recombinants and downstream processing
Sol. Answer (1)
Downstreaming processing is the name given to the stage after fermentation when the desired product is
recovered and purified.

SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
(Tools of Recombinant DNA Technologies)

1. A chimaeric DNA is formed by

(1) Deleting selectable markers (2) Joining c-DNA with plasmid
(3) EcoRI (4) Enzyme -galactosidase
Sol. Answer (2)
Chimaeric DNA is recombinant DNA.

2. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionised plant genetic engineering one limitation of its use is that it
(1) Cannot infect broad leaf plants
(2) Cannot be used on fruit-bearing plants
(3) Cannot transmit prokaryotic genes
(4) Does not infect cereal plants such as corn and rice
Sol. Answer (4)
Ti plasmid of A. tumefacians does not infect cereals such as rice, corns, wheat, barley maize etc. .
Broad leaf plants and fruit bearing plants are mostly dicotyledonous and can be infected by Ti plasmid.
It can transmit prokaryotic genes.

3. A plasmid
(1) Shows dependent assortment
(2) Has ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA
(3) Cannot replicate
(4) Contains genes for vital activities
Sol. Answer (2)
Plasmid can replicate.
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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 51
4. Each restriction endonuclease functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. It cleaves _________
(1) Only the master strand to produce sticky end
(2) Sense strand of DNA to produce sticky ends
(3) Each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar phosphate backbones
(4) Messenger RNA to remove exons
Sol. Answer (3)

5. Which enzyme is required to prevent unwanted self-ligation of vector DNA molecules in recombinant DNA
technology?
(1) DNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase
(3) Alkaline phosphatase (4) Reverse transcriptase
Sol. Answer (3)
Alkaline phosphatase removes phosphate groups from the 5' ends of DNA molecules.

6. A set of bacterial clones, each containing a plasmid or phage, is called

(1) Gene library (2) Gene pool (3) Genophore (4) Genome
Sol. Answer (1)
Gene pool is the stock of different genes in interbreeding populations.
Genophore is the chromosomal DNA of a prokaryote.
Genome haploid set of chromosomes in a gamete.

7. Which of these are most widely used in genetic engineering?

(1) Plastid (2) Plasmid (3) Mitochondria (4) Ribosome
Sol. Answer (2)
Plasmids are much used because can replicate independently of the chromosomal DNA.
Plastid is a major double-membrane organelle found in the cells of plants and algae.
Mitochondria and ribosome are organelles found in the cells.
8. A tumor inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plants is that of
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Staphylococcus aureus (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Sol. Answer (4)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens: It can cause tumor by transferring a defined segment of DNA (T-DNA) from its
tumor inducing plasmid into the nuclear genome of plant cells.

9. Which of the following is not a basis of difference between chromosomal DNA and plasmid?
a. Presence of histones b. Nature of histone
c. Nature of nucleotide d. Linear form of genetic material
(1) b & c only (2) a & d only (3) a, b & d only (4) a, b, c & d
Sol. Answer (1)

10. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector helps in selection of

(1) Competent cells (2) Transformed cells (3) Recombinant cells (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)

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52 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

11. Select the option that excludes characteristics applicable to plasmids

a. Circular DNA
b. Linear DNA
c. Present in all bacteria
d. Contain essential genes
e. Extra chromosomal self-replicating
(1) b & d only (2) b, c & d only (3) d, b, e & c only (4) a only
Sol. Answer (2)
Plasmids are naturally occuring circular, extrachromosomal, autonomously replicating DNA, present in many
prokaryotic and few eukaryotic organisms.

12. Term ‘Disarmed’ in disarmed vector represents

(1) Removal of T-DNA from Ti plasmid
(2) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase gene
(3) Insertional inactivation of antibiotic gene
(4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Disarmed means without pathogenic property.

(Processes of Recombinant DNA Technologies)

13. Which of the following is not a method of introducing alien DNA into host cells?
(1) Microinjection (2) Heat shock method
(3) Being placed along with the cell into a gene gun (4) Gel electrophoresis
Sol. Answer (4)
Gel electrophoresis: Method for separation and analysis of macromolecules and their fragments based on their
size using gel medium.

14. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to

(1) Remove proteins such as histones (2) Precipitate DNA
(3) Break open the cell to release DNA (4) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.

15. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in

(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Spectrophotometry (3) Tissue culture (4) PCR
Sol. Answer (1)
Agarose gels have very large pore size and are used primarily to separate very large molecules with a molecular
mass greater than 200 K Da.
Spectrophotometry is a method to measure how much a chemical substance absorbs light by measuring the
intensity of light as a beam of light passes through sample solution.
Tissue culture involves the growth in an artificial medium of cells derived from living tissue.
PCR is a technique used to make multiple copies of a segment of DNA.

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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 53
16. PCR is used for
(1) Reverse transcribing RNA into DNA
(2) Digesting DNA
(3) Amplifying DNA
(4) Amplifying proteins and separating DNA
Sol. Answer (3)
PCR is polymerase chain reaction (in vitro replication of DNA)

17. Method in which recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell by using microneedles
is called as
(1) Gene gun method (2) Biolistic method
(3) Microinjection method (4) Indirect method
Sol. Answer (3)
Gene gun method is a method in which cells are bombarded with high velocity microparticles of gold or
tungsten coated with DNA.

18. Which of the following represents an advantage of growing cells in continuous culture as compared to a shake
flask?
(1) Cells can be maintained at a constant physiological state
(2) Most downstream and upstream processes are continuous in nature
(3) Continuous reactors do not need to be shut down and cleaned regularly
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.

SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is [NEET-2018]
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Sol. Answer (3)
This technique is used for making multiple copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps
(1) Denaturation
(2) Primer annealing
(3) Extension of primer
2. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as [NEET-2017]
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector (3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene
Sol. Answer (1)
In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and
selectively permitting the growth of the transformants.

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54 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

3. DNA fragments are [NEET-2017]

(1) Positively charged
(2) Negatively charged
(3) Neutral
(4) Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
Sol. Answer (2)
DNA fragments are negatively charged because of phosphate group.
4. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with [NEET-2017]
(1) Bromophenol blue (2) Acetocarmine (3) Aniline blue (4) Ethidium bromide
Sol. Answer (4)
Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands under UV
light.
5. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis? [NEET-2017]
(1) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(2) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
(3) Positively charged fragments move to farther end
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not move
Sol. Answer (2)
During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect
provided by agarose gel.
6. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Purification of product (2) Addition of preservatives to the product
(3) Availability of oxygen throughout the process (4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
Sol. Answer (3)
Stirred-tank bioreactor is provided with stirrer for availability of oxygen throughout the process.
7. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant
plasmid using [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Eco RI (2) Taq polymerase (3) Polymerase III (4) Ligase
Sol. Answer (4)
In DNA recombinant technology, linking of foreign DNA and plasmid is made possible by DNA ligase which is
also called "molecular glue".
8. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Separation (2) Purification (3) Preservation (4) Expression
Sol. Answer (4)
After the completion of biosynthetic pathway, downstreaming processing includes all the steps involved in
isolation, purification and preservation of products. All the steps before the completion of pathway are included
in upstreaming processing i.e., expression of genetic material.
9. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends? [NEET(Phase-2)-2016]
(1) Sal I (2) Eco RV (3) Xho I (4) Hind III

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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 55
Sol. Answer (2)
Eco RV cuts the DNA in the centre of restriction sites forming blunt ends.
The pallindromic sequence for Eco RV is

5 3
G AT AT C
C T AT A G
3 5

10. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids? [NEET-2016]

(1) Single-stranded (2) Independent replication
(3) Circular structure (4) Transferable
Sol. Answer (1)
Plasmid is extrachromosomal, double stranded circular DNA.
11. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from [NEET-2016]
(1) Pseudomonas putida (2) Thermus aquaticus
(3) Thiobacillus ferroxidans (4) Bacillus subtilis
Sol. Answer (2)
Taq polymerase is thermostable DNA polymerase obtained from Thermus aquaticus.
12. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease? [NEET-2016]
(1) RNase (2) Hind II (3) Protease (4) DNase I
Sol. Answer (2)
Hind II is a restriction endonuclease.
13. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called [ReAIPMT-2015]
(1) Carrier (2) Transformer (3) Vector (4) Template
Sol. Answer (3)
The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called vector.
14. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of [ReAIPMT-2015]
(1) Ligases (2) Restriction enzymes (3) Probes (4) Selectable markers
Sol. Answer (2)
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of restriction enzymes called
molecular scissors or knife.
15. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome (2) Yeast artificial chromosome
(3) Plasmid (4) Cosmid
Sol. Answer (3)
Plasmid can clone only a small fragment of DNA about 10 kbp size
Cosmid – 45 kbp
YAC – 1 Mbp/1000 kbp – 2,500 kbp
BAC – 300 to 350 kbp

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56 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

16. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by
[NEET-2013]
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) Electrophoresis
(3) Restriction mapping (4) Centrifugation
Sol. Answer (2)
17. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
[NEET-2013]
(1) Plant cells - Cellulase (2) Algae - Methylase
(3) Fungi - Chitinase (4) Bacteria - Lysozyme
Sol. Answer (2)
18. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria
because of [NEET-2013]
(1) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
(2) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
(3) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
(4) Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase
Sol. Answer (2)
19. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) It is isolated from a virus
(2) It remains active at high temperature
(3) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells
(4) It serves as a selectable marker
Sol. Answer (2)
20. For transfomation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Silicon or Platinum (2) Gold or Tungsten (3) Silver or Platinum (4) Platinum or Zinc
Sol. Answer (2)
21. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options
correctly identifies its certain component(s)? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Cla I Hind III
Eco RI
Pvu I
Bam HI
Pst I amp R

tetR
pBR322 Sal I

ori
rop

Pvu II
R R
(1) amp , tet - antibiotic resistance genes (2) ori-original restriction enzyme
(3) rop-reduced osmotic pressure (4) Hind III, EcoRI-selectable markers
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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 57
Sol. Answer (1)
The corrected options
(2) ori– origin of replication
(3) rop– codes for the proteins involved in the replication of the plasmid.
(4) Hind III, EcoRl– Restriction sites
22. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) DNA fingerprinting
(2) Disarming pathogen vectors
(3) Transformation of plant cells
(4) Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
Sol. Answer (3)
As gene gun inserts recombinant DNA into host cells which leads to transformation of plant cells.
23. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) To keep the cultures free of infection (2) As selectable markers
(3) To select healthy vectors (4) As sequences from where replication starts
Sol. Answer (2)
The host cells must naturally be sensitive to the antibiotic in questions so that any vector molecule which
transforms a host cell can confer antibiotic resistance. By plating transformed cells on a medium containing
the antibiotic, only those cells that have been transformed by vector molecules survive.
24. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving
correct identification together with what it represents ? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

3 5
5 3

(1) A – Annealing with two sets of primers

(2) B – Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separatiing the two DNA strands
(3) A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
(4) C – Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (4)
25. Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

5  GAATTC  3 5  CCAATG  3 5  CATTAG  3 5  GATACC  3

(1) (2) (3) (4)
3  CTTAAG  5 3  CAATCC  5 3  GATAAC  5 3  CCTAAG  5

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58 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

Sol. Answer (1)

Palindromic sequence is a sequence of base pairs that read same on the two strands when orientation of
reading is kept same.
26. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for?[AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) coli (2) colon (3) coelom (4) coenzyme
Sol. Answer (1)

E co R I Order in which enzyme were isolated

Escherichia Rough strain (RY13 strain)

coli
27. Given below is a sample of a portein of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What
is so special shown in it?
5'______ GAATTC _____ 3'
3'______ CTTAAG ______ 5' [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Palindromic sequence of base pairs (2) Replication completed
(3) Deletion mutation (4) Start codon at the 5' end
Sol. Answer (1)
28. Which one of the following techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Heavier isotope labelling (2) Hybridization
(3) Recombinant DNA techniques (4) X-ray diffraction
Sol. Answer (3)
29. Continuous addition of sugars in 'fed batch' fermentation is done to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Degrade sewage (2) Produce methane
(3) Obtain antibiotics (4) Purify enzymes
Sol. Answer (3)
Conditions in which continuous addition of sugars in fed batch fermentation is done to obtain antibiotics.
30. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Gel electrophoresis (2) Spectrophotometry
(3) Tissue Culture (4) PCR
Sol. Answer (1)
31. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Retrovirus (2) Baculovirus
(3) Salmonella typhimurium (4) Rhizopus nigricans
Sol. Answer (1)
Retroviruses are most commonly used as they have a relatively high insert capacity.
32. Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut by EcoRI?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) 5CACGTA3 (2) 5CGTTCG3
3...............CTCAGT5 3ATGGTA5
(3) 5GATATG3 (4) 5GAATTC3
3CTACTA5 3CTTAAG5
Sol. Answer (4)
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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 59
33. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA molecule
(2) Make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(3) Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(4) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (2)
Restruction endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule.

34. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for [AIPMT(Prelims)-2010]

(1) Availability of oxygen throughout the process
(2) Addition of preservatives to the product
(3) Purification of the product
(4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
Sol. Answer (1)

35. Which of the following are used in gene cloning? [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
(1) Nucleoids (2) Lomasomes (3) Mesosomes (4) Plasmids
Sol. Answer (4)

36. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a vector.
Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more
of these can be used as a vector/ vectors [AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
Statements
(A) A bacterium (B) Plasmid
(C) Plasmodium (D) Bacteriophage
(1) (A), (B) & (D) only (2) (A) only (3) (A) & (C) only (4) (B) & (D) only
Sol. Answer (4)

37. Gel electrophoresis is used for [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Isolation of DNA molecule
(2) Cutting of DNA into fragments
(3) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
(4) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
Sol. Answer (3)

38. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Exonucleases (2) DNA ligase (3) Endouncleases (4) DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (2)

39. Restriction endonuclease [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(2) Cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(3) Restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus
(4) Synthesizes DNA
Sol. Answer (2)

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60 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

40. Microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage
(3) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp.
(4) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis elegans
Sol. Answer (1)

41. Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because

[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA splicing reactions
(2) The human chromosome can replicate in bacterial cell
(3) The mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
(4) The genetic code is universal
Sol. Answer (4)

42. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Lipase (2) Exonuclease
(3) Endonuclease (4) Protease
Sol. Answer (3)

43. All the following statements about Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer are correct but one is wrong. Which one
is wrong?
(1) They discovered recombinant DNA (r-DNA) technology which marked the birth of modern biotechnology.
(2) They first produced, healthy sheep clone, a Finn Dorset lamb, Dolly, from the differentiated adult mammary
cells.
(3) They invented genetic engineering by combining a piece of foreign DNA containing a gene from a bacterium
with a bacterial (E. coli) plasmid using the enzyme restriction endonuclease.
(4) They isolated the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was responsible
for conferring antibiotic resistance.
Sol. Answer (2)
Dolly was cloned by Ian Wilmut and Campbell.

44. There are three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism. Which of the following is wrong statement
about the process?
(1) Identification of the DNA with desirable genes
(2) Cleaving DNA segments with ‘ligase’ and joining them with endonuclease
(3) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
(4) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of DNA to its progeny
Sol. Answer (2)
Cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and joining them with 'ligase'.

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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 61
45. What is true for plasmid?
(1) Plasmids are used widely in gene transfer (2) These are found in viruses
(3) Plasmids contain genes for vital activities (4) These are main part of chromosome
Sol. Answer (1)
These are found in bacteria and some yeast cells.
Chromosomal DNA contains vital genes necessary for cell.
Plasmid is extra chromosomal DNA.

46. Extraction of bands of DNA from the agarose gel is termed as

(1) Down stream processing (2) Upstream processing
(3) Elution (4) Insertional inactivation
Sol. Answer (3)
Down streaming processing the recovery and purification of biosynthetic products, particularly
pharmaceuticals, from natural sources such as animal or plant tissue or fermentation both, including the
recycling of salvageable components.
Upstreaming processing process from cell isolation and cultivation to cell banking and culture expansion of
the cells until final harvest.
Insertional inactivation is the inactivation of a gene upon insertion of another gene inside in its place or within
its coding sequence.

47. In plant biotechnology, PEG is used in

(1) Protoplast isolation (2) Cell culture preparation
(3) Protoplast fusion (4) Hardening
Sol. Answer (3)
Certain chemicals, such as polyethylene glycol (PEG), act as fusogen, agents that cause cell membranes
to fuse together. This can be exploited to transfect plant cells by mixing them with other cells containing large
amounts of plasmid DNA.

48. Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindromic site, but between
the same two bases on the opposite single stranded strands, these overhanging stretches formed on each
strand are called __________
(1) Blunt ends (2) Sticky ends
(3) Staggered end (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
In Blunt ends the cleavage point occur exactly on the axis of symmetry.

5'–G–A–T–A–T–C–3' EcoRV 5'–G–A–T A–T–C–3'

3'–C–T–A–T–A–G–5' 3'–C–T–A T–A–G–5'
Blunt cut
Cleavage site

5'–G–A–A–T–T–C–3' EcoRI 5'–G 5'–AA–T–T–C–3'

3'–C–T–T–A–A–G–3' 3'–C–T–T–A–A–5' G–5'
Stick or staggered cut

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62 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

49. Which of the following is considered as molecular glue?

(1) Alkaline phosphatase (2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) DNA ligase (4) DNA polymerase
Sol. Answer (3)
DNA ligase: Catalyzes the joining of DNA strands together.
Alkaline phosphatase: Removes phosphate groups from the 5' ends of DNA molecules, which prevents these
molecules from being ligated to one another.
Restriction endonuclease: Enzyme that cuts DNA at or near specific recognition nucleotide sequence.
DNA polymerase: Enzymes that create DNA molecules by assembling nucleotides, the building blocks of DNA.

50. Genetic engineering is possible because

(1) DNA can be cut at specific sites by endo nucleases like DNAase
(2) Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
(3) The phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
(4) DNA can be seen by electron microscope
Sol. Answer (2)
Restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro.

51. What would happen if a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, -
galactosidase?
(1) This will result in the inactivation of the enzyme
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate will give blue coloured colonies
(3) The recombinant colonies do not produce any colour
(4) Both (1) & (3) are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
Blue coloured colonies are produced when plasmid does not have an insert.

52. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because they are

(1) Easily available
(2) Able to integrate with host chromosome
(3) Able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA
(4) May contain DNA sequences coding for drug resistance
Sol. Answer (4)
Plasmids replicate independent of main genome.
Plasmid is extra chromosomal DNA and there is no integration with host chromosome.

53. The term ‘B’ and ‘R’ in the name pBR322 represents which of the following?
(1) Name of the scientists
(2) Name of the restriction endonuclease enzymes
(3) Name of cities in U.S.A.
(4) Name of the strain of bacterias used

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Solution of Assignment Biotechnology - Principles and Processes 63
Sol. Answer (1)
p-plasmid
BR– Boliver and Rodriguez
322– Distinguishes this plasmid from others developed in the same laboratory.

54. You suspect your patient to be suffering from a bacterial disease, however the number of bacteria in the
patient’s body is very less. Which method can help you detect these pathogens in the laboratory?
(1) Hybridoma technology (2) PCR
(3) Somatic hybridization (4) DNA fingerprinting
Sol. Answer (2)
It helps to detect very low concentration of bacteria or virus at the time when the symptoms of the disease
are not visible by amplification of their nucleic acid.

55. Downstreaming process in biotechnology refers to

(1) The process which includes separation and purification of the product, after the completion of the biosynthetic
stage
(2) Large scale production of a product, by using bioreactors
(3) The cells harbouring cloned genes of interest, being grown on a small scale
(4) The microbes which act upon the substrate are cultured and added into the fermenter
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

56. cDNA is
(1) Formed by reverse transcriptase (2) Cloned DNA
(3) Circular DNA (4) Recombinant DNA
Sol. Answer (1)
cDNA (complementary DNA) is a double stranded DNA synthesized from a messenger RNA template in a
reaction catalysed by enzyme reverse transcriptase.
Cloned DNA– DNA created by copying of DNA fragements, cells, or organisms.
Circular DNA is a form of DNA that is found in viruses, bacteria.

Recombinant DNA– DNA that has been formed artificially by combining constituents from different organisms.

SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : DNA ligase plays an important role in recombinant DNA technology.

R : The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with plasmid vector became possible by enzyme DNA ligase.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

2. A : Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.

R : Each restriction enzyme recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
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64 Biotechnology - Principles and Processes Solution of Assignment

3. A : During gel electrophoresis, the DNA fragments move towards the anode.
R : DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules.
Sol. Answer (1)
DNA is negatively charged due to phosphate.

4. A : Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is cumbersome procedure.

R : It requires simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

5. A : Taq Polymerase is involved in PCR technique.

R : This enzyme remain active during the high temperature including denaturation of double stranded DNA.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

6. A : Myocardial infarction can now be treated more effectively due to genetic engineering.
R : Streptokinase produced by Streptoccocus and modified by RDT is used as a clot buster for removing
thrombus.
Sol. Answer (1)

7. A : Disarmed Ti plasmid can be utilised as a shuttle vector.

R : It can survive in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
Sol. Answer (1)

8. A : Pst I generates single stranded over hanging stretches in DNA after digestion that facilitate ligation.
R : These short extensions can form phosphodiester bonds with their complementary counterparts.
Sol. Answer (3)
The short extensions form covalent bonds with their complementary counter parts.

9. A : Ethidium bromide helps in visualizing DNA in UV light only.

R : This intercalating agent absorbs light in range 260 – 330 nm.
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.

10. A : To extract RNA from tomato cells it must first be treated with cellulase, protease and then
deoxyribonuclease.
R : Deoxyribonuclease will digest DNA while RNA will be intact.
Sol. Answer (2)

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